19 May

2016

SBI CLERK
Junior Associates
PRELIMS EXAM
MOCK PAPER - 1
Since SBI Clerk (JA) 2016 Exam is knocking at your door, standing as
another opportunity. All of you prepared assiduously, now the time has
been come to cease this opportunity and to taste the first success. You
commenced your journey from scratch and now you are all set to sail
over the horizon. Banking Mantras rendered you many things to fortify
your chances of getting selected in this exam but, by making sure and
not leaving any stone unturned in your this journey, here we are
rendering you the first Mock Paper for SBI Clerk (JA) 2016 Prelims
exam. We anticipate the Mock Tests which you are getting will be
proved cog in the wheel in your preparation.

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 SBI Clerk JA 2016 Prelims Mock Test
Paper Pattern:
 Total Number of Questions : 100
 Mark for each Question : 1 mark
 Total Time Allotted : 1 hour (60 minutes)

English Language
Directions (Q1 to Q10): The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most
appropriate answer to each question.

Nothing shows up the schizophrenia of the Indian mind in the face of this challenge than that the two
principal leaders of the national struggle for independence Mahatma Gandhi and Mr. Nehru should have
come to contrary conclusions. The Mahatma was for an outright rejection of the western civilization, which
is often described as Satanic. Mr. Nehru was for all-out industrialization. Both spoke from utter conviction
and were extremely articulate in stating their positions. But neither of them thought it worth his while to
grapple with the troublesome details when it came to making the reality conform to the vision.
The Mahatma was, of course, most meticulous about detail and when he undertook a job, whether it was the
spread of the spinning wheel, revival of village industries or helping the Harijans, he did not regard the
smallest matter pertaining to the concerned organization or an individual grievance beneath his personal
attention. It was a different story, however, with translating his larger vision of a non-violent society into a
blueprint.

He enunciated the general principal very forcefully. But such details as the state structure the new society
would build and the social legislation it would undertake, the precise industrial policy it would pursue or the
defense policy it would opt for, he left alone or dealt with in bits and pieces. Did he fear that his vision
would suffer by raising all these issues at one go? Or did he realize long before the day of India's tryst with
destiny that he would not count on anyone even among his closest colleagues in the Congress to back him?

Mr. Nehru was in a much better position to carry out his ideas. But the very Constitution-making process
became a formal exercise. There was no attempt to think in terms of institutions, which while preserving the
substance of democracy, would contain populist pressures, make government more business-like and more
productive of results and make for easy and cheap access to justice. All this is not to believe his role in
guiding the young republic in its formative years and setting norms which none of the regimes that came

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after him were also to live up to. But that does not detract from the processes of decline. The proliferation
of slums had begun, and small groups were already hogging up the larger part of the gains of development.
No concerted attempt was made to close the loopholes in land laws and little was done to make school
education relevant to the needs of a developing society. The language policy was left to flounder.

That the people still look back to the Nehru era with a sense of nostalgia shows that even things which
looked manageable in his days are now out of control. Perhaps this is the result of deterioration in the quality
of leadership, a distressing decline in the integrity of political life and an alarming build-up of populist
pressure. But it also is the result of the way each government has been busy storing up trouble for future.
Can one be sure after all this that the foundations on which the republic rests is durable enough?

What light does this throw on the Indian mind? The Indian mind delights in ambiguity in ambivalence, in
trying to have the best of both worlds, in harboring a medley of conflicting ideas without much discomfort.
Whatever the public rhetoric, the practice is always based on half- measures, of leaving things half done, of
a refusal to anticipate trouble and a tendency to wake up when the crisis has already matured, this may be an
exaggeration. But the slovenliness of approach to every problem is a fact of life which hits in the eye even
the most sympathetic foreign observer.

It is not surprising that the Indian genius who excelled in production myths, which created works of
sculpture 'which endow the spirit with a body' and a music which enthralls the mind as well as the spirit, was
often at a loss in facing up to the problems of state building. The Indian mind still falters as it tries to come
to grips with these problems.

Q1. What is the main purpose of the writer behind writing this passage?
a) To bring out the contrast in Nehru's and Gandhi's dreams and vision of India.
b) To bring out the flaws in Indian democracy.
c) To trace the reasons behind the disordered state of India as one based on hollow foundation laid by
leaders in the past.
d) To show the impact of Western Civilization on today's India.
e) To bring out the past as a disordered and mismanaged government as a result of improper implementation
of the job undertaken by leaders.

Q2. What is the main idea expressed in the passage?

a) The passage expresses the vision and dreams of Indian leaders for a better future.
b) The passage expresses the shaping up of a disorganized state due to the constricted vision of our leaders.
c) The passage is an account of a successful democratic set up of the Indian government as a result of the
policies made by our leaders.
d) The passage explains how the Constitution was made and what clauses it included.
e) The passage gives an account of the mismanaged government due to the formulation of faulty laws.

Q3. Provide a suitable title to the passage.

a) Leaders of the Freedom Struggle
b) Nehru's and Gandhi's Vision of India
c) History of Indian Democracy
d) Reflections of the Past in the Present India
e) Lack of Effective Leaders in India Today

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Q4. What are the writer's feelings towards the subject of the passage?
a) The writer is not satisfied with the present situation of mismanagement.
b) The writer is comfortable with the medley of conflicting ideas present in today's world.
c) The writer is nostalgic about the times when Nehru led India.
d) The writer is depressed because of lack of efforts on part of Indian leaders to implement their ideas into
practice.
e) The writer is unaffected with the past or present.

Q5. What is the purpose of the writer behind mentioning Mahatma Gandhi and Nehru?
a) To give an example of effective leadership to today's incompetent leaders.
b) To explain that they were incapable of putting their vision into practice which has resulted in the present
situation.
c) To bring out a contrast in the thinking of the two leaders towards the industrialization.
d) To explain their policies and vision they held for all around development of India.
e) To explain that they had high dreams and vision for the country which could take India to a bright future.

Q6. What is the writer's interpretation of the way Indians have accepted the situations?
a) Indians are delighted with the excellent conditions present.
b) Indians are proud of the leaders of freedom struggle.
c) Indians are sentimental about the glorious past of Nehru's times.
d) Indians are disappointed by non-implementation of the dreams of leaders into reality.
e) Indians have comfortably accepted the existing state of India along with its shortcomings and disorder.

Q7. Which of the following lies beyond the scope of the passage?
a) Mahatma Gandhi favored the use of spinning wheel in place of western culture.
b) Mahatma Gandhi dealt with the formation of the structure of the state in bits and pieces.
c) The government did not make an effort to remove the deficiency in the laws of land.
d) Mahatma could not give personal attention to the revival of village industries since he felt that his vision
would not materialize as a whole.
e) It is a custom in India to leave things incomplete till it becomes dangerous.

Q8. Complete the following sentence according to your understanding of the passage.

According to the writer, the things are mismanaged today since_________

a) Indians do not have leaders like Gandhi and Nehru to control the situations leading to a disorderly state.
b) the population of India has increased manifold and enough attention cannot be paid to the grievances of
all.
c) small groups are consuming the larger part of the gains of development.
d) the government did not form an easily accessible judiciary.
e) the government has been ignoring issues and piling up problems for the future.

Q9. Choose the word that is same in meaning as the word “Proliferation” as used in the passage.
a) expansion
b) increase
c) decrease
d) reduction
e) resurrection

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Q10. Choose the word that is opposite in meaning of the word “ambivalence” as used in the passage.
a) ambiguity
b) slovenliness
c) deviance
d) conflict
e) certainty

Directions (Q11 -Q15): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic
error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If
there is no error, the answer is (5) (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

Q11. The central government would (a)/ again come to the conclusion (b)/ that no one was responsible for
the lapses that result (c)/ in the humiliating attack and the mismanaged counter terror operation. (d)/ No
error (e)

Q12. There is some Valid in (a)/ the argument that the desired (b)/ level of the fiscal deficit should (c)/
depend upon the phase of the cycle. (d)/ No error (e)

Q13. Private consumption could (a)/ pick up partly because of the benefit (b)/ accruing the consumers due
(c)/ to the fall in petroleum prices. (d)/ No error (e)

Q14. Thousands of premature deaths (a)/ and risings rates of asthma episodes (b)/ highlighted the urgent
need to make a radical (c)/ and complete shift to modern fuels and vehicle technologies. (d)/ No error (e)

Q15. Apple’s team will work to inspire and instruct (a)/ developers on best practices, help them hone (b)/ their skills
and transform the design, (c)/ quality and performance of their apps on the iOS platform. (d)/ No error (e)

Directions (Q16-20): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) and (G) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) Many of these issues were underscored by the Saumitra Chaudhuri Committee on Auto Fuel Vision and
Policy 2025 in its report submitted in 2014.
(B) Moreover, the monitoring of diesel passenger and commercial vehicles – the biggest contributors to total
emissions – for compliance with emissions regulations remains poor.
(C) Improved air quality, especially in big urban centres, depends on several factors in an era of fast
motorisation. A bloated population of vehicles using fossil fuels has affected travel speeds, worsening
pollution levels.
(D) The panel also recommended appropriate levies to fund the transition to cleaner, low sulphur fuels.
(E) Poor civic governance has left roads unpaved and public spaces filled with debris and construction dust,
constantly re-circulating particulate matter in the air.
(F) Equally, the distortions in urban development policy that facilitate the use of personal motorised vehicles
rather than expanding good public transport, walking and cycling, are glaring.
(G) Such a record does not inspire confidence that retrofitting of old vehicles to use higher quality fuels such
as BS VI can be achieved smoothly.

Q16. Which of the following should be the FIRST statement after rearrangement?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E

Q17. Which of the following should be the FIFTH statement after rearrangement?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) F (e) E
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Q18. Which of the following should be the SECOND statement after rearrangement?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E

Q19. Which of the following should be the THIRD statement after rearrangement?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E

Q20. Which of the following should be the FOURTH statement after rearrangement?
(a) A (b) B (c) G (d) D (e) E

Directions (Q21-Q25): In the sentence below a word is given as blank, below the sentence five
words/group of words are suggested, one of which can replace the blank. Find the appropriate word/group of
words in each case.

There are two forces behind America’s __(21)__ progress in halting the regular occurrence of gun __(22)__ in public
spaces. The first is what Mr. Obama described as the “lies” of the pro-gun lobby, whose lifeblood is the influential
National Rifle Association, funded largely by gun manufacturers. After every mass killing with guns, NRA
spokespersons proclaim in the American media that the only answer to gun deaths is __(23)__ guns. Their efforts
are __(24)__ by Republican presidential hopefuls such as Donald Trump. The second, more intractable, impediment
facing any would-be reformer is the U.S.’s cultural proclivity for gun ownership. Even though a Quinnipiac poll last
month found 89 per cent overall support for expanded background checks, a CNN poll the same month found that
only 48 per cent of Americans favoured stricter gun control laws. Like any other cultural revolution, unwinding this
national obsession with guns will be a slow process. Ultimately the realisation must dawn that, contrary to the
Second Amendment’s promise that the right to bear arms will protect the public from the tyranny of government, in
the 21st century it is the __(25)__ of firearms that truly threatens the American way of life.

21.
(a) fathomable (b) abysmal (c) shallow (d) bottomless (e) ridiculous

22.
(a) rampant (b) quickly (c) rampages (d) gradually (e) expedite

23.
(a) more (b) much (c) most (d) many (e) better

24.
(a) robust (b) robuster (c) incapacitate (d) bolstered (e) enfeebled

25.
(a) dictating (b) sycophancy (c) tyrant (d) tyranny (e) irony

Directions (Q26-Q30): Pick out the most effective pair of words from the given pair of words to make the
sentence/sentences meaningfully complete.

Q26. To offset the impact of __________ deficit, India had sought more investment from China _________
in mega Industrial parks.

a) trade, especially
b) fiscal, develop
c) trade, focusing
d) fiscal, maintaining
e) fiscal, prosper
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Q27. Though the trade and commerce ministers of all the states were _______, only ten of them ______ up.

a) Approached, decline
b) invited, turned
c) asked, swirl
d) decided, stay
e) agreeable, stood

Q28. Some of the projects were doable but were ________ due to some reasons. Those issues are now
getting ________.

a) fastened , decline
b) clueless, removed
c) difficult, dismiss
d) decided, shut
e) stuck, resolved

Q29. According to the information ___________here, a vehicle was found parked unattended in a makeshift
taxi stand next to the consulate and when ____________ by the police officials, it was found to contain
explosives.

a) received, investigate
b) provided, removed
c) shown, dismissed
d) available, checked
e) shared, resolved

Q30. We must find the _______ and the will to mobilize, organize and do what a______, sensible country
does in response to a crisis like this one.
a) courage, strong
b) bravery, sluggish
c) boldness, infirm
d) spirit, robust
e) faith, alert

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 Numeric Ability
Directions (Q31 – Q35): Study the given table carefully to answer the questions that follow:

Managers with overall highest ratings on various competencies from their respective departments in
an assessment centre.

Q31. What are the approximate average ratings of the IT manager on all the competencies?
a) 42
b) 36
c) 48
d) 49
e) None of these

Q32. The manager from which department got the 2nd highest overall ratings on all competencies together?
a) IT
b) HR
c) Exports
d) Creativity
e) Leadership

Q33. Which competency had the lowest ratings compared to the other competencies amongst the managers
of various departments?
a) Negotiation
b) Creativity
c) Team Building
d) Problem Solving
e) IT

Q34. What is the difference between the overall ratings of the exports manager and the overall ratings of the
finance manager?
a) 25
b) 26
c) 22
d) 27
e) 28

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Q35. The ratings of the IT manager on the dimension of interpersonal skills are what per cent of the average
rating of the managers from other departments on the same dimension? (up to two decimal places)
a) 44.44%
b) 30.36%
c) 42.45%
d) 39.44%
e) None of these

Directions (Q36 - Q40): In each of the following number series, find the wrong one.

Q36. 4, 5, 18, 80, 388, 2065, 12606

a) 5
b) 18
c) 80
d) 388
e) 2065

Q37. 22, 51, 88, 133, 186, 248, 316

a) 51
b) 88
c) 133
d) 186
e) 248

Q38. 7, 9, 21, 57, 137, 284, 539

a) 9
b) 21
c) 57
d) 137
e) 284

Q39. 3, 17, 83, 371, 1907, 11507, 80627

a) 17
b) 83
c) 371
d) 1907
e) 11507

Q40. 8, 9, 25, 105, 362, 987, 2283

a) 9
b) 25
c) 105
d) 362
e) 987

Directions (Q41-Q45): What will come in place of question mark(?) in the following equations?

Q41. 375 + 30% of 170 – 40% of 360 = ?

a) 228
b) 822
c) 282
d) 272
e) 271

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Q42. 30% of 140 + 25% of 60 = 3 X ?
a) 29
b) 19
c) 91
d) 18
e) None of these

Q43. ? + 275 = 60% of 800 – 80

a) 125
b) 225
c) 16525
d) 15625
e) None of these

Q44. 7/5 of 215 + 15% of 400 + 20% of 30 = ?

a) 429
b) 367
c) 546
d) 271
e) None of these

Q45. 4/5 of 32.5 + 30% of 230/3 = (?)²

a) 8
b) 11
c) 9
d) 7
e) 12

Directions for (Q46 – Q50): Study the graph carefully to answer the questions that follow.

Number of appeared candidates and passed candidates

(In Hundreds) in a test from Seven institutions

Q46. What is the difference between the number of candidates appeared from institution B, C, D and F
together and Candidates Passed from Institution A, E and G together?
a) 100
b) 900
c) 1000
d) 540
e) None of these

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Q47. What is the average number of candidates passed from all the institutions together?
a) 700
b) 490
c) 350
d) 675
e) 699

Q48. Number of candidates passed from institution C and E together is approximately, what percent of the
total number of candidates appeared from institutions A and G together?
a) 72%
b) 62%
c) 54%
d) 75%
e) 67%

Q49. From which institution, the difference between the appeared candidates and passed candidates is
maximum?
a) B
b) G
c) D
d) F
e) C

Q50. What is the respective ratio between the number of candidates who have failed from institution B and
the number of candidates who have appeared from institution F?
a) 2 : 5
b) 2 : 3
c) 4 : 3
d) 1 : 3
e) 4 : 2

Directions (Q51 - Q55): In each question, two equations 1 and 2 have been given. You have to solve
these equations and give answers
(1) if X=Y (no relation can be determined)
(2) if X≥Y
(3) if X≤Y
(4) if X>Y
(5) if X<Y

Q51. (1) 7/x + 5/x = x

(2) Y² - (12)^5/2/y = 0

Q52. (1) 361x + 16 = 0

(2) 441y +4 = 0

Q53. (1) 15/x – 2/ = 6x

(2) y/4 + 7y/12 = 1/y

Q54. (1) 2x² + 11x + 14 = 0

(2) 4y² + 12y + 9 = 0

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Q55. (1) x² -4 = 0
(2) y² + 6y + 9 = 0

Directions for (Q56 – Q58): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements
numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are
sufficient to answer the questions. Read both the statements and give answer:

a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statements II alone
are not sufficient to answer the question.
b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone
are not sufficient to answer the question.
c) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
d) If the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
e) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q56. What is the ratio of the number of freshers to the number of seniors in a college?
I. The ratio of males and females in the college is 2 : 3.
II. There are 1125 female freshers in the college.

Q57. What is Mr. Mehta’s present income?

I. Mr. Mehta’s income increases by 10% every year.
II. His income will increase by Rs. 2500 this year.

Q58. What is the speed of the Bus?

I. The bus covers a distance of 80 kms. In 5 hrs.
II. The bus covers a distance of 160kms in 10 hrs.

Q59. Ticket numbered 1 to 20 are mixed up and then a ticket is drawn at random. What is the probability
that the drawn bears a number which is a multiple of 3 or 7?
a) 1/15
b) 1/2
c) 2/5
d) 7/20
e) 1

Q60. A bag contains 5 red and 8 black balls. Two draws of three balls each are made, the ball being replaced
after the first draw. What is the chance that the balls were red in the first draw and black in the second?
a) 140/20449
b) 130/20449
c) 100/20445
d) 140/24049
e) None of these

Q61. One fill pipe A takes 9/2 minutes more to fill the cistern than two fill pipes A and B opened together to
fill it. Second fill pipe B takes 8 minutes more to fill cistern than two fill pipes A and B opened together to
fill it. When will the cistern be full if both pipes are opened simultaneously?
a) 6 minutes
b) 5 minutes
c) 4 minutes
d) 7 minutes
e) 8 minutes

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Q62. A trader has 50 kg of rice, a part of which he sells at 14% profit and the rest at 6% loss. On the whole
his loss is 4%. What is the quantity sold at 14% profit and that at 6% loss?
a) 40kg
b) 35 kg
c) 45kg
d) 42.5 kg
e) 44 kg

Q63. The compound interest on a certain sum for 2 years is Rs 40.80 and simple interest is Rs 40. Find the
rate of interest per annum and the Sum.
a) 3%, 500
b) 3.5%, 600
c) 4%, 450
d) 4% 500
e) None of these

Q64. Three years earlier the father was 7 times as old as his son. Three years hence the father’s age would
be four times that of his son. What are the present ages of the father and son?
a) 40 years
b) 35 years
c) 32 years
d) 47 years
e) 45 years

Q65. A train 150 metres long crosses a man walking at a speed of 6km/hr in the opposite direction in 6
seconds. The speed of train is
a) 96km/hr
b) 84km/hr
c) 106km/hr
d) 66km/hr
e) 54km/hr

Reasoning Ability
Directions for (Q66 – Q70): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below:

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners
of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four corners face
the centre while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside. Two females sit in the middle of the
sides and two at the corners. A sits second to the left of G. G sits in the middle of one of the sides. C sits
fourth to the right of his wife and his wife is not an immediate neighbour of A or G. B sits third to right of
her husband. B does not sit at any of the corners. Only D sits between B and H. H is the husband of A. E is a
male.

Q66. Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?
a) No two males are immediate neighbours of each other
b) G and H do not face each other in the seating arrangement
c) E and D are immediate neighbours of each other
d) F is a male and sits diagonally opposite to E
e) A sits in the centre of one of the sides of the square table

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Q67. Who amongst the following is B's husband?
a) C
b) G
c) E
d) F
e) Cannot be determined

Q68. How many people sit between B and C when counted in anti-clockwise direction from B ?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) Four

Q69. Who amongst the following is the wife of C?

a) D
b) F
c) B
d) G
e) Cannot be determined

Q70. What is the position of E with respect to C?

a) Immediately to the left
b) Second to the left
c) Third to the right
d) Immediately to the right
e) Second to the right

Directions for (Q71 – Q75): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
R D 1 5 E % K 3 J I 9 P 8 # A 2 B $ K M 6 W @ N 4 © T ♦ 7 F H

Q71. Which of the following is the third to the right of the twelfth from the left end?
a) J
b) A
c) B
d) @
e) None of these

Q72. Which of the following is the sixth to the right of the eighteenth from the right end?
a) P
b) 3
c) W
d) M
e) None of these

Q73. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded
by a consonant and immediately followed by a symbol?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
e) Five

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Q74. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement
and so form a group. Which is the one that Does not belong to that group?
a) B K 2
b) E 1 %
c) J 9 3
d) N © @
e) 4 T N

Q75. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above
arrangement?
D5% J98 2$M ?
a) @ 4 T
b) W N ©
c) N © ♦
d) @ 4 ©
e) None of these

Directions (Q76-80): In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two
conclusions number 1 and 2. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be
at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows
from the three statements disregarding commonly known facts. given answer
a) if only conclusion I follows
b) if only conclusion II follows
c) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
d) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
e) if both conclusion follows

Q76.
Statements: All boats are berries
No brake is a belt
All belts are boats
Conclusion: I. No brake is a boat.
II. Some berries are belts.

Q77.
Conclusion: I. All berries being belts is a possibility
II. All boats being brakes is a possibility

Q78.
Statements: Some teas are tasty
Some toasters are toys
Some tables are not toys
Conclusion: I. Some toasters are tables
II. All tea being toasters is a possibility

Q79.
Statements: No rack is a rod
Some rats are red
All red are racks
Conclusion: I. Some reds are not rods
II. All rats are racks.

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Q80.
Statements: All coffee is cold
Some cold are cups
Conclusion: I. Some cups being coffee is a possibility
II. All cups being cold is a possibility

Directions for (81 – Q83): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that
follow.

There are five friends – A, B, C, D and E living on five different floors of an apartment with the lowermost
floor as 1 and so on. Further, some more information is also given:
 C cannot live on an odd-numbered floor and B cannot live on an even numbered floor.
 E lives on the floor which if immediately above the floor on which D lives.
 There is only one person who lives on the floor between D’s and A’s floor. A lives neither at the
bottom nor on the top floor.

Q81. Who among the following lives on the 5th floor?

a) A
b) E
c) D
d) B
e) Can’t be determined

Q82. A lives on which of the following floors?

a) Second
b) Third
c) Fourth
d) Fifth
e) None of these

Q83. How many floors are there between the floors on which B and E live?
a) Four
b) Three
c) Two
d) One
e) None of these

Directions for (Q84 – Q85): Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.

‘P * Q’ Means ‘P is wife of Q’
‘P ÷ Q’ Means ‘P is father of Q’
‘P + Q’ Means ‘P is son of Q’
‘P – Q’ Means ‘P is sister of Q’

Q84. Which of the following represents ‘S is mother of T’?

a) S * M ÷ H – T
b) S * M + H – T
c) M * S ÷ H – T
d) M * S ÷ H + T
e) None of these

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Q85. In J – F + R * B, How is R related to J?
a) Father
b) Mother
c) Paternal Aunt
d) Can’t be determined
e) None of these

Directions (Q86-90): In the following questions, the symbols @,#,$,+ and * are used with the following
meaning as illustrated below:

'P*Q' means 'P is not smaller than Q'

'P@Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'
'P+Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'
'P$Q' means 'P is not greater than Q'
'P#Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q'

a) if only conclusion I follows

b) if only conclusion II follows
c) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
d) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
e) if both conclusion follows

Q86. Statement: F @ H, H * R, R # S, S + T
Conclusion: I. T + F
II. S $ H
Q87. Statement: L $ D, D + V, V* G, G * W
Conclusion: I. W $ L
II. L * G

Q88.Statement: G @ F, F + H, H * P, M $ P
Conclusion: I. G @ M
II. G # M

Q89. Statement: Z + P, Z + A, P $ N, L $ N
Conclusion: I. P @ L
II. P # L

Q90. Statement: S @ M, M @ A, A * N, N * K
Conclusion: I. S # K
II. K + M

Q91. In a Certain code, ‘BACTERIA’ is written as ‘AJSFUDBB’. How is ‘PROTOZOA’ written in that
code?
a) APAQUPTP
b) BPAPUPSP
c) APAPUPSP
d) APBPVPSQ
e) None of these

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Q92. Lakshman went 15km to the West from his house, then turned left and walked 20km he again turned
East and walked 25km and finally turned left and covered 20km, how far is he now from his house?
a) 15 km
b) 20 km
c) 25 km
d) 10 km
e) 12 km

Q93. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the fourth, seventh, ninth and tenth letters of
the word RECREATION, which of the following will be the third letter of that word? If no such word can
be made, give ‘X’ as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
a) X
b) Y
c) T
d) R
e) N

Q94. How many such digits are there in the number 7346285, each of which is as far away from the
beginning of the number, as they will be when arranged in ascending order within the number?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three

Q95. ‘MP’ is related ‘HK’ in the same way as ‘WZ’ is related to ______?
a) QS
b) RU
c) PS
d) QU
e) PR

Directions for (Q96 – Q100): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below:

Twelve persons are sitting in two parallel lines in such a way that there are six persons in each row at
equidistance. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in row-1 and they face towards east. P, Q, R, S, T and V are
sitting in row-2 and they face towards west. One person of one row faces the other person of the other row.

P, who is sitting at one of the ends of the row, is second to the right of T. A does not face P or T. A is third
to the left of F. There are two persons between Q and V. There is only one person between C and D. C and
D do not face P. B is neighbour of C. S, who does not face D, is not the neighbour of Q.

Q96. Who among the following faces F?

a) Q
b) T
c) S
d) R
e) V

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Q97. How many persons are sitting between E and C?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
e) None

Q98. E is related to R in the same way as B is related to S. On this pattern F is related to

a) V
b) P
c) T
d) Q
e) None of these

Q99. Which of the following statements is true about B?

a) Q is the neighbour of that person who faces B
b) C is not the immediate neighbour of B
c) E is second to the right of B
d) T faces B
e) B is second from the left end of the row

Q100. Who are sitting at the ends of the row?

a) P, V
b) F, A
c) D, E
d) P, S
e) None of these

Answers will be provided in the Evening

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