Best Medical (NEET) & Engineering Coaching Institute Online - Aakash Itutor

4/17/2020 Best Medical(NEET) & Engineering Coaching Institute Online - Aakash iTutor
Answer keys : AIATS For One Year Medical-2020_Mock Test-5
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 1 (skipped)
A particle is projected upward with a speed 55 m/s. The distance travelled by the particle in 6th second of its motion is [g = 10
m/s2]
Options:
2.5 m
5m
2m
Zero
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 2
There are 50 divisions on circular scale of a screw gauge. On two complete rotation of circular scale, screw moves by 1 mm.
The least count of screw gauge is
Options:
0.1 cm
0.1 mm
0.05 mm
0.001 cm
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 3
A fireman climbs up a vertically hanging light rope. The breaking tension in the rope is four times of the weight of the man. The
maximum possible acceleration of the fireman is
Options:
3g
4g
1/72
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A block of mass 2.0 kg, moving on a horizontal surface, along x-axis, with speed 2 m/s enters the surface at x = 0. The frictional
force Fr, as function of x is given by
The kinetic energy of the block at x = 10 m will be
Options:
2.6 J
2.9 J
3.9 J
3.4 J
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A ball falls vertically onto a floor, with momentum p and then bounces repeatedly. The coefficient of restitution is e. The total
momentum imparted by the ball to the floor is
Options:
p(1 + e)
2/72
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A particle moves along a circular path such that its speed is decreasing. The velocity of the particle at an instant is and the
total acceleration is then
Options:
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Question : 7
The dimensional formula of , where B and E are magnetic field and electric field respectively
Options:
[L–1T]
[LT–1]
[LT–2]
[L–2T]
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A copper sphere has cavity inside it. The mass of the sphere is 20 kg. When completely submerged in the water (density 1000
kg/m3), the apparent weight of the sphere is 20% less than true weight. The volume of the cavity inside the sphere is [Take,
density of copper = 9000 kg/m3 and g = 10 m/s2]
Options:
1.77 m3
1.77 × 10–3 m3
2.81 × 10–3 m3
2.81 m3
3/72
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Question : 9
An incompressible fluid flows in a pipe of uniform cross-section of area A which splits up into two outlets O1 and O2 of area of
cross-section respectively as shown in the figure. The velocity of fluid flow at O1 is 3 m/s and in the pipe is 6
m/s. The speed of fluid flow at O2 is
Options:
3 m/s
7.5 m/s
4 m/s
6 m/s
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 10
An engine works between temperatures 27°C and 127°C. The efficiency of the engine cannot be
Options:
39%
15%
20%
24%
4/72
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Question : 11
A particle is executing S.H.M. The maximum acceleration of the particle is v and the maximum velocity is a. The amplitude of
the motion is
Options:
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Question : 12
Consider the following two statements.
a. Capacitances are called inertia of electrical circuits.
b. Keeping only radius of cross-section of solenoid constant, if number of turns of a solenoid are increased, then its self
inductance always increases.
The correct statement(s) is/are
Options:
Only a
Only b
Both a and b
Neither a nor b
5/72
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Question : 13
The equivalent capacitance of the following circuit between terminals A and B is (all capacitors are identical and have
capacitance 4 μF)
Options:
12 μF
27 μF
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 14
In a potentiometer of one metre length, an unknown emf voltage source is balanced at 50 cm length of potentiometer wire while
a 6 V battery is balanced at 30 cm length. The emf of unknown voltage source is
Options:
10 V
6V
3V
9V
6/72
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A galvanometer of resistance 400 Ω allows only 4% of the main current to pass through it after connecting a shunt resistance.
The value of resistance of the shunt is
Options:
10.1 Ω
4.96 Ω
8.33 Ω
16.67 Ω
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 16
A uniform ring of mass m = 4 kg and radius R = 0.2 m moves in space such that its angular speed about centre of mass is 4
rad/s and speed of the centre is 8 m/s as shown in the figure. The kinetic energy of the ring as observed by a man having speed
8 m/s and moving in same direction as the centre of ring is
Options:
2.56 J
12.8 J
196 J
1.28 J
7/72
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 17
Force experienced by a charged particle in an electromagnetic field is zero. If the charge on the particle is q, velocity of the
particle is and the electric and magnetic fields are respectively, then which of the following is possible?
Options:
All of these
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In a compound microscope, focal length of objective and eyepiece are 2 cm and 5 cm respectively. An object is placed at a
distance 2.2 cm from objective. If final image is formed at least distance of distinct vision (25 cm), then magnifying power of
microscope and approximate distance between objective and eyepiece will be respectively
Options:
60, 18 cm
60, 26 cm
50, 20 cm
50, 26 cm
8/72
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In a uniform magnetic field B, a wire in shape of a semicircle of radius r rotates about the diameter of the circle with angular
velocity ω as shown in the figure. If the total resistance of the loop is R, then the mean power generated per period of revolution
is
Options:
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Inside a neutral conductor sample of arbitrary non-spherical shape, a non-spherical cavity is present. There is a point charge
inside the cavity. The induced surface charge density on the inner surface of cavity and outer surface of the conductor
respectively is
Options:
Uniform and non-uniform
Non-uniform and uniform
Non-uniform on both surfaces
Uniform on both surfaces
9/72
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True dip angle at a place on the earth is equal to 30°. The apparent dip recorded by a dip circle when its plane is at angle 60°
with the magnetic meridian at that place, is
Options:
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Choose the incorrect statement among the following
Options:
Inside bulk matter of a conductor electrostatic field is zero
Bulk matter of a conductor cannot have excess charge inside it in the electrostatic situation
Electrostatic potential is constant throughout the volume of the conductor and has same value on its surface.
Electric field is always conservative in nature
You scored 0 of 4
20 g of ice at –20°C is dropped into a calorimeter containing 20 g water at 10°C. The specific heat of water is twice that of ice.
The amount of water contained in the calorimeter, when equilibrium is reached, is
Options:
20 g
10 g
5g
40 g
10/72
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A ray of light, incident on a prism at an angle of incidence 60°, emerges perpendicular to the other face. If the angle of prism is
30°, then the deviation suffered by the ray is
Options:
90°
60°
30°
45°
You scored 0 of 4
A wave travels on a string. The equation of the wave is y = Asin(ωt – kx). It is reflected from a heavier string tied to an end of
the lighter string at x = 0. If 36% of the incident energy is reflected back, then the equation of the reflected wave is
Options:
You scored 0 of 4
A uniform 50 m long horizontal rope of mass 6 kg is tightly held by two friends. One friend strikes the rope and the second one
feels the effect 2 s later. The tension in the rope is
Options:
20 N
25 N
50 N
75 N
11/72
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A radioactive sample consists of two distinct species having equal number of atoms N0 each initially. The mean life of one
species is T and of the other species is 6T. The decay products in both cases is stable. The total number of radioactive nuclei
remaining at time 6T will be
Options:
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Consider a plane progressive wave y = Asin(ωt – kx). The maximum speed of any medium particle will be smaller than that of
the wave speed, if (here symbols have usual meaning)
Options:
A<λ
A>λ
12/72
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A block of mass m is suspended separately by two different springs and is having time periods T1 and T2 respectively. If same
mass is connected to series combination of both springs, then its time period is
Options:
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Question : 30
There are three vectors and The unit vector along is
Options:
13/72
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A small signal voltage is applied across an ideal inductor L. Then
Options:
Current I(t) leads voltage V(t) by 90°
Voltage V(t) leads current I(t) by 90°
Current I(t) is in phase with V(t)
Current I(t) leads voltage V(t) by 180°
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 32
A small ball of mass 6 kg, moving with a speed 8 m/s, strikes head-on with another ball of mass 4 kg. The speed of the 4 kg
sphere so that both spheres completely stop after the collision is
Options:
5 m/s
12 m/s
8 m/s
20 m/s
14/72
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The ratio of currents in 4 Ω resistor and 15 Ω resistor in the following circuit is
Options:
4:3
1:1
9:1
3:1
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Magnitude of electric field on axis of a uniformly charged ring of radius R is maximum at a distance x from centre of the ring.
The value of x is
Options:
2R
15/72
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On a fixed inclined plane, two conducting rails are fixed. A conducting rod of length L is placed on the two rails as shown in the
figure
The conducting rod has mass m and it can slide on the rails without friction. There exists a uniform magnetic field B0 vertically
upward in the region. At an instant, the conducting rod is released from rest. The terminal velocity of the rod will be
Options:
16/72
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The height at which the weight of a body becomes of its weight on the surface of earth (Radius R), is
Options:
2R
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Amplitude of electric field in an electromagnetic wave of intensity 1.475 W/m2 is nearly
Options:
49.67 N/C
33.33 N/C
66.66 N/C
53.8 N/C
17/72
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Question : 38
In the arrangement as shown in the figure, masses of A and B are 2 kg and 1 kg respectively. Find the magnitude of
acceleration of the centre of mass of both the blocks. (Neglect friction everywhere. String is light and inextensible)
Options:
18/72
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The truth table for the circuit shown in the figure is
Options:
19/72
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Question : 40
A block of mass m starts its motion from rest and is moving with a constant acceleration a on a horizontal rough plane. If the
coefficient of friction between the block and the ground is μ, the instantaneous power delivered by the applied horizontal force at
a time t from the beginning is
Options:
mat(μg + a)
μmgt(g + a)
μmg2t
μma2t
You scored 0 of 4
A current carrying wire ABCD runs along three edges of a cube of edge length a, as shown in the figure. There exists a uniform
magnetic field in space. The magnitude of magnetic force acting on wire ABCD is
Options:
20/72
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Question : 42
A beam of light of wavelength λ = 500 nm from a distant source falls on a single slit 1 mm wide and the resulting diffraction
pattern is observed on a screen 2 m away. The width of central maxima is
Options:
2.4 mm
2.0 mm
1.0 mm
2.0 cm
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 43
An electron in hydrogen atom makes a transition from n1 to n2. If the time period of electron in initial state is 27 times that in the
final state then (Symbols have their usual meanings)
Options:
n1 = 3n2
n2 = 3n1
n2 = 9n1
n2 = 4n1
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 44
Two identical heavy spheres of masses 102 kg and each of radius 10 cm have a separation 100 cm between their centres. The
gravitational potential at the midpoint of line joining their centres is
Options:
–6 × 10–4 J/kg
–2.67 × 10–8 J/kg
–8.1 × 10–7 J/kg
–4.9 × 10–4 J/kg
21/72
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A parallel plate capacitor is charged by a battery and then isolated from it. If distance between the two plates is now increased,
then
Options:
Electric field between the plates increases and potential difference remains the same
Both electric field and potential difference remains the same
Electric field between the plates decrease but potential difference increases
Electric field between the plates remains same but potential difference increases
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 46
The ratio of the energy of first excited state of hydrogen atom to the first excited state of He+ ion is
Options:
1:2
1:4
2:1
4:1
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 47
The maximum number of atoms is present in
Options:
224 ml of CH4 at STP
18 g of glucose (C6H12O6)
0.2 mole of urea
22 g of CO2
22/72
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Question : 48
Correct order of first ionization enthalpy of the given elements is
Options:
F>O>N>C
N>F>O>C
O>F>N>C
F>N>O>C
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 49
The isostructural pair among the following is
Options:
SF4 and XeF4
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Question : 50
Which among the following has maximum bond order?
Options:
O2
23/72
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Question : 51
Density of O2 gas at 127°C and 4.1 atm pressure is (R = 0.082 L atm K–1 mol–1)
Options:
2 gL–1
3 gL–1
2.5 gL–1
4 gL–1
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 52
The root mean square speed of H2, O2, N2 and CO2 at 27°C will be in the order of
Options:
CO2 > O2 > N2 > H2
H2 > N2 > O2 > CO2
O2 > N2 > CO2 > H2
H2 > O2 > CO2 > N2
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 53
If the enthalpy of fusion of a compound is 49 kJ mol–1 at 77°C then the molar entropy change for the melting of the compound
is (Melting point of compound = 77°C)
Options:
75 J mol–1K–1
140 J mol–1K–1
80 J mol–1K–1
120 J mol–1K–1
24/72
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 54
If the enthalpy of hydrogenation of cyclohexene is – x kJmol–1 and resonance energy of benzene is – y kJmol–1 then enthalpy
of hydrogenation of benzene in kJmol–1 will be
Options:
(– x – y)
(– 3x – y)
(– 3x + y)
(x + y)
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 55
Which among the given molecules exhibit tautomerism?
Options:
I only
I and III only
III only
I, II and III
25/72
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Question : 56
In which of the following compounds, C-Br bond ionization will give most stable carbonium ion?
Options:
(CH3)3C – Br
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 57
Consider the following reaction
Major product P is
Options:
26/72
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Question : 58
Product B is a/an
Options:
Aldehyde
Primary alcohol
Carboxylic acid
Secondary alcohol
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Question : 59
The amine which will not react with Hinsberg’s reagent is
Options:
27/72
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Question : 60
Correct acidic strength order of the given compounds is
Options:
(II) > (III) > (IV) > (I)
(IV) > (I) > (III) > (II)
(IV) > (II) > (III) > (I)
(IV) > (I) > (II) > (III)
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 61
Acetone and acetaldehyde can be chemically distinguished by
Options:
I2/NaOH
2, 4-DNP
Tollen’s reagent
Both (1) and (3)
28/72
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Question : 62
Monomer of natural rubber is
Options:
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Question : 63
Antihistamine among the following is
Options:
Dimetapp
Ranitidine
Equanil
Penicillin
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Number of chiral carbons present in α-D-glucose is
Options:
29/72
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Question : 65
In which of the following reactions C – C bond formation takes palce?
Options:
Cannizzaro reaction
Reimer-Tiemann reaction
Finkelstein reaction
Swarts reaction
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 66
The metal which is refined by distillation is
Options:
Copper
Zinc
Tin
Indium
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In which species p -d bond is absent?
Options:
30/72
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Question : 68
When copper and zinc react separately with dilute nitric acid, the gases obtained respectively are
Options:
N2O and N2
NO2 and N2O
NO and N2O
N2O and NO2
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 69
The correct order of boiling point of HF, HCl and HBr is
Options:
HBr > HCl > HF
HF > HCl > HBr
HF > HBr > HCl
HCl > HF > HBr
You scored 0 of 4
Among the given metal cations which has highest negative hydration enthalpy?
Options:
Ti2+
Co2+
Cr2+
V2+
31/72
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Question : 71
Which complex will show magnetic moment value of 3.87 BM?
Options:
[Mn(CN)6]3–
[Cr(H2O)6]3+
[CoF6]3–
[Co(C2O4)3]3–
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 72
Which of the following organometallic compounds will have weakest C – O bond?
Options:
[Co(CO)4]–
[Ni(CO)4]
[Mn(CO)6]+
[Cr(CO)6]
You scored 0 of 4
What will be the pH of solution obtained by mixing 25 ml of 0.2 M HCl with 25 ml of 0.2 M Ba(OH)2?
Options:
13
14
32/72
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Equimolar aqueous solution of which compound will have highest pH?
Options:
NaNO3
NH4Cl
CaCl2
Na3PO4
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 75
Consider the following reaction at equilibrium
If helium is introduced at constant pressure then
Options:
Formation of NO2 will increase
Equilibrium constant of the reaction will change
Dissociation of NO2 will increase
There is no effect on equilibrium
33/72
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Mole of oxalate ions required to reduce one mole of permanganate ion in acidic medium is
Options:
You scored 0 of 4
If percentage strength of H2O2 solution is 17% then the volume strength of the solution will be
Options:
25 V
28 V
56 V
65 V
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 78
Incorrect statement among the following is
Options:
Hydration enthalpy of K+ is higher than Rb+
Density of sodium is greater than potassium
Lithium and potassium give crimson red and apple green colour respectively to flame test
Reducing power of lithium is higher than sodium
34/72
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 79
Correct order of stability of +1 oxidation state of Tl, In, Ga and Al follows the order
Options:
Al > Ga > In > Tl
ln > Tl > Ga > Al
Tl > In > Ga > Al
ln > Ga > Tl > Al
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 80
Incorrect statement among the following is
Options:
Graphite conducts electricity
Graphite is used as dry lubricant
Diamond is bad conductor of electricity
Diamond is thermodynamically most stable allotrope of carbon
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 81
A metal crystallises with a cubic structure having edge length 320 pm. If a unit cell of metal has two effective atoms then the
diameter of the metal atom approximately will be
Options:
160 pm
226 pm
80 pm
277 pm
35/72
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 82
0.3 molal aqueous solution of a salt AX2 is 40% ionized. If Kb for water is 0.52 K kg mol–1 then the boiling point of the solution
will be
Options:
100.28°C
101.42°C
100.61°C
101.81°C
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 83
Mass of calcium deposited at cathode by passing a current of 5 ampere for 9.65 hour to a molten solution of calcium chloride is
Options:
20 g
36 g
40 g
56 g
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 84
Molar conductivities at infinite dilution of KBr, HBr and CH3COOK are 151.6, 427.7 and 114.4 S cm2 mol–1
respectively. Molar conductivity for CH3COOH will be
Options:
464.2 S cm2 mol–1
161 S cm2 mol–1
276.1 S cm2 mol–1
390.5 S cm2 mol–1
36/72
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The rate constant of a reaction A → B is 2.303 × 10–4 s–1. If the initial concentration of A is 4 M then time required for its 40%
conversion into B is (log 3 = 0.48, log 2 = 0.3)
Options:
42.1 min
36.7 min
77.1 min
62.2 min
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 86
Soap lather belongs to which type of colloid?
Options:
Aerosol
Gel
Foam
Emulsion
37/72
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Question : 87
Match the species given in column I with the shape given in column II and find the correct option
Column I Column II
a. XeF4 (i) Linear
b. (ii) Pyramidal
c. PCl3 (iii) Square planar
d. (iv) Bent
a b c d
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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Question : 88
Maximum permissible limit of lead in drinking water is
Options:
500 ppm
500 ppb
50 ppb
50 ppm
38/72
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Which among the following will undergo fastest solvolysis in 50% aqueous ethanol?
Options:
CH3Cl
You scored 0 of 4
If mass percentage of glucose in aqueous solution is 36% then the molality of the solution is
Options:
2.250
3.125
5.125
4.612
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 91
Choose the pair of cell organelles that do not contain any nucleic acid
Options:
Plastid, mitochondria
Ribosome, chloroplast
Nucleus, vacuole
Centriole, vacuole
39/72
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Which of the following may or may not be found in chromosomes of a eukaryotic cell?
Options:
Primary constriction
Telomere
Satellite
Chromatid
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 93
Daughter cells produced after meiosis I are/have
Options:
Genetically similar to their parent cell
Haploid set of chromosomes
Same ploidy as that of parent cell
Always diploid
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 94
Scientific naming of organisms involve some universally accepted rules. Which of the given rule is against the naming rules of
ICBN and ICZN?
Options:
Scientific names are generally taken from Latin language
First word of scientific name denotes genus
Binomial nomenclature includes author citation along with generic name and specific epithet
Generic name and specific epithet are separately underlined when printed
40/72
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 95
Mark the wrong statement.
Options:
Yeast is a unicellular sac fungus that produces edible fruiting bodies
Organism causing sleeping sickness has flagella for locomotion
In Agaricus, karyogamy is delayed after plasmogamy
White spots seen on mustard leaves are due to a member of phycomycetes
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 96
Organisms responsible for production of biogas
Options:
Are heterotrophs
Lack peptidoglycan in their cell wall
Can survive at high range of salinity and acidity
Cannot survive without oxygen
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 97
Bovine spongiform encephalopathy is caused by
Options:
An agent which is abnormally folded protein
A RNA virus
A bacteriophage
An agent that contains RNA of low molecular weight
41/72
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 98
All of the following involve activities of some protists, except
Options:
Red tide phenomenon
Diatomaceous earth formation
Making of curd from milk
Malaria disease in organisms
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 99
Choose the odd one for axile placentation.
Options:
Lemon
Mustard
Tomato
China rose
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 100
Find the wrongly matched pair
Options:
Tendril in pea – Modified leaf
Thorn in Citrus – Modified axillary bud
Spines in Aloe – Modified leaf
Bulb of onion – Modified root
42/72
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 101
Mark the following statements as true(T) or false(F) and select the correct option.
A. In gymnosperms, vascular bundles lack sieve tubes.
B. Pericycle is sclerenchymatous in monocot stem.
C. Spring wood contains vessels with narrow lumen.
ABC
(1) T F F
(2) T F T
(3) F F T
(4) F T T
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 102
Mark the odd one for primary meristem.
Options:
Phellogen
Root apical meristem
Axillary bud
Intercalary meristem
43/72
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 103
Find the incorrectly matched option. [Here ( ) sign indicates presence and ( ) sign indicates absence]
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 104
A red alga that can be used as source of food is
Options:
Laminaria
Chlamydomonas
Porphyra
Eudorina
44/72
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 105
The main plant body is gametophyte in all of the below given plants, except
Options:
Volvox
Sphagnum
Spirogyra
Selaginella
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 106
Facilitated diffusion is similar to active transport as both
Options:
Utilise energy for transport
Occur against the concentration gradient
Require special membrane proteins
Are non-selective in nature
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 107
Select the incorrect match
Options:
Azotobacter – free living N2 fixer
Thiobacillus denitrificans – oxidises nitrite to nitrate
Frankia – fixes nitrogen symbiotically
Bacillus ramosus – converts organic nitrogen to ammonia
45/72
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 108
Which of the given is common in photosynthesis of tomato and sugarcane plant?
Options:
Number of carbon atoms in primary CO2 acceptor
Type of primary carboxylating enzyme
Total number of ATP consumed
Total number of NADPH used
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 109
Light reaction does not yield
Options:
ATP
FADH2
NADPH
O2
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 110
What will be the total number of ATP produced from one glucose molecule, if there is no ATP consumption during activation
phase or energy consuming phase of glycolysis in an aerobically respiring kidney cell?
Options:
40
38
36
34
46/72
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 111
The terminal electron acceptor of mitochondrial ETS is
Options:
H2O
O2
ATPase
Cytochrome c oxidase
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 112
“A plant after decapitation becomes bushy”. The possible reason of above phenomenon is
Options:
Removal of apical buds promote growth of lateral buds into branches
Removal of apical buds induce stem elongation as auxin suppresses production of gibberellins
Apical buds release some hormone which kills lateral buds
Lateral buds have auxins which are suppressed in presence of cytokinin
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 113
The plant which does not show any correlation between exposure to light duration and induction of flowering is
Options:
Soyabean
Wheat
Henbane
Tomato
47/72
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 114
Staminate and pistillate flowers are borne on separate plant bodies in
Options:
Papaya
Cucumber
Maize
China rose
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 115
All of the following are true for Vallisneria, except
Options:
Its pollen grains are covered by mucilage
Pollination occurs through water
It shows geitonogamy
Its flowers are not very colourful
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 116
Perisperm is
Options:
Triploid tissue
Remains of nucellus
Another name of endosperm
Found in pea seeds
48/72
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 117
“A progeny with _____ blood group is not possible to the couple having O and AB blood groups”.
Complete the above statement with suitable option.
Options:
AB
Both (2) and (3)
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 118
‘In any cross, if recombination frequency is 5%’, it means
Options:
The distance between genes is 5 cM
Number of recombinants is 5 in 10 progenies
Their crossover value is 1/5
Out of total progeny produced, 5 are parental types
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 119
Identify the wrongly matched pair
Options:
Birds – Male is AA + ZW
Klinefelter Male – 44 + XXY
Turner Female – 44 + XO
Butterfly – Female is AA + ZO
49/72
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 120
Study the given pedigree chart and select the correct option regarding it.
Options:
The trait shown in above pedigree is haemophilia
The genotype of affected female in II generation can be aa or Aa
In first generation male cannot be carrier for the trait
Gene for above given trait is found in females only
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 121
A pea plant having which of the given traits can express its feature only in pure line condition?
Options:
Terminal flower
Yellow seed
Green pod
Round seed
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 122
RNA molecule cannot have
Options:
5 methyl uracil
Ribose sugar
N-glycosidic bond
Cytidine monophosphate
50/72
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 123
An eukaryotic cell with non-functional RNA polymerase I may not form
Options:
hnRNA
5S rRNA
tRNA
Peptidyl transferase
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 124
‘UGA does not code for any amino acid’. All of the below given conclusions can be withdrawn from the above statement, except
Options:
UGA is a nonsense codon
Codon is triplet in nature
Genetic code is degenerate
Translation terminates when ribosome reaches UGA of mRNA
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 125
Himgiri variety of wheat
Options:
Is biofortified
Is resistant to leaf and stripe rust
Is low yielding
Is a Mexican wheat variety
51/72
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 126
A fungus is not used in the extraction of
Options:
Amylase
Statin
Cyclosporin A
Streptokinase
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 127
During sewage treatment, methane is formed
Options:
In anaerobic sludge digester
In tertiary treatment step
In primary settling tank
By aerobic bacteria
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 128
In which of the given interactions, both the species are benefitted?
Options:
Paramecium aurelia and P. caudatum
Clown fish and sea anemone
Fungi and roots of higher plants
Orchid growing on mango
52/72
You scored 0 of 4
The r-selected organisms usually
Options:
Show long life expectancy
Have large body size
Show extensive parental care
Have short generation time
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 130
Pyramid of number of a tree ecosystem cannot be
Options:
Upright
Inverted
Spindle shaped
Both (2) and (3)
You scored 0 of 4
Choose the odd one w.r.t. converters or transducers.
Options:
Algae
Hydra
Diatoms
Angiosperms
53/72
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 132
All of the below given are off site (ex-situ) conservation strategies, except
Options:
Wildlife safari park
National park
Botanical garden
Zoological park
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 133
Polyblend
Options:
Is recycled modified plastic
Is an electronic waste
Is a mixture of plastic and radioactive elements
Cannot be used to make roads as it melts at high temperature
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 134
Identify the incorrect one for ozone.
Options:
It can be an air pollutant
In stratosphere it act as a shield
Its exposure may cause snow-blindness
It is not a major greenhouse gas
54/72
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 135
‘A water body has high BOD’. It indicates that
Options:
Its DO is also high
Its polluting potential is very high
It has low amount of organic matter dissolved in it
It is useful for drinking purpose
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 136
Feature not shared by carbohydrates, lipids and nucleic acids is that
Options:
They are composed of carbon with functional groups attached
Monomers of these molecules undergo dehydration synthesis to form polymers
They are found in acid insoluble fraction
The molecules are held together by covalent bonds
55/72
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 137
Which of the following incorrectly identifies the structure given in column I with its corresponding biomolecule in column II?
Column-I Column-II
(1) – Serine
(2) C5H10O5 – Ribose sugar
(3) – Uracil
(4) CH3(CH2)14COOH – Palmitic acid
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 138
Maltose, sucrose and lactose differ from one another due to the
Options:
Type of glycosidic linkage present between the monomers
Absence of glucose in all the given sugars
Number of hexose monomers involved
Number of carbons in the sugar molecule
56/72
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 139
Identify the structure marked ‘X’ located in the upper right corner of the right atrium and choose the correct option
Options:
Atrio-ventricular node
Sino-atrial node
Bundle of His
Purkinje fibres
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 140
Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) generate fragments which are
Options:
Used as vectors
Of the same restriction pattern for mutant and normal β-globin alleles.
Produced by reaction of restriction endonucleases and then detected by southern blot analysis.
Always having in their middle a short fragment of palindromic DNA.
57/72
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 141
A market puts out a bin of tomatoes that have an outstanding colour, flavour and texture. These genetically modified tomatoes
are the result of a technique involving silencing of
Options:
Bt toxin
Glyphosate
Meloidogyne incognita
Polygalacturonase
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 142
Bacteria cell wall degrading enzyme is
Options:
Cellulase
Lysozyme
Methylase
Chitinase
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 143
The process of PCR in which 94°C temperature breaks the hydrogen bonds between the two strands of the original DNA double
helix, providing the necessary single-stranded templates is
Options:
Annealing
Denaturation
Polymerisation
Ligation
58/72
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 144
Choose the correct palindromic sequence in DNA molecule.
Options:
5' – GATACC–3'
3' – CCTAAG–5'
5' – CATTAG–3'
3' – GATAAC–5'
5' – CCAATG–3'
3' – CAATCC–5'
5' – GAATTC–3'
3' – CTTAAG–5'
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 145
Which group of animals belong to the same phylum?
Options:
Chaetopleura, Aplysia, Dentalium
Limulus, Locusta, Pinctada
Hirudinaria, Wuchereria, Ancylostoma
Pleurobrachia, Fasciola, Meandrina
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 146
Choose the incorrect statement.
Options:
A common characteristic of all vertebrates without exception is the presence of a well developed cranium.
Body of all reptilians is covered with dry and cornified skin, scales which are mesodermal and they have external ears
In all chordates, notochord is present in embryonic stage.
Sharks and Scoliodon differ from skates and rays as their pectoral fins are distinctly marked off from cylindrical bodies.
59/72
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 147
Choose the odd one w.r.t. male reproductive system of cockroach.
Options:
Utricular glands
Conglobate gland
Collaterial glands
Seminal vesicles
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 148
Improved breed of cattle and chicken are respectively
Options:
Jersey and Leghorn
Hisardale and Bikaneri ewes
Mule and Merino rams
Bikaneri ewes and Merino rams
60/72
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 149
The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below represent four different types of animal tissues. Which of these is incorrectly
identified in the options given, along with its location and function?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Tissue Location Functions

Simple squamous
(1) (A) Air sacs of lungs Form the diffusion boundary
epithelium
(2) (B) Simple cuboidal epithelium Tubular parts of nephrons Secretion and absorption
Simple columnar ciliated Move the particles or mucus in a specific direction
(3) (C) Fallopian tube
epithelium over the epithelium
Between adjacent bones of the
(4) (D) Connective tissue Site of production of blood cells
vertebral column
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 150
Dense regular connective tissue includes
Options:
Cartilage
Areolar tissue
Adipose tissue
Ligament
61/72
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 151
The partial pressure of oxygen in deoxygenated and oxygenated blood in mm Hg respectively is
Options:
159 and 104
95 and 45
45 and 40
40 and 95
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 152
Volume of air that remains in the lungs even after forced exhalation is termed
Options:
Expiratory reserve volume
Residual volume
Inspiratory reserve volume
Tidal volume
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 153
In the standard ECG of a normal person, end of T-wave represents
Options:
Initiation of the ventricular contraction
Beginning of the auricular diastole
End of ventricular systole
Contraction of both the atria
62/72
You scored 0 of 4
Choose the incorrect statement
Options:
The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver from kidneys.
In the human RBCs, all their internal space is available for oxygen transport.
Blood pressure in the pulmonary artery is more than that in the pulmonary vein
Blood pressure in the mammalian aorta is maximum during systole of the left ventricle.
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 155
Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t human excretory system.
Options:
Nearly 70-80 percent of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in proximal convoluted tubule.
Ascending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to electrolytes.
Descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water.
Distal convoluted tubule is capable of reabsorbing ions.
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 156
Select the incorrect match.
Options:
Glomerular nephritis – Inflammation in glomeruli
Gout – Accumulation of pyruvic acid in joints
Glycosuria – Presence of glucose in urine
Renal calculi – Accumulation of insoluble masses of crystallised salts formed within the kidney
63/72
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 157
Match the Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
a. Gliding joint (i) Between humerus and pectoral girdle
b. Hinge joint (ii) Between the carpals
c. Pivot joint (iii) Between femur and tibia
d. Ball and socket joint (iv) Between atlas and axis
Options:
a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 158
In the human body, the total number of floating ribs and collar bones respectively are
Options:
4 and 2
6 and 4
14 and 4
4 and 8
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 159
Complete the analogy w.r.t receptors and their stimulus.
Olfactory receptor : Smell :: Gustatory receptor : ______.
Options:
Touch
Pain
Smell
Taste
64/72
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 160
The sound waves in the endolymph of human internal ear induce a ripple in the causing bending of against
Select the option which correctly identifies A, B and C respectively
A B C
(1) Reissner’s membrane Hair cells Tectorial membrane
(2) Tectorial membrane Hair cells Reissner's membrane
(3) Tympanic membrane Ear ossicles Oval window
(4) Basilar membrane Hair cells Tectorial membrane
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 161
The disease that is not caused by hypothyroidism is
Options:
Graves’ disease
Cretinism
Simple goitre
Myxedema
65/72
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 162
Which of the following hormones is synergistic to progesterone w.r.t. milk secretion?
Options:
Glucagon
Prolactin
Parathormone
ANF
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 163
Options:
Bowman’s glands are located in the proximal end of uriniferous tubules.
Constriction of skin’s blood vessels and contraction of skeletal muscles when it is too cold, is an example of negative
feedback in humans.
The action of the autonomous nervous system is pupillary reflex.
Endocrine glands regulate neural activity and nervous system regulates endocrine glands.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 164
Among the following, the first and last step in human embryonic development, respectively are
Options:
Syngamy, implantation
Cell differentiation, cleavage
Cleavage, organogenesis
Gamete transfer, syngamy
66/72
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 165
Choose the odd one w.r.t. reproductive cycle in female primates
Options:
Monkeys
Apes
Humans
Dogs
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 166
Options:
Inhibin is produced by granulosa cells in the ovary and inhibits the secretion of FSH.
Several hormones like hCG, hPL, estrogen and progesterone are produced by the ovaries
Changes in GnRH pulse frequency in females is controlled by circulating levels of estrogen and progesterone.
Leydig cells produce testosterone in presence of LH
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 167
During human embryonic development, by the end of which week is the body covered with fine hair, eye-lids are separated and
eyelashes are formed?
Options:
4 weeks
12 weeks
14 weeks
24 weeks
67/72
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 168
In the process of oogenesis in a human female, the formation of second polar body occurs
Options:
Before birth
At the time of birth
Just at the beginning of onset of puberty
During fertilisation when sperm enters cytoplasm of ovum
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 169
If the menstrual cycle of a human female is of 36 days then ovulation takes place on
Options:
14th day
22nd day
26th day
16th day
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 170
Choose the odd one w.r.t. analogous structures
Options:
Forelimbs of man and cheetah
Eyes of Octopus and mammals
Flipper of penguins and Dolphins
Wings of butterfly and birds
68/72
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 171
The ancestor of modern day man who had the largest cranial capacity among the following is
Options:
Homo sapiens neanderthalensis
Homo sapiens fossilis
Homo erectus
Homo habilis
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 172
If the frequency of the dominant allele in a population is 0.7, calculate the frequency of heterozygous individuals in the
population.
Options:
0.3
0.21
0.42
0.7
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 173
If nature favours those individuals in the population which possess the mean character value, then it is said that natural
selection leads to
Options:
Stabilisation
Directional change
Progressive change
Disruption
69/72
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 174
Select the option which contains only copper releasing IUDs
Options:
CuT, Lippes loop
Multiload 375, Cu7
Progestasert, LNG 20
Lippes loop, Cu7
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 175
Options:
Saheli is an oral contraceptive which is a selective estrogen receptor modulator
MTP during first trimester is generally safe
The permissible use of the amniocentesis is for detecting any genetic abnormality in the fetus
The test-tube baby programme employs artificial insemination for fertilization
You scored 0 of 4
In the human body, what percent of the lymphoid tissue constitutes MALT?
Options:
80%
90%
50%
20%
70/72
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 177
Syphilis, a sexually transmitted infection, is caused by the infection of
Options:
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Treponema pallidum
Human Immuno deficiency virus
Human papilloma virus
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 178
What is the primary nature of the drug that is obtained from the plant Atropa belladona?
Options:
Painkiller
Antipyretic
Depressant
Hallucinogen
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 179
Choose the odd one w.r.t. viral diseases of poultry.
Options:
Pasteurellosis
Bird flu
Fowl pox
Ranikhet
71/72
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 180
Select the incorrect statement.
Options:
The world’s highly prized wool yielding ‘Pashmina’ is obtained from a goat
Some of the marine fishes that are eaten include Catla and Rohu
Homozygous purelines in cattle can be obtained by mating of related individuals of same breed.
Out-breeding is an important strategy in animal husbandry because it is useful in overcoming inbreeding depression.
72/72

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4/17/2020 Best Medical(NEET) & Engineering Coaching Institute Online - Aakash iTutor

Answer keys : AIATS For One Year Medical-2020_Mock Test-5

The kinetic energy of the block at x = 10 m will be

total acceleration is then

m/s. The speed of fluid flow at O2 is

Consider the following two statements.

a. Capacitances are called inertia of electrical circuits.

The correct statement(s) is/are

Uniform and non-uniform

Non-uniform and uniform

Non-uniform on both surfaces

Uniform on both surfaces

Choose the incorrect statement among the following

Inside bulk matter of a conductor electrostatic field is zero

Electric field is always conservative in nature

There are three vectors and The unit vector along is

A small signal voltage is applied across an ideal inductor L. Then

Current I(t) leads voltage V(t) by 90°

Voltage V(t) leads current I(t) by 90°

Current I(t) is in phase with V(t)

Current I(t) leads voltage V(t) by 180°

The ratio of currents in 4 Ω resistor and 15 Ω resistor in the following circuit is

Amplitude of electric field in an electromagnetic wave of intensity 1.475 W/m2 is nearly

The truth table for the circuit shown in the figure is

–2.67 × 10–8 J/kg

–8.1 × 10–7 J/kg

–4.9 × 10–4 J/kg

Both electric field and potential difference remains the same

The maximum number of atoms is present in

224 ml of CH4 at STP

0.2 mole of urea

Correct order of first ionization enthalpy of the given elements is

The isostructural pair among the following is

SF4 and XeF4

Which among the following has maximum bond order?

CO2 > O2 > N2 > H2

H2 > N2 > O2 > CO2

O2 > N2 > CO2 > H2

H2 > O2 > CO2 > N2

Which among the given molecules exhibit tautomerism?

I and III only

Consider the following reaction

The amine which will not react with Hinsberg’s reagent is

Correct acidic strength order of the given compounds is

(II) > (III) > (IV) > (I)

(IV) > (I) > (III) > (II)

(IV) > (II) > (III) > (I)

(IV) > (I) > (II) > (III)

Acetone and acetaldehyde can be chemically distinguished by

Both (1) and (3)

Monomer of natural rubber is

Antihistamine among the following is

Number of chiral carbons present in α-D-glucose is

In which of the following reactions C – C bond formation takes palce?

The metal which is refined by distillation is

In which species p -d bond is absent?

NO2 and N2O

N2O and NO2

The correct order of boiling point of HF, HCl and HBr is

HBr > HCl > HF

HF > HCl > HBr

HF > HBr > HCl