Answer Keys: Final Test Series For NEET-2021 - Test-02A: You Scored 4 of 4

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Answer keys : Final Test Series for NEET-2021_Test-02A
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 1
If and the component of along is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
B cosθ =

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 2
A force of N acts on a body for 2 s and produces a displacement of m, calculate the power
Options:
5W
10 W
4W
8W
Solution :
Answer (1)
=5W
1/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 3
In a ballistics demonstration a police officer fires a bullet of mass 40.0 g with speed 200 m/s on a soft plywood of thickness
4.00 cm. The bullet emerges with only 25% of its initial kinetic energy. The emergent speed of the bullet will be
Options:
25 m/s
75 m/s
40 m/s
100 m/s
Solution :
Answer (4)
m/s
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 4
If . The scalar m is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
2/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 5
Statement-A : Ability to do the work is called energy.

Statement-B : Energy and power is a scalar quantity.
Options:
Both A and B are correct
Both A and B are incorrect
A is correct and B is incorrect
A is incorrect and B is correct
Solution :
Answer (1)
Both statement are correct.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 6
Velocity (v)-time (t) graph of a particle moving in a straight line is shown in the figure. Mass of the particle 2 kg. Work done
by all the forces acting on the particle in time interval between t = 0 to t = 10 s is
Options:
125 J
–125 J
75 J
–75 J
Solution :
Answer (3)
= (10)2 – (5)2
= 75 J
3/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 7
A uniform metal rod is suspended from one end. When it is displaced through 60° from downward vertical, the change in
potential energy is ‘U’. The further change in potential energy when it is displaced further 30° is
Options:
2U
4U
Solution :
Answer (1)
U = mg (1 – cos60°)

U=

= =U
4/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 8
A constant force is applied on a 10 kg mass at rest. The ratio of work done in 1st, 2nd and 3rd second will be
Options:
1:2:3
1:3:5
1:4:9
1:1:1
Solution :
Answer (2)
S1 =

S2 = –

S3 =

W1 : W2 : W3 = S1 : S2 : S3
=1:3:5
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 9
Internal forces can change
Options:
Kinetic energy
Total momentum of system
Total angular momentum of system
All of these
Solution :
Answer (1)
Internal force can change kinetic energy of the system.
5/88
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 10 skipped
A person of mass 50 kg standing on a smooth horizontal plane of ice throws a body of mass 5 kg with velocity 10 m/s. Then
the total kinetic energy of person and body is
Options:
275 J
150 J
300 J
375 J
Solution :
Answer (1)
By conservation of liner momentum
m/s

K=

K = 25 + 250
= 275 J
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 11
A particle moves in a straight line with retardation proportional to displacement. Its loss of kinetic energy for any
displacement x is proportional to
Options:
x2
ex
loge x
Solution :
Answer (1)
=–

6/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 12
A body is revolving in a vertical circle with constant mechanical energy. The speed of the body at the highest point is
. The speed of the body at the lowest position will be
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
By Conservation of energy
2mg r + =

2gr + =

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 13
A particle of mass m moving with velocity u collides elastically head on with a particle of mass 2m at rest. After collision the
heavier particle moves with velocity
Options:
2u
Solution :
Answer (1)
7/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 14
The collision in which the relative velocity of approach before collision is equal to relative velocity of separation after
collision is
Options:
Completely inelastic collision
Elastic collision
Inelastic collision
Both elastic and inelastic collision
Solution :
Answer (2)
For elastic collision e = 1
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 15
Potential energy of a particle is given by U = (2x2–8x) J, where x is in meter. The force on the particle will be zero at
Options:
x=2m
x = –2 m
x=4m
x = –4 m
Solution :
Answer (1)
= –4x + 8
F=0
– 4x + 8 = 0
x=2m
8/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 16
A particle is acted upon by a constant power. Then, which of the following physical quantity remains constant?
Options:
Speed
Rate of change of acceleration
Rate of change of kinetic energy
Kinetic energy
Solution :
Answer (3)
You scored 0 of 4
A force F = (3x2 + 2x + 1) N (where x is in metre) is acting on a body of mass 10 kg. The change in kinetic energy of the
body when it moves from A (0,1,2) m to B (2, 0, 3) m, will be
Options:
12 J
14 J
8J
16 J
Solution :
Answer (2)
dW = Fdx
W=

= 23 + 22 + 2
= 14 J
W=

= 14 J
9/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 18
If the force acting on a body is inversely proportional to its speed, then its kinetic energy is
Options:
Linearly related to time
Inversely proportional to time
Inversely proportional to square of time
Constant
Solution :
Answer (1)
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 19
A billiards player hits a stationary ball by an identical ball to pocket the target ball in a corner pocket that is at an angle of
40° with respect to the direction of motion of first ball. Assuming the collision as elastic and friction and rotational motion are
not important, the angle made by the target ball with respect to the incoming ball is
Options:
40°
50°
45°
60°
Solution :
Answer (4)
For two dimensional elastic collision when target at rest and both masses equal then
θ1 + θ2 = 90°
θ2 = 90° – 40° = 50°
10/88
You scored 0 of 4
A force of 40 N is applied on a body of mass 4 kg resting on horizontal plane. The body gain a kinetic energy 20 J after it
move distance 2 m. The frictional force is
Options:
20 N
30 N
25 N
10 N
Solution :
Answer (2)
40 × 2 – f × 2 = 20
2f = 60 J
f = 30 N
11/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 21
A rod of length L and mass M is bent to form a circular ring. The moment of inertia of the ring about its diameter will be
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
2πR = L
R=

I=
12/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 22
Two homogenous disc A and B of mass m and 3m having radii 3a, a respectively are placed in touch. The distance of
centre of mass from centre of disc A is
Options:
2a
3a
2.5a
Solution :
Answer (3)
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 23
When no external force is acting on a particle, the centre of mass of the system
Options:
Remains at rest
Moves with constant velocity only
Moves with constant velocity or will be at rest
Move with variable velocity
Solution :
Answer (3)
F=0
Mvcm = 0
or
Mvcm = constant
13/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 24
A uniform circular disc has a radius of 20 cm. A circular disc of radius 10 cm is cut concentrically from original disc. The shift
in the centre of mass is
Options:
cm
cm
cm
Zero
Solution :
Answer (4)
Centre of mass will be remains at the centre therefore shift will be zero
14/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 25
The radius of gyration of a uniform circular disc of mass m and radius R about an tangential axis lying in the plane of the
disc will be
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
MK2 =

K=
15/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 26
If and , then unit vector perpendicular to and will be
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 27
The value of is equal to
Options:
2A2B2
A2 + B2
Zero
A2B2
Solution :
Answer (4)
16/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 28
Two balls are thrown simultaneously in air. The acceleration of the centre of mass of the two balls while in air
Options:
Is equal to g
Is equal to g/2
Depends on the masses of two body
Depends on the direction of motion of the ball
Solution :
Answer (1)
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 29
The instantaneous angular position of a point on a rotating wheel is given by the equation rad, where t
is in second. The magnitude of angular velocity of the point when angular acceleration becomes zero.
Options:
2 rad/s
4 rad/s
3 rad/s
6 rad/s
Solution :
Answer (4)
When
t=1s
= –6 rad/s
17/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 30
A rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 5 kg and radius 20 cm. If rope is pulled with a force of 20 N, the angular
acceleration of the cylinder will be
Options:
20 rad/s2
30 rad/s2
40 rad/s2
10 rad/s2
Solution :
Answer (1)
20 × 20 × 10–2 =
4=

= 20 rad/s2
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 31
A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R rotates about an axis passing through its centre making 60 rpm. Its kinetic energy
of rotation is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
18/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 32
A solid sphere of mass m rolls without slipping down on inclined plane with an acceleration a. The frictional force on the
solid sphere due to surface of the plane is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
mg sinθ – f = ma
19/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 33
A homogenous cylinder of mass m and radius r is pulled on a horizontal plane by a horizontal force F acting on its centre of
mass. Assume rolling without slipping. The acceleration of the centre of mass of the cylinder will be
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
F – f = ma
f×R=

f=

20/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 34
Two identical discs are moving with same kinetic energy. One rolls and other slides. The ratio of their speed of centre of
mass is
Options:
1:1
Solution :
Answer (2)
21/88
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 35
A circular disc rotates freely about a vertical axis through its centre with angular velocity . A ring having the same mass
and radius of the disc is placed on the disc and the system now rotates with an angular velocity about the same vertical
axis. Then ω2/ω1 is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
By conservation angular momentum
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 36
A cylinder of mass 10 kg and radius 15 cm is rolling without slipping on a plane of inclination 30°. The co-efficient of static
friction . If the inclination θ of the plane is increased at what value of θ does the cylinder begin to skid and not
roll perfectly?
Options:
37°
53°
90°
0°
Solution :
Answer (1)
22/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 37
For a system to be in equilibrium, the torques acting on it must balance. This is true only if the torques are taken about
Options:
The centre of the system
The centre of mass of the system
Any point on the system
Any point on the system or outside it
Solution :
Answer (4)
Net torque about any axis is zero then object will be equilibrium about that axis.
You scored 0 of 4
The figure shows a uniform rod of length l moving such that velocity of its centre of is . If the end A of the rod is
suddenly fixed. The angular velocity of the rod will be
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
By conservation of angular momentum
23/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 39
Where must the cue hit a billiard ball so that it rolls without slipping from start if R is the radius of the ball?
Options:
At a height equal to the radius from table
At a height R above centre
At a height equal to from table
At a height equal to 2R from the table
Solution :
Answer (2)
above the centre
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 40
A hollow sphere of mass 12 kg rotates about its axis with angular speed 50 rad/s. The radius of the hollow sphere is 0.25 m.
The kinetic energy associated with rotation of the hollow sphere is
Options:
1250 J
700 J
625 J
1400 J
Solution :
Answer (3)
= 625 J
24/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 41
A uniform sphere of mass m and radius r rolls without slipping down an inclined plane, inclined at an angle 53° to the
horizontal. What is minimum value of coefficient of friction at which slipping is absent?
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
25/88
You scored 0 of 4
A disc of mass m and radius R is rolling without slipping as shown in the figure. The velocity of the point P will be
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
26/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 43
A hoop of radius r weighs m kg. It rolls along a horizontal surface so that centre of mass has speed v m/s. How much work
has to be done to stop it?
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 44
A boy standing on a rotating table, with heavy spheres in his hands, suddenly brings his hands close to his body. Then
Options:
Angular momentum of the system remains same
Angular velocity of system decreases
Angular momentum of system increases
Both (2) and (3)
Solution :
Answer (1)
Angular momentum remains same
27/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 45
If 484 J of energy is spent in increasing speed of wheel from 60 rpm to 360 rpm, the moment of inertia of the wheel is
Options:
1.2 kg m2
0.3 kg m2
1.6 kg m2
0.7 kg m2
Solution :
Answer (4)
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 46
Which among the following is a paramagnetic species?
Options:
B2
N2
H2
Solution :
Answer (1)
According to molecular orbital theory B2 contains 2 unpaired electrons.
28/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 47
Correct order of bond length among the following is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
Lesser the bond order, longer is the bond length.
Species Bond order

O2 2
1. 5
2. 5
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 48
Which among the following is linear in shape?
Options:
H2O
C2H2
Solution :
Answer (4)
H–C≡C–H
Linear
29/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 49
Consider the following statements

a. NO2 is an odd electron molecule
b. O3 molecule has two resonating structures
c. PF5 follows octet rule
The correct statements is/are
Options:
a and b only
b and c only
a and c only
a, b and c
Solution :
Answer (1)
PF5 does not follow octet rule
10 electrons around P atom
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 50
pπ-dπ bond is present in which of the given species?
Options:
H2CO3
HNO3
H3PO4
N2O5
Solution :
Answer (3)
In H2CO3, HNO3 and N2O5 all π bonds are pπ-pπ but in H3PO4 pπ-dπ bond is also present.
30/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 51
In number of bond pair(s) and lone pair(s) of electrons associated with sulphur atom respectively are
Options:
4 and 1
2 and 1
3 and 1
3 and 0
Solution :
Answer (1)
Number of bond pairs = 4

Number of lone pair = 1
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 52
In which of the following species, the central atom is sp3d hybridised?
Options:
XeF2
IF5
SF6
Solution :
Answer (2)
Species Hybridization
sp3
XeF2 sp3d
IF5 sp3d2
SF6 sp3d2
31/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 53
The species which is isostructural with PH3 is
Options:
ClF3
BCl3
SO3
XeO3
Solution :
Answer (4)
sp3 hybridised and pyramidal in shape

sp3 hybridised and pyramidal in shape
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 54
Longest bond length will be observed in
Options:
N–O
C–O
C–C
C–N
Solution :
Answer (3)
Larger the size of atom, longer is the bond length.
32/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 55

a. Dipole moment of NH3 is greater than H2O
b. Dipole moment of CCl4 is zero
c. Dipole moment is a vector quantity
The incorrect statement(s) is/are
Options:
a only
a and b only
b only
a and c only
Solution :
Answer (1)
Dipole moment of H2O is greater than NH3.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 56
Most viscous compound among the following is
Options:
Ethylene glycol
Dichloromethane
Acetone
Water
Solution :
Answer (1)
Because of strong intermolecular hydrogen bonding ethylene glycol is most viscous
33/88
You scored 0 of 4
During change of C2 to the electron adds to which of the following orbitals?
Options:
π* orbital
σ* orbital
σ orbital
π orbital
Solution :
Answer (3)
In conversion from C2 to , the electron goes to σ molecular orbital.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 58
Which of the following does not exist?
Options:
Be2
Solution :
Answer (3)
Bond order of Be2 = 0. Hence it does not exist.
34/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 59
The shape and hybridization of SF2Cl2 respectively are
Options:
Square planar and sp3d
See-saw and sp3d
Square planar and sp3d2
Tetrahedral and sp3
Solution :
Answer (2)
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 60

a. o-nitrophenol forms intramolecular hydrogen bond
b. Boiling point of H2S is greater than H2O
c. Hydrogen bond is stronger than covalent bond
Options:
a only
a and c only
a and b only
b and c only
Solution :
Answer (4)
λ Boiling point of H2O is greater than H2S because H2O is associated by intermolecular hydrogen bonding
λ Covalent bond is stronger than hydrogen bond
35/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 61
Correct order of covalent character of the given compounds is
Options:
LiCl > LiBr > LiI
LiBr > LiI > LiCl
LiI > LiBr > LiCl
LiBr > LiCl > LiI
Solution :
Answer (3)
For a given cation, larger is the size of anion greater is the covalent character.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 62
Bond order of P – O bond is is
Options:
1.75
1.66
1.5
1.25
Solution :
Answer (4)
bond order =
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 63
Which among the following has highest lattice energy?
Options:
LiCl
NaCl
KCl
RbCl
Solution :
Answer (1)
For a given anion, smaller is the size of cation higher is lattice energy.
36/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 64
Correct order of bond angle in the given species is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
Species Bond angle

NH3 107°
109°28'
BF3 120°
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 65
If dipole moment of AB molecule is 1.6 × 10–29 Cm and distance of A – B bond is 1.6 Å, then percentage ionic character of
the compound will be
Options:
62.5%
75.1%
70.5%
80.5%
Solution :
Answer (1)
Percentage ionic character

37/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 66

a. For ideal gas Z = 1 at all temperature and pressure
b. O2 is more compressible than H2
c. The temperature at which a real gas obeys ideal gas law over an appreciable range of pressure is called critical
temperature
The correct statements are
Options:
a and b only
b and c only
a and c only
a, b and c
Solution :
Answer (1)
The temperature at which a real gas obeys ideal gas law over an appreciable range of pressure is called Boyle temperature.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 67
A closed cylinder contains 20 g helium gas and 64 g oxygen gas exerting a pressure of 10 atm. Partial pressure of oxygen
in the cylinder is
Options:
3.21 atm
2.86 atm
4.45 atm
6.81 atm
Solution :
Answer (2)
Mole of He

Mole of

Partial pressure of

= 2.86 atm
38/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 68
Which among the following has lowest critical temperature?
Options:
NH3
N2
CO2
H2O
Solution :
Answer (2)
Generally more polar the molecule and higher is the molar mass, higher is the critical temperature.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 69
Under identical conditions of temperature and pressure, which of the following gases has highest density?
Options:
N2
O2
NH3
He
Solution :
Answer (2)
d ∝ M [At constant P and T]
39/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 70
Dipole-dipole interaction energy between stationary polar molecules is proportional to (r is distance between polar
molecules)
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
Dipole dipole interaction energy between stationary polar molecules is proportional to
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 71
For a fixed mass of a gas, consider the following graph for an ideal gas
Correct relation between P1, P2, P3 and P4 is
Options:
P4 > P3 > P2 > P1
P1 > P2 > P3 > P4
P1 > P2 > P4 > P3
P4 > P3 > P1 > P2
Solution :
Answer (2)
At a given temperature for a fixed mass of gas, lesser is the volume higher is the pressure .
40/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 72

a. Surface tension increases as temperature is raised
b. SI unit of surface tension is Nm–1
c. The energy required to increase the surface area of the liquid by one unit is called surface energy
Options:
a only
b only
a and b only
a and c only
Solution :
Answer (1)
Surface tension decreases as temperature increases.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 73
A certain volume of gas takes two times as long to diffuse out as same volume of methane. The molecular mass of the gas
is
Options:
32 u
16 u
64 u
48 u
Solution :
Answer (3)
According to Graham’s Law,
Rate of diffusion

or
t2 = 2 t1, M1 = 16, M2 = ?
or,

or,
41/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 74
If the temperature of a gas is raised from 127°C to 927°C then the root mean square speed of the gas becomes
Options:
1.414 times
2 times
1.732 times
3 times
Solution :
Answer (3)
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 75
Unit of van der Waals’ constant a is
Options:
atm L2 mol–2
atm2 L mol–1
atm2 L2 mol–1
atm2 L mol–2
Solution :
Answer (1)
Unit of van der Waals’ constant a is atm L2 mol–2
42/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 76
At very low pressure the compressibility factor of a real gas is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
At very low pressure

(V – b) V
43/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 77
Correct order of dipole moment of the given molecules is
Options:
ii > iii > i
iii > ii > i
iii > i > ii
i > ii > iii
Solution :
Answer (2)
Molecule Dipole moment
2D
1. 5 D
0D
44/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 78
Total kinetic energy of 56 g of N2 gas at 27°C is
Options:
12.5 kJ
7.5 kJ
4.5 kJ
9.1 kJ
Solution :
Answer (2)
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 79
Maximum number of atoms present in a plane in SF6 molecule is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
maximum 5 atoms are present in a plane
45/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 80
If the average velocity of an ideal gas at 127°C is x m/s then the average velocity of the gas at 527°C will be
Options:
2x m/s
3x m/s
Solution :
Answer (3)
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 81
Pressure exerted by 16 g of oxygen gas in 0.01 m3 vessel at 47°C is
Options:
4.5 atm
1.3 atm
2.1 atm
6.8 atm
Solution :
Answer (2)
PV = nRT
P = 1.3 atm
46/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 82
In the van der Waals’ gas equation the term which indicates the volume occupied by the gas molecules is
Options:
(V – nb)
nb
Solution :
Answer (3)
nb indicates the volume occupied by the gas molecules.
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 83
An open flask containing air is heated from 400 K to 600 K. The percentage of air left in the flask is
Options:
33.33%
75%
25%
66.67%
Solution :
Answer (4)
PV = nRT
PV = constant
Percentage of air in the flask

= 66.67%
47/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 84

a. Greater is the viscosity, more slowly the liquid flows
b. Glass is an extremely viscous liquid
c. SI unit of viscosity coefficient is N m–2
Options:
b only
c only
b and c only
a and c only
Solution :
Answer (2)
SI unit of viscosity coefficient is N sm–2
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 85
A real gas becomes ideal at
Options:
Low temperature and high pressure
Low temperature and low pressure
High temperature and high pressure
High temperature and low pressure
Solution :
Answer (4)
At high temperature and low pressure the real gas behaves ideally.
48/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 86
The ratio of most probable speed of Helium at 100 K to that of O2 at 400 K is
Options:
2:1
4:1
Solution :
Answer (4)
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 87
If the temperature of the gas molecules is increased then which is an incorrect statement about Maxwell Boltzmann
distribution curve?
Options:
The most probable speed increases
The fraction of molecules having higher speed decreases
The fraction of molecules having most probable speed decreases
The entire curve shifts towards right
Solution :
Answer (2)
The fraction of molecules having higher speed increases.
49/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 88
In which of the following pairs, hydrogen bond is present?
Options:
He and Cl2
HCl and H2
NH3 and H2O
H2O and H2
Solution :
Answer (3)
Ammonia and water will be associated by hydrogen bond.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 89
Surface tension of which of the following liquid is maximum?
Options:
CH3OH
n-hexane
H2O
Acetone
Solution :
Answer (3)
Due to strong intermolecular force of attraction the surface tension in water is maximum.
50/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 90
Incorrect statement about PCl5 molecule is
Options:
Central atom is sp3d hybridised
The shape of the molecule is trigonal bipyramidal
Axial bonds are shorter than equatorial bonds
Three P – Cl bond lie in one plane
Solution :
Answer (3)
Axial bond pair suffer more repulsive interaction from equatorial bond pairs. Hence axial bonds are slightly longer than
equatorial bonds.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 91
Arrange the following zones of root from its apex part and select the correct option
a. Root cap zone
b. Meristematic zone
c. Elongation zone
d. Maturation zone
Options:
a, c, b, d
b, c, d, a
a, b, c, d
d, c, b, a
Solution :
Answer (3)
Following are the correct sequence of zones of root, from its apex
Root cap zone meristematic zone Elongation zone Maturation zone
51/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 92
Root cap is
Options:
Multicellular and sclerenchymatous
Unicellular and sclerenchymatous
Unicellular and parenchymatous
Multicellular and parenchymatous
Solution :
Answer (4)
Root cap is multicellular and is made up of parenchymatous cell.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 93
Which of the following functions is generally not performed by root?
Options:
Synthesis of PGR
Synthesis of food
Absorption of water and minerals
Storage of food
Solution :
Answer (2)
Synthesis of food is generally not performed by root.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 94
Choose the wrong statement.
Options:
Carrot, turnip and sweet potato are the examples of modified adventitious root
Stilt roots arise from lower nodes of the stem
Rhizophora is growing in swampy areas
Prop roots are the aerial roots.
Solution :
Answer (1)
Carrot and turnip are the examples of modified tap root, Sweet potato is modified adventitious root.
52/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 95
Match the columns w.r.t. plants and their vegetative propagules
Column I Column II
a. Rhizome (i) Potato
b. Corm (ii) Ginger
c. Bulb (iii) Zaminkand
d. Tuber (iv) Garlic
Options:
a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
Solution :
Answer (4)
Following are the plants and their vegetative propagules:
Rhizome Ginger
Corm Zaminkand

Bulb Garlic

Tuber Potato
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 96
The modified underground stems are meant for all of the given, except
Options:
Organs of perennation
Storing food materials
Vegetative reproduction
Photosynthesis
Solution :
Answer (4)
Modified underground stem does not perform photosynthesis.
53/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 97
Among the list of some plants
Grapevine, Pumpkins, Cucumber, Bougainvillea, China rose, Rose, Cactus
How many of them show stem tendrils?
Options:
Three
Five
Six
Two
Solution :
Answer (1)
Axillary buds are modified into tendrils in grape vine, pumpkins and cucumber.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 98
Which of the following features is incorrect for phylloclade?
Options:
It shows unlimited growth
Green in colour and photosynthetic in nature
Modified fleshy cylindrical structure
Has large number of stem thorns
Solution :
Answer (4)
Phylloclade has large number of spines and bristles. It is itself a modified stem.
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 99
Find odd one pair of plants w.r.t. phyllotaxy
Options:
Alstonia and Nerium
Tomato and brinjal
China rose and mustard
Sunflower and mustard
Solution :
Answer (1)
Alstonia and Nerium show whorled phyllotaxy; rest all of the given plants exhibit alternate phyllotaxy.
54/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 100
Which component of the embryo, present in the germinating seed give rise to the stem?
Options:
Radicle
Plumule
Endosperm
Aleurone layer
Solution :
Answer (2)
The plumule of the embryo, present in the germinating seeds gives rise to stem.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 101
Select the correct match:
Options:
Bisexual flower – Maize
Actinomorphic flower – Pea
Zygomorphic flower – Datura
Asymmetric flower – Canna
Solution :
Answer (4)
Maize is unisexual. Datura has actinomorphic flower whereas pea flower is zygomorphic.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 102
Which type of aestivation is common in fabaceae, solanaceae and liliaceae families?
Options:
Valvate aestivation
Imbricate aestivation
Vexillary aestivation
Twisted aestivation
Solution :
Answer (1)
Valvate aestivation is seen in plant families like, Fabaceae, Solanaceae and Liliaceae.
55/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 103
Which of the following is correctly matched?
Options:
Formation of false septum – Axile placentation
Presence of true septum – Marginal placentation
Absence of septum – Free central placentation
Presence of ventral suture – Parietal placentation
Solution :
Answer (3)
Ovules are present on central axis and septa are absent in the ovary as in free central placentation e.g.: Dianthus.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 104
How many features are related to the mango fruit?

a. Simple fruit
b. True fruit
c. False fruit
d. Edible mesocarp
Options:
Four
Two
Three
One
Solution :
Answer (3)
Mango is a simple, true fruit and mesocarp is edible.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 105
Coconut is fibrous drupe because it has
Options:
Fibrous epicarp and stony endocarp
Fibrous mesocarp and stony epicarp
Fibrous endocarp and stony seed coat
Fibrous mesocarp and stony endocarp
Solution :
Answer (4)
Mesocarp of coconut is fibrous which is used in making coir, endocarp is stony, so called fibrous drupe.
56/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 106
Which of the following statements is not true for maize seed?
Options:
Seed coat is membranous
Seed is endospermous
Sheath of the plumule is coleorrhiza
Seed coat is fused with fruit wall
Solution :
Answer (3)
The plumule and radicle are enclosed in sheaths which are called coleoptile and coleorrhiza respectively.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 107
Choose the correct match.
(A) (B) (C)

Symbols of floral formula Family Characters
(1) Fabaceae Epitepalous stamens
(2) Liliaceae Epiphyllous stamens
(3) G(n) Brassicaceae Inferior ovary

(4) % Solanaceae Actinomorphic flower
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (2)
Epiphyllous stamens are seen in family Liliaceae.
Floral formula of Liliaceae is
57/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 108
The floral formula: % K(5) C1+2+(2) A(9)+1 G1 represents, which of the given plant families?
Options:
Fabaceae
Liliaceae
Solanaceae
Brassicaceae
Solution :
Answer (1)
% is floral formula of family Fabaceae.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 109
Which one of the following is a fumigatory plant?
Options:
Belladonna
Muliathi
Tobacco
Aloe
Solution :
Answer (3)
Nicotiana tabacum (Tobacco) is a fumigatory plant.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 110
Swollen placenta with large number of ovules is the characteristic of a family
Options:
Having umbellate clusters of flower
Showing fibrous and adventitious roots
Having ex-albuminous seeds
Having persistent calyx
Solution :
Answer (4)
Swollen placenta with many ovules are seen in plants of family Solanaceae. They have persistent calyx as in chilli, brinjal,
tomato.
58/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 111
The tetradynamous and sometimes didynamous conditions of stamens is observed in family
Options:
Fabaceae
Brassicaceae
Liliaceae
Poaceae
Solution :
Answer (2)
Tetradynamous and sometimes didynamous condition is seen in flowers of family Brassicaceae.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 112
Select the pair of plants where gynoecium is situated in centre and other parts of flowers are located on the rim of the
thalamus, almost at the same level as the ovary
Options:
Plum and Peach
Guava and Cucumber
Ray floret and disc floret of sunflower
Brinjal and Tomato
Solution :
Answer (1)
If gynoecium is situated in centre and other parts of fower are located on rim or periphery of thalamus, almost at the same level
as the ovary. The flower is called perigynous. eg. plum, rose, peach.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 113
Find odd one w.r.t. gram seed
Options:
Presence of testa and tegmen
Embryonal axis with plumule and radicle
Endosperm as food storing tissue
Cotyledons as food storing parts
Solution :
Answer (3)
In gram seed is dicotyledonous and exalbuminous. Cotyledons are full of reserve food materials.
59/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 114
Cymose inflorescence is characterized by all, except.
Options:
Clusters of flowers
Growth of floral axis is terminated
Flowers are born in a basipetal order
Younger flowers are arranged towards the apex
Solution :
Answer (4)
Clusters of flowers are present in racemose as well as in cymose inflorescence. In racemose inflorescence, younger flowers are
borne towards the apex.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 115
The edible underground stems are
Options:
Potato and tomato
Potato and ginger
Onion and carrot
Amorphophallus and sweet potato
Solution :
Answer (2)
Potato is tuber whereas ginger is rhizome. Both are modified underground stems.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 116
Phelloderm is also called
Options:
Secondary cortex
Primary cortex
Cork cambium
Cork
Solution :
Answer (1)
Phelloderm is called secondary cortex because it is the cortex that develops during secondary growth.
60/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 117
How many given features are related to meristematic tissue?

a. Cells are always in active state of division.
b. Helps in regeneration of parts removed by grazing animals.
c. Helps in both primary and secondary growth of plant.
d. Never form axillary bud.
Options:
Three
Two
One
Four
Solution :
Answer (1)
Cells of meristem are in active state of division, help in regeneration of grazing part and responsible for both primary and
secondary growth.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 118
Arrange the following components in an order from inside to outside, in a dicot stem, then choose correct option.
A. Vascular bundles
B. Pith
C. Pericycle
D. Cortex
Options:
A–B–C–D
D–C–A–B
B–A–C–D
B–D–C–A
Solution :
Answer (3)
61/88
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Question : 119
Which of the following is made up of living cells?
Options:
Sclerenchyma
Collenchyma
Xylem vessels
Phloem fibres
Solution :
Answer (2)
Xylem components are dead except xylem parenchyma. Collenchyma is a living mechanical tissue.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 120
Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. monocot stem.
Options:
Hypodermis is sclerenchymatous
Endodermis is absent but pericycle is present
Medullary rays are absent
Vascular bundles are larger towards centre and smaller towards periphery
Solution :
Answer (2)
Endodermis and pericycle both are absent in monocot stem.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 121
Sclereids are obliterated cells. They are found in all, except
Options:
Fruit walls of walnut
Pulp of fruit like guava
Tea leaves
Sunhemp stem
Solution :
Answer (4)
Phloem fibres are found in stem of sunhemp and are used commercially for various purposes.
62/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 122
Which of the following statements is incorrect for sieve tube elements?
Options:
Thin walled living structures
Having peripheral cytoplasm with prominent nucleus
Are food conducting elements of plants
Sieve tube and companion cells are sister cells
Solution :
Answer (2)
A mature sieve tube element possesses a peripheral cytoplasm and a large central vacuole but lacks a nucleus.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 123
The stomatal aperture, guard cells and the surrounding subsidiary cells are together called
Options:
Egg apparatus
Golgi apparatus
Stomatal apparatus
Hydathodes
Solution :
Answer (3)
Stomatal apparatus = Stomatal pore + guard cells + subsidiary cells
63/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 124
Match the columns.
Column I Column II
a. Epidermal appendages (i) Specialised empty epidermal cells
b. Bulliform cells (ii) Multilayered in Nerium
c. Epidermis (iii) Preventing the water loss
d. Trichomes (iv) Unicellular root hairs
Options:
a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
Solution :
Answer (4)
Root hairs are epidermal appendages. Epidermis is multilayered in Nerium.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 125
The features like parenchymatous or sclerenchymatous; single-layered or multilayered and thick walled or thin walled, are
true for
Options:
Endodermis
Pericycle
Medullary rays
Hypodermis
Solution :
Answer (2)
Pericycle is the outermost portion of stele. It may be present in the form of patches. It may be single layered or multilayered,
parenchymatous or sclerenchymatous.
64/88
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Question : 126
When xylem and phloem are jointly situated on the same radius of the vascular bundles is called
Options:
Radial vascular bundles
Conjoint vascular bundles
Bicollateral vascular bundles
Concentric vascular bundles
Solution :
Answer (2)
The conjoint vascular bundles have the phloem which is located only on the outerside of xylem, towards the periphery. These
are arranged on same radius.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 127
Vascular bundles are usually two to four in
Options:
Monocot root
Monocot stem
Dicot root
Dicot stem
Solution :
Answer (3)
2-4 vascular bundles are found in dicot roots whereas it is polyarch in monocot roots.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 128
Choose the odd one w.r.t. meristem types based on origin
Options:
Apical meristem
Intrafascicular cambium
Interfascicular cambium
Intercalary meristem
Solution :
Answer (3)
Apical, intercalary meristem and intrafascicular cambium is primary in origin whereas interfascicular cambium is secondary in
origin.
65/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 129
Ground tissue system in monocot leaf is represented by
Options:
Palisade mesophyll
Spongy mesophyll
General cortex
Mesophyll
Solution :
Answer (4)
In monocot leaf, ground tissue system, i.e., mesophyll is not differentiated.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 130
Which of the following xylem is innermost during secondary growth in a woody stem?
Options:
Primary xylem
First year secondary xylem
Second year secondary xylem
Third year secondary xylem
Solution :
Answer (1)
In a dicot stem, during secondary growth primary xylem is pushed into centre.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 131
Choose the correct match.
Options:
Stele – All tissues on the innerside of endodermis
Cork – Impervious due to deposition of lignin
Autumn wood – Lower density
Soft bark – Formed at the end of season
Solution :
Answer (1)
Stele = Pericycle + Vascular bundles + Pith (if present)
66/88
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Question : 132
Lenticel is a small portion of periderm which is produced due to the activity of
Options:
Vascular cambium
Intrafascicular cambium
Phellogen
Phellem
Solution :
Answer (3)
Lenticel is produced due to activity of phellogen. Phellogen forms cork towards outside and secondary cortex towards innerside.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 133
Secondary growth occurs in
Options:
Stems and roots of angiosperms only
Stems and roots of gymnosperms only
Stems of monocots and roots of gymnosperms
Stems and roots of dicots and gymnosperms
Solution :
Answer (4)
Secondary growth is absent in monocotyledons.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 134
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
Options:
Cork cambium is formed from pericycle in dicot root
The vascular bundles are conjoint collateral and closed in dicot leaf
The conducting tissue is formed by vascular bundles
Wood is actually a secondary phloem
Solution :
Answer (4)
Wood is actually a secondary xylem.
67/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 135
The study of age of the woody plants growing in temperate region by counting the growth rings as spring wood and autumn
wood is called
Options:
Dendrograph
Dendrochronology
Phyllotaxy
Inflorescence
Solution :
Answer (2)
Spring wood and autumn wood are distinct as light colour and dark colour respectively in woody tree of temperate region.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 136
Glycosidic bonds are present in

a. Proteins
b. Lipids
c. Starch
d. DNA
Choose the correct option.
Options:
a and b
b and c
Only c
c and d
Solution :
Answer (4)
Glycosidic bonds are present in disaccharides, polysaccharides and in nucleotides of nucleic acids.
68/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 137
‘Ramachandran plot’ is associated with
Options:
Triple helical structure of collagen
Ball and stick model of biomicromolecules
Linear structure of cellulose
Secondary metabolites
Solution :
Answer (1)
Triple helical structure of collagen was published to explain structure of proteins by using ‘Ramachandran plot’.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 138
Read the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer.
Statement-A : All the elements present in a sample of earth’s crust are also present in a sample of living tissue.
Statement-B : Relative abundance of carbon and hydrogen with respect to other elements is higher in any living organism
than in earth’s crust.
Options:
Both statements A and B are correct
Both statements A and B are incorrect
Only statement A is correct
Only statement B is correct
Solution :
Answer (1)
Oxygen is the most abundant element in human body.
69/88
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Question : 139
Choose the option which correctly represents their occurrence in filtrate and retentate during analysis of chemical
compounds of living tissues
Filtrate Retentate
(1) Glucose Amino acid
(2) Alanine Palmitic acid
(3) Lipids Nucleic acids
(4) Proteins Copper sulphate
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (2)
Alanine, glucose, amino acids, copper sulphate are present in acid soluble pool/filtrate whereas proteins and nucleic acids are
polymeric compounds found in retentate/acid insoluble pool. Inspite of having less molecular weight lipids are present in
retentate.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 140
When a tissue is fully burnt, ‘Ash’ is obtained which contains all of the following substances except
Options:
Calcium
Magnesium
Carbon
Potassium
Solution :
Answer (3)
During burning, carbon is eliminated as CO2.
70/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 141
The essential chemical components of many coenzymes are
Options:
Minerals
Vitamins
Proteins
Hormones
Solution :
Answer (2)
Vitamins are essential components of many coenzymes.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 142
Co-enzymes differ from prosthetic groups in that
Options:
They require metal ions for their activity
They can act as cofactor for many enzymes
They are tightly bound to apoenzymes.
Their association with apoenzyme is transient
Solution :
Answer (4)
Coenzymes are organic compounds and their association with apoenzyme is transient, usually occurring during the course of
catalysis.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 143
How many nitrogen atoms are present in Lecithin?
Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
Choline forms polar head of lecithin and contains only one nitrogen atom.
71/88
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Question : 144
Vinblastin and curcumin are
Options:
Drugs
Toxins
Alkaloids
Lectins
Solution :
Answer (1)
Vinblastin and curcumin are drugs.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 145
Read the following statements and choose the option with all correct statements.
a. α-amino acids are substituted methanes
b. Amino acids are classified only on the basis of nature of –NH2 group.
c. There are only 20 amino acids present in different protein molecules
d. Hydroxy methyl is a functional R-group in amino acid alanine
Options:
a and b
b and c
c and d
a and c
Solution :
Answer (4)
Amino acids are classified on the basis of variable R-group. Hydroxymethyl is a functional R group in amino acid serine.
72/88
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Question : 146
Which of the following structures represents zwitterion form of a particular amino acid?
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
A particular property of amino acids is the ionisable nature of – NH2 and – COOH groups. At a particular isoelectric pH, amino
acids become electrically neutral having equal positive and negative charges. Such form of an amino acid is called zwitterion.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 147
All the carbon compounds obtained from living tissues are named as
Options:
Biomolecules
Hydrocarbons
Inorganic compounds
Nucleic acid
Solution :
Answer (1)
All organic compounds present in living tissues are called ‘biomolecules’.
73/88
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Question : 148
The amino acids are acidic, basic and neutral based on the number of
Options:
Amino groups and hydrogen
Amino and carboxyl group
Carboxyl groups and hydrogen
Only carboxyl groups
Solution :
Answer (2)
The amino acids are acidic, basic and neutral based on number of amino and carboxyl groups.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 149
Identify the given structure and name the compound
Options:
Glucose
Deoxyribose
Ribose
Uracil
Solution :
Answer (3)
The given structure is a pentose sugar named as ribose.
74/88
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Question : 150
Match the columns and identify the blanks A, B, C and D. Choose the option which fill blanks A, B, C and D correctly.
Polymeric compounds Monomers Bonds in them

A Nucleotides Phosphodiester bonds
Starch Glucose B
Proteins C Peptide bonds
Chitin D Glycosidic bonds
A B C D
(1) Nitrogenous base Cellulose Polypeptides Glucosamine
(2) RNA Glycosidic bond Peptones N-acetylmuramic Acid
(3) Nucleic acids Ester bonds Amino acids N-acetylmuramic acid
(4) Nucleic acids Glycosidic bonds Amino acids N-acetylglucos-amine
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (4)
Proteins are polymers of amino acids linked together by peptide bonds. Chitin is a polymer of N-acetyl glucosamine.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 151
Which of the following biomolecule is a heteropolymer?
Options:
Cellulose
Starch
Insulin
Chitin
Solution :
Answer (3)
Insulin is a protein in its chemical nature and formed by different amino acids.
75/88
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Question : 152
Choose the type of enzyme involved in the following reaction
Options:
Dehydrogenase
Transferase
Isomerase
Ligase
Solution :
Answer (2)
Enzymes catalysing a transfer of a group, G (other than hydrogen) between a pair of substrate S and S’ are called transferases.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 153
Arrange the steps of catalytic action of an enzyme in order and choose the correct option.
(i) The enzyme releases product of the reaction and gets free.
(ii) The active site of enzyme is in close proximity of the substrate and breaks chemical bonds of the substrate.
(iii) The binding of substrate induces the enzyme to alter its shape.
(iv) The substrate binds to active sites of the enzyme.
Options:
(iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(ii), (iv), (iii) (i)
(i), (iv), (iii), (ii)
(iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
Solution :
Answer (1)
The substrate binds to active sites of enzyme causing conformational change to fit properly. The enzyme breaks the bond of
substrate to release the product and enzyme becomes free to catalyse further a next reaction.
76/88
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Question : 154
Glycerol is considered as a
Options:
Aldehyde
Monohydroxy alcohol
Dihydroxy propane
Simple lipid
Solution :
Answer (4)
Glycerol is trihydroxy propane, considered as a simple lipid.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 155
Match items in Column-I with those in Column-II and choose the option with only correct match.
Column-I Column-II
a. Lecithin (i) Receptor
b. Cholesterol (ii) Phospholipid
c. GLUT-4 (iii) Antibody
d. Immunoglobulin (iv) Derived lipid
Options:
a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
Solution :
Answer (3)
Lecithin - Phospholipid
Cholesterol - Derived lipid
GLUT-4 - Receptor protein
Immunoglobulin - Antibody
77/88
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Question : 156
A proteinaceous molecule that joins a cofactor to form a holoenzyme is
Options:
Coenzyme
Prosthetic group
Inhibitors
Apoenzyme
Solution :
Answer (4)
Protein part of a holoenzyme is called apoenzyme.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 157
What is more likely reason for presence of lipids in acid insoluble pool during analysis of chemical composition of tissues?
Options:
It has very high molecular weight
It is a polymer of glycerol and fatty acids
It has a very high density
On grinding, the biomembranes are broken down into pieces and form insoluble vesicles
Solution :
Answer (4)
Plasma membrane and other membranes broke on grinding to form insoluble vesicles.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 158
Which of the following compounds contribute maximum percentage in the total cellular mass of human body next to water?
Options:
Lipids
Proteins
Nucleic acids
Vitamins
Solution :
Answer (2)
Proteins constitute about 10–15 percent of total cellular mass.
78/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 159
Complete the analogy

Glycogen : Glucose : : Inulin : ______
Options:
Fructose
Alanine
Glycine
Ribose
Solution :
Answer (1)
Inulin is a homopolymer of fructose.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 160
Which of the following is not present in a nucleotide?
Options:
Pentose sugar
Phosphodiester bond
Heterocyclic compound
Phosphoric acid or phosphate
Solution :
Answer (2)
Phosphodiester bond is present in between two adjacent nucleotides.
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 161
Read the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer.
(A) In a polysaccharide chain, left end is called non-reducing end
(B) Starch can hold I2 molecules in the helical tertiary structure
Options:
Both statements are correct
Both statements are incorrect
Only statement (A) is incorrect
Only statement (B) is incorrect
Solution :
Answer (4)
Starch can hold I2 molecules in the helical portion of secondary structure.
79/88
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Question : 162
Sequence of amino acids as well as their positional informations in a protein molecule is represented best in
Options:
Primary structure
Secondary structure
Tertiary structure
Quaternary structure
Solution :
Answer (1)
Sequence of amino acids and their positions in polypeptide chain is best represented in primary structure.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 163
In primary structure of a protein left end is represented by amino acid and is also called amino acid
whereas right end is represented by amino acid and is also called amino acid. Choose the option which
correctly fill the blanks A, B, C and D.
A B C D
(1) First C-terminal Last N-terminal
(2) Last C-terminal First N-terminal
(3) First N-terminal Last C-terminal
(4) Last N-terminal First C-terminal
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (3)
First amino acid is present at left end of a polypeptide chain and is called N-terminal amino acid.
80/88
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Question : 164
The carbon atom of one pentose sugar which combines with carbon atom of other pentose sugar of succeeding nucleotide
by phosphodiester bond are
Options:
C2 and C3
C3 and C4
C3 and C5
C4 and C5
Solution :
Answer (3)
In a nucleic acid, a phosphate moiety links the 3' carbon of one sugar of one nucleotide to the 5' carbon of sugar of the
succeeding nucleotide.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 165
Thymine is a
Options:
Purine
Pyrimidine
Enzyme
Vitamin
Solution :
Answer (2)
Adenine and guanine are substituted purines and thymine, cytosine and uracil are substituted pyrimidines.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 166
Which of the following element is not present in a nitrogenous base?
Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
Phosphorus is not present in a nitrogenous base and nucleosides but present in nucleotide and nucleic acids.
81/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 167
A short length of double stranded B-DNA molecule has 150 purine molecules having ratio of adenine and guanine 1 : 1.
What is the total number of nucleotides in this DNA fragment?
Options:
75
150
300
600
Solution :
Answer (3)
Purine = Adenine and Guanine
Pyrimidine = Thymine and Cytosine
Number of Adenine = Number of Guanine =

= 75
Number of Adenine = Thymine = 75
Number of Guanine = Cytosine = 75
So total number of nucleotides = Total number of bases
= 75 × 4 = 300 nucleotides/nitrogenous bases
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 168
The two complementary strands of DNA are held together by
Options:
Peptide bonds
S-S bonds
Phosphodiester bonds
Hydrogen bonds
Solution :
Answer (4)
The two complementary strands of DNA molecules are held together by hydrogen bonds.
82/88
You scored 0 of 4
A double stranded B-DNA measures 340 mμ in length. How many base pairs are possible in it?
Options:
340
680
100
1000
Solution :
Answer (4)
1 mμ = 10 Å
340 mμ = 3400 Å
34 Å dsDNA has 10 base pairs
∴ 3400 Å = = 1000 bp
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 170
Select the incorrect statement w.r.t enzymes.
Options:
Enzymes require optimum temperature for maximum activity
Enzymes are denatured at low temperature
Bell-shaped graph is formed when enzyme activity at y-axis is plotted against temperature at x-axis
Enzymes catalyse many irreversible reactions
Solution :
Answer (2)
Enzymes are denatured or degraded at high temperature.
83/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 171
Select the correct statement w.r.t enzyme actions.
Options:
Addition of lot of succinate does not reverse the inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate
A non-competitive inhibitor binds the enzyme at the site of substrate
Vmax remains unchanged in presence of competitive inhibitor
Vmax decreases and Km increases in presence of non-competitive inhibitor
Solution :
Answer (3)
Vmax remains unchanged but Km value increases in presence of a competitive inhibitor. Km remains unchanged in non-
competitive inhibitor.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 172
Which of the following graph represents velocity of reaction (y-axis) w.r.t. substrate concentration (x-axis)?
Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
A hyperbolic curve is obtained when velocity of reaction is plotted against substrate concentration.
84/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 173
Zinc is a cofactor for enzyme carbonic anhydrase. It forms bonds with side chains at active site and at the same
time form one or more bonds with the substrate. Choose the option which fill the blanks A and B correctly.
A B
(1) Coordination Hydrogen
(2) Peptide Coordination
(3) Covalent Ester
(4) Coordination Coordination
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (4)
Metal ions as a cofactor form coordination bonds with side chains at active site and also with substrate molecule.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 174
Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. living state
Options:
Biomolecules are in a metabolic flux
Any physical process moves spontaneously to equilibrium
The steady state is a non-equilibrium state
The living state is an equilibrium steady state to be able to perform work
Solution :
Answer (4)
The living state is a non-equilibrium steady state to be able to perform work.
85/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 175
The most important form of energy currency in living systems is the bond energy in a chemical called
Options:
ATP
Glucose
GTP
Glycogen
Solution :
Answer (1)
ATP is considered as energy coin of metabolism.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 176
At each step of ascent in B-DNA molecule, the strand turns
Options:
72º
36º
360º
180º
Solution :
Answer (2)
Pitch of B-DNA has 10 base pairs. So, on each step of ascent strand turns about 36º.
86/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 177
Match the following columns-I and II. Choose the option with all correct match.
Column-I Column-II
A. Dehydrogenases p Inter conversion of isomers
B. Ligases q Oxidoreduction between two substrates
C. Hydrolases r Linking together of two compounds
D. Isomerases s Hydrolysis of bonds
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hydrolases break bonds by hydrolysis. Ligase links two molecules.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 178
Which of the following biomolecules represents a quaternary structure
Options:
α-chain of insulin
ds-BDNA molecule
Myoglobin
Haemoglobin
Solution :
Answer (4)
Haemoglobin molecule contains 2α and 2β chains and represents quaternary structure.
87/88
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 179
Nucleotide is formed of
Options:
Nitrogenous base, sugar and phosphate
Purine, pyrimidine and phosphate
Sugar and phosphate
Nitrogenous base and deoxyribose
Solution :
Answer (1)
Nucleoside is formed of nitrogenous base and sugar.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 180
Select the incorrect match.
Protein Functions
(1) Collagen Intercellular ground substance
(2) Trypsin Proteolytic enzyme
(3) Receptor Sensory reception
(4) GLUT–4 Enables insulin transport into cells
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (4)
GLUT-4 is a receptor protein which enables glucose transport into cells.
88/88

Answer Keys: Final Test Series For NEET-2021 - Test-02A: You Scored 4 of 4

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6/16/2021 Best Medical(NEET) & Engineering Coaching Institute Online - Aakash iTutor

Answer keys : Final Test Series for NEET-2021_Test-02A

If and the component of along is

Statement-A : Ability to do the work is called energy.

Both A and B are correct

Both A and B are incorrect

A is correct and B is incorrect

A is incorrect and B is correct

Internal forces can change

Total momentum of system

Total angular momentum of system

Completely inelastic collision

Both elastic and inelastic collision

Rate of change of acceleration

Rate of change of kinetic energy

Linearly related to time

Inversely proportional to time

Inversely proportional to square of time

Moves with constant velocity only

Moves with constant velocity or will be at rest

Move with variable velocity

If and , then unit vector perpendicular to and will be

The value of is equal to

Depends on the masses of two body

Depends on the direction of motion of the ball

The centre of the system

The centre of mass of the system

Any point on the system

Any point on the system or outside it

suddenly fixed. The angular velocity of the rod will be

At a height equal to the radius from table

At a height R above centre

At a height equal to from table

At a height equal to 2R from the table

above the centre

Angular momentum of the system remains same

Angular velocity of system decreases

Angular momentum of system increases

Both (2) and (3)

Which among the following is a paramagnetic species?

Correct order of bond length among the following is

Lesser the bond order, longer is the bond length.

Species Bond order

Which among the following is linear in shape?

Consider the following statements

10 electrons around P atom

pπ-dπ bond is present in which of the given species?

Number of bond pairs = 4

In which of the following species, the central atom is sp3d hybridised?

The species which is isostructural with PH3 is

sp3 hybridised and pyramidal in shape

sp3 hybridised and pyramidal in shape

Longest bond length will be observed in

Consider the following statements

Most viscous compound among the following is

During change of C2 to the electron adds to which of the following orbitals?

Which of the following does not exist?

The shape and hybridization of SF2Cl2 respectively are

Square planar and sp3d

See-saw and sp3d

Square planar and sp3d2

Tetrahedral and sp3

Consider the following statements