CONTENTS

Subject
Page No.

Alternating Current 01
Transformer 09
D.C Machine 20
3-phase induction motor 31
Single Phase motors 37
Alternators 44
Parallel Operations 47
Synchronous Motor 50
Electric Power Generation 23
Steam Power Station Hydro-Electric. 59
Power Transmission 62
Power Systems Analysis 72
Power System Protection 79
Illumination 92
High Voltage 97
Electronics 111(a)
Cathode Ray tube 118
Digital Elements and Circuits 120
Computers in Power System. 124
Multiple Choice Questions 130
 PREFACE

Tests/Interviews/Viva Voce examinations are very common in our

Society. Only a very few books are available on the subject and those available
have their own taste. The present book has also its taste and has been written
with a hope to be liked by some people.

There are two modes of examination. One, the written and the other
oral. Written examinations are usually the tests of one’s memory. To test the
Depth of knowledge and understanding oral and viva-voce are the best way.
That is why in engineering institution equal weight is given to written and oral
Examination.

Keeping this in view, I have prepared a manual which covers almost all
the topics of Electrical Engineering including computer, Emphasis have been
Made to fulfill the needs of undergraduate students and the engineers who are in
search of jobs.

If red after studying the subject, will help to have a very clear picture of
the subject.

A very essay language is used so that an average students is able to

understand. I hope it will be useful for many peoples. At the end a few
questions papers are also added.

(Prof. Dr.Muhammad Amin)

Chairman,
Electrical Engg. Department,
Univ. of Engg. & Tech. Taxila.
 ACKNOWLEDGMENT

I am very much thankful to Almighty Allah, the Creator, who has given us the power to
understand, wisdom and ability to read and write.

I am also thankful to all those, who has helped me in the regard.

I am also thankful to Mr. Aamir Hanif and Syed Waqas Hussain Shah
to help me in the preparation of manual.

Thanks also for Mr. Muhammad Ali for designing the title page.

AUTHOR.

1
 ALTERNATING CURRENT

Q: What is an alternating current?

A: The current whose magnitude undergoes a definite cycle of change during
A definite3 interval of time is known as alternating current.
Q: What is cycle?
A: It is the complete change in the value and direction of an alternating
Quantity.
Q: What is waveform?
A: It is the plot of instantaneous values of the varying quantity with time.
Q: How many electrical degrees are in a cycle?
A: 3600
Q: What are electrical degrees?
A: If a conductor moves in a two pole machine through 360 0 mech. It is
Supposed to generate 3600 electrical.
Q: What is the relation between electrical degrees and mechanical degrees?
A: θe = P/2 θm
Where θe is electrical angle and Am is mechanical angle. P is number of
Poles.
Q: Define frequency?
A: The no. of cycles per second is called frequency.

Q: What is Hz?
A: It is unit of frequency i.e. the cycles/second is called Hz.

Q: What is time period?

A: It is the time taken to complete one cycle.

Q: How frequency and time period are related?

A: T = 1/f
Where T is the time period and f is frequency.

2
Q: What is wave length?
A: It is linear distance traveled by a wave during one cycle.
Q: What is velocity of propagation?
A: It is the velocity with which a wave travels. In an electric circuit it is
Given by:
V = 1/√LC
Where V is the velocity of propagation
L is the inductance of the path through which wave is traveling
C is capacitance of the path
Q: Describe relation between wave length, frequency and velocity of
Propagation?
A: f =λ v
Where λ is wave length.
Q: What is the supply frequency in Pakistan?
A: It is 50 Hz.

Q: Why frequency is limited to 50/60 Hz?

A: If frequency is low the problem of flickering occurs and if frequency is high
the problem of iron losses occurs, so a compromise has to be made.
Q: What is peak value?
A: It is the maximum value which an alternating quantity attains. It is also
called the amplitude of the quantity.
Q: What is an average value?
A: It is the average of all instantaneous values during a positive or negative Half
cycle.
Q: What is an r.m.s. value?
A: It is the effective value of an alternating quantity which if applied to a
Given circuit for a given time will expend came energy as when d. c
Supplied to the same circuit for same time expend.
Q: How rms value is related with peak value?
A: 1rms = 0.7071 I max

3
Q: How rms value is related to average value?
A: I ave = 0.637 I max
Q: What is an instantaneous value?
A: It is the value of alternating quantity at any time during a cycle.

Q: How instantaneous value is related to maximum value?

A: i = Imax. Sin wt, Where i is instantaneous value.

Q: What is form factor?

A: It is ratio of rms value to average value of an alternating quantity.

Q: What is phase difference?

A: It is the angular displacement between two alternating quantities.

Q: How we say that two alternating quantities are in phase?

A: If they attain max, and min. values at a time.

Q: What is resistance?
A: It is opposition to the flow of D.C.

Q: What is impedance?
A: It is the total opposition to the flow of electrical alternating current.

Q: What are the components of an impedance?

A: Resistance, inductive reactance and capacitive reactance.

Q: What is inductance?
A: It is the property of an a.c circuit due to which an opposing emf is produced in
the same circuit. This opposing emf opposes the flow of current in that circuit.

Q: What is inductive reactance?

A: It is the opposition to the flow of a.c due to the inductance of circuit.
It is denoted by XL and is given by XL =2πfL Where f is frequency and L is
inductance.

Q: How voltage, current and resistance in a d.c circuit are related?

A: V=IR Where is V is voltage, R is resistance and I is the current.
 4

Q: How voltage, current and impedance are related on an a.c circuit?

A: V = IZ, Where is Z is the impedance.

Q: Does a d.c circuit posses inductance?

A: No.

Q: What is susceptance?
A: It is reciprocal of reactance and is denoted by ‘b’.

Q: What is capacitive reactance?

A: It is the opposition to the flow of current due to capacitance of a circuit.

Q: What is conductance?
A: It is reciprocal of resistance and is denoted by ‘G’.

Q: What is an admittance?
A: It is reciprocal of impedance and is denoted by ‘Y’

Q: What are the components of admittance?

A: Conductance and Susceptance.

Q: How capacitive reactance is calculated?

A: Xc = 1/2πfc

Where c is capacitance.

Q: What is the amount of power in D.C circuit?

A: P = VI Where P is the power.

Q: What is the amount of power in a a.c circuit?

A: P =VI cosФ in a single phase network Where Ф is the angular displacement
between voltage and current.

Q: What is the power factor?

A: CosФ is called power factor. It is the cosine of phase difference between voltage
and current in same circuit.

Q: What is the power factor of and RL circuit?

A: P.f = R/Z
 5

Q: What is apparent power?

A: it is product of voltage and current. Its units are VA, KVA.

Q: What are components of apparent power?

A: It has two components; active power and reactive power.
It is S = P+jQ
Where S is apparent power, P is active and Q is reactive power.

Q: What is active power?

A: It is useful power which does a useful work i.e. it produces heat, motive power
and light.

Q: What is reactive power?

A: It is a component of apparent power which is stored in the circuit in the form of
magnetic energy or electrostatic energy. It is utilized to magnetize the cores of
machine etc.

Q: Name the parameter of an electric circuit which absorbs reactive power?

A: Inductance.

Q: Name the parameter of an electric circuit which generates reactive power?

A: Capacitance.

Q: Describe an important property of an inductance?

A: It does not allow sudden change of current through it.

Q: Describe an important property of a capacitance?

A: It does not allow the sudden change of voltage across it.

Q: What is active power in three phase circuit?

A: P = √3 VI CosФ.

Q: What is the impedance in RL circuit?

A: Z = √R2 + (WL) 2

Q: What is the impedance in RLC series cerise circuit?

A: Z=√ (R2 + (WL-1/WC) 2).
 6

Q: How active power is measured?

A: With the help of a wattmeter.

Q: Hoe active power is measured in three phase circuit?

A: Using one single wattmeter or by two wattmeter method or using a three
Phase wattmeter.

Q: What are the units of active power?

A: Watt, Kilo watt, Megawatt.

Q: What are the units of reactive power?

A: VAR, KVAR, MVAR.

Q: What are advantages of three phase supply?

A:
1) Two voltages are available
I. Voltage between lines and
II. Voltages between line and neutral.
2) More power can be transmitted using less conducting material.
3) Low line losses occur.
4) Three phase machines are self started.

Q: How windings of a three phase machine are connected?

A: Star or delta.

Q: What is star connection?

A: Three windings have six terminals. Three terminals are connected at a Common
point called star point and other three terminals are available to Supply loads
etc.

Q: What is delta connection?

A: One terminal of winding is connected to other to from closed loop.

Q: Is neutral available in delta connection?

A: No.

Q: How line voltage and phase voltage are related in star connection?
A: Vp = VL/√3
 7

Q: How line voltage and phase voltage are related in delta connection?
A: Vp = VL
Q: How line current and phase current are related in star connection?
A: IL = I p

Q: How line current and phase current are related in delta connection?
A: Ip = IL/ √3

Q: What is lagging power factor?

A: A P.f is said to be lagging if current lags behind the voltage.

Q: What is leading power factor?

A: A power factor is said to be leading if current leads the voltage.

Q: What is the P.f of inductive circuit?

A: It is circuit in which inductance dominates over resistance and capacitance.

Q: What is the P.f of inductive circuit?

A: Lagging P.f.

Q: What is P.f of a capacitive circuit?

A: It is leading.

Q: What is the power factor of pure resistive network?

A: Unity.

Q: Name the parameter of circuit which dissipates electrical energy?

A: Resistance.

Q: Name the parameter of circuit which stores energy in the from of

Magnetic field?
A: Inductance

Q: Name the parameter of circuit which stores energy in the from of electric
Field?

A: Capacitance.

Q: Does the resistance depend upon frequency?

A: Yes, because of skin effect.

8
Q: What is the relation between frequency and inductive/ capacitive
Reactance?
A: Inductive reactance is directly proportional to frequency while capacitive
Reactance is inversely proportional to frequency.

Q: What is a resonance/tuning circuit?

A: These are RLC circuits in which by varying frequency, XL can be made
Equal to Xc.

Q: If a series resonance occur what would be the impedance at resonance?

A: It will be minimum.

Q: If a parallel resonance occur what would be the impedance?

A: Maximum.

Q: What are the units of inductance?

A: Henry, Milli henry.

Q: What are units of capacitance?

A: Farads, micro farads and pico farads.

Q: How the P.f of an inductive circuit be increased?

A:
I. By increasing resistance
II. By decreasing reactance.

Q: What is three phase power in terms of phase quantities?

A: P = 3 Vp Ip CosФ, where Vp and Ip are phase voltage and phase current.

9
 TRANSFORMER

Q: What is transformer?
A: Transformer is a device which transforms electrical energy from one
Circuit to another through a magnetic link with a rise / fail in current/
Voltage.

Q: Does a transformer change the frequency of incoming supply?

A: No.

Q: How a transformer is very useful in an a.c system?

A: It has property to step up the voltage. With high transmission voltage, the
Efficiency, of transmission becomes high and long distance transmission
electrical energy becomes possible. Also it has many other applications.

Q: What is the principle of operation of a transformer?

A: Whenever there is relative motion between conductor and magnetic field,
a voltage is induced in the conductor. Here conductor is stationary and
magnetic field alternates.

Q: How the different circuits in a transformer are designated?

A: The circuit to which supply is given is called primary circuit, the circuit which
load is connected is called secondary circuit and between these two is the
magnetic circuit.

Q: What happens when a transformer is operated at no load?

A: Three things occur.

It draws a small amount of current called the no load current.

Core is magnetized.
The core is slightly heated due to some losses in the core and windings.

Q: Name the losses occurring at no load?

A: These are called no-load losses or iron losses which are eddy current and
hysteretic losses.

10
Q: Name the two components of no-load current?
A: These are:
Magnetizing component.
Iron loss component.

Q: What are the functions of these components?

A: Magnetizing component is responsible for flow of magnetic flux through the
core and iron loss component is responsible for iron losses.

Q: What is the magnitude of voltage induced in the secondary?

A: Es = 4.44 f Фm N2
Where Es is the secondary e.m.f
f is frequency
Фm is flux (maximum value)
N2 is no. of secondary turns

Q: Show that voltage per turn is constant?

A: E/N = 4.44 f Фm
Here f and Фm are constant hence E/N is constant.

Q: State the universal transformer equation?

A: E1 / E2 = N1 /N2 = I2 /I1

Q: Does the flux in the core changes due to change in the load?
A: Flux at all loads remains constant except a very small change from no- load
to full-load.

Q: Show that magneto motive force on both sides remains same?

A: N2 /N1 = I1/ I2
i.e N1 I1 = N2 I2
Ampere turns of primary = Ampere turns of secondary
So mmf is same.

Q: What is a core?
A: It is made of silicon steel laminations and provides an easy path to the flow
of flux, windings are also wound on it.

11
Q: What are the types of core?
A: Usually these are core type and shell type. Core type is usually used in
distribution and power transformers while shell type is used in small
transformers.

Q: Why core is laminated?

A: To reduce eddy currents.

Q: Name the material of core?

A: Hot rolled/cold rolled/grain-oriented steel.

Q: What is special property of grain-oriented steel?

A: It offers very low reactance to the flow of magnetic flux in the direction of
grain.

Q: What are mitered cores?

A: IN mitered cores corners are separately made so the flux is in the direction of
grains ate the corners also.

Q: Name the different parts of a core?

A: Limbs and Yokes.

Q: What are the functions of limb and yoke?

A: Limb carries the windings and provide a path for flux and yokes complete the
magnetic circuit.

Q: What is the relation between limb and yoke cross sectional areas?
A: If grain oriented steel is used limb area is equal to yoke area,
otherwise yoke area is grater depending upon the ‘KVA’ of transformer.

Q: How windings are placed on limb?

A: First the low voltage windings is placed and then high voltage windings to
avoid the excessive use of insulation.

Q: What is core stepping?

A: It is an effort to make the core circular.

Q: What are advantages of core stepping?

A: Less iron and copper is require, thereby reducing the cost and increase the
efficiency.

12
Q: How cores are cooled?
A: Axial and radial ducts are made.

Q: Name the type of windings?

A:
Cylindrical
Spiral
Disc
Continuous
Helical.

Q: Name the material of windings?

A: Copper/Aluminum.

Q: Describe the type of conductor?

A: Circular and rectangular. For low current rating circular conductor is used for
high current rectangular conductor is used. Rectangular conductor is also called
strip. Standard gauges of these conductors are available in the market.

Q: Why standardizing is made?

A: Because it is difficult to make conductor of each size.

Q: How will you compare copper and aluminum as conductor?

A: Aluminum is light in weight, low in cost, high in resistively, copper is
heavy in weight, high in cost, low in receptivity.

Q: If a single conductor is not sufficient then what we do?

A: Many conductors may be used in parallel.

Q: What are the losses occurring in a transformer?

A: No-load losses and copper losses.

Q: How no load losses are measured?

A: By performing no load test.

Q: Why a small percentage of voltage is applied while performing short

Circuit?
A: To avoid excessive current.

13
Q: How efficiency is measured?
A: By performing no-load test and short circuit tests.

Q: What is the condition for maximum efficiency?

A: When copper losses are equal to iron loss.

Q: At what load usually maximum efficiency occurs?

A: Usually at 3/4th of the load.
Q: Upon what factors the efficiency of a transformer depends?
A:
Load
Power factor.

Q: Why efficiency of a transformer is so high?

A: Because there is no rotating part.

Q: Why redial/axial ducts are made in windings?

A: For cooling purpose.

Q: How the transformers are classified?

A: These are classified:
According to ratings like distribution and power transformer.
According to core construction i.e. core type transformers and shell type transformer.
According to use like instrument transformer i.e. potential transformer and current
transformer.
According to connection like star-star, delta/delta connected.
According to number of winding like auto transformer and 3-winding transformer.

Q: What is the use of instrument transformer?

A: These are used to measure high voltages and current, also are used in
system protection for relay operation.

Q: What is an auto-transformer?
A: It consists of one winding only, part of which is used as primary and part is used
as secondary. Its primary and secondary are coupled electrically as well as
magnetically.

14
Q: Why efficiency of an auto-transformer is higher than an ordinary transformer?
A: Since it carries only one winding and for same k V A output an auto
transformer requires relatively small iron as compared to ordinary two
winding transformers. So we see that copper losses as well as iron losses
would be less and efficiency would be higher.

Q: Why auto transformers are not used in power system?

A: Because there is a danger of appearing a high voltage to low voltage load due
to breaking of winding connection due to hot spot.

Q: What is three winding transformer?

A: A three winding transformer consists of three winding. The third winding is
called tertiary windings. This transformer is also called tertiary
Transformers.
Q: What is the use of tertiary transformer in power system?
A: It may be used in power stations. The primary and secondary windings are used
to step up the generated voltage to transmission voltage, while tertiary winding
is used to supply the auxiliaries of the station. It may be used at the
receiving end of line. Here the primary and secondary will be used to step
down the transmission voltage to load voltage and the tertiary winding
may be used to connect synchronous motor for voltage control.

Q: Define voltage regulation?

A: It is the measure of voltage drop from no load to full load. The
percentage regulation is given by

Vno load  V fullload

% regulation  x100
V fillload

Q: What is the value of regulation at capacitive load?

A: It is negative.

Q: Upon what factor it depends?

A: Upon
Load
power factor.

15
 Q: How regulation of a transformer is found out?
A: By performing short circuit and no load test.

Q: Why regulation of high rating transformers and generators is found by

indirect methods rather than by direct loading?

A: Because
t is not possible to load high rating machines I the laboratory
Consumes high energy
t is inaccurate.

Q: What is function of tank?

A:
i) It is a safety cover.
ii) It contains oil for cooling and insulation purpose.
iii) It carries insulators and other assessories.

Q: What is the material of tank?

A: These are usually made of cost steel or aluminum alloy.

Q: How the tank area is increased if it is not sufficient for cooling?

A:
By fins
By tubes.

Q: State the types of tubs used?

A: These are
Round tubes
elliptical tubes.

Q: Which types of tube is better?

A: Elliptical tubes gives more surface area than volume, so require less 0 but
gives more cooling surface.
Q: How the tubes are arranged on the surface of tank?
A: These are arranged.

1+0 Where first figure gives the no. of rows of tubes on front
1+1 and back and second figure give no. of rows on sides of the

16

2+0 tank etc. e.g (2+1) mean two rows on front and back an 1 row
 2+1 on sides.

Q: How oil circuits in tank and tubes?

A: Because of thermal heat the hot oil goes up and cold oil comes down.

Q: What is the function of oil in transformer?

A: It acts as
i) Coolant
ii) Insolent

Q: What is the function of a conservator?

A: The conservator is an air tight cylindrical drum mounted on or near the cover of
transformer and connected to it through a pipe. The function of conservator is to
take up expansion and contraction of oil without allowing to come in contact
with air, from where it may absorb moisture.

Q: What should be the volume of conservator?

A: Oil in the conservator should be one percent of oil in the tank and tubes and
total volume of it should be 1.5 to 3.0 times the oil in it.

Q: Name the methods of cooling transformer?

A: These are
AN, air natural
AB, air blast
ON, oil natural
ONAF, oil natural air forced.
OF, Forced circulation of oil.
OFAN, oil formed air natural.
OFAF, oil forced air forced.
OFWP, oil forced water forced

Q: Why it is necessary to cool transformer?

A: Due to losses occurring in transformer the temperature of windings, oil and
tank rises. The insulation is very sensitive to temperature, so the
temperature must be limited to working temperature of insulation.

Q: Why water cooling is not preferred?

A: Because if due to any reason water comes in contact with oil; oil is spoiled.

17
Q: What is the best iron/copper ratio?
A: The best ratio is between 3 & 5.

Q: What are the usual types of laminations used in core construction?

A: These are : I, V, F, E, etc.

Q: What is function of breather?

A: Due to expansion/contraction the oil moves to/from tank to/from
conservator. The functions of breather are to arrest any dust particle and
moisture present in the air.

Q: What is the function of buchlaz relay?

A: To protect the transformer against internal faults.

Q: What is the function of tap changer in a transformer?

A: These are used to raise/lower the voltage.

Q: What are bushing?

A: These are used to bring out leads from inside to the transformer tank.

Q: What do you understand about the lifting lugs, jacking lugs and lashing
lugs?
A: Lifting lug s are used to lift. The jacking lugs are used to change the
direction and lashing lugs are used during transpiration for securing the
transformer.

Q: Why is the design of insulation necessary?

A: In a transformer electrostatic as well as electromagnetic phenomena takes
place. Because of this phenomena the insulation design becomes necessary.

Q: Upon what consideration insulation is designed?

A:
Electrical consideration.
Mechanical consideration.
Thermal consideration.

Q: Name the materials used as insulation in transformer?

A: Paper, cotton enamel, synthetic resin bonded paper, porcelain, cotton tape and
silk etc.

18

Q: How insulting materials are classified according to temperature?

A: Insulation Class Y A F B F H Max.
Temp. 90 105 120 130 155 180 & above 180oC

Q: How the windings of 3-phase transformers are connected?

A: These are connected in number of ways i.e. YY, and etc.

Q: Why neutral of distribution transformer is earthed?

A: For safety purpose and to keep the voltages balanced.

Q: Define an ideal transformer?

A: A transformer in which there is no leakage flux.
Q: What is transformation ratio?
A: It is V1/V2 = N1/N2
It is constant for particular transformer.

Q: Why transformers are rated in k V A rather than kW?

A: Because a power loss occurs during the process of transformation. the
power received at secondary may be less than the power supplied to the
primary. But k V A remains same at both primary and secondary.

Q: Is it possible for a 50 Hz transformer to operate at 300 Hz? Under what

conditions?
A: It is possible but under the following conditions:
To maintain the same permissible flux density the voltage of both windings
must change.
Eh = Vh x 300/50
El = Eh /2.

The k V A rating will be increased in the ratio 300/50.

The core losses will be increased.
The efficiency will be decreased.

Q: State the relation between primary and secondary impedance’s?

A: Zl = k2 Z2
Where Zl is impedance reffered to primary
Z2 is impedance reffered to secondary
k is turn ratio.

19
Q: What is meant by parallel operation of transformers?
A: When the demand increase from the capacity of a transformer another
transformers may be connected in parallel to supply the excess demand.

Q: What are the conditions of a parallel operation of single phase transformers?

A:
Transformation ration must be same.
The percentage voltage regulation should be same.
The polarity must be same.

Q: What are the conditions for the parallel operation of 3-phase transformers?
A:
Transformation ration should be same.
Phase sequence should be same.
Phase notation must be same.

Q: How the windings of power/distribution transformer are usually connected?

A: Star/delta - Power transformer
Delta/star - Distribution transformer.

Q: For performing shout circuit test which winding should be short circuit?
A: Low voltage winding.

Q: Why the losses occurring during short circuit test are considered to copper
losses only?
A: Because a reduced voltage about 10% of normal voltage is applied hence only
10% of flux flows and iron losses occur but are negligibly small.

Q: What is tap changing?

A: These are
no-load tap changer
no-load tap changer

20
 D.C MACHINES

Q: Name the parts of a D.C. machine?

A: The parts of a D.C. machine are
Arinature
Stator
Poles
Commutator
Yoke
Windings
Interpoles
Compensating winding
Shaft and bearing
Carbon brushes.

Q: Explain briefly the function of each part?

A: ARMATUE:-
It houses the armature windings and rotate so that winding cut the flux
lines produced by main magnetic field and voltage is induced in the
windings.

STATOR:-
It carries the field magnetic and remains stationary. It also provides low
reluctance path for the flux.

POLE:-
These are electromagnets which produce flux.

COMMUTATOR:-
It converts a.c. into d.c. It also acts a means of taking/giving supply to
the rotating armature winding.

YOKE:
Outer part of the machine which protects the machine from external
damage or which acts as a protecting covering for the whole machine.

WINDINGS:
These are the conductors which out the magnetic flux and a voltage is
induced in them.

21

INTERLOPOES;-
 These are small poles between the main poles and are used to facilitate
commutation.

COPENSATING WINDINGS;-
The armature field has two components i.e. demagnetizing and cross-
magnetizing which weakens and distort the main field. The compensating
windings are used to compensate for these in large machines.

Q: Explain the construction and material of construction of each part?

A: ARMATURE:-
It is made of silicon steel lamination. It has slots and teeth.

STATOR/YOKE:-
It is usually made of cast steel.

ARMATURE WINDINGS;
These are made of copper. Theses are usually of two types.
i. Wave windings used for low current high voltage machines.
ii. Lap windings used for huge current and low voltage machine.

INDTERPOLES;
They have two parts i.e. windings which are made made of copper wire and
pole which is made of silicon steel.

COMPENSATING WINDINGS:-
These are usually made of copper wire/ strip.

CARBON BRUSHES;-
These are fixed on commentator which revolves with armature. These are used
for the collection of current generated in armature windings.

COMMUTATOR:-
It is made of copper segments separated by mica insulation. The copper
segments are usually equal to number of coils in simplex windings.

22

ARMATURE WINDINGS.
Q: How windings are classified?
A: These are
i. Lap winding
ii. Wave winding
iii. Foreleg winding which combination is of lap an wave winding. The lap and
Wave windings are further subdivided as simplex, duplex-etc.

Q: Is there a relation between number of poles and number of parallel paths in

d.c winding. ?
A: Yes, no. of parallel paths equal to no. of poles in simplex lap windings.
And no. of parallel paths is always two in simplex wave windings
Irrespective of no. of poles.

Q: Why wave windings are called series windings and lap windings are called
Parallel windings?
A: Because in wave windings there are only two parallel paths irrespective of No.
of poles and in lap windings no of parallel is equal to no. of poles.

Q: Why equalizer rings are needed in lap winding not in wave winding?
A: Each parallel path in lap winding is under the influence of one pair of poles,
And so if a machine consists of multiple pairs of poles then dissimilarities
occurs, due to which unequal voltages may b e induced in the paths and a
circulating current may flow. In wave winding each path is under the influence
of all poles, so voltages are induced in each path. Equalizers in lap windings are
used to remove this dissimilarity.

Q: How many brushes are required?

A: In lap winding the no. of brushes required are equal to number of poles. In
Wave windings two brushes are sufficient irrespective of the no. of poles.

Q: What is the shape of coil used in d.c. winding?

A: Diomond shape coils are used.

Q: What is relation between no. of conductors and no. of coils in d.c. windings?
A: no. of conductors = 2 x no. of coils.

23
Q: What is magnetic neutral axis (MNA) and geometrical neutral axis (GNA)?
A: A line perpendicular to resultant magnetic field is called MNA and a line
Perpendicular to main field only is GNA.

Q: Where the carbon brushes are placed?

A: These are placed on MNA.

Q: How carbon brushes are held on commutator?

A: In a rocker, which is adjustable and the position of brushes can be adjusted by
adjusting the position of rocker.

Q: Is it possible to use copper/gun metal are hard metal brushes then carbon?
A: NO, because copper/gun metal are hard materials an will spoil the surface of
Commutator, (Magnetic field and a armature reaction.)

Q: How many magnetic fields exist in a d.c machine?

A: There are two fields i.e. main field and armature field.

Q: How main field is produced?

A: By passing a d.c through the coils on main field poles.

Q: Why poles of main field an arc?

A: To produce uniform field.

Q: How armature field is produced?

A: By the passage of current in the armature windings.

Q: What is armature reaction?

A: It is the effect of armature field on main field.

Q: What are the effects of armature field on main field?

A: Armature field has two components i.e. cross-magnetizing and demagnetizing,
the cross-magnetizing component distorts the main field and demagnetizing
Component weakens the main field.

Q: In a d.c generator running at no load what is the relation between MMA and
GNA?
A: They coincide.

24
Q: What is the relation between GNA and MNA in loaded generators?
A: The position of MNA shifts and makes an angle with GNA.

Q: What are the problems due to armature reaction?

A: As the load on machine varies the position of MNA also varies, so the location
Of MNA becomes difficult and commutation becomes difficult.

Q: How interpoles make the commutation easy?

A: When a coil under goes commutation i.e. it crosses the MNA that is it comes
under the influence of opposite pole, the sudden reversal of current through the
coil takes place due to which an e.m.f is induced in the coil which opposes the
reverse of current, interpoles induced an e.m.f. which cancels the induced e.m.f
due reversal of current and hence makes the commutation easy.

Q: Why compensating windings are used in large d.c machines?

A: In large motors sometimes a sudden change in load takes place due to which an
e.m.f is induced in the armature windings which cause trouble in commutation.
A compensating winding is connected in series with the armature winding
which is wound in opposite fashion so an equal and opposite voltage is induced
in the compensating winding due to which net voltage becomes zero.

Q: Where compensating winding are placed?

A: These are placed on the pole faces

PRINCIPAL OF WORKING.

Q: What is a d.c generator?

A: A d.c generator is a device which converts mechanical energy to electrical
energy.

Q: What is the working principle of a d.c generator?

A: Whenever there is relative speed between a conductor and magnetic field an
e.m.f is induced in the conductor.

Q: In a d.c generator, magnetic field moves or the conductor?

A: In a d.c. generator magnetic filed is stationary and the conductor moves.

25
Q: How the direction of induced e.m.f is known?
A: Iris gin by Fleming’s right hand rule

Q: What is the equation of induced e.m.f in a generator?

PNZ
A: E
60a

Where E is induced e.m.f

P is No. of Poles.
Ø is flux / pole.
A is NO. of parallel paths.
Z is NO. of conductors.
N is armature rotations in r.p.m

TYPE OF D.C GENERATOR AND THEIR CHARACTERISTICS

Q: What are the types of d.c generators?

A: These are self excited and separately excited, the self excited are further
classified as series, shunt and compound generator, compound generators are
further classified as short shunt and long shunt compound generators.

Q: How a self excited d.c generator is excited?

A: Due to the residual magnetism.

Q: What is a characteristic of a generator?

A: It is the relation between generated voltage and load current.

Q: What is a characteristic of a generator?

A: It is the relation between generated voltage and armature current.

Q: What is an external characteristic?

A: It is relation between terminal voltage and load current.

Q: What is the shape of the characteristic of series generator?

A: It is rising characteristics i.e. the voltage in creases with the load current.

Q: What is the shape of the characteristics of shunt generator?

A: These are drooping i.e. terminal voltage decreases whit the load current.

26

Q: What is the shape of compound generator characteristic?

A: The series field has the rising effect and shunt has drooping effect so the voltage
remains constant with the load current.

Q: What is an O.C.C?
A: It is the open circuit characteristics; it is also called as magnetic characteristics.

Q: What is saturation?
A; It is the property of magnetic material that flux becomes constant at certain
value of current i.e. no further flux produces.

Q: What is differential compounding?

A: When series field mmf opposes the shunt field mmf the generator is said to be
differentially compounded.

Q: Give applications of differential compound generator?

A: As welding generator and as voltage booster.

LOSSES AND EFFICIENCY

Q: What types of losses occur in d.c machines?

A: These are iron losses, copper losses. (Iron losses are further subdivided as eddy
current losses and hysterisis) and friction and windage losses.

Q: Where iron losses occur?

A: These occur in armature .teeth, core and field poles.

Q: Where the copper loss occurs?

A: These occur in windings.

Q: What is the proportion of iron/copper losses?

A: Iron losses are usually small as compared to copper loses.

Q: Upon what factors iron losses depends?

A: They depend upon magnetic material, thickness of lamination, frequency and
flux density

Q: How eddy current losses can be reduced?

A: Using laminated cores of armature and field poles.

27
Q: How iron and friction / windage losses can be measured?
A: By performing no load test.

Q: What is techo-generator?
A: It is small permanent magnet generator whose generated voltage is directly
proportional to the speed.

Q: How speed of a orating machine is measured?

A: 1 Techo-generator.
2 Techo- meters.
3 Stroboscope.

Q: Define pole pitch, front pitch and back pitch?

A: Pole pitch is NO. of conductors divided by No. of poles, Front-pitch is the
number of difference of conductors connected with each other on the front side
of the winding and the back pitch is similarly defined.

PARALLEL OPERATION OF D.C GENERATORS.

Q: What is the condition for parallel operation of d.c shunt generators?

A:
i. Each generator must have same rated voltage and the same voltage regulation.
ii. The polarities of all parallel connected generators must oppose each other.

Q: Why series generators cannot be operated in parallel?

A; In addition to conditions necessary for parallel operation of shunt generators the
following conditions are necessary.
i. An equalizer must be connected on the armature side of the series field on the
side of same polarity for each machine.
ii. The resistances of all series fields must be approximately inversely proportional
to the capacities (KW ratings) of the parallel generators.

28

Q: Explain why does series generator not build up at no load?

A; No field excitation is available at no load.
Q: What is over compounding?
A: If shunt field dominates series field in compound generator then it is said to be
Over compounded.

D.C. MOTORS.

Q: What is the principle of operation of d.c motor?

A: Whenever a current carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field experience
a force.

Q: What is back e.m.f?

A: It is voltage induced in armature conductors when they revolve in magnetic
field. It is called back e.m.f., because it opposes the applied voltage.

Q: How the magnitude of back e.m.f is calculated?

A: EB = PФNZ/60a.

Where the symbols have their usual meanings.

Q: How the current drawn by the motors is calculated?

A: I = V – Eb
R

Where I is the current drawn.

V is the applied voltage.
Eb is the back e.m.f.
R is the armature resistance

Q: Comment on the statement that a generator tries to run back as motor and motor
tries to run back as generator?
A: In case o generator when armature windings are rotated in magnetic field a
current is produced in them. Now these current carrying conductor in the
presence of magnetic field experience a force and tries to run back as motor and
vice versa.

29
 Q: What are the types of d.c motors?
A: These are:
i. Series motors
ii. Shunt motors.
iii. Compound motor; The compound motors are further classified as cumulative
compound and differential compound.

Q: What are the characteristics of a motor?

A: The relation between
i. Speed/ Torque
ii. Armature current / Torque

Are called the characteristics of motor and speed/ torque characteristics are
called speed characteristics and Armature current / torque characteristics are
allied torque characteristics.

The speed and torque characteristics and relation between torque and armature
current is called torque characteristics.

Q: What is the speed equation of d.c motor?

A: N = V – IaRa/KФ
Where N is speed.
Ia = Armature current.
Ra = Armature resistance.
Ф = Flux/ pole.
K = is a constant.

Q: What is torque equation of a d.c motor?

A: T = k Ф Ia.

Q: How is speed varies with Ia in series motor?

A: It is infinity at zero Ia and drops as the current increase, that is why d.c
Series motors are never run at no load.

Q: How is the starting torque of a d.c series motor?

A: At starting, motor draws huge current so starting torque is very high.

Q: How the speed of shun motor varies with Ia ?

A: It dopes lightly with Ia ( increasing).

30

Q: How the torque of shun motor varies with Ia ?

A: It increases linearly.

Q: Why a shunt motor is called constant speed motor?

A: Because its speed varies slightly with Ia.

Q: Why differential compound motors are not used?

A: Because the m.m.f due to series field may dominate the m.m.f due to shunt field
at certain load and so speed may reverse, causing a serious damage.

Q: Give a particular use of series motor?

A: These are used in places where high starting torque’s are required. These are
particularly used in electric traction and crane hoisting.

Q: How the speed of a D.C series motor is controlled in electric traction?

A: By series and parallel combination of motors.

Q: How the speed of shunt motor is controlled?

A: By placing variable resistor in series with the shunt field or apply a variable
voltage.

Q: What is a particular advantage of D.C motors over A. C motors?

A: Their speed control is very easy and these are more suitable.

Q: How the efficiency of a shunt motor is determined?

A: Using swinburn’s method i.e. by performing a running light test we can find out
the no load losses i.e. iron losses ad friction and windage losses and copper
losses are proportional to the square of armature current.

Q: Now days what are the application of D.C. motor?

A: There are used in automobiles, electric traction etc.

Q: Is it possible in D.C machines that field magnets be orated in placer of armature

winding?
A: It is possible.

Q: Give the magnitude of current taken by a D.C motor a starting?

A: IT is V/Ra where V is the applied voltage and Ra is the armature resistance.

31

Q: Why starter are required for starting large motor?

A: To limit the heavy starting current.

Q: What is a starter?
A: It is tapped resistor.

Q: How torque is measured in d.c motor?

A: Dynamometers/brakes are used.

3-PHASE INDUCTION MOTOR

Q: Give construction of 3-phase induction Motor?

A: It has a three phase wound stator. Its rotor may be wound rotor type or squirrel
cage type.

Q: What wound rotor is?

A: it consists of rotor core and teeth. Three phase windings are housed in rotor
slots and the connections are brought out through slip rings.

Q: What are slip rings and how they work?

A: These consist of three copper rings mounted the rotor shaft. Three carbon
brushes which are connected to stator constantly touch these rings and these
rings are connected to the terminals of rotor windings. In this way rotor
terminals are brought out.

Q: What squirrel cage rotor is?

A: It is made from silicon steel laminations, Copper/Aluminum bars placed in the
slots and these are short circuited on both sides with the help of short circuiting
rings.

Q: Why three phase squirrel cage induction motor in very widely used?
A: Because of very simple and rigid construction, it requires no maintenance.
Usually no fault develops in the rotor.

Q: What is principle of operation of 3-phase induction motor?

A: When a three phase supply is given to 3-phase stator windings, a rotating
magnetic field is produced, which rotate at synchronous speed. Due to rotating
field and stationary rotor conductor a voltage is induced in the rotor conductors
and current flows, now according to lens’s law the tendency of induced
quantities is to oppose the cause of other own production, which in this case is
relative speed, so in order to finish this relative speed rotor start rotating and
thus motor runs.

32
Q: Why is it not possible for the rotor to run at synchronous speed?
A: Because if rotor catches synchronous speed the relative motion will become
zero and no induction will take place.

Q: What is Slip Speed?

A: The difference between synchronous and rotor speed is called slip speed.

Q: What is slip?

A: It is N S – N R
NS
Where N S is Synchronous Speed,
N R is rotor speed.
It is expressed as percentage slip

% age slip = NS–NR

N S x 100
Q: What is slip at standstill?

A: It is NS-0 =1
NS
Q: What is frequency of voltage induced in the rotor?
A: It is fr = sfs
fr is frequency of induced voltage in the rotor.
fs is synchronous / supply frequency.
‘s’ is slip.

Q: What is the magnitude of rotor reactance?

A: Xr = 2 π fr Lr
Where Xr is rotor reactance
Fr = sfs
So Xr = 2 π sfr Lr.

33

Q: What s rotor reactance at standstill?

A: At standstill s =
Xr = 2 π sfr Lr.

Q: What is the relation between rotor reactance at any slip and rotor reactance at
standstill?
A; Xr = SXs

Where Xs is the rotor reactance at standstill.

Q: What is the magnitude of voltage induced in the rotor at any slip?

A: Er = 4.44 fr Фm Nr.
Where Nr is the NO. of turns on rotor.

Q: What is the relation between voltage induced at standstill and voltage induced
under running condition?
A: If Es the voltage induced at stand still then Es = sEr.

Q: Why slip is very important parameter in 3-phase induction motor theory?

A: Because every thing like reactance, voltage and torque etc. all depend upon slip.

Q: State the torque equation of 3-phase induction motor?

KV2 Rr
A: T=
(Rr) 2+ (Xr) 2

Q: Upon what factors torque depends?

A:
I. It is directly proportional to rotor resistance.
II. It is directly proportional to square of voltage.

Q: What is breaking slip?

A: If the load on motor is increased its slip will go on increasing until it will stall.
The slip at which it will stall is called breaking slip.

34

Q: Why rotor bars are skewed?

A:
 i. To mcrease he length and to increase the resistance and here by to improve the
starting torque.
ii. To reduce noise.
iii. To avoid the danger of interlocking.

Q: Why short circuiting rings are used?

A: Because if the windings are kept open then no current will flow and hence no
torque will produce.

Q: How much current a 3-phase induction motor draws at starting?

A: It draws a huge large current at starting usually 5-10 times the full load current.

Q: Why is a run at low p.f. at no load part loads?

A: Because is needs large magnetizing current because of the air gap

Q: What are the losses occurring in it?

A: These are;-
I. Friction and windage losses.
II. Iron losses i.e. eddy current and hysteretic.
III. Copper losses.

Q: How the efficiency of 3-phase motor is calculated?

A: By performing no load test and blocked rotor test.

Q: How speed of 3-phase induction motor is controlled?

A: The speed of slip ring induction motor is easy to control i.e.
i. By adding additional variable resistors in the rotor circuit.
ii. By injecting a voltage in rotor circuit. Since the rotor of squirrel cage induction
motor is permanently short circuited and the terminals of squirrel cage windings
are not available, so no resistance can be added nor a voltage can be injected.
The speed of squirrel cage as well as slip ring induction motor can be controlled
by;-

1. Changing No. of poles.

2. Apply supply of variable frequency.
3. Apply variable voltage.

35

Q: Why starters are required for starting three phase induction motor?
A: Since it draws a large amount of current at starting.
Q: Name a few methods of starting?
A:
i. Auto-Transformer are starting?
ii. Start-Delta Stater.
iii. Resistors may be used.

Q: Why applying variable voltage method is not preferred for the speed control of
3-phase induction motor?
A; The torque of 3-phase induction motor is proportional to the square of voltage
and hence if voltages are halved, the torque will reduce to 1/4.

Q: Is it possible for an induction motor to run as generator?

A: Yes, it is possible to run the wound rotor machine as induction generator.

Q: How a wound rotor machine is run as induction generator?

A: Rotor windings are open circuited, stator is given 3-phase supply and the rotor
is run with the help of prime mover.

Q: What is frequency generated by induction generator?

A: It is given by:-
Fg = fsyn (1+Sg/Ssyn)

When Fg is the generated frequency,

Syn is the synchronous speed.
Sg is the speed of rotor/prime mover.

Q: How the direction of rotation of a 3-phase induction motor can be reversed?

A: By interchanging any two phases.

Q: Why by interchanging two phases the direction of rotation is reversed?

A: The phase sequence is changed and so the direction of rotating magnetic field is
reversed and hence direction of rotation of rotor is reversed.

Q: Describe the method of measuring slip?

A: s = Ns – Nr / Ns
So it can be measured by measuring rotor speed,
Secondly fr = sf
By measuring rotor frequency .OR,
By using a stroboscope.

36
Q: Compare slip ring induction motor with squirrel cage induction motor as regard
starting and efficiency?
A: Slip ring motor is better.

Q: Name the parameters which are to suppose to start the design of induction
motor?
A: Power factor and efficiency.

Q: Computer double cage rotor with single cage rotor?

A; Double cages construction consists of upper cage of high resistance copper bars
and lower cage of low resistance copper or cast aluminum.

On starting, currents are induced in upper bar being close to magnetic field and
having smaller self inductance and there by improves the starting torque under
running conditions the rotor frequency falls and more currents flows in the
lower case and hence the efficiency is improved due to flow resistance of lower
cage.

37
 SINGLE PHASE MOTORS

Q: What is a single phase motor?

A: A motor is a device which converts electrical energy to mechanical energy and
if it runs with single phase supply, it is called as single phase motor.

Q: Up to what h.p rating single phase motors are used?

A: These are used up to 2 or 3 H.P ratings.

Q: Why large motors are three phase motors?

A: Because single phase motors are not self started. To make them self stated.
Some starting techniques are required; also single phase motors are less
efficient.

Q: What are the types of single phase motors?

A; Single phase motors are usually classified according to method of starting and
according by these are:
i. Single phase induction motor with starting winding
ii. Single phase induction motor with capacitor starting.
iii. Single phase motor with capacitor run and capacitor start motors.
iv. Shaded pole induction motor.
v. Repulsion motor.
vi. Repulsion start induction.
vii. Universal motor.

Q: Which type of torque is developed in single phase motors?

A: Pulsating torque is produced.

Q: What is a synchronous speed?

A: It is given by Ns = 120f/P.

Where Ns is synchronous speed.

F is frequency p is no .of poles, so if. F = 50 and P = 4, Ns = 1500 r.p.m.
 38

Q: What is fractional h.p motor?

A: A small motor having h.p less then unity is called fractional h.p motors.

Q: What are the applications of single phase fractional h.p motors?

A: They have numerous applications like;
 Sewing machines, drills, vacuum, cleaner, milk blowers, air conditioners etc.

Q: Which type of rotor is used in single phase induction motor?

A: Squirrel cage type.

Q: Is there a difference between rotor of a squirrel cage single phase induction

motor and three phase squirrel cage induction motor?

A: They have the same construction.

Q: In a single phase resistance start induction motor how the starting windings
produce rotation?
A: The starting winding is highly resistive and the main winding is inductive so the
phase difference between the two current becomes nearly 90 0and hence the
motor start as two phase motor.

Q: How starting winding in made resistive?

A: It consists of only few turns of smaller diameter.

Q: Is the starting winding is used for starting only or it is permanently connected?

A: It is used for starting only and is disconnected when the machine attains 75% of
the speed.

Q: What is a split phase squirrel cage induction motor?

A: It consists of two stator windings. Displaced 90 0 electrical in space and some
what less than 900 in time. The starting winding has fewer turns and sis wound o
smaller diameter copper than the running winding. The starting winding has a
high resistance and low reactance. While running winding has low resistance
and high reactance.

Q: How the speed of rotation of a split phase induction motor is reversed?

A: The terminal connection of the starting winding are reversed with repeat to main
running windings.
 39

Q: What will happen if the centrifugal switch fails to open the starting windings?
A: Excessive heat will produce due to high resistance of starting winding due to
which stator temperature will rise and eventually both winding will burn.

Q: What is the difference between split phase and split phase capacitor start motor?
A: In split phase capacitor start motor, a capacitor is added in series with the
starting winding.

Q: What are the advantages of adding capacitor in split phase capacitor start
motor?
A: Starting torque which is very low in split phase motor is improved.

Q: What is a permanent split (single value) capacitor motor?

A: It has two permanent windings usually wound with same wire and size and
same no. of turns. No centrifugal switch, here the capacitor used is also
designed for continuous duty.

Q: How speed control is made in single phase motors?

A: It is usually controlled by applying a variable voltage from tapped transformers,
variances, potential meters, an taped reactors.

Q: What is the weakness of permanent split single value capacitor motor?

A It has a serious weakness of low starting torque.

Q: What is tow value capacitor permanent split phase motor?

A: In this motor two windings and two capacitors are used. One capacitor is used
for starting only an other is permanently connected.

Q: Is there any relation between the capacitance’s of two capacitors used in two
value capacitor motor?
A: Starting capacitor has about 10-15 times high capacity than the value of running
capacitor.
 40

Q: What is a shaded-pole motor?

A: It is like single phase induction motor but is has a special poles which are used
to make the motor self starting.

Q: What is size of shaded pole motor?

A: These are usually built in small fractional h.p, not exce4dd 1/4 h.p

Q: What is a great virtue of this motor?

A: Its simplicity, single phase stator winding, a cast squirrel cage rotor and special
pole piece. It is inherently self starting.

Q: Why shaded pole single phase induction motor dos not need any special starting
techniques like capacitor and auxiliary winding etc.?
A: Because it is inherently self started motor. The construction of the poles is such
that they give a sweep to the magnetic flux and motor starts rotating.

Q: How the direction of rotation of shaded pole motor be reversed?

A: There are two methods; first one is to provide a pole which has pole shading on
both sides. The second method is generally used with non salient pole stators.
Two separate distributed windings 900 in space with respect to the short circuit
shaded poles are used.

Q: Describe a few qualities of saded pole motor?

A: It is rugged, inexpensive, small in size and requires little maintenance. Its stalled
locked motor current is only slightly high than its normal rated current, so that it
can remain stalled for short periods without harm.

Q: Describe a few drawbacks of saded pole motor?

A:
i. It has very low starting torque.
ii. Low efficiency
iii. Low power factor.

Q: Describe a few applications of shaded pole motor?

A; Its low starting torque limits it application to phone motor or turn tables, motion
picture projectors, electric rotisseries, all fans and blower, vending machines,
rotating store window, display tables and other relatively light servomechanism.

41
 Q: How speed of shaded pole motor is controlled?
A: By applying reduce voltage.
Q: What is reluctance principle?
A It states that, where air gap is small. the self inductance in the field winding is
great. causing the current i the field winding to lag the flux which
produced it. conversely. where the air gap is great self inductance is
reduced. and the current is more nearly in phase with the flux. The mutual air
gap flux is delayed. therefore, producing a sweeping effect similar to that
produced in the shaded pole motor.

Q: Describe the working and construction of reluctance start motor?

A: It has salient pole stator. The poles have irregular faces to create large air gap
and small air gaps. It works on reluctance principle describe above.

Q: Why shaded pole motor is preferred over reluctance start motor?

A: It is preferred because of
i) Low cost
ii) Better starting and running toques
iii) Readily reversible.

Q: Describe the construction of repulsion motor?

A: Its stator is identical to an induction motor (single phase). No auxiliary or
part windings are require. The rotor of repulsion motor is very similar to
standard d.c armature, usually lap wound.

Q: What is universal motor?

A: A universal motor is that which may run with a.c supply or d.c supply,
these re designed for 60 Hz down to zero frequency and for voltage from
250 v to 1.5 V.

Q: What are the applications of a universal motor?

A: It is manufactured in ratings up to 3/4 h.p. particularly for vacuum cleaners
and industrial sewing machines. In smaller sizes of 1/4 h p or less. it is
used in electrical hand drills.

Q: Which type of motor is suitable to act as universal motor?

A: D.C series motor is suitable to be a universal motor.

42
 Q: Is it possible to operate d.c series motor on A.C supply without
modifications?
A: For small sizes operation, it is quite satisfactory, but at large sizes above a few
h.p. operates poorly on alternating current. There is a great deal of sparking
at the brushes and the efficiently and power factor are low. Several
modification are necessary to improve its operation on a.c.

Q: Explain why d.c shunt motor will not work on a.c satisfactorily?
A: A very little starting and running torques are produced since torque is
T = k Ф f la cos θ:
Where angle θ is nearly 90”.

Q: Why a single phase series motor is preferred for traction service rather than
the induction or synchronous motor?
A:
i) They operate on high p.f of about 0.95
ii) Their efficiency is very high.
iii) Speed regulation is very easy.

Q: Name the different types of repulsion motor?

A:
i) Commercial repulsion motor.
ii) Repulsion start induction motor.
iii) Repulsion induction motor.

Q: In case of resistance start and capacitor start single phase induction motor
the starting winding is cut off when the machine attains 70% speed How is it
accomplished?

A: With the help of a centrifugal switch.

Q: How an identification between start and running winding is made?

A: The diameter of the conductor of starting winding is les also no of turns i coils
are less.

Q: How much pole face shaded in shaded pole machine?

A: It is 1/4 to 2/3 rd of pole face.

Q: Where single phase synchronous motors are used?

A: Where the constant speed is required in clocks etc.

43
Q: Can you give an example of permanent capacitor motor?
A: Ceiling fan or table fan.

Q: State the application of a capacitor start capacitor run motors?

A: These are used where high starting torques are required. In air compressors
etc.

Q: Name the two types of commutator motors?

A:
i) A.C series motor,
ii) Repulsion motor.

44
 ALTERNATORS

Q: What is an alternator?
A: An alternator is a machine which converts mechanical energy into electrical
energy and generate A.C

Q: Describe the main parts of an alternator?

A: It consists of stationary armature carrying armature windings and rotting rotor
carrying D.C winding.

Q: Describe the different types of rotors?

A: There are two types of rotors i.e. salient pole rotor and cylindrical rotor.
Q: What is a physical difference between a salient pole generator and cylindrical
pole generator?
A: A salient pole generator has larger diameter as compared to length, while a
cylindrical pole generator has larger length than diameter.

Q: What is a turbo-alternator?
A: A steam driven generator is called turbo-alternator. It is usually cylindrical rotor
type.

Q: What is the No. of poles in cylindrical rotor?

A: Two or four.

Q: What is the No. of poles in salient pole generator?

A: More than four.

Q: Where the salient pole generators are used?

A: These are used in hydroelectric power plants.

Q: Why cylindrical pole generators can not be used in hydro-electric power

plants?
A: Because hydraulic turbines are slow, there speed ranges from 100-150
RPM.

Q: Why a 3-phase alternator is called synchronous generator?

A: Because it must have to run at synchronous speed.

45
 Q: What is difference between an alternator and a D.C generator?
A: In principle there is no difference. if commutator is removed from D.C
generator it becomes alternator.

Q: Why in alternators revolving field and stationary armature constructions are

preferred?
A: Because of the following advantages:-

i) The strength of armature teeth is increased.

ii) Armature reactance is decreased.
iii) It is easy to insulate a stationary circuit.
iv) No. of slip rings required is reduced.
v) The weight and inertia of rotor is reduced.
vi) A stationary armature can be cooled more efficiently.

Q: What is a voltage regulation of an alternator?

A: It is the measurement of voltage drop from no load to full load i.e.

Vn1  V f l
Voltage regulation x100
V fl
Where Vn1 is voltage at no load.
Vfl is voltage at full load.

Q: Upon what factors it depends?

A: It depends upon power factor and load.

Q: Name the methods of finding voltage regulation?

A:
i) Synchronous impedance method.
ii) Potier triangle method.
iii) Ampere turns method.
iv) ASA method.

Q: Why regulation is measured using indirect methods rather loading directly?

A: Because;
i) It is difficult to load a 500 MVA machine in a laboratory,
ii) More energy will be wasted.

Q: What test are required to find out regulation?

A: The open circuit test and short circuit tests.

46
Q: How the resistance of armature is found?
A: By apply D.C between two phases of star connected winding keeping the third
phase open.
1 Vd .c
 x
Rdc 2 1d .c
Q: How the A.C resistance is found from D.C resistance?
A: By multiplying Rdc with 1.6 at 60 Hz and 1.4 at 50 Hz.

Q: Why Rdc and R a.c are different?

A: Because of the skin effect.

Q: What is a skin effect?

A: It is the tendency of alternating current to flow on the surface of conductor.

Q: How synchronous impedance is found?

A: It is the ratio of open circuit voltage produced by the same field current that
caused the rated short circuit current per phase and full load armature current.

Q: What is an equivalent circuit of an alternator?

A: Briefly it is voltage behind a reactance.

Q: What is an exciter?
A: An exciter is a D.C generator to supply D.C voltage to the rotor windings.

47
 PARALLEL OPERATION

Q: What are the advantages of parallel operation?

A:
i) If a single unit is failed due to any reason, the whole station will no longer
function, where as if one of the several smaller units is failed, the other
smaller units are still available to work.
A single unit for maximum efficiency must be loaded to maximum capacity. It
is uneconomical to operate a large unit at light load. Several smaller units
operated in parallel may be removed or added as the load demands. and each
unit may be operated at neat its rated capacity and thus providing maximum
efficiency.
ii) The smaller units facilitate maintenance without complete shut down.
iii) With the increase of load on the system. Additional units may be installed.
iv) There is an economic limit on the capacity of a single unit, so by parallel
operation we can fulfill the demand of load.

Q: Describe the conditions necessary for parallel operation of single phase

alternator?
A:
i) All the machines must have same effective voltages.
ii) The voltage of all generators must have same waveform.
The voltage must be opposite in phase (with respect to two alternators or a given
alternator and bus)
The frequencies must be same i.e. product of their poles and speeds must be
same.
iii) The combined overall alternator voltage and prime-mover speed
characteristics should be same.
iv) For poly phase machine only the phase sequence of the poly phase voltages of
the incoming alternator must be same as the bus.

Q: What methods are used for synchronizing single phase alternator?

A:
i) Dark lamp method.
ii) Bright lamp method.

48
 Q: What is a synchronizing current?
A: It is circulating current which circulates between the machines because of small
difference of voltage between the alternators.

Q: What are the effects of synchronizing current?

A:
i) Small amount of power loss occurs.
ii) Synchronizing power is produced.

Q: What is a synchronizing power?

A: It is power delivered by an alternator having higher generated emf to the
generator having lower generated emf to cause it to run as motor in the same
direction as it is being driven by prime-mover. Since the power is only
dissipated in resistance, this power is available at the bus in addition to the
power generated by generators in parallel.

Q: What is hunting?
A: It is the tendency of alternators to keep themselves into synchronism.

Q: What are the methods employed to avoid oscillations or hunting?

A:
i) Damper windings are produced.
ii) Prime-movers are fitted with flywheel.
iii) Prime-movers are employed which have a uniform power stroke over one
complete revolution.

Q: What are the conditions of parallel operation of three phase alternators?

A: Same as describe for single phase machines. in addition the phase sequence
of incoming machine should be same as the bus.
Q: Describe the methods of synchronizing 3-phase alternator?
A:
i) Dark lamp method.
ii) Rotating lamp method.

49
 Q: Describe a complete for placing 3-phase alternator in parallel?
A:
i) The alternator is brought up to speed, and its effective line voltages are adjusted
to the bus voltage by means of a voltmeter.
ii) The phase sequence is checked.
iii) The frequency of incoming machine is checked by means of dark lamp method,
the speed of prime-mover is adjusted to give correct frequency.
iv) The alternator is made to take load by increasing the excitation.
v) The bus voltage is adjusted by adjusting the all field rehostates simultaneously.

50
 SYNCHRONOUS MOTOR

Q: Is there a difference between construction of 3-phase alternator and 3-phase

synchronous motor?
A: No difference, the same machine may be used as motor or generator.

Q: Why it is called synchronous motor?

A: Because it runs constantly at synchronous speed.

Q: Is it a self started machine?

A: No.

Q: How it is started?
A: With the help of damper windings.

Q: Where damper windings are placed?

A: These are placed on pole faces.

Q: What are the two types of damper windings?

A: These may be squirrel cage type or wound rotor type.

Q: On which principle it operates?

A: It operates on the principle of interlocking between the stator and rotor
poles.

Q: How the speed of synchronous motor be varied?

A:
i) By changing No. of poles.
ii) By changing the frequency of supply.

Q: At what speed synchronous motor runs?

A: It runs at synchronous speed given by Ns =120f/P.

Q: What is the effect of excitation on power factor of synchronous motor?

A: An normal excitation it runs at unity P.f. At under-excitation it runs at
lagging P.f, and at over-excitation it runs at leading P.f.

Q: What is a V-Curve?
A: It is the relation between field current and armature current keeping load
constant.

51
Q: Why these are called V-curves?
A: Because the curvier attains the V-shape.

Q: Name few special types of synchronous motors which do not employ D.C field
excitation?
A:
i. The synchronous induction motor.
ii. Reluctance motor.
iii. Hysteresis motor.
iv. Sub synchronous motor.

Q: What is synchronous capacitor motor?

A: Any over-excited motor operated without load, is called synchronous capacitor
motor.

Q: For what it is used?

A: It is used for power factor correction.

Q: Describe four methods of starting synchronous motor?

A:
i. A D.C motor coupled t synchronous motor.
ii. Using the field exciter generator as motor.
iii. A small induction motor of at least one pair of poles less than synchronous
motor.
iv. Using the damper windings as an induction motor.

Q: What are specific advantages of synchronous motor over induction motor?

A:
i. Synchronous motors can be used for power factor correction in addition to
supplying torque to drive a load.
ii. They are more efficient.
iii. They may be less costly for same h.p speed and voltage ratings.

Q: What is a simplex rotor?

A: A rotor of synchronous motor which has wound has wound rotor type damper
windings on pole faces is called simple rotor.

52
Q: What is a amortizes windings?.
A: These are the damper windings.

Q: Why a synchronous motor is not self started?.

A: Because rotating magnetic field rotates at synchronous speed and rotor is
stationary so interlocking in not possible.

Q: Explain why a synchronous motor will run at synchronous speed or not at all?
A: Because if the motor runs at any other speed, the interlocking will be finished.

Q: What is a pole slipping?

A: When interlocking between a certain north pole and south pole is disturbed and
takes place between other pair of poles then it is called pole slipping.

Q: Under what conditions pole slipping occur?

A: Due to sudden increase of load.

Q: What is a torque angle?

A: It is an angle between generated e.m.f and the applied voltage.

53
 ELECTICAL POWER GENERATION

Q: Why electricity is an important form of energy used in today’s world?

A: Because of convenience and ease of control.

Q: What is the proportion of electrical energy as compared to other forms of

energy used in the world?
A: About 1/4th of the energy used in the world is electrical energy.

Q: What are the resources of electrical energy production?

A:
i. Fossil fuel
ii. Nuclear
iii. Renewable sources

Q: what are fossil fuels?

A: These are
i. Coal
ii. Oil
iii. Natural gas
iv. Peat
v. Lignite or brown coal.

Q: What are renewable energy resources?

A: These include
i. Hydro Resources
ii. Wind mills
iii. Solar plants
iv. Tidal schemes
v. Geothermal generation.

Q: What is hydro generation?

A: In hydro electric power station the kinetic and potential energy is used to
generate electricity.

Q: What are the types of hydro electric power plant?

A:
i. Run off river plants without pondage.
ii. Run off river plants with poundage.
iii. Pump storage scheme.

54
Q: What is pump storage scheme?
A: A power station containing mix of thermal and hydro generation can lead to use
of pump storage schemes. A pump storage scheme needs the existence of two
natural reservoirs at different levels and reasonably close to each other. At off-
peak periods cheap power can be provided by the most efficient thermal station
to pump water from the lower to the higher reservoir. At times of peak power
the pump motors run as generators and use this water for electricity generation.
Thereby reducing the amount of load which has to be supplied by the less
economic thermal plant on the system. Such facility can reduce the overall cost
generation.

Q: List the advantages of hydel generation?

A:
i. Fast control of loading.
ii. No stand by losses
iii. Plant is very simple, robust and reliable le with few auxiliaries.
iv. Long life about 50 years as compared to a compared to a thermal power plant
having 20 years life.

Q: What are the drawbacks of hydel power plants?

A:
i. High capital costs of dams, tunnels and pipe lines
ii. If water resources are limited annual load factor may be low.
iii. Sites are usually at remote places with poor access. So access roads are to be
constructed.
iv. Because of the remote places, needs long transmission lines to transfer the
energy to load centers.

Q: How energy conversions take place in solar plants?

A:
There are two systems i.e.
i. Solar thermal system:- In this system solar radiation are gathered and reflected
to concentrate at more limited areas. Such concentring collector can generate
heat at very high temperature up to 10000 0C . The heat at these temperatures is
suitable for use in different energy. This mechanical energy which can easily
converted to produce electrical energy which can easily be transmitted and used
at other locations.
ii. Solar photovoltaic system:-
Photocells are used to convert sunlight into electrical energy.

55
Q: How a photocell convert light energy into electrical energy?
A: It is a natural property of a P.N. junction that, if it is exposed to light a voltage
of about 0.5 volts is developed across the junction. Many such junctions can be
connected in parallel to heave large voltage.

Q: How wave energy is converted to electrical energy?

A: There are many ways, one such mechanism is described.

It consists of a hollow steel sphere that floats on the surface of water of the sea
and is connected by a road to a platform anchored below the surface because
the submerged platform is much heavier than the sphere, the movement if
sphere set the platform in motion. Such a mechanism may produce power up to
20 MW.

Q: How energy conversion taken place in geothermal generation?

A: Geothermal energy is the natural heat within the earth, which is close enough to
the surface to be extracted economically. This energy may be converted to
generate electricity.

Q: How energy conversion taken place in a nuclear power plant?

A: Nuclear power station produce heat by the process known as nuclear fission to
raise the steam to drive turbo-generators.

Q: Why a steam turbine at nuclear power station needs a large amount of water?
A: Because it has to handle a large amount of wet low pressure steam.

Q: Describe the main parts of a nuclear power plant?

A:
i. Reactor
ii. Heat exchanger
iii. Condenser
iv. Generator
v. Steam turbine.

56
Q: What is the function of a reactor?
A: In a reactor heat is produced by fissioning or splitting of uranium atoms.

Q: How heat produced in the reactor is transferred to heat exchanger?

A: A cooling medium is used for this purpose.

Q: Why reactor and cooling medium should be heavily shielded?

A: When uranium atom is split, radiation‘s takes place. These radiations are
dangerous so a shield is necessary against these radiations.

Q: Name the metals which can be used as fuel in nuclear reactors?

A:
i. Uranium
ii. Platonism

Q: What is mass defect?

A: The weight of an atom is less than the sum of the weight of its protons, neutrons
and electrons and the difference is termed as mass defect.

Q: What is the binding energy?

A: If particles (protons, neutrons and electrons) are brought together quickly to
from an atom, a mass defect is suddenly converted into energy which may
appear in the form of K.E imparted to the atom being created. Conversely to
break up atom into its particles energy equivalent to the mass defect must be
supplied. This is called binding energy.

Q: How nuclear energy is released?

A:
i. By combining light nucleic i.e. the fusion process.
ii. By breaking up heavy nuclei into nuclei of intermediate size i.e. fission process.

Q: What are fertile materials?

A: Materials which can be transformed into fissile materials like U-238 and the-
232.

Q: What are moderators?

A: These are the substance which help in reducing the speed of neutrons e.g. light
water, deuterium or heavy water. Carbon and beryllium.

57

Q: How chain reaction is controlled?

A: With the help of control rods. Control rods are of the substance which absorb
neutrons and stop their further action. Boron is used for this purpose.

Q: Describe the main parts of reactor?

A:
i. Reactor core
ii. Moderator
iii. Reflector
iv. Shielding
v. Cooling system.

Q: Name the materials which are used as coolant?

A:
i. Co2
ii. Air
iii. Hydrogen
iv. Helium
v. Water
vi. Sodium

Q: Define the critical size of a thermal reactor?

A: It is that which is just sufficient to produce enough neutrons to balance those
lost and absorbed and to maintain the chain reaction.

Q: What are the basic types of reactors?

A:
i. Thermal reactors
ii. Fast rectors.

Q: Name a few types of reactors?

A:
i. Calder Hall reactor
ii. Boiling water reactor
iii. The pressurized water reactor
iv. Sodium graphite reactor
v. Fast breeder reactor

58

Q: Describe a few disadvantages of a fast reactor?

A:
i. The choice of fuel is severely restricted from the point of view of neutron
economy when uranium is used as fuel.
ii. The size and weight of the reactor per unit power are much greater.
iii. More fissile material is consumed than could be automatically replaced.

Q: Why good foundation conditions are essential for sitting a nuclear power plant?
A: Because reactor weight about 50,000 tons with of 3.5 tons/sq- in.

Q: How radioactive waste is disposed?

A: Various schemes are used like processing and versification of highly dangerous
products prior to deep burial in areas of stable rock formation.

59

STEAM POWER STATION

Q: What are the main parts of steam stations?
A:
i. Boiler
ii. Turbine
iii. Generator

Q: What is a boiler?
A: It is a device in which steam is produced under pressure.

Q: Name the types of boiler?

A:
i. Drums
ii. Tubes
iii. Superheater
iv. Bunker.

Q: What is the function of superheater?

A: It is a part of boiler where steams is superheated.

Q: Describe the path of flue gases?

A: They flow from boiler to economizer, air press heater, ID fans and chimney.

Q: What is function of economizer?

A: It is a device where feed water is heated.

Q: Describe the water steams flow diagram?

A: Feed water is heated in economizer and goes to boiler where it is converted to
steam. The steam is then passed to superheater the superheated steams is fed to
turbine and from turbine, steams goes to censer and is converted to water.

Q: What are the types of steam turbines?

A: Impulse or reaction or use mixed arrangement of both principle.

60

HYDRO-ELECTRIC POWER PLANTS.

Q: What are the main parts of a hydor-electic power station?
A: Dam, reservoir, spill ways, pen stock, turbine and generator.

Q: What is a spill way?

A: It is to discharge excess water from the reservoir.

Q: What are the types of spill ways?

A:
i. Side channel spill ways
ii. Saddle spill ways.
iii. Shaft spill ways and siphon spill ways.

Q: What is intake?
A: Its function is to let the water enter into the penstock under controlled
conditions.

Q: What is the function of trash racks?

A: These are used to prevent debris to pass into water passage.

Q: What is penstock?
A: It is a conduit system which direct water from reservoir to turbine.

Q: What is water hammer?

A: IT is sudden change of water pressure of water in penstock and to reduce water
hammer.

Q: Why surge tanks are used?

A: To stabilize the velocity and pressure of water in penstock and to reduce water
hammer.

Q: How hydraulic turbines are classified?

A:
i. Reaction turbines
ii. Impulse turbines, Kaplan, Francis, Fixed blade propeller turbine.

Q: Name the types of turbines used at Terbela and Mangla?

A: Francis turbines

61

Q: Why governors are used at power plants?

A: These are used to control the input to turbines under various conditions of load.
 Q: What is an excitor?
A: It is used to supply d.c to the rotor windings of generator.

Q: What are the main parts of a Francis turbine?

A:
i) Draft tube
ii) Scroll case
iii) Runner.

Q: What are main parts of impulse turbine?

A: Runner and nozzles.

62

POWER TRANSMISSION
 Q: What is transmission system?
A: It is a medium through which electrical energy is transferred from generating
stations to load centers.

Q: Why the need of transmission arise?

A: Because sources of electrical energy generation are usually available at
remote places.

Q: What are the advantages of transmission network?

A:
i) A saving is made in the amount of spare generating capacity.
ii) Economic load scheduling becomes possible.
iii) Generating stations can be more easily sighted to suit location of fuel,
cooling water etc.
iv) Reliability of the system is increased.

Q: What are the components of a transmission system?

A: Transformers, line conductors, insulators and towers etc.

Q: Give a few types of conductors used?

A:
i) AAC - All aluminum conductor
ii) AAAC - All aluminum alloy conductor.
iii) ACSR - All aluminum conductor steel reinforced.
iv) ACAR - All aluminum conductor alloy reinforced.

Q: How lines are classified?

A: These are usually classified according to length as short lines upto 80 Km.
Medium lines upto to 240 km. Long lines over 240 Km.

Q: What are the factors with complicate the calculation of the resistance of line?
A:
i) Skin effect
ii) Stranding
iii) Temp.

63

Q: Why stranded conductors are used?

 A: In order to make it flexible, so that I can be rolled.

Q: What are bundle conductors?

A: Sometimes in order to increase the effective diameters of the conductor two,
three, four or more conductors are used in one phase,. These are placed at the
vertices of a line, triangle or square with the help of spacers. These are
called bundle conductors.

Q: What are the advantages of bundle conductors?

A:
i) They have low reactance and hence better voltage regulation and system
stability.
ii) Due to higher effective diameter, effects of corona are reduced.

Q: Why transmission lines are transposed?

A: To balance the parameters of lines.

Q: What is transposition?
A: It is the exchange of the position of the conductors at regular intervals along the
line so that each conductor occupies the original position of every other
conductor over an equal distance.

Q: What are the modes of electric power transmission?

A: Electrical energy is transmitted through.

i) Overhead lines
ii) Underground cables
iii) High voltage d.c transmission.

Q: How overhead lines are compared with underground cables?

A:
i) Overhead lines are less costly than underground cables.
ii) Underground cables are immune to natural hazards and are safe.
iii) Underground cables draw large amount of charging
current as compared to overhead lines.
iv) Overhead lines do not need cooling, while cooling
is necessary in cable system.

64

Q: How HVDC is accomplished?

 A: A.C is generated, stepped up, converted to d.c and is transmitted. At
receiving and D.c is again converted to a.c and is stepped down to load
voltage.
Q: Name the device which is used for rectifying/inverting in HVDC scheme?
A: Mercury are rectifier or SCR.

Q: What is the cause of major problems in a.c transmission?

A:
i) Voltage regulation
ii) Corona
iii) Stability
iv) Fault levels.

Q: What is the cause of major problems in a.c lines?

A: The reactance of the line.

Q: How the major problems are solved in HVDC schemes?

A: Since the major problems in a.c lines are due to reactance of lines, so these
are automatically solved in HVDC scheme since in d.c there is no reactance.

Q: What is break-even distance?

A: It is distance at which the cost of d.c line becomes equal to a.c line. At the
moment it is 600 km.

Q: What are the transmission voltages in Pakistan?

A: 132 kV, 220 kV and 500 kV.

Q: What is surge impedance?

A: It is the impedance offered by the lines to the transient currents. It is also
called the characteristic impedance. It is given by Zc = √Z/y

Q: What is surge impedance loading?

A: It is the amount of power transmitted, if the resistive load whose resistanceis
equal to the surge impedance of the line is put on the line.

Q: Why SIL is a useful concept?

A: It is useful to measure the capacity of the lines.

65

Q: What is Ferranti effect?

 A: If a line is open circuited at receiving end, then receiving end voltage
becomes higher than sending end voltage, then this is called Ferranti effect.

Q: What is the charging current?

A: It is the current drawn by an open circuit line.

Q: Why charging current flow?

A: To charge the capacitance’s of the lines.

Q: How capacitance’s are formed in lines?

A:
i) Between phase conductors
ii) Between a phase conductors and earth.

Q: How transmission lines are represented electrically?

A: Short lines are represented by an inductance; medium lines are representedby
either nominal T or nominal π.

Q: What are lumped parameters?

A: For medium and short lines it is assumed that inductance and capacitance are
concentrated at one point. These concentrated parameters are called lumped
parameters.

Q: Why long line solution is called exact solution?

A: Because the parameters are not supposed to be lumped, but the distributed
parameters are taken.

Q: What is hyperbolic solution of long lines?

A: The exact solution of long lines is called hyperbolic because in the solution
hyperbolic functions are involved.

Q: Name the type of insulators used in over-head transmission lines?

A:
i) Suspension type
ii) Strain type
iii) Cap and pin type.
iv) Langstab type.

66

Q: Name the material of these insulators?

A:
i) Glazed porcelain
ii) Toughened glass

Q: What is creepage?
A: The path through which leakage current flows.

Q: Why insulators are make with complex shapes?

A: To increase the creepage.

Q: How an insulator is represented electrically?

A: By a capacitance.

Q: Sometimes insulators are installed at an angle of 45o to the vertical why?

A: So as to wash automatically during rain.

Q: Why insulators should be mechanically strong?

A: Because it carries the weight of conductor.

Q: Name the types o stresses which are produced in insulators?

A:
i) Impulse test
ii) One minute power frequency wet test
iii) Thermal.

Q: How thermal stresses are produced?

A: Due to the passage of leakage current.

Q: Name the types of tests which an insulator of an overhead line should pas?
A:
i) Impulse test
ii) One minute power frequency wet test.
iii) Corona free test.

Q: Why the voltage drop occur in lines?

A: Due to the impedance of lines.

67

Q: How change in voltage is related with reactive power?

 A: It is directly proportional to reactive power.

Q: Name the elements of transmission system which absorb reactive power?

A: Transformers, lines, reactive element of the load and the generator.

Q: Name the elements of transmission system which generate reactive power?

A: Capacitance of line, and capacitive element of the load.

Q: If the reactive power generated by the system is equal to the reactive

power absorbed by the system. What effect on the voltage will occur?
A: No voltage drop will occur.

Q: What is the value of voltage regulation of lines at light loads?

A: It is positive i.e. receiving end voltage is less than sending end voltage.

Q: How the deficiency of reactive power is compensated in lines?

A: By installing shunt reactors.

Q: Describe a few devices which are used for voltage control of lines?
A:
i) Static capacitors
ii) Synchronous condensers
iii) Saturated reactors
iv) Regulating and tap changing transformers.

Q: How static capacitors are compared with synchronous compensators?

A:
i) The response of static capacitors is quick.
ii) Static capacitors has low cost.
iii) Static capacitors do not contribute to the fault.

68
 Q: What are the problems in the use of saturated reactors as voltage control
device?
A: They generate harmonics.

Q: How harmonic are removed?

A:
i) Using filters
ii) Providing a delta connected secondary windings in three phase saturated
reactors.
iii) Increasing pulse nunnery in HVDC scheme.

Q: What is statutory limit of voltage change?

A: ± 6% change in voltage is allowable.

Q: How the capacitors are connected for compensation purposes?

A:
i) Series.
ii) Parallel.

Q: What are the problems of series compensated line?

A:
i) Voltage rise across the capacitor during fault
ii) To by pass fault current.
iii) Subsynchronous resonance.

Q: What is Subsynchronous resonance?

A: The addition of series capacitor establishes a series resonant circuit that may
oscillate at a frequency below normal frequency because of any disturbance.

Q: What is range of shunt compensation on EHV lines?

A: 0 – 90%.

Q: How the problems of Subsynchronous resonance is solved?

A: Special relaying and series blocked filters are used.

Q: How long lines are compensated?

A: Long lines are divided into sections and compensation is installed between
the sections.

69

Q: What are transients?

A: These are voltages/currents produced in the network due to switching/lighting.
 Q: What are the causes of over voltages?
A:
1. Opening and closing of circuit breakers
2. Faults.
3. Resonance.

Q: What is the range of current in lighting flash?

A: The peak value of current in lightning flash may be in the range of 1-220 K But
mostly lies in the range of 5 to 100 KA with average value of about.
20 KV

Q: How lightning causes over voltage?

A:
i) By a direct stroke to a phase conductor
ii) By a direct stroke to an earth wire or tower.
iii) By indirect stroke.

Q: Why ground w3ire is used over the top of towers?

A: To protector the lines against lightning stroke.

Q: What are surge diverters?

A: Surge diverter is a device which is used to limit the magnitude of over voltages.

Q: Describe the various types of surge diverters?

A: The simplest form is rod gap. An improvement is the expulsion tube or gaps
which is also called protector tube. A more improved form is the lightning
arrestors. A highly improved form is zine – oxide lightning arrestors.

Q: Explain the working of expulsion tube type surge diverter?

A: There is an expulsion tube which consists of a spark gap in a fiber tube. When a
spark over occurs between the electrodes of the tube the follow on current arc is
contained in the relatively small fiber tube. The high temperature of the arc
vaporizes some of the organic material on the walls of the tube. Causing a high
gas pressure to build up in the tube. This gas possesses high turbulence and it
extinguished the arc.

70

Q: What is the principle of operation of a lighting arrestor?

 A: A porcelain bushing contains a number of spark gaps in series with silicon
carbide discs. These discs possess low resistance to high currents and high
resistance to low currents. The over voltage breaks down the gaps and the the
power frequency current is determined by the discs and lauded to such a value
that gaps can quickly interrupt it at the firs current zero.

Q: How the problem of non-uniform voltage distribution between the gaps is

solved?
A: Capacitors and non-liner resistors are connected in parallel across each gap.

Q: What is corona?
A: The high voltages at which lines operate produces electric field strength of
sufficient intensity to ionize the air near the phase conductor. This effect is
called corona.

Q: What are the undesirable features of corona?

A:
i) Audible noise.
ii) Power loss
iii) Radio interference

Q: At what value of electric field strength corona starts?

A: 5 k V Cm to 10 kV/Cm.

Q: What are the components of audible noise due to corona?

A: 120 Hz hum and random noise.

71

Q: Upon what factors corona depends?

 A:
i) Whether.
ii) Surface of conductor
iii) Humidity etc.

Q: Why interference in communication takes place duet to corona?

A: Because the corona current is pulsatory in nature. The frequency spectrum of
these pulses cover a considerable portion of radio frequency band. The
electromagnetic field resulting from corona discharges may, therefore, create
disturbances in the operation of communication lines.

Q: What is span?
A: Horizontal distance between two consecutive towers is called span.

Q: What is sag?
A: The vertical distance between the conductor at maid point and the line
joining the two adjacent level supports is known as sag.

Q: How sag is calculated?

A:
i) Parabolic method.
ii) Catenary’s method.

Q: What are the forces acting on a conductor?

A:
i) Weight of conductor
ii) Ice loading
iii) Wind pressure.

Q: What is effective loading?

A: The combined effect of ice and wind loading is called effective loading.

72
 POWER SYSTEM ANALYSIS

Q: What is load flow study?

A: Load flow study is performed to find:
i) Flow of active power and reactive power in the branches of network.
ii) Busbar voltages.
iii) Effects of rearranging circuits and incorporating new circuits on system loading.
iv) Effects of temporary loss of generation and transmission circuits on system
loading.
v) Effects of injecting in-phase and quadrature boost voltages on system loading.
vi) Optimum system running conditions and load distribution.
vii) Optimum system losses.
viii) Optimum rating and tap range of transformers.
ix) Improvement from change of conductors size and system voltage.

Q: Why iterative methods are used for load flow?

A: Because of the conditions specified at the bus bars. Most of the values are
unknown e.g. at a PQ busbar voltage and its angle is not known.

Q: Name the types of busbars in the system?

A:
i) Slack or reference busbar, voltage and its magnitude is specified
ii) Load busbars, P and Q are specified
iii) Generation busbar, P and V are specified

Q: Why slack busbar is called reference bus?

A: Since the voltage angle of the slack bus bar is normally chosen of zero and is
reference for the system.

Q: What is an admittance matrix?

A: It is an nxn matrix, where n is the number of nodes. Its entries on principal
diagonal are short circuit driving point admittances at node i. The off-
diagonal entries are short circuit transfer admittances between nodes i and j.

Q: Name the methods generally used for load flow study?

A: Gauss-sidle and Newton Rap son methods.

73

Q: How you will use these methods?

 A:
i) Gauss needs large number iteration while Newton-Rap son needs only a few
iteration.
ii) Gauss sidle does not involve a matrix inversion while in Newton Rap son
inverse of Jacobian matrix is required.
iii) Newton Rap son require a good estimate of starting values.

Q: What is mismatch?
A: It is the difference between specified value and calculated value.

74

POWER SYSTEM STABILITY

 Q: What is stability of a system?
A: It is its ability of system to return to normal or stable operation after having
been subjected to some from of disturbance.

Q: Name the types of disturbances which may occur in a system?

A:
i) Faults.
ii) Sudden change of load
iii) An important item of plant being tripped due to an overload condition etc.
Q: What are the types of stability?
A:
i) Response to major disturbance known as transient stability.
ii) Behavior under steady state conditions known as steady state stability.
iii) Long term stability i.e. recovery when loads are rearrange or dropped.

Q: What is the steady state stability?

A: It is basically the ability of the power system when operating under given
conditions to retain synchronism when subjected to small disturbance. such
as continual change in load or generation and switching out of lines.

Q: What is the criteria of steady state stability?

A: Rate of change power with rotor angle should be positive.

Q: What is steady state limit?

A: It is the maximum power that can be transmitted in a network between
sources and loads when system is subjected to small disturbances.

Q: What is power angle diagram?

A: It is the curve between electrical power output and rotor angle.

Q: What is an equal area Criterion?

A: If the energy stored in the system during accelerating period is equal energy
extracted from the system during de-accelerating period then system will
become stable. This is called equal are criterion, because the energies in power
angle diagram can be represented by area under the curves.

75

Q: What is critical clearing angle?

 A: It is the angle, at which if the fault is cleared, the system becomes critically
stable.

Q: What is inertia constant?

A: It is the ratio of kinetic energy of all rotating parts at synchronous speed to three
phase rating of the machine.

Q: Describe the methods of improving steady state and transient state stabilityof
the system?
A:
i) By decreasing the generator reactance.
ii) Using damper windings.
iii) Using fast clearing circuit breaker.
iv) By decreasing transmission lines reactance
v) By earthling the transformers neutral through a low resistance.

76

FAULT ANALYSIS

Q: Name the types of faults which my occur in power system?

A: The symmetrical faults and unsymmetrical faults.
Q: What are symmetrical faults?
A: These are
i) Three phase short circuit and
ii) Three phase short circuit to ground.

Q: Why the symmetrical faults are called balanced faults?

A: Because the system remains balance on the occurrence of these faults

Q: What are unsymmetrical faults?

A: These are
i) Single line to ground fault
ii) Line to line fault
iii) Double line to ground fault.

Q: What are the causes of faults?

A:
i) Mechanical like a tree falling/accidents etc.
ii) Lighting
iii) Insulation failure.
iv) Due to mal-operation.
v) Birds and insects.

Q: State the assumption made while making a fault study?

A:
i) Phase shift due to Y transformers is assumed to zero.
ii) Shunt impedance are neglected.
iii) Load currents are neglected.

Q: Name the components which contribute to the fault?

A:
i) Generators
ii) Synchronous/induction motors.

Q: How motors contribute to the fault?

A: Because the motors under fault conditions act as generator.

77

Q: Why the fault contribution from an induction motor is neglected?

A: Contribution from an induction motor is neglected because its contribution is
very small and persist for a very small time but the contribution from a large
concentrated group is not neglected.

Q: Name methods of calculating fault currents?

A:
 i) Calculating the voltages behind the sub-transient reactances of each machine
ii) Using thevinins’s theorem.
iii) Using topological method.
iv) Forming a Z bus.
v) Using a node elimination method.

Q: How you will compare these methods?

A: The method of forming Z bus is the best.

Q: What are symmetrical components?

A: An unbalance three phase system can be represented by three balance
system called the symmetrical components of original unbalance system.

Q: How symmetrical components are designated?

A:
i) Positive sequence component
ii) Negative sequence components and zero sequence components.

Q: What are positive sequence components?

A: These are three phase balance voltage/current system have same phase
sequence as the original unbalance system.

Q: What are negative sequence components?

A: These are three currents/voltages having equal magnitude and no phase
difference.

Q: What are the advantages of symmetrical components?

A: The solution of unbalance circuits becomes easy.

Q: What are sequence impedance?

A: These are the impedances offered to the sequence current, accordingly these are
called positive, negative and zero sequence impedance.

78

Q: What are sequence networks?

A: A positive sequence network is that which consists of positive sequence
impedance of all components and positive sequence voltage is applied to it.

Q: What is the connection of sequence networks for a three phase symmetrical

fault?
 A: They are not connected.

Q: How sequence networks are connected during a line to line fault?

A: The positive and negative sequence networks are connected in parallel and zero
sequence network is not connected.

Q: How sequence networks are connected during a line to ground fault?

A: They are connected in parallel.

Q: What are methods of calculating unsymmetrical fault current?

A: All the methods of calculating symmetrical fault currents are applicable.

Q: What is a fault levels?

A: It is the measure of fault current at any point in the system. It is usually
expressed in MVA and is the product of voltage at the point of fault before the
occurrence of fault, fault current and √3. It is also called short circuit MVA.

Q: What are the problems due to high fault levels?

A:
i) Circuit breakers of high rating are to used
ii) Fast fault clearing is required.

Q: How fault levels are controlled?

A:
i) Using reactors.
ii) Making the reactors of transformers and generators relatively high
iii) Using fuse limiters.
iv) Using short circuit limiting coupling.

79

POWER SYSTEM PROTECTION.

Q: What is the necessary of system protection?

A: Many kinds of fault develop in the system, due to which system may be
damaged.

Q: Name the types of faults which may occur in the system?

A:
 i) Symmetrical faults.
ii) Unsymmetrical faults.

Q: What are symmetrical faults?

A: These are three phase dead short circuit or three phase to ground short
circuit faults.

Q: Why these are called symmetrical?

A: Because the system becomes unbalanced during these faults.

Q: Name the important items of a protection scheme?

A:
i) Relay.
ii) Circuit breaker.
iii) CT.
iv) PT.

Q: What is a relay?
A: It is a key component. It receives information from the system and convey it to
circuit breaker by performing one or two switching operations.

Q: Name the characteristics of a relay?

A:
i) Reliability
ii) Selectivity.
iii) Sensitivity.
iv) Speed.
v) Instancy.

80

Q: What are the types of relay?

A: These are classified according to construction, function and application.
According to construction they are electromagnetic type and solid state type.
These are also classified as over current, over voltage, ground fault relay and
IDMT relays.
Q: What are IDMT relays?
A: These are inverse definite minimum time delay relay.

Q: What are two quantities of an IDMT relay?

A: These are plug multiplier setting and time multiplier setting.

Q: Where IDMT relays are used?

A: These are used in feeder for over-current protection.

Q: Is it possible to adjust the intentional time delays in relays?

A: Yes, it is possible in induction disc type relays.

Q: Name the type of relay which operate on two inputs?

A: The induction cup relay.

Q: Write down a general relay equation?

A: T = Ka A2 + Kh B2 + KcAB Cos (Q-t) – Ks.

Where Ka, Kh, Kc are adjustable gain constant,

t, is adjustable phase constant.
A, Is RMS value of input signal.
B, is a second input similar to A.
Q, is phase shift between A and B.

Q: What are the standard values of voltage and current at which relays operate?
A: These are 120 V and 5 A.

Q: How relays receive these signal from the system?

A: Relays receive voltage from PT and current from CT.

Q: What are CT and PT?

A: These are called instrument transformers. CT is used to step down the
current and PT is used to step down the voltage.

81

Q: What is CT burden?
A: It is the terminating secondary impedance in ohms. Sometimes it is expressed in
volt-amperes at a specified voltage or current and power factor.

Q: What is CT error?
A: The CT error is the percentage of mismatch between the input current ( in
secondary terms) and the output current.
Q: Upon what factor CT error depends?
A:
i. CT current.
ii. Terminating impedance.

Q: What is a linear coupler?

A: It is an air core CT.

Q: How secondary voltage of a CT is related with primary current?

A: It is proportional to primary current.

Q: How you will compare a CT with linear coupler?

A: CTs are used upto 132 KV and linear couplers are used above 132 KV.

Q: What are the effects of CT error on protection?

A: Due to large CT errors relay becomes under reach.

Q: What is a capacitive potential divider?

A: It is a device to scale down the system voltage.

Q: What are the applications of potential dividers?

A: PT are used up to 132 KV. At 220 KV and above potential dividers are used in
combination with PTs.

Q: What are the standard CT ratios?

A: 50:5, 100:5, 200:5, 400:5, 600:5, 800:5, 120:5, etc.

Q: Why circuit interruption is a complicated problem?

A: When two current carrying contact first part, a voltage instantly appears
between the contact. Since the contacts start infinitesimally close together, large
voltage gradients occur in the medium between the contact at even moderate
voltage if this gradient occur for any applicable time, lionization will occurs the
medium, making it a gaseous conductor, and current flow will co use. This
current flow will immediately heat the conduction path to extremely high
temperatures radiating intense light and heat. The heat produced will sustain the
ionization and thus complicating the interruption.

82

Q: What is an Electric arc?

A: IT is a visible conduction path (through air or a gas) consisting of ionized hot
gases.
Q: Does an arc possesses certain amount of resistance?
A: Yes.

Q: In a D.C circuit 100 V are applied. Assume that switch in this circuit is opened
at t=0 when the switch contacts are close together say 0.01mn.
What is the voltage gradient?

A: It 100/.001 = 100KV/ cm.

Q: What are the usual methods of arc quenching?

A: By lengthening of the arc.

Q: What is a circuit breaker?

A: It is a mechanical device breading and enclosing a circuit under all conditions.

Q: How arc is extinguished?

A: It is forced into elongated path.
i. By interaction with magnetic field
ii. By a stream of air.
iii. By Oil.
iv. By SF6 etc.

Q: Describe the different types of circuit breakers?

A:
i. Magnetic blow out circuit breakers.
ii. Air blast circuit breakers.
iii. Oil circuit breakers.
iv. SF6 circuit breakers.
v. D.C circuit breakers.
vi. Vacuum circuit breakers.

83

Q: What are more important ratings of a power circuit breaker?

A:
i. Nominal rated voltage
ii. Low frequency RMS voltage
iii. Impulse crest voltage.
iv. Continuous current.
v. Momentary current.
vi. Interrupting rating.
vii. Interrupting time.

Q: What is an Auto-recloser?
A: It is a circuit breaker which has built in instrument transformers and relay. It
sense the over-current and opens instantaneously or after an intentional time
delay. After a short interval of 20 cycles it recluses. If the fault persists, it again
trips and wait for about 15 seconds, closes again and trip again if the fault
persists. After a third interval of about 45 seconds it again closes for last time. If
the fault persists it opens and locks out.

Q: Where reclosers are used?

A: These are used in distribution circuit.

Q: What are model case circuit breakers?

A: These have a dual trip operation, a thermal trip like fuse and other is an
electromagnetic trip.

Q: Where model case circuit breakers depend?

A: In low voltage circuits.

Q: On what phenomena A. C circuit breakers depend?

A: They depend upon the fact A.C current goes through zero every half cycle.

Q: On what base breakers are designed?

A: They are designed to recover their dielectric strength faster than, the voltage
stress across their open contacts can build, otherwise restrike occurs.

84

Q: What is a sequence filter?

A: When system becomes unbalance, then it contains zero sequence negative
sequence current. The circuits used to filter out these are called sequence filter.

Q: Where a negative sequence filter is used?

A: It is used to detect and protect the generator against unbalancing.
Q: What is a bus protection?
A: It is used to protect switches, disconnects, instrument transformer, circuit
breakers and the bus itself.

Q: What should be the qualities of bus protection?

A: IT should be fast, reliable and secure.

Q: Why bus protection is so important?

A: Because loss of an important bus could adversely affect the system.

Q: Which scheme is used in bus protection?

A: The differential current scheme is used.

Q: How transformers are protected?

A: Differential current schemes are used.

Q: What are major problems in protecting transformers?

A:
i. To choose proper CT ratio.
ii. The transformer magnetizing and inrush current.

Q: How the mal-operation against transformer magnetizing and inrush current in

avoided?
A: These are transient currents and contain harmonics. So harmonics filters are
used.

Q: List the types of fault s which may occur in a transformer?

A:
i. Phase to phase fault.
ii. Internal fault.
iii. Phase to ground fault, etc.

85

Q: How transformers are protected against earth fault?

A: An earth fault relay is used.

Q: How the phase shift of ± 300 is encountered in transformer?

A: The star side CTs are delta connected and delta side CTs are star connected.
Q: List the types of problems encountered in a generator protection?
A: Verload.
i. Stator winding shorts
ii. Stator voltage unbalance.
iii. Bearing overheating.
iv. Loss of excitation.
v. Field ground fault.
vi. Loss of synchronism.
vii. Motoring.
viii. Over-voltage.
ix. Over speed.

Q: List the types of internal fault which may occur in a generator?

A:
i. Turn to turn
ii. Phase to phase.
iii. Phase to ground.

Q: How generators are protected against internal faults?

A: Differential relaying techniques are used.

Q: How the generators are protected when unbalances exist at the stator terminal?
A: Ann unbalance voltage system can be decomp9ose into symmetrical
components. The positive sequence components produces a revolving field that
revolves in the same direction and with same velocity as rotor so no relative
speed exists and no voltage is induced. However negative sequence quantities
produce a magnetic field in a direction opposite to the rotor with a relative
speed of double the rotor speed. Due to this double frequency, voltage and
current are produced in windings and iron.. Due to which machine is over
heated. To protect machine under condition negative sequence filters are used.

86

Q: How overheating of bearing is detected?

A: Temperature of lubricating oils are monitored with thermocouples and relays
are used to actuate an alarm if they are excessive.

Q: How the loss of excitation is detected?

A: Generators are easily overexcited to deliver reactive power to the system. When
loss of excitation fails the flow of reactive power revises i.e. generators absorb
reactive power.
Q: What are the consequences of loss of excitation?
A:
i. Drop of voltage.
ii. The flow of Q reversed.
iii. Impedance becomes capacitive.

Q: How the field ground faults are detected?

A: Field winding is not grounded. If any point is grounded no current will flow, but
winding will be stressed and a second ground fault may occur due to which,
i. The are will burn the rotor at fault points.
ii. Parts of rotor winding may carry abnormal currents.
iii. The magnetic field will become unbalance.

Q: What is done when first ground fault occur in field winding?

A: An alarm is actuated.

Q: What is done when second ground fault occur in field winding?

A: Field circuit breaker is open.

Q: How loss of synchronism is detected?

A: By the over speed protection of the prime-movers, over frequency relays are
also employed.

Q: How generators are protected against the fault in the system i.e. external fault?
A: Over-current protection is used.

87

Q: What are the consequences of reversal of real power flow i.e. motoring?
A:
i. Turbine blade overheating.
ii. Cavitations with hydraulic turbine.
iii. Back fire and fire hazard with diesel engines.

Q: How the problem of reversal of real power is corrected?

A: Using directional relays.

Q: How the generators are protected against excessive stator voltage?

A: Field regulators are sued.

Q: How short radial lines are protected?

A: With the help of over-current relays (IDMT relays).

Q: What are the factors which complicate the feeder protection using over current
relays?
A:
i. Motor-starting current.
ii. Transformer inrush current.
iii. CT error.
iv. D.C offset.

Q: What is a distance relay?

A: It is also called as ratio relay because it sees the ratio V/I. IT is also called
impedance relay. Because V/I = Z. It actually see the impedance between the
point of fault and relay location.

Q: What is a distance relay?

A: It is a modified form of impedance relay. It is a directional relay.

Q: How is the characteristic of an impedance relay?

A: IT is a circle.

Q: What are the ranges of three zone distance protection?

A: Zone on is up to 80% of the line. Zone two is up to 120% of the line. Zone three
is up to 120% of the longest line emanating from the next bus at which the line
(at which relay is situated) is terminated.

88

Q: How distance protection provides a back up protection?

A: Since it has three zones. If zone 1 protection fails, the zone 2 protection works.

Q: Where distance protection is used?

A: For the protection of transmission lines.

Q: What are the advantages of distance protection?

A: This is a non-unit protection and protects the system as a whole.
Q: What is a drawback of distance protection in large system?
A: If a fault occurs at point within 20% from both ends. This fault is seen in zone 1
time form one end and zone 2 times from other end, which may cause the
instability of the system.

Q: What is pilot relaying?

A: Pilot relaying means remote control circuit breakers.

Q: What re the advantages of pilot relaying?

A: It has very high speed due to which

i. Minimum damage to equipment occurs.

ii. Minimum stability problem.
iii. Automatic reclosing.

Q: What are the basic communication channels used to carry the information in
pilot relaying?
A:
i. Separate electrical circuits, frequently telephone circuits.
ii. Power line carriers.
iii. Microwave.

Q: Why the pilot wire relaying is applied to protected the feeders of les then – 18
Km?
A: Because the open circuit impedance and short circuit impedance of pilots
become equal at a length greater than 48 km and it becomes difficult to
distinguish between external and internal faults.

Q: What is impedance seen at the terminal for external fault?

A: It is half of shot circuit impedance of one pilot.

89

Q: What is the impedance seen at the terminal. Or an internal fault?

A: It is half of the open circuit impedance of an pilot.

Q: Which type of comparison in made in power line carrier scheme?

A: Phase comparison is made.

Q: What is the phase relation between CT secondary current for external or through
fault?
A: They are opposite in phase.

Q: Describe the factor s which relation between CT secondary current for internal
fault?
A: They are in phase.

Q: Describe the factors which then to reduce the tripping angles of power line
carrier scheme from 1800?
A:
i. Liner length.
ii. Transformer and other sending equipment.

Q: Explain why two stage starting is required in P.L.C scheme?

A: To avoid the interference with radio and T.V.

Q: Which type of comparison is made is microwave relaying

A: Directional comparison.

Q: What are the advantages of microwave relaying?

A: Considerable amount of information can be broadcasted in one beam.

Q: What are the disadvantages of microwave relaying?

A:
i. It suffers from atmospheric disturbance and fade.
ii. Broadcast is possible line of sight between directional dish antennas.

Q: In power line carrier which is used a communication circuit?

A: Transmission line it self is used.

Q: How the signals are applied?

A: Signals are applied to all phases through an L.C voltage divider.

90

Q: What frequency range is used in P.L.C schemes?

A: Frequency ranges from 30 to 200 KHZ.

Q: How the signs are confined to the desired line?

A: By L.C blocking filters called line traps.

Q: It is possible to use optical fiber in place of transmission line as communication

circuit?
A: Yes, it is possible.

Q: What are the advantages of optical fiber communication?

A: Large amount of information can be sent without atmospheric disturbances and
fading problems.

Q: Does the computer replace a relay?

A: Yes, since a relay is a logic unit, it can be replaced by pre-programme
microprocessor.

Q: What is digital protection?

A: Protection made with the help of digital computers is called digital protection.

Q: What is principle of operation of a fuse?

A: It is designed so that I2 R heating in the link at or above a predetermined current
is sufficient to melt the link and interrupt the current.

Q: What are the factors which must be considered before applying a fuse for
particular application?
A:
i. Voltage rating.
ii. Continuous current rating.
iii. Time response.
iv. Interrupting-current rating.

Q: What are time current characteristics of a power fuse?

A: It is relating between the current at which a fuse melts and time taken to
interrupt this current.

91

Q: What are the types of fuse mountings?

A:
i. Open type.
ii. Enclosed type.
iii. Spring type.

Q: What are the advantages of uses?

A:
i. They are economical.
ii. They don not require relays/instrument transformers.
iii. They are available in large range of sizes and can be designed as reusable
devices with replaceable links

Q: What are disadvantages of fuses?

A: They are not suitable for remote control and multiple switches operation.

Q: Which material is used for use wire?

A:
i. Lead tin alloy.
ii. Tinned copper.
iii. Silver.
iv. Gold
v. Copper, aluminum, Antimony, etc.

Q: Why silver an gold are not used generally?

A: Because they are costly.

Q: Which is an ideal fuse?

A: A silver fuse, because it is not oxidized.

Q: What is current rating of a fuse?

A: IT is the value of current which a fuse element carries without melting.

Q: What is the proportion of lead/tin in the standard fuse wire?

A: 63% lead and 37% tin.

Q: What is the function of fuse?

A:
i. To carry the normal working current safely without heating.
ii. To protection the circuit in case of faults.

92

ILLUMINATION

Q: Define luminous flux?

A: It is the light energy emitted from the body per second in the form of luminous
light waves. It is measured in lumens.

Q: What is luminous intensity?

A: It is also called candle power. It is the luminous flux radiated per unit solid
angle in any particular direction. Its units are candela.

Q: What is illumination?
A: It is also called photometric brightness.
It is a measure of luminous flux reflected from an object and has units of
candela/m2
Q: What is contrast?
A: It is related to the luminance of an object and its immediate background. It is
defined as:

L0 - Lb
C=
Lb
Where L0 = Luminance of object, cd/m2
Lb = Luminance of background, cd/m2

Q: What is reflectance?
A: It is the ratio between luminance and luminance.

Q: What is sphere illumination?

A: It is the theoretical illumination on task from source which provides equal
luminous intensity from all directions.

Q: What is equivalent sphere illumination?

A: It is the sphere illumination which would provide same visibility for a given
task as is produced by the actual lighting conditions in the room.

93

Q: What is contrast rendition factor?

A To measure contrast in equivalent sphere illumination the CRF is defined as

Actual Visual task contrast in building

CRF =
Visual task contrast with sphere illumination

Q: State the laws of illumination?

A:
i. The illumination is directly proportional to the luminous intensity.
ii. The illumination of a surface if inversely proportional to the square of the
distance of the surface form source.

Q: What are the main components of al lighting system?

A:
i. Balast
ii. Reflector
iii. Lamp
iv. Lens
v. Control.

Q: Name the principal lamp types.?

A:
i. Incandescent
ii. Fluorescent
iii. Mercury vapor
iv. Metal halide
v. Sodium vapor
vi. Tungsten

Q: Describe the construction and principle of working of incandescent lamp?

A: It consist of resistive filament contained within an evacuated glass bulb
containing a trace of inert gas. When energized the flow of current causes the
tungsten filament to heat up and reach a high temperature, whereby light and
heat is emitted.

Q: How much electrical energy is converted to light/heat in an incandesce

Lamp?
A: 5% is converted to light

94

Q: What is normal operating temperature range of 100 watt bulb?

A: 200 - 2500C.

Q: What is ballast?
A: It is an inductor which provides an initial high voltage pulse to initiate the
discharge through a conducting gas or vapour.

Q: Describe the construction of a fluorescent tube?

A: It is in the form of a glass tube with an electrode at each end. The tube contains
mercury vapour, a small amount of inert gas and fluorescent powder lining the
walls of the tube.

Q: Describe the working of a fluorescent tube?

A: When a sufficiently high voltage is applied an arc is produced by the current
flowing between the electrodes and through the mercury vapour. This discharge
generates some visible radiation, but mostly ultraviolet radiation; it is the
ultraviolet which causes the phosphors to fluoresce.

Q: Name the popular phosphor with lamp colour?

A: Calcium tugstate Blue
Zinc silicate Green
Cadmium borate Pink
Cadmium Silicate Yellow – Pink.

Q: Describe a typical mercury vapour lamp?

A: Typically there are two electrodes and a starter electrode. When voltage is
applied to the starter electrode, argon gas in ionized and an arc is formed. The
arc vaporizers the mercury and eventually an arc occur thought the mercury.

Q: Describe a metal halide lamp?

A: These are similar to mercury vapour lamp except they contain various metal
halides when lamp reaches operating temperature, the metal halide dis-
associates into metal plus halogen.

Q: Describe the principle of working of sodium vapour lamp?

A: IT operates on the principle of an electric current flowing through sodium
vapour. In high pressure sodium vapour lamp, energy is radiated over a band of
wave lengths. Sodium lamp requires a special blast, capable of providing a high
voltage for initiating the arc.

95

Q: What are the functions of choke/ballast in a fluorescent tube?

A:
i. It gives a surge of voltage at the instant of starting
ii. To drop the excess voltage
iii. To limit the current.

Q: What is function of starter in a tube?

A: It makes and breaks the circuit so that choke may induce high voltage.
Q: What the type of starter?
A:
i. Thermal type
ii. Glow type.

Q: Why the efficiency of florescent tube is high?

A: Because the invisible radiation is converted into visible because of phosphors.

Q: Describe the type of incandescent lamps?

A:
i. Carbon filament
ii. Metal filament
iii. Caron arc

Q: Why vacuum/inert gas if filled in candescent lamps?

A: To avoid the filament from oxidation.

Q: What do you mean by HPMV lamp?

A: It is high pressure mercury vapour lamp.

Q: What is relation between the light emitted by incandescent lamp and HPMV
lamp?
A: HPMV lamp gives 2.5 to 3 time more light.

Q: What is life of an incandescent lamps?

A: 750 hours to 10000 hours.

Q: What is the life of a fluorescent lamps?

A: 75000 - 112,000 hours.

96

Q: Draw energy balance of fluorescent lamp?

A: 21% light, 37% infrared and 42% heat.

Q: What is the life of high pressure sodium lamp?

A: 12000 – 20000 hours.

Q: How the efficiency of lamp is defined?

A: It is taken as lumens/watt.

Q: How you will compare the lamps as regard their efficiency?

A: The lamps in the increasing order of efficiency are incandescent, mercury
vapour and sodium vapour.

Q: What are the draw backs of sodium vapour lamp due to which these are not
used commonly?
A:
i. They produce an intense single – point light which is best utilized at least three
meters above the work plan:
ii. Their ballast produces a low decibel hum.
iii. They have 5 – 15 minute sup period give full light.

Q: Where sodium lamps are used?

A:
i. Fabrication and general shops and work rooms.
ii. Out door lighting.

97

HIGH VOLTAGE

Q: Define the following terms?

i. Spark over
ii. Flash over
iii. Puncture
A: Spark over:
The terminology is used to describe “break down between electrodes” in a gas
or liquid.

Flash over:
Break down between electrodes in a gas or liquid but across a solid surface.

Puncture:
Break down through the volume of a solid dielectric.

Q: Enumerate different methods of solution of Laplacian Equ.

A: These include:
i. Analytical
ii. Direct Experimental
iii. Free hand field mapping.
iv. Analogue
v. Numerical

Q: What is a stepped leader stroke?

A: After the occurance of first streamer, a second streamer occurs. Closely
following the path of first streamer and propagating the ionized channel a little
before it is spent. This process continues a length of ionized channel increase by
10 to 200 m. Because of step like streamer, the process is termed as “Stepped
Leader”.

Q: Define mechanism of traveling wave as a result of indirect stroke?

A: In the indirect stroke induced charges can take place on the line as a result of
close by lightening stroke of ground. Even though the cloud & earth charges are
neutralized through the established cloud-to-earth current path, a charge will be
trapped on the line.

98

Q: Enumerate the factors which give rise to induce charge on transmission line as a
result of an indirect stroke?
A: The magnitude of trapped charge depends upon, or is a function of
i. Initial cloud-to-earth voltage gradient.
ii. Closeness of stroke to the line.

Q: How a traveling wave containing extra energy is encountered in a system?

A: Besides other factors, at raveling wave on the line is dissipated by
i. Attenuation
ii. Leakage
iii. Insulation failure &
iv. Arrestor operation.

Q: What happens in case of a direct stroke to line?

A: In a direct stroke, the lighting current is directly from the cloud to the line,
causing the voltage to rise rapidly at the contact point. This contact point may
be on the top of a tower, on the shield wire or on a line conductor.

Q: Give a brief description of the phenomenon which may occur, when a direct
stroke hits a tower-top?
A: If lighting hits a tower top, some of the current may flow through the shield
wire and remaining current magnitude and rat of rise. The current may flow into
the ground without any harm provided that tower footing resistance is very low.
Otherwise the lightning current will raise the tower top to a high voltage above
ground, causing a flash-over from the tower, over the line insulators to tone or
more phase conductors.

Q: Briefly describe; what happens when a direct stroke hits a line conductor?
A: When lightning hits line directly, the raised voltage at the contact point
propagates in the form of a traveling wave in both the directions and raise the
potential of line to the voltage of downward leader. It may further caused
insulation failure.

Q: What is a “back flash”?

A: When lightning strikes an over head ground wire it is possible that arcing from
the ground wire to phase conductor may be sustained by a 60 Hz line and can
only be removed by de-energizing the line. This phenomenon is known as “back
flash”.

99

Q: What is dart leader?

A: Following the first or main stroke and after an interval of hundredth of a second,
a second leader prorogates to earth in continuous and raped manner and again a
return stroke follows. This second and subsequent strokes are termed as “dart
leaders”.

Q: Give an expression to estimate the current wave-form a return stroke?

A: This estimated by the expression
i = iL ( e-ai - e – β t )
 where a = 4.4x 10-4 & β = 4.6 x 10-5

The current wave-form so represented rise to its peak in about 6us.

Q: Give an expression to calculate area of shadow for

i. Landative type towers ( i.e. Two ground wire, with horizontal single circuit
configurations) &
ii. For towers having single ground wire

A: The shadow area for towers having double ground wires is given by
W = D + 4H
Where D = Distance between the ground – wire.
H = Average height of ground – wire.

iii. For towers having single ground – wire

D = 0 and
H = Hi -2/3 ( Hi – Hms)
Where Hi = Height of ground wire at the tower.
Hms = Height of ground wire at the mid spar.

Q: Summarize the factors affecting the lightening performance of a transmission

line?
A: These include
i. Isokeraunic level
ii. Magnitude & wave-shape of the stoke currant.
iii. Tower height
iv. Resistance of tower and its footings
v. No & location of over- head ground wire.
vi. Span length
vii. Mind – spend clearance between conductor & over-head ground wire.
viii. Number of insulator units.

100

Q: What is the area of attraction of a tower to an average stroke?

A: This may be expected to be equal to an area around the base of the tower with a
radius of twice the tower height. However an area either side of the earth wire
of 1.5 x effective height of earth-wire x earth-wire length is a reasonable
approximation .This effective heath of earth-wire because of its sag is estimated
as 80% of its height of tower. A phase conductor can be treated in a similar
way.
Q: What is an impulse voltage? What does a 1.2/50 wave mean?
A: An impulse voltage is a uni-directional voltage without appreciable ovulations.
Rises rapidly to a maximum value called peak value and falls less rapidly to
zero. An impulse wave which attains its maximum (Peak) value in 1.2u
seconds and falls to one half of its peak value in 50 us is designated an 1.2/50
wave.

Q: What does “Withstand voltage? Mean?

A: The withstand voltage is a specified voltage level which the equipment will
withstand for a given length of time of in taste of impulse test a specified
number a application. Usually 5 Without a “disruptive failure of insulation”
under electric stress which includes a collapse of voltage and passage of current:
this is sometime termed a peak –over or flash-over when external insulation is
being considered.

Q: Briefly discuss “ 50%, 100% disruptive discharge voltage”?

A: The 50% disruptive discharge voltage (DDV) is the voltage that has 50%
probability of producing a disruptive discharge. The term only has significance
when the loss of electric strength is temporary and applies mostly to impulse
text. Its value is obtained by adjusting the impulse voltage in step of 2-5% on
expected DDV and applying ten impulses at each step. The 100% DDV is the
voltage level at which all impulses applied will cause a disruptive discharge.

Q: On what factor, the disruptive discharge voltage, depends?

A: The DDV of external insulation depend on atmospheric condition and it related
to standard conditions by V (to, ho, bo) = V (k, b, h,) x 1/d x k.
Where V (to, bo, ho) = disruptive discharge voltage under standard
Conditions.

V(t,b,h) = Disruptive discharge voltage under actual conditions.

I/d = Air density correction actor = 0.289 b/273 +t
T = Temperature in Celsius.
B = Atmospheric pressure in milli bars.
K = humidity factor

101

Q: Define,
i. Impulse ratio for flash-over
ii. Impulse ratio for puncture.

A:
 Impulse ratio for flash-over
t is ratio of impulse flash-over voltage to the peak value of power frequency
flash-over voltage.
ii. impulse ratio for puncture;
it is ratio of impulse puncture voltage to the power frequency voltage.

Q: Defined field factor of a sphere-gap?

A: The field factor of a sphere gap expresses the homogeneity of the field. Is
expressed as

ή = Emax./Eav:
where ή = Field factor
Emax = Maximum field strength
Eav: = Average field strength

It has to be close to unit for sphere-gaps to be independent of polarity.

Q: Briefly discuss proximity effects and arc clearances on variation in spark-over

voltages?
A: The spark over voltage variations not only depend upon gap-geometry but also
on proximity of nearby objects. So not only nearby objects influence the spark-
over voltage but heavy current s arc that follows breaks-down of the gap can
cause damage to nearby objects. The heavy current arc is achieved by the
systems. “tripping out”. During the time that it takes the circuit breaker to trip,
heavy current may cause damage to insulator and insulator are in the order of
0.75 x gap width, for the lower voltage decreasing to 0.3 x gap width, for the
higher voltages. The gap disposition should be such that the arc tends to be
glow away from the insulator.

102

Q: Describe the mechanism of over-voltage protection using an expulsion tube

arrestor?

A: An expulsion tube arrestor essentially consists of a spark-gap arranged in a fiber

tube. When an over-voltage occurs spark-over takes place between the
electrodes and arc current is constrained in a small volume. The high
temperature of arc vaporizes the organic material and due to high pressure
 turbulence, the neutral gas extinguishes the arc and hot gases are blasted from
the tube.

Q: To which the current capability of expulsion tube is related and what is its
expression?

A: For standardization and rating purposes. The current interrupting capability is

related to a rate of rise of recovery voltage (RRRV) which takes the form

e = Em (1-e-nt Cos 2 π ft)

where e = Instantaneous value voltage
Em = Peak value of recovery voltage
f = Frequency of oscillation.
t = Time
a = Damping factor.

Q: Give classification of expulsion tube arrestors?

A: They are classified as

Distribution or
Transmission class

Q: How voltage grading is done in case of non-linear resistor type arrestors?

A: To ensure an even voltage distribution it is common practice to place non-linear
resistor in parallel with the taps to control voltage distribution.

103

Q: Describe effectiveness of resistive grading and method to ameliorate the

situation in case of high speed transients?
A: Resistive grading will be effective for power frequency and for slower
switching over-voltages, however under high speed transients, the voltage
distribution across the spark gaps will be mainly controlled by the capacitive
distribution of the gap.
Q: What is meant by discharge current of an arrestor?
A: The term is used for the voltage that appears between the line and earth
terminals during the passage of discharge current.

Q: Enumerate various test required for distribution class surge divertor?

A: These include:

Wave front impulse sparks over.

Maximum discharge residual voltage
High current impulse
Rectangular wave current text.

Q: What is a Peterson coil?

A: The Peterson coil is a sort of ground fault neutralizer. It is some inductance to
limit ground fault current. The generators neutrals are usually earth ed through
this type of coil.

Q: Briefly differentiate between over-voltages caused by the lightening and the

switching.?
A: Lightening over-voltage because of their rapid rate of change and transit time in
the system an produce voltages in parts of the system quite different and at time
substantially higher than those in other parts of the system. Switching over-
voltages because of their greater duration and much hower rate of change cause
all part of the system to rise in voltage together.

Q: How BIL of a transformer is set?

A: The most costly equipment of a system may be a power transformer and as such
BIL of a transformer is usually set on the basis that, there will be surge diverters
at its terminals and is based on the surge diverter X-tics and the margin of
protection required.

104

Q: Give an expression to calculate BIL of a transformer based on switching surge?

A: The goal can be achieved by using BIL = 1.15 x Divertor spark-over or max:
surge voltage/K where K = withstand strength factor in p.u. BIL.

Q: How the minimum BIL for a transformer based on lightning surges is

estimated?
A: This is done by increasing the protective margin to 20% ( i.e factor 1.15 used in
above formula is changed to the said value.

Q: On what factors, the surge break-down in gases depends?

A: Surge break-down depends markedly upon
i. Geometry ( Particularly gap-length)
ii. Surge voltage wave-form.

Q: Describe the variation in surge break-down voltage with increasing gap-length?

A: For short-gap lengths the surge break-down voltage is approximately the same
as the peak ac value but as eh gap length increases the surge break-down
voltage increases rapidly above the peak a.c value. Because of finite time lag
involved I establishment of a breakdown channel.

Q: Define paschan’s law for break-down in gases.?

A: The law states that break-down voltage of a gas is a function solely of press
times gap length.

Where p = Pressure in mm of Hg
T = Temperature in K0.
d = Spacing in cm
when p = 760 mm of Hg;
t = 20 C0
6.08
V = 24.22 + x

105

Q: Elucidate upon di-electric strength of air at high pressures?

A: At elevated pressure the di-electric strength of air can be much higher the liquid
or solid insulation and in addition there are negligible dielectric losses.
Q: What are the advantages and disadvantages of a gas insulated substation (i.e.
integrated switchgear-bus-bars transformer-cable system)?
A: There is drastic reduction in space requirement and problems caused by
atmospheric pollution are eliminated. Since impulse ratio of such a system in
low. Insulation co-ordination in these cases need a fresh study.

Q: What mediums can be and is being used extensively in compressed gas

insulated manacled installations?
A: Air is suitable for use in such a system but this would involve very high
pressure and consequently expensive compression equipment. Most installation
use sculpture hexafluoride ( SF6) which posses dielectric strength of 2-3 time
that of air at same pressure and is particularly useful for circuit-breakers where
the excellent arc-extinguishing properties are an additional advantage.

Q: What test is performed to ascertain quality of solid insulation?

A: A discharge detection test is performed to check presence of voids in solid
insulation which in turn is a yardstick for quality measurement.

Q: What is meant by insulation co-ordination?

A: By insulation co-ordination we means the total of all measures adopted in a
electrical transmission system in order to prevent break-downs and far as
possible flashovers due to over voltages and where this cannot be obtained
within economic limits to confine unavoidable flashes to point where no
damage is caused and service interruption kept to a minimum.

Q: Define nominal & Maximum system voltage?

A: The phase to phase voltage by which a system is designated is termed as
“Nominal system voltage” Under normal operating conditions the voltage may
very above or below the nominal; value”, the is of importance of the insulation
of the system may at time have to withstand this voltage for many hours or even
days.

106

Q: Elaborate the term “factor of earthing”?

A: The factor of earthing of a system is the ratio expressed as a percentage of the
highest rms power frequency line-to-earth voltage on a sound phase during an
earth fault to the line-to-line rms power frequency voltage. Which would be
 obtained when the earth fault is remove. A system is said to be effectively
earthed if ratio does not exceed 80% and non-effectively earthed if it does.

Q: What is meant by “impulse protection level”?

A: The impulse protection level of a protective device is the highest voltage (crest
value) which appears at its terminals when an impulse voltage of standard wave
form is applied under specified conditions. This voltage level is often termed as
the “protection level of the system” to which the protective device is connected.

Q: Does the insulation strings and the clearances in air very linearly with voltage?
A: The answer is “NO”. At higher transmission voltages. The insulation strings and
clearances in air do not increase linearly with voltage but increase
approximately to V1.6.

Q: What happens to a traveling wave when it reaches a junction from which a

number of parallel circuits are eminating?
A: If “n” overhead line circuits of similar traveling wave arriving on one line
circuit surge impedances are connected to a junction point, with a magnitude
“V” will be reduced to 2V/n. while the “self protecting” features afforded by a
number of parallel circuit is quite noticeable, in case line are over-head one.

Q: Give general features of electrostatic voltmeters?

A: The electrostatic voltmeters are classified into absolute and commercial
electrostatic voltmeters. They have very high internal resistances and low
capacitance. They measure direct voltage or the rms values of alternating
voltage and will give accurate measurements up MHz frequencies.

Q: What is the normal working standard for high voltage measurements?

A: The normal working standards for high voltage measurement sis the flash-over
voltage in air between two spheres. Measurement of this flashover voltages
have been made in many laboratories and results have been found to be
reproduce able to within 3% provided certain correction factors are introduced
for temperature & pressure. It has also been found that flashover voltage in only
reliable for spacing, that do not exceed half the sphere diameter. The correction
factor described above is given by

107

P 293
d= x
1013 273 + t

Where d = Correction factor

P = Pressure in millibars
 T = Temperature in degree Celsius ( C0)

Q: What type of resistor is required in voltage measurement using an ammeter and

series resistor?
A: There must be a careful design of the resistor to avoid corona or surface leakage
currents, either of which could produce a current flow of same magnitude to the
current being measured. Also the resistance should not very with temperature.

Q: Describe limitations on voltage measurements by resistor dividers and an

alternate method or over come these limitations?
A: For power frequency, resistor dividers are limited to voltage up to 100 KV
because of the heating due to resistive losses in the divider and because of errors
introduced due to capacitance to earth. As an alternate & to overcome these
problems, capacitors dividers are used for higher voltages and the maximum
voltage for these in only limited by stray inductance’s and dielectric loss the
capacitors.

Q: What is Rogowski coil?

A: if a coil is places so that it surrounds a current, then according to law of
induction, a voltage will be induced in the coil that is proportional to rate of
change of current. A rogowski coil is specially designed to respond to the
current passing through a probe containing the coil and not stray magnetic field.

Q: Why dielectric loss is measured?

A: The dielectric loss of high voltage insulation is an important measure of the
quality of insulation. The variation of this loss with applied voltage gives very
useful information, about the source of any imperfections in the insulation’s. A
high di-electric loss will result in a thermal break-down of the material at
relatively low voltage. If dielectric loss starts at particular, voltage, then
inception of partial discharge at this voltage is indicated.

108

Q: Described the ways in which High voltage tests are classified?

A: High voltage tests may be classified I several ways. They may be grouped
according to type of plant which is used t supply the voltage and they are by the
type of measurement such as flash-over / time x-tics or by the method such as of
test power frequency over-voltage test (i.e which would include routine and
special type tests).
Q: Give a general range of high voltage tests?
A: These may include the following
i. One minute dry withstands/flashover test.
ii. One minute wet withstand/flashover test.
iii. Separate source voltage and induced over voltage withstand test.
iv. Impulse voltage full wave withstand test.
v. Impulse voltage chopped wave withstand test.
vi. Switching surge test.
vii. Power factor measurement.
viii. Internal discharge measurement.
ix. High current short-circuit tests.

Q: Briefly describe synthetic testing?

A: To overcome the economic problems involved in “direct testing of circuit
breakers”, a number of indirect of synthetic testing is used. In method, a low
voltage source is used to supply the test current and a low energy source to
supply the test voltage. The obvious difficulty being the synchronization of the
change over from current to voltage source.

Q: Nam various circuits to overcome difficulty of synchronization in synthetic

testing?
A: These induces.
i. Skeats circuit
ii. Parallel injection test circuit.
iii. Series injection test circuit.

109

Q: What is meant by insulation level of circuit breaker?

A: It is the combination of the values of the higher rated voltage, the corresponding
impulse withstand voltage and corresponding power frequency with stand
voltage. For convenience the rated insulation level of a circuit breaker is
designated by the rated voltage and impulse withstand voltage.
Q: What is meant by full insulation values and reduced insulation values of a
circuit breaker?
A: Full insulation values are intended for use on system having the neutral
insulated, resonant-earthed or non-effectively earthed. Reduced insulation are
intended for use on system having neutral effectively earthed.

Q: How insulation level of the circuit breakers is verified?

A: This is done by means of type and routine test. The type tests comprise.
i. Impulse voltage dry withstand test.
ii. Power frequency (one minute ) dry withstand test.
iii. One minute power frequency wet withstand test.

The routine tests comprise one minute power frequency voltage dry withstand
tests.

Q: In what manner the test voltage for impulse & power frequency tests shall be
applied in case of circuit breakers?
A: The test voltage will be applied as follows;
i. With circuit breaker closed.
Between the terminal of each pole in turn and the frame of circuit breaker, the
terminals of all there poles being connected to the frame.
ii. With circuit fully open
a) Between the terminal of all the poles connected together and the frame
of C.B.
b) Between one terminals of each pole and other terminal of the same pole
connected to the frame.

110

Q: What tests are performed on auxiliary circuits of a circuit breaker?

A: Auxiliary circuits are subjected to one minute power frequency withstand
routine tests.
i. Between the auxiliary circuit connected together as a whole and the frame of
C.B
ii. It applicable, between each part of the auxiliary circuit, which in normal use
may be insulated from other parts and other parts connected together to the
frame.

Q: In general what type of electrical tests are performed on power transformer?

A: These include
A pressure test of one minute duration between different windings, and between
different windings and earth.
An over-potential test at a frequency higher than the system frequency to test
inter-turn, interlayer ad inter-section insulation.
An impulse test to simulate lightning.
A possible switching surge test.

Q: What components could be essential for A.C testing of a transformer?

A: The equipment usually consist of :
i. Control gear, having a supply switch or circuit breaker fuse-gear over-load or
interlock protection and metering.
ii. The regulation to very the voltage applied to the testing transformer.
iii. The testing transformer.
iv. The testing object or load.
v. A potential divider to enable the voltage to be measured or monitored.

Q: Briefly describe the effects of contacts of a.c regulator?

A: The regulator is usually of the variable tapping type of transformer. This type
has a very low impedance at higher voltage (zero at 1-1 ratio), but has carbon
brush contacts which gives electrical noise into some circuits and is not quite
infinitely variable. A saturate able reactor would give a infinitely variable
supply contact interference but would distort the sinusoidal wave-shape.

Q: How a chopped wave can be obtained?

A: Under certain test specification a “chopped” wave is required i.e. means of short
circuiting the voltage t earth after a specified time (2---8 uses.).
This is generally achieved by a rod gap, or if accurate and repeatable time.

111

ELECTRONICS

Q: What is a semi-conductor?
A: A semi conductor is defined as a material whose receptivity is much less than
receptivity of an insulator but much greater than the receptivity of a conductor
and whose receptivity decreases with increase in temperature.

Q: Write down the resistivity of a conductor, semi-conductor?

A: Copper resistviity is 10-8 ohm meter and that of silicon is 0.5 ohm meter.

Q: What id doping?
A: The process of introducing impurity atoms in to a silicon crystal is called
doping.

Q: What are N-type semi-conductors?

A: If silicon crystal is droped with a substance having free electrons like
phosphorous. The number of free electrons is the crystal becomes much greater
than the number of holes, negative charge predominates, so the crystal is said to
be n-type.

Q: What is P-type semi-conductor?

A: If impurity is of group Ш element like boron, the holes will dominate and hence
the material is said to be P-type.

Q: What is drift current?

A: If potential difference is maintained across an extrinsic semi-conductor a current
will flow at one end out of the material at the other end. This is called drift
current and only consists of electrons flowing out.

Q: What is diffusion current?

A: The movement of holes and electrons across the junction constitute a current,
which is called diffusion current.

Q: What is p-n junction?

A: If a silicon Crystal is doped with doner atoms at one end and acceptor atoms at
the other then the crystal will have both P-type and n-type regions and there
will be a junction between them. This is called p-n junction.

112

Q: What is depletion layer?

A: It is region of relatively high resistivity in p-n junction and is approximately
0.001 mm in width. There holes and electrons recombine, so the charge
depleted.

Q: What is forward biased p-n junction?

A: If a battery is connected across the p-n junction such that +ve terminal is
connected to p-type region and –ve terminals is connected to n-type region the
junction is said to be forward biased.

Q: What is ment by potential barrier of a p-n junction?

A: The +ve charge is concentrated on the p-side of junction and –ve charge is
concentrated on the n-side of junction, so a potential barrier is produced across
the junction.

Q: What is height of potential barrier?

A: The difference in potential from one side of the junction to the other is called
height of potential barrier.

Q: What is ment by majority an minority charge currents?

A: In n-type materials electrons are the majority charge carriers and holes are
minority charge carriers, while in p-type material, the reverse takes place.

Q: Explain why a p-n junction possesses capacitance?

A: When a p-n junction is reversed biased, the depletion layer is a high resistance
region with low resistance regions on both sides and so it acts as though is were
a parallel plate capacitor, the capacitance of which is function of the magnitude
of applied bias voltage.

Q: What is reverse saturation current?

A: If reverse bias voltage is applied, current flows across the junction, this current
increase with the reversed bias voltage until no majority carrier possesses
sufficient energy to cross the junction, so current becomes constant. This
current is called reverse saturation current.

Q: What is breakdown voltage of p-n junction?

A: If the reverse bias voltage is increased beyond a certain value a rapid increase in
current occurs, this critical voltage is called breakdown voltage of the junction.

113

Q: What effects are responsible for breakdown?

A:
i. Zener effect in which the electric field across the junction is strong enough to
break some of the covalent bond.
ii. The avalanche effect in which charge carriers are accelerated to such an extent
that they are able to break covalent bonds by collisions.

Q: What is semi-conductor diode?

A: It is a device that has high resistance to the flow of current in one direction and
low resistance in the other.

Q: Why semi-conductor diode is preferred over thermionic valve diode?

A:
i. It does not require heat supply.
ii. It is much smaller and light.
iii. It is more reliable.

Q: How semi-conductor diode is formed?

A: It is formed by
i. Alloying method.
ii. By diffusion method.

Q: What is threshold voltage for a semi-conductor diode?

A: When forward bias voltage is increased from zero, the current remains
negligibly small, until at certain value of voltage current increases rapidly. This
value of voltage is called threshold value. It is 0.6 V for silicon and 0.2 V for
germanium.

Q: What is reverse saturation current?

A: When a semi-conductor diode is reverse biased and the voltage is increased
gradually the reverse current increases, until at a certain value of voltage it
becomes constant. This constant current is called the reverse saturation current.

Q: What is breakdown voltage of a semi-conductor diode?

A: If the reverse like bias voltage applied to a diode is gradually increased, the
current will remain constant until a point is reached where a sudden and large
increase in current take place. This current will dissipate power within the diode
and may lead to destruction. This voltage is called the break down voltage.

114

Q: What is the peak inverse voltage?

A: It is an arbitrary voltage rating, determined by the manufacturer for each type of
diode. Which if not exceeded, will ensure the satisfactory working of ho device.

Q: Name the type of diode?

A:
i. Signal diode
ii. Power diode.
iii. Zener diode
iv. Varactor diodes.

Q: What is signal diode?

A: The term, signal diode include all dides which have been designed for use in
circuits, where large current/large voltage rating is not required, such detector of
radio waves or electronic switch is required in logic circuitry.

Q: What is power diode?

A: These are usually used as rectifiers. The peak inverse voltage of such a diode is
between 50V to 100V.

Q: What is zener diode?

A: The large current which flows when the break down voltage of a diode is
exceeded neet not necessarily result in damage of diode. A zener diode is
fabricated in a way which allows it to be operated in breakdown region, without
damage, provide the current is limited by external resistance to a safe value.

Q: What is varactor diode?

A: Most semi-conductor diodes are manufactured with minimum junction
capacitance but varactor diode is made to have a range of junction capacitance.
It’s capacitances is inversely proportional to the square root of the bias voltage.

Q: What are important parameters of semi-conductor diode?

A:
i. Forward and reverse a.c. resistance.
ii. Maximum forward current.
iii. Junction Capacitance.
iv. Behavior in breakdown region.

115
Q: Diodes are to be selected for application listed below. Complete the table?
A: Application Diode Type

i. Voltage tunable capacitance Varactor diode

ii. Gates in logic circuitry. Signal diode
iii. Reference voltage Zener diode.
iv. Rectifier unit. Power diode
v. Voltage stabilization Zener diode
vi. Detector of radio waves Signal diode

Q: What is a transistor?
A: The transistor is a device that can amplify an electrical signal, act as an
electronic switch, and perform number of other functions. Basically it consist of
a germanium or silicon crystal containing three separate regions.

Q: What are the types of transistor?

A: The three regions may consist of either two p-type separated by n-type region,
or two n-type regions separated by p-type region. The first type is known as p-n
—transistor and the second type as n-p-n transistors.

Q: Name the three regions of transistor?

A: The middle of three regions is known as the base and two outer regions are
known as emitter and collector.

Q: State the advantages of transistor ever thermionic valve?

A:
i. It doesn’t require source of power to heat it before it can operate.
ii. Power consumption much less.
iii. Its operation is faster.

Q: How a transistor is connected?

A: It is connected is three ways.
i. The common base connection.
ii. The common emitter connection.
iii. The common collector connection.

Q: What is emitter injection ration?

A: The ratio of the number of holes arriving at the collector to the number of
emitted holes is known as emitter injection ratio.

116

Q: What is d.c current gain?

A: The ratio of the output current of a transistor to its inputs signal in the absence
of a.c. signal is known as D.C current gain.

Q: Define short circuit current gain?

A: It is an important parameter in a common base amplifier circuit. It is defined as
the ratio of charge in collector current to the change in emitter current producing
it.

Q: Describe the methods of construction of transistor?

A: There are number of methods, the most commonly employed are
i. Alloying junction transistor.
ii. Silicon planer transistor.

Q: What is cut-off frequency?

A: The current gain of transistor is not same alt all frequencies but falls at higher
frequencies. The frequency at which magnitude of the current gain has fallen by
3dB relative to its low frequency value is known as cut-off frequency.

Q: What is thermal runway?

A: An increase in the temperature of collector/base junction will cause the collector
leakage current to increase. The increase in collector current produces an
increase in the power dissipated at the junction and this, in turn, further
increases the temperature of the junction, so give further increase in collector
leakage current. The process is cumulative and may lead to destruction of the
transistor. This is called thermal runway.

Q: How thermal runway is avoided?

A:
i. By use of stabilization circuitry.
ii. By use of heat sink.

Q: Describe the important parameter in selecting a transistor type for a particular

application?
A:
i. The maximum allowable collector base voltage.
ii. The maximum power dissipation in the transistor at 250C.
iii. The current gain.
iv. The ft, where ft, equal to short circuit gain time frequency.

117
Q: Complete the following table.

A: Application The most important parameter.

Small signal audio-frequency Current gain and collector base
Amplifier. Voltage.

ii. Audio-frequency power transistor. Power dissipation and collector –

base voltage.

118

CATHODE RAY TUBE

Q: What is cathode ray tube (c.r.t)?
A: IT is a thermionic device that is able to display visually the instantaneous values
of electrical signals. A beans of high velocity electrons is directed to a screen
coated with a fluorescent substance and which there fore shows a visible spot of
light. By deflection the electron beam, the visible spot can be moved about the
screen and an electrical waveform is described.

Q: What are the uses of CRT?

A: It is a widely used in electronic and telecommunication engineering, the most
evident example of its use is it the television receiver in the home, another
example is cathode ray oscilloscope (c.r.o), which is an electrical measurement
instrument.

Q: What are the main parts of cathodes ray tube?

A:
Source of high velocity electron beam.
A means of focusing the electron beam.
Means of deflecting the beam about the face of a fluorescent screen.

Q: How focusing of the electron beam is brought about?

A: Electric and magnetic field are used, and each has relative advantages and
disadvantages, which are used for different applications.

Q: What is deflection sensitivity?

A: It is the voltage that must be applied across the plates of produce 1 cm
deflection of the visible spot on the screen. If a voltage is applied across the Y-
Plates, the spot will be vertically deflected. If the voltages are applied
simultaneously across both X- plates and Y-plates, the electron beam is
subjected to deflecting forces in two different directions at the same time and is
therefore deflected in the resultant direction.

Q: Describe the principle of electric focusing?

A: The tube consists of an evacuated glass envelop inside which are placed.
i. An electron gun.
ii. Two pairs of deflecting electrodes.
iii. A screen whose inside surface is coated with a fluorescent material. The parts
of the electron gun are an indirectly heated cathode, a cylindrical grid

119
 That surrounds the cathode, and two/three anodes. The grid is maintained at a
negative potential. The electrons emitted from cathode are subjected to
repulsive force by negative grid and an attractive force applied by the anodes
are much larger than the negative grid potential, typically + 1000V as opposed
to -20V, but since the grid is much nearer to cathode than are the anodes. Its.
Influence is sufficiently great for it to control the number of electrons that pass
thought small hole in the grid. These are electrons form the electron beam. The
electrons leaving the grid are accelerated to high velocity by positive anode
potentials and travel along the tube until they strike the screen.

Q: Describe the principle of magnetic focusing?

A: The electrons are emitted from the heated cathode and pass through a hole in the
cylindrical grid and are accelerated to a high velocity by the positive potentials
at the anodes. The electric field set up between the grid and the first anode
focuses the electron bean at a point near the anode, beyond which the beam
starts to diverge. The permanent magnets mounted around the tube produces a
magnetic field through which the divergent beam passes. The magnetic forces
are exerted upon the beam and have the effect of bringing it to focus at the
screen.

Q: Why c.r.t. designed for sue in oscilloscope use electric deflection?

A: Because such a tube is very sensitive and can operate at high frequencies.

120
 DIGITAL ELEMENTS AND CIRCUITS

Q: Name the codes which are commonly used in telegraphy?

A:
Morse code.
Murry code.

Q: How characters are represented?

A: These are represented by combination of dot signals and dash signal.

Q: What is difference between dot and dash?

A: The difference between dot and dash is of time duration only, a dash being three
times the length of dot.

Q: How spacing between words and letters is distinguished?

A: These are distinguished by time duration elementary signal space, duration is 1
dot and letter spacing is 1 dash.

Q: Explain the working of Morse telegraphy system?

A: A key is pressed at the sending end of the system, a current flows to line and
pass through the windings of a telegraph relay at the receiving end. The relay
operates and its contacts completes a circuit for the buyzes to operate. If the key
is operated in accordance with Morse code, a trained operator listening to the
luzzer will be able to recognize the message and write it down.

Q: Explain the working of radio telegraphy?

A: When sending end key is pressed, the transmitter radiates a single frequency. If
key is operated in accordance with Morse code, an interrupted continuous wave
is radiated and is received by the distant radio receiver. The radio receiver
converts the received signal into pulses of direct current that operate a buzzer.

Q: What are the disadvantages of Morse Code?

A: The number of signal elements needed to indicate a character is not same for all
character and also the signal elements themselves are of different lengths. This
makes the design of automatic printing difficult.

121
Q: Describe the Murray Code?
A: All characters have exactly the same number of signal elements and the signal
elements are of constant length. Each character is represented by a combination
of five signal elements that may be either a mark or space. The mark is
represented by a negative potential or the absence of tone. It is pace is
represented by a positive potential or the absence of tone. It is possible to
indicate 25 , or 32 combinations directly by the Murray code, but this number is
insufficient for general use, because 26 combinations are required for the letters
of the alphabet and there number of figures and punctuation marks also to be
transmitted. Two combinations therefore are used as letter shift and figure –
shift signals and they have the function of setting up the receiving teleprompter
to print either firuge3s or letters.

Q: What is the principle of pulse code modulation?

A: The range of voltage both positive and negative, over which the analogue signal
may very is divided into a number of sampling levels. The signal amplitude is
electronically sampled at each of the time interval and the information about the
instantaneous amplitude, of each sample in digital form using the binary code.

Q: What is binary system?

A: In binary system only two digits exists 0 and 1. The digit at the right band side
of a binary number represents a multiple (0 or 1) of 2 0. Here the numbers
0,1.0,11,100,101 etc.

Q: What are two state devices?

A: A two state device is one which has only two stable conditions or states.

Q: Name a few two state devices?

A:
i. Lamp.
ii. Switch.
iii. Buzzer.
iv. Semi-conductor diode.
v. Transistor.

Q: What is an electronic gate?

A: An electronic gate is a logic element which is able to operate on an applied
binary signal in a manner determined by its logic functions.

122
Q: Write a truth table for a two input AND gate?
A: input 1 0 1 0 1
Output 2 0 0 1 1
Output 0 0 0 1

Q: Describe the action of two input AND gate by the Boolean function?
A: L = S1 S2 where L is output and S1 and S2 are two input. The dot is the Boolean
symbol for AND logic function.

Q: Describe completely an AND gate?

A: An AND gate is the electronic equivalent of switches connected in series and is
a circuit having two or more inputs and one output. The output state on only if
all the inputs are also 1, otherwise the output will be at zero.

Q: There are three AND gates, the inputs of AND gate 1 are A and B while that of2
are A and C. The output of gate is 1 is D and of 2 is E. Write down the truth
table of the circuit. The output of two AND gates 1 and 2 are the inputs of
thirds. The output of the third gate is F.

A: The truth table is :-

A B A.B C A.C F
0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0
0 1 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 1 0 0
1 1 1 0 0 0
1 0 0 1 1 0
1 1 1 1 1 1

Q: Simplify the problem in previous question?

A: The required logic function could be produced by a single 3-phase AND gate.

Q: Describe and “OR” gate?

A: it may have only number of inputs. The output will be 1 if anyone of the inputs
is 1 will be zero if all inputs are zero.

123

Q: Write a truth table for two inputs “OR “gate?

A: input 1 0 1 0 1
Input 2 0 0 1 1
Output 0 1 1 1

Q: Write a Boolean equation for OR logic?

A: L = S1 + S2

The symbol “+” represent or “OR” logic.

Q: Describe NOT-gate?
A: NOT logic is performed by a switch and one input. If the switch is open the
output will be 1, otherwise zero.

Q: Write down Boolean equation for NOT logic?

A: L = S—
The bar over the symbol means “NOT”

Q: What is a “NAND” gate?

A: An AND gate followed by NOT gate is called NAND gate.

Q: Write down a truth table for NAND gate?

A: Let us consider three inputs. A, B & C. The truth table be as follows:

A 0 1 0 0 1 1 0 1
B 0 0 1 0 1 0 1 1
C 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 1
A.B.C 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1

A.B.C 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 0

124

COPUTER IN POWE SYSTEM

Q: What are the uses of computer in power system?
A:
Used to control displays in control rooms – data collected from a regions using
telemetry circuits. This data is passed to computer, which check the validity of
data and then pass it on in suitable form for display on CRT type display unit.
Used to monitor equipment, e.g. boiler temp. and pressure. One computer is
able to deal with many such inputs an can signal alarms so that operation staff
can take necessary action. Computers can, if allowed act more positively, e.g.
close a vale, open a switch.
Used to control certain sequences, e.g. runup a boiler control the sequence of
operating circuit breakers and isolators at substations.
To process data for protection, voltage regulation, maintenance of system
stability, optimum load dispatch, load shedding.

Q: What are main parts of a computer?

A:
Central processor unit. ( CPU)
Memory.
Control panels.
Interface slots, power supplies, cabinet.

Q: What is a main frame computer?

A: A big computer equipped with large memory, auxiliary memory, used for
processing large volume data. E.g. IBM 370, ICL 1960A, most business
machines, sophisticated operating systems.

Q: What is mini computer?

A: Limited memory, small arithmetic capability, physically small somewhat
limited operating system e.g. POP II PDP8, NONA 2, GEC 2040.

Q: What is micro computer?

A: Very limited arithmetic capability, incorporating a single integrated circuits for
CPU – The micro – processor most of the mini computer incorporate a micro-
processor as part or all of the CPU. The term micro-processor is also used so
describe the whole micro-computer operating system Very limited programs are
developed and tested on another computer before implementing on micro
computer.

125
Q: What is a midi computer?
A: A computer having capability between min and main frame but usually applied
in dedicated real time application e.g., National grid control display system is
called midi computer.

Q: What is a computer system?

A: It consists of computer, printers, discs, tapes, keyboards, display and
communication equipment.

Q: What is CPU?
A: There are logic circuits dealing with data grouped into words 8, 12, 16 or 24 bits
in length. Words are coped from locations in the memory into location in CPU.
These are of two types, instruction words of data words. Instruction words are
decoded in CPU which then operates on data words. The process of taking
instruction words decoding and executor is performed in a fixed time in
synchronous computer or in a time dependent for example on the efficiency of
the memory n a synchronous computers. Instruction time depends on the
complexity of the instruction and on other things and do not reliably indicate the
capability of a CPU. Typical times for micro and min are 1-20 micro seconds.
Many CPU’s have extra register (memories) which are not essential. The word
length of CPU us related to the maximum amount of memory that can be
accommodated e.g., a 16 bit word can distinguish (address) only 2 16 26x210 = 64
x 1024 = 64 K locations. A location is usually a word Failure of CPU is failure
of computer.

Q: What is memory?
A: it is place where information /data can be stored and as when required can be
recalled.

Q: What are the types of memories?

A:
Magnetic memories.
Electronic memories.
Bipolar random access memory
Mos memory.
Read only and programmable read only memories.

126
Q: Explain how magnetic memory works?
A: Each bit is represented by ferrite core (highly remanance) forcing the flux in a
particular direction produces a flux change (induced emf) in cores which have
opposite direction of the flux. Cores can by cycles in about 1 micro sec. per
word i.e. successive words can be accessed in 1 micro sec. The actual
information can be read in about half of this time. Cores memory can be
accessed for reading/writing quite randomly, therefore it is called Random
access memory RAM.

Q: How electronic memory works?

A: These integrated circuits are competitive with magnetic cores.

Q: Explain Bipolar RAM?

A: It consist one bi-stable – multivibrator circuit per bit, whose access time is about
100 ns, and is reliable, compact, but data is destroyed when power is removed.

Q: What are MOS memory?

A: It represent data by trapped charges, access time about 400 ns cheaper than
Bipolar, but data survives for only a few ms. Circuits are, therefore required to
refresh data at frequent intervals.

Q: What is the difference between ROMS and PROMS?

A: These are read only and programmable read only memories. ROM data is
usually stored y destroying semi-conductor junction within the circuits using
injected voltage. PROMS use charge storage, erasure is achieved by irradiation.

Q: What are Computer highways?

A: It is multi-conductor transmission lines which connect together all the parts of a
computer. The common highway or units structure is now the most common
scheme.

Q: How a word is obtained from memory?

A: CPU place signals on the address lines and certain control lines on a unibus.
The memory respond by placing that data contained in that address on the
BATA (and certain control lines) on the unibus. Writing a data is accomplished
in a similar way.

127
Q: What is an interface?
A: These are electronic circuits which connect external signal ( e.g. contacts lamps,
printers, tape reader) to resister, so that CPU can communicate with outside
world.
Q: How many number of registers are required in an interface?
A: AT least two registers are required
To indicate readiness of the interface to send or receive the data.
The register to actually contain the sent or received information.

Q: How analogue quantities are connected to interfaces?

A: These are connected by analogue to digital or by digital to analogue converters.

Q: What are DMA?

A: These are direct memory access interfaces; these are used when a lot of data
needs to be transferred rapidly between memory and peripheral.

Q: What is an interrupt?
A: When a peripheral requires. The attention of the CPU, it can initiate an interrupt
i.e. when an operator presses a key on a keyboard. This forces the CPU to give
attention to the interface after it has finished the instruction, it is currently
executing.

Q: What is the type of interrupts?

A:
Single interrupt in which case the CPU must inspect all interfaces to identify the
offending one.
Vectored interrupt in which case each interrupt causes the CPU to run an
INTERRUPLT PROGRAM which is uniquely associated with the
interrupting device.

Q: What is Multi-level interrupt feature?

A: CPU can choose to ignore interrupts i.e. when they are running particularly
urgent programs or can choose to ignore less important interrupts i.e. printer
interface.

128
Q: What is the function of clock, describe its types?
A: Clocks are used by CPU to take account of time. There are of two types.
Line frequency clock generates an interrupt in every 20 ms (in 50Hz mains fed
computer). The interrupt program can keep a record of the number of interrupt
received.
Definite time clocks the CPU, places a number in an interface register. A crystal
clock (typically 100 KHz) counts down to zero and then interrupts the CPU.

Q: What is watch dog timer?

A: An interface which does nothing unless it is ignored. The CPU must
periodically address the interface (to pump it up) or se the watch dog will
assume that computer is not functioning properly and contacts are provided to
indicate this. Note this principle can be used to initiate a change over process to
enable a standby computer to take over responsibility for the system.

Q: What are self monitoring program, describe their types?

A: These are suitable for running in the background to main application tasks. It
has following types.
Memory checks; write and read particular bit patterns in each memory location,
perform some checks on groups of words in fixed program and data areas of
memory.
Arithmetic checks run specimen programs to test proper functioning of
arithmetic unit.

Q: What are software systems?

A: This consists of many separate task program. Care is taken in designing that
software system to ensure that these task interface with each other so that
harmonious operation is achieved.

Q: What is operation system?

A: All computers must have an operation system an it is instructive to understand
first the operation system suitable for micro-computer. An operative system
consists of executive, task programs and background programs.

Q: What are task program?

A: These do the less important work such as self monitoring or preparing
characters for a printer.

129
Q: Write down the specification of computer system suitable for power system
applications?
A:
Scope:
A specification must define in detail what is required of the proposed system. In
addition customer will require certain engineering standards are met and these
can be included in usual way. The customer may include certain special
conditions.
Type of System:
e.g. integrated or segregated or dedicated or multi purpose.
Qualifications to tender:-
Some authorities may invite discussions and experience reports.
Reliability:
It is easy to include a particular MTBF figure but is not worth while.

Casts:-
Do not include an item (hardware or software) in a specification unless
approximate cost is known. Alternately include the item as an optional, to be
quoted separately.

Documentation:-
Drawings and manuals for hardware are expected with any equipment but
documents for software is often inadequate to enable to programmers to modify
the software system easily. One expects documentation for any specially written
task (this is included in 10 instructions/day figure) but it is advisable to check
the quality of documentation supplied by manufacturer certainly before placing
a contract. It is further required that a list of customers using systems of a
similar type as being proposed, be included in the tender, together with the
name of individuals in these organization who may be connected regarding
system performance.

130

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Q:
In a 3 phase Y connected circuit. what is the relationship
between line & phase voltages _______________
between line & phase currents ________________
for power in watts _________________________

List three causes of un-balanced three phase current.

Draw current - time characteristic of an over current protection relay.

Which of the three phase components of fault current is active on a ground fault.

Q:
Which of the following electronic device are closest to equivalent of an electric
switch.
Diac
Triac
SCR
RC Network

Which element causes a thermal circuit breaker to trip

fuse wire
bimetal
a coil.

Q:
State kickoff’s laws?
Give two examples from daily life of the application of inductive voltage pulses?

Q: What is the difference between power and energy. Name their electrical units?

131

Q:
 The shelf life of the battery can be extended by:
Strong it at higher temperature.
Strong it a low temperature.
None of the above.
The specific gravity of electrolyte in a lead acid battery changes as follows when it
gets discharged.
increases
remains unchanged
lowers

The amperage of a battery bank can be increased by connecting them in series.

(True/False)

Q:
Give general specifications of a power transformer for purchasing purposes along
with the units of the terms used?
Why is the stat point of a transformer usually grounded through a reactor?
Is RF coils hysteresis losses have lower values then eddy current losses?
TRUE/FALES

Q:
Which type of motors shall be most efficient for the following application and
why?
Railway Electric Traction.
Contact speed drives.
Boiler feed water pump in a thermal power plant.

Q: Explain
Corona
Skin effect in a conductor.
Following are the characteristics of a particular type of capacitor. Name it;

It has higher leakage current compared to other types.

It has limited shelf life
Large capacitance value for same physical size when compared it other type.

132

Q:
What will happen if a 220 V, 50 c/s AC relay coil is connected to 220 V DC supply?
 Current transformers should not be left open circuited. Why?
Why is the iron core of a transformer laminated?

Q:
Define power factor
Give four reasons why it should be improved?

Q:
A three phase induction motor is found to be running in the wrong direction. What
will you do correct the rotation?
Name the conditions to be fulfilled before two alternators are put in parallel
operation?

Q:
Relate the measured signal with the measuring device
Thermocouple a) Temperature
Float b) Level
Bellows c) Pressure
Orifice d) Flow

Which of the following storage devices lose their contents with power failure.
EPROM
RAM
Core Memory

Q:
How many nuclear reactors are working in Pakistan at present? Give their
location and purpose?

133

Q:
 What are two methods for obtaining a 60 Hz frequency supply from 50 Hz supply
system? Show only by simple block diagrams. Also name the practical devices
used in each method?

Which of the following type of capacitors are generally used on the output of a power
rectifier.

Mica
Ceramic
Electrolytic

Q:
Number the following in descending order of their overall efficiencies:
A1000wattpetrolenginegenerator ___________________________
A 125 MWe gas fired, superheated steam turbine generator plant
_______________________________________________________
A125MWenuclearpowerplant______________________________
A125MWeGas–Turbine __________________________________

What is an autotransformer? List some of its uses?

Q: What is true in delta system?

The line to line voltage is equal to line to neutral voltage.
The line to line voltages is √3 times the line to neutral voltage.
The line to line voltage is 1/√3 times the line to neutral voltage.

Q: What is true in star system?

Line to line voltage is equal to line to neutral voltage.
Line to line voltage is √3 time the line to neutral voltage.
Line to line current is √3 times the line to phase current.

Q: What is the best method of measurement of power for 3-phase unbalance load?
A:
Three Watt meter method
Two Watt meter method
Single Watt meter method

134

Q: A 3-phase four wire system is considered balance if the neutral current is

 Greater than zero
Zero
Negative

Q: The starting of heavy motor on the distribution system creates the problem of
Frequency dips
Voltage dips
Over voltages

Q: A booster transformer provides a fixed boost to the primary of distribution

system in form of:
Frequency
Current
Voltage

Q: The installation of shunt capacitors on system results in

k W capacity release
k V A capacity release
k V A R capacity release

Q: Surge arrests are used on the power system to limit the

Over current
Over loads
Over voltage

Q: When an open circuit long transmission line is energized the source of

energization must be capable of supplying reactive power equal to the
charging power of circuit
True
False

Q: When the conductors of a three phase system are not spaced equilaterally,
transposition is made to balance
Resistance
Capacitance
Inductance

135

Q: Capacitance of circuit plays important role in

Short transmission lines
 Long transmission lines
Medium transmission lines

Q: Which reactance of synchronous machine plays the important role in

calculating the making capacitor of circuit breaker.
Synchronous reactance (X)
Transient reactance (X’)
Sub-Transient reactance (X”)

Q: The tap changer on a transformer helps to regulate

Power transformation
Voltage regulation
Efficiency
Q: Arcing horns are used on transformers to limit the
Over currents
Harmonics of high frequency
Over voltages

Q: Which is correct?
A:
Max. Quantity of electric current flowing in a circuit for one hour is called Ampere
Hour.
Average quantity of electric current flowing in a circuit for one hour is called Ampere
hour.
Min. quantity of electric current flowing in a circuit for one hour is called Amp. Hour.

Q: Tick the correct one

Law lagging power factor causes
Low vol drop
Large vol drop
Rise in voltage

Q: Write down frequency band against each in the following:

High frequency band ________________________________
Very High frequency band_____________________________
Ultra high frequency band______________________________
Microwave frequency band_____________________________

136

Q: Mark the following as true or false.

 The band width requirement for a communication channel is directly
proportional to the speed of data to be transmitted
Q: The color code for identifying for a communication channel is directly
tolerance, would be in the sequence:
Orange, Orange, Black, Silver
Red, Red, White, Golden
Red, Red, Yellow, Silver

Q: A microprocessor system with a 16-bit address bus can directly access a

memory of size:?
512 Kilo bytes
65 kilo bytes
16 kilo bytes
Q: The strength of the transmitted signal on a VHF system is 10 watts while that
on the receiver and is 10 milliwatts, how much is the attenuation in terms of
decibels?
1000 db
9.99 watts
30 db

Q: What types of signal conversion is necessary between a thermocouple and a

computer.?
A/D conversion
D/A conversion
I/O conversion

Q: Which of the following types of memory is used for temporary storage of data
during day-to-day software operations in a computer system?
A:
RAM
EPROM
ROM

Q: The local oscillator in an R.F receiver is used to:

Tune the receiver to re-generate the signal at I.F stage
Synchronize the receiver with the input signal.
Stabilize the receiver operation.

137
Q: High-pass filter is used to,
Pass R.F and suppress I.F
Offer low impedance to high frequency signal and suppress lower frequency signals
Offer high impedance to high frequency signal and attenuate low frequency signals

Q: The impedance of a capacitor is,

Directly proportional to the capacitance
Inversely proportional to the signal frequency applied through the capacitor.
Not related to any of the above

Q: The power line carrier is connected with the transmission line through.
Special filters connected to transmission lines.
Breakers and isolators
Current Transformers
Q: The name of interface between a thermocouple and a computer is,
A/D converter
D/A converter
Serial to parallel converter

Q: Two conductors separated by a small space carry current in opposite

directions.
The conductors attract each other
The conductors repel each other
State whether (i) or (ii) is correct.

Q: A coil is wound on a magnetic core. Fist D.C volts are applied to the coil and
the current measured.

Second equivalent rms volts.

A.C are applied to the terminals.

The current measured after application of AC voltage will be:

More than the current measured with DC applied

Less than the current measured with DC supplied

138
Q: Two similar capacitors are connected.
First in series and next in parallel.
The total capacitance will be greater when the capacitors are connected in;

Series
Parallel

Q: An alternating voltage, is applied to a circuit having a resistance and

inductance in series, will the current;
Be in phase with the voltage
Lag the voltage
Lead the voltage

Q: A three phase four wire system supplies three unbalanced loads connected in
stat, Will
Current flow from the neutral of the supply side to the neutral point of the load.
No current flow in the neutral circuit.
Current flow from the neutral point of the load to the neutral point of the supply.

Q: Large transformers have drums mounted on the top of the tank. This drum is
called a conservator and is used;
s an oil expansion chamber
o compensate for loss of oil in case the transformer tank leaks
tore spare oil

Q: Three phase induction motors are classified according to the winding of their
Stator
Rotor

Q: The power factor of the input to synchronous motor can be varied by

changing its;
i) Excitation
ii) Frequency

139

Q: Two transmission lines of different length, are operated in parallel. The tv lines
share the load in;
i) Direct proportion to their respective impedances.
ii) Inverse proportion to their respective impedance.

Q: In high voltage circuit breakers the voltage rises across the contacts after the
are is interrupted. The breaker is then subjected to recovery voltageThe
frequency of the recovery voltage is;
The same as the supply frequency voltage (50 Hz)
Greater than the supply frequency.
Less than the supply frequency.

Q: An important generator is to be protected against internal faults. Which relay

is to be used?
i) Negative phase sequence relay.
ii) Over voltage relay.
iii) Impedance relay.
iv) Differential relay.
v) Loss of field relay.

A: A long high voltage transmission line is to be protected against short

circuits which protection is normally applied;
i) Impedance or distance relay.
ii) Pilot wire relay
iii) Over current relay with instantaneous element.

Q: Synchronous motor gives the

i) Frequency regulation.
ii) Voltage regulation.

Q: If steel pole and wooden poles are equal in cost and maintenance which
would be preferred more.
i) Steel pole
ii) Wooden pole

Q: If tank of transmission is removed then winding will be

i) Visible
ii) Invisible

140

Q: For voltage regulation which method is economical to install

i) Voltage regulators.
ii) Capacitor bank.
 Q: Voltage regulation is done to improve.
i) P.f
ii) Voltage
iii) Current.

Q: Auto recluses are used in

i) Under ground cable system
ii) Over head transmission
iii) For both (over head and under ground).

Q: A temperature of 50oFis about the same as:

8 0C
10 oC
36o C
45o C

Q: A red colors looks red because

i) It reflects red light

ii) It absorbs all colors
iii) It emits red light

141
 Q: Multiplication by “i” rotates a vector E through:

i) 900 clockwise
ii) 900 counter clockwise
iii) 1800 clock wise
iv) 180o counter clockwise

Q: The temperature of a cold junction is 27 0C. If the temperature difference

between the cold and hot temperature junction is 1000 C. Carnot cycle
efficiency is:

i) 14.9%
ii) 25%
iii) 78.7%
iv) None of the above.

Q: The expression   xV  is

i) Div grad V
ii) Grad div V
iii) Div cur V
iv) Grad curl V

Q: A pulley having a 9 inch diameter is belted to a pulley having a 6 inch

diameter. If the large pulley runs at 120 rpm, how fast does the small
pulley run, in revolutions per minute?
i) 80
ii) 120
iii) 160
iv) 180

Q: If there is one deuterium atom for 6500 hydrogen atoms, the number of
deuterium atoms in 1 m3 of water is closest to

i) 6.5 x 109
ii) 6.02 x 1023
iii) 1.02 x 1025
iv) 1.84 x 1026

142

Q: An elevator cable will have its greatest tension when the elevator car is
moving?
i) Down but coming to rest
ii) upward at a constant speed
iii) upward but is coming to rest
iv) when it is at rest

Q: Efficiency of the carnet’s cycle operating between T1 = 2000F and T2 =

1000F is:
i) 100/200
ii) 100/473
iii) 100/560
iv) 100/660

Q: A mass of 5 kg is rolling down along a plane inclined at an angle of 300. What

is its acceleration?
A:
i) 9.8 m/sec2
ii) 1 m/sec2
iii) 4.9 m/sec2
iv) None of the above.
Q: A stone skimming on ice passes a mark with a velocity of 30 fps and is
retarded at 1/2 fps/second. How many feet does it travel in the next 10
seconds?

i) 225
ii) 275
iii) 325
iv) 375

Q: The period of a pendulum is proportional to the square root of its length.

Therefore, when the length of a pendulum is doubled, its period is:

i) Doubled
ii) Decreased about 50%
iii) Increased about 40%
iv) Quadrupled

143

Q: In the series 3,12,21,30,39,48,……… Which of the following will be a

number?
 i) 10,002
ii) 9,999
iii) 101,1000
iv) None of the above

Q: A circle is inscribed in a given square and another circle is circumscribed about

the same square. What is the ratio of the area of the inscribed to the
circumscribed circle?
i) 1:2
ii) 1:4
iii) 2:3
iv) 3:4

Q: If 15 cans of food are needed for seven men for two day’s, the number of cans
needed for four men for seven day is:
i) 15
ii) 20
iii) 25
iv) 30

Q: A pound of water is evaporated from 6 pounds of sea water containing 4% salt.

The percentage of salt in the remaining solution is
1
i) 3
8

ii) 4
4
iii) 4
5

iv) None of these

144
 Q: A man does piece of work in 9 days, while B can do it in 3 days. In how many
days, can the work be finished if both A and B work together?

1
i) 2
4

1
ii) 3
2

iii) 6 days
iv) None of the above

Q: Two cars travel along the same road, one going at 50 m.p.h starts a A.M.,the
other which runs at 60 m.p.h starts at 10 A.M. At what will time the faster car
overtake the slower car?
A:
i) 3 P.M
ii) 4 P.M
iii) 5 P.M
iv) Never.

Q: If shipping charges to a certain point are 62 cents for the first five ounce and 8
cents for each additional ounce, the weight of a package for which the charges
are $1.66 is:

i) 13 ounces
ii) 18 ounces
iii) 20 ounces
iv) 24 ounces

Q: Village A has a population of 6800, which is decreasing at a rate of 120 pr year.

Village B has a population of 420, which is increasing at a rat of 80 per
year. In how many years, will the population of the two villages be equal?

i) 9
ii) 11
iii) 13
iv) 14

145

Q: A square is changed into a rectangle by increasing its length 10% and

decreasing its width 10%. Its area

i) Remains the same

 ii) Changes by 1%
iii) Changes by 5%
iv) Charges by 10%

Q: The radius r of a cylinder is increasing 1/2 inch per minute and the height is
increasing 1/8 inch per minute. How many cubic inches per minute is the
volume of the cylinder increasing when r = 4 inches and h = 6 inches,

i) 10 π
ii) 24 π
iii) 26 π
iv) None of the above.

Q: The average of four number is 45. If one of the numbers is increased by 6, the
average will remain unchanged if each of the other three numbers is reduced by

i) 1
ii) 2
iii) 3/4
iv) 4

Q: From a piece of tin in shape of a square, 2 inches one side, the largest possible
circle is cut out. Of the following, the ratio of the are of the original circle to the
are of the original square is closest in value to :

i) 4/5
ii) 2/3
iii) 3/5
iv) 3/4

146

Q: The tiles in the floor of a bathroom are 15/16 inch square. The cement b/w the
tiles is 1/16 inch. There are 3240 individual tiles in this flow. The area of
floor is.
 i) 224 sq. yds.
ii) 2.50 sq. yds.
iii) 250 sq. ft.
iv) 22.50 sq. ft.

Q: A train running between two towns arrives at its destination 10 minutes late,
when it goes at 40 m.p.h and 16 minutes when it goes at 30 m.p.h. The distance
between the two towns is :

i) 720 miles
ii) 12 miles
6
iii) 8
7

iv) None of the above

Q: A merchant sold two watches for Rs. 120 each. One was sold at a loss of 25%
of the cost and the confer was sold at gain of 25% of the cost. On both
transactions combined the merchant lost:

i) Rs. 64.00
ii) Rs. 36.00
iii) Rs. 16.00
iv) None of the above

Q: A savings and load association pays 4% interest which compounded

quarterly. At this rate, what is the interest on Rs. 600 for one quarter?

i) Rs. 4
ii) Rs. 24
iii) Rs. 6
iv) Rs. 60

147

Q: A number that is equal to the sum of all its positive divisors that are less than
the number itself is called a “perfect number”. Which of the following is a
perfect number?
 i) 16
ii) 12
iii) 10
iv) 6

Q: A person earns twice as much in December as in each of the other months. What
part of his entire year’s earnings does he earn in December?

i) 2/11
ii) 1/6
iii) 2/13
iv) 3/14

Q: The ice compartment in a refrigerator is 8 inches deep, 5 inches high and 4

inches wide. How many be cubes will it hold if each cube is 2 inches on each
edge?

i) 16
ii) 20
iii) 24
iv) 80

Q: A clock that gains two minutes each hour is synchronized at midnight with
a clock that loses one minute an hour. How many minutes apart will the
hands of the two clocks be at noon?

i) 30
ii) 24
iii) 14
iv) 36

148

Q: A house was rented to a man for a total of Rs. 3600 a month. Later 2 otmen
joined the groups and the amount paid by each men then living in thehouse was
 Rs. 480 less than before. If the men shared equally and the rent did not
change, how much was each man’s share under the new arrangement?

i) Rs. 480/-
ii) Rs. 720/-
iii) Rs. 840/-
iv) Rs. 960/-

Q: Mr. Khan and his son have the same birthday. When Mr. Khan was 40 years
old, his son was 16. How old was the boy when Mr. Khan was 10 times as old as his
son?
A:
i) 2 years 5 months
ii) 2 years 8 months
iii) 2 years 9 months
iv) 3 years

Q: A boy at point X would have reached point Y if he had walked 3 meters north
and then 2 meters east. Starting at point S, he walked 2 meters west. From this
point, what is the shortest distance to point Y ?

i) 3m
ii) 2√3m
iii) 3√2m
iv) 5m

Q: If X and Y are two positive integers and X2 Y3 = 200, then XY =

i) 10
ii) 50
iii) 20
iv) 12

149

Q: Which of the following are transcendental numbers?

 i) 3√7
ii) ein
iii) 3√3
iv) e-5

A) all four.
B) (iv) only
C) (ii), (iii), (iv) only
D) (iii) and (iv) only
b

Q: a f (x) dx is

i) Length of the curve between f(a) and f(b)

ii) Area of rectangle with slides equal to a and b
iii) Area of the region enclosed by x = a, and x=b, y=o and y=f (x)
iv) Difference of the values of f(x) at x=b and x=a

Q: Integral of Sin Cosx is

i) Sin2
ii) Cos2 x/2
iii) - 1/4 Cos 2x
iv) None of the above.

Q: The expression 5 3log5 x , Where x > o, is equivalent to :

i) 3x
ii) x5
iii) x3
iv) 5 3x

Q: Find the approximate error in the volume of a right circular cylinder of

radius 4 inches and altitude 8 inches, if they are measured respectively as 4.02”
and 7.99”.
i) 1.12 π
ii) 1.50 π
iii) 0.80 π
iv) 1.34 π

150

Q: If the probabilities that A and B will die within a year are P and Q respectively,
what is the probability that only one of them will be alive atthe end of the year?
 P+Q
P+Q
P+Q -2PQ
P+Q + 2PQ

Q: The cards numbered from 1 to 10 are mixed in a box, Two cards numbered
p and q are drawn from the box, what is the probability that p+q = 10?

2/5
4/9
7/45
4/45

Q: Value of the determinant

0 -1 1

2 0 2 is:

3 0 4

+2
0
-2
None of the above

Q: Find the equation of a line perpendicular to 3x + y – 1= 0 and through the point

of intersection of 2 x - y = 0 and 3x + 2y = 0

y = -3x + 1
y = 2x
y = x/2
y = x/3

151

Q: If the angles of triangle are in the ratio 2:3:7 the triangle is:

Acute
Isosceles
Obtuse
Right
 Q: Given : if all X are Z ad no Z are y, it necessarily follows that;

all Y are Z
all Y are X
no X are Y
no Z are X

Q: A country’s continued existence as a nation depends on taking active

measures to preserve national security. Some of these measures may not be
morally acceptable, but they must be undertaken, never the less.

i) It is impossible to act morally in foreign policy.

ii) Each country is morally obligated to defend its own security.
iii) The pursuit of continued nation existence is morally justifiable.
iv) Adherence to morality is less important then ensuring the country’s security.

Q: Following two questions are based on the following passage of statements:

In order to remodel his house, Mr. Khan has hired a plumber, a brick-
mason, an electrician and painter. The plumber is available only Monday
morning, all day Tuesday, and on Wednesday afternoon.

The brick-mason is available only on Monday afternoon, Wednesday

morning, and all day Friday.

The painter is available only all day Tuesday and on Friday morning.

Q: One of the workers asks to spend an entire day

working alone in the house. Mr. Khan can grant this request, without
losing any of another worker’s available time, if the worker making the
request is the:

152

(a) Plumber and the day is Monday

(b) Painter and the day is Tuesday
(c) Plumber and the day is Wednesday
(d) Electrician and the day is Thursday
 Q: The painter will needed only half a day to do the job required, but cannot begin
until all other workers have finished. If the work begins on Monday, what is the
earliest possible time the painter could began?

(a) Thursday afternoon

(b) Friday morning
(c) Wednesday morning
(d) Friday afternoon

Q: Of the visible spectrum the shortest wave length is :

(a) Red
(b) Violet
(c) Yellow
(d) None of the above.

Q: The forward thrust of a rocker is the reaction to :

i) The rearward momentum of exhaust gases

ii) The forward thrust of the rocket engine
iii) Burning of fuel
iv) None of the above.

A: A man has 40 ft. of wire fencing with which to form a rectangular garden.
providing the fourth side. Determine the maximum area that can beenclosed.

(a) 175 ft2

(b) 200 ft2
(c) 225 ft2
(d) None of the above.

153

Q: One ball is drawn at random from a box containing 3 red balls, 2 white balls
and 4 blue balls. Determine the probability “p” that it is not a red bal?
A:
1/3
2/3
 2/9
None of the above

Q: What is the maximum slope of the curve

y   x 3  3 x 2  9 x  27
A:
12
-36
-16
None of the above

Q: The water in a canal a point P is traveling 10 feet per second, but because of a
downgrade its speed is increasing 1/16 foot per second. If the rate of increase is
constant, how many feet will the water travel from point P in 1.1/15
minutes?

786 feet
644 feet
868 feet
None of the above.

Q: Which of the following pairs of functions are derivatives of each other:

SinX, CosX
e x ,e  x
Sin hx, Cos hx
None of the above

Q: Of the visited spectrum the shortest wavelength is:

Red
Yellow
Violet
None of the above.

154

Q: The units of thermal conductivity are:

W/m-oC
W/m2- oC
W/m- oC2
 None of the above

Q: Relative humidity has units of:

kg/m3
1b/ft3
1b/oC
None of the above.

Q: One refrigeration ton is equivalent to:

180000 BTU/hr
12000 BTU/hr
188000 BTU/hr
None of the above.

Q: Enthalpy has units of:

kg/kj
kj/kg
BTU/oF
None of the above.

Q: e V is a unit of:

Power
Momentum
Force
Energy

Q: One micrometer is:

10-4 cm
10-3 cm
10-6 cm
None of the above.

155

Q: When a flowing fluid enters the narrow section of nozzle, its pressure is:

Increased
Remains the same
Decreased
 None of the above

Q: A Hygrometer is used for measuring:

Temperature
Humidity
Velocity
None of the above

Q: The property which resists the flow of a gas or a liquid or a solid is called:

Diffusion
Viscosity
Sublimation
None of the above.

Q: The reciprocal of magnetic permeability is called:

Resistance
Reduction
Reluctivity
None of the above.

Q: An adiabatic process is one in which:

The pressure is constant

No work is done
No heat is transferred
Friction is not considered.

Q: The speed of earth around the sun is approximately:

33 km/s
330 km/s
33 m/s.
33 cm/s

156

Q: Which one has the largest specific heat?

Water
Air
Iron
Copper
Q: For the same volume, the surface to volume ratio is minimum for:

Sphere
Cylinder
Cube
Parallelepiped

Q: When a kettle full of water is placed on a burner for boiling, it temperature rises
as:

A linear function of time

Square function of time
A logarithmic function of time
None of the above.

Q: Two ships are 1550 miles apart sailing towards each other. One sails at rate
of 85 miles per day and other at a rate of 65 miles per day. How farapart they
will be at the end of 9 days?

180 miles
200 miles
220 miles
785 miles

Q: A cake is baked in a pan with a square bottom of side of length 24 cm. If the
cake is cut into bars 6 cm long and 4 cm wide, how many bars will there be?

12
24
36
None of the above.

157

Q: hydrogen burns in oxygen to produce water. If 18 kg o water is to be

produced as a result of the reaction, mass of hydrogen required would be:

18 kg
9 kg
2 kg
 4 kg

Q: If one mole of hydrogen gas is compressed to half its volume adiabatically so

that the new volume is 22.4 liters then the new temperature, pressure and
total mass of gas is:

2 atm, 10oC, 1gm

0.5 atms, O oC, 2gm
1 atm, O oC, 2 gm
1 atm, 2 oC, 1 gm

Q: A black body at temperature T is radiating heat at 256 cal/sec. When the

temperature reaches T/2, the heat flux radiated is of the order of (cal/sec.):

128
16
64
None of the above.

Q: The specific heat of water may be taken as 1.0. of an oil as 0.5 and that of a
solid as 0.1 in CGS units. If the same quantity of heat is supplied to an equal
mass of the three, the temperature rise in the three cases may be:

3oC, 15oC, 30oC

5oC, 6oC, 30oC
30oC, 10oC, 5oC
3oC, 6oC, 30oC

158

Q: A 10 cm cube of a metal has its two opposite faces at temperatures of 22oC

and 120oC. The heat flow through the cube is 20000. cal/s. Thermal
conductivity of the metal in CGS units is of the order of:

2.0
0.2
 20.0
None of the above.

Q: One mole of hydrogen and 0.5 moles of oxygen are in a bomb at 77oF. Thetotal
mass is 18.0 gms. A chemical reaction occurs and the temperature and pressure are
increased. The change in mass is approximately.

59.3 gms
18 gms
9 gms
No changes

Q: In an electrolysis of water 33 ampere- hours of current flow at 10 volts potential

difference produces 1 gm of hydrogen. in order to produce 1 kg of hydrogen,
the electric energy requirements in units of kilowatt-hours are of the order
of:

33
330
3.3
0.33

Q: A cubical tank with each side 2 m long, is exactly half field with w cubical
block of wood of specific gravity 0.6 and measuring 1 m on the edge is then
placed in the tank, so as to float with one face horizontal. The level of the
water in the tank will now be:

1.10 m
1.15 m
1.20 m
1.30

159

Q: A 5 m long ladder stands on a rough horizontal floor and leans against a

vertical smooth wall. Halfway up the ladder is placed a 50 kg mass.
Neglecting the weight of the ladder, the horizontal component of the
reaction against the bottom end of the ladder is closest to:

15 N
49 N
 147 N
184 N

Q: When a vertically hanging spring is loaded by a mass of 5 kg, the spring is

stretched by 5 cm The spring constant is of the order of:

25 kg-cm
1 Newton/m
9.8 Newton/m
None of the above.

Q: A circular hole of 10 cm diameter is cut in a disc of 20 cm ratio. T center of the

hole is located 10 cm vertically above the center of the disc.The center of
gravity of the perforated disc measured vertically from the bottom of the disc
will be loaded closest to:

17.9 cm
18.2 cm
18.9 cm
19.3 cm

Q: The cross-sectional area of a horizontal tube gradually narrows units it becomes

half of its original value. Water flows in the wide section at a speed of 2 m/s.
The pressure difference between the side and narrow sections will be:

1 kPa
2 kPa
6 kPa
16 kPa

160

Q: A house has two adjacent glass windows. Window A has area 3 m2 thickness 0.6
cm and window B has area 2 m2 and thickness 0.5 cm. The R Ratio of the
heat flow through the two windows qA/qB is:

0.69
0.83
 1.0
1.25

Q: If three capacitors each of value 0. IF are connected in series then total

capacitance is:

0.3 F
0.33 F
0.333 F
0. IF

Q: In a series circuit containing resistance, capacitance and inductance, in order

to increase the resonant frequency it is necessary to:

Increase the capacitance

Increase the resistance
Decrease the resistance
Decrease the inductance.

Q: Following two questions are based on the following statement:

Two groups of electric lamps are connected in series across a 220 Volts line.
The first group has 12 lamps in parallel. Each lamp will carry 0.8 A at 110
V. Assume the resistance of the lamps constant at varying voltages.

Q: The potential difference across the 30 lamp group is closest to:

63 V
87 V
126 V
157 V

161

Q: A regular hexagon is inscribed in a circle of area 814 cm 2. The area of the

hexagon in cm2 is closest to:

230
240
250
 260

Q: A 13 m ladder leans against a vertical wall. At a particular instant, the foot of

the ladder is 5 m out from the base of the wall and is being drawn away at the
rate of 2 m/s. How fast is the top of the ladder moving down the wall at
this instant?

5/6, m/s
6/5, m/s
2, m/s
24/5, m/s

Q: The volume to surface ratio of a solid cylinder of radius 2 cm and length 4

cm is about:

0.67
1.0
1.5
None of the above.

Q: The slope of a line which is perpendicular to the line 3y + 2x - 3 = 0 is:

- 3/2
-2/3
3/2
None of the above.

Q: The sum of the first n integers is:

n(n-1)/2
n(n+1)/2
n(n+1)
None of the above.

162

Q: The harmonic mean of two numbers 5 and 2 is:

3.5
20/7
7.0
None of the above
Q: The sum of the two binary numbers 10110 and 10011 is:

101001
110011
111001
None of the above

Q: A square root of-1 where i = √-1

-1/2 + 1/2
1 1
 
3 2 2 2
-1/ √2 + 1/√2
None of the above.

Q: Given the complex number Z = (2-3i)2/(2+3i) the real part of Z is:

2/13
-7/13
-46/13
-49/13

Q: The solution of cos Z = 4 is:

No solution
Indeterminate
Z must be a complex number
None of the above

163

Q: (4+2i)/(5-4i) when expressed as a complex number is:

12/41 + i 26/41
12/41 - i 26/41
26/41 + i 12/41
None of the above.
Q: The number of samples of 5 light bulbs which can be selected from a lot c 10
bulb is:

250
252
254
256

Q: Three screws are drawn from a lot of 100 screws, 10 of which are defective.
The probability of the event that all 3 screws drawn ( we drawn without
replacement) are non-defective is nearest to:

92%
87%
82%
73%

Q: The position function of a point p on a coordinate line is given by s(t) = t - 12t2

+ 36t-20, where t is in seconds and s(t) in meters. The velocity of is zero when
the values of t are:

2 and 6
0 and 5
3 and 4
1 an 7

Q: The solution of x2 + y2 = 25 and 12 x2 + 7xy - 12 y2 = 0 is:

(3,4), (-3,-4), (4,-3), (-4,3)

(-3,4), (3,4), (4,-5), (-4,6)
Both (i) and (ii)
None of the above

164

Q: y = ex +4 is a solution of the differential equation:

y = dy/dx -4
y = 4 – dy/dx
y = dy/dx +4
None of the above
Q: The work done by the force F = 3i -2j + 4k (i, j and k being unit vectors along
x, y and z axes respectively) on a particle when it is displaced from P :(8, -2,-3)
to Q: (-2,0,6) is:

2 units
4 units
5 units
None of the above

Q: The integral of dx/(a+bx) is:

1n(a+bx)/ab
1n(a+bx)/a
1n(a+bx)/b
None of the above

Q: The integral of 1n(x) dx is:

x 1n(x) - x
1n(x) - 1
x1n(x) + x
(x 1n(x) - x)/x

Q: The value of the definite integral x2 dx (x3 - 2)2 from -2 to 0 is:

1/15
2/15
7/15
11/15