CAMPUS Assesment Exam#30 - Answers

Question: 1 ( Incorrect - Skipped )
All of the following are part of a project management plan EXCEPT?

A. Proc ess improvement plan
B. Configuration management plan
C. Cost performance baseline
D. Lessons learned
Planning - Integration Management
Lessons learned are part of Organization Proc ess Assets. The project management plan would include all
subsidiary management plans, the process improvement plan, the configuration management plan, and the
project baselines.

The Scope management of the project represents:
A. All the tangible ac tivities that must be delivered to the client.
B. All the work that must be completed and only work for the project.
C. The work that must be performed by the project team.
D. All the ac tivities of the project.
Planning - Sc ope Management
WBS organizes and defines the total sc ope of the projec t. It includes all of the work to be completed and
doesn't include any extra work that's not in sc ope for the project.

A single-source seller means what?
A. There is only one qualified seller
B. There is only one seller the company wants to do business with
C. There is a seller that can provide all aspects of the projec t procurement needs
D. There is only one seller in the market
Executing - Proc urement Management
A) Choice A is incorrect as it describes a “sole source” seller
B) A single-source seller means there is only one seller the company wants to do business with
C) Choice C is incorrect. There may be multiple sellers that can satisfy the projec t needs
D) Choice D is incorrect. Just because there is only one seller in the market does not mean the seller can
adequately and fully fill the project needs
Which of the following documents would prevent sc ope creep on work packages?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Statement of work
C. Work authorization system
D. WBS dictionary
Monitoring & Controlling - Sc ope Management
The WBS dictionary provides a detailed desc ription of the work to be performed for eac h work package. A
clearly defined WBS dictionary would prevent sc ope creep on work pac kages.

Which of the following is carried out during the Conduct Proc urements proc ess?
A. preparing proc urement documents
B. selected seller
C. make or buy dec isions
D. performance reporting
The correc t answer is B, Selected Sellers are chosen and bec ome an output of this proc ess. Proc urement
documents are prepared during the Plan Procurements process and updated during Conduct Proc urements.
Make or buy dec isions are done during Plan Proc urements, and performance reporting is done during the
Administer Proc urements proc ess.

The BEST method to control costs is to:
A. estimate at the beginning of the project and then check costs against the Cost performance
baseline.
B. estimate during the execution of the projec t and then manage each task to the budget.
C. estimate during planning and then re-estimate before each task begins.
D. estimate during the execution of the projec t and have management confirm the estimates.
Monitoring & Controlling - Cost Management
Estimating of cost at the beginning and then monitoring and controlling the same against cost performance
baseline is good prac tices.

Which of the following believed that quality was a managment problem?
A. Juran
B. Deming
C. Crosby
D. Ishikowa
Executing - Quality Management
W. Edward Deming said that quality is a management problem 85% of the time.
Joseph Juran believed in the fitness for use principal and promoted conformance and quality by design.
Crosby believed in c onformance to requirements and zero defec ts.
Ishikowa is a type of chart.

What is the primary purpose of a milestone chart?
A. To show resource constraints
B. To show major events
C. To show task dependencies
D. To highlight the critical path
Planning - Time Management
Milestone charts show only major events like "all design inputs received", "completion of design" etc.
Which one of the following is not an attribute of a projec t?
A. Definite starting date
B. It is ongoing
C. Creates a product, service, or results
D. It is unique
Initiating - Framework
A project must have a definite end date, operations are ongoing.

You have been c hosen as the project manager for a new satelite program in development by Ground Control Inc.
You have just started planning for the project. Which of the following should you NOT take into consideration
during planning?
A. The rumor about the company going bankrupt
B. Past project information
C. Company resources
D. Company policies
Executing - Framework
Past projec t information, company resources, and c ompany policies should be taken into consideration. Rumors
about the company should not be considered. As a project manager you should make decisions based on
fac ts, not rumors.

When is the right time to store or archive customer feedback, project records, and project deliverables for use in
future projec ts.
A. During closure
B. Throughout the execution of the project
C. During the planning phase
D. During c reation of lessons learned
Closing - Integration Management
Reusable or reference documents for creating historical records, which c ould be used in future projec ts, or
data to be maintained as per the contrac t stipulations are to be collec ted throughout the project but are
archived only during closure.

Which of the following proc esses is concerned with identifying and doc umenting the specific ac tivities required to
produce the project deliverables?
A. Define Sc ope
B. Define Activities
C. Create WBS
D. Collec t requirements
Identifying and doc umenting spec ific ac tivities that must be performed to meet the project deliverables is
known as Define Activities.

Jac kie is a Project Manager working with a team of more than 30 people. One of her subordinates tells her that
the team members at the lowest level are lazy, and that they need to be supervised more closely. Jac kie responds
that the workers are as committed to the project as she is, that they are ambitious and self-disc iplined and do
not need to be watched every minute of the day; instead, Jac kie proposes that each worker should be given more
responsibility. Which type of manager is Jac kie?
A. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory
B. Theory Z manager
C. Theory Y manager
D. Theory X manager
Executing - Human Resources Management
According to Mc Gregor’s Theory of X and Y , Jac kie is a Theory Y manager. She trusts her employees to be self
motivated and believes that they do not need to be watched every minute.
Theory X managers feel the way the subordinate does in this questions, they feel that workers are lazy and
need to be watched constantly.
Theory Z is a management theory where giving workers jobs for life motivates them to perform their best.
Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory says that individuals must meet the most basic needs before they can
reach peek performance.

In an urgent meeting Management has dec ided that the project live date needs to be moved forward by 2 months
and have given you the task to do whatever it takes to reduce the sc hedule to meet this new deadline. Under the
circumstances you immediately approve unlimited overtime for the entire team and request the addition of external
resources. However you are worried about team burnout. The tool or technique you are employing is:
A. Resource Leveling
B. Fast-Trac king
C. Crashing
D. Forward Pass
This technique of sc hedule compression usually involves overtime, additional resources and nearly always
results in increased c ost. Team burnout is a risk using this technique. Resource Leveling is incorrect since we
are bringing in additional resources.

The team is involved in Risk Management Planning. They are trying to establish an overall projec t risk ranking for
the project. This will allow them to evaluate the project compared to others in the portfolio they are managing.
What proc ess did they just complete?
A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
B. Identify Risk
C. Monitoring and Controlling Risk
D. Plan Risk Response
Planning - Risk Management
A) Qualitative Risk Analysis produces a risk ranking matrix
B) Risk Identification results in the discovery of risks and triggers as well as the risk register
C) Risk Monitoring and Controlling results in corrective action from implementing risk response plans and
workarounds as required
D) Mitigation is an attempt to influence the impac t of the risk

You are currently developing a model that would help your organization in determining its level of maturity in
project management. Which of the following terms would be most appropriate to your ac tivity?
A. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
B. Project Management Information System (PMIS)
C. OPM3
D. Project Management Research
Professional & Social Responsibility - Framework
PMI has something c alled OPM3 (Organizational Project Management Maturity Model), which helps
organizations determine their level of maturity in project management. According to wikipedia, OPM3 is a
globally rec ognized best-prac tice standard for assessing and developing capabilities in Portfolio Management,
Program Management, and Project Management.

Co-loc ation c an help with:
A. Bringing c ustomers together in project
B. Bringing all team together at one place
C. Shifting project from one loc ation to new loc ation
D. Shifting part team to other country to reduce cost
Co-location is organizational plac ement strategy where the project team members are physically located close
to one another in order to improve communication, working relationships and productivity.

A project manager is concerned about significant rework costs due to rejection of deliverables at pre-delivery
inspec tion. What should the project manager do?
A. Change the sampling method.
B. Review quality standards identified in the planning proc ess.
C. Review requirement management plan for a clear understanding of the sc ope statement.
D. Analyze the causes by plotting a Pareto chart and a review assurance process, to incorporate
measures for preventing those critical causes in future.
Monitoring & Controlling - Quality Management
The quality assurance process needs to be reviewed to incorporate preventive measures, as may be identified
by a Pareto Chart, on the final deliverables. The question statement here presents an example of quality
control ac tivities feeding the quality assurance process for improvements.

An ERP project is falling behind sc hedule. There has been confusion on the projec t between the team and the
Project Manager. There has been major rework occurring on the first two work pac kages. This will result in at
least a two-month delay. In a meeting with the CEO, the Projec t Manager is asked how the project is going. The
CEO says that she had spoken with another Project Manager and heard that the projec t was going well. The
Project Manager tells the CEO what?
A. Confirms that the project is going well based on what the other Project Manager said
B. That the update will be in the status report due at the end of the month
C. Asks the CEO where they learned that about the project
D. That there is a two-month delay because of some rework on the project
It is the responsibility of the Project Manager to communicate accurate status as it is known. This includes
taking a proactive response to communicating status on a project regardless of good or bad status. Confirming
what the other Project Manager said is irresponsible. Asking about where the information c ame from is dancing
around the truth. Not reporting until the end of the month doesn't provide accurate status as it is known.

The projec t steering c ommittee is considering which project they should invest capital in. Bob’s projec t promises
to be worth $175,000 in four years. The project steering committee is interested in Bob’s project, but they would
like to know the present value of the return if the interest rate is 6 percent. What is the present value of Bob’s
project?
A. $175,000
B. $139,000
C. $220,000
D. $43,750
Initiating - Integration Management
The formula for NPV is FV / (1 + i) ^n,
where FV is the future value, i is the interest rate, and n is the number of periods.
NPV = 175,000 / (1.06 * 1.06 * 1.06 * 1.06)
NPV = $139,000

You are a project manager on a large technology projec t and have noticed the projec t team can't easily find the
right information to make good dec isions and there is a lot of confusion about which versions of documents are
the most up-to-date. You are also having a tough time integrating the various processes. As a result you suggest
improvements be made to which of the following?
A. Project Management Information Systems (PMIS)
B. Work Breakdown structure (WBS)
C. Configuration management systems
D. Reporting systems
Executing - Integration Management
The correc t answer is A. The Project Management Information System (PMIS) is the collec tive systems (can
be manual or automated) that consists of tools and techniques used to gather, integrate, and desiminate the
outputs of the project management processes. The key to this questions is that it is talking aobut various
systems such as reporting, configuration management (version control), and integrating the proc esses.
Choices C and D are partially correc t (both of those systems are included in the PMIS), but answer choice A is
more correc t.

The proc esses in the closing process group c ome under which of the following knowledge area(s)?
A. Integration Management
B. Proc urement Management and administrative close
C. Integration Management and Procurement Management
D. It cuts ac ross all or part of the knowledge area depending on the type of project
A Choice A is incorrect. Integration Management involves administrative closure, however, one of the closing
proc ess is involved in different knowledge area and hence the answer is incomplete
B Choice B is incorrect. Administrative closure is a proc ess carried and it is not a knowledge area
C Closing proc ess group comprises two processes: "Close Project" and "Contract Closure" and these two
proc esses are involved in either Integration Management and / or Proc urement Management
D Choice D is incorrect bec ause the closing process group is involved in only 2 knowledge areas for a project

The grouping of project elements by deliverables is known as what?
A. The code of ac counts
B. The work package
C. The work breakdown structure
D. The work breakdown dictionary
The WBS is the deliverables-oriented hierarchy of project work.

You are a project manager for Sc arem-Up-Stiff production c ompany. Your company develops and produces horror
movies for the big screen. Your latest project has been cancelled due to budget cuts for that genre of film. Which
of the following statements are true?
A. The project ended due to extinction because the funds were cut off.
B. The project ended due to integration because the funds were cutt off.
C. The project ended due to starvation because the resources were allocated to another film divison.
D. The project ended due to starvation because the funding was cut off.
Starvation occurs bec ause the project no longer receives the resources needed to continue. Resources would
include money (funding) such as presented in this question.

Each phase of the project life cycle is marked by the completion of one or more
A. Proc esses
B. Components
C. Events
D. Deliverables
Each phase of the project life cycle is marked by the completion of one or more deliverables

Which of the following proc esses belong to the executing phase of the project management lifecycle?
A. Scope verification
B. Develop project team
C. Quality control
D. Schedule development
A) Sc ope verification is controlling proc esses ac tivity
B) Develop project team is part of executing process
C) Sc ope verification is monitoring proc ess ac tivity
D) Sc hedule development is an ac tivity within the planning proc ess

Due to the new regulation there will be a change in your project. For the project to move forward and be in
ac cordance with the new regulation, your next ac tion should be?
A. Prepare a new baseline to reflect the government changes
B. Notify management
C. Present the change to the CCB
D. Create a feasibility study
A A is incorrect bec ause the change has not been approved—the projec t could be stopped based on the
required c hange
B B is incorrect, though tempting. It is wrong for two primary reasons: the project manager should never
contac t management with a problem, and no solution is offered for the problem
C Presenting the change to the Change Control Board is the best choice
D D is incorrect bec ause it is not appropriate for the conditions surrounding the change

All of the following are true regarding Stakeholders except?
A. Stakeholders c an be at different levels of the organization
B. Stakeholders must be internal to the performing organization
C. Stakeholders may exert influence over the project and it's deliverables
D. Stakeholders c an be organizations as well as individuals
Initiating - Communications Management
Choices A, C, and D are all correc t about stakeholders. Choice B is wrong, because stakeholders can also be
external to the performing organization.

You are taking over a project and determine the following : Activity B has an early finish (EF) of day 3, a late
finish (LF) of day 6, and an early start (ES) of day 2. Activity L is being done by a hard to get resource. The cost
performance index (CPI) is 1.2 and the schedule performance index (SPI) is 0.8. Based on this information what
would you be more concerned about?
A. float
B. resources
C. cost
D. schedule
This question tries to integrate a lot of information and test your ability to disc ern what information is relevant
to the question. Though some figures to calculate float are provided (Choice A), there is no information to say
that the float is a problem. Most projects have hard to get resources (Choice B). The question does not give
an indication that having hard to get resources is a problem. CPI (Choice C) is greater than one so cost is not
something to worry about. SPI is less than one, so choice D is the best answer.

You are engaged in making sure that the correct proc esses are followed. Which of the following proc esses are you
engaged in?
A. Perform Quality Assurance
B. Scope Verification
C. Perform Quality Control
D. Manage Projec t Team
A) Perform Quality Assurance involves making sure that correct processes are followed
B) Scope Verification involves obtaining ac ceptance of the deliverable
C) Perform Quality Control involves checking the deliverables to ensure compliance ac cording to the required
quality spec ifications of the project
D) Manage Project Team involves human resource management for the projec t. Also, with regard to
performance, you take ac tion when you see that a project team member is not performing

Which of the following techniques would be useful for validating proposal prices to ensure adequac y of SOW and
sellers' understanding of the same?
A. Independent estimates
B. Delphi technique
C. Screening system
D. Weighting system
A) The buyer organization may develop independent estimates on its own (or with data available from
elsewhere) to chec k correct pricing levels of the proposals. This helps in evaluating seller's understanding of
the SOW and may point towards deficiencies in the SOW or sellers' experience with the SOW.
B) Choice B is incorrect. Delphi tec hnique is used to secure independent expert opinion on subjects like risk,
project estimates, etc.
C) Choice C is incorrect bec ause Screening system is a method of applying minimum criteria for qualifying
sellers
D) Choice D is incorrect as weighting system is a method of quantifying data to reduce subjective assessment
in source selection

Your organization is holding a bidder conference to disc uss the project with prospec tive sellers, and a trusted
seller you have worked with many times in the past has asked if they can meet with the project manager the day
before the conference to cover some sensitive questions they do not wish to ask in front of others sellers. Should
your organization meet with the seller?
A. Yes, the more that prospec tive sellers know about the projec t, the better.
B. Yes, they are your primary seller, and past history should be fac tored in.
C. No, prospective supplies should be kept on equal footing.
D. No, that would represent an illegal ac tivity.
If you are involved in formal proc urement, you should make every effort to keep sellers on equal footing. If one
seller is provided with an advantage, it negates much of the value of the procurement process.

You observes that a team member is repeatedly completing tasks with errors, resulting in rework. On investigation
of the past trac k record, it is established that the individual does not have a skill gap. What should the project
manager do?
A. Ask for a replac ement from the functional manager
B. Report the non-performance to the functional manager
C. Adjust the schedule to provide for extended durations for tasks assigned to the individual
D. Discuss the concern with the individual to figure out the cause
A) Choice A is incorrect bec ause the project manager should understand the cause of the problem before
taking any ac tion like this.
B) Choice B is not a good choice bec ause reporting non-performance to a functional manager would not solve
the issue of rework and the PM still doesn't know the cause of the problem.
C) Choice C is incorrect bec ause adjusting the sc hedule might not be the solution because the reason for the
problem is not yet identified.
D) Choice D is correct. The cause of non-compliance to expected performance levels needs to be established
before any other ac tion is taken. The situation requires the projec t manager to investigate and establish the
cause of the problem before evaluating the alternatives stated in the other three choices

You are a project manager working on contrac t for Ralphs retail toy shop. Your project involves implementing a
department in stores in 25 loc ations ac ross the country as a pilot to determine if this will be a profitable new
service all the stores should offer. You’ve identified two alternative methods of implementing the pilot.
Alternative A’s initial investment equals $596,000. The PV of the expec ted c ash inflows is $299,000 in year 1 and
$301,000 in year 2. The cost of capital is 14 percent.
Alternative B’s initial investment equals $625,000. The PV of the Alternative B’s expected cash inflows is $321,000
in year 1 and $301,000 in year 2. The cost of capital is 10 percent.
Which of the following is true?
A. Alternative A will earn a return of at least 14 percent.
B. Alternative A will earn a return of at least 10 percent.
C. The return is not known for either Alternative A or Alternative B.
D. Both alternatives are viable choices.
A positive value for NPV means the project will earn a return at least equal to or greater than the cost of
capital. Since NPV for Alternative A is positive, this alternative will earn at least a 14 percent return.

Which of the following focuses on ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource
alloc ation that are consistent with organizational strategies?
A. Project Management
B. Program Management
C. Portfolio Management
D. PMO
The correc t answer is C, this is the definition of what Portfolio Management does.

Which of the following is a tool and technique of the "Close Contract" proc ess?
A. Procurement audit
B. Proc urement Management plan
C. Contrac t Management plan
D. Contrac t Doc umentation
Closing - Proc urement Management
A) Procurement Audit is a structured review of the proc urement process and its objec tive is to identify
successes and failures. Procurement Audit and Record Management System are the two tools and techniques
of the "Contrac t Closure" proc ess
B) Proc urement Management Plan is an input to the Plan Contrac ting process and this isn’t a tool / tec hnique.
Choice B is incorrec t
C) Choice C is incorrect. Contrac t Management plan is an output of Select Sellers process
D) Choice D is incorrect as Contrac t Documentation is not a tool rather it is an output of Contract
Administration proc ess

A CRM software projec t has entered the closure phase on c ustomer ac ceptance of the software. On reviewing
project performance and deliverables, the project manager determines that the software delivered exceeds the
performance criteria as well as provides for functional features over and above the ones specified in the
requirements specifications approved by the customer. Which of the following is a true assessment of the project
performance?
A. The project has been very successful, as the customer has expressed delight.
B. The project has been unsuccessful, as it has provided for more than what was called for.
C. The project is unsuccessful as it could have been more productive than ac tual expenditure incurred.
D. The project is successful as specifications have been exceeded without any impact to cost and schedule
baselines.
The project is unsuccessful bec ause it has been gold plated.The situation desc ribed does not talk about cost
and schedule baseline performance.Customer delight is a goal but what should be ac hieved without gold
plating to the project.

The four proc esses in Project Human Resource Management are:
A. Forming, Storming, Norming, and Performing
B. Develop Human resource plan, Acquire Project Team, Develop Project Team, and Manage Project
Team
C. Managing, rewarding, salary reviews and punishments
D. Develop Human resource plan, staff acquisition, staff training, staff deployment,
Planning - Human Resources Management
The are four proc esses in Human Resource Management are Develop Human Resource Plan, Ac quire Projec t
Team, Develop Projec t Team and Manage Projec t Team.

You are the project manager of a waste treatment plant installation project and it really stinks. You know that
your original budget cannot be ac hieved, performance is atypical, and management has approved your revised
forecast. You also know the following EVM information: PV = $1,700, BAC = $5,000, EV = $1,800; and AC = $
1,600. What is your To Complete Performance Index (TCPI)?
A. 1.00
B. 1.125
C. 1.245
D. 0.892
The correc t answer is A. Since you c annot ac hieve your budget, you need to use the TCPI formula that uses
EAC in the denominator, which is TCPI = (BAC-EV) / (EAC-AC). However, you first need to calculate EAC
where variances are atypical, which is EAC = AC + (BAC - EV) or 1,600 + (5,000 - 1,800) = 4,800.
Now you c an calculate EAC as (5,000 - 1,800) / (4,800 - 1,600) = 1.00.

Kimberly is calculating the annual depreciation of a forklift used on her projec t. The forklift has a book value of
$30,000 and the depreciation rate is 7%. What is the annual depreciation expense?
A. $27,900
B. $2,100
C. $700
D. $428
Executing - Cost Management
The formula for this question is as follows:
book value x deprec iation rate
$30,000 x .07 = $2100

A Project Manager has been assigned to manage a projec t to develop a cheap priced laptop for a company that
does not have this expertise. The project is three weeks behind sc hedule and under budget. After calculating the
estimate at completion (EAC), the Project Manager finds that projec t will be $454,589 under budget, but is
expec ted to take four weeks longer than expected. What should the Project Manager do?
A. Implement Gold Plating to make up for the difference
B. Bill for customer the total approved contrac ted amount
C. Report the current baseline project status and budget to the customer
D. Report the project status and budget to the customer
Professional and soc ial responsibility requires that a Project Manager report accurate and truthful information
for services provided. "Bill for customer the total approved contracted amount" and "Report the current
baseline project status and budget to the customer" do not report honest information about the project.
Implementing Gold Plating to make up for the difference is not part of the sc ope and should not be added.

Which of the following is not an evaluation system technique?
A. Independent estimates
B. Screening system
C. Weighing system
D. Bidders' conferences
A) Choice A is incorrect bec ause independent estimates technique is a source selection technique and this is
meant for selecting the sellers
B) Choice B is incorrect as sc reening system is a method of proposal evaluation technique
C) Choice C is incorrect bec ause weighing system is part of proposal evaluation technique and source
selection method
D) Bidders' c onferences are meetings with prospective sellers before the completion of proposals for a clear
and c ommon understanding of the procurement requirements

What are the top 3 c auses of conflict on a project team?
A. Schedule, Priorities & Resources
B. Schedule, Cost & Resources
C. Priorities, Cost & Resources
D. Resources, Cost and Personality
According to the PMBOK, the major causes of conflict in order of intensity are: Schedule, Project Priorities,
Resources, Technical Opinion, Administrative Proc ess, Cost, and Personality.

Thomas is a PMP and researcher in the marketing field and is working on a project concerning consumer behavior
in grocery stores. He keeps meticulous records of the questions asked, responses, and individual respondent
information, and distributed the compiled the information in his reports. You are reviewing his research and are
concerned that he is keeping individual respondent information, which you feel violates the customer's privac y.
What should you do?
A. Do nothing. George is keeping the records appropriately, preparing honest research, and protecting the
privacy of the individuals involved by aggregating the data.
B. Approach George and indicate you feel he is violating the privacy of the individuals in question.
C. Gather the evidence of the privacy violations and prepare to report them to PMI.
D. Do nothing. A privac y violation, although not preferred, is not a violation of the PMI Member Code of
Ethics.
Approac h George and indicate you feel he is violating the privac y of the individuals in question. Answer A,C
and D are not correct.
If you feel there is a problem, you should never "do nothing". A privacy violation is a violation of PMI c ode of
ethics. Your first choice of ac tion is not to go to the PMI or an outside organization - you should approac h him
first.

Which of the following is a good reason for adopting statistical sampling for inspection?
A. To reduce cost of quality control
B. To reduce cost of poor quality
C. To reduce cost of rework
D. To improve probability of ac ceptance
A) Ac ceptance level thresholds that are appropriate for the selected sample size are defined to dec ide
ac ceptance or rejection of the whole population. This method reduces the cost of inspec ting all work results
B) Cost of poor quality is cost assoc iated with rejection of work results and is hence not relevant responses to
the question. Choice B is incorrect
C) Choice C is incorrect bec ause cost of rework is a flaw in the product’s performance. Statistical inspec tion is
a tool that deals with reducing c ost of quality
D) Statistical sampling is not intended to improve probability of ac ceptance of work results

When performing integrated change control which of the following must be present?
A. Supporting details for the change exists
B. Approval of the change from the project team
C. Approval of the change from an SME
D. Risk assessment for eac h proposed change
Monitoring & Controlling - Integration Management
A Integrated c hange control requires detail for implementing the change. Without evidence of the need for the
change, there is no reason to implement it.
B Choice B is incorrect, as the project team’s approval is not necessary for changes.
C Choice C is incorrect since a subject matter expert isn’t always needed to determine the need for change.
D Choice D is incorrect. While risk assessment is needed for changes, some changes may be disc arded based
on reasons other than risk.

Which of the following is relevant for project plan development?
A. Stakeholder skills and knowledge
B. Change control system
C. Configuration management
D. Project selection methods
Choice A is the correct answer.
Project plan development is the creation of the final project plan for approval by the management of the
performing organization. This is based on outputs from core planning processes.
An understanding of the stakeholder knowledge and skills is essential for appropriate application in creating the
project plan.
Change control system and c onfiguration management are methods used for integrated change control.
Project selec tion methods are applied in selecting a project and hence are tools used for project initiation.

Jon is the project manager of an office relocation project and is fed up with the several conflicts on his projec t.
He tells the team: “Shut-up! I'm the boss. We are doing things my way from now on. If you don't like it, there's
the door!" Which type of conflict resolution tec hnique is he using?
A. Forcing
B. Problem-solving
C. Withdrawing
D. Compromising
Forcing is a win-lose situation in which one person forces thier decision on another.

One of your team members, a PMP, and a good friend is under investigation for violation of the PMP Code of
Professional Conduct. What ac tion should you take?
A. Cooperate fully with PMI in the investigation.
B. Tell PMI it would be a conflict of interest for you to cooperate in the investigation, because this person is
your team member and friend.
C. Tell PMI it would be a conflict of interest for you to cooperate, because they may uncover information
about you during the investigation that could cause them to investigate you.
D. Help your friend and sabotage the PMI investigation
Part of the PMP Code of Professional Conduct requires that you c ooperate in any investigation c oncerning
ethics violations and in collec ting information related to the violation.

Whose needs are required to be addressed by information distribution?
A. Senior management
B. Project team
C. Stakeholders
D. Project sponsor
Executing - Communications Management
A) Choice A is incorrect as senior management gets periodical updates on the project, however, the
information distribution proc ess does not restrict only till senior management
B) Choice B is incorrect as the primary focus of information distribution proc ess if for customers and followed
by all relevant people involved in the project
C) Information distribution involves making needed information available to all project stakeholders
D) Choice D is incorrect as information distribution proc ess is designed to address the communication needs of
all stakeholders and projec t sponsor is only a part of stakeholder

After analyzing the status of your project, you determine that the earned value is lower than the planned value.
What should you expec t as an outcome if this trend continues?
A. The ac tual cost will be lower than planned.
B. The estimate at completion will be lower than planned.
C. The project will finish behind schedule.
D. The project will finish below the original cost estimate.
Schedule Variance = EV-PV, which is less then zero meaning the project will finish behind sc hedule.

A research project has an objective to reduce the rotation of crank rotation cycle’s time by 50 times with
innovative way using electronic technology. Earned value management
A. Should be used to trac k the team’s technical performance in reac hing the objective
B. Should not be applied to this innovative project
C. Should only measure the cost and schedule performance for project key events and deliverables.
D. Should only compare planned and ac tual costs
Planning - Cost Management
Since this a pure innovative research projec t with an objec tive not a requirement, we may not ever ac hieve
the objective. Therefore EV should not be based on objective, but rather the team’s ability to meet the
sc hedule for producing the reports and meeting key events.

Status meetings should be held at least:
A. Once a year
B. Once a week
C. Every day
D. As little as possible
Monitoring & Controlling - Risk Management
A) Answer A is incorrec t bec ause If you space meetings out any longer than this, you might overlook problems
that need to be handled promptly
B) Answer B is correct, once a week, easy to monitor and c ontrol project
C) Answer C is incorrec t. The only time that daily meetings are required may be at the beginning of the
project when the project team members are getting to know eac h other
D) Answer D is incorrec t status meetings should be held at least in a week

You are trying to dec ide whether to lease or buy an item for your project. The daily lease cost is US $150. To
purchase the item, the investment cost is US $2,000 and the daily cost is US $50. In how many days will the
lease cost be the same as the purchase cost?
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25
150*X = 2000 + 50*X => 100 X = 2000 => X = 2000/100 = 20 Days

A new project manager is assigned to a project midway through the planning process. On disc ussing with the
project team, the new project manager finds that the activities list and network diagram were developed based on
the sc ope statement. What should the project manager do?
A. Develop sc hedule
B. Create the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
C. Estimate ac tivity resources
D. Sequence ac tivities
The question states that the ac tivities list and network diagram were created based on the sc ope statement.
This implies that the Create WBS process was never done. Therefore, the new project manager should go
back and c reate the WBS before proc eeding with project planning. The WBS can be used to help ensure that
all work on the projec t is done and no extra work is done.

A project is terminated before all the deliverables on the project are completed. Which of the following remains to
be done?
A. Final performance reporting
B. Releasing resources
C. Securing ac ceptance of deliverables produced to date
D. Completing project closure activities
A project enters closure when it ends or is prematurely terminated before completion of all deliverables.
The project manager should initiate project closure to complete final performance reporting, create lessons
learned, update rec ords, create archives and then release resources.

Your project team works from multiple countries, and your project work is done from several different locations.
You use tools like web conferencing and e-mail to distribute information to the team. Which of the following is
true?
A. This question desc ribes the staffing management plan from the Acquire Project Team process and
communication skills from the Distribute Information process.
B. This question desc ribes resource availability from the Develop Project Team process and information
distribution methods from the Distribute Information proc ess.
C. This question describes virtual teams from the Acquire Project Team process and information
distribution methods from the Distribute Information process.
D. This question desc ribes project staff assignments from the Develop Project Team proc ess and
communication skills from the Distribute Information process.
Virtual teams are teams that don’t nec essarily work in the same loc ation or have the same hours but all share
the goals of the project and have a role on the project. The web c onferencing and e-mail references describe
the information distribution methods tool and tec hnique of the Distribute Information proc ess.

Which of the following indicates that a projec t has a CPI of 1.2?
A. PV = 4000, EV = 4800
B. AC = 4000, EV = 4800
C. AC = 4800, EV = 4000
D. PV = 4800, EV = 4000
CPI (Cost Performance Index) = EV/AC, As per the given question,EV/AC = 1.2 => EV = 4800, AC = 4000
Choices that contain information about EV and PV are irrelevant for CPI.

Parkinson’s Law is best defined by
A. Work will reduce as team grows
B. Work will fill all available time
C. Project will expand as it goes along
D. Team performance will increase as project move on
Executing - Time Management
Parkinson's Law in regards to time in which ‘The amount of time in which one has to perform a task is the
amount of time it will take to complete that said task.’
The initial cost of your project is $25,000, which will save the company $6,000 per year for the next 4 years.
Using the above data, if your company wants a 12% ROI, what is the NPV of the project?
A. -$1,000
B. -$6,777
C. +$1,758
D. +$6,722
The formula for NPV in this case is NPV = -Investment + Inflows/(1+r)^n. So in our case it is -25,000 +
6,000/1.12 + 6,000/(1.12)^2 + 6,000/(1.12)^3 + 6,000/(1.12)^4 = -$6,777.

Pareto charts help the project manager:
A. Focus on the most critical issues to improve quality.
B. Focus on stimulating thinking.
C. Explore a desired future outcome.
D. Determine if a process is out of control.
Answer B and C relate to fish bone diagrams. Choice D relates to control charts. Hence Answer A is correc t.

Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for a non-competitive bid?
A. There is only one seller
B. The project has a tight schedule
C. Only one seller exists in the customer's approved list of vendors
D. The performing organization has existing mechanisms for maintaining reasonable pricing
Non-competitive bid refers to inviting only one seller to bid on the sc ope of work for a proc urement. A tight
timeline is not a valid reason to not have competitive bids. All other answer choices are valid reasons to not
have competing bids.

Why is it nec essary to archive project records?
A. It is a good prac tice
B. It is recommended by the project office
C. To support future projects
D. To document project performance
Project archives are required to support future projects in the performing organization. Even though the other
choices are also true, the best response is choice C.

You are the project manager for the Arc Angel Project. Your project has 13 members. You have been informed
that next week your project will rec eive the seven additional members you requested. How many channels of
communication will you have next week?
A. 1
B. 78
C. 190
D. 201
Planning - Communications Management
The project currently has 13 team members, and next week, seven additional team members will come aboard,
thus making a total of 20 team members. Using the formula n (n – 1) / 2, where n is the number of identified
stakeholders, thus the communication c hannels equal 190.

Which of the following is most relevant for performing administrative closure?
A. Technical documentation on the product of the project, Project plan documentation and Project
reports
B. Resource histogram
C. Statement of Work
D. Project reports
A) Administrative closure would require project planning documentation that establishes the framework for
performance reporting, product doc umentation for establishing that the projec t has met all customer
requirements on the product of the project, and project reports for conducting lessons learned and archiving
purpose
B) Choice B is incorrect. Resource histograms show resource loading plan over a period of time and are used
for resource management during planning / execution and this is not relevant for performing administrative
closure
C) Choice C is incorrect bec ause statement of work is not used at this stage of the project. Only the project
plan is and assoc iated documents are used for closure of a projec t
D) Choice D is incorrect. Project reports are used for performing administrative closure, however, there are
other documents that are used apart from project reports and hence the answer D is not the best answer

As you develop your project closeout documents, you begin to review the projec t deliverables and develop your
checklist of projec t requirements. You can typically find the requirements for formal close procurement in the
A. Project Close management plan
B. Contract terms and conditions
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Project Charter
Answer B is correct. If there are such formal proc edures required during close procurement, they can typically
be found in the contrac t terms and c onditions

The part of performance reporting that is an estimate of the future is ________.
A. Progress reporting
B. Schedule
C. WBS
D. Forecasting
Monitoring & Controlling - Communications Management
A) Choice A is incorrect bec ause progress reporting is generally for a specific period of work which has
completed recently
B) Choice B is incorrect. Sc hedule contains a list of ac tivities to be performed, however, this does not project
future results based on the past performance
C) Choice C is incorrect as WBS is not created based on performance reporting. WBS is already created by
now and work will be performed ac cordingly
D) The answer is D. Forec asting is a form of estimate that desc ribes the potential needs of a projec t

Common Project cost elements includes
A. Labor and material
B. Labor, material, other direct costs, and overhead costs
C. People, fac ility costs, materials, subcontrac tors
D. Labor, materials, other direct costs
Common projec t cost categories are labor, material, other direct costs, and overhead costs.

As a Projec t Manager, you have a professional and soc ial responsibility to encourage the growth of projec t
management at your company. To help with this growth, you c ould?
A. Train people on projec t management
B. Explain the value of project management to those that do not understand it
C. Show how project management can help solve problems
D. All of the answers
These are all processes that help cultivate project management as a profession.

Inputs to the Develop Projec t Charter process include all of the following except :
A. Business case
B. Contrac t
C. Stakeholder register
D. Project statement of work
The inputs to the Develop Project Charter proc ess are project statement of work, business case, contrac t,
enterprise environmental fac tors, and organizational process assets. The stakeholder register is not an input
to this proc ess.

When should a sc hedule baseline be created in the project?
A. At the end of the project and used to compare sc hedule performance on status reports
B. At the beginning of the project and then ignored because management does not care
C. At the end of the project and included in the archive
D. At the beginning of the project and used during the project to gauge performance
The correc t choice is D. The sc hedule baseline is created at the beginning of the projec t and is used during
the projec t to gauge performance.

Which of the following is not an input you should use during the staff acquisition proc ess?
A. Personnel administration policies
B. Staffing Management Plan
C. Information about competancy levels and prior experience
D. Project team directory
The correc t answer is D. The project team directory is an output of the Acquire Project Team process.

In order to speed up a project, you made a decision to fast-track a phase currently performed with five team
members and another one which was planned to begin in four weeks time with another five team members. Which
of the following ac tivities should you do first?
A. Make sure that all exit criteria of the consecutive phase have been met to ensure the flow of
communications in a team situation which is more complex by a fac tor of 2.
B. Make sure that all entry criteria of the previous phase have been met by planning and performing a phase
gate meeting to assess technical aptness.
C. Make sure that all exit criteria of the previous phase have been met by planning and performing a phase
gate meeting to assess technical performance.
D. Restructure your team and delegate tasks in order to ensure the flow of communications in a
team situation which is more complex by a factor of 4.5.
Current Team Number: 5 Comm Channels: 10 New Team count: 10 Comm Channels: 10 * (10-1)/2 = 45 The
communications has gone up by fac tor of 4.5

You are doing some analysis to help with project selection. There is a much debate concerning which projec ts to
select. You have the following to choose from: Project A with an IRR of 11.5%, Project B with an IRR of 18%,
Project C with an IRR of 15%, and Project D with an IRR of 13%. Youu c an select only one project, which should
you c hoose?
A. Project A
B. Project B
C. Project C
D. Project D
You always choose the project with the biggest internal rate of return (IRR). In this case, you should c hoose
Project B with an IRR of 18%.

The seller tells you that your ac tivities have resulted in an increase in their costs. You should:
A. Recommend a change to the project costs.
B. Have a meeting with management to find out what to do.
C. Ask the seller for supporting information.
D. Deny any wrongdoing.
This is a professional and social responsibility/proc urement/cost question. The situation desc ribed involves a
claim. The best thing to do would be to get supporting information to find out what happened and take
corrective ac tion for the future. After choice C and negotiation, Choice A would most likely oc cur. Choice D is
unethical at first instance. Choice B is a meeting with your management and should not oc cur until you have
all the information.

Which of the following best desc ribes control charts:
A. a graphic display of process data over time and against estabilished control limits
B. used to detect the problem
C. used to reject the problem
D. used to determine the ac ceptability of the problem
Control charts are a graphical display of process data over time and against established c ontrol limits, and
that has a centerline that assists in detecting a trend of plotted values towards either control limit. Control
charts may show defec ts, but inspection detects them.

All of the following are part of Perform Quality Control EXCEPT?
A. Cost of quality
B. Inspec tion
C. Control charts
D. Flowcharting
Cost of Quality is not used in Perform Quality Control, it is a tool used in the Plan Quality proc ess.

You have just defined the ac tivities on your projects, what are the expected outputs during this proc ess?
A. Activity list, Activity attributes, Milestone list
B. Scope Baseline, Enterprise environmental fac tors, Organisational proc ess assets
C. Dec omposition, Templates, Rolling Wave Planning, Expert Judgment
D. WBS, WBS Dictionary, PM Plan Updates, Milestone List
The outputs of the Define Activities proc ess are Ac tivity list, Activity attributes, and Milestone list.

You are looking at ways of reducing costs on your project before they begin to spiral out of control. Which costs
will you have the most control over when analyzing how to reduce your costs?
A. Costs incurred to bring the projec t to its current state
B. Leasing c osts for equipment essential for this projec t.
C. Rental cost of the office building.
D. Consulting costs to bring in external consultants to develop the product.
This is a variable cost to the project and the project manager can decide to bring in less Consultants or
reduce the hours they work. Costs incurred to bring the project to its current state is a sunk cost and leasing
cost is a fixed c ost. Neither should be considered.

Using backward pass calculations, what is the latest start time of a task if the duration is 37 days, the required
completion is 219 days, the latest finish is 245 days, and the estimated c ompletion is 205 days?
A. 208
B. 14
C. 40
D. 450
Monitoring & Controlling - Time Management
The calculation is Latest Start (208)=Latest Finish (245) - Duration (37). Therefore, Answers B, C, and D are
incorrect.

Which of the following can best help a project manager during projec t execution?
A. Stakeholder analysis
B. Change Control Board
C. PMIS
D. Scope verification
Choice A is incorrect, as stakeholder analysis should have been c ompleted during the project planning
proc esses.
Choice B also incorrect. CCBs can assist the projec t manager, but not as much as the control and assistance
offered through a PMIS.
Choice C is correct. A PMIS can assist the project manager the most during projec t execution. It does not
replac e the role of the projec t manager. This is a tool and technique of direct and manage projec t execution.
The other tool and technique being expert judgment.
Choice D is incorrect. Sc ope verification is proof of the project work, not an assistant to the project manager.

All of the following must be done before the project can be closed EXCEPT:
A. Ensure that the schedule baseline has been updated
B. Get formal ac ceptance of the deliverables from the customer
C. Make sure the sc ope of the project was completed
D. Verify that the product ac ceptance criteria have been met
Choice A is the correct answer. Before closing a project you need to get formal written acceptance of the
deliverables from the customer, ensure every work item in the WBS has been c ompleted, and verify that the
product ac ceptance criteria have been met.

All of the following are true of Pareto diagrams except
A. Pareto diagrams use two variables
B. Pareto diagrams are histograms
C. Pareto diagrams rank ordered
D. It is sometimes referred to as the 80/20 rule
Pareto charts are a specific type of histogram, ordered by frequency of oc currence. It shows how many
defects were generated by type or category of identified causes. Rank ordering is used to focus corrective
ac tion. This is commonly referred to as the 80/20 rule.
Choice A is a false statement, bec ause Pareto charts do not use 2 variables. The only variable used is the
number of defec ts. The charts do display the data on 2 axis; the left axis is number of defects displayed as a
bar-chart and the right axis is cumulative total number of defects displayed as a line-chart. However, there is
just 1 variable, the number of defects.

The projec t manager of a large multi-loc ation software project team has 24 members excluding the projec t
manager himself, out of which 5 are assigned to testing. Due to recent recommendations by an organizational
quality audit team, the projec t manager is convinced to add a quality professional to lead the test team at
additional cost, to the project. The projec t manager is aware of the importance of communications, for the
success of the projec t and takes this step of introducing additional communication channels, making it more
complex, in order to assure quality levels of the project. How many additional communication c hannels are
introduced as a result of this organizational change in the projec t?
A. 25
B. 24
C. 1
D. 5
Number of communication channels = n*(n-1)/2. Originally the project has 25 members (including the project
manager), which makes the total communication c hannels as 25*24/2 = 300. With the addition of the Quality
Professional as a member of the project team, the communication c hannels increase to 26*25/2 = 325.
Therefore, the additional channels as a result of the change, that is, 325-300 = 25.

You are working on a project under contrac t and are currently doing the Close Procurements process, which of
the following should you document?
A. Close proc urements proc edure
B. Verify sc ope
C. Formal acceptance
D. Administrative closure proc edures
The correc t answer is C, during the Close Procurements process you should document formal ac ceptance of
the work done under contrac t. Choice B, verify sc ope, is done during the Control Scope process. Choices A
and D, are things you would do, but are not things you would document.

You are managing a project that is running behind sc hedule. You c hange the relationship of several sc heduled
ac tivities from finish-to-start to start-to-start in order to complete the project faster to meet a tight deadline.
This is an example of which one of the following?
A. Fast-tracking
B. Crashing
C. Adjusting leads and lags
D. Resource leveling
Fast-trac king is when you take ac tivities or projec t phases that would otherwise be done sequentially and you
do them in parallel. The speeds up delivery of the project, but will also increase risk.
Crashing is when you add extra resources to critical path activities. Adjusting leads or lags does not alter the
relationship of ac tivities, but applies a delay or head-start to activities. Resource leveling is the proc ess of
smoothing out resource utilization to avoid spikes in resource demand.

Joan orders RFID Chips for her project from a new supplier who appears to have the lowest cost. After delivery of
the chips, the sales rep c alls Joan to thank her for the order, and tells her he will be sending her a portable grill as
a thank-you gift. What should Joan do?
A. Accept the gift. It did not influence her decision to purchase the chips.
B. Refuse the gift to avoid the appearance of impropriety.
C. Report the chips manufac turer to the Better Business Bureau.
D. Ensure the gift bec omes a company asset and not a personal asset.
Although Answers A and D might be tempting, the appearance of impropriety is important, and should be
disc losed or avoided. Answer C is not nec essary unless the chip manufacturer has done something illegal

You are calculating the expec ted total cost of the project at completion and have been given a new estimate.
Variances to date have been atypical. BAC=700, PV=300, EV=275, and AC=280. What is the new expec ted total
cost at completion?
A. 25
B. 705
C. 7143
D. 425
EAC atypical is AC+(BAC-EV) = 280 + (700-275) = 280 + 425 = 705.

Your project is showing a CPI of 1.2 and SPI of 0.85, this indicates:
A. You are under budget and behind schedule
B. You are over budget and behind sc hedule
C. You are under budget and ahead of schedule
D. You are over budget and ahead of sc hedule
You are under budget and behind schedule. Simply using the formulas, a CPI of >1 shows that earned value is
greater than ac tual cost, and SPI of <1 shows that earned value is less than planned value.

Customer satisfac tion should be measured at the end of the project to maintain long-term relationships. Which of
the following is NOT always an aspec t of customer satisfaction?
A. The product meets its stated and unstated requirements
B. The project is profitable
C. The product is high quality
D. The customer’s needs are met
Customer satisfac tion c an be attributed to meeting the customer's needs, producing a high quality product,
and meeting the product's stated and unstated requirements. Customer satisfac tion isn’t always about money,
it is possible for a customers to be satisfied even if a project is not profitable.

When is a projec t considered to be Closed?
A. When project archives are completed
B. When lessons learned are completed
C. When performance reports are completed
D. When the customer ac cepts the product
Customer ac ceptance is the first step in closure. Lessons learned and final performance reports are nec essary
to be completed before archives, as these are parts of the projec t archives. Therefore, the project is closed
only after archives are completed.

You have included c ontingency allowances in many schedule ac tivity cost estimates for your project. In this
context, you are aware that contingency reserves are used at the disc retion of the projec t manager and deal
with:
A. Anticipated and certain events
B. Unanticipated and not certain events
C. Anticipated but not certain events
D. Unanticipated but certain events
A risk is any potential impac t to the project (in other words anticipated but not certain). Contingency reserves
are estimated c osts to be used at the discretion of the project manager to deal with anticipated, but not
certain, events. These events are known as "known unknowns" and are part of the project scope and c ost
baselines. These would be found in your risk register as identified risks.

Which measurement of a product characteristic has only two results, pass or fail?
A. Variable sampling
B. Statistical sampling
C. Attribute sampling
D. Binary sampling
When a measurement has only two results either conforms or does not conform, it is known as attribute
sampling.

All of the following are part of the procurement documents EXCEPT?
A. Description of the desired form responses
B. Proc urement statement
C. Terms and c onditions
D. Negotiation process
Planning - Procurement Management
Negotiation proc ess is not part of Proc urement documents, Answer A, B and C options are part of Procurement
documents.

What is the process of evaluating the overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence that
the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards called?
A. Quality Assurance
B. Quality Control
C. Quality Planning
D. Quality Review
A) Quality Assurance process deals with implementing the planned and systemic activities within the quality
system to assure the project team and the external stakeholders that the projec t would meet the quality
standards
B) Quality control involves monitoring specific project results to determine compliance to relevant quality
standards. Thus, choice B is incorrect
C) Quality planning involves the identification of quality standards relevant to the project. Thus, choice C is
incorrect
D) Quality Review is a form of quality audit and is a method of chec king adherence to proc esses and deriving
proc ess improvement ac tions. Thus, choice D is incorrect

You have completed your project delivery and c urrently are in the project closing process. You have started
preparing the lessons learned document. What is the primary objective of the lessons learned document?
A. Quality audit
B. Proc ess analysis
C. Continuous improvement
D. Risk audit
Lessons learned are useful in proc ess improvements from an organizational and tec hnical perspective. The
information c an be used in the current project as well as in future projects.

An output that arises as a result of using a tool which appears after completing plan risk response:
A. Residual risks
B. Risks identified
C. Prioritized list of risks
D. Impacts identified
A) Answer A is correc t, on risk response plan we will find for residual risk in project
B) Answer B is incorrect Risks are identified during risk identification and risk monitoring and c ontrol
C) Answer C is incorrec t. Prioritized risks are doc umented during qualitative and quantitative risk analysis
D) Answer D is incorrec t as Impac ts are generally determined during quantitative risk analysis

The stakeholders on your project are having many disagreements over the technical approac h to complete the
project. Disputes are common in project planning and must always be expected. Which of the following doc uments
is concerned with trac king things that are preventing the project team members from meeting project goals?
A. Dispute register
B. Project plan
C. Risk register
D. Issues log
The correc t answer is choice D. An issue is any point or matter in question, in dispute, or over which there are
disagreements. The issues log documents concerns that keep the project team members from meeting project
goals.

Which of the following BEST describes the elements of a WBS Dictionary entry?
A. The definition of the work pac kage including its Net Present Value (NPV).
B. Work Pac kage ID and Name, Statement of Work, Required Resources, and Monte Carlo Analysis.
C. Work Pac kage ID and Name, Statement of Work, Risk Register, Earned Value Calculation, Scheduled
Complete Date, and Cost
D. Work package ID and Name, Statement of Work, Responsible Organization, Schedule Milestones,
Quality Requirements, Code of Account Identifier, Required Resources, Cost Estimate.
Answer D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, amd C all have things that are not in the WBS including Net
Present Palue, Monte Carlo Analysis and Earned Value Calculation.
Question: 100 ( Incorrec t - Skipped )

Your project team is working with a vendor to correct some serious “bugs” found during UAT (user ac ceptance
testing). The dec ision is made to work through lunch and order pizza. When the food is delivered, the vendor says
the bill has been paid. What do you do?
A. You accept and thank the vendor for your lunch.
B. You accept and tell him you will pay for lunch for everyone tomorrow.
C. You keep working and pretend you did not hear what the vendor said.
D. You decline and pay for your own meal.
You have a responsibility to refrain from ac cepting inappropriate forms of compensation for personal gain.
Answers A and C are incorrect for this reason. Answer B is a poor choice because the appearance of
impropriety is present.

The features and functions of a product or service are considered ________, and the work that must be done to
deliver a product/service as the output of the project is considered ________.
A. Project sc ope, Product sc ope
B. Requirements, Deliverables
C. Product scope, Project scope
D. Scope management plan, Projec t management plan
The correc t answer is C. Product sc ope desc ribes the features and functions of the product or service,
whereas projec t sc ope describes the work that must be done to deliver a product/service as the output of the
project.

Which of the following would be used to describe the qualitative significance of the negative impact of threats or
the positive impact of opportunities?
A. Cost, time, scope, and quality
B. Sources of the risk events
C. Types of risk responses
D. Very Low, Low, Moderate, High
Relative sc ales of impact are rank ordered to differentiate risks that require special attention from lesser risks.
Numerical sc ales such as 0.1, 0.5, and 0.9 can be used to assign values to the impact of the risks.

The inputs of the Report Performance process include all of the following except for which one?
A. Project management plan
B. Work performance information
C. Budget forecasts
D. Performance reports
Project management plan, work performance information, work performance measurements, budget forecasts,
and organizational process assets are the input to the Report Performance proc ess. Performance reports are
output of the Report Performance proc ess.

The two closing process are :
A. Close proc urement and Verify sc ope
B. Close Procurement and Close Project
C. Project closure and T eam release
D. Release team and lessons learned
Proc urement close and Project Closer process are two closer processes; before you c lose your project make
sure that all proc urements are closed.

The ________ of the team may contrac t and expand depending on the phase of the project.
A. Abilities
B. Capabilities
C. Size
D. Concept
The size of the team may change as people are added or let go to meet the requirements of certain phases of
the projec t.

Which of the following is not a part of administrative closure?
A. Collec ting project records
B. Final performance report
C. Lessons learned
D. Verify Scope
Verify Scope is a part of project scope control and is carried out throughout the controlling phase of the
project management life cycle. Product verification is carried out during project closure. Publishing the final
performance report, collecting project rec ords, and c oncluding lessons learned are all required to be done at
administrative closure.

The choices about how to execute the project are found in the:
A. Scope Statement
B. Project Plan
C. SOW
D. Charter
A Option A is incorrec t as Scope Statement defines about only work to be done and does not desc ribe how to
proc ess
B The project plan is the final doc ument to be created before the execution of the project. As such, the final
choices of the planning team are shown in it
C SOW is the initial work desc ription document and does not contain any details about project plan and
execution and this is incorrec t answer
D Charter is the document that authorizes the projec t and does not contain any ac tivity about project plan or
project execution and it’s wrong answer

Which of the following PM processes involves the Sc ope Management knowledge area?
A. Create WBS
B. Scope Verification
C. Neither A and B
D. Both A and B
Various sc ope management proc esses are collect requirements, Plan sc ope, Define, create WBS, Verify scope
and c ontrol sc ope.

Project performance appraisals focus on:
A. how an individual team member is performing on the project
B. an evaluation of the project team‘s effectiveness
C. a team building effort
D. reducing the staff turnover rate
Answer B, C and D list aspec ts of team performance assessments. Only choice A is correct. Project
performance appraisals deal with how eac h team member is performing work, rather than how well the team is
working together.

Your project files need to be sent via courier to your company’s head office. If the files do not arrive tomorrow,
your company will not be able to deliver the project proposal on time and will lose an important client. The
deadline cannot be negotiated. The team worked right up to the last minute in order to give you the files. Due to
heavy traffic, you are running late and the courier company will close in five minutes. You c an only make it if you
run a couple of red lights. Which of the following is you will do?
A. Run the red lights, so that you c an save the client relationship
B. You must stop at the red lights, even if you lose the client
C. You must negotiate a new deadline with client
D. You c an use the earned value metrics to show that the SPI is over 1, meaning the project is not late to
client
The PMP Code of Professional Conduct states that you must follow every law, no matter how trivial, and no
matter how serious the consequences are. Any time that you see a question that asks about breaking a law,
your answer should always be the choice that doesn’t break it - no manner how minor the infrac tion or how
serious the consequences.
Which of the following statements is true regarding brainstorming and lateral thinking?
A. They are an alternatives identification technique.
B. They are forms of expert judgment that’s used to help c reate project sc ope statement.
C. They are organizational proc ess assets that are used to help create project sc ope statement
D. They are used to elaborate the product sc ope desc ription.
Alternatives identification is a tool and technique of the Define Scope proc ess that includes brainstorming and
lateral thinking techniques. Tec hnique used to generate different approaches to exec ute and perform the work
of the projec t. A variety of general management techniques can be used such as brainstorming, lateral
thinking, pair wise comparisons, etc.

Which of the following could be a primary cause of a contrac t change?
A. Change requests
B. Statement of work
C. Inspec tion results
D. Test procedures
Monitoring & Controlling - Procurement Management
A) Request for changes to sc ope, sc hedule, and quality requirements could result into a contrac t change
B) Choice B is incorrect. SOW outlines the project requirements and needs, changes made to that need not
trigger a change in contrac t
C) Choice C is incorrect as inspec tion results will be discussed in detailed and hence outcomes may not prompt
for a change in contrac t
D) Choice D is incorrect bec ause test proc edures are normal course of projec t’s ac tivity and this will not lead
to a change in contrac t

In which of the following objectives are the techniques "Brainstorming and lateral thinking" used in the sc ope
definition proc ess?
A. Product analysis
B. Alternatives identification
C. Expert judgment
D. Stakeholder analysis
Brainstorming and lateral thinking are methods of Alternatives Identification.

Inputs to Develop Project Team include
A. Human resource plan, enterprises environmental factors, organizational proc ess assets
B. Project staff assignment, project management plan, resource calendars
C. Team performance assessment, enterprises environmental fac tors, organizational process assets
D. Project staff assignments, enterprises environmental fac tors, organizational process assets
The inputs to the Develop Project Team process are projec t staff assignment, project management plan, and
resource calendars.

You have an organizational chart on the wall of your office. Which of the following statements regarding
organizational charts is false?
A. An organizational chart can help the project manager identify the relationships between team members in
smaller projects.
B. An organizational chart can help the Project Manager identify communication protoc ols in large projects.
C. An organizational chart is used to determine how work is authorized to ensure the work is done by
the identified organization.
D. An organizational chart can help the project team identify reporting relationships among the project team,
key stakeholders and management.
All the options are true except answer choice C, which is referring to work authorizations systems.

You are in the proc ess of contrac t closure. Now, your foc us is to chec k if all the work is completed c orrectly and
as per the needs of the customer. Which of the following ac tivities are you performing?
A. Financial Closure
B. Lessons Learned
C. Product Verification
D. Stakeholder Management
Choice A is incorrect. Financial Closure involves making final payment and c ompleting the cost records.
Choice B and D are incorrec t. Lessons learned and Stakeholder Management is not part of the contrac t closure
proc ess.
Choice C is correct. Product verification is an ac tivity for checking if all of the work is completed c orrectly as
per the needs of the customer.

Betty is an efficient project manager working for a construction project. She is sending a couple of workers to get
cement for her projec t. She also needs to have lunch for her husband picked up and delivered, and instructs the
workers to do that on the way. Is this a violation of the PMI Code of Ethics?
A. No. Betty is simply making good use of the synergies available to her.
B. No. Betty's house is on the way, so there is no personal gain.
C. Yes. Betty is engaging in the wrongful use of resources, and is behaving in a dishonest manner.
D. No. The workers work for Betty, so there is no personal gain.
Answers A, B, and D are all incorrec t bec ause Betty is using a project resource (worker time) for her personal
gain.

Which of the following quality tools could you implement to ensure that your project team members are completing
all of the required steps during an installation proc edure?
A. Checklists
B. WBS
C. Design of experiments
D. Requirements doc umentation
Checklists are a simple but effective quality management tool that the project manager can use to ensure the
project team is completing all of the required work.

You are 6 months into a year long project and you have been managing a large team of projec t consultants. You
find out from your superiors that an external team will be on site next week to review the Project Management
Plan, Work Performance Information, Quality Control Measurements and Quality Metrics. In particular they are
keen to review the Quality Management Plan and Process Improvement Plan if available. What proc ess are they
performing?
A. Project compliance audit
B. Cost Benefit Analysis
C. Perform Quality Control
D. Perform Quality Assurance
These are the inputs to the Perform Quality Assurance process. During this proc ess you c onduct a quality
audit, which is a structured independent review to determine whether project activities comply with
operational and projec t policies, proc esses, and procedures.

You are through with creating an RFP and are now required to sec ure quotations. There are several sellers for the
spec ific sc ope but the project has limited time and resources. What should he do next, for securing quotations
against the RFP?
A. Choose the prospec tive sellers recommended by another colleague
B. Consult the senior management and leave it to them to prepare the list
C. Refer to the qualified seller list and source selection criteria to make a decision
D. Put an advertisement in a local newspaper
A) Choice A is incorrect bec ause making a dec ision based on recommendations from a colleague is not a
systematic approac h.
B) Choice B is incorrect. The project manager's responsibilities include delivering all aspects of the project and
hence solicitation work should not be taken up to senior management.
C) Limited time and resources imply constraints in inviting and evaluating several quotations / bids. A systemic
approach would be to pre-sc reen vendors, by following the organization's approved vendor list for such
proc urement. The qualified sellers list along with the source selection criteria will allow you to make a dec ision
quickly and objec tively.
D) Choice D is incorrect as advertising is used for enhancing prospective seller list and in the stated
circumstances of limited resources and time, this may not be appropriate.

Which of the following would fac ilitate a larger participation of sellers against an invitation to bid?
A. Bidders' conference
B. Advertising
C. Letter of intent
D. Single source order
A) Bidders' c onference is to ensure a common and c orrec t understanding of the scope of work being procured
B) The purchaser may insert advertisements in newspapers, magazines, or in any other media meant for public
distribution to secure a larger response to the inquiry for proc urement
C) Letter of intent is an intimation of intent to hire and it is not a tool for solicitation
D) Single source order implies a preferred supplier of the goods or services and restricts competition

You are fac ilitating a meeting to disc uss a specialized area of your projec t where your knowledge is lac king. It is
vital that a dec ision be made quickly so the projec t can proc eed. You gather a team of experts in the area to help
you make the decision however the meeting is not going ac cording to plan. There seems to be much contention
between the experts and there is widely varied opinion on how to proceed. Some members in the meeting are
even going as far making false ac cusations of others and you notice that the opinion of one member is constantly
being rejected, you think due to a dislike of this expert amongst the others. What would be the best approac h for
you to take to try and c ome up with a resolution?
A. Institute a voting method to reac h the dec ision quickly
B. Immediately halt this meeting and then use the Delphi technique of reaching a decision
C. Immediately halt the meeting and send out a questionnaire to these experts to help you make the dec ision
D. Immediately halt the meeting and set up guidelines for conduct during the meeting, and re-iterating the
agenda of the meeting
The Delphi technique is best used where there is hostility amongst a group of experts.

A war room is an example of:
A. Contrac t negotiation tac tics
B. Co-location
C. This term has no meaning in the project management field
D. Human resource planning tools
Co-location is the prac tice of loc ating all team members in a central loc ation. A war room is a central room
where all team members can gather to be colloc ated, which helps improve communications and team
interac tion. This is a tool of Develop Project Team used in human resource management.
a seller completes work as specified, but the buyer is not pleased with the results. The contract is considered to
be:
A. Null and void
B. Incomplete
C. Complete
D. Closed
If the seller completes the work specified in the contrac t statement of work, the contrac t is considered
complete. It does not mean the contrac t closed yet though.

What does a finished project management plan usually include?
A. Project Baselines (Schedule Baseline, Cost Performance Baseline and Scope Baseline) and all
subsidiary plans from Scope management to Procurement management plan, Risk register,
Milestones
B. Scope statement, cost estimates, historical information, WBS, project charter, and schedule
C. Scope statement, cost estimates, organizational policies, WBS, projec t charter, the project management
approach, and schedule
D. Scope statement, cost estimates, organizational policies, WBS, projec t charter, and schedule
Planning - Integration Management
The Project management plan integrates and c onsolidates all of the subsidiary management plans and
baselines from the planning proc ess. It is the proc ess of documenting the actions necessary to define,
prepare, integrate and c oordinate all subsidiary plans.

Project costs are over budget when
A. CPI<1
B. CPI>1
C. CV>1
D. EV>AC
If CPI less than 1, you are spending more than anticipated for the work completed.

The projec t stakeholders have reviewed your project and feel that the cost ac curac y and duration estimates need
to be improved and that the projec ts expec ted end date is too far into the future. What should you do first?
A. Re-interview the subject matter experts (SME’s) and ask for better estimates.
B. Reexamine the WBS to see if it can be further decomposed, to allow for better estimating on cost
and duration.
C. Tell your stakeholders that your estimates are sufficient. They are just stakeholders and have no real
understanding of your project.
D. Reduce all the cost and time estimates by 20% based on your feedbac k.
Answer B is correct. If your cost ac curac y and duration estimates need to be improved, then that could tell
you that your current estimates are not ac curate. Thus the first thing you should do is to reexamine the WBS
to see if it can be further dec omposed, to allow for better estimating on cost and duration. You might also do
A, but you would first reexamine the WBS.

Which of the following is not involved in Perform Control quality?
A. Quality audit
C. Histogram
D. Inspec tion
Quality audit' is a structured, independent review to determine whether project activities comply with
organizational and projec t policies, processes, and procedures. Statistical sampling, Histogram and inspec tion
are performed on work performance information and therefore, are a part of Perform quality control.

You are working on a construction projec t that spans over 12 months. You review the sc hedule and notice that
there are times when certain team members on your projec t team are severely over allocated, which means you
might need to bring on extra resources to help handle the extra load. However, at other times during your project
the team is under alloc ated, which means you may have to lay off some team members. Which of the following
should you do to rearrange your resources so that a constant number of resources are used in the project?
A. Crashing
B. Floating
C. Resource leveling
D. Fast trac king
Resource leveling refers to the smoothing out of resources. In this case you want to maintain the same
number of resources on the project for eac h time period to avoid laying off workers in down times or possibly
having higher costs during peak times.

You are performing structured independant reviews to ensure compliance with the project's quality policies and
proc edures. Which of the following is true about the proc ess this describes?
A. It is the proc ess of monitoring and recording results of exec uting the quality activities to assess
performance.
B. It identifies causes of poor proc ess or product quality and recommends ac tion to eliminate them.
C. It is performed throughout the project.
D. It ensures appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used.
This question is describing quality audits, which is a tool and technique of the Perform Quality Assurance
proc ess. Answer choices A, B, and C are all wrong because they all describe features of the Perform Quality
Control Proc ess. Choice D describes the Quality Assurance process.

The projec t sponsor is worried about the quality of the organizations various projects. He wants to know which
projects are having problems and which ones are doing well. If the sponsor rec eives the following information,
which project should they be the MOST worried about?
A. Project A with a benefit cost ratio of 2.3
B. Project A with a benefit cost ratio of 3.3
C. Project C with a benefit cost ratio of -4.3
D. Project D with a benefit cost ratio of -1.3
Project C with a benefit cost ratio of -4.3, since it is negative you should more concern. Answer D is also
negative, it should also be a concern, but Project C will lose more than Project D.

You are finalizing the monthly project status report due now to your manager when you disc over that several
project team members are not reporting ac tual hours spent on project tasks. Consequently, this results in skewed
project management plan statistics. What is the MOST appropriate action to be taken?
A. Disc uss the impacts of these ac tions with team member(s)
B. Report team member ac tions to functional manager
C. Continue reporting information as presented to you
D. Provide accurate and truthful representations in all project reports
Provide ac curate and truthful representations in all project reports. Answer A, B and C are not correct.

What is "Independent estimate" applied as a criterion for evaluating proposals?
A. Check proposed pricing by procuring organization
B. Project budget for the project statement of work
C. Range of estimates as derived by rough order magnitude techniques
D. Average of prices received from prospective sellers.
Independent estimates derived by the buyer are often referred to as "should c ost" estimate for the
proc urement. This is done to ensure correct pricing levels on the proc urement.

Your project’s primary constraint is quality. In order to make certain the project team members don’t feel too
pressed for time and to avoid sc hedule risk, you decide to use which of the following activity estimating tools?
A. Expert judgment
B. Quantitatively based durations
C. Reserve analysis
D. Analogous estimating
A) Answer A is Expert judgment is used find estimation from experience people within or outside team
B) Answer B is Quantitatively based durations will find only duration required and it is not risk
C) Answer C is correc t. Reserve analysis takes sc hedule risk into consideration and adds a percentage of time
or additional work periods to the estimate to prevent schedule delays.
D) Answer D is incorrec t, Analogous estimating is done at the binning of project

Inventory costs are going up as a result of not following the proper quality procedures, thus causing the project
manager to worry about the cost of non-conformance. What is the BEST advice you c an give the project
manager?
A. Increase sc rap
B. Increase rework
C. Perform a quality audit
D. Look for benchmarks
Quality audits are structured independent reviews to determine whether project activities comply with
operational and projec t policies, proc esses, and procedures.
A quality audit to correc t any deficiencies in the quality process should result in a reduced c ost of quality and
an increase in sponsor or customer ac ceptance of the project’s product. Quality audits may be sc heduled or
random and may be conducted by internal or external auditors.

The projec t manager is explaining the potential sequential phases the project to his key stakeholders. What is this
called?
A. Project Kickoff Meeting
B. Stakeholders Meeting
C. Project Life Cycle
D. Product Life Cyc le
The project manager is explaining project life cycle, which is collection of generally sequential or overlapping
project phases

In which organizational structure does a project manager have maximum influence?
A. Functional Organization
B. Weak Matrix
C. Strong Matrix
D. Projectized Organization
A The functional / department manager will hold higher authority and the project manager will have no
authority and will work as a project coordinator / expeditor and this is answer is incorrec t
B In a weak matrix the project manager will have less decision making authority unlike Projectized organization
and hence the answer is wrong
C Strong Matrix gives a project manager higher authority, however there are other manager who will be given
authority that will influence the project, and hence this is not the best answer
D The Organizational Structure Influences on Projects shows that project managers have maximum influence in
a Projectized organization

What is one of the advantages of a functional organization?
A. Project team members are usually loyal to the projec t, not a functional manager.
B. Project team members are usually loyal to the projec t manager.
C. Project managers usually yield a great deal of formal authority in a functional organization.
D. All of the employees report to one manager and have a clear chain of command.
Advantages for employees in a functional organization are that they have on supervisor and a clear chain of
command exists. None of the other choices are representative of a functional organization.

A planning tool, which provides details of the work to accomplish, but also provide some preliminary description of
the work to be done in later phases is called:
A. Progressive detailing
B. Rolling wave planning
C. Strategic
D. Operational
This technique of rolling wave planning will be done when; Dec omposition may not be possible for a deliverable
or subproject that will be ac complished far into the future. The project management team usually waits until
the deliverable or subprojec t is clarified so the details of the WBS can be developed.

What is Project Management?
A. It has a definite start date and end date
B. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service or result
C. The application of knowledge, skills, tools and techniques to project activities to meet project
requirements
D. Project often utilized as means of ac hieving an organization’s strategic plan
According to the PMBOK guide, project management is defined as “the application of knowledge, skills, tools
and techniques to projec t ac tivities to meet projec t requirements”.

Bec ause the CPI is .5625, what do we know about this project?
A. It can be finished on time if we crash the sc hedule.
B. We will need an extra 6 weeks to complete it.
C. The project is at budget risk.
D. None of the above.
A CPI less than 1.0 suggests that the project is exec uting at budget risk.

A Pareto chart is a type of
A. Cause and effec t diagram
B. Control chart
C. Histogram
D. Scatter diagram
A Pareto chart is a specific type of histogram, ordered by frequency of oc currence and showing how many
defects were generated to show nonconformity. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect.

Who should go to status meetings?
A. The project team
B. The people in the communication plan
C. The project team and sponsor
D. Stakeholders
A) Answer A is incorrec t, all team members will not attend the status meeting
B) Answer B is correct. The people listed in the communication plan. It is easy to get too many people
involved in status meetings. Put a list of necessary people in the communication plan and stick to it
C) Answer C is incorrec t bec ause sponsor will not be involved in status meetings
D) Answer d is incorrect bec ause Stakeholder are all people involved direc tly or indirec tly into project, all
people will not be involved in status meetings

The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is an output of which proc ess
A. Develop Project Charter
B. Define Sc ope
C. Create WBS
D. Verify Scope
The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is an output of the Create WSB process, which is the process where
the scope statement is dec omposed into smaller and more manageable deliverables and is displayed as a
hierarchical representation of all deliverables.

A contrac t is delivered on a fixed price basis. Which of the following should the project manager be concerned
with when administering the contrac t?
A. Justified pricing of change order requests
B. Verification of seller's costs
C. Supervision of seller's work
D. Skills of resources assigned by seller
Monitoring & Controlling - Procurement Management
A) A fixed price contrac t is for a defined scope of work and at a fixed cost. The seller carries the cost risks
while the buyer carries the scope risks. Therefore, the project team must verify justification of change order
pricing against sc ope changes
B) Choice B is incorrect. Seller's costs and resources assigned should not bother the buyer as such costs
associated with delivering the project are owned and managed by the seller, that would be a concern in c ost
reimbursable contrac t
C) Choice C is incorrect. The buyer needs to supervise and usually direct the seller's work in a T&M contrac t,
but not in a fixed price contrac t
D) Choice D is incorrect as contrac t defines only about the work to be performed and it is the vendor’s
responsibility to assign appropriate resources with skill

What are three tools used in the Perform Quality Control proc ess:
A. Benchmarking, Cost of Quality (COQ) and Cause and Effec t Diagram
B. Cost of Quality (COQ), Cause and Effect Diagram and Control Charts
C. Control Charts, Flowcharting and Process Analysis
D. Pareto Chart, Control Charts and Cause and Effect Diagram
The tools and techniques of the Perform Quality Control process are cause and effect diagram, control charts,
flowcharting, histogram, Pareto chart, run chart, sc atter diagram, statistical sampling, inspec tion, and
approved change requests review.
Following is a summary status report of an automation project from the start of the project thru the end of Week
#4. The following table is an extrac t from the project planning budget on a weekly basis: The work content of all
ac tivities is linear. If the project is sold at $75,000 with a profit of $10,000, what is the EAC assuming that the
current cost performance is typical for the remainder for the projec t? AC = $39,000, EV = $34,000
A. $86,100
B. $77,750
C. $74,550
D. Cannot be determined
Budget At Completion (BAC) = $75,000 - $10,000 = $65,000
CPI = EV / AC = $34,000 / $39,000 = .872
If the Cost Performance Index remains the same, EAC = BAC / CPI = $65,000 / .872 = $74,550

You are planning the quality process and c ome to realize that there are literally hundreds of combination of
fac tors that would be too time consuming and expensive causing the project to be way behind sc hedule and way
over budget. What technique would you employ to ensure the quality of your testing without negatively impac ting
the time and budget?
A. Cause and Effec t
B. Benchmarking
C. Design of Experiments
D. Cost Benefits Analysis
Design of Experiments is able to test multiple fac tors simultaneously rather than changing one fac tor at a time
which is time consuming

Failure costs are also known as which of the following?
A. Appraisal costs
B. Cost of non-conformance
C. Cost conformance
D. Prevention c osts
Cost of non-conformance can result in either internal or external failure costs. Cost of conformance would
include prevention and appraisal costs.

Your project has not been going very well and the stakeholders funding the project have been c omplaining to you
about the performance of the project team. This is best desc ribed as:
A. 360-degree reviews
B. External feedback
C. Performance reports
D. Team disagreement
The best answer is B. It is very important for you to get external feedback about the performance of your
project team from external parties such as stakeholders.

A project manager wants to change several product features at once to come up with the best possible product.
The projec t manager should use which tool and technique?
A. Fishbone analysis
B. Design of experiments
C. Benchmark
D. Statistical analysis
Planning - Quality Management
Design of experiments (DOE) is a statistical method for identifying which factors may influence specific
variables of a product or proc ess under development or in production. DOE should be used during the Plan
Quality proc ess to determine the number and type of tests and their impact on c ost of quality.

One type of progressive elaboration occurs when the work to be performed within the near term is planned in
detail while work sc heduled further out is defined at only a high level in the work breakdown structure (WBS). As
the task draws nearer, the amount of detail for the task is further defined. Which of the following terms defines
this type of progressive elaboration?
A. Dec omposition
B. Sequence ac tivities
C. Alternative analysis
D. Rolling wave planning
Rolling wave planning is a form of progressive elaboration in which the work to be performed within the near
term is planned in detail while work scheduled for further out is defined at only a high level in the work
breakdown structure (WBS). Rolling wave planning is a tool and technique of the Define Activities proc ess.

What is the measurement of a particular product charac teristic, which has only two results - pass or fail, known
as?
A. Variable sampling
C. Attribute sampling
D. Binary sampling
A) If the measurement is on a continuous sc ale - with a degree of conformity, it is known as variable sampling.
Thus, choice A is incorrect
B) Statistical sampling is a method of selecting a few outputs from a lot to be inspec ted for deriving
conformance of the entire lot. Thus, choice B is incorrec t
C) When a measurement has only two results - either conforms or does not conform, it is known as attribute
sampling
D) There is nothing like binary sampling. Thus, choice D is incorrec t

In a matrixed projec t organization the administrative manager function of the project team is typically preformed
by
A. The business department manager
B. The human resource manager
C. The functional manager
D. The Project manager
In a matrixed projec t the functional manager performs administrative functions for their staff.

What are the tools and techniques of Estimate Activity Resources?
A. PDM, Schedule Network Templates, Dependency Determination, Applying Leads & Lags
B. Enterprise Environmental Fac tors, Organizational Proc ess Assets, Activity List, Activity attributes,
Resource Calendars
C. Expert Judgment, Alternatives Analysis, Published Estimating Data, Project Management
Software
D. Dec omposition, Templates, Rolling Wave Planning, Expert Judgment
Expert Judgment, Alternatives Analysis, Published Estimating Data, and Projec t Management Software are the
tools and techniques of the Estimate Activity resources process.
During what part of the procurement process does contrac t negotiation occur?
A. Administer Proc urements
B. Close Proc urement
C. Plan Procurement
D. Conduct Procurement
Negotiation occurs during Conduct Procurements, this is the process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a
seller, and awarding a contrac t.

EV=100, CPI=1, SV=80. How much is Earned Value?
A. 100
B. 1
C. 1.5
D. 0
The answer is ac tually in the question. If EV=100, then how much is Earned Value? 100.

Which of the following is a tool and technique of the Close Procurements proc ess?
A. Procurement audits
B. Proc urement management plan
C. Proc urement statement of work
D. Proc urement documentation
Proc urement audits, negotiated settlements and record management system are the three tools and
techniques of the Close Procurements proc ess. Procurement statement of work is an output of the Plan
Proc urement proc ess. Proc urement management plan and procurement documentation are inputs to the Close
Proc urements proc ess, not tools and tec hniques.

You are the project manager of a huge multinational project, which will span four continents around the world.
You will need to consider all of the following characteristics of the international and political environment except
for which one?
A. International, national, regional, and loc al laws
B. Customs
C. Customers
D. Holidays
Customers are not part of the international and political environment. A, B, and D are part of this environment.

Senior management wants to know the status of your project. Which of the following do you show them?
A. Milestone chart
B. Bar charts
C. Network diagram
D. Work breakdown structure
The milestone chart is best used for executive reporting. It shows the target dates and status of the high
level milestones.

You are working with a very voc al stakeholder who has a high influence on the project but low power. How should
communication be best handled in this situation?
A. Keep satisfied and use informal written communication methods
B. Keep informed and use informal written communication methods
C. Keep satisfied and use informal verbal communication methods
D. Keep informed and use informal verbal communication methods
Initiating - Communications Management
Keep informed and use informal written c ommunication methods. Since the stakeholder is very vocal it is best
to use a written communication method such as email so that all communication c an be documented in case of
a dispute. Ac cording to the PMBOK, email is considered informal written.

The team is working on c reating a project team directory. Which proc ess is the team most likely engaged into?
A. Resource planning
B. Organizational planning
C. Staff acquisition
D. Information distribution
A) Resource planning c oncludes type and quantity of resources at the lowest level of WBS. Choice A is wrong
B) Choice B is incorrect. Organizational planning involves setting up the project organization with roles and
responsibilities defined
C) A projec t team directory lists all the project team members and other stakeholders. This means that the
project has either completed or nearing c ompletion of staff ac quisition
D) Information distribution is the application of communication management plan to make needed information
available to various stakeholders of the projec t. Thus choice D is incorrect

Which of the following is not an input to the Perform Quality Assurance proc ess?
A. Project management plan
B. Quality metrics
C. Deliverables
D. Quality control measurements
Deliverables are not an input to the Perform Quality Assurance proc ess, they are an input to the Perform
Quality Control proc ess. The inputs to the Perform Quality Assurance proc ess are project management plan,
quality metrics, work performance information, and quality control measurements.

Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs theory states that:
A. The strongest motivation for work is to provide for physiological needs.
B. Hygiene fac tors are those that provide physical safety and emotional security.
C. Psychological needs for growth and fulfillment can be met only when lower-level physical or
security needs have been fulfilled.
D. The greater the financial reward, the move motivated the workers will be.
Maslows hierarchy of needs states that only when the lower level needs are met can you move to the next
level.

The 50/50 rule is a method of:
A. crashing
B. PERT
C. performance reporting
D. Estimate cost
The 50/50 rule is a method of Performance reporting

You are holding a weekly status meeting with stakeholders and are going through the to do list and a list of
ac tions items from the previous meeting. Some of the stakeholders are completely unaware about these ac tions
items and start raising c oncern about how they suddenly appeared. Upon further questioning you realize that
these stakeholders were absent during the last meeting due to sc heduling conflicts. Which of these statements
would best desc ribe what should have been done to prevent this misunderstanding?
A. You should have updated the Work Breakdown Structure with the follow up tasks from the last meeting
B. You should have sent out an agenda prior to the meeting to clearly point out what the ac tion items were
from the previous meeting
C. You should have sent out meeting minutes after the last meeting to all stakeholders that were
invited (whether or not they attended)
D. You should have briefed the stakeholders that did not attend the last meeting just prior to the start of this
meeting
As part of effective communication the project manager should always send out meeting minutes after a
meeting to prevent eventualities such as this. That way anyone not in attendance will have an understanding
of what was disc ussed so there are no surprises.

After a status meeting, one of your team members, Tony, pulls you aside and tells you that he was insulted by a
rac ist comment from another team member. You meet with the team member who made the comment, Meredith,
but she says that the other team member’s performance has been very poor. She has never made a comment like
this before at the company. You review the records, and see that she is correct Tony has consistently delivered
lower quality work than any other team member. What is the BEST way to handle this situation?
A. At the next team meeting, reprimand T ony for his poor performance and Meredith for the rac ist comment
B. Get Tony additional help for his poor performance
C. Reprimand Meredith in private for her racist comments, and follow the company policies for
reporting racism among employees
D. Meredith has never had this problem before, so she should be given another chance
Project managers must have a “zero tolerance” policy on racist remarks, or any other cultural insensitivity. If
there is an incident involving rac ism, sexism or any other kind of disc rimination, your top priority is to correct
that. Every company has a policy that guides how you handle this kind of situation, so a question involving
rac ism will usually involve the company’s policy or Human Resource department.

You are a project manager for a large consulting firm. Your superior has just asked for your input on a dec ision
about which project you c ompany should pursue. Project A has an internal rate of return (IRR) of 12 percent.
Project B has a predicted benefit cost ratio (BCR) of 1.3 Project C has an opportunity cost of U.S $75,000.
Project D has a payback period of six months. If you had to choose based on this data, which project would you
select?
A. Project A
B. Project B
C. Project C
D. Project D
This is a question about project selection and c ould easily be included in other chapters. In order to interpret
the information, you need to know what each item is. The benefit cost ratio for choice B is unfavorable. There
is not enough information provided to support rec ommending or not recommending choices C or D. This leaves
only choice A with a 12 percent return, as providing a clear benefit.

You have just passed the PMP exam. Your friend is still preparing for the exams and plans on taking the exam next
month. You purchased a copy of this book to study from, while your friend purchased a copy of another author’s
book. Since you’re finished studying, you want to loan your book with the CD to your friend so that he can use it
for his preparation. Which of the following statements is true? Choose the best answer.
A. Since you are a PMP, you’re required to adhere to the PMP Code of Professional Conduct, so sharing the
book and CD is not ac ceptable.
B. Since you are a PMP, you should not share the book and CD with your friend, because it may pose a
conflict of interest for your friend.
C. The book and CD are considered intellectual property and should not be copied. However, loaning
your copy to your friend to use, as long as she doesn’t copy it, is acceptable.
D. Since you are a PMP, you’re required to adhere to the PMP Code of Professional Conduct and should not
share the book and CD with your friend because of the appearance of impropriety.
Loaning the book and CD to your friend is an acceptable solution as long as your friend does not make copies
of the CD or printed text.

You are a project manager for Peeping-Tom Security Company. Your company won a bid to install surveillance
cameras in various areas in the city. You sub-contrac ted some of the electrical work to another company.
Through an independent review, you uncover that the proc ess the subcontrac tor uses to report its progress is
highly inefficient. Which of the following is true?
A. You are in the Close Proc urements process and have performed a proc urement audit.
B. You are in the Verify Scope process and have performed a quality audit.
C. You are in the Perform Quality Assurance process and have performed a quality audit.
D. You are in the Perform Quality Assurance process and have performed proc ess analysis.
You have performed a quality audit, which is a structured, independent review of the organizational proc esses
or project proc esses, policies, proc edures, or activities. Process analysis examines the root causes and follows
steps in the proc ess improvement plan. The only tool and or tec hnique of the Verify Scope proc ess is
inspec tion. Proc urement audits are concerned with reviewing the procurement proc ess primarily to identify
lessons learned.

You have created a communications management plan to identify, analyze and doc ument the needs and
expec tations of stakeholders. This communications management plan is:
A. An output from the information distribution phase
B. A subsidiary of the organizational proc ess assets
C. A subsidiary of the project management plan
D. A subsidiary of the configuration management plan
A) Choice A is incorrect as communication management plan will be devised by end of communication planning
proc ess
B) Choice B is incorrect. Communication management plan cannot be part of OPA, only the reports and the
communication made will be part of OPA
C) The needs and expec tations (of stakeholders) are identified, analyzed and doc umented in the
communications management plan, which is a subsidiary of the projec t management plan
D) Choice D is incorrect bec ause a Configuration management plan is not part of project life cycle

When negotiating with functional managers for resources, you should consider personal charac teristics,
competency levels, and availability of the potential team members. Which of the following proc esses describes
negotiations ac curately?
A. A tool and technique of Acquire project Team
B. A tool and technique of Develop Human Resource Plan
C. A tool and technique of Develop Project Team
D. A tool and technique of Management Project Team
Negotiations are a tool and technique of the Acquire Project Team proc ess.

You are a project manager and your team is executing the work pac kages to produce a medical rec ords archive
and retrieval system. Two of the project's customers have just asked for changes that each says should be the
number one priority. What would be the BEST thing to do?
A. Have the project team meet with the customers to decide which would easiest and prioritize that one first.
B. Assign someone from the team to prioritize that one first.
C. Prioritize the changes without involving the team.
D. Deny both changes since you are in project execution.
Prioritizing the changes is the job of the project manager. Choice A is wrong because you do not want to
distrac t the team at this point - they should be doing the work. Choice B is wrong because it is the projec t
manager's responsibility to help prioritize competing demands. Choice D is incorrect, bec ause changes cannot
automatically be denied simply bec ause you are in exec ution.

Your project will require use of a high pressure punch press for five months. You c an rent the press for $10,000
payable at the end of eac h month. You may also choose to make a lump sum payment on the day the press is
delivered. Using a disc ount rate of 1% per month, the maximum lump sum payment you should choose to make is:
A. $50,000
B. $51,500
C. $48,500
D. $45,250
As you are paying at the month end the calculation will go like this 10,000/1.01 + 10,000/1.01^2 +
10,000/1.01^3 + 10,000/1.01^4 + 10,000/1.01^5, which equals $48,534. Thus choice C is the correct
answer.

Which of the following is not an input to Estimate Costs?
A. Scope Baseline
B. Human resource plan
C. Earn value analysis
D. Risk Register
The inputs to the Estimate Costs proc ess are sc ope baseline, project sc hedule, human resource plan, risk
register, enterprises environmental fac tors, and organizational proc ess assets. Earned value analysis is used in
the Control Cost proc ess.

A feasibility study is an example of?
A. A phase deliverable
B. A requirement for all project plans
C. A subsidiary project plan
D. A report to determine if a project is successful
A feasibility study is an example of a phase deliverable. Often feasibility studies are done as an inital phase to
ensure the project has a good chance of success in later phases.

What are the inputs to the Develop Project Charter proc ess?
A. Contrac t, project SOW, and business case
B. Project SOW, enterprise environmental fac tors, and organizational process assets
C. Project SOW, business case, and organizational process assets
D. Contract, project SOW, business case, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational
process assets
Develop Project Charter has five inputs, and they are project SOW, business case, contract, enterprise
environmental fac tors, and organizational proc ess assets.

In which proc ess do you c reate the Risk Breakdown Structure?
A. Identify Risk
B. Plan Risk Response
C. Perform Qualitative Analysis
D. Plan Risk Management
A) Choice A is incorrect. Identify Risk is determining which risks might affect the project and doc umenting their
charac teristics. RBS is not created at this stage.
B) Choice D is incorrect as Plan risk response develops proc edures and techniques to enhance opportunities
and reduce threats to project are objectives. This plan is prepared through RBS and RBS is not created at this
stage.
C) Choice C is incorrect. Performing a qualitative analysis of risks and c onditions to prioritize their effects on
project objectives by assessing and c ombining their probability of occurrence and impac t
D) The RBS is part of the Risk Management Plan. The RBS helps you to see how risks fit into categories so you
can organize your risk analysis and response planning.

When is Perform Quality Control proc ess performed?
A. At the beginning of the project exec ution
B. At the completion of all the projec t deliverables
C. Throughout the project
D. When advised by the quality control department
Quality control is usually performed throughout the project.

The Projec t Manager is involved in ac quiring the projec t team on a highway expansion projec t. The Projec t
Manager is presently discussing salary, working hours, travel, and benefits. What is the key tool the Project
Manager is utilizing?
A. Staffing management plan
B. Organizational chart
C. Project team directory
D. Negotiations
Negotiation is key in ac quiring staff for a project. It can include salary, benefits, and job responsibilities. A
staffing management plan defines the staffing rules for the project, specifically when and how human resource
requirements will be met. The projec t team directory shows who is on the team. The organizational chart
shows reporting structures on the project.

What is your SPI if EV = 8 and PV = 6?
A. 1.33
B. .66
C. 1.0
D. .75
EV = 8 and PV = 6, and the formula reads SPI= EV/PV = 8/6, which is 1.33.

You are a project manager at a projectized organization and your projec t is in the middle of the configuration
phase of a software implementation for a client. One of your team leads has set up an informal internal meeting
with you to demonstrate the functionality and progress to date. One of the client stakeholders found out about
this meeting and insisted on attending despite your suggestion to create a more formal demonstration with the
stakeholder at a future date. During the meeting as your team lead was demonstrating the functionality to you,
the stakeholder started becoming increasingly voc al and dissatisfied with the product and the way the meeting
was progressing. He then immediately disbanded the meeting. In order to avoid this situation, you as the project
manager should have:
A. Ignored the stakeholder's initial request to attend the meeting and resc heduled at a time that was
inconvenient to him.
B. Established ground rules for this meeting and set clear expectations for the purpose of this
meeting
C. Set an agenda for the meeting and stuck to the agenda
D. Invited other team members so they could offer more detailed explanations of issues to the stake
stakeholder
By establishing c lear ground rules and setting expec tations for the meeting this could have avoided any
confusion by the stakeholder. By clearly communicating that the product is still in the development stage, that
this is just an internal demonstration and that the stakeholder's attendance was purely in an observation
capac ity this might not have caused the conflict with the stakeholder.

Which of the following is true of management by objectives (MBO)?
A. The supervisor establishes performance objectives.
B. The supervisor sets the general objectives and the subordinate reviews and agrees to them.
C. Objectives do not need to be quantifiable.
D. The supervisor and the employee jointly establish performance objectives.
management by objectives (MBO) are a necessity in every area where performance and results directly affect
the survival and growth of a business. MBO emphasizes the importance of participative goal-setting, self-
control and self-evaluation.

Which of the following is an ac curate statement?
A. Qualitative risk analysis occurs prior to quantitative risk analysis
B. Quantitative risk analysis occurs prior to qualitative risk analysis
C. Qualitative risk analysis is performed on risks that have been prioritized during quantitative risk analysis
D. Both B and C
A) Qualitative risk analysis oc curs prior to quantitative risk analysis and is a method for prioritizing identified
risks for quantitative risk analysis
B) Choice B is incorrect. Quantitative risk analysis oc curs after qualitative risk analysis
C) Choice C is incorrect. Performing a qualitative analysis of risks and c onditions to prioritize after that
quantitative risk analysis is performed
D) Choice D is incorrect. Quantitative risk analysis will be done first then Quantitative risk analysis to find
Impact in numbers

A project has three work packages. The project has a budget of $567. Ac tual cost of $326. The work pac kages
are 69%, 32% 21% completed respectively. Find out Earned value for the project?
A. $153
B. $148
C. Can not be calculated
D. $132
The EV for the project can only be calculated by multiplying the Work package cost by percentage of
completion of eac h work package. Find Average percent complete for the work package is incorrect method.

Your project had a difficult time receiving formal approval to the project management plan because these were so
many stakeholders whose requirements were not approved for inclusion in the project. These stakeholders argued
and held up the project while they held meeting after meeting about their requirements. The project was finally
approved and work has begun seven month ago. All of the following would be good preventive actions to
implement EXCEPT?
A. Keep a file on the requirements that was not included in the project.
B. Make sure the change control proc ess is not used as a vehicles to add back the requirements in to the
project
C. Maintain an issue log
D. Hold meetings with the stakeholders to go over work that will not be added to the project
Why would choice D be the ac tion not to take? Isn’t it similar to choice A? Yes & no. This issue should be
over, but since there were so many meetings and arguments about the requirements being removed, it is
unlikely that the issue will be dropped by the stakeholders. However, since it has not come up again, and the
project was started seven months ago, spending time in a meeting is excessive. The other choices are easier
and have less impact on the project and are therefore that could be done.

You are working on a project that was proc eeding well untill now. A major defect occurs and requires a correc tive
ac tion. The corrective ac tion is canceled, and you c ontinue to produce the product with the defect. As the
project manager, you know that a change has oc curred to the project sc ope. Which of the following statements
is true?
A. Project sc ope changes do not require change control board approval.
B. Performance measurement baselines may be affected by scope changes.
C. Project sc ope change uses sampling to determine if change has occurred.
D. Project sc ope change uses workarounds to correc t unexpected problems with sc ope change.
A project sc ope change affects the performance measurement baselines, which may include sc hedule
baselines and c ost baselines.

As a projec t manager responsible for developing course curriculums, you are in the middle of planning courses for a
loc al college. You are alloc ating various resource types such as teac hing personnel, rooms and video conferencing
equipment. Which of the following are you most likely to use to show this information?
A. Organizational chart
B. Resource breakdown structure
C. WBS
D. Responsibility assignment matrix
The Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS) is a hierarchical structure of the identified resources by resource
category and resource type. The RBS will include types of resources including people, facilities, equipment,
and materials. It can also show skill, grade, or expertise levels for the types of resources.

All of the following are inputs to the Determine Budget proc ess EXCEPT?
A. Activity cost estimates
B. Scope baseline
C. Resource calendar
D. Reserve analysis
The inputs to the Determine Budget proc ess are ac tivity cost estimates, basis of estimates, sc ope baseline,
project schedule, resource calendars, contrac ts, and organizational proc ess assets. Reserve analysis is a tool
and technique of this proc ess.

Customers impose the most formal EVM data requirements on
A. Target fee contrac ts
B. Cost reimbursable contract
C. Fixed price/unit price contrac ts
D. Fixed price/lump sum contrac ts
In cost reimbursable contrac ts the customer has to pay for any allowable costs. Therefore the EVM data
requirements are usually very formal.

You are studying for your PMP certification with a friend and your friend says he has a purchased an ac tual copy
of the PMP Exam on an internet auction. You do not have proof that these are actual exam questions. What is
your responsibility as described by this document?
A. Continue to study with him bec ause it has not been proven that these are actual exam questions
B. Inform your friend that you cannot study with him because these could be exam questions, which
would be a possible PMI ethics violation
C. Inform PMI of this possible violation
D. Continue to study with him
You should not study with him as this is a possible ethics violation. Continuing to study with him could put you
in violation if the questions are in fac t real. You do not have proof that these are ac tual exam questions, so
you don't need to inform the PMI of this possible violation. You should only inform the PMI of a viloation if you
know it is an ac tual violation.

You have been working on a 1-year project for nine months. The project is ahead of sc hedule when one of the
functional managers tells you the resources committed to the project are no longer available. After chec king
further, you discover the company has another project that just started and is using the resources committed to
your projec t. You believe the new project is not critical, but the project manager is the daughter of a board
member. What is the BEST course of ac tion in this situation?
A. Determine when resources will bec ome available
B. Ask upper management to formally prioritize the projects
C. Use the reserve to hire contrac tors to complete the work
D. Negotiate a new schedule with the other project manager
Negotiate a new schedule with the other projec t manager. According to the PBMOK guide you should always
try to resolve conflicts internally and should use negotiating skills to try to come to a mutually beneficial
agreement.

A Seller’s Invoice arrived four months after his product was delivered and put to use on the project. This results in
A. An unavoidable cost Variance
B. Project cash flow that changes the time phased budget
C. Little concern since estimated actuals can be used until the invoice is paid
D. An unavoidable sc hedule variance
Estimated ac tuals can be used until the invoice, payment, and accounting catches up and the true costs are
reported to the projec t.

Which of the following is typically not used to help determine the Communications Requirements for a project?
A. Logistics of how many persons will be involved with the project and at which locations
B. Internal and external information needs
C. Organizational charts
D. WBS
Choice D, the WBS, is not used to determine the Communications Requirements for a project. The rest of the
answer choices include things that are used. Other things that are used to determine the Communications
Requirements for a project include: 1) project organization and stakeholder responsibility relationships; 2)
disc iplines, departments, and spec ialties involved in the project; 3) stakeholder information from the
stakeholder register and the stakeholder management strategy.

Which of the following knowledge areas does "Acquire project team" belong to?
A. Project Management Integration
B. Project Proc urement Management
C. Project Human Resources management
D. Project Communication Management
A) Choice A is incorrect bec ause the execution processes in the Project Management Integration knowledge
area are direct and manage project exec ution
B) The execution processes in the Project Proc urement Management knowledge area are "request seller
responses" and "selec t seller". Choice B is wrong
C) The execution processes in the Project Human Resources knowledge area are "acquire project team" and
"develop project team"
D) The execution process in the Project Communications Management knowledge area is "information
distribution" thus choice D is incorrect

Performance reviews are held to:
A. Correc t the project manager’s mistakes.
B. Provide for answers for upper levels of management
C. Assess project status or progress
D. Appraise the project costs and c ost trends of the project
Performance reviews are held to assess project status or progress.

Inputs to the Plan Risk Management process include
A. Project Scope statement, cost management plan, sc hedule management plan, communication management
plan, enterprises environmental fac tors, risk register
B. Project plan, organizational risk management policies, defined roles and responsibilities, stakeholder risk
tolerance, templates for the organization's risk management plan, and the work breakdown structure
C. Project Scope statement, cost management plan, schedule management plan, communication
management plan, enterprises environmental factors, organizational process assets
D. Project Scope statement, cost management plan, sc hedule management plan, communication management
plan, enterprises environmental fac tors, proc urement documents
The input of the Plan Risk Management process are projec t sc ope statement, cost management plan, sc hedule
management plan, communication management plan, enterprises environmental fac tors, and organizational
proc ess assets

You are concerned about the performance of an individual on your team. You have noticed a rec ent increase in
defects from ac tivities this team member is responsible for. This is the first time that you have had any problems
with this particular team member. Which one of the following methods should you c hoose to give your feedbac k?
A. Informal verbal
B. Formal verbal
C. Informal written
D. Formal written
For the first notice, the best communication type to use is informal verbal. In this case you would meet with
the team member, fac e to fac e if possible, to disc uss the problem and try to find a solution. If the team
member continues to perform poorly, the second notice should be formal written.

Proc urement documentation is an input to the Proc urement Closure process. Procurement documentation might
include all of the following except for which one?
A. The buyer’s invitation for bid (IFB)
B. Invitation for negotiations
C. Financial documents
D. Procurement audit documents
Proc urement audits are a tool and tec hnique of the Close Procurements process and are not an input.
Proc urement documentation might include all of the other options shown and include the buyer’s invitation for
bid (IFB), invitation for negotiations, request for information (RFI), request for quotation (RFQ), request for
proposal (RFP), and seller’s responses.
During a schedule update you find that the projec t would require 45, 25, and 34 resources respec tively during the
next three months. The functional manager confirms that 45 additional resources cannot be made available during
the first month without impacting other ongoing projects, and your project is a lower priority. Which of the
following should you adopt?
A. Reverse resource alloc ation
B. Crashing
C. Fast tracking
D. Resource leveling
Monitoring & Controlling - Time Management
You should use resource leveling, which is the technique used to smooth out resource usage on a project. In
this case you might want to use an even 35 resources for all 3 months. With resource leveling you might have
to let the sc hedule slip as a trade-off. Crashing and fast tracking are sc hedule compression techniques.
Reverse resource alloc ation is not a real term.

CAMPUS Assesment Exam#30 - Answers

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