MCQs Transistor Biasing Op-Amp

Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on Transistor Biasing
Q1. Transistor biasing represents ……………. conditions

1. c.
2. c.
3. both a.c. and d.c.
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q2. Transistor biasing is done to keep ………… in the circuit
1. Proper direct current
2. Proper alternating current
3. The base current small
4. Collector current small
Answer : 1
Q3. Operating point represents …………..
1. Values of IC and VCE when signal is applied
2. The magnitude of signal
3. Zero signal values of IC and VCE
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q4. If biasing is not done in an amplifier circuit, it results in ……………
1. Decrease in the base current
2. Unfaithful amplification
3. Excessive collector bias
Answer : 2
Q5. Transistor biasing is generally provided by a …………….
1. Biasing circuit
2. Bias battery
3. Diode
Answer : 1
Q6. For faithful amplification by a transistor circuit, the value of VBE should ………. for a silicon transistor
1. Be zero
2. Be 0.01 V
3. Not fall below 0.7 V
4. Be between 0 V and 0.1 V
Answer : 3
Q7. For proper operation of the transistor, its collector should have …………
1. Proper forward bias
2. Proper reverse bias
3. Very small size
Answer : 2
Q8. For faithful amplification by a transistor circuit, the value of VCE should ……….. for silicon transistor
1. Not fall below 1 V
2. Be zero
3. Be 0.2 V
Answer : 1
Q9. The circuit that provides the best stabilization of operating point is …………
1. Base resistor bias
2. Collector feedback bias
3. Potential divider bias
Answer : 3
Q10. The point of intersection of d.c. and a.c. load lines represents …………..
1. Operating point
2. Current gain
3. Voltage gain
Answer : 1
Q11. An ideal value of stability factor is …………..
1. 100
2. 200
3. More than 200
4. 1
Answer : 4
Q12. The zero signal IC is generally ……………… mA in the initial stages of a transistor amplifier
1. 4
2. 1
3. 3
4. More than 10
Answer : 2
Q13. If the maximum collector current due to signal alone is 3 mA, then zero signal collector current should be at least equal to ………..
1. 6 mA
2. mA
3. 3 mA
4. 1 mA
Answer : 3
Q14. The disadvantage of base resistor method of transistor biasing is that it …………
1. Is complicated
2. Is sensitive to changes in ß
3. Provides high stability
Answer : 2
Q15. The biasing circuit has a stability factor of 50. If due to temperature change, ICBO changes by 1 µA, then I C will change by …………
1. 100 µA
2. 25 µA
3. 20 µA
4. 50 µA
Answer : 4
Q16. For good stabilsation in voltage divider bias, the current I 1 flowing through R1 and R2 should be equal to or greater than
1. 10 IB
2. 3 IB
3. 2 IB
4. 4 IB
Answer : 1
Q17. The leakage current in a silicon transistor is about ………… the leakage current in a germanium transistor
1. One hundredth
2. One tenth
3. One thousandth
4. One millionth
Answer : 3
Q18. The operating point is also called the ………….
1. Cut off point
2. Quiescent point
3. Saturation point
Answer : 2
Q19. For proper amplification by a transistor circuit, the operating point should be located at the ………….. of the d.c. load line
1. The end point
2. Middle
3. The maximum current point
Answer : 2
Q20. The operating point ………………… on the a.c. load line
1. Also line
2. Does not lie
3. May or may not lie
4. Data insufficient
Answer : 1
Q21. The disadvantage of voltage divider bias is that it has ………….
1. High stability factor
2. Low base current
3. Many resistors
Answer : 3
Q22. Thermal runaway occurs when ……….
1. Collector is reverse biased
2. Transistor is not biased
3. Emitter is forward biased
4. Junction capacitance is high
Answer : 2
Q23. The purpose of resistance in the emitter circuit of a transistor amplifier is to ………….
1. Limit the maximum emitter current
2. Provide base-emitter bias
3. Limit the change in emitter current
Answer : 3
Q24. In a transistor amplifier circuit VCE = VCB + ……………..
1. VBE
2. 2VBE
3. 5 VBE
Answer : 1
Q25. The base resistor method is generally used in ………
1. Amplifier circuits
2. Switching circuits
3. Rectifier circuits
Answer : 2
Q26. For germanium transistor amplifier, VCE should ………….. for faithful amplification
1. Be zero
2. Be 0.2 V
Answer : 3
Q27. In a base resistor method, if the value of β changes by 50, then collector current will change by a factor ………
1. 25
2. 50
3. 100
4. 200
Answer : 2
Q28. The stability factor of a collector feedback bias circuit is ……….. that of base resistor bias.
1. The same as
2. More than
3. Less than
Answer : 3
Q29. In the design of a biasing circuit, the value of collector load RC is determined by …………
1. VCE consideration
2. VBE consideration
3. IB consideration
Answer : 1
Q30. If the value of collector current I C increases, then the value of VCE …………
1. Remains the same
2. Decreases
3. Increases
Answer : 2
Q31. If the temperature increases, the value of VCE …………
1. Remains the same
2. Is increased
3. Is decreased
Answer : 3
Q32. The stabilisation of operating point in potential divider method is provided by ……….
1. RE consideration
2. RC consideration
3. VCC consideration
Answer: 1
Q33. The value of VBE …………….
1. Depends upon IC to moderate extent
2. Is almost independent of IC
3. Is strongly dependant on IC
Answer : 2
Q34. When the temperature changes, the operating point is shifted due to …….
1. Change in ICBO
2. Change in VCC
3. Change in the values of circuit resistance
Answer : 1
Q35. The value of stability factor for a base resistor bias is …………
1. RB (β+1)
2. (β+1)RC
3. (β+1)
4. 1-β
Answer : 3
Q36. In a particular biasing circuit, the value of RE is about ………
1. 10 kΩ
2. 1 MΩ
3. 100 kΩ
4. 800 Ω
Answer : 4
Q37. A silicon transistor is biased with base resistor method. If β=100, VBE =0.7 V, zero signal collector current IC = 1 mA and VCC = 6V , what is the value of the base resistor RB?
1. 105 kΩ
2. 530 kΩ
3. 315 kΩ
Answer : 2
Q38. In voltage divider bias, VCC = 25 V; R1 = 10 kΩ; R2 = 2.2 V ; RC = 3.6 V and RE =1 kΩ. What is the emitter voltage?
1. 7V
2. 3V
o V
3. 8V
Answer : 4
Q39. In the above question (Q38.) , what is the collector voltage?
5. 3V
6. 8V
7. 6V
8. 7V
Answer : 1
Q40. In voltage divider bias, operating point is 3 V, 2 mA. If VCC = 9 V, RC = 2.2 kΩ, what is the value of RE ?
1. 2000 Ω
2. 1400 Ω
3. 800 Ω
4. 1600 Ω
Answer : 3
Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on Op-Amp ( Operational Amplifier )

Sasmita April 13, 2016 Multiple Choice Questions and Answers
Q1. A differential amplifier ……………..
1. is a part of an Op-amp
2. has one input and one output
3. has two outputs
4. answers (1) and (2)
Answer : 4
Q 2. When a differential amplifier is operated single-ended, …………
1. the output is grounded
2. one input is grounded and signal is applied to the other
3. both inputs are connected together
4. the output is not inverted
Answer : 2
Q3. In differential-mode, …………….
1. opposite polarity signals are applied to the inputs
2. the gain is one
3. the outputs are of different amplitudes
4. only one supply voltage is used
Answer : 1
Q4. In the common mode, ……………
1. both inputs are grounded
2. the outputs are connected together
3. an identical signal appears on both the inputs
4. the output signal are in-phase
Answer : 3
Q5. The common-mode gain is ………..
1. very high
2. very low
3. always unity
4. unpredictable
Answer : 2
Q6. The differential gain is ………
1. very high
2. very low
3. dependent on input voltage
4. about 100
Answer : 1
Q7. If ADM = 3500 and ACM = 0.35, the CMRR is ……….
1. 1225
2. 10,000
3. 80 dB
Answer : 4
Q8. With zero volts on both inputs, an OP-amp ideally should have an output ………..
1. equal to the positive supply voltage
2. equal to the negative supply voltage
3. equal to zero
4. equal to CMRR
Answer : 3
Q9. Of the values listed, the most realistic value for open-loop voltage gain of an OP-amp is ……
1. 1
2. 2000
3. 80 dB
4. 100,000
Answer : 4
Q10. A certain OP-amp has bias currents of 50 μA. The input offset current is ……..
1. 700 nA
2. 99.3 μA
3. 49.7 μA
4. none of these
Answer : 1
Q11. The output of a particular Op-amp increases 8V in 12μs. The slew rate is …….
1. 90 V/μs
2. 0.67 V/μs
3. 1.5 V/μs
4. none of these
Answer : 2
Q12. For an Op-amp with negative feedback, the output is …….
1. equal to the input
2. increased
3. fed back to the inverting input
4. fed back to the noninverting input
Answer : 3
Q13. The use of negative feedback ………
1. reduces the voltage gain of an Op-amp
2. makes the Op-amp oscillate
3. makes linear operation possible
Answer : 4
Q14. Negative feedback ………..
1. increases the input and output impedances
2. increases the input impedance and bandwidth
3. decreases the output impedance and bandwidth
4. does not affect impedance or bandwidth
Answer : 2
Q15. A certain noninverting amplifier has Ri of 1 kΩ and Rf of 100 kΩ. The closed-loop voltage gain is ………
1. 100,000
2. 1000
3. 101
4. 100
Answer : 3
Q16. If the feedback resistor in Q15 (above question) is open, the voltage gain …….
1. increases
2. decreases
3. is not affected
4. depends on Ri
Answer : 1
Q17. A certain inverting amplifier has a closed-loop voltage gain of 25. The Op-amp has an open-loop voltage gain of 100,000. If an Op-amp with an open-loop voltage gain of 200,000 is
substituted in the arrangement, the closed-loop gain ……..
1. doubles
2. drops to 12.5
3. remains at 25
4. increases slightly
Answer : 3
Q18. A voltage follower ……….
1. has a voltage gain of 1
2. is noninverting
3. has no feedback resistor
4. has all of these
Answer : 4
Q19. The Op-amp can amplify
1. a.c. signals only
2. d.c. signals only
3. both a.c. and d.c. signals
4. neither d.c. nor a.c. signals
Answer : 3
Q20. The input offset current equals the ……….
1. difference between two base currents
2. average of two base currents
3. collector current divided by current gain
4. none of these
Answer : 1
Q21. The tail current of a differential amplifier is …….
1. half of either collector current
2. equal to either collector current
3. two times either collector current
4. equal to the difference in base currents
Answer : 3
Q22. The node voltage at the top of the til resistor is closes to ……….
1. collector supply voltage
2. zero
3. emitter supply voltage
4. tail current times base resistance
Answer : 2
Q23. The tail current in a differential amplifier equals …….
1. difference between two emitter currents
2. sum of two emitter currents
4. collector voltage divided by collector resistance
Answer : 2
Q24. The differential voltage gain of a differential amplifier is equal to RC divided by …….
1. r’e
2. r’e/2
3. 2r’e
4. RE
Answer : 3
Q25. The input impedance of a differential amplifier equals r’e times ……
1. β
2. RE
3. RC
4. 2β
Answer : 4
Q26. A common-mode signal is applied to ……….
1. the noninverting input
2. the inverting input
3. both iputs
4. top of the tail resistor
Answer : 3
Q27. The common-mode voltage gain is ………
1. smaller than differentail voltage gain
2. equal to differential voltage gain
3. greater than differential voltage gain
Answer : 1
Q28. The input stage of an Op-amp is usually a ……….
1. differential amplifier
2. class B push-pull amplifier
3. CE amplifier
4. swamped amplifier
Answer : 1
Q29. The common-mode voltage gain of a differential amplifier is equal to RC divided by ……..
1. r’e
2. 2r’e
3. r’e/2
4. 2RE
Answer : 4
Q30. Current cannot flow to ground through …….
1. a mechanical ground
2. an a.c. ground
3. a virtual ground
4. an ordinary ground
Answer : 3
Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on Analog Communication (Part-3)

Sasmita November 30, 2016 Multiple Choice Questions and Answers
1) FM is advantageous over AM as

a. The amplitude of FM is constant. So transmitter power remains unchanged in FM but it changes in AM
b. The depth of modulation in FM can be changed to any value by changing the frequency deviation. So the signal is not distorted
c. There is less possibility of adjacent channel interference due to presence of guard bands
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
2) VCO is used to generate
a. Direct FM
b. Indirect FM
c. SSB-SC
d. DSB-SC
ANSWER: (a) Direct FM
3) Change in instantaneous phase of the carrier with change in amplitude of the modulating signal generates
a. Direct FM
b. Indirect FM
c. SSB-SC
d. DSB-SC
ANSWER: (b) Indirect FM
4) Phase-locked loop can be used as
a. FM demodulator
b. AM demodulator
c. FM receiver
d. AM receiver
ANSWER: (a) FM demodulator
5) The increase or decrease in the frequency around the carrier frequency is termed as
a. Figure factor
b. Frequency deviation
c. Modulation index
d. Frequency pectrum
ANSWER: (b) Frequency deviation
6) Carson’s rule is used to calculate
a. Bandwidth of FM signal
b. Signal to noise ratio
c. Modulation index
d. Noise figure
ANSWER: (a) Bandwidth of FM signal
7) The ratio of maximum peak frequency deviation and the maximum modulating signal frequency is termed as
a. Frequency deviation
b. Deviation ratio
c. Signal to noise ratio
d. Frequency spectrum
ANSWER: (b) Deviation ratio
8) The equation v(t) = A cos [ωct + kp Φ(t)] represents the signal as
a. Phase modulated signal
b. SSBSC signal
c. DSB SC signal
d. None of the above
ANSWER: (a) Phase modulated signal
9) Calculate the maximum frequency deviation for the FM signal
v(t) = 10 cos (6000t+ 5sin2200t)
a. 2200 Hz
b. 6000 Hz
c. 1750 Hz
d. 11000 Hz
ANSWER: (c) 1750 Hz
Explanation:
A standard FM signal is represented by
v(t) = Ac cos(2πfct + kfsin2πfmt)
Ac = carrier amplitude
fc = carrier frequency
kf = modulation index
fm = modulating frequency = 2200/2π = 350 Hz
kf = frequency deviation/modulating frequency
5 = freq deviation/ 350
Therefore, deviation = 5 * 350
= 1750Hz
10) Calculate the dissipation in power across 20Ω resistor for the FM signal
v(t)= 20 cos(6600t+ 10sin2100t)
a. 5W
b. 20W
c. 10W
d. 400W
ANSWER: (a) 5W
Explanation:
fm = modulating frequency
the power dissipated across 20Ω resistor is given by
Vrms2/R
=(20/√2)2/R
= 5W
11) What is the value of carrier frequency in the following equation for the FM signal?
v(t)= 5 cos(6600t+ 12sin2500t)
a. 1150 Hz
b. 6600 Hz
c. 2500 Hz
d. 1050 Hz
ANSWER: (d) 1050 Hz
Explanation:
therefore, fc = 6600/2π
= 1050Hz
12) Calculate the modulation index in an FM signal when fm (modulating frequency) is 250Hz and Δf (frequency deviation) is 5KHz.
a. 20
b. 35
c. 50
d. 75
ANSWER: (a) 20
Explanation:
Modulation index is the measure of how much the modulation parameter changes from its un modulated value. The modulation index of FM is given by
μ = frequency deviation/ modulating frequency
= Δf/ fm
Where Δf is the peak frequency deviation i.e. the deviation in the instantaneous value of the frequency with modulating signal.
fm is the value of modulating frequency
μ = 5000/250
= 20
13) After passing the FM signal through mixer, what is the change in the frequency deviation Δ when the modulating frequency is doubled?
a. Becomes 2 Δ
b. Becomes Δ /2
c. Becomes Δ2
d. Remains unchanged
ANSWER: (d) Remains unchanged
14) In frequency modulation,
a. Armstrong method is used for generation
b. Multiple side bands are generated
c. The FM signal has infinite bandwidth
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (d) All of the above
15) Maximum frequency deviation and the maximum bandwidth allowed for commercial FM broadcast is
a. 80KHz, 160Khz
b. 75KHz, 200Khz
c. 60KHz, 170Khz
d. 75KHz, 250Khz
ANSWER: 7 (b) 5KHz, 200Khz
16) Guard bands are provided in FM signal to
a. Prevent interference from adjacent channels
b. To increase the noise
c. To increase bandwidth
ANSWER: (a) Prevent interference from adjacent channels
17) For a FM signal v(t) = 15 cos ( 10 * 108t + 10 sin 1220t), calculate
1. Carrier frequency
2. Modulating frequency
a. 159.1MHz, 194.1Hz
b. 185.5MHz, 200.15Hz
c. 350.1MHz, 200.1Hz
d. 159.1Hz, 194.1Hz
ANSWER: 1 (a) 59.1MHz, 194.1Hz
18) For a FM signal v(t) = 25 cos (15 * 108t + 10 sin 1550t), calculate:
1. Modulation index
2. Maximum frequency deviation
a. 10, 3000.1Hz
b. 20, 1550.9Hz
c. 10, 2465.9Hz
d. 10, 2000.0Hz
ANSWER: (c) 10, 2465.9Hz
Explanation:
Standard expression for FM signal is given by
v(t) = A cos ( ωct + mf sin ωmt)
Comparing with the given equation,
Modulation index mf = 10
Maximum frequency deviation is given by
mf = Δf/fm
Δf = mf * fm
Here fm = 1550/2Π = 246.59 Hz
Δf = 10 * 246.59
= 2465.9Hz
19) For a FM signal v(t) = 20 cos ( 10 * 108t + 30 sin 3000t), calculate the power dissipated by the FM wave in a 20Ω resistor.
a. 100 Watts
b. 10 Watts
c. 200 Watts
d. 20 Watts
ANSWER: (b) 10 Watts
Explanation:
v(t) = A cos ( Ωct + mf sin Ωmt)
A = 20
The dissipated power is given by P = V2rms/R
= (20/√2)2/ 20
= 10Watts
20) A 100MHz carrier is frequency modulated by 5 KHz wave. For a frequency deviation of 100 KHz, calculate the carrier swing of the FM signal.
a. 2000 KHz
b. 100 KHz
c. 105 KHz
d. 200 KHz
ANSWER: (d) 200 KHz
Explanation:
Carrier frequency fc = 100MHz
Modulating frequency fm = 5 KHz
Frequency deviation Δf = 100 KHz
Carrier swing of the FM signal = 2 * Δf
= 2 * 100
= 200 KHz
21) A 100MHz carrier is frequency modulated by 10 KHz wave. For a frequency deviation of 50 KHz, calculate the modulation index of the FM signal.
a. 100
b. 50
c. 70
d. 90
ANSWER: (b) 50
Explanation:
Modulation index of FM signal is given by
mf = Δf/fm
= 500 * 103/ 10 * 103
= 50
22) Narrow band FM has the characteristics:
a. The frequency sensitivity kf is small
b. Bandwidth is narrow
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: (c) Both a and b
23) Wide band FM has the characteristics:
a. The frequency sensitivity kf is large
b. Bandwidth is wide
c. Both a and b
24) Determine the Bandwidth of a FM wave when the maximum deviation allowed is 75KHz and the modulating signal has a frequency of 10KHz.
a. 170 KHz
b. 200 KHz
c. 100 KHz
d. 1000 KHz
ANSWER: (a) 170 KHz
Explanation:
According to Carson s rule, BW = 2(Δf + fm)
= 2 (75 + 10)
= 170 KHz
25) FM signal is better than AM signal because
a. Less immune to noise
b. Less adjacent channel interference
c. Amplitude limiters are used to avoid amplitude variations
d. All of the above
26) FM is disadvantageous over AM signal because
a. much wider channel bandwidth is required
b. FM systems are more complex and costlier
c. Adjacent channel interference is more
d. Both a and b
ANSWER: (d) Both a and b
27) For a three stage cascade amplifier, calculate the overall noise figure when each stage has a gain of 12 DB and noise figure of 8dB.
a. 12
b. 24
c. 13.55
d. 8
ANSWER: (c) 13.55
Explanation:
As the signal passes through various stages of an amplifier, the output has the original signal and some noise that gets amplified at different stages of amplifiers. So the final noise figure of the cascaded
amplifier is obtained by
FN = F1 + (F2 – 1)/ G1 + (F3 – 1)/ G1G2+……+(FN– 1)/ G1G2G3 GN
F1, F2, F3 .. FN, G1,G2, G3…. GN are the noise figures and the gains respectively of the amplifiers at different stages.
F1 = 12, F2 = 12, F3 = 12
G1 = 8, G2 = 8, G3 = 8
FN = 12 + (12- 1)/ 8+ (12- 1)/ 8 * 8
= 12 + 11/8 + 11/64
= 13.55
28) The Hilbert transform of the signal sinω1t + sinω2t is
a. sinω1t + sinω2t
b. cosω1t + cosω2t
c. sinω2t + cosω2t
d. sinω1t + sinω1t
ANSWER: (b) cosω1t + cosω2t
Explanation:
In Hilbert transform, the signal gets shifted by 900.
So the signal sinω1t+ sinω2t gets shifted by 900
sinω1(t+900)+ sinω2(t+900)
= cosω1t+ cosω2t
29) The noise due to random behaviour of charge carriers is
a. Shot noise
b. Partition noise
c. Industrial noise
d. Flicker noise
ANSWER: (a) Shot noise
30) Transit time noise is
a. Low frequency noise
b. High frequency noise
c. Due to random behavior of carrier charges
d. Due to increase in reverse current in the device
ANSWER: (b) High frequency noise
31) Figure of merit γ is
a. Ratio of output signal to noise ratio to input signal to noise ratio
b. Ratio of input signal to noise ratio to output signal to noise ratio
c. Ratio of output signal to input signal to a system
d. Ratio of input signal to output signal to a system
ANSWER: (a) Ratio of output signal to noise ratio to input signal to noise ratio
32) Signum function sgn(f), for f>0, f=0 and f<0, has the values:
a. -1 to +1
b. +1, 0, -1 respectively
c. -∞ to + ∞
d. 0 always
ANSWER: (b) +1, 0, -1 respectively
Explanation:
The sgn(f) is a signum function that is defined in the frequency domain as
sgn(f) = 1, f> 0
= 0, f = 0
= -1, f< 0
Mathematically, the sign function or signum function is an odd mathematical function which extracts the sign of a real number and is often represented as sgn
33) In Hilbert transform of a signal, the phase angles of all components of a given signal are shifted by
a. +/- π
b. +/- π/4
c. +/- π/2
d. Any angle from 00 to 3600
ANSWER: (c) +/- π/2
34) The noise voltage (Vn) and the signal bandwidth (B) are related as
a. Vn is directly proportional to bandwidth
b. Vn is directly proportional to √bandwidth
c. Vn is inversely proportional to absolute temperature
d. Vn is inversely proportional to bandwidth
ANSWER: (b) Vn is directly proportional to √bandwidth
35) Noise factor for a system is defined as the ratio of
a. Input noise power (Pni) to output noise power (Pno)
b. Output noise power (Pno) to input noise power (Pni)
c. Output noise power (Pno) to input signal power (Psi)
d. Output signal power (Pso) to input noise power (Pni)
ANSWER: (b) Output noise power (Pno) to input noise power (Pni)
36) Noise Factor(F) and Noise Figure(NF) are related as
a. NF = 10 log10(F)
b. F = 10 log10(NF)
c. NF = 10 (F)
d. F = 10 (NF)
ANSWER: (a) NF = 10 log10(F)
37) The Noise Factor for cascaded amplifiers (FN) is given by (F1, F2, F3 .. FN, G1, G2, G3….GN) are the noise factors and the gains of the amplifiers at different stages:
a. FN = F1 + F2/ G1 + F3/ G1G2+ ..+ FN/ G1G2G3GN
b. FN = F1 + (F2 – 1)/ G1 + (F3 – 1)/ (G1+G2)+ ..+(FN – 1)/ (G1+G2+G3+…+GN)
c. FN = F1 + F2/ G1 + F3/ (G1+G2) +…+ FN/ (G1+G2+G3+…+GN)
d. FN = F1 + (F2 – 1)/ G1 + (F3 – 1)/ G1G2+…+(FN – 1)/ G1G2G3GN
ANSWER: (d) FN = F1 + (F2 – 1)/ G1 + (F3 – 1)/ G1G2+…+(FN – 1)/ G1G2G3GN
38) For a two stage amplifier, first amplifier has Voltage gain = 20, Input Resistance R in1=700Ω, equivalent Resistance Req1=1800Ω and Output Resistor Ro1 = 30KΩ. The corresponding values of
second amplifier are : 25, 80 KΩ, 12 KΩ, 1.2 MΩ respectively. What is the value of equivalent input noise resistance of the given two stage amplifier?
a. 2609.1Ω
b. 2607.1Ω
c. 107.1Ω
d. 2107.1Ω
ANSWER: (b) 2607.1Ω
Explanation:
R1 = Rin1 + Req1 = 700 + 1800 = 2500Ω
R2 = (Ro1 Rin2)/ (Ro1 + Rin2) + Req2 = 30 * 80/(30 + 80) + 12 = 40.92KΩ
R3 = Ro2 = 1.2MΩ
Equivalent input noise resistance of a two stage amplifier is given by
Req = R1 + R2/ A21 + R3/ (A21 A22)
= 2500 + 40.92 * 103/(20)2 + 1.2 * 106/(20)2(25)2
= 2607.1Ω
39) The noise temperature at a resistor depends upon
a. Resistance value
b. Noise power
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: (b) Noise power
40) Noise voltage Vn and absolute temperature T are related as
a. Vn = 1/ √(4RKTB)
b. Vn = √(4RK)/ (TB)
c. Vn = √(4RKTB)
d. Vn = √(4KTB)/R
ANSWER: (c) Vn = √(4RKTB)
Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on Microcontrollers and Applications(Part-4)

Sasmita December 16, 2016 Multiple Choice Questions and Answers
1) How many clock pulses are confined by each machine cycle of Peripheral-Interface Controllers?
a. 4
b. 8
c. 12
d. 16
ANSWER: (a) 4
2) Which flags are more likely to get affected in status registers by Arithmetic and Logical Unit (ALU) of PIC 16 CXX on the basis of instructions execution?
a. Carry (C) Flags
b. Zero (Z) Flags
c. Digit Carry (DC) Flags
d. All of the above
3) What is the execution speed of instructions in PIC especially while operating at the maximum value of clock rate?
a. 0.1 μs
b. 0.2 μs
c. 0.4 μs
d. 0.8 μs
ANSWER: (b) 0.2 μs
4) Which operational feature of PIC allows it to reset especially when the power supply drops the voltage below 4V?
a. Built-in Power-on-reset
b. Brown-out reset
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: (b)Brown-out reset
5) Which among the below stated reasons is/are responsible for the selection of PIC implementation/design on the basis of Harvard architecture instead of Von-Newman architecture?
a. Improvement in bandwidth
b. Instruction fetching becomes possible over a single instruction cycle
c. Independent bus access provision to data memory even while accessing the program memory
d. All of the above
6) Which among the below specified major functionalities is/are associated with the programmable timers of PIC?
a. Excogitation of Inputs
b. Handling of Outputs
c. Interpretation of internal timing for program execution
d. Provision of OTP for large and small production runs
a. Only C
b. C & D
c. A, B & D
d. A, B & C
ANSWER: (d) A, B & C
7) Which timer/s possess an ability to prevent an endless loop hanging condition of PIC along with its own on-chip RC oscillator by contributing to its reliable operation?
a. Power-Up Timer (PWRT)
b. Oscillator Start-Up Timer (OST)
c. Watchdog Timer (WDT)
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) Watchdog Timer (WDT)
8) Which among the CPU registers of PIC 16C6X/7X is not 8-bit wide?
a. Status Register
b. Program Counter Latch (PCLATH) Register
c. Program Counter Low Byte (PCL) Register
d. File Selection Register (FSR)
ANSWER: (b) Program Counter Latch (PCLATH) Register
9) Which register/s is/are mandatory to get loaded at the beginning before loading or transferring the contents to corresponding destination registers?
a. W
b. INDF
c. PCL
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (a) W
10) How many RPO status bits are required for the selection of two register banks?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 8
d. 16
ANSWER: (a) 1

11) The RPO status register bit has the potential to determine the effective address of______
a. Direct Addressing Mode
b. Indirect Addressing Mode
c. Immediate Addressing Mode
d. Indc. Watchdog Timer (WDT) exed Addressing Mode
ANSWER: (a) Direct Addressing Mode
12) Which status bits exhibit carry from lower 4 bits during 8-bit addition and are especially beneficial for BCD addition?
a. Carry bit (C)
b. Digits Carry bit (DC)
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: (b) Digits Carry bit (DC)
13) Which statement is precise in relation to FSR, INDF and indirect addressing mode?
a. Address byte must be written in FSR before executing INDF instruction in indirect addressing mode
b. Address byte must be written in FSR after executing INDF instruction in indirect addressing mode
c. Address byte must be written in FSR at the same time during the execution of INDF instruction in indirect addressing mode
d. Address byte must be always written in FSR as it is independent of any instruction in indirect addressing mode
a. Only A
b. Only B
c. Only A & B
d. A & D
ANSWER: (a) Only A
14) Which among the below stated registers specify the address reachability within 7 bits of address independent of RP0 status bit register?
a. PCL
b. FSR
c. INTCON
d. All of the above
15) Where do the contents of PCLATH get transferred in the higher location of program counter while writing in PCL (Program Counter Latch)?
a. 11th bit
b. 12th bit
c. 13th bit
d. 14th bit
ANSWER: (c) 13th bit
16) Which condition/s of MCLR (master clear) pin allow to reset the PIC?
a. High
b. Low
c. Moderate
d. All of the above
ANSWER:(b) Low
17) Generation of Power-on-reset pulse can occur only after __________
a. the detection of increment in VDD from 1.5 V to 2.1 V
b. the detection of decrement in VDD from 2.1 V to 1.5 V
c. the detection of variable time delay on power up mode
d. the detection of current limiting factor
ANSWER: (a) the detection of increment in VDD from 1.5 V to 2.1 V
18) What is the rate of power up delay provided by an oscillator start-up timer while operating at XT, LP and HS oscillator modes?
a. 512 cycles
b. 1024 cycles
c. 2048 cycles
d. 4096 cycles
ANSWER: (b) 1024 cycles
19) Which kind of mode is favourable for MCLR pin for indulging in reset operations?
a. Normal mode
b. Sleep mode
c. Power-down mode
d. Any flexible mode
ANSWER: (b) Sleep mode
20) What is the purpose of using the start-up timers in an oscillator circuit of PIC?
a. For ensuring the inception and stabilization of an oscillator in a proper manner
b. For detecting the rise in VDD
c. For enabling or disabling the power-up timers
d. For generating the fixed delay of 72ms on power-up timers
ANSWER: (a) For ensuring the inception and stabilization of an oscillator in a proper manner
21) Which program location is allocated to the program counter by the reset function in Power-on-Reset (POR) action modes?
a. Initial address
b. Middle address
c. Final address
d. At any address reliable for reset operations
ANSWER: (a) Initial address
22) When does it become very essential to use the external RC components for the reset circuits?
a. Only if initialization is necessary for RAM locations
b. Only if VDD power-up slope is insufficient at a requisite level
c. Only if voltage drop exceeds beyond the limit
d. Only if current limiting factor increases rapidly
ANSWER: (b) Only if VDD power-up slope is insufficient at a requisite level
23) Which among the below mentioned PICs do not support the Brown-Out-Reset (BOR) feature?
a. PIC 16C66
B. PIC 16C74
C. PIC 16C61
D. PIC 16C71
a. A & B
b. C & D
c. A & C
d. B & D
ANSWER: (b) C & D
24) Which crucial feature/function of Brown-Out-Reset (BOR) makes the PIC to be completely unique and distinct from other microcontrollers?
a. It can reset the PIC automatically in running condition
b. It can reset the PIC even when the supply voltage increases above 4V
c. It can reset the PIC without enabling the power-up timer
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (a) It can reset the PIC automatically in running condition
25) What happens when the supply voltage falls below 4V during the power-up timer delay of 72ms in PIC?
a. CPU resets PIC once again in BOR mode
b. BOR reset mode gets disabled
c. PIC does not remain in BOR mode until the voltage increases irrespective of stability
d. Power-up timer kills 72ms more again
ANSWER: (a) CPU resets PIC once again in BOR mode
26) What output is generated by OSC2 pin in PIC oscillator comprising RC components for sychronizing the peripherals with PIC microcontroller?
a. (1/2) x frequency of OSC1
b. (1/4) x frequency of OSC1
c. (1/8) x frequency of OSC1
d. (1/16) x frequency of OSC1
ANSWER:(c) (1/8) x frequency of OSC1
27) Which form of clocking mechanism is highly efficient and reliable for crystal or ceramic clock sources for operating at the range of 5- 200 kHz in PIC?
a. RC
b. LP (Low-Power Clocking)
c. XT
d. HS (High Speed)
ANSWER: (b) LP (Low-Power Clocking)
28) Which significant feature/s of crystal source contribute/s to its maximum predilection and utility as compared to other clock sources?
a. High accuracy
b. Proficiency in time generation
c. Applicability in real-time operations
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (a) All of the above
29) What is the executable frequency range of High speed (HS) clocking method by using cystal/ ceramic/ resonator or any other external clock source?
a. 0-4 MHz
b. 5-200 KHz
c. 100kHz- 4 MHZ
d. 4-20 MHz
ANSWER: (d) 4-20 MHz
30) How many bits are required for addressing 2K & 4K program memories of PIC 16C61 respectively?
a. 4 & 8 bits
b. 8 & 16 bits
c. 11 & 12 bits
d. 12 & 16 bits
ANSWER: (c) 11 & 12 bits
31) What location is attributed to ‘goto Mainline’ instruction in the program memory of PIC 16C61?
a. 000H
b. 004H
c. 001H
d. 011H
ANSWER: (a) 000H
32) When do the special address 004H get automatically loaded into the program counter?
a. After the execution of RESET action in program counter
b. After the execution of ‘goto Mainline ‘ instruction in the program memory
c. At the occurrence of interrupt into the program counter
d. At the clearance of program counter with no value
ANSWER: (c) At the occurrence of interrupt into the program counter
33) How many bits are utilized by the instruction of direct addressing mode in order to address the register files in PIC?
a. 2
b. 5
c. 7
d. 8
ANSWER:(c) 7
34) Which registers are adopted by CPU and peripheral modules so as to control and handle the operation of device inhibited in RFS?
a. General Purpose Register
b. Special Purpose Register
c. Special Function Registers
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) Special Function Registers
35) Which among the below specified registors are addressable only from bank1 of RFS?
a. PORTA (05H)
b. PORTB (06H)
c. FSR (04H)
d. ADCON0 (07H)
ANSWER: (a) PORTA (05H)
36) Which register acts as an input-output control as well as data direction register for PORTA in bank 2 of RFS?
a. INDF (80H)
b. TRISB (85H)
c. TRISA (85H)
d. PCLATH (8A)
ANSWER: (c) TRISA (85H)
37) Which bank of RFS has a provision of addressing the status register?
a. Only Bank 1
b. Only Bank 2
c. Either Bank 1 or Bank 2
d. Neither Bank 1 nor Bank 2
ANSWER: (c) Either Bank 1 or Bank 2
38) Which bit of OPTION register has a potential to decide the falling or rising edge sensitivity for the external interrupt INT?
a. RBPU
b. INTEDG
c. PSA
d. RTS
ANSWER: (b) INTEDG
39) Where are the prescalar assignments applied with a usage of PSA bit?
a. Only RTCC
b. Only Watchdog timer
c. Either RTCC or Watchdog timer
d. Neither RTCC nor Watchdog timer
ANSWER: (c) Either RTCC or Watchdog timer
40) Where is the exact specified location of an interrupt flag associated with analog-to-digital converter?
a. INTCON
b. ADCON0
c. ADRES
d. PCLATH
ANSWER: (b) ADCON0
41) Which bit permits to enable (if set) or disable (if cleared) all the interrupts in an INTCON register?
a. GIE
b. ADIE
c. RBIE
d. TOIE
ANSWER: (a) GIE
42) When does it become possible for a bit to get accessed from bank ‘0’ in the direct addressing mode of PICs?
a. Only when RPO bit is set ‘zero’
b. Only when RPO bit is set ‘1’
c. Only when RPO bit is utilized along with 7 lower bits of instruction code
d. Cannot Predict
ANSWER: (a) Only when RPO bit is set ‘zero’

43) When does it become feasible for portB pins (RB4 to RB7) to support its unique feature of ‘interrupt on change’?
a. By configuring all the pins (RB4-RB7) as inputs
b. By configuring all the pins (RB4-RB7) as outputs
c. By configuring any one of the pins as inputs
d. By configuring any one of the pins as outputs
ANSWER: (a) By configuring all the pins (RB4-RB7) as inputs
44) Which digital operations are performed over the detected mismatch outputs with an intention to generate a single output RB port change output?
a. OR
b. AND
c. EX-OR
d. NAND
ANSWER: (a) OR
45) What is the purpose of acquiring two different bits from INTCON register for performing any interrupt operation in PIC 16C61 / 71?
a. One for enabling & one for disabling the interrupt
b. One for enabling the interrupt & one for its occurrence detection
c. One for setting or clearing the RBIE bit
ANSWER: (b) One for enabling the interrupt & one for its occurrence detection
46) Which among the below specified combination of interrupts belong to the category of the PIC 16C61 / 71?
a. External, Timer/Counter & serial Port Interrupts
b. Internal, External & Timer/Counter Interrupts
c. External, Timer 0 & Port B Interrupts
d. Internal, External, Timer 0 & PortA Interrupts
ANSWER: (c) External, Timer 0 & Port B Interrupts
47) Which condition results in setting the GIE bit of INTCON automatically?
a. Execution of retfie instruction at the beginning of ISR
b. Execution of retfie instruction at the end of ISR
c. Execution of retfie instruction along with interrupt enable bit
d. Execution of retfie instruction along with interrupt disable bit
ANSWER: (b) Execution of retfie instruction at the end of ISR
48) What kind of external edge-sensitive interrupt is generated due to transition effect at pin RBO/INT?
a. INT
b. RBO
c. INTF
d. All of the above
ANSWER:(a) INT
49) Which bit-register pair plays a significant role in configuring the rising or falling edge triggering levels in external interrupts of PIC 16C61/71?
a. INTF bit – INTCON register
b. INTEDG bit – OPTION register
c. INT bit -INTCON register
d. INTE bit – OPTION register
ANSWER: (b) INTEDG bit – OPTION register
50) Consider the following statements. Which of them is /are incorrect?
a. By enabling INTE bit of an external interrupt can wake up the processor before entering into sleep mode.
b. INTF bit is set in INTCON only when a valid interrupt signal arrives at INT pin.
c. During the occurrence of interrupt, GIE bit is set in order to prevent any further interrupts.
d. goto instruction written in program memory cannot direct the program control to ISR.
a. A & B
b. C & D
c. Only A
d. Only C
ANSWER: (b) C & D
51) What is the purpose of setting TOIE bit in INTCON along with GIE bit?
a. For setting the TOIF flag in INTCON due to generation of Timer 0 overflow interrupt
b. For setting the TOIE flag in INTCON due to generation of Timer 0 overflow interrupt
c. For setting the RBIF flag in INTCON due to generation of PORTB change interrupt
ANSWER: (a) For setting the TOIF flag in INTCON due to generation of Timer 0 overflow interrupt
52) Where do the conversion interrupt flag (ADIF) end after an accomplishment of analog-to-digital (ADC) conversion process?
a. INTCON
b. ADCON0
c. OPTION
ANSWER: (b) ADCON0
53) How much time is required for conversion per channel if PIC 16C71 possesses four analog channels, each comprising of 8-bits?
a. 10 μs
b. 15 μs
c. 20 μs
d. 30 μs
ANSWER: (c) 20 μs
54) How much delay is required to synchronize the external clock at TOCKI in Timer ‘0’ of PIC 16C61?
a. 2-cycles
b. 4-cycles
c. 6-cycles
d. 8-cycles
ANSWER: (a) 2-cycles
55) Which command enables the PIC to enter into the power down mode during the operation of watchdog timer (WDT)?
a. SLEEP
b. RESET
c. STATUS
d. CLR
ANSWER: (a) SLEEP
56) Which channel would be selected if the values of channel bits CHS0 & CHS1 are ‘1’ & ‘0’ respectively in ADC Status Register?
a. AIN0
b. AIN1
c. AIN2
d. AIN3
ANSWER: (c) AIN2
57) Which bit is mandatory to get initiated or set for executing the process of analog to digital conversion in ADCON0?
a. ADIF
b. ADON
c. Go/!Done
d. ADSC1
ANSWER: (c) Go/!Done
58) What would be the value of ADC clock source, if both the ADC clock bits are selected to be ‘1’?
a. FOSC/2
b. FOSC/8
c. FOSC/32
d. FRC
ANSWER: (d) FRC
59) The functionalities associated with the pins RA0- RA3 in ADCON1 are manipulated by __________
a. PCFG1 & PCG0
b. VREF
c. ADON
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (a) PCFG1 & PCG0
60) Which among the below mentioned aspect issues are supported by capture/compare/PWM modules corresponding to time in PIC 16F877?
a. Control
b. Measurement
c. Generation of pulse signal
d. All of the above
61) Which mode allows to deliver the contents of 16-bit timer into a SFR on the basis of rising/falling edge detection?
a. Capture Mode
b. Compare Mode
c. PWM Mode
d. MSSP Mode
ANSWER: (a) Capture Mode
62) What among the below specified functions is related to PWM mode?
a. Generation of an interrupt
b. Generation of rectangular wave with programmable duty cycle with an user assigned frequency
c. Variations in the status of an output pin
d. Detection of an exact point at which the change occurs in an input edge
ANSWER: (b) Generation of rectangular wave with programmable duty cycle with an user assigned frequency
63) What happens when the program control enters the Interrupt Service Subroutine (ISS) due to enabling of CCP1IE bit in PIE1 especially during the initialization of CCP1 Module in capture
mode?
a. CCP1F bit gets cleared in PIR1 by detecting new capture event
b. GIE bit gets enabled
c. Contents of CCPR1L & CCPR1H are automatically copied in TMR1L & TMR1H respectively
d. Interrupt flag bit CCP1IF gets enabled in PIR
ANSWER: (a) CCP1F bit gets cleared in PIR1 by detecting new capture event
64) Which register is suitable for the corresponding count, if the measurement of pulse width is less than 65,535 μs along with the frequency of 4 MHz?
a. 4-bit register
b. 8-bit register
c. 16-bit register
d. 32-bit register
ANSWER: (c) 16-bit register
65) The capture operation in counter mode is feasible when mode of CCP module is _________
a. synchronized
b. asynchronized
c. synchronized as well as asynchronized
d. irrespective of synchronization
ANSWER: (a) synchronized
66) What is the fundamental role exhibited by the CCP module in compare mode in addition to timer 1?
a. To vary the pin status in accordance to the precisely controlled time
b. To vary the duty cycle of the rectified output
c. To vary the oscillator frequencies in order to receive larger periods
d. To vary the status of synchronization levels
ANSWER: (a) To vary the pin status in accordance to the precisely controlled time
67) How does the pin RC2/CCP1 get configured while initializing the CCP module in the compare mode of operation?
a. As an input by writing it in TRISC register
b. As an output by writing it in TRISC register
c. As an input without the necessity of writing or specifying it in TRISC register
d. Compare mode does not support pin RC2/CCP1 configuration CCP initialization
ANSWER: (b) As an output by writing it in TRISC register
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Multiple Choice Questions and Answers
Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on FET

Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on FET ( Field Effect Transistors )
Q1. A JFET has three terminals, namely …………
1. cathode, anode, grid
2. emitter, base, collector
3. source, gate, drain
Answer : 3
Q2. A JFET is similar in operation to …………. valve
1. diode
2. pentode
3. triode
4. tetrode
Answer : 2
Q3. A JFET is also called …………… transistor
1. unipolar
2. bipolar
3. unijunction
Answer : 1
Q4. A JFET is a ………… driven device
1. current
2. voltage
3. both current and voltage
Answer : 2
Q5. The gate of a JFET is ………… biased
1. reverse
2. forward
3. reverse as well as forward
Answer : 1
Q6. The input impedance of a JFET is …………. that of an ordinary transistor
1. equal to
2. less than
3. more than
Answer : 3
Q7. In a p-channel JFET, the charge carriers are …………..
1. electrons
2. holes
3. both electrons and holes
Answer : 2
Q8. When drain voltage equals the pinch-off-voltage, then drain current …………. with the increase in drain voltage
1. decreases
2. increases
3. remains constant
Answer : 3
Q9. If the reverse bias on the gate of a JFET is increased, then width of the conducting channel …………..
1. is decreased
2. is increased
3. remains the same
Answer : 1
Q10. A MOSFET has …………… terminals
1. two
2. five
3. four
4. three
Answer : 4
Q11. A MOSFET can be operated with ……………..
1. negative gate voltage only
2. positive gate voltage only
3. positive as well as negative gate voltage
Answer : 3
Q12. A JFET has ……….. power gain
1. small
2. very high
3. very small
Answer : 2
Q13. The input control parameter of a JFET is ……………
1. gate voltage
2. source voltage
3. drain voltage
4. gate current
Answer : 1
Q14. A common base configuration of a pnp transistor is analogous to ………… of a JFET
1. common source configuration
2. common drain configuration
3. common gate configuration
Answer : 3
Q15. A JFET has high input impedance because …………
1. it is made of semiconductor material
2. input is reverse biased
3. of impurity atoms
Answer : 2
Q16. In a JFET, when drain voltage is equal to pinch-off voltage, the depletion layers ………
1. almost touch each other
2. have large gap
3. have moderate gap
Answer : 1
Q17. In a JFET, IDSS is known as …………..
1. drain to source current
2. drain to source current with gate shorted
3. drain to source current with gate open
Answer : 2
Q18. The two important advantages of a JFET are …………..
1. high input impedance and square-law property
2. inexpensive and high output impedance
3. low input impedance and high output impedance
Answer : 1
Q19. …………. has the lowest noise-level
1. triode
2. ordinary trnsistor
3. tetrode
4. JFET
Answer : 4
Q20. A MOSFET is sometimes called ………. JFET
1. many gate
2. open gate
3. insulated gate
4. shorted gate
Answer : 3
Q21. Which of the following devices has the highest input impedance?
1. JFET
2. MOSFET
3. Crystal diode
4. ordinary transistor
Answer : 2
Q22. A MOSFET uses the electric field of a ………. to control the channel current
1. capacitor
2. battery
3. generator
Answer : 1
Q23. The pinch-off voltage in a JFET is analogous to ………. voltage in a vacuum tube
1. anode
2. cathode
3. grid cut off
Answer : 3
Q24. This question will be available soon

Q25. In class A operation, the input circuit of a JFET is ………. biased

1. forward
2. reverse
3. not
Answer : 2
Q26. If the gate of a JFET is made less negative, the width of the conducting channel……….
1. remains the same
2. is decreased
3. is increased
Answer : 3
Q27. The pinch-off voltage of a JFET is about ……….
1. 5V
2. 0.6 V
3. 15 V
4. 25 V
Answer : 1
Q28. The input impedance of a MOSFET is of the order of ………..
1. Ω
2. a few hundred Ω
3. kΩ
4. several MΩ
Answer : 4
Q29. The gate voltage in a JFET at which drain current becomes zero is called ……….. voltage
1. saturation
2. pinch-off
3. active
4. cut-off
Answer : 2

Q31. In a FET, there are ……….. pn junctions at the sides

1. three
2. four
3. five
4. two
Answer : 4
Q32. The transconductance of a JFET ranges from ……………..
1. 100 to 500 mA/V
2. 500 to 1000 mA/V
3. 0.5 to 30 mA/V
4. above 1000 mA/V
Answer : 3
Q33. The source terminal of a JEFT corresponds to ………….. of a vacuum tube
1. plate
2. cathode
3. grid
Answer : 2
Q34. The output characteristics of a JFET closely resemble the output characteristics of a ………. valve
1. pentode
2. tetrode
3. triode
4. diode
Answer : 1
Q35. If the cross-sectional area of the channel in n-channel JEFT increases, the drain current ……….
1. is increased
2. is decreased
3. remains the same
Answer : 1
Q36. The channel of a JFET is between the …………….
1. gate and drain
2. drain and source
3. gate and source
4. input and output
Answer : 2
Q37. For VGS = 0 V, the drain current becomes constant when VDS exceeds ………
1. cut off
2. VDD
3. VP
4. oV
Answer : 3
Q38. A certain JFET data sheet gives VGS(off) = -4 V. The pinch-off voltage Vp is ……..
1. +4 V
2. -4 V
3. dependent on VGS
4. data insufficient
Answer : 1
Q39. The constant-current region of a JFET lies between
1. cut off and saturation
2. cut off and pinch-off
3. o and IDSS
4. pinch-off and breakdown
Answer : 4
Q40. At cut-off, the JFET channel is ……….
1. at its widest point
2. completely closed by the depletion region
3. extremely narrow
4. reverse baised
Answer : 2
Q41. A MOSFET differs from a JFET mainly because ………………
1. of power rating
2. the MOSFET has two gates
3. the JFET has a pn junction
Answer : 3
Q42. A certain D-MOSFET is biased at VGS = 0 V. Its data sheet specifies IDSS = 20mA and VGS(off) = -5 V. The value of the drain current is …………
1. 20 mA
2. 0 mA
3. 40 mA
4. 10 mA
Answer : 1
Q43. A n-channel D-MOSFET with a positive VGS is operating in …………
1. the depletion-mode
2. the enhancement-mode
3. cut off
4. saturation
Answer : 2
Q44. A certain p-channel E-MOSFET has VGS(th) = -2V. If VGS= 0V, the drain current is ……….
1. 0 mA
2. ID(on)
3. maximum
4. IDSS
Answer : 1
Q45. In a common-source JFET amplifier, the output voltage is …………………
1. 180o out of phase with the input
2. in phase with the input
4. taken at the source
Answer : 1
Q46. In a certain common-source D-MOSFET amplifier, Vds =3.2 V r.m. and Vgs = 280 mV r.m.s. The voltage gain is …………
1. 1
2. 11.4
3. 8.75
4. 3.2
Answer : 2
Q47. In a certain CS JFET amplifier, RD= 1kΩ , RS= 560 Ω , VDD=10V and gm= 4500 μS. If the source resistor is completely bypassed, the voltage gain is …………
1. 450
2. 45
3. 2.52
4. 4.5
Answer : 4
Q48. A certain common-source JFET has a voltage gain of 10. If the source bypass capacitor is removed, ……………….
1. the voltage gain will increase
2. the transconductance will increase
3. the voltage gain will decrease
4. the Q-point will shift
Answer : 3
Q49. A CS JFET amplifier has a load resistance of 10 kΩ , RD= 820Ω . If gm= 5mS and Vin= 500 mV, the output signal voltage is ………..
1. 2.05 V
2. 25 V
3. 0.5 V
4. 1.89 V
Answer : 4
Q50. If load resistance in the above question (Q.49) is removed, the output voltage will …………
1. increase
2. decrease
3. stay the same
4. be zero
Answer : 1
Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on SCR

Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on SCR (Silicon Controlled Rectifiers)

Q1. An SCR has …………….. pn junctions

1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
Answer : 2
Q2. An SCR is a solid state equivalent of …………….
1. Triode
2. Pentode
3. Gas-filled triode
4. Tetrode
Answer : 3
Q3. An SCR has ………….. semiconductor layers
1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
Answer : 3
Q4. An SCR has three terminals viz ……………
1. Cathode, anode, gate
2. Anode, cathode, grid
3. Anode, cathode, drain
Answer : 1
Q5. An SCR behaves as a ……………. switch
1. Unidirectional
2. Bidirectional
3. Mechanical
Answer : 1
Q6. An SCR is sometimes called …………
1. Triac
2. Diac
3. Unijunction transistor
4. Thyristor
Answer : 4
Q7. An SCR is made of ………….
1. Germanium
2. Silicon
3. Carbon
Answer : 2
Q8. In the normal operation of an SCR, anode is …………… w.r.t. cathode
1. At zero potential
2. Negative
3. Positive
Answer : 3
Q9. In normal operation of an SCR, gate is ………..w.r.t. cathode
1. Positive
2. Negative
3. At zero potential
Answer : 1
Q10. An SCR combines the features of …………..
1. A rectifier and resistance
2. A rectifier and transistor
3. A rectifier and capacitor
Answer : 2
Q11. The control element of an SCR is ………….
1. Cathode
2. Anode
3. Anode supply
4. Gate
Answer : 4
Q12. The normal way to turn on a SCR is by ……………..
1. Breakover voltage
2. Appropriate anode current
3. Appropriate gate current
Answer : 3
Q13. An SCR is turned off by …………….
1. Reducing anode voltage to zero
2. Reducing gate voltage to zero
3. Reverse biasing the gate
Answer : 1
Q14. An SCR is a ……………….. triggered device
1. Voltage
2. Current
3. Voltage as well as current
Answer : 2
Q15. In an SCR circuit the supply voltage is generally ……….. that of breakover voltage
1. Equal to
2. Less than
3. Greater than
Answer : 2
Q16. When an SCR is turned on, the voltage across it is about ……….
1. Zero
2. 10 V
3. 1V
4. 1V
Answer : 4
Q17. An SCR is made of silicon and not germanium because silicon ………
1. Is inexpensive
2. Is mechanically strong
3. Has small leakage current
4. Is tetravalent
Answer : 3
Q18. An SCR is turned off when …………..
1. Anode current is reduced to zero
2. Gate voltage is reduced to zero
3. Gate is reverse biased
Answer : 1
Q19. In an SCR circuit, the angle of conduction can be changed by ……….
1. Changing anode voltage
2. Changing gate voltage
3. Reverse biasing the gate
Answer : 2
Q20. If firing angle in an SCR circuit is increased, the output …………
1. Remains the same
2. Is increased
3. Is decreased
Answer : 3
Q21. If gate current is increased, then anode-cathode voltage at which SCR closes …………….
1. Is decreased
2. Is increased
3. Remains the same
Answer : 1
Q22. When SCR is OFF, the current in the circuit is …………….
1. Exactly zero
2. Small leakage current
3. Large leakage current
Answer : 2
Q23. An SCR can exercise control over ………. of a.c. supply
1. Positive half-cycles only
2. Negative half-cycles only
3. Both positive and negative half-cycles
4. Positive or negative half-cycles
Answer : 4
Q24. We can control a.c. power in a load by connecting …………
1. Two SCRs in series
2. Two SCRs in parallel
3. Two SCRs in parallel opposition
Answer : 3
Q25. When SCR starts conducting, then ……………. loses all control
1. Gate
2. Cathode
3. Anode
Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on Power Electronics

Q1. A Triac has three terminals viz ………………

1. Drain, source, gate
2. Two main terminal and a gate terminal
3. Cathode, anode, gate
Answer : 2
Q2. A triac is equivalent to two SCRs …………..
1. In parallel
2. In series
3. In inverse-parallel
Answer : 3
Q3. A triac is a …………. switch
1. Bidirectional
2. Unidirectional
3. Mechanical
Answer : 1
Q4. The V-I characteristics for a triac in the first and third quadrants are essentially identical to those of ………………. in its first quadrant
1. Transistor
2. SCR
3. UJT
Answer : 2
Q5. A triac can pass a portion of …………… half-cycle through the load
1. Only positive
2. Only negative
3. Both positive and negative
Answer : 3
Q6. A diac has ………….. terminals
1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
Answer : 1
Q7. A triac has …………….. semiconductor layers
1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. Five
Answer : 3
Q8. A diac has …………… pn junctions
1. Four
2. Two
3. Three
Answer : 2
Q9. The device that does not have the gate terminal is ……………….
1. Triac
2. FET
3. SCR
4. Diac
Answer : 4
Q10. A diac has ……………… semiconductor layers
1. Three
2. Two
3. Four
Answer : 1
Q11. A UJT has ……………….
1. Two pn junctions
2. One pn junction
3. Three pn junctions
Answer : 2
Q12. The normal way to turn on a diac is by ………………..
1. Gate current
2. Gate voltage
3. Breakover voltage
Answer : 3
Q13. A diac is …………………. switch
1. An c.
2. A d.c.
3. A mechanical
Answer : 1
Q14. In a UJT, the p-type emitter is ……………. doped
1. Lightly
2. Heavily
3. Moderately
Answer : 2
Q15. Power electronics essentially deals with control of a.c. power at …………
1. Frequencies above 20 kHz
2. Frequencies above 1000 kHz
3. Frequencies less than 10 Hz
4. 50 Hz frequency
Answer : 4
Q16. When the emitter terminal of a UJT is open, the resistance between the base terminal is generally ………………..
1. High
2. Low
3. Extremely low
Answer : 1
Q17. When a UJT is turned ON, the resistance between emitter terminal and lower base terminal …………….
1. Remains the same
2. Is decreased
3. Is increased
Answer : 2
Q18. To turn on UJT, the forward bias on the emitter diode should be …………… the peak point voltage
1. Less than
2. Equal to
3. More than
Answer : 3
Q19. A UJT is sometimes called …………. diode
1. Low resistance
2. High resistance
3. Single-base
4. Double-base
Answer : 4
Q20. When the temperature increases, the inter-base resistance (R BB) of a UJT ………….
1. Increases
2. Decreases
3. Remains the same
Answer : 1

Q22. When the temperature increases, the intrinsic stand off ratio ……….
1. Increases
2. Decreases
3. Essentially remains the same
Answer : 3
Q23. Between the peak point and the valley point of UJT emitter characteristics we have ………….. region
1. Saturation
2. Negative resistance
3. Cut-off
Answer : 2
Q24. A diac is turned on by …………………
1. A breakover voltage
2. Gate voltage
3. Gate current
Answer : 1
Q25. The device that exhibits negative resistance region is ………………..
1. Diac
2. Triac
3. Transistor
4. UJT
Answer : 4
Q26. The UJT may be used as ……………….
1. Am amplifier
2. A sawtooth generator
3. A rectifier
Answer : 2
Q27. A diac is simply ………………
1. A single junction device
2. A three junction device
3. A triac without gate terminal
Answer : 3
Q28. After peak point, the UJT operates in the ……………. region
1. Cut-off
2. Saturation
Answer : 3
Q29. Which of the following is not a characteristic of UJT?
1. Intrinsic stand off ratio
3. Peak-point voltage
4. Bilateral conduction
Answer : 4
Q30. The triac is …………….
1. Like a bidirectional SCR
2. A four-terminal device
3. Not a thyristor
4. Answers (1) and (2)
Answer : 1
Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on Electronic Instruments
Q1. An ammeter is connected in …………….. with the circuit element whose current we wish to measure
1. Series
2. Parallel
3. Series or parallel
Answer : 1
Q2. A galvanometer in series with a high resistance is called ……………
1. An ammeter
2. A voltmeter
3. A wattmeter
Answer : 2
Q3. An ammeter should have ………….. resistance
1. Infinite
2. Very large
3. Very low
Answer : 3
Q4. A voltmeter is connected in a ………….. with the circuit component across which potential difference is to be measured
1. Parallel
2. Series
3. Series or parallel
Answer : 1
Q5. A voltmeter should have ………. resistance
1. Zero
2. Very high
3. Very low
Answer : 2
Q6. The sensitivity of a multimeter is given in ……………..
1. Ω
2. Amperes
3. kΩ/V
Answer : 3
Q7. If the full-scale deflection current of a multimeter is 50 μA, its sensitivity is ……..
1. 10 kΩ/V
2. 100 kΩ/V
3. 50 kΩ/V
4. 20 kΩ/V
Answer : 4
Q8. If a multimeter has a sensitivity of 1000 Ω per volt and reads 50 V full scale, its internal resistance is ………..
1. 20 kΩ
2. 50 kΩ
3. 10 kΩ
Answer : 2
Q9. A VTVM has ………. input resistance than that of a multimeter
1. More
2. Less
3. Same
Answer : 1
Q10. The input resistance of a VTVM is about ………..
1. 1000 Ω
2. 10 kΩ
3. 20 kΩ
4. 10 MΩ
Answer : 4
Q11. If the negative potential on the control grid of CRT is increased, the intensity of spot ………….
1. Is increased
2. Is decreased
3. Remains the same
Answer : 2
Q12. For display of signal pattern ………… voltage is applied to the horizontal plates of a CRO
1. Sinusoidal
2. Rectangular
3. Sawtooth
Answer : 3
Q13. Two multimeters A and B have sensitivities of 10 kΩ/V and 30 kΩ/V respectively. Then …………..
1. Multimeter A is more sensitive
2. Multimeter B is more sensitive
3. Both are equally sensitive
Answer : 2
Q14. A galvanometer of resistance G is shunted by a very small resistance S. The resistance of the resulting ammeter is ………………
1. GS/(G+S)
2. G+S
3. G-S
Answer : 1
Q15. A VTVM is never used to measure …………..
1. Voltage
2. Current
3. Resistance
Answer : 2
Q16. The sensitivity of a voltmeter which uses a 100 μA meter movement is ……………..
1. 1 kΩ/V
2. 10 kΩ/V
3. 5 kΩ/V
Answer : 2
Q17. What is the total resistance of a voltmeter on the 10 V range when the meter movement is rated for 50 μA of full-scale current?
1. 10 kΩ
2. 20 kΩ
3. 200 kΩ
Answer : 3
Q18. The materil used to coat inside the face of CRT is …………..
1. Carbon
2. Sulphur
3. Silicon
4. Phosphorous
Answer : 4
Q19. When an ammeter is inserted in the circuit, the circuit current will ………..
1. Increase
2. Decrease
3. Remain the same
Answer : 2
Q20. A series ohmmeter circuit uses a 3 V battery and a 1 mA meter movement. What is the half-scale resistance for this movement?
1. 3 kΩ
o kΩ
o kΩ
2. 6 kΩ
Answer : 1
Q21. The most accurate device for measuring voltage is ………….
5. Voltmeter
6. Multimeter
7. CRO
8. VTVM
Answer : 3
Q22. The horizontal plates of a CRO are supplied with …………. to observe the waveform of signal.
1. Sinusoidal wave
2. Cosine wave
3. Sawtooth wave
Answer : 3
Q23. A CRO is used to measure ………….
1. Voltage
2. Frequency
3. Phase
4. All of above
Answer : 4
Q24. If 2% of the main current is to be passed through a galvanometer of resistance G, then resistance of the shunt required is ……….
1. G/50
2. G/49
3. 49 G
4. 50 G
Answer : 2
Q25. Which of the following is likely to have the largest resistance?
1. Voltmeter of range 10 V
2. Moving coil galvanometer
3. Ammeter of range 1 A
4. A copper wire of length 1 m and diameter 3 mm
Answer : 1
Q26. An ideal ammeter has ………… resistance
1. Low
2. Infinite
3. Zero
4. High
Answer : 3
Q27. The resistance of an ideal voltmeter is …………
1. Low
2. Infinite
3. Zero
4. High
Answer : 2
Q28. To send 10% of the main current through a moving coil galvanometer of resistance 99 Ω the shunt required is …………..
1. 11 Ω
2. 9Ω
3. 100 Ω
4. 9Ω
Answer : 1
Q29. A voltmeter has a resistance of G ohms and range V volts. The value of resistance required in series to convert it into voltmeter of range nV is ……………
1. nG
2. G/n
3. G/(n-1)
4. (n-1)G
Answer : 4
Q30. An ammeter has a resistance of G ohms and range of I amperes. The value of resistance required in parallel to convert it into an ammeter of range nI is ………….
1. nG
2. (n-1)G
3. G/(n-1)
4. G/n
Answer : 3
Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on Integrated Circuits
Q1. An IC has …………….. size
1. Very large
2. Large
3. Extremely small
Answer : 3
Q2. ICs are generally made of ………………
1. Silicon
2. Germanium
3. Copper
Answer : 1
Q3. ……………… ICs are the most commonly used
1. Thin films
2. Monolithic
3. Hybrid
Answer : 2
Q4. The most popular form of IC package is ……………..
1. DIL
2. Flatpack
3. TO-5
Answer : 2
Q5. ……………. cannot be fabricated on an IC
1. Transistors
2. Diodes
3. Resistors
4. Large inductors and transformers
Answer : 4
Q6. An audio amplifier is an example of ………………
1. Digital IC
2. Linear IC
3. Both digital and linear IC
Answer : 2
Q7. The active components in an IC are ………….
1. Resistors
2. Capacitors
3. Transistors and diodes
Answer : 3
Q8. We use ……………….. ICs in computers
1. Digital
2. Linear
3. Both digital and linear
Answer : 1
Q9. The SiO2 layer in an IC acts as ………….
1. A resistor
2. An insulating layer
3. Mechanical output
Answer : 2
Q10. ICs are used in ……………
1. Linear devices only
2. Digital devices only
3. Both linear and digital devices
Answer : 3
Q11. A transistor takes …………… inductor on a silicon IC chip
1. Less space than
2. More space than
3. Same space as
Answer : 1
Q12. The most popular types of ICs are …………..
1. Thin-film
2. Hybrid
3. Thick-film
4. Monolithic
Answer : 4
Q13. Digital ICs process …………….
1. Linear signals only
2. Digital signals only
3. Both digital and linear signals
Answer : 3
Q14. Operational amplifiers use …………..
1. Linear ICs
2. Digital ICs
3. Both linear and digital ICs
Answer : 2
Q15. Which of the following is most difficult to fabricate in an IC?
1. Diode
2. Transistor
3. FET
4. Capacitor
Answer : 4
Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on Digital Electronics
Q1. The binary number 10101 is equivalent to decimal number …………..
1. 19
2. 12
3. 27
4. 21
Answer : 4
Q2. The universal gate is ………………
1. NAND gate
2. OR gate
3. AND gate
Answer : 1
Q3. The inverter is ……………
1. NOT gate
2. OR gate
3. AND gate
Answer : 1
Q4. The inputs of a NAND gate are connected together. The resulting circuit is ………….
1. OR gate
2. AND gate
3. NOT gate
Answer : 3
Q5. The NOR gate is OR gate followed by ………………
1. AND gate
2. NAND gate
3. NOT gate
Answer : 3
Q6. The NAND gate is AND gate followed by …………………
1. NOT gate
2. OR gate
3. AND gate
Answer : 1
Q7. Digital circuit can be made by the repeated use of ………………
1. OR gates
2. NOT gates
3. NAND gates
Answer : 3
Q8. The only function of NOT gate is to ……………..
1. Stop signal
2. Invert input signal
3. Act as a universal gate
Answer : 2
Q9. When an input signal 1 is applied to a NOT gate, the output is ………………
1. 0
2. 1
3. Either 0 & 1
Answer : 1
Q10. In Boolean algebra, the bar sign (-) indicates ………………..
1. OR operation
2. AND operation
3. NOT operation
Answer : 3
Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on Hybrid Parameters
Q1. Hybrid means ………………
1. Mixed
2. Single
3. Unique
Answer : 1
Q2. There are …………… h parameters of a transistor
1. Two
2. Four
3. Three
Answer: 2
Q3. The h parameter approach gives correct results for …………
1. Large signals only
2. Small signals only
3. Both small and large signals
Answer: 2
Q4. A transistor behaves as a linear device for ………….
1. Small signals only
2. Large signals only
3. Both small and large signals
Answer : 1
Q5. The parameter hie stands for input impedance in ………..
1. CB arrangement with output shorted
2. CC arrangement with output shorted
3. CE arrangement with output shorted
Answer : 3
Q6. The dimensions of hie parameter are ………..
1. Mho
2. Ohm
3. Farad
Answer : 2
Q7. The hfe parameter is called ……………. in CE arrangement with output shorted
1. Voltage gain
2. Current gain
3. Input impedance
Answer : 2
Q8. If the operating point changes, the h parameters of transistor ………..
1. Also change
2. Do not change
3. May or may not change
Answer : 1
Q9. The values of h parameter of a transistor in CE arrangement are ……………… arrangement
1. The same as for CB
2. The same as for CC
3. Different from that in CB
Answer : 3
Q10. In order to determine hfe and hie parameters of a transistor, ………… is an a.c. short-circuited
1. Input
2. Output
3. Input as well as output
Answer : 2
Q11. If temperature changes, h parameters of a transistor ………….
1. May or may not change
2. Do not change
3. Also change
Answer : 3
Q12. In CE arrangement, the value of input impedance is approximately equal to …………..
1. Hie
2. Hoe
3. Hre
Answer : 1
Communication

1) In uniform quantization process

a. The step size remains same
b. Step size varies according to the values of the input signal
c. The quantizer has linear characteristics
d. Both a and c are correct
ANSWER: (d) Both a and c are correct
2) The process of converting the analog sample into discrete form is called
a. Modulation
b. Multiplexing
c. Quantization
d. Sampling
ANSWER:(c) Quantization
3) The characteristics of compressor in μ-law companding are
a. Continuous in nature
b. Logarithmic in nature
c. Linear in nature
d. Discrete in nature
ANSWER: (a) Continuous in nature
4) The modulation techniques used to convert analog signal into digital signal are
a. Pulse code modulation
b. Delta modulation
c. Adaptive delta modulation
d. All of the above
5) The sequence of operations in which PCM is done is
a. Sampling, quantizing, encoding
b. Quantizing, encoding, sampling
c. Quantizing, sampling, encoding
ANSWER:(a) Sampling, quantizing, encoding
6) In PCM, the parameter varied in accordance with the amplitude of the modulating signal is
a. Amplitude
b. Frequency
c. Phase
ANSWER: (d) None of the above
7) One of the disadvantages of PCM is
a. It requires large bandwidth
b. Very high noise
c. Cannot be decoded easily
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (a) It requires large bandwidth
8) The expression for bandwidth BW of a PCM system, where v is the number of bits per sample and f m is the modulating frequency, is given by
a. BW ≥ vfm
b. BW ≤ vfm
c. BW ≥ 2 vfm
d. BW ≥ 1/2 vfm
ANSWER: (a) BW ≥ vfm
9) The error probability of a PCM is
a. Calculated using noise and inter symbol interference
b. Gaussian noise + error component due to inter symbol interference
c. Calculated using power spectral density
d. All of the above
10) In Delta modulation,
a. One bit per sample is transmitted
b. All the coded bits used for sampling are transmitted
c. The step size is fixed
11) In digital transmission, the modulation technique that requires minimum bandwidth is
a. Delta modulation
b. PCM
c. DPCM
d. PAM
ANSWER: (a) Delta modulation
12) In Delta Modulation, the bit rate is
a. N times the sampling frequency
b. N times the modulating frequency
c. N times the nyquist criteria
ANSWER: (a) N times the sampling frequency
13) In Differential Pulse Code Modulation techniques, the decoding is performed by
a. Accumulator
b. Sampler
c. PLL
d. Quantizer
ANSWER: (a) Accumulator
14) DPCM is a technique
a. To convert analog signal into digital signal
b. Where difference between successive samples of the analog signals are encoded into n-bit data streams
c. Where digital codes are the quantized values of the predicted value
d. All of the above
15) DPCM suffers from
a. Slope over load distortion
b. Quantization noise
c. Both a & b
ANSWER:(c) Both a & b
16) The noise that affects PCM
a. Transmission noise
b. Quantizing noise
c. Transit noise
d. Both a and b are correct
ANSWER: (d) Both a and b are correct
17) The factors that cause quantizing error in delta modulation are
a. Slope overload distortion
b. Granular noise
c. White noise
ANSWER:(d) Both a and b are correct
18) Granular noise occurs when
a. Step size is too small
b. Step size is too large
c. There is interference from the adjacent channel
d. Bandwidth is too large
ANSWER: (b) Step size is too large
19) The crest factor of a waveform is given as –
a. 2Peak value/ rms value
b. rms value / Peak value
c. Peak value/ rms value
d. Peak value/ 2rms value
ANSWER: (c) Peak value/ rms value
20) The digital modulation technique in which the step size is varied according to the variation in the slope of the input is called
a. Delta modulation
b. PCM
c. Adaptive delta modulation
d. PAM
ANSWER: (c) Adaptive delta modulation
21) The digital modulation scheme in which the step size is not fixed is
a. Delta modulation
b. Adaptive delta modulation
c. DPCM
d. PCM
ANSWER:(b) Adaptive delta modulation
22) In Adaptive Delta Modulation, the slope error reduces and
a. Quantization error decreases
b. Quantization error increases
c. Quantization error remains same
ANSWER: (b) Quantization error increases
23) The number of voice channels that can be accommodated for transmission in T1 carrier system is
a. 24
b. 32
c. 56
d. 64
ANSWER: (a) 24
24) The maximum data transmission rate in T1 carrier system is
a. 2.6 megabits per second
b. 1000 megabits per second
c. 1.544 megabits per second
d. 5.6 megabits per second
ANSWER: (c) 1.544 megabits per second
25) T1 carrier system is used
a. For PCM voice transmission
b. For delta modulation
c. For frequency modulated signals
ANSWER: (a) For PCM voice transmission
26) Matched filter may be optimally used only for
a. Gaussian noise
b. Transit time noise
c. Flicker
d. All of the above
ANSWER:(a) Gaussian noise
27) Characteristics of Matched filter are
a. Matched filter is used to maximize Signal to noise ratio even for non Gaussian noise
b. It gives the output as signal energy in the absence of noise
c. They are used for signal detection
d. All of the above
28) Matched filters may be used
a. To estimate the frequency of the received signal
b. In parameter estimation problems
c. To estimate the distance of the object
d. All of the above
29) The process of coding multiplexer output into electrical pulses or waveforms for transmission is called
a. Line coding
b. Amplitude modulation
c. FSK
d. Filtering
ANSWER:(a) Line coding
30) For a line code, the transmission bandwidth must be
a. Maximum possible
b. As small as possible
c. Depends on the signal
ANSWER: (b) As small as possible
31) Regenerative repeaters are used for
a. Eliminating noise
b. Reconstruction of signals
c. Transmission over long distances
d. All of the above
ANSWER:(d) All of the above
32) Scrambling of data is
a. Removing long strings of 1’s and 0’s
b. Exchanging of data
c. Transmission of digital data
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (a) Removing long strings of 1’s and 0’s
33) In polar RZ format for coding, symbol ‘0’ is represented by
a. Zero voltage
b. Negative voltage
c. Pulse is transmitted for half the duration
d. Both b and c are correct
ANSWER: (d) Both b and c are correct
34) In a uni-polar RZ format,
a. The waveform has zero value for symbol ‘0’
b. The waveform has A volts for symbol ‘1’
c. The waveform has positive and negative values for ‘1’ and ‘0’ symbol respectively
35) Polar coding is a technique in which
a. 1 is transmitted by a positive pulse and 0 is transmitted by negative pulse
b. 1 is transmitted by a positive pulse and 0 is transmitted by zero volts
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: (a) 1 is transmitted by a positive pulse and 0 is transmitted by negative pulse
36) The polarities in NRZ format use
a. Complete pulse duration
b. Half duration
c. Both positive as well as negative value
d. Each pulse is used for twice the duration
ANSWER: (a) Complete pulse duration
37) The format in which the positive half interval pulse is followed by a negative half interval pulse for transmission of ‘1’ is
a. Polar NRZ format
b. Bipolar NRZ format
c. Manchester format
ANSWER: (c) Manchester format
38) The maximum synchronizing capability in coding techniques is present in
a. Manchester format
b. Polar NRZ
c. Polar RZ
d. Polar quaternary NRZ
ANSWER: (a) Manchester format
39) The advantage of using Manchester format of coding is
a. Power saving
b. Polarity sense at the receiver
c. Noise immunity
ANSWER: (a) Power saving
40) Alternate Mark Inversion (AMI) is also known as
a. Pseudo ternary coding
b. Manchester coding
c. Polar NRZ format
ANSWER:(a) Pseudo ternary coding
41) In DPSK technique, the technique used to encode bits is
a. AMI
b. Differential code
c. Uni polar RZ format
d. Manchester format
ANSWER: (b)Differential code
42) The channel capacity according to Shannon’s equation is
a. Maximum error free communication
b. Defined for optimum system
c. Information transmitted
d. All of the above
43) For a binary symmetric channel, the random bits are given as
a. Logic 1 given by probability P and logic 0 by (1-P)
b. Logic 1 given by probability 1-P and logic 0 by P
c. Logic 1 given by probability P2 and logic 0 by 1-P
d. Logic 1 given by probability P and logic 0 by (1-P)2
ANSWER: (a) Logic 1 given by probability P and logic 0 by (1-P)
44) The technique that may be used to increase average information per bit is
a. Shannon-Fano algorithm
b. ASK
c. FSK
d. Digital modulation techniques
ANSWER: (a) Shannon-Fano algorithm
45) Code rate r, k information bits and n as total bits, is defined as
a. r = k/n
b. k = n/r
c. r = k * n
d. n = r * k
ANSWER: (a) r = k/n
46) The information rate R for given average information H= 2.0 for analog signal band limited to B Hz is
a. 8 B bits/sec
b. 4 B bits/sec
c. 2 B bits/sec
d. 16 B bits/sec
ANSWER:(b) 4 B bits/sec
47) Information rate is defined as
a. Information per unit time
b. Average number of bits of information per second
c. rH
d. All of the above
48) The mutual information
a. Is symmetric
b. Always non negative
c. Both a and b are correct
ANSWER: (c) Both a and b are correct
49) The relation between entropy and mutual information is
a. I(X;Y) = H(X) – H(X/Y)
b. I(X;Y) = H(X/Y) – H(Y/X)
c. I(X;Y) = H(X) – H(Y)
d. I(X;Y) = H(Y) – H(X)
ANSWER:(a) I(X;Y) = H(X) – H(X/Y)
50) Entropy is
a. Average information per message
b. Information in a signal
c. Amplitude of signal
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (a) Average information per message
51) The memory less source refers to
a. No previous information
b. No message storage
c. Emitted message is independent of previous message
ANSWER: (c) Emitted message is independent of previous message
52) The information I contained in a message with probability of occurrence is given by (k is constant)
a. I = k log21/P
b. I = k log2P
c. I = k log21/2P
d. I = k log21/P2
ANSWER:(a) I = k log21/P
53) The expected information contained in a message is called
a. Entropy
b. Efficiency
c. Coded signal
ANSWER: (a) Entropy
54) Overhead bits are
a. Framing and synchronizing bits
b. Data due to noise
c. Encoded bits
ANSWER: (a) Framing and synchronizing bits
55) ISI may be removed by using
a. Differential coding
c. Polar NRZ
ANSWER: (a) Differential coding
56) Timing jitter is
a. Change in amplitude
b. Change in frequency
c. Deviation in location of the pulses
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) Deviation in location of the pulses
57) Probability density function defines
a. Amplitudes of random noise
b. Density of signal
c. Probability of error
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (a) Amplitudes of random noise
58) Impulse noise is caused due to
a. Switching transients
b. Lightening strikes
c. Power line load switching
d. All of the above
59) In coherent detection of signals,
a. Local carrier is generated
b. Carrier of frequency and phase as same as transmitted carrier is generated
c. The carrier is in synchronization with modulated carrier
d. All of the above
60) Synchronization of signals is done using
a. Pilot clock
b. Extracting timing information from the received signal
c. Transmitter and receiver connected to master timing source
d. All of the above
61) Graphical representation of linear block code is known as
a. Pi graph
b. Matrix
c. Tanner graph
ANSWER: (c) Tanner graph
62) A linear code
a. Sum of code words is also a code word
b. All-zero code word is a code word
c. Minimum hamming distance between two code words is equal to weight of any non zero code word
d. All of the above
63) For decoding in convolution coding, in a code tree,
a. Diverge upward when a bit is 0 and diverge downward when the bit is 1
b. Diverge downward when a bit is 0 and diverge upward when the bit is 1
c. Diverge left when a bit is 0 and diverge right when the bit is 1
d. Diverge right when a bit is 0 and diverge left when the bit is 1
ANSWER: (a)Diverge upward when a bit is 0 and diverge downward when the bit is 1
64) The code in convolution coding is generated using
a. EX-OR logic
b. AND logic
c. OR logic
ANSWER: (a) EX-OR logic
65) Interleaving process permits a burst of B bits, with l as consecutive code bits and t errors when
a. B ≤ 2tl
b. B ≥ tl
c. B ≤ tl/2
d. B ≤ tl
ANSWER: (d) B ≤ tl
66) For a (7, 4) block code, 7 is the total number of bits and 4 is the number of
a. Information bits
b. Redundant bits
c. Total bits- information bits
ANSWER: (a) Information bits
67) Parity bit coding may not be used for
a. Error in more than single bit
b. Which bit is in error
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: (c) Both a & b
68) Parity check bit coding is used for
a. Error correction
b. Error detection
c. Error correction and detection
ANSWER: (b) Error detection
69) For hamming distance dmin and t errors in the received word, the condition to be able to correct the errors is
a. 2t + 1 ≤ dmin
b. 2t + 2 ≤ dmin
c. 2t + 1 ≤ 2dmin
d. Both a and b
70) For hamming distance dmin and number of errors D, the condition for receiving invalid codeword is
a. D ≤ dmin + 1
b. D ≤ dmin – 1
c. D ≤ 1 – dmin
d. D ≤ dmin
ANSWER:(b) D ≤ dmin – 1
71) Run Length Encoding is used for
a. Reducing the repeated string of characters
b. Bit error correction
c. Correction of error in multiple bits
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (a) Reducing the repeated string of characters
72) The prefix code is also known as
a. Instantaneous code
b. Block code
c. Convolutional code
d. Parity bit
ANSWER: (a) Instantaneous code
73) The minimum distance for unextended Golay code is
a. 8
b. 9
c. 7
d. 6
ANSWER: (c) 7
74) The Golay code (23,12) is a codeword of length 23 which may correct
a. 2 errors
b. 3 errors
c. 5 errors
d. 8 errors
ANSWER: (b) 3 errors
75) Orthogonality of two codes means
a. The integrated product of two different code words is zero
b. The integrated product of two different code words is one
c. The integrated product of two same code words is zero
ANSWER: (a) The integrated product of two different code words is zero
76) The probability density function of a Markov process is
a. p(x1,x2,x3…….xn) = p(x1)p(x2/x1)p(x3/x2)…….p(xn/xn-1)
b. p(x1,x2,x3…….xn) = p(x1)p(x1/x2)p(x2/x3)…….p(xn-1/xn)
c. p(x1,x2,x3……xn) = p(x1)p(x2)p(x3)…….p(xn)
d. p(x1,x2,x3……xn) = p(x1)p(x2 * x1)p(x3 * x2)……..p(xn * xn-1)
ANSWER:(a) p(x1,x2,x3…….xn) = p(x1)p(x2/x1)p(x3/x2)…….p(xn/xn-1)
77) The capacity of Gaussian channel is
a. C = 2B(1+S/N) bits/s
b. C = B2(1+S/N) bits/s
c. C = B(1+S/N) bits/s
d. C = B(1+S/N)2 bits/s
ANSWER: (c) C = B(1+S/N) bits/s
78) For M equally likely messages, the average amount of information H is
a. H = log10M
b. H = log2M
c. H = log10M2
d. H = 2log10M
ANSWER:(b) H = log2M
79) The channel capacity is
a. The maximum information transmitted by one symbol over the channel
b. Information contained in a signal
c. The amplitude of the modulated signal
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (a) The maximum information transmitted by one symbol over the channel
80) The capacity of a binary symmetric channel, given H(P) is binary entropy function is
a. 1 – H(P)
b. H(P) – 1
c. 1 – H(P)2
d. H(P)2 – 1
ANSWER:(a) 1 – H(P)
81) According to Shannon Hartley theorem,
a. The channel capacity becomes infinite with infinite bandwidth
b. The channel capacity does not become infinite with infinite bandwidth
c. Has a tradeoff between bandwidth and Signal to noise ratio
d. Both b and c are correct
ANSWER: (d) Both b and c are correct
82) The negative statement for Shannon’s theorem states that
a. If R > C, the error probability increases towards Unity
b. If R < C, the error probability is very small
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: (a) If R > C, the error probability increases towards Unity
83) For M equally likely messages, M>>1, if the rate of information R ≤ C, the probability of error is
a. Arbitrarily small
b. Close to unity
c. Not predictable
d. Unknown
ANSWER: (a) Arbitrarily small
84) For M equally likely messages, M>>1, if the rate of information R > C, the probability of error is
a. Arbitrarily small
b. Close to unity
c. Not predictable
d. Unknown
ANSWER: (b) Close to unity
85) In Alternate Mark Inversion (AMI) is
a. 0 is encoded as positive pulse and 1 is encoded as negative pulse
b. 0 is encoded as no pulse and 1 is encoded as negative pulse
c. 0 is encoded as negative pulse and 1 is encoded as positive pulse
d. 0 is encoded as no pulse and 1 is encoded as positive or negative pulse
ANSWER: (b) 0 is encoded as no pulse and 1 is encoded as positive or negative pulse
86) Advantages of using AMI
a. Needs least power as due to opposite polarity
b. Prevents build-up of DC
c. May be used for longer distance
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (d)All of the above
87) The interference caused by the adjacent pulses in digital transmission is called
a. Inter symbol interference
b. White noise
c. Image frequency interference
d. Transit time noise
ANSWER: (a) Inter symbol interference
88) Eye pattern is
a. Is used to study ISI
b. May be seen on CRO
c. Resembles the shape of human eye
d. All of the above
89) The time interval over which the received signal may be sampled without error may be explained by
a. Width of eye opening of eye pattern
b. Rate of closure of eye of eye pattern
c. Height of the eye opening of eye pattern
d. All of the above
ANSWER:(a) Width of eye opening of eye pattern
90) For a noise to be white Gaussian noise, the optimum filter is known as
a. Low pass filter
b. Base band filter
c. Matched filter
d. Bessel filter
ANSWER:(c) Matched filter
91) Matched filters are used
a. For maximizing signal to noise ratio
b. For signal detection
c. In radar
d. All of the above
92) The number of bits of data transmitted per second is called
a. Data signaling rate
b. Modulation rate
c. Coding
ANSWER: (a) Data signaling rate
93) Pulse shaping is done
a. to control Inter Symbol Interference
b. by limiting the bandwidth of transmission
c. after line coding and modulation of signal
d. All of the above
94) The criterion used for pulse shaping to avoid ISI is
a. Nyquist criterion
b. Quantization
c. Sample and hold
d. PLL
ANSWER: (a) Nyquist criterion
95) The filter used for pulse shaping is
a. Raised – cosine filter
b. Sinc shaped filter
c. Gaussian filter
d. All of the above
96) Roll – off factor is defined as
a. The bandwidth occupied beyond the Nyquist Bandwidth of the filter
b. The performance of the filter or device
c. Aliasing effect
ANSWER: (a) The bandwidth occupied beyond the Nyquist Bandwidth of the filter
97) Nyquist criterion helps in
a. Transmitting the signal without ISI
b. Reduction in transmission bandwidth
c. Increase in transmission bandwidth
d. Both a and b
98) The Nyquist theorem is
a. Relates the conditions in time domain and frequency domain
b. Helps in quantization
c. Limits the bandwidth requirement
d. Both a and c
ANSWER: (d) Both a and c
99) The difficulty in achieving the Nyquist criterion for system design is
a. There are abrupt transitions obtained at edges of the bands
b. Bandwidth criterion is not easily achieved
c. Filters are not available
ANSWER: (a) There are abrupt transitions obtained at edges of the bands
100) Equalization in digital communication
a. Reduces inter symbol interference
b. Removes distortion caused due to channel
c. Is done using linear filters
d. All of the above
101) Zero forced equalizers are used for
a. Reducing ISI to zero
b. Sampling
c. Quantization
d. None of the abov
ANSWER: (a)Reducing ISI to zero
102) The transmission bandwidth of the raised cosine spectrum is given by
a. Bt = 2w(1 + α)
b. Bt = w(1 + α)
c. Bt = 2w(1 + 2α)
d. Bt = 2w(2 + α)
ANSWER: (a) Bt = 2w(1 + α)
103) The preferred orthogonalization process for its numerical stability is
a. Gram- Schmidt process
b. House holder transformation
c. Optimization
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (b) House holder transformation
104) For two vectors to be orthonormal, the vectors are also said to be orthogonal. The reverse of the same
a. Is true
b. Is not true
c. Is not predictable
ANSWER: (b) Is not true
105) Orthonormal set is a set of all vectors that are
a. Mutually orthonormal and are of unit length
b. Mutually orthonormal and of null length
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: (a) Mutually orthonormal and are of unit length
106) In On-Off keying, the carrier signal is transmitted with signal value ‘1’ and ‘0’ indicates
a. No carrier
b. Half the carrier amplitude
c. Amplitude of modulating signal
ANSWER: (a) No carrier
107) ASK modulated signal has the bandwidth
a. Same as the bandwidth of baseband signal
b. Half the bandwidth of baseband signal
c. Double the bandwidth of baseband signal
ANSWER: (a) Same as the bandwidth of baseband signal
108) Coherent detection of binary ASK signal requires
a. Phase synchronization
b. Timing synchronization
c. Amplitude synchronization
d. Both a and b
109) The probability of error of DPSK is ______________ than that of BPSK.
a. Higher
b. Lower
c. Same
d. Not predictable
ANSWER: (a) Higher
110) In Binary Phase Shift Keying system, the binary symbols 1 and 0 are represented by carrier with phase shift of
a. Π/2
b. Π
c. 2Π
d. 0
ANSWER: (b) Π
111) BPSK system modulates at the rate of
a. 1 bit/ symbol
b. 2 bit/ symbol
c. 4 bit/ symbol
ANSWER: (a) 1 bit/ symbol
112) The BPSK signal has +V volts and -V volts respectively to represent
a. 1 and 0 logic levels
b. 11 and 00 logic levels
c. 10 and 01 logic levels
d. 00 and 11 logic levels
ANSWER: (a) 1 and 0 logic levels
113) The binary waveform used to generate BPSK signal is encoded in
a. Bipolar NRZ format
c. Differential coding
ANSWER: (a) Bipolar NRZ format
114) The bandwidth of BFSK is ______________ than BPSK.
a. Lower
b. Same
c. Higher
d. Not predictable
ANSWER: (c) Higher
115) In Binary FSK, mark and space respectively represent
a. 1 and 0
b. 0 and 1
c. 11 and 00
d. 00 and 11
ANSWER: (a) 1 and 0
116) The frequency shifts in the BFSK usually lies in the range
a. 50 to 1000 Hz
b. 100 to 2000 Hz
c. 200 to 500 Hz
d. 500 to 10 Hz
ANSWER: (a) 50 to 1000 Hz
117) The spectrum of BFSK may be viewed as the sum of
a. Two ASK spectra
b. Two PSK spectra
c. Two FSK spectra
ANSWER: (a) Two ASK spectra
118) The maximum bandwidth is occupied by
a. ASK
b. BPSK
c. FSK
ANSWER: (c) FSK
119) QPSK is a modulation scheme where each symbol consists of
a. 4 bits
b. 2 bits
c. 1 bits
d. M number of bits, depending upon the requireme
ANSWER: (b) 2 bits
120) The data rate of QPSK is ___________ of BPSK.
a. Thrice
b. Four times
c. Twice
d. Same
ANSWER: (c) Twice
121) QPSK system uses a phase shift of
a. Π
b. Π/2
c. Π/4
d. 2Π
ANSWER: (b) Π/2
122) Minimum shift keying is similar to
a. Continuous phase frequency shift keying
b. Binary phase shift keying
c. Binary frequency shift keying
d. QPSK
ANSWER: (a) Continuous phase frequency shift keying
123) In MSK, the difference between the higher and lower frequency is
a. Same as the bit rate
b. Half of the bit rate
c. Twice of the bit rate
d. Four time the bit rate
ANSWER: (b) Half of the bit rate
124) The technique that may be used to reduce the side band power is
a. MSK
b. BPSK
c. Gaussian minimum shift keying
d. BFSK
ANSWER: (c) Gaussian minimum shift keying

1) Amplitude modulation is
a. Change in amplitude of the carrier according to modulating signal
b. Change in frequency of the carrier according to modulating signal
c. Change in amplitude of the modulating signal according to carrier signal
d. Change in amplitude of the carrier according to modulating signal frequency
ANSWER: (a) Change in amplitude of the carrier according to modulating signal
2) The ability of the receiver to select the wanted signals among the various incoming signals is termed as
a. Sensitivity
b. Selectivity
c. Stability
ANSWER: (b) Selectivity
3) Emitter modulator amplifier for Amplitude Modulation
a. Operates in class A mode
b. Has a low efficiency
c. Output power is small
d. All of the above
4) Super heterodyne receivers
a. Have better sensitivity
b. Have high selectivity
c. Need extra circuitry for frequency conversion
d. All of the above
5) The AM spectrum consists of
a. Carrier frequency
b. Upper side band frequency
c. Lower side band frequency
d. All of the above
6) Standard intermediate frequency used for AM receiver is
a. 455 MHz
b. 455 KHz
c. 455 Hz
ANSWER: (b) 455 KHz
7) In the TV receivers, the device used for tuning the receiver to the incoming signal is
a. Varactor diode
b. High pass Filter
c. Zener diode
d. Low pass filter
ANSWER: (a) Varactor diode
8) The modulation technique that uses the minimum channel bandwidth and transmitted power is
a. FM
b. DSB-SC
c. VSB
d. SSB
ANSWER: (d) SSB
9) Calculate the bandwidth occupied by a DSB signal when the modulating frequency lies in the range from 100 Hz to 10KHz.
a. 28 KHz
b. 24.5 KHz
c. 38.6 KHz
d. 19.8 KHz
ANSWER: (d) 19.8 KHz
10) In Amplitude Demodulation, the condition which the load resistor R must satisfy to discharge capacitor C slowly between the positive peaks of the carrier wave so that the capacitor voltage
will not discharge at the maximum rate of change of the modulating wave (W is message bandwidth and ω is carrier frequency, in rad/sec) is
a. RC < 1/W
b. RC > 1/W
c. RC < 1/ω
d. RC > 1/ω
ANSWER: (a) RC < 1/W
11) A modulation index of 0.5 would be same as
a. 0.5 of Modulation Depth
b. 1/2% of Modulation Depth
c. 5% of Modulation Depth
d. 50% of Modulation Depth
ANSWER: (d) 50% of Modulation Depth
12) A 3 GHz carrier is DSB SC modulated by a signal with maximum frequency of 2 MHz. The minimum sampling frequency required for the signal so that the signal is ideally sampled is
a. 4 MHz
b. 6 MHz
c. 6.004 GHz
d. 6 GHz
ANSWER: (c) 6.004 GHz
13) The function of multiplexing is
a. To reduce the bandwidth of the signal to be transmitted
b. To combine multiple data streams over a single data channel
c. To allow multiple data streams over multiple channels in a prescribed format
d. To match the frequencies of the signal at the transmitter as well as the receiver
ANSWER: (b) To combine multiple data streams over a single data channel
14) Aliasing refers to
a. Sampling of signals less than at Nyquist rate
b. Sampling of signals greater than at Nyquist rate
c. Sampling of signals at Nyquist rate
ANSWER: (a) Sampling of signals less than at Nyquist rate
15) The amount of data transmitted for a given amount of time is called
a. Bandwidth
b. Frequency
c. Noise
d. Signal power
ANSWER: (a) Bandwidth
16) An AM broadcast station transmits modulating frequencies up to 6 kHz. If the AM station is transmitting on a frequency of 894 kHz, the values for maximum and minimum upper and lower
sidebands and the total bandwidth occupied by the AM station are:
a. 900 KHz, 888 KHz, 12 KHz
b. 894 KHz, 884 KHz, 12 KHz
c. 894 KHz, 888 KHz, 6 KHz
d. 900 KHz, 888 KHz, 6 KHz
ANSWER: (a) 900 KHz, 888 KHz, 12 KHz
Explanation:
Maximum Frequency fUSB = 894 + 6 = 900 kHz
Minimum Frequency fLSB = 894 – 6 = 888 kHz
Bandwidth BW = fUSB fLSB = 900 888 = 12 kHz OR = 2(6 kHz) = 12 kHz
17) The total power in an Amplitude Modulated signal if the carrier of an AM transmitter is 800 W and it is modulated 50 percent.
a. 850 W
b. 1000.8 KW
c. 750 W
d. 900 W
ANSWER: (d) 900 W
Explanation:
The total power in an Amplitude Modulated wave is given by
PT = PC (1+ m22)
Here, PC = 800W,
m = 0.5
therefore,
PT = 800 (1+ (0.5)2/2) = 900 W

18) An unmodulated AM signal produces a current of 5.4 A. If the modulation is 100 percent,
calculate:
(a) the carrier power,
(b) the total power,
(c) the sideband power when it is transmitted through an antenna having an impedance of 50Ω.
a. 1458 W, 2187.5 W, 729.25 W
b. 278 W, 2187.5 W, 1917.25 W
c. 1438 W, 2187.5 W, 759.25 W
d. 280 W, 2187.5 W, 750.25 W
ANSWER: (a) 1458 W, 2187.5 W, 729.25 W
Explanation:
a) PC=I2R = (5.4)2*50 = 1458W
b) IT = Ic√(1+m2/2) = 5.4√(1+12/2)
=6.614 A
PT = IT2R
= (6.614)2 * 50
= 2187.25 W
c) PSB = PT – PC
= 2187.25 – 1458 W
= 729.25W (for two bands)
For single band, PSB = 729.25/2
= 364. 625 W
19) Calculate the depth of modulation when a transmitter radiates a signal of 9.8KW after modulation and 8KW without modulation of the signal.
a. 80%
b. 67%
c. 50%
d. 100%
ANSWER: (b) 67%
Explanation:
Ptotal = 9.8KW
Pc = 8KW
Power of the signal (Ptotal) transmitted by a transmitter after modulation is given by
Ptotal = Pc (1+ m2/2)
Where Pc is the power of carrier i.e., without modulation
M is the modulation index
Therefore,
9.8= 8 (1+ m2/2)
9.8/8=1+ m2/2
m=0.67 = 67%
20) When AM signal is of 25KHz, calculate the number of channels required in Medium Frequency (MF) band of 300KHz-3000KHz.
a. 94
b. 69
c. 85
d. 54
ANSWER: (d) 54
Explanation:
Medium Frequency (MF) is the band of frequencies from 300 KHz to 3MHz. The lower portion of the MF band (300to 500 kilohertz) is used for ground-wave transmission for reasonably long distances. The
upper and lower ends of the mf band are used for naval purpose.
Frequency available in MF band= 3000 – 300 = 2700 KHz
The bandwidth required by 25 KHz signal = 2 * 25= 50 KHz
Therefore the number of channels available = 2700/ 50 = 54
21) Calculate the power in one of the side band in SSBSC modulation when the carrier power is 124W and there is 80% modulation depth in the amplitude modulated signal.
a. 89.33 W
b. 64.85 W
c. 79.36 W
d. 102 W
ANSWER: (c) 79.36 W
Explanation:
Modulation Index = 0.8
Pc = 124W
Power in sidebands may be calculated as = m2 Pc/4
= (0.8)2 * 124/4
= 79.36 W
22) Calculate the total modulation Index when a carrier wave is being modulated by two modulating signals with modulation indices 0.8 and 0.3.
a. 0.8544
b. 0.6788
c. 0.9999
d. 0.5545
ANSWER: (a) 0.8544
Explanation:
Here, m1 = 0.8
m2 = 0.3
total modulation index mt = √( m12 + m22 )
= √( 0.82 + 0.32 )
= √ 0.73
= 0.8544
23) Calculate the frequencies available in the frequency spectrum when a 2MHz carrier is modulated by two sinusoidal signals of 350Hz and 600Hz.
a. 2000.35, 1999.65 and 2000.6, 1999.4
b. 1999.35, 1999.65 and 2000.6, 2000.4
c. 2000.35, 2000.65 and 2000.6, 2000.4
d. 1999.35, 1999.65 and 1999.6, 1999.4
ANSWER: (a) 2000.35, 1999.65 and 2000.6, 1999.4
Explanation:
The frequencies obtained in the spectrum after the amplitude modulation are
fc + fm and fc + fm
therefore,
the available frequencies after modulation by 0.350 KHz are
2000KHz + 0.350 KHz = 2000.35 and 2000KHz – 0.350 KHz = 1999.65
the available frequencies after modulation by 0.6 KHz are

2000KHz + 0 .6 KHz = 2000.6 and 2000KHz – 0.6 KHz = 1999.4
24) If an AM signal is represented by

v = ( 15 + 3 Sin( 2Π * 5 * 103 t) ) * Sin( 2Π * 0.5 * 106 t) volts
i) Calculate the values of the frequencies of carrier and modulating signals.
ii) Calculate the value of modulation index.
iii) Calculate the value of bandwidth of this signal.
a. 1.6 MHz and 8 KHz, 0.6, 16 MHz

b. 1.9 MHz and 18 KHz, 0.2, 16 KHz
c. 2.4 MHz and 18 KHz, 0.2, 16 KHz
d. 1.6 MHz and 8 KHz, 0.2, 16 KHz
ANSWER: (d) 1.6 MHz and 8 KHz, 0.2, 16 KHz
Explanation:
The amplitude modulated wave equation is
v = ( 10 + 2 Sin( 2Π * 8 * 103 t) ) * Sin (2Π * 1.6 * 106 t) volts
Instantaneous value of AM signal is represented by the equation
v = {Vc + Vm Sin ( ωm t )} * Sin (ωc t )
comparing it with the given equation,
Vc = 10 V
Vm = 2V
ωc (= 2Π fc) = 2Π * 1.6 * 106
ωm (= 2Π fm) = 2Π * 8 * 103
(i) The carrier frequency fc is = 1.6 * 106 = 1.6 MHz
The modulating frequency fm is = 8* 103 = 8 kHz
(ii) The modulation index m = Vm/Vc = 2/10 = 0.2
(iii) The bandwidth BW = 2 fm = 16 kHz
25) An AM signal has a total power of 48 Watts with 45% modulation. Calculate the power in the carrier and the sidebands.
a. 39.59 W, 4.505 W
b. 40.59 W, 4.205 W
c. 43.59 W, 2.205 W
d. 31.59 W, 8.205 W
ANSWER: (c) 43.59 W, 2.205 W
Explanation:
Given that Pt = 48 W
Modulation index m = 0.45
The total power in an AM is given by

Pt = Pc ( 1 + m2/2)
= Pc ( 1 +0.452/2)
48 = Pc * 1.10125
Therefore, Pc = 48/ 1.10125
= 43.59 W
The total power in two sidebands is 4843.59 = 4.41 W
So the power in each sideband is 4.41/2 = 2.205 W
26) Calculate the power saved in an Amplitude Modulated wave when it is transmitted with 45% modulation
– Without carrier
– Without carrier and a sideband
a. 90%, 95%
b. 82%, 91%
c. 82%, 18%
d. 68%, 16%
ANSWER: (a) 90%, 95%
Explanation:
i) The total power in an AM is given by
Pt = Pc ( 1 + m2/2)
Given: m = 0.45
Therefore Pt = Pc ( 1 + 0.452/2 )
Pt= Pc *1.10125
Pc/ Pt = 1/1.10125
= 0.908
= 90%
This shows that the carrier occupies 90% of total power. So 90% of total power may be saved if carrier is suppressed in the AM signal.
(ii) If one of the sidebands is also suppressed, half of the remaining power will be saved
i.e., 10/2 = 5 %. So a total of 95% (90% + 5% ) will be saved when carrier and a side band are suppressed.
27) What is the carrier frequency in an AM wave when its highest frequency component is 850Hz and the bandwidth of the signal is 50Hz?
a. 80 Hz
b. 695 Hz
c. 625 Hz
d. 825 Hz
ANSWER: (d) 825 Hz
Explanation:
Upper frequency = 850Hz
Bandwidth = 50Hz
Therefore lower Frequency = 850 – 50= 800 Hz
Carrier Frequency = (850-800)/2

= 825 Hz
28) Noise figure of merit in SSB modulated signal is

a. 1
b. Less than 1
c. Greater than 1
ANSWER: (a) 1
29) For low level modulation, amplifier used is
a. Class A
b. Class C
c. Class A & C
ANSWER: (a) Class A
30) The antenna current of the transmitter is 10A. Find the percentage of modulation when the antenna current increases to 10.4A.
a. 32%
b. 28.5%
c. 64%
d. 40%
ANSWER:(b) 28.5%
Explanation:
It = Ic √(1+ m2/2)
10.4= 10 √(1+ m2/2)
√ (1+ m2/2) = 1.04
Therefore m = 0.285
= 28.5%
31) What is the change in the value of transmitted power when the modulation index changes from 0 to 1?
a. 100%
b. Remains unchanged
c. 50%
d. 80%
ANSWER: (c) 50%
Explanation:
Pt = Pc ( 1 + m2/2)
Pt= Pc ( 1 + 02/2) = Pc ..(1)
New total power Pt1= Pc ( 1 + 12/2)
= Pc *3/2 ..(2)
(2) / (1),
We get , Pt1/ Pt= 3/2= 1.5
Pt1= 1.5 Pt
i.e. there is increase in total power by 50%
32) Function of RF mixer is
a. Addition of two signals
b. Multiplication of two signals
c. Rejection of noise
ANSWER: (b) Multiplication of two signals
33) If a receiver has poor capacity of blocking adjacent channel interference then the receiver has
a. Poor selectivity
b. Poor Signal to noise ratio
c. Poor sensitivity
ANSWER: (a) Poor selectivity
34) Advantage of using a high frequency carrier wave is
a. Signal can be transmitted over very long distances
b. Dissipates very small power
c. Antenna height of the transmitter is reduced
d. All of the above
35) Advantage of using VSB transmission is
a. Higher bandwidth than SSB
b. Less power required as compared to DSBSC
c. Both a and b
36) Modulation is required for
a. Reducing noise while transmission
b. Multiplexing the signals
c. Reduction of Antenna height
d. Reduction in the complexity of circuitry
e. All of the above
ANSWER: (e) All of the above
37) Bandwidth required in SSB-SC signal is (fm is modulating frequency):
a. 2fm
b. < 2fm
c. > 2fm
d. fm
ANSWER: (d) fm
Explanation:
In an amplitude modulated wave, total bandwidth required is from f c + fm to fc – fm
i.e. BW = 2fm where fc is carrier frequency.
In SSB-SC transmission, as the carrier and one of the sidebands are suppressed, the bandwidth remains as f m.
38) For over modulation, the value of modulation index m is
a. m < 1
b. m = 1
c. m > 1
d. Not predetermined
ANSWER: (c) m > 1
39) Demodulation is:
a. Detection
b. Recovering information from modulated signal
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: (c)Both a and b
40) Calculate the side band power in an SSBSC signal when there is 50% modulation and the carrier power is 50W.
a. 50 W
b. 25 W
c. 6.25 W
d. 12.5 W
ANSWER: (c) 6.25 W
Explanation:
The side band power is given by
Pc m2/2
= 50 * (0.5) 2/2
= 6.25W
41) TRF receiver and super heterodyne receiver are used for
a. Detection of modulating signal
b. Removal of unwanted signal
c. Both a and b
42) Disadvantage of using a DSB or SSB signal modulation is
a. Difficult to recover information at the receiver
b. Carrier has to be locally generated at receiver
43) Calculate the modulation index when the un modulated carrier power is 15KW, and after modulation, carrier power is 17KW.
a. 68%
b. 51.63%
c. 82.58%
d. 34.66%
ANSWER: (b) 51.63%
Explanation:
Pt = Pc ( 1 + m2/2)
17 = 15(1 + m2/2)
m2/2 = 0.134
m = 0.5163
= 51.63%
44) An AM transmitter has an antenna current changing from 5 A un modulated to 5.8 A. What is the percentage of modulation?
a. 38.8%
b. 83.14%
c. 46.8%
d. 25.2%
ANSWER: (b) 83.14%
Explanation:
Modulation index m is given by
m= √ (2{It/Ic}2-1)
= √ (2 (5.8/5)2 -1)
= √ (2 (5.8/5)2 -1)
= 0.8314
= 83.14%
45) Calculate the power in a DSB SC signal when the modulation is 60% with a carrier power of 600W.
a. 600 W
b. 540 W
c. 108 W
d. 300 W
ANSWER: (c) 108 W
Explanation:
Pt = Pc (1 + m2/2)
Given: m = 0.6
Therefore DSB power = (m2/2)Pc
= 600* (0.6)2/2
= 108 W
46) Analog communication indicates:
a. Continuous signal with varying amplitude or phase
b. No numerical coding
c. AM or FM signal
d. All of the above
47) Types of analog modulation are:
a. Phase modulation
b. Frequency modulation
c. Amplitude modulation
d. All of the above
48) What is the effect on the transmitted power of AM signal when the modulation index changes from 0.8 to 1?
a. 0.1364
b. 0.3856
c. 1.088
d. 0.5
ANSWER: (a) 0.1364
Explanation:
Pt = Pc (1 + m2/2)
Where Pc is the carrier power and m is the modulation index.
Therefore,
Pt1 = Pc (1 + 0.82/2) = 1.32 Pc

Pt2 = Pc ( 1 + 12/2) = 1.5 Pc
Increase in power = (1.5 Pc – 1.32 Pc)/ 1.32 Pc
= 0.1364
49) Synchronous detection means
a. Extracting week signal from noise
b. Need a reference signal with predetermined frequency and phase
c. Both a and b
50) Analog signal may be converted into digital signal by
a. Sampling
b. Amplitude modulation
c. Filtering
d. Mixing
ANSWER: (a) Sampling
51) The minimum antenna height required for transmission in reference to wavelength λ is
a. λ
b. λ/4
c. λ/2
d. 4 λ
ANSWER:(b) λ/4
52) Advantages of analog communication over digital communication are:
a. Data rate is low
b. Less transmission bandwidth is required
c. Synchronization is not needed
d. All of the above
53) Radio waves travel through
a. Electromagnetic waves
b. Water
c. Wires
d. Fiber optic cable
ANSWER: (a) Electromagnetic waves
54) AM wave may be represented as E(t) cos ωct where E(t) is
a. Envelope of the AM wave
b. Carrier signal
c. Amplitude of modulating signal
ANSWER: (a) Envelope of the AM wave
55) USB (Upper Side Band) is the band of frequency
a. Above the carrier frequency
b. Includes the carrier frequency
c. That lies in AM spectrum
ANSWER:(d) Both a and c are correct
56) LSB (Lower Side Band) is the band of frequency
a. Below the carrier frequency
b. Includes the carrier frequency
c. That lies in AM spectrum
57) Bandwidth (B) of an AM signal is given by
a. B = 2 ωm
b. B = (ωc + ωm) – (ωc – ωm)
c. ωm
e. Both a and b are correct
ANSWER: (e) Both a and b are correct
58) An oscillator for an AM transmitter has a 100μH coil and a 10nF capacitor. If a modulating frequency of 10 KHz modulates the oscillator, find the frequency range of the side bands.
a. 149 KHz to 169 KHz
b. 184 KHz to 296 KHz
c. 238 KHz to 296 KHz
d. 155 KHz to 166 KHz
ANSWER: (a) 149 KHz to 169 KHz
Explanation:
Carrier frequency fc = 1/2Π√LC
= 1/ 2Π√100 * 10 – 6 * 10 * 10-9
= 1/2Π * 10-6
= 1.59 * 105 Hz
= 159 KHz
The modulating frequency fm is 10KHz
Therefore the range of AM spectrum is given by (f c fm ) to (fc + fm )
= (159 – 10) to (159 + 10)
= 149 KHz to 169 KHz
59) In Low level Amplitude Modulation
a. Modulation is done at lower power of carrier and modulating signal
b. Output power is low
c. Power amplifiers are required to boost the signal
d. All of the above
60) In High level Amplitude Modulation
a. Modulation is done at high power of carrier and modulating signal
b. Collector modulation method is High level Amplitude Modulation
c. Power amplifiers are used to boost the carrier and modulating signals before modulation
d. All of the above

1) Square law modulators

a. Have non linear current-voltage characteristics
b. Are used for Amplitude Modulation
c. Are used for frequency modulation
2) AM demodulation techniques are
a. Square law demodulator
b. Envelope detector
c. PLL detector
3) The process of recovering information signal from received carrier is known as
a. Detection
b. Modulation
c. Demultiplexing
d. Sampling
ANSWER: (a) Detection
4) Ring modulator is
a. Is used for DSB SC generation
b. Consists of four diodes connected in the form of ring
c. Is a product modulator
d. All of the above
5) What is the maximum transmission efficiency of an AM signal?
a. 64.44%
b. 33.33%
c. 56.66%
d. 75.55%
ANSWER: (b) 33.33%
6) In synchronous detection of AM signal
a. Carrier is locally generated
b. Passed through a low pass filter
c. The original signal is recovered
d. All of the above
7) Requirements of synchronous detection of AM signal are:
a. Local generation of carrier
b. The frequency of the locally generated carrier must be identical to that of transmitted carrier
c. The phase of the locally generated carrier must be synchronized to that of transmitted carrier
d. All of the above
8) Disadvantages of using synchronous detection of AM signal are:
a. Needs additional system for generation of carrier
b. Needs additional system for synchronization of carrier
c. Receiver is complex and costly
d. All of the above
9) Quadrature Amplitude Modulation (QAM) is
a. Have same bandwidth used for two DSB-SC signals
b. Is also known as Bandwidth Conservation scheme
c. Is used in color television
d. All of the above
10) Pilot carrier is
a. Used with DSB-SC signal
b. A small carrier transmitted with modulated signal
c. Used for synchronization with local carrier at the receiver
d. All of the above
11) Generation of SSB SC signal is done by
a. Phase discrimination method
b. Frequency discrimination method
c. Product modulator
d. Both a and b
12) Limitations of Frequency discrimination method are:
a. Cannot be used for video signals
b. Designing of band pass filter is difficult
c. Both a and b
ANSWER:(c) Both a and b
13) Phase shift method is
a. Includes two balanced modulators
b. Two phase shifting networks
c. Avoids the use of filters
d. All of the above
14) Vestigial side band signals are detected by
a. Filters
b. Synchronous detection
c. Balanced modulator
ANSWER: (b) Synchronous detection
15) Automatic gain control is
a. Provides controlled signal amplitude at the output
b. Adjusts the input to output gain to a suitable value
c. Is used in AM radio receiver
d. All of the above
16) In an Amplitude Modulation
a. Amplitude of the carrier varies
b. Frequency of the carrier remains constant
c. Phase of the carrier remains constant
d. All of the above
ANSWER: )(d) All of the above
17) If modulation index is greater than 1
a. The baseband signal is not preserved in the envelope of the AM signal
b. The recovered signal is distorted
c. It is called over modulation
d. All of the above
18) Examples of low level modulation are
a. Square law diode modulation
b. Switching modulation
c. Frequency discrimination method
d. Both a and b
19) Frequency components of an AM wave (m = modulation index) are
a. Carrier frequency (ωc ) with amplitude A
b. Upper side band (ωc + ωm) having amplitude mA/2
c. Lower side band (ωc – ωm) having amplitude mA/2
d. All of the above
20) Squelch circuit is
a. Suppresses output audio
b. Works when there is insufficient desired input signal
c. Is used to suppress the unwanted channel noise when there is no reception by the receiver
d. All of the above
21) In Automatic gain control of the AM receiver
a. Gain of the receiver is adjusted
b. The gain adjustment depends upon the strength of the received signal
c. The output provided is a DC voltage
d. All of the above
22) The factors that determine the sensitivity of super heterodyne receiver are
a. Gain of the IF amplifier
b. Noise figure of the receiver
c. Gain of RF amplifier
d. All of the above
23) Selectivity of a receiver:
a. Changes with incoming signal frequency
b. Is poorer at high frequencies
c. Is the rejection of the adjacent channel at the receiver
d. All of the above
24) Advantages of using an RF amplifier are:
a. Better selectivity
b. Better sensitivity
c. Improved signal to noise ratio
d. All of the above
25) Intermediate frequency (IF) should be carefully chosen as
a. High IF results in poor selectivity
b. High IF results in problems in tracking of signals
c. Image frequency rejection becomes poor at low IF
d. All of the above
26) Example of continuous wave analog modulation is
a. PCM
b. DM
c. AM
d. PAM
ANSWER: (c) AM
27) The standard value for Intermediate frequency (IF) in AM receivers is
a. 455 KHz
b. 580 KHz
c. 10.7 MHz
d. 50 MHz
ANSWER: (a) 455 KHz
28) The functions of radio receiver are
a. Receive the Incoming modulated carrier by antenna
b. Select the wanted signal and reject the unwanted signals and noise
c. Detection and amplification of the information signal from the carrier
d. All of the above
29) Function of frequency mixer in super heterodyne receiver is
a. Amplification
b. Filtering
c. Multiplication of incoming signal and the locally generated carrier
ANSWER: (c) Multiplication of incoming signal and the locally generated carrier
30) The advantages of using an RF amplifier are
a. Better sensitivity
b. Improved signal to noise ratio
c. Better selectivity
d. All of the above
31) The costas receiver is used for
a. FM signal
b. DSB-SC signal
c. PCM signal
d. DM signal
ANSWER: (b) DSB-SC signal
32) Cross talk is –
a. The disturbance caused in the nearby channel or circuit due to transmitted signal
b. Adjacent frequency rejection
c. Generation of closely lying side bands
ANSWER: (a) The disturbance caused in the nearby channel or circuit due to transmitted signal
33) In terms of signal frequency (fs) and intermediate frequency (fi), the image frequency is given by
a. fs + fi
b. fs + 2fi
c. 2fs + fi
d. 2( fs + fi)
ANSWER: (b) fs + 2fi
34) In Frequency Modulation –
a. Amplitude of the carrier remains same
b. Frequency of the carrier varies in accordance with the modulating signal
c. The number of side bands are infinite
d. All of the above
35) Frequency deviation in FM is
a. Change in carrier frequency to the frequency above and below the centre frequency
b. Formation of side bands
c. The variation of the instantaneous carrier frequency in proportion to the modulating signal
d. All of the above
36) Carrier swing is defined as
a. The total variation in frequency from the lowest to the highest point
b. Frequency deviation above or below the carrier frequency
c. Width of the side band
ANSWER: (a) The total variation in frequency from the lowest to the highest point
37) The amount of frequency deviation in FM signal depends on
a. Amplitude of the modulating signal
b. Carrier frequency
c. Modulating frequency
d. Transmitter amplifier
ANSWER: ( a) Amplitude of the modulating signal
38) Drawbacks of using direct method for generation of FM signal are
a. Does not give high stability to FM signal frequency
b. Distorted FM signal is generated due to harmonics of modulating signal
c. Cannot be used for high power FM generation
d. Both a and b
39) Advantage of using direct method for generation of FM signal is
a. It gives high stability to FM signal frequency
b. Distortion free FM signal is generated
c. High power FM generation is possible
ANSWER: (c) High power FM generation is possible
40) What are the disadvantages of using balanced slope detector for demodulation of FM signal?
a. The detector operates only for small deviation in frequency
b. Low pass filter of the detector produces distortion in the detection
c. Both a and b
41) Drawbacks of Tuned Radio Receiver are
a. Oscillate at higher frequencies
b. Selectivity is poor
c. Bandwidth of the TRF receiver varies with incoming frequency
d. All of the above
42) Sensitivity is defined as
a. Ability of receiver to amplify weak signals
b. Ability to reject unwanted signals
c. Ability to convert incoming signal into Image Frequency
d. Ability to reject noise
ANSWER: (a) Ability of receiver to amplify weak signals
43) In radio receivers, varactor diodes are used for
a. Tuning
b. Demodulation
c. Mixing
ANSWER: (a) Tuning
44) The standard value for Intermediate frequency (IF) in double conversion FM receivers is
a. 455 KHz
b. 580 KHz
c. 10.7 MHz
d. 50 MHz
ANSWER: (c) 10.7 MHz
45) Amplitude limiter in FM receivers are used to
a. Remove amplitude variations due to noise
b. Filteration
c. Demodulation
d. Amplification
ANSWER: (a) Remove amplitude variations due to noise
46) Pre emphasis is done
a. For boosting of modulating signal voltage
b. For modulating signals at higher frequencies
c. In FM before modulation
d. All of the above
47) De emphasis is
a. is restoring of original signal power
b. is done at the detector output of the receiver
c. is the inverse process of Pre emphasis
d. All of the above
48) Pre emphasis is done before
a. Before modulation
b. Before transmission
c. Before detection at receiver
d. After detection at receiver
ANSWER: (a) Before modulation
49) What is the effect on the deviation d of an FM signal when it is passed through a mixer?
a. Doubles
b. Reduces
c. Becomes half
50) Armstrong method is used for the generation of
a. Direct FM
b. Indirect FM
c. SSB-SC
d. DSB-SC
51) The modulation index of FM is given by
a. μ = frequency deviation/ modulating frequency
b. μ = modulating frequency /frequency deviation
c. μ = modulating frequency/ carrier frequency
d. μ = carrier frequency / modulating frequency
ANSWER:(a) μ = frequency deviation/ modulating frequency
52) Disadvantages of FM over AM are
a. Prone to selective fading
b. Capture effect
c. Poorer signal to noise ratio at high audio frequencies
d. All of the above
53) What is the required bandwidth according to the Carson’s rule, when a 100 MHz carrier is modulated with a sinusoidal signal at 1KHz, the maximum frequency deviation being 50 KHz.
a. 1 KHz
b. 50 KHz
c. 102 KHz
d. 150 KHz
ANSWER: (c) 102 KHz
Explanation:
According to Carson’s rule, bandwidth of FM is given by 2(Δf+ fm) where Δf is the deviation in frequency and fm is the frequency of sinusoidal signal. The required bandwidth is therefore calculated as
2 * (50KHz + 1KHz)
= 2 * 51 KHz
= 102 KHz
54) The audio signal having frequency 500Hz and voltage 2.6V, shows a deviation of 5.2KHz in a Frequency Modulation system. If the audio signal voltage changes to 8.6V, calculate the new
deviation obtained.
a. 17.2 KHz
b. 19.6 KHz
c. 25.6 KHz
d. 14.6 KHz
ANSWER: (a) 17.2 KHz
Explanation:
Deviation in FM is given by Δf = kf * Am
Therefore, kf = Δf/ Am
= 5.2/2.6
=2
When voltage changes to 8.6V = Am
New frequency deviation Δf = kf * Am
= 2* 8.6
= 17.2 KHz
55) According to Carson’s rule, Bandwidth B and modulating frequency f m are related as
a. B = 2(Δf + fm) Hz
b. B = fm Hz
c. B < 2fm Hz
d. B > 2fm Hz
ANSWER: (a) B = 2(Δf + fm) Hz
56) What is the change in the bandwidth of the signal in FM when the modulating frequency increases from 12 KHz to 24KHz?
a. 40 Hz
b. 58 Hz
c. 24 Hz
d. Bandwidth remains unaffected
ANSWER: (c) 24 Hz
Explanation:
According to Carson’s rule, the bandwidth required is twice the sum of the maximum frequency deviation and the maximum modulating signal frequency. Or,
B=2(Δf +fm) Hz
B= 2(Δf +12) Hz = 2 Δf + 24 Hz (1)
Assuming Δf to be constant,
B = 2 Δf + 48 Hz (2)
(2)-(1),
= 24Hz
Therefore the bandwidth changes by 24Hz.
57) What is the maximum frequency deviation allowed in commercial FM broadcasting?
a. 100 KHz
b. 75 KHz
c. 15 KHz
d. 120 KHz
ANSWER: (b) 75 KHz
58) What is the maximum modulating frequency allowed in commercial FM broadcastings?
a. 40 KHz
b. 75 KHz
c. 15 KHz
d. 120 KHz
ANSWER: (c) 15 KHz
59) The ratio of actual frequency deviation to the maximum allowable frequency deviation is called
a. Multi tone modulation
b. Percentage modulation
c. Phase deviation
d. Modulation index
ANSWER: (b) Percentage modulation
60) The range of modulating frequency for Narrow Band FM is
a. 30 Hz to 15 KHz
b. 30 Hz to 30 KHz
c. 30 Hz to 3 KHz
d. 3 KHz to 30 KHz
ANSWER: (c) 30 Hz to 3 KHz

1) FM is advantageous over AM as

a. The amplitude of FM is constant. So transmitter power remains unchanged in FM but it changes in AM
b. The depth of modulation in FM can be changed to any value by changing the frequency deviation. So the signal is not distorted
c. There is less possibility of adjacent channel interference due to presence of guard bands
d. All of the above
2) VCO is used to generate
a. Direct FM
b. Indirect FM
c. SSB-SC
d. DSB-SC
ANSWER: (a) Direct FM
3) Change in instantaneous phase of the carrier with change in amplitude of the modulating signal generates
a. Direct FM
b. Indirect FM
c. SSB-SC
d. DSB-SC
4) Phase-locked loop can be used as
a. FM demodulator
b. AM demodulator
c. FM receiver
d. AM receiver
ANSWER: (a) FM demodulator
5) The increase or decrease in the frequency around the carrier frequency is termed as
a. Figure factor
b. Frequency deviation
c. Modulation index
d. Frequency pectrum
ANSWER: (b) Frequency deviation
6) Carson’s rule is used to calculate
a. Bandwidth of FM signal
b. Signal to noise ratio
c. Modulation index
d. Noise figure
ANSWER: (a) Bandwidth of FM signal
7) The ratio of maximum peak frequency deviation and the maximum modulating signal frequency is termed as
a. Frequency deviation
b. Deviation ratio
c. Signal to noise ratio
d. Frequency spectrum
ANSWER: (b) Deviation ratio
8) The equation v(t) = A cos [ωct + kp Φ(t)] represents the signal as
a. Phase modulated signal
b. SSBSC signal
c. DSB SC signal
ANSWER: (a) Phase modulated signal
9) Calculate the maximum frequency deviation for the FM signal
v(t) = 10 cos (6000t+ 5sin2200t)
a. 2200 Hz
b. 6000 Hz
c. 1750 Hz
d. 11000 Hz
ANSWER: (c) 1750 Hz
Explanation:
fm = modulating frequency = 2200/2π = 350 Hz
5 = freq deviation/ 350
Therefore, deviation = 5 * 350
= 1750Hz
10) Calculate the dissipation in power across 20Ω resistor for the FM signal
v(t)= 20 cos(6600t+ 10sin2100t)
a. 5W
b. 20W
c. 10W
d. 400W
ANSWER: (a) 5W
Explanation:
the power dissipated across 20Ω resistor is given by
Vrms2/R
=(20/√2)2/R
= 5W
11) What is the value of carrier frequency in the following equation for the FM signal?
v(t)= 5 cos(6600t+ 12sin2500t)
a. 1150 Hz
b. 6600 Hz
c. 2500 Hz
d. 1050 Hz
ANSWER: (d) 1050 Hz
Explanation:
therefore, fc = 6600/2π
= 1050Hz
12) Calculate the modulation index in an FM signal when fm (modulating frequency) is 250Hz and Δf (frequency deviation) is 5KHz.
a. 20
b. 35
c. 50
d. 75
ANSWER: (a) 20
Explanation:
Modulation index is the measure of how much the modulation parameter changes from its un modulated value. The modulation index of FM is given by
μ = frequency deviation/ modulating frequency
= Δf/ fm
Where Δf is the peak frequency deviation i.e. the deviation in the instantaneous value of the frequency with modulating signal.
fm is the value of modulating frequency
μ = 5000/250
= 20
13) After passing the FM signal through mixer, what is the change in the frequency deviation Δ when the modulating frequency is doubled?
a. Becomes 2 Δ
b. Becomes Δ /2
c. Becomes Δ2
14) In frequency modulation,
a. Armstrong method is used for generation
b. Multiple side bands are generated
c. The FM signal has infinite bandwidth
d. All of the above
15) Maximum frequency deviation and the maximum bandwidth allowed for commercial FM broadcast is
a. 80KHz, 160Khz
b. 75KHz, 200Khz
c. 60KHz, 170Khz
d. 75KHz, 250Khz
ANSWER: 7 (b) 5KHz, 200Khz
16) Guard bands are provided in FM signal to
a. Prevent interference from adjacent channels
b. To increase the noise
c. To increase bandwidth
ANSWER: (a) Prevent interference from adjacent channels
17) For a FM signal v(t) = 15 cos ( 10 * 108t + 10 sin 1220t), calculate
1. Carrier frequency
2. Modulating frequency
a. 159.1MHz, 194.1Hz
b. 185.5MHz, 200.15Hz
c. 350.1MHz, 200.1Hz
d. 159.1Hz, 194.1Hz
ANSWER: 1 (a) 59.1MHz, 194.1Hz
18) For a FM signal v(t) = 25 cos (15 * 108t + 10 sin 1550t), calculate:
1. Modulation index
2. Maximum frequency deviation
a. 10, 3000.1Hz
b. 20, 1550.9Hz
c. 10, 2465.9Hz
d. 10, 2000.0Hz
ANSWER: (c) 10, 2465.9Hz
Explanation:
v(t) = A cos ( ωct + mf sin ωmt)
Modulation index mf = 10
Maximum frequency deviation is given by
mf = Δf/fm
Δf = mf * fm
Here fm = 1550/2Π = 246.59 Hz
Δf = 10 * 246.59
= 2465.9Hz
19) For a FM signal v(t) = 20 cos ( 10 * 108t + 30 sin 3000t), calculate the power dissipated by the FM wave in a 20Ω resistor.
a. 100 Watts
b. 10 Watts
c. 200 Watts
d. 20 Watts
ANSWER: (b) 10 Watts
Explanation:
v(t) = A cos ( Ωct + mf sin Ωmt)
A = 20
The dissipated power is given by P = V2rms/R
= (20/√2)2/ 20
= 10Watts
20) A 100MHz carrier is frequency modulated by 5 KHz wave. For a frequency deviation of 100 KHz, calculate the carrier swing of the FM signal.
a. 2000 KHz
b. 100 KHz
c. 105 KHz
d. 200 KHz
ANSWER: (d) 200 KHz
Explanation:
Carrier swing of the FM signal = 2 * Δf
= 2 * 100
= 200 KHz
21) A 100MHz carrier is frequency modulated by 10 KHz wave. For a frequency deviation of 50 KHz, calculate the modulation index of the FM signal.
a. 100
b. 50
c. 70
d. 90
ANSWER: (b) 50
Explanation:
Modulation index of FM signal is given by
mf = Δf/fm
= 500 * 103/ 10 * 103
= 50
22) Narrow band FM has the characteristics:
a. The frequency sensitivity kf is small
b. Bandwidth is narrow
c. Both a and b
23) Wide band FM has the characteristics:
a. The frequency sensitivity kf is large
b. Bandwidth is wide
c. Both a and b
24) Determine the Bandwidth of a FM wave when the maximum deviation allowed is 75KHz and the modulating signal has a frequency of 10KHz.
a. 170 KHz
b. 200 KHz
c. 100 KHz
d. 1000 KHz
ANSWER: (a) 170 KHz
Explanation:
According to Carson s rule, BW = 2(Δf + fm)
= 2 (75 + 10)
= 170 KHz
25) FM signal is better than AM signal because
a. Less immune to noise
b. Less adjacent channel interference
c. Amplitude limiters are used to avoid amplitude variations
d. All of the above
26) FM is disadvantageous over AM signal because
a. much wider channel bandwidth is required
b. FM systems are more complex and costlier
c. Adjacent channel interference is more
d. Both a and b
27) For a three stage cascade amplifier, calculate the overall noise figure when each stage has a gain of 12 DB and noise figure of 8dB.
a. 12
b. 24
c. 13.55
d. 8
ANSWER: (c) 13.55
Explanation:
As the signal passes through various stages of an amplifier, the output has the original signal and some noise that gets amplified at different stages of amplifiers. So the final noise figure of the cascaded
amplifier is obtained by
FN = F1 + (F2 – 1)/ G1 + (F3 – 1)/ G1G2+……+(FN– 1)/ G1G2G3 GN
F1, F2, F3 .. FN, G1,G2, G3…. GN are the noise figures and the gains respectively of the amplifiers at different stages.
F1 = 12, F2 = 12, F3 = 12
G1 = 8, G2 = 8, G3 = 8
FN = 12 + (12- 1)/ 8+ (12- 1)/ 8 * 8
= 12 + 11/8 + 11/64
= 13.55
28) The Hilbert transform of the signal sinω1t + sinω2t is
a. sinω1t + sinω2t
b. cosω1t + cosω2t
c. sinω2t + cosω2t
d. sinω1t + sinω1t
ANSWER: (b) cosω1t + cosω2t
Explanation:
In Hilbert transform, the signal gets shifted by 900.
So the signal sinω1t+ sinω2t gets shifted by 900
sinω1(t+900)+ sinω2(t+900)
= cosω1t+ cosω2t
29) The noise due to random behaviour of charge carriers is
a. Shot noise
b. Partition noise
c. Industrial noise
d. Flicker noise
ANSWER: (a) Shot noise
30) Transit time noise is
a. Low frequency noise
b. High frequency noise
c. Due to random behavior of carrier charges
d. Due to increase in reverse current in the device
ANSWER: (b) High frequency noise
31) Figure of merit γ is
a. Ratio of output signal to noise ratio to input signal to noise ratio
b. Ratio of input signal to noise ratio to output signal to noise ratio
c. Ratio of output signal to input signal to a system
d. Ratio of input signal to output signal to a system
ANSWER: (a) Ratio of output signal to noise ratio to input signal to noise ratio
32) Signum function sgn(f), for f>0, f=0 and f<0, has the values:
a. -1 to +1
b. +1, 0, -1 respectively
c. -∞ to + ∞
d. 0 always
ANSWER: (b) +1, 0, -1 respectively
Explanation:
The sgn(f) is a signum function that is defined in the frequency domain as
sgn(f) = 1, f> 0
= 0, f = 0
= -1, f< 0
Mathematically, the sign function or signum function is an odd mathematical function which extracts the sign of a real number and is often represented as sgn
33) In Hilbert transform of a signal, the phase angles of all components of a given signal are shifted by
a. +/- π
b. +/- π/4
c. +/- π/2
d. Any angle from 00 to 3600
ANSWER: (c) +/- π/2
34) The noise voltage (Vn) and the signal bandwidth (B) are related as
a. Vn is directly proportional to bandwidth
b. Vn is directly proportional to √bandwidth
c. Vn is inversely proportional to absolute temperature
d. Vn is inversely proportional to bandwidth
ANSWER: (b) Vn is directly proportional to √bandwidth
35) Noise factor for a system is defined as the ratio of
a. Input noise power (Pni) to output noise power (Pno)
b. Output noise power (Pno) to input noise power (Pni)
c. Output noise power (Pno) to input signal power (Psi)
d. Output signal power (Pso) to input noise power (Pni)
ANSWER: (b) Output noise power (Pno) to input noise power (Pni)
36) Noise Factor(F) and Noise Figure(NF) are related as
a. NF = 10 log10(F)
b. F = 10 log10(NF)
c. NF = 10 (F)
d. F = 10 (NF)
ANSWER: (a) NF = 10 log10(F)
37) The Noise Factor for cascaded amplifiers (FN) is given by (F1, F2, F3 .. FN, G1, G2, G3….GN) are the noise factors and the gains of the amplifiers at different stages:
a. FN = F1 + F2/ G1 + F3/ G1G2+ ..+ FN/ G1G2G3GN
b. FN = F1 + (F2 – 1)/ G1 + (F3 – 1)/ (G1+G2)+ ..+(FN – 1)/ (G1+G2+G3+…+GN)
c. FN = F1 + F2/ G1 + F3/ (G1+G2) +…+ FN/ (G1+G2+G3+…+GN)
d. FN = F1 + (F2 – 1)/ G1 + (F3 – 1)/ G1G2+…+(FN – 1)/ G1G2G3GN
ANSWER: (d) FN = F1 + (F2 – 1)/ G1 + (F3 – 1)/ G1G2+…+(FN – 1)/ G1G2G3GN
38) For a two stage amplifier, first amplifier has Voltage gain = 20, Input Resistance R in1=700Ω, equivalent Resistance Req1=1800Ω and Output Resistor Ro1 = 30KΩ. The corresponding values of
second amplifier are : 25, 80 KΩ, 12 KΩ, 1.2 MΩ respectively. What is the value of equivalent input noise resistance of the given two stage amplifier?
a. 2609.1Ω
b. 2607.1Ω
c. 107.1Ω
d. 2107.1Ω
ANSWER: (b) 2607.1Ω
Explanation:
R1 = Rin1 + Req1 = 700 + 1800 = 2500Ω
R2 = (Ro1 Rin2)/ (Ro1 + Rin2) + Req2 = 30 * 80/(30 + 80) + 12 = 40.92KΩ
R3 = Ro2 = 1.2MΩ
Equivalent input noise resistance of a two stage amplifier is given by
Req = R1 + R2/ A21 + R3/ (A21 A22)
= 2500 + 40.92 * 103/(20)2 + 1.2 * 106/(20)2(25)2
= 2607.1Ω
39) The noise temperature at a resistor depends upon
a. Resistance value
b. Noise power
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: (b) Noise power
40) Noise voltage Vn and absolute temperature T are related as
a. Vn = 1/ √(4RKTB)
b. Vn = √(4RK)/ (TB)
c. Vn = √(4RKTB)
d. Vn = √(4KTB)/R
ANSWER: (c) Vn = √(4RKTB)

1) Notch filter is a
a. Band pass filter
b. Band stop filter
c. Low pass filter
d. High pass filter
ANSWER: (b) Band stop filter
2) Noise is added to a signal in a communication system
a. At the receiving end
b. At transmitting antenna
c. In the channel
d. During regeneration of the information
ANSWER: (c) In the channel
3) Noise power at the resistor is affected by the value of the resistor as
a. Directly proportional to the value of the resistor
b. Inversely proportional to the value of the resistor
c. Unaffected by the value of the resistor
d. Becomes half as the resistance value is doubled
ANSWER: (c) Unaffected by the value of the resistor
4) Low frequency noise is
a. Transit time noise
b. Flicker noise
c. Shot noise
ANSWER: (b) Flicker noise
5) Hilbert transform may be used in
a. Generation of SSB signals
b. Representation of band pass signals
c. Designing of minimum phase type filters
d. All of the above
6) At a room temperature of 300K, calculate the thermal noise generated by two resistors of 10KΩ and 20 KΩ when the bandwidth is 10 KHz.
a. 4.071 * 10-6 V, 5.757 * 10-6 V
b. 6.08 * 10-6 V, 15.77 * 10-6 V
c. 16.66 * 10-6 V, 2.356 * 10-6 V
d. 1.66 * 10-6 V, 0.23 * 10-6 V
ANSWER: (a) 4.071 * 10-6 V, 5.757 * 10-6 V
Explanation:
Noise voltage Vn = √(4R KTB)
Where, K = 1.381×10-23 J/K, joules per Kelvin, the Boltzmann constant
B is the bandwidth at which the power Pn is delivered.
T noise temperature
R is the resistance
Noise voltage by individual resistors
Vn1 = √(4R1 KTB)
= √(4 * 10 * 103 * 1.381 * 10-23 * 3000 * 10 * 103)
= √16.572 * 10-12
= 4.071 * 10-6 V
Vn2 = √(4R2 KTB)
= √(4 * 20 * 103 * 1.381 * 10-23 * 3000 * 10 * 103)
= √33.144 * 10-12
= 5.757 * 10-6 V
7) At a room temperature of 293K, calculate the thermal noise generated by two resistors of 20KΩ and 30 KΩ when the bandwidth is 10 KHz and the resistors are connected in series.
a. 300.66 * 10-7
b. 284.48 * 10-7
c. 684.51 * 10-15
d. 106.22 * 10-7
ANSWER: (b) 284.48 * 10-7
Explanation:
Where, K = 1.381 × 10-23 J/K, joules per Kelvin, the Boltzmann constant
T noise temperature
R is the resistance
Noise voltage by resistors when connected in series is
Vn = √{4(R1 + R2) KTB}
= √{4(20 * 103 + 30 * 103) * 1.381 × 10-23 * 293 * 10 * 103 }
= 284.48 * 10-7
8) At a room temperature of 300K, calculate the thermal noise generated by two resistors of 10KΩ and 30 KΩ when the bandwidth is 10 KHz and the resistors are connected in parallel.
a. 30.15 * 10-3
b. 8.23 * 10-23
c. 11.15 * 10-7
d. 26.85 * 10-7
ANSWER: (c) 11.15 * 10-7
Explanation:
Where, K = 1.381 × 10-23 J/K, joules per Kelvin, the Boltzmann constant
T noise temperature
R is the resistance
Noise voltage by resistors when connected in parallel is
Vn = √{4R KTB}
Here for resistors to be in parallel,
1/R = 1/R1 + 1/R2
= 1/10K + 1/30K
= 0.1333
R = 7.502KΩ
Vn = √{4 * 7.502 * 103 * 1.381×10-23 * 300 * 10 * 103}
= √124.323 * 10-14
= 11.15 * 10-7
9) A periodic signal is
a. May be represented by g(t) = g(t + T0)
b. Value may be determined at any point
c. Repeats itself at regular intervals
d. All of the above
10) Sine wave is a
a. Periodic signal
b. Aperiodic signal
c. Deterministic signal
d. Both a and c
ANSWER: (a) Periodic signal
11) Properties of Hilbert transform are:
a. The signal and its Hilbert transform have same energy density spectrum
b. The signal and its Hilbert transform are mutually diagonal
12) An even function f(x) for all values of x and x holds
a. f(x) = f(-x)
b. f(x) = -f(x)
c. f(x) = f(x)f(-x)
ANSWER: (a) f(x) = f(-x)
13) Random signals is
a. May be specified in time
b. Occurrence is random
c. Repeat over a period
ANSWER: (b) Occurrence is random
14) Unit step function is
a. Exists only for positive side
b. Is zero for negative side
c. Discontinuous at time t=0
d. All of the above
15) In Unit impulse function
a. Pulse width is zero
b. Area of pulse curve is unity
c. Height of pulse goes to infinity
d. All of the above
16) For a Unit ramp function area of pulse curve is unity
a. Discontinuous at time t=0
b. Starts at time t=0 and linearly increases with t
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: (b) Starts at time t=0 and linearly increases with t
17) Thermal noise is also known as
a. Johnson noise
b. Partition noise
c. Flicker noise
d. Solar noise
ANSWER: (a) Johnson noise
18) Threshold effect is:
a. Reduction in output signal to noise ratio
b. Large noise as compared to input signal to envelope detector
c. Detection of message signal is difficult
d. All of the above
19) The rms value of thermal noise voltage is related to Boltzmann’s constant k as
a. Vn is Directly proportional to k2
b. Vn is Directly proportional to k
c. Vn is Directly proportional to √k
d. Vn is Directly proportional to k3
ANSWER: (c) Vn is Directly proportional to √k
20) The spectrum of the sampled signal may be obtained without overlapping only if
a. fs ≥ 2fm
b. fs < 2fm
c. fs > fm
d. fs < fm
ANSWER: (a) fs ≥ 2fm
21) The desired signal of maximum frequency wm centered at frequency w=0 may be recovered if
a. The sampled signal is passed through low pass filter
b. Filter has the cut off frequency wm
c. Both a and b
22) A distorted signal of frequency fm is recovered from a sampled signal if the sampling frequency fs is
a. fs > 2fm
b. fs < 2fm
c. fs = 2fm
d. fs ≥ 2fm
ANSWER: (b) fs < 2fm
23) Calculate the minimum sampling rate to avoid aliasing when a continuous time signal is given by x(t) = 5 cos 400πt
a. 100 Hz
b. 200 Hz
c. 400 Hz
d. 250 Hz
ANSWER: (c) 400 Hz
Explanation:
In the given signal, the highest frequency is given by f = 400 π/ 2π
= 200 Hz
The minimum sampling rate required to avoid aliasing is given by Nyquist rate. The nyquist rate is = 2 * f
= 2 * 200
= 400 Hz.
24) Calculate the Nyquist rate for sampling when a continuous time signal is given by
x(t) = 5 cos 100πt +10 cos 200πt – 15 cos 300πt
a. 300Hz
b. 600Hz
c. 150Hz
d. 200Hz
ANSWER: (a) 300Hz
Explanation:
For the given signal,
f1 = 100π/2π = 50Hz
f2 = 200π/2π = 100Hz
f3= 300π/2π = 150Hz
The highest frequency is 150Hz. Therefore fmax = 150Hz
Nyquist rate = 2 fmax
= 2 * 150
= 300Hz.
25) A low pass filter is
a. Passes the frequencies lower than the specified cut off frequency
b. Rejects higher frequencies
c. Is used to recover signal from sampled signal
d. All of the above
26) The techniques used for sampling are
a. Instantaneous sampling
b. Natural sampling
c. Flat top sampling
d. All of the above
27) The instantaneous sampling
a. Has a train of impulses
b. Has the pulse width approaching zero value
c. Has the negligible power content
d. All of the above
28) The sampling technique having the minimum noise interference is
a. Instantaneous sampling
b. Natural sampling
c. Flat top sampling
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (b) Natural sampling
29) Types of analog pulse modulation systems are
a. Pulse amplitude modulation
b. Pulse time modulation
c. Frequency modulation
d. Both a and b
30) In pulse amplitude modulation,
a. Amplitude of the pulse train is varied
b. Width of the pulse train is varied
c. Frequency of the pulse train is varied
ANSWER: (a) Amplitude of the pulse train is varied
31) Pulse time modulation (PTM) includes
a. Pulse width modulation
b. Pulse position modulation
c. Pulse amplitude modulation
d. Both a and b
32) Drawback of using PAM method is
a. Bandwidth is very large as compared to modulating signal
b. Varying amplitude of carrier varies the peak power required for transmission
c. Due to varying amplitude of carrier, it is difficult to remove noise at receiver
d. All of the above
33) In Pulse time modulation (PTM),
a. Amplitude of the carrier is constant
b. Position or width of the carrier varies with modulating signal
c. Pulse width modulation and pulse position modulation are the types of PTM
d. All of the above
34) In different types of Pulse Width Modulation,
a. Leading edge of the pulse is kept constant
b. Tail edge of the pulse is kept constant
c. Centre of the pulse is kept constant
d. All of the above
35) In pulse width modulation,
a. Synchronization is not required between transmitter and receiver
b. Amplitude of the carrier pulse is varied
c. Instantaneous power at the transmitter is constant
ANSWER: (a) Synchronization is not required between transmitter and receiver
36) In PWM signal reception, the Schmitt trigger circuit is used
a. To remove noise
b. To produce ramp signal
c. For synchronization
ANSWER: (a) To remove noise
37) In Pulse Position Modulation, the drawbacks are
a. Synchronization is required between transmitter and receiver
b. Large bandwidth is required as compared to PAM
c. None of the above
d. Both a and b
Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on Signal and Systems

1) Which mathematical notation specifies the condition of periodicity for a continuous time signal?
a. x(t) = x(t +T0)
b. x(n) = x(n+ N)
c. x(t) = e-αt
ANSWER: (a) x(t) = x(t +T0)
2) Which property of delta function indicates the equality between the area under the product of function with shifted impulse and the value of function located at unit impulse instant?
a. Replication
b. Sampling
c. Scaling
d. Product
ANSWER: (b) Sampling
3) Which among the below specified conditions/cases of discrete time in terms of real constant ‘a’, represents the double-sided decaying exponential signal?
a. a > 1
b. 0 < a < 1
c. a < -1
d. -1 < a < 0
ANSWER: (d) -1 < a < 0
4) Damped sinusoids are _____
a. sinusoid signals multiplied by growing exponentials
b. sinusoid signals divided by growing exponentials
c. sinusoid signals multiplied by decaying exponentials
d. sinusoid signals divided by decaying exponentials
ANSWER: (c) sinusoid signals multiplied by decaying exponentials
5) An amplitude of sinc function that passes through zero at multiple values of an independent variable ‘x’ ______
a. Decreases with an increase in the magnitude of an independent variable (x)
b. Increases with an increase in the magnitude of an independent variable (x)
c. Always remains constant irrespective of variation in magnitude of ‘x’
d. Cannot be defined
ANSWER: (a) Decreases with an increase in the magnitude of an independent variable (x)
6) A system is said to be shift invariant only if______
a. a shift in the input signal also results in the corresponding shift in the output
b. a shift in the input signal does not exhibit the corresponding shift in the output
c. a shifting level does not vary in an input as well as output
d. a shifting at input does not affect the output
ANSWER: (a) a shift in the input signal also results in the corresponding shift in the output
7) Which condition determines the causality of the LTI system in terms of its impulse response?
a. Only if the value of an impulse response is zero for all negative values of time
b. Only if the value of an impulse response is unity for all negative values of time
c. Only if the value of an impulse response is infinity for all negative values of time
d. Only if the value of an impulse response is negative for all negative values of time
ANSWER: (a) Only if the value of an impulse response is zero for all negative values of time
8) Under which conditions does an initially relaxed system become unstable?
a. only if bounded input generates unbounded output
b. only if bounded input generates bounded output
c. only if unbounded input generates unbounded output
d. only if unbounded input generates bounded output
ANSWER: (a) only if bounded input generates unbounded output
9) Which among the following are the stable discrete time systems?
1. y(n) = x(4n)
2. y(n) = x(-n)
3. y(n) = ax(n) + 8
4. y(n) = cos x(n)
a. 1 & 3
b. 2 & 4
c. 1, 3 & 4
d. 1, 2, 3 & 4
ANSWER: (d) 1, 2, 3 & 4
10) An equalizer used to compensate the distortion in the communication system by faithful recovery of an original signal is nothing but an illustration of _________
a. Static system
b. Dynamic system
c. Invertible system
ANSWER: (c) Invertible system
11) Which block of the discrete time systems requires memory in order to store the previous input?
a. Adder
b. Signal Multiplier
c. Unit Delay
d. Unit Advance
ANSWER: (c)Unit Delay
12) Which type/s of discrete-time system do/does not exhibit the necessity of any feedback?
a. Recursive Systems
b. Non-recursive Systems
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: (b) Non-recursive Systems
13) Which among the following belongs to the category of non-recursive systems?
a. Causal FIR Systems
b. Non-causal FIR Systems
c. Causal IIR Systems
d. Non-causal IIR Systems
ANSWER: (a) Causal FIR Systems
14) Recursive Systems are basically characterized by the dependency of its output on _______
a. Present input
b. Past input
c. Previous outputs
d. All of the above
15) What does the term y(-1) indicate especially in an equation that represents the behaviour of the causal system?
a. initial condition of the system
b. negative initial condition of the system
c. negative feedback condition of the system
d. response of the system to its initial input
ANSWER: (a) initial condition of the system
16) Which type of system response to its input represents the zero value of its initial condition?
a. Zero state response
b. Zero input response
c. Total response
d. Natural response
ANSWER: (a) Zero state response
17) Which is/are the essential condition/s to get satisfied for a recursive system to be linear?
a. Zero state response should be linear
b. Principle of Superposition should be applicable to zero input response
c. Total Response of the system should be addition of zero state & zero input responses
d. All of the above
18) Which among the following operations is/are not involved /associated with the computation process of linear convolution?
a. Folding Operation
b. Shifting Operation
c. Multiplication Operation
d. Integration Operation
ANSWER: (d) Integration Operation
19) A LTI system is said to be initially relaxed system only if ____
a. Zero input produces zero output
b. Zero input produces non-zero output
c. Zero input produces an output equal to unity
ANSWER:(a) Zero input produces zero output
20) What are the number of samples present in an impulse response called as?
a. string
b. array
c. length
d. element
ANSWER: (c) length
21) Which are the only waves that correspond/ support the measurement of phase angle in the line spectra?
a. Sine waves
b. Cosine waves
c. Triangular waves
d. Square waves
ANSWER: (b) Cosine waves
22) Double-sided phase & amplitude spectra _____
a. Possess an odd & even symmetry respectively
b. Possess an even & odd symmetry respectively
c. Both possess an odd symmetry
d. Both possess an even symmetry
ANSWER: (a) Possess an odd & even symmetry respectively
23) What does the first term ‘a0‘ in the below stated expression of a line spectrum indicate?
x(t) = a0 + a1 cos w0 t + a2 cos2 w0t +……+ b1 sin w0 t + b2 sin w0 t + …..
a. DC component
b. Fundamental component
c. Second harmonic component
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (a) DC component
24) Which kind of frequency spectrum/spectra is/are obtained from the line spectrum of a continuous signal on the basis of Polar Fourier Series Method?
a. Continuous in nature
b. Discrete in nature
c. Sampled in nature
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (b) Discrete in nature
25) Which type/s of Fourier Series allow/s to represent the negative frequencies by plotting the double-sided spectrum for the analysis of periodic signals?
a. Trigonometric Fourier Series
b. Polar Fourier Series
c. Exponential Fourier Series
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) Exponential Fourier Series
26) What does the signalling rate in the digital communication system imply?
a. Number of digital pulses transmitted per second
b. Number of digital pulses transmitted per minute
c. Number of digital pulses received per second
d. Number of digital pulses received per minute
ANSWER: (a)Number of digital pulses transmitted per second
27) As the signalling rate increases, _______
a. Width of each pulse increases
b. Width of each pulse decreases
c. Width of each pulse remains unaffected
ANSWER: (b)Width of each pulse decreases
28) Which phenomenon occurs due to an increase in the channel bandwidth during the transmission of narrow pulses in order to avoid any intervention of signal distortion?
a. Compression in time domain
b. Expansion in time domain
c. Compression in frequency domain
d. Expansion in frequency domain
ANSWER: (d)Expansion in frequency domain
29) Why are the negative & positive phase shifts introduced for positive & negative frequencies respectively in amplitude and phase spectra?
a. To change the symmetry of the phase spectrum
b. To maintain the symmetry of the phase spectrum
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: (b) To maintain the symmetry of the phase spectrum
30) Duality Theorem / Property of Fourier Transform states that _________
a. Shape of signal in time domain & shape of spectrum can be interchangeable
b. Shape of signal in frequency domain & shape of spectrum can be interchangeable
c. Shape of signal in time domain & shape of spectrum can never be interchangeable
d. Shape of signal in time domain & shape of spectrum can never be interchangeable
ANSWER: (a) Shape of signal in time domain & shape of spectrum can be interchangeable
31) Which property of fourier transform gives rise to an additional phase shift of -2π ft dfor the generated time delay in the communication system without affecting an amplitude spectrum?
a. Time Scaling
b. Linearity
c. Time Shifting
d. Duality
ANSWER: (c) Time Shifting
32) Which among the below assertions is precise in accordance to the effect of time scaling?
A : Inverse relationship exists between the time and frequency domain representation of signal
B : A signal must be necessarily limited in time as well as frequency domains
a. A is true & B is false

b. A is false & B is true
c. Both A & B are true
d. Both A & B are false
ANSWER: (a)A is true & B is false
33) Which is/are the mandatory condition/s to get satisfied by the transfer function for the purpose of distortionless transmission?
a. Amplitude Response should be constant for all frequencies
b. Phase should be linear with frequency passing through zero
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: (c)Both a & b
34) What is/are the crucial purposes of using the Fourier Transform while analyzing any elementary signals at different frequencies?
a. Transformation from time domain to frequency domain
b. Plotting of amplitude & phase spectrum
c. Both a & b
35) What is the possible range of frequency spectrum for discrete time fourier series (DTFS)?
a. 0 to 2π
b. -π to +π
c. Both a & b
36) Which among the following assertions represents a necessary condition for the existence of Fourier Transform of discrete time signal (DTFT)?
a. Discrete Time Signal should be absolutely summable
b. Discrete Time Signal should be absolutely multipliable
c. Discrete Time Signal should be absolutely integrable
d. Discrete Time Signal should be absolutely differentiable
ANSWER: (a)Discrete Time Signal should be absolutely summable
37) What is the nature of Fourier representation of a discrete & aperiodic signal?
a. Continuous & periodic
b. Discrete & aperiodic
c. Continuous & aperiodic
d. Discrete & periodic
ANSWER: (a) Continuous & periodic
38) Which property of periodic signal in DTFS gets completely clarified / identified by the equation x (n – n 0)?
a. Conjugation
b. Time Shifting
c. Frequency Shifting
d. Time Reversal
ANSWER: (b) Time Shifting
39) A Laplace Transform exists when ______
A. The function is piece-wise continuous
B. The function is of exponential order
C. The function is piecewise discrete
D. The function is of differential order
a. A & B
b. C & D
c. A & D
d. B & C
ANSWER: (a) A & B
40) Where is the ROC defined or specified for the signals containing causal as well as anti-causal terms?
a. Greater than the largest pole
b. Less than the smallest pole
c. Between two poles
d. Cannot be defined
ANSWER: (c) Between two poles
41) What should be the value of laplace transform for the time-domain signal equation e -at cos ωt.u(t)?
a. 1 / s + a with ROC σ > – a
b. ω / (s + a) 2 + ω2 with ROC σ > – a
c. s + a / (s + a)2 + ω2 with ROC σ > – a
d. Aω / s2 + ω2 with ROC σ > 0
ANSWER: (c) s + a / (s + a)2 + ω2 with ROC σ > – a
42) According to the time-shifting property of Laplace Transform, shifting the signal in time domain corresponds to the ______
a. Multiplication by e-st0 in the time domain
b. Multiplication by e-st0 in the frequency domain
c. Multiplication by est0 in the time domain
d. Multiplication by est0 in the frequency domain
ANSWER: (b) Multiplication by e-st0 in the frequency domain
43) Which result is generated/ obtained by the addition of a step to a ramp function?
a. Step Function shifted by an amount equal to ramp
b. Ramp Function shifted by an amount equal to step
c. Ramp function of zero slope
d. Step function of zero slope
ANSWER: (b) Ramp Function shifted by an amount equal to step
44) Unilateral Laplace Transform is applicable for the determination of linear constant coefficient differential equations with ________
a. Zero initial condition
b. Non-zero initial condition
c. Zero final condition
d. Non-zero final condition
ANSWER: (b) Non-zero initial condition
45) What should be location of poles corresponding to ROC for bilateral Inverse Laplace Transform especially for determining the nature of time domain signal?
a. On L.H.S of ROC
b. On R.H.S of ROC
c. On both sides of ROC
ANSWER: (c) On both sides of ROC
46) Generally, the convolution process associated with the Laplace Transform in time domain results into________
a. Simple multiplication in complex frequency domain
b. Simple division in complex frequency domain
c. Simple multiplication in complex time domain
d. Simple division in complex time domain
ANSWER: (a) Simple multiplication in complex frequency domain
47) An impulse response of the system at initially rest condition is basically a response to its input & hence also regarded as,
a. Black’s function
b. Red’s function
c. Green’s function
ANSWER: (c) Green’s function
48) When is the system said to be causal as well as stable in accordance to pole/zero of ROC specified by system transfer function?
a. Only if all the poles of system transfer function lie in left-half of S-plane
b. Only if all the poles of system transfer function lie in right-half of S-plane
c. Only if all the poles of system transfer function lie at the centre of S-plane
ANSWER: (a) Only if all the poles of system transfer function lie in left-half of S-plane
49) Correlogram is a graph of ______
a. Amplitude of one signal plotted against the amplitude of another signal
b. Frequency of one signal plotted against the frequency of another signal
c. Amplitude of one signal plotted against the frequency of another signal
d. Frequency of one signal plotted against the time period of another signal
ANSWER: (a) Amplitude of one signal plotted against the amplitude of another signal
50) Which theorem states that the total average power of a periodic signal is equal to the sum of average powers of the individual fourier coefficients?
a. Parseval’s Theorem
b. Rayleigh’s Theorem
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: (a) Parseval’s Theorem
51) According to Rayleigh’s theorem, it becomes possible to determine the energy of a signal by________
a. Estimating the area under the square root of its amplitude spectrum
b. Estimating the area under the square of its amplitude spectrum
c. Estimating the area under the one-fourth power of its amplitude spectrum
d. Estimating the area exactly half as that of its amplitude spectrum
ANSWER: (b) Estimating the area under the square of its amplitude spectrum
52) What does the spectral density function of any signal specify?
a. Distribution of energy or power
b. Consumption of energy or power
c. Conservation of energy or power
d. Generation of energy or power
ANSWER: (a) Distribution of energy or power
53) Which among the below mentioned transform pairs is/are formed between the auto-correlation function and the energy spectral density, in accordance to the property of Energy Spectral
Density (ESD)?
a. Laplace Transform
b. Z-Transform
c. Fourier Transform
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) Fourier Transform
54) The ESD of a real valued energy signal is always _________
a. An even (symmetric) function of frequency
b. An odd (non-symmetric) function of frequency
c. A function that is odd and half-wave symmetric
ANSWER: (a) An even (symmetric) function of frequency
55) Which among the below mentioned assertions is /are correct?
a. Greater the value of correlation function, higher is the similarity level between two signals
b. Greater the value of correlation function, lower is the similarity level between two signals
c. Lesser the value of correlation function, higher is the similarity level between two signals
d. Lesser the value of correlation function, lower is the similarity level between two signals
a. Only C
b. Only B
c. A & D
d. B & C
ANSWER: (c) A & D
56) Which function has a provision of determining the similarity between the signal and its delayed version?
a. Auto-correlation Function
b. Cross-correlation Function
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: (a) Auto-correlation Function
57) Which property is exhibited by the auto-correlation function of a complex valued signal?
a. Commutative property
b. Distributive property
c. Conjugate property
d. Associative property
ANSWER: (c) Conjugate property
58) Where does the maximum value of auto-correlation function of a power signal occur?
a. At origin
b. At extremities
c. At unity
d. At infinity
ANSWER: (a) At origin
59) What does the set comprising all possible outcomes of an experiment known as?
a. Null event
b. Sure event
c. Elementary event
ANSWER: (b) Sure event
60) What does an each outcome in the sample space regarded as?
a. Sample point
b. Element
c. Both a & b
61) Mutually Exclusive events ________
a. Contain all sample points
b. Contain all common sample points
c. Does not contain any common sample point
d. Does not contain any sample point
ANSWER: (c) Does not contain any common sample point
62) What would be the probability of an event ‘G’ if G denotes its complement, according to the axioms of probability?
a. P (G) = 1 / P (G)
b. P (G) = 1 – P (G)
c. P (G) = 1 + P (G)
d. P (G) = 1 * P (G)
ANSWER:(b) P (G) = 1 – P (G)
63) What would happen if the two events are statistically independent?
a. Conditional probability becomes less than the elementary probability
b. Conditional probability becomes more than the elementary probability
c. Conditional probability becomes equal to the elementary probability
d. Conditional as well as elementary probabilities will exhibit no change
ANSWER: (c) Conditional probability becomes equal to the elementary probability
64) What would be the joint probability of statistically independent events that occur simultaneously?
a. Zero
b. Not equal to zero
c. Infinite
ANSWER: (b) Not equal to zero
65) Consider the assertions given below
A : CDF is a monotonously increasing function
B : PDF is a derivative of CDF & is always positive
Which among them is correct according to the properties of PDF?
a. A is true & B is false

b. A is false & B is true
c. Both A & B are true but B is a reason for A
d. Both A & B are false since B is not a reason for A
ANSWER: (c) Both A & B are true but B is a reason for A
66) The Joint Cumulative Density Function (CDF) _____
a. Is a non-negative function
b. Is a non-decreasing function of x & y planes
c. Is always a continuous function in xy plane
d. All of the above
67) What is the value of an area under the conditional PDF?
a. Greater than ‘0’ but less than ‘1’
b. Greater than ‘1’
c. Equal to ‘1’
d. Infinite
ANSWER: (c) Equal to ‘1’
68) When do the conditional density functions get converted into the marginally density functions?
a. Only if random variables exhibit statistical dependency
b. Only if random variables exhibit statistical independency
c. Only if random variables exhibit deviation from its mean value
ANSWER: (b) Only if random variables exhibit statistical independency
69) Which among the below mentioned standard PDFs is/are applicable to discrete random variables?
a. Gaussian distribution
b. Rayleigh distribution
c. Poisson distribution
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) Poisson distribution
70) A random variable belongs to the category of a uniform PDF only when ______
a. It occurs in a finite range
b. It is likely to possess zero value outside the finite range
c. Both a & b
71) What would happen if the value of term [(m-x) / (σ √2)] increases in the expression of Guassian CDF?
a. Complementary error function also goes on increasing
b. Complementary error function goes on decreasing
c. Complementary error function remains constant or unchanged
d. Cannot predict
ANSWER: (b) Complementary error function goes on decreasing
72) Which type of standard PDFs has/ have an ability to describe an integer valued random variable concerning to the repeated trials carried /conducted in an experiment?
a. Binomial
b. Uniform
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: (a) Binomial


1) Which operations are performed by the bit manipulating instructions of boolean processor?
a. Complement bit
b. Set bit
c. Clear bit
d. All of the above
2) Which data memory control and handle the operation of several peripherals by assigning them in the category of special function registers?
a. Internal on-chip RAM
b. External off-chip RAM
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: (a) Internal on-chip RAM
3) Why is the speed accessibility of external data memory slower than internal on-chip RAM?
a. Due to multiplexing of lower order byte of address-data bus
b. Due to multiplexing of higher order byte of address-data bus
c. Due to demultiplexing of lower order byte of address-data bus
d. Due to demultiplexing of higher order byte of address-data bus
ANSWER: (a) Due to multiplexing of lower order byte of address-data bus
4) Which control signal/s is/are generated by timing and control unit of 8051 microcontroller in order to access the off-chip devices apart from the internal timings?
a. ALE
b. PSEN
c. RD & WR
d. All of the above
5) Which register usually store the output generated by ALU in several arithmetic and logical operations?
a. Accumulator
b. Special Function Register
c. Timer Register
d. Stack Pointer
ANSWER: (a) Accumulator
6) Why is CHMOS technology preferred over HMOS technology for designing the devices of MCS-51 family?
a. Due to higher noise immunity
b. Due to lower power consumption
c. Due to higher speed
d. All of the above
7) Which condition approve to prefer the EPROM/ROM versions for mass production in order to prevent the external memory connections?
a. size of code < size of on-chip program memory
b. size of code > size of on-chip program memory
c. size of code = size of on-chip program memory
ANSWER: (a) size of code < size of on-chip program memory
8) Which among the below mentioned devices of MCS-51 family does not possess two 16 -bit timers/counters?
a. 8031
b. 8052
c. 8751
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (b) 8052
9) Which characteristic/s of accumulator is /are of greater significance in terms of its functionality?
a. Ability to store one of the operands before the execution of an instruction
b. Ability to store the result after the execution of an instruction
c. Both a & b
10) Which general purpose register holds eight bit divisor and store the remainder especially after the execution of division operation?
a. A-Register
b. B-Register
c. Registers R0 through R7
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (b) B-Register
11) How many registers can be utilized to write the programs by an effective selection of register bank in program status word (PSW)?
a. 8
b. 16
c. 32
d. 64
ANSWER: (c) 32
12) Which operations are performed by stack pointer during its incremental phase?
a. Push
b. Pop
c. Return
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (a) Push
13) Which is the only register without internal on-chip RAM address in MCS-51?
a. Stack Pointer
b. Program Counter
c. Data Pointer
d. Timer Register
ANSWER: (b) Program Counter
14) What kind of instructions usually affect the program counter?
a. Call & Jump
b. Call & Return
c. Push & Pop
d. Return & Jump
ANSWER: (a) Call & Jump
15) What is the default value of stack once after the system undergoes the reset condition?
a. 07H
b. 08H
c. 09H
d. 00H
ANSWER:(a) 07H
16) Which bit/s play/s a significant role in the selection of a bank register of Program Status Word (PSW)?
a. RS1
b. RS0
c. Both a & b
17) Which flags represent the least significant bit (LSB) and most significant bit (MSB) of Program Status Word (PSW) respectively?
a. Parity Flag & Carry Flag
b. Parity Flag & Auxiliary Carry Flag
c. Carry Flag & Overflow Flag
d. Carry Flag & Auxiliary Carry Flag
ANSWER: (a) Parity Flag & Carry Flag
18) Which register bank is supposed to get selected if the values of register bank select bits RS1 & Rs0 are detected to be ‘1’ & ‘0’ respectively?
a. Bank 0
b. Bank 1
c. Bank 2
d. Bank 3
ANSWER: (c) Bank 2
19) It is possible to set the auxiliary carry flag while performing addition or subtraction operations only when the carry exceeds _______
a. 1st bit
b. 2nd bit
c. 3rd bit
d. 4th bit
ANSWER: (c) 3rd bit
20) Which locations of 128 bytes on-chip additional RAM are generally reserved for special functions?
a. 80H to 0FFH
b. 70H to 0FFH
c. 90H to 0FFH
d. 60H to 0FFH
ANSWER: (a) 80H to 0FFH
21) Which commands are used for addressing the off-chip data and associated codes respectively by data pointer?
a. MOVX & MOVC
b. MOVY & MOVB
c. MOVZ & MOVA
d. MOVC & MOVY
ANSWER: (a) MOVX & MOVC
22) Which instruction find its utility in loading the data pointer with 16 bits immediate data?
a. MOV
b. INC
c. DEC
d. ADDC
ANSWER: (a) MOV
23) What is the maximum capability of addressing the off-chip data memory & off-chip program memory in a data pointer?
a. 8K
b. 16K
c. 32K
d. 64K
ANSWER: (d) 64K
24) Which among the below stated registers does not belong to the category of special function registers?
a. TCON & TMOD
b. TH0 & TL0
c. P0 & P1
d. SP & PC
ANSWER: (d) SP & PC
25) Which timer is attributed to the register pair of RCAP2H & RCAP2L for capture mode operation?
a. Timer 0
b. Timer 1
c. Timer 2
d. Timer 3
ANSWER:(c) Timer 2
26) Which registers are supposed to get copied into RCAP2H & RCAP2L respectively due to the transition at 8052 T2EX pin in the capture mode operation?
a. TH0 & TH1
b. TH1 & TH1
c. TH2 & TH2
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) TH2 & TH2
27) Which mode of timer 2 allow to hold the reload values with an assistance of RCAP2H & RCAP2L register pair?
a. 8 bit auto-reload mode
b. 16 bit auto reload mode
c. 8 bit capture mode
d. 16 bit capture mode
ANSWER: (b) 16 bit auto reload mode
28) Where should the pin 19 (XTAL1), acting as an input of inverting amplifier as well as part of an oscillator circuit, be connected under the application of external clock?
a. to XTAL2
b. to Vcc
c. to GND
d. to ALE
ANSWER: (c) to GND
29) Which port does not represent quasi-bidirectional nature of I/O ports in accordance to the pin configuration of 8051 microcontroller?
a. Port 0 (Pins 32-39)
b. Port 1 (Pins 1-8)
c. Port 2 (Pins 21-28)
d. Port 3 (Pins 10-17)
ANSWER: (a) Port 0 (Pins 32-39)
30) What is the required baud rate for an efficient operation of serial port devices in 8051 microcontroller?
a. 1200
b. 2400
c. 4800
d. 9600
ANSWER: (d) 9600
31) Which among the below mentioned functions does not belong to the category of alternate functions usually performed by Port 3 (Pins 10-17)?
a. External Interrupts
b. Internal Interrupts
c. Serial Ports
d. Read / Write Control signals
ANSWER: (b) Internal Interrupts
32) What is the constant activation rate of ALE that is optimized periodically in terms of an oscillator frequency?
a. 1 / 8
b. 1 / 6
c. 1 / 4
d. 1 / 2
ANSWER:(b) 1 / 6
33) Which output control signal is activated after every six oscillator periods while fetching the external program memory and almost remains high during internal program execution?
a. ALE
b. PSEN
c. EA
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (b) PSEN
34) Which memory allow the execution of instructions till the address limit of 0FFFH especially when the External Access (EA) pin is held high?
a. Internal Program Memory
b. External Program Memory
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: (a) Internal Program Memory
35) Which value of disc capacitors is preferred or recommended especially when the quartz crystal is connected externally in an oscillator circuit of 8051?
a. 10 pF
b. 20 pF
c. 30 pF
d. 40 pF
ANSWER: (c) 30 pF
36) Why are the resonators not preferred for an oscillator circuit of 8051?
a. Because they do not avail for 12 MHz higher order frequencies
b. Because they are unstable as compared to quartz crystals
c. Because cost reduction due to its utility is almost negligible in comparison to total cost of microcontroller board
d. All of the above
37) Which version of MCS-51 requires the necessary connection of external clock source to XTAL2 in addition to the XTAL1 connectivity to ground level?
a. HMOS
b. CHMOS
c. CMOS
d. All of the abov
ANSWER: (a) HMOS
38) Which signal from CPU has an ability to respond the clocking value of D- flipflop (bit latch) from the internal bus?
a. Write-to-Read Signal
b. Write-to-Latch Signal
c. Read-to-Write Signal
d. Read-to-Latch Signal
ANSWER: (b) Write-to-Latch Signal
39) Which among the below mentioned statements are precisely related to quasi-bidirectional port?
a. Fixed high pull-up resistors are internally connected
b. Configuration in the form of input pulls the port at higher position whereas they get pulled lower when configured as a source current
c. It is possible to drive the pin as output at any duration when FET gets turned OFF for an input function
d. Upper pull-up FET is always OFF with the provision of ‘open-drain’ output pin for normal operation of port
a. A, B, C, D
b. A, B & C
c. A & B
d. C & D
ANSWER: (b) A, B & C
40) What happens when the pins of port 0 & port 2 are switched to internal ADDR and ADDR / DATA bus respectively while accessing an external memory?
a. Ports cannot be used as general-purpose Inputs/Outputs
b. Ports start sinking more current than sourcing
c. Ports cannot be further used as high impedance input
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (a) Ports cannot be used as general-purpose Inputs/Outputs
41) The upper 128 bytes of an internal data memory from 80H through FFH usually represent _______.
a. general-purpose registers
b. special function registers
c. stack pointers
d. program counters
ANSWER: (b) special function registers
42) What is the bit addressing range of addressable individual bits over the on-chip RAM?
a. 00H to FFH
b. 01H to 7FH
c. 00H to 7FH
d. 80H to FFH
ANSWER: (c) 00H to 7FH
43) What is the divisional range of program memory for internal and external memory portions respectively when enable access pin is held high (unity)?
a. 0000H – 0FFFH & 1000H – FFFFH
b. 0000H – 1000H & 0FFFH – FFFFH
c. 0001H – 0FFFH & 01FFH – FFFFH
ANSWER: (a) 0000H – 0FFFH & 1000H – FFFFH
44) Consider the following statements. Which of them is/are correct in case of program execution related to program memory?
a. External Program memory execution takes place from 1000H through 0FFFFH only when the status of EA pin is high (1)
b. External Program memory execution takes place from 0000H through 0FFFH only when the status of EA pin is low (0)
c. Internal Program execution occurs from 0000H through 0FFFH only when the status of EA pin is held low (0)
d. Internal program memory execution occurs from 0000H through 0FFFH only when EA pin is held high (1)
a. A & C
b. B & D
c. A & B
d. Only A
ANSWER: (b) B & D
45) How does the processor respond to an occurrence of the interrupt?
a. By Interrupt Service Subroutine
b. By Interrupt Status Subroutine
c. By Interrupt Structure Subroutine
d. By Interrupt System Subroutine
ANSWER: (a) By Interrupt Service Subroutine
46) Which address/location in the program memory is supposed to get occupied when CPU jump and execute instantaneously during the occurrence of an interrupt?
a. Scalar
b. Vector
c. Register
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (b) Vector
47) Which location specify the storage/loading of vector address during the interrupt generation?
a. Stack Pointer
b. Program Counter
c. Data Pointer
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (b) Program Counter
48) Match the following :
a. ISS —————————– 1. Monitors the status of interrupt pin
b. IER —————————– 2. Allows the termination of ISS
c. RETI ————————— 3. MCS-51 Interrupts Initialization
d. INTO ————————– 4. Occurrence of high to low transition level
a. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

b. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
c. A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
d. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
ANSWER:(c) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
49) What kind of triggering configuration of external interrupt intimate the signal to stay low until the generation of subsequent interrupt?
a. Edge-Triggering
b. Level Triggering
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: (b) Level Triggering
50) Which among the below mentioned reasons is/are responsible for the generation of Serial Port Interrupt?
a. Overflow of timer/counter 1
b. High to low transition on pin INT1
c. High to low transition on pin INT0
d. Setting of either TI or RI flag
a. A & B
b. Only B
c. C & D
d. Only D
ANSWER: (d) Only D
51) What is the counting rate of a machine cycle in correlation to the oscillator frequency for timers?
a. 1 / 10
b. 1 / 12
c. 1 / 15
d. 1 / 20
ANSWER: (b) 1 / 12
52) Which special function register play a vital role in the timer/counter mode selection process by allocating the bits in it?
a. TMOD
b. TCON
c. SCON
d. PCON
ANSWER:(a) TMOD
53) How many machine cycle/s is/are executed by the counters in 8051 in order to detect ‘1’ to ‘0’ transition at the external pin?
a. One
b. Two
c. Four
d. Eight
ANSWER: (b) Two
54) Which bit must be set in TCON register in order to start the ‘Timer 0’ while operating in ‘Mode 0’?
a. TR0
b. TF0
c. IT0
d. IE0
ANSWER: (a) TR0
55) Which among the following control/s the timer1 especially when it is configured as a timer in mode’0′, where gate and TR1 bits are attributed to be ‘1” in TMOD register?
a. TR1
b. External input at (INT1)
c. TF1
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (b) External input at (INT1)
56) Which timer mode exhibit the necessity to generate the interrupt by setting EA bit in IE enhancing the program counter to jump to another vector location?
a. Mode 0
b. Mode 1
c. Mode 2
d. Mode 3
ANSWER: (b) Mode 1
57) Consider the below generated program segment for initializing Timer 1 in Mode 1 operation :
MOV SP, # 54 H
MOV TMOD ,# 0010 0000 C
SET C ET1
SETC TR0
SJMP $
Which among the below mentioned program segments represent the correct code?
a. MOV SP, # 54 H
MOV TCON ,# 0010 0000 C
SETC ET1
SETC TR0
SJMP $
b. MOV SP, # 54H
MOV TMOD ,# 0010 0000 C
SETC ET0
SETC TR0
SJMP $
c. MOV SP, # 54 H
MOV TMOD ,# 0010 0000 C
SETC ET1
SETC TR1
SETC EA
SJMP $
d. MOV SP, # 54 H
MOV TMOD ,# 0010 0000 C
SETC ET0
SETC TR1
SETC EA
SJMP $
ANSWER: (c)
MOV SP, # 54 H
MOV TMOD ,# 0010 0000 C
SETC ET1
SETC TR1
SETC EA
SJMP $
58) What is the maximum delay generated by the 12 MHz clock frequency in accordance to an auto-reload mode (Mode 2) operation of the timer?
a. 125 μs
b. 250 μs
c. 256 μs
d. 1200 μs
ANSWER: (c) 256 μs
59) Which among the below mentioned sequence of program instructions represent the correct chronological order for the generation of 2kHz square wave frequency?
1. MOV TMOD, 0000 0010 B
2. MOV TL0, # 06H
3. MOV TH0, # 06H
4. SETB TR0
5. CPL p1.0
6. ORG 0000H
a. 6, 5, 2, 4, 1, 3
b. 6, 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
c. 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
d. 6, 2, 4, 5, 1, 3
ANSWER: (b) 6, 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
60) Why is it not necessary to specify the baud rate to be equal to the number of bits per second?
a. Because each bit is preceded by a start bit & followed by one stop bit
b. Because each byte is preceded by a start byte & followed by one stop byte
c. Because each byte is preceded by a start bit & followed by one stop bit
d. Because each bit is preceded by a start byte &followed by one stop byte
ANSWER: (c) Because each byte is preceded by a start bit & followed by one stop bit

1) Which factor/s is/are supposed to have the equal values at both phases of transmission and reception levels with an intimation of error-free serial communication?
a. Baud Rate
b. Number of data bits & stop bits
c. Status of Parity bits
d. All of the above
2) Which bits exhibit and signify the termination phase of the character transmission and reception in SCON special function register?
a. Control bits
b. Status bits
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: (b) Status bits
3) Which two bits are supposed to be analyzed/tested for unity value (1) in SCON for the reception of byte in mode 1 serial communication?
a. RI & TI
b. REN & RB8
c. RI & REN
d. TI & RB8
ANSWER: (c) RI & REN
4) What is the bit transmitting or receiving capability of mode 1 in serial communication?
a. 8 bits
b. 10 bits
c. 11 bits
d. 12 bits
ANSWER: (b) 10 bits
5) Which pin in the shift register mode (Mode 0) of serial communication allow the data transmission as well as reception?
a. TXD
b. RXD
c. RB8
d. REN
ANSWER: (b) RXD
6) How is the baud rate determined on the basis of system clock frequency (f sc) in accordance to mode ‘0’ of serial communication?
a. (oscillator frequency) / 12
b. [2SMOD / 32] x (oscillator frequency) / [12 x (256 – (TH1)]
c. [2SMOD / 64] x (oscillator frequency)
d. 2SMOD/ 32 x (Timer 1 overflow rate)
ANSWER: (a) (oscillator frequency) / 12
7) Which serial modes possess the potential to support the multi-processor type of communication?
a. Modes 0 & 1
b. Modes 1 & 2
c. Modes 2 & 3
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) Modes 2 & 3
8) How does it become possible for 9th bit to differentiate the address byte from the data byte during the data transmission process in multiprocessor communication?
a. By recognizing 9th bit as ‘1’ for address byte & ‘0’ for data byte
b. By recognizing 9th bit as ‘0’ for address byte & ‘1’ for data byte
c. By recognizing 9th bit as ‘1’ for address as well as data bytes
d. By recognizing 9th bit as ‘0’ for address as well as data bytes
ANSWER: (a) By recognizing 9th bit as ‘1’ for address byte & ‘0’ for data byte
9) Which byte has the capability to interrupt the slave when SM2 bit is assigned to be ‘1’ after the initialization process in the multiprocessor mode of communication?
a. Address byte
b. Data byte
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: (a) Address byte
10) Which bits of opcode specify the type of registers to be used in the register addressing mode?
a. LSB
b. MSB
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: (a) LSB
11) Which base-register is preferred for address calculation of a byte that is to be accessed from program memory by base-register plus register-indirect addressing mode?
a. DPTR
b. PSW
c. PCON
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (a) DPTR
12) What does the symbol ‘#’ represent in the instruction MOV A, #55H?
a. Direct datatype
b. Indirect datatype
c. Immediate datatype
d. Indexed datatype
ANSWER: (c) Immediate datatype
13) How many single byte, two-byte and three-byte instructions are supported by MCS-51 from the overall instruction set?
a. 55 – single byte, 35 two-byte & 21 three-byte instructions
b. 50 – single byte, 30 two-byte & 31 three-byte instructions
c. 42 – single byte, 45 two-byte & 24 three-byte instructions
d. 45 – single byte, 45 two-byte & 17 three-byte instructions
ANSWER: (d) 45 – single byte, 45 two-byte & 17 three-byte instructions
14) What kind of PSW flags remain unaffected by the data transfer instructions?
a. Auxillary Carry Flags
b. Overflow Flags
c. Parity Flags
d. All of the above
15) Which instruction should be adopted for moving an accumulator to the register from the below mentioned mnemonics?
a. MOV A, Rn
b. MOV A, @ Ri
c. MOV Rn, A
d. MOV direct, A
ANSWER:(c) MOV Rn, A
16) What does the instruction XCHD A, @Ri signify during the data transfer in the program execution?
a. Exchange of register with an accumulator
b. Exchange of direct byte with an accumulator
c. Exchange of indirect RAM with an accumulator
d. Exchange of low order digit indirect RAM with an accumulator
ANSWER: (d) Exchange of low order digit indirect RAM with an accumulator
17) Which flag allow to carry out the signed as well as unsigned addition and subtraction operations?
a. CY
b. OV
c. AC
d. F0
ANSWER: (b) OV
18) How many bytes are supposed to get occupied while subtracting indirect RAM from an accumulator along with borrow under the execution of SUBB A, @R i?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
ANSWER:(a) 1
19) What can be the oscillator period for the multiplication operation of A & B in accordance to 16-bit product especially in B:A registers?
a. 12
b. 24
c. 36
d. 48
ANSWER: (d) 48
20) Which form of instructions also belong to the category of logical instructions in addition to bitwise logical instructions?
a. Single-operand instructions
b. Rotate instructions
c. Swap instructions
d. All of the above
21) Which rotate instruction/s has an ability to modify CY flag by moving the bit-7 & bit-0 respectively to an accumulator?
a. RR & RL
b. RLC & RRC
c. RR & RRC
d. RL & RLC
ANSWER: (b) RLC & RRC
22) Which among the single operand instructions complement the accumulator without affecting any of the flags?
a. CLR
b. SETB
c. CPL
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) CPL
23) Match the following
a. JC rel ——————– 1. Jump if direct bit is set & clear bit
b. JNC rel —————— 2. Jump if direct bit is set
c. JB bit, rel ————— 3. Jump if direct bit is not set
d. JBC bit, rel ———— 4. Jump if carry is set
e. JNB bit, rel ————- 5. Jump if carry is not set
a. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4, E-5

b. A-5, B-2, C-4, D-1, E-3
c. A-5, B-4, C-3, D-2, E-1
d. A-4, B-5, C-2, D-1, E-3
ANSWER: (d) A-4, B-5, C-2, D-1, E-3
24) What is the possible range of transfer control for 8-bit relative address especially in 2’s complement form with respect to the first byte of preceding instruction?
a. -115 to 132 bytes
b. -130 to 132 bytes
c. -128 to 127 bytes
d. -115 to 127 bytes
ANSWER:(c) -128 to 127 bytes
25) Which among the category of program branching instructions allow 16 bit address to be specified & can jump anywhere within 64K block of program memory?
a. Long jumps (LJMP)
b. Short jumps (SJMP)
c. Absolute jumps (AJMP)
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (a) Long jumps (LJMP)
26) Consider the below mentioned statements. Which among them is /are approved to be incorrect in case of calling instructions of program branching?
a. Absolute Calls instructions specify 11-bit address and calling subroutine within 2K program memory block
b. Long call instructions specify 16-bit address and subroutine anywhere within 64K program memory block
c. Short call instructions specify 16-bit address and subroutine within 4K program memory block
d. All long call and short call instructions specify 11 bit address and the calling subroutine within 16K program memory block
a. Only A
b. B & D
c. A & C
d. C & D
ANSWER: (d) C & D
27) Match the following instruction mnemonics with their description.
a. CJNE A,direct,rel ———— 1. Compare immediate to indirect and Jump if not equal
b. CJNE A,#data,rel ———— 2. Compare direct byte to accumulator and Jump if not equal
c. CJNE @Ri, #data,rel ——- 3. Compare immediate to register and Jump if not equal
d. CJNE Rn, # data rel ——– 4. Compare immediate to accumulator and Jump if not equal
a. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
b. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
c. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
d. A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
ANSWER: (b) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
28) What is the correct chronological order of the following steps involved in the LCALL operation?
1. Load the value of 16-bit destination address to program counter
2. Increment of the program counter by value ‘3’
3. Storage of the higher byte of program counter on the stack
4. Increment of the stack pointer by value’1′
5. Storage of the lower byte of program counter on the stack
6. Increment in the value of stack pointer
a. 5, 3, 1, 6, 2, 4
b. 1, 3, 2, 5, 4, 6
c. 2, 4, 5, 6, 3, 1
d. 5, 3, 6, 2, 4, 1
ANSWER: (c) 2, 4, 5, 6, 3, 1
29) What is the status of stack pointer for the execution of PUSH and POP operations?
a. It gets post-decremented for PUSH & pre-incremented for POP
b. It gets pre-incremented for PUSH & post-decremented for POP
c. It gets pre-incremented for PUSH as well as POP
d. It gets post-decremented for PUSH as well as POP
ANSWER: (b) It gets pre-incremented for PUSH & post-decremented for POP
30) Which instructions contribute to an effective adoption or utilization of stack memory which usually plays a crucial role in storage of intermediate results?
a. ACALL
b. RETI
c. PUSH & POP
d. All of the above
31) Which functioning element of microcontroller generate and transmit the address of instructions to memory through internal bus?
a. Instruction Decoding Unit
b. Timing and Control Unit
c. Program Counter
d. Arithmetic Logic Unit
ANSWER: (c) Program Counter
32) How does the microcontroller communicate with the external peripherals/memory?
a. via I/O ports
b. via register arrays
c. via memory
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (a) via I/O ports
33) Why do the microprocessors possess very few bit manipulating instructions?
a. Because they mostly operate on bits/ word data
b. Because they mostly operate on byte/word data
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: (b) Because they mostly operate on byte/word data
34) Which minimum mode signal is used for demultiplexing the data and address lines with the assistance of an external latch in a microprocessor while accessing memory segment?
a. INTA
b. DTE
c. HOLD
d. ALE
ANSWER: (d) ALE
35) Which word size is approved to be of greater importance for performing the small computational tasks along with its storage usability feature adopted by ASCII code?
a. 4-bit
b. 8-bit
c. 16-bit
d. 32-bit
ANSWER: (b) 8-bit
36) Which among the below stated statements does not exhibit the characteristic feature of 16-bit microcontroller?
a. Large program & data memory spaces
b. High speed
c. I/O Flexibility
d. Limited Control Applications
ANSWER: (d) Limited Control Applications
37) Which microcontrollers offer the provisional and salient software features of fault handling capability, interrupt vector efficiency and versatile addressing?
a. TMS 1000 (4 bit)
b. TMS 7500 (8 bit)
c. Intel 8096 (16 bit)
d. Intel 80960 (32 bit)
ANSWER: (d) Intel 80960 (32 bit)
38) Which category of microcontrollers acquire the complete hardware configuration on its chip so as to run the particular application?
a. Embedded Memory Microcontrollers
b. External Memory Microcontrollers
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: (a) Embedded Memory Microcontrollers
39) External Memory Microcontrollers can overcome the limitations of insufficient in-built program and data memory by allowing the connections of external memory using _________
a. Serial Port Pins as address and data lines
b. Parallel Port Pins as address and data lines
c. Parallel Port Pins as address and control lines
d. Serial Port Pins as address and control lines
ANSWER: (b) Parallel Port Pins as address and data lines
40) How are the address and data buses removed in external memory type of microcontrollers?
a. Through demultiplexing by external latch & ALE signal
b. Through demultiplexing by external latch & DLE signal
c. Through multiplexing by external latch & DLE signal
d. Through multiplexing by external latch & ALE signal
ANSWER: (d) Through multiplexing by external latch & ALE signal
41) What are the significant designing issues/factors taken into consideration for RISC Processors?
a. Simplicity in Instruction Set
b. Pipeline Instruction Optimization
c. Register Usage Optimization
d. All of the above
42) What does the compact and uniform nature of instructions in RISC processors facilitate to?
a. Compiler optimization
b. Pipelining
c. Large memory footprints
ANSWER: (b) Pipelining
43) Which register of current procedure resemble physically similar to the parameter register of called procedure during register to register operation in an overlapping window of RISC
Processors?
a. Local Register
b. Temporary Register
c. Parameter Register
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (b) Temporary Register
44) Which architectural scheme has a provision of two sets for address & data buses between CPU and memory?
a. Harvard architecture
b. Von-Neumann architecture
c. Princeton architecture
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (a) Harvard architecture
45) Which factors/parameters contribute to an effective utilization or adoption of Harvard architecture by most of the DSPs for streaming data?
a. Greater memory bandwidth
b. Predictable nature of bandwidth
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: (c ) Both a & b
46) Which kind of multiplexing scheme is adopted by Von-Newman architecture especially for program and data fetching purposes?
a. Time Division Multiplexing
b. Frequency Division Multiplexing
c. Statistical Time Division Multiplexing
d. Code Division Multiplexing
ANSWER: (a) Time Division Multiplexing
47) Which feature deals with the fetching of next instruction during the execution of current instruction irrespective of the memory access?
a. Fetching
b. Pre-fetching
c. Fetch & Decoding
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (b) Pre-fetching
48) What are the essential tight constraint/s related to the design metrics of an embedded system?
a. Ability to fit on a single chip
b. Low power consumption
c. Fast data processing for real-time operations
d. All of the above
49) Which abstraction level undergo the compilation process by converting a sequential program into finite-state machine and register transfers while designing an embedded system?
a. System
b. Behaviour
c. RT
d. Logic
ANSWER: (b) Behaviour
50) Which characteristics of an embedded system exhibit the responsiveness to the assortments or variations in system’s environment by computing specific results for real-time applications
without any kind of postponement?
a. Single-functioned Characteristics
b. Tightly-constraint Characteristics
c. Reactive & Real time Characteristics
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c ) Reactive & Real time Characteristics
51) Which lines are utilized during the enable state of hardware flow control in DTE and DCE devices of RS232?
a. CD & IR
b. DSR & DTR
c. RTS & CTS
ANSWER: (c) RTS & CTS
52) Which among the below stated lines represent the handshaking variant usually and only controlled by the software in the handshaking process?
a. XON/ XOFF
b. DCD & GND
c. TxD & RxD
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (a )XON/ XOFF
53) Match the following registers with their functions :
a. Line Status Register ——————– 1. Set Up the communication parameters
b. Line Control Register —————— 2. Sharing of similar addresses
c. Transmit & Receive Buffers ——— 3. Status Determination of Tx & Rr
a. A-2, B-1, C-3

b. A-1, B-2, C-3
c. A-3, B-1, C-2
d. A-3, B-2, C-1
ANSWER: (c ) A-3, B-1, C-2
54) Which protocol standard of serial communication specify the bi-directional and half-duplex form of data transmission by allowing various numbers of drivers and receivers in bus
configuration?
a. RS232
b. RS2485
c. RS422
d. RS423
ANSWER: ( b ) RS2485
55) What is the maximum device handling capacity of serial standard protocol RS485 in terms of drivers and receivers on a single line?
a. 8
b. 10
c. 16
d. 32
ANSWER: (d) 32
56) Which mechanism automates the enabling of RS485 transceiver with an elimination of hardware handshake line during each time of the data transmission?
a. RTS Control
b. Send Data Control
c. Tri-State Control
d. Bit-wise Enable Timing Control
ANSWER: (b )Send Data Control
57) What does an IC that initiate or enable the data transfer on bus can be regarded as, in accordance to the I2c protocol specifications?
a. Bus Master
b. Bus Slaves
c. Bus Drivers
d. Bus Data Carriers
ANSWER: (a) Bus Master
58) What is the directional nature of two active wires SDA & SCL usually adopted in I2C Bus for carrying the information between the devices?
a. Uni-directional
b. Bi-directional
c. Multi-directional
ANSWER: (b) Bi-directional
59) Which potential mode of operation indicate the frequent sending of byte to the slave corresponding to the reception of an acknowledge signal when it becomes desirable for the master to
write to the slave during data transmission in I2C bus?
a. Master in master-transmit mode & Slave in slave-receive mode
b. Slave in slave-transmit mode & Master in master-receive mode
c. Master in master-transmit mode as well as master-receive mode
d. Slave in slave-transmit mode as well as slave-receive mode
ANSWER: (a) Master in master-transmit mode & Slave in slave-receive mode
60) Which processor has the necessity of manual optimization for the generation of assembly language code especially for the embedded systems?
a. RISC
b. CISC
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: (b) CISC

1) Which among the below stated salient feature/s of SPI contribute to the wide range of its applicability?
a. Simple hardware interfacing
b. Full duplex communication
c. Low power requirement
d. All of the above
2) Which characteristic/s of two-wire interface (TWI) make it equally valuable in comparison to serial-peripheral interface (SPI)?
a. Less number of pins on IC packages than SPI
b. It possesses formal standard unlike SPI
c. Slave Addressing before communication & better hardware control
d. All of the above
3) What is the maximum speed of operating frequency exhibited by SPI as compared to that of TWI?
a. Less than 10 MHz
b. Greater than 10 MHz
c. Equal to 10 MHz
ANSWER: (b) Greater than 10 MHz
4) Which development tool/program has the potential to allocate the specific addresses so as to load the object code into memory?
a. Loader
b. Locator
c. Library
d. Linker
ANSWER: (b) Locator
5) The assembler list file generated by an assembler mainly includes ________
a. binary codes
b. assembly language statements
c. offset for each instruction
d. All of the above
6) Which kind of assembler do not generate the programs in similar language as that used by micro-controllers by developing the program in high-level languages making them as machine
independent?
a. Macro Assembler
b. Cross Assembler
c. Meta Assembler
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (b) Cross Assembler
7) What kind of address/es is /are usually assigned to program by the linker adopted in an execution of assembler?
a. Absolute Address
b. Relative Address starting from unity
c. Relative Addresss starting from zero
ANSWER: (c) Relative Addresss starting from zero
8) What are the major form of functionalities associated to high-level language compilers?
a. Generation of an application program
b. Conversion of generated code from higher level language to machine-level language
c. Both a & b
9) Which development tool can facilitate the creation and modification of source programs in addition to assembly and higher -level languages?
a. Editor
b. Assembler
c. Debugger
d. High-level language Compiler
ANSWER: (a) Editor
10) EPROM Programming versions are of greater significance to designers for________
a. Debugging of hardware prototype
b. Debugging of software prototype
c. Loading the programs in microcontrollers
d. All of the above
11) It is a characteristic provision of some debuggers to stop the execution after each instruction because__________
a. it facilitates to analyze or vary the contents of memory and register
b. it facilitates to move the break point to a later point
c. it facilitates to rerun the program
d. it facilitates to load the object code program to system memory
ANSWER:(a) it facilitates to analyze or vary the contents of memory and register
12) Which component is replaced by an in-circuit emulator on the development board for testing purposes?
a. RAM
b. I/O Ports
c. Micro-controller IC
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) Micro-controller IC
13) It is feasible for an in-circuit emulator to terminate at the middle of the program execution so as to examine the contents of _________
a. memory
b. registers
c. Both a & b
14) Which operations are not feasible to perform by simulator programs in accordance to real time programming?
a. Memory Operations
b. I/O Operations
c. Register Operations
d. Debugging Operations
ANSWER: (b) I/O Operations
15) What is/are the possible way/s of displaying the data by logic analyzer?
a. Logic state format
b. Hexadecimal & Map format
c. Timing diagram format
d. All of the above
16) Which type of triggering allow the trigger qualifier circuit to compare the input data word with the word programmed by the user in logic analyzer?
a. Triggering from external input
b. Programmable Triggering
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: (b) Programmable Triggering
17) Which mandatory contents can be visualized by the hexadecimal display format of a logic analyzer?
a. Data Bus
b. Address Bus
c. Both a & b
18) How many samples can be displayed before and after the trigger respectively if the trigger-pulse is delayed by center-trigger mode to display 1024 bit counts?
a. 512 & 512 samples respectively
b. 512 & 1024 samples respectively
c. 1024 & 512 samples respectively
d. 1024 & 1024 samples respectively
ANSWER: (d) 1024 & 1024 samples respectively
19) What is/are the consequences of driving the LED in the form of an output function?
a. Pin sources the current when made low without glowing LED
b. Pin sinks the current when made high without glowing LED
c. Pin sources the current when made high by glowing LED
d. Pin sinks the current when made low by glowing LED
ANSWER: (d) Pin sinks the current when made low by glowing LED
20) What is the possible range of current limiting resistor essential for lightening the LED in certain applications after pressing the push-button?
a. 25-55 Ω
b. 55-110 Ω
c. 110-220 Ω
d. 220-330 Ω
ANSWER: (d) 220-330 Ω
21) Which among the below given assertions exhibits the dependency of LED status over them, especially for LED and push button connection?
a. Closure of pushbutton
b. Low Output pin driven by microcontroller
c. Both a & b
22) What does the availability of LCD in 16 x 2 typical value indicate?
a. 16 lines per character with 2 such lines
b. 16 characters per line with 2 such lines
c. 16 pixels per line with 2 such sets
d. 16 lines per pixel with two such sets
ANSWER: (b) 16 characters per line with 2 such lines
23) Which control line/s act/s as an initiator by apprising LCD about the inception of data transmission by the microcontroller?
a. Enable (EN)
b. Register Select (RS)
c. Read/Write (RW)
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (a) Enable (EN)
24) The display operations in LCD are undertaken on EN line with ______
a. 0 to 1 transitions
b. 1 to 0 transitions
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: (b) 1 to 0 transitions
25) When can a LCD display the text form of data?
a. only when RS line is high
b. only when RW line is high
c. only when RS line is low
d. only when RW line is low
ANSWER:(a) only when RS line is high
26) How does the instruction execute for read command ‘Get LCD Status’ in LCD?
a. By allowing EN line to go from low to high
b. By allowing EN line to go from high to low
c. By maintaining EN line to be stable
ANSWER: (b) By allowing EN line to go from high to low
27) Match the HEX codes of LCD with their associated functions
a. 10H —————– 1) Shifting of cursor position to right
b. 14H —————– 2) Shifting of cursor position to left
c. 18H —————– 3) 2 lines & 5 x 7 character font
d. 38H —————– 4) Shifting of an entire display to the left
a. A-4, B–1, C-2, D-3

b. A-3, B–2, C-1, D-4
c. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
d. A-1, B–2, C-3, D-4
ANSWER: (c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
28) How much delay is necessarily provided after the power-on-reset condition in order to overcome the predicaments related to valid power supply levels assigned to microcontroller and LCD?
a. 10 ms
b. 12 ms
c. 15 ms
d. 25 ms
ANSWER: (c) 15 ms
29) On which factors do the delay between two characters depend for display purposes in LCD?
a. Clock frequency
b. Display module
c. Both a & b
30) How many data lines are essential in addition to RS, EN and RW control lines for interfacing LCD with Atmel 89C51 microcontroller?
a. 3
b. 5
c. 8
d. 10
ANSWER:(c) 8
31) Which is the an alternative mechanism of preventing the software to be dependent on several delay factors along with an optimum time proficiency of checking LCD status at the interfacing
level?
a. Polling of DB7 bit of the data bus
b. Updating the faster display in less time
c. Generalization of clock frequency and display module
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (a) Polling of DB7 bit of the data bus
32) What is the purpose of using Schmitt Trigger in the hardware circuit for key debouncing?
a. Noise Elimination
b. Improvement in Noise Immunity
c. Increase in Noise Figure
d. Reduction in Noise Temperature
ANSWER: (b) Improvement in Noise Immunity
33) Which lines are driven low under the software control during interfacing HEX keyboard with PIC 16F877?
a. Scan Lines
b. Return Lines
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: (a) Scan Lines
34) Which keys are encoded for scan lines with ‘1101’ value (RB1 low) condition?
a. 0, 4, 8, C
b. 1, 5, 9, D
c. 2, 6, A, E
d. 3, 7, B, F
ANSWER: (c) 2, 6, A, E
35) What value of ‘B’ should be loaded in the TRISB register if return lines (RB7:RB4) and RB3:RB0 are supposed to be inputs and outputs respectively after the PORT B initialization?
a. 11000100
b. 11110011
c. 11110001
d. 11110000
ANSWER:(d) 11110000

36) Which essential operation should be performed while reading the external program byte on the data bus?
a. Latching of lower address byte
b. Latching of higher address byte
c. Latching of any addressable byte irrespective of priority level
ANSWER: (a) Latching of lower address byte
37) Which bus/es acquire/s the potential of liberally receiving the code byte after addressing the lower order address byte?
a. Data bus
b. Address bus
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: (a) Data bus
38) What happens when the RD signal becomes low during the read cycle?
a. Data byte gets loaded from external data memory to data bus
b. Address byte gets loaded from external data memory to address bus
c. Data byte gets loaded from external program memory to data bus
d. Address byte gets loaded from external program memory to address bus
ANSWER:(a) Data byte gets loaded from external data memory to data bus
39) Which among the below mentioned memory components possessess the potential of generating an ALE signal for the latching purpose of lower address byte in an external data memory?
a. CPU
b. Data Bus
c. Port 0
d. Port 1
ANSWER: (a) CPU
40) Which ports assist in addressing lower order and higher address bytes into the data bus simultaneously, while accessing the external data memory?
a. Port 0 & Port 1 respectively
b. Port 1 & Port 2 respectively
c. Port 0 & Port 2 respectively
d. Port 2 & Port 3 respectively
ANSWER: (c) Port 0 & Port 2 respectively
41) What happens when the latch is kept open once after the execution of the latch operation by allowing input digital data byte to appear at the output?
a. Variation in an input digital data
b. Output data remains constant despite changing input digital data
c. Variation in an output data with respect to input data variation
d. Cannot predict
ANSWER: (b) Output data remains constant despite changing input digital data
42) How is the latch interfacing with the microcontroller related to the number of digital output functions?
a. It increases the number of digital output functions in a time multiplexed manner
b. It decreases the number of digital output functions in a time multiplexed manner
c. It increases the number of digital output functions in a frequency multiplexed manner
d. It decreases the number of digital output functions in a frequency multiplexed manner
ANSWER: (a) It increases the number of digital output functions in a time multiplexed manner
43) What is the correct chronological order/sequence of steps associated with the latch operations given below?
a. Loading the data on output port
b. Increment in the digital output functions by using microcontroller pins
c. Application of latch enable signal to desired latch
a. A, B, C
b. A, C, B
c. C, A, B
d. B, A, C
ANSWER: (b) A, C, B
44) In an electromechanical relay, the necessity of connecting an external base resistance arises only _________
a. in the presence of an internal pull-up resistor
b. in the absence of an internal pull-up resistor
c. in the absence of an internal push-up resistor
d. in the presence of an internal push-up resistor
ANSWER: (b) in the absence of an internal pull-up resistor
45) Which diodes are employed in the electromechanical relays since the inductor current cannot be reduced to zero?
a. Tunnel Diode
b. Shockley Diode
c. Freewheeling Diode
d. Zener Diode
ANSWER: (c) Freewheeling Diode
46) Where do the power gets dissipated during the gradual decay of an inductor current (upto zero value) by turning OFF the transistor in an electromechanical relay?
a. Internal resistance of the coil
b. Internal Diode resistance
c. Both a & b
47) Which factors indicate the necessity of sample and hold circuit in the process of analog-to-digital conversion?
a. Instantaneous variation in an input signal
b. Analog-to-digital conversion time
c. Both a & b
48) Which pin/signal of ADC AD571 interfacing apprises about the accomplishment of data reading in the microcontroller so as to indicate ADC to get ready for the next data sample?
a. BLANK /CONVERT (high)
b. BLANK/DR (low)
c. DATA READY (DR)
d. All of the above
ANSWER:(a) BLANK /CONVERT (high)
49) Which errors are more likely to get generated by conversion time and ADC resolution respectively in accordance to the digital signal processing?
a. Sampling & Quantization Errors
b. Systematic & Random Errors
c. Overload & Underload Errors
ANSWER: (a) Sampling & Quantization Errors
50) What is the purpose of blanking (BI) associated with the 7-segment display operations?
a. To turn ON the display
b. To turn OFF the display
c. To pulse modulate the brightness of display
d. To pulse modulate the lightness of display
a. B & C
b. A & D
c. A & B
d. C & D
ANSWER: (a) B & C
51) How are the port pins of microcontroller calculated for time-multiplexing types of display?
a. 4 + number of digits to be displayed
b. 4 raised to the number of digits to be displayed
c. 4 – number of digits to be displayed
d. 4 x number of digits to be displayed
ANSWER: (a) 4 + number of digits to be displayed
52) What does the RAM location at 44H indicates about the seven segment code?
a. 7-segment code for the third character
b. 7-segment code for the fourth character
c. Display of select code for third display
d. Display of select code for fourth display
ANSWER: (a) 7-segment code for the third character

1) How many clock pulses are confined by each machine cycle of Peripheral-Interface Controllers?
a. 4
b. 8
c. 12
d. 16
ANSWER: (a) 4
2) Which flags are more likely to get affected in status registers by Arithmetic and Logical Unit (ALU) of PIC 16 CXX on the basis of instructions execution?
a. Carry (C) Flags
b. Zero (Z) Flags
c. Digit Carry (DC) Flags
d. All of the above
3) What is the execution speed of instructions in PIC especially while operating at the maximum value of clock rate?
a. 0.1 μs
b. 0.2 μs
c. 0.4 μs
d. 0.8 μs
ANSWER: (b) 0.2 μs
4) Which operational feature of PIC allows it to reset especially when the power supply drops the voltage below 4V?
a. Built-in Power-on-reset
b. Brown-out reset
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: (b)Brown-out reset
5) Which among the below stated reasons is/are responsible for the selection of PIC implementation/design on the basis of Harvard architecture instead of Von-Newman architecture?
a. Improvement in bandwidth
b. Instruction fetching becomes possible over a single instruction cycle
c. Independent bus access provision to data memory even while accessing the program memory
d. All of the above
6) Which among the below specified major functionalities is/are associated with the programmable timers of PIC?
a. Excogitation of Inputs
b. Handling of Outputs
c. Interpretation of internal timing for program execution
d. Provision of OTP for large and small production runs
a. Only C
b. C & D
c. A, B & D
d. A, B & C
ANSWER: (d) A, B & C
7) Which timer/s possess an ability to prevent an endless loop hanging condition of PIC along with its own on-chip RC oscillator by contributing to its reliable operation?
a. Power-Up Timer (PWRT)
b. Oscillator Start-Up Timer (OST)
c. Watchdog Timer (WDT)
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) Watchdog Timer (WDT)
8) Which among the CPU registers of PIC 16C6X/7X is not 8-bit wide?
a. Status Register
b. Program Counter Latch (PCLATH) Register
c. Program Counter Low Byte (PCL) Register
d. File Selection Register (FSR)
ANSWER: (b) Program Counter Latch (PCLATH) Register
9) Which register/s is/are mandatory to get loaded at the beginning before loading or transferring the contents to corresponding destination registers?
a. W
b. INDF
c. PCL
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (a) W
10) How many RPO status bits are required for the selection of two register banks?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 8
d. 16
ANSWER: (a) 1

11) The RPO status register bit has the potential to determine the effective address of______
a. Direct Addressing Mode
b. Indirect Addressing Mode
c. Immediate Addressing Mode
d. Indc. Watchdog Timer (WDT) exed Addressing Mode
ANSWER: (a) Direct Addressing Mode
12) Which status bits exhibit carry from lower 4 bits during 8-bit addition and are especially beneficial for BCD addition?
a. Carry bit (C)
b. Digits Carry bit (DC)
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: (b) Digits Carry bit (DC)
13) Which statement is precise in relation to FSR, INDF and indirect addressing mode?
a. Address byte must be written in FSR before executing INDF instruction in indirect addressing mode
b. Address byte must be written in FSR after executing INDF instruction in indirect addressing mode
c. Address byte must be written in FSR at the same time during the execution of INDF instruction in indirect addressing mode
d. Address byte must be always written in FSR as it is independent of any instruction in indirect addressing mode
a. Only A
b. Only B
c. Only A & B
d. A & D
ANSWER: (a) Only A
14) Which among the below stated registers specify the address reachability within 7 bits of address independent of RP0 status bit register?
a. PCL
b. FSR
c. INTCON
d. All of the above
15) Where do the contents of PCLATH get transferred in the higher location of program counter while writing in PCL (Program Counter Latch)?
a. 11th bit
b. 12th bit
c. 13th bit
d. 14th bit
ANSWER: (c) 13th bit
16) Which condition/s of MCLR (master clear) pin allow to reset the PIC?
a. High
b. Low
c. Moderate
d. All of the above
ANSWER:(b) Low
17) Generation of Power-on-reset pulse can occur only after __________
a. the detection of increment in VDD from 1.5 V to 2.1 V
b. the detection of decrement in VDD from 2.1 V to 1.5 V
c. the detection of variable time delay on power up mode
d. the detection of current limiting factor
ANSWER: (a) the detection of increment in VDD from 1.5 V to 2.1 V
18) What is the rate of power up delay provided by an oscillator start-up timer while operating at XT, LP and HS oscillator modes?
a. 512 cycles
b. 1024 cycles
c. 2048 cycles
d. 4096 cycles
ANSWER: (b) 1024 cycles
19) Which kind of mode is favourable for MCLR pin for indulging in reset operations?
a. Normal mode
b. Sleep mode
c. Power-down mode
d. Any flexible mode
ANSWER: (b) Sleep mode
20) What is the purpose of using the start-up timers in an oscillator circuit of PIC?
a. For ensuring the inception and stabilization of an oscillator in a proper manner
b. For detecting the rise in VDD
c. For enabling or disabling the power-up timers
d. For generating the fixed delay of 72ms on power-up timers
ANSWER: (a) For ensuring the inception and stabilization of an oscillator in a proper manner
21) Which program location is allocated to the program counter by the reset function in Power-on-Reset (POR) action modes?
a. Initial address
b. Middle address
c. Final address
d. At any address reliable for reset operations
ANSWER: (a) Initial address
22) When does it become very essential to use the external RC components for the reset circuits?
a. Only if initialization is necessary for RAM locations
b. Only if VDD power-up slope is insufficient at a requisite level
c. Only if voltage drop exceeds beyond the limit
d. Only if current limiting factor increases rapidly
ANSWER: (b) Only if VDD power-up slope is insufficient at a requisite level
23) Which among the below mentioned PICs do not support the Brown-Out-Reset (BOR) feature?
a. PIC 16C66
B. PIC 16C74
C. PIC 16C61
D. PIC 16C71
a. A & B
b. C & D
c. A & C
d. B & D
ANSWER: (b) C & D
24) Which crucial feature/function of Brown-Out-Reset (BOR) makes the PIC to be completely unique and distinct from other microcontrollers?
a. It can reset the PIC automatically in running condition
b. It can reset the PIC even when the supply voltage increases above 4V
c. It can reset the PIC without enabling the power-up timer
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (a) It can reset the PIC automatically in running condition
25) What happens when the supply voltage falls below 4V during the power-up timer delay of 72ms in PIC?
a. CPU resets PIC once again in BOR mode
b. BOR reset mode gets disabled
c. PIC does not remain in BOR mode until the voltage increases irrespective of stability
d. Power-up timer kills 72ms more again
ANSWER: (a) CPU resets PIC once again in BOR mode
26) What output is generated by OSC2 pin in PIC oscillator comprising RC components for sychronizing the peripherals with PIC microcontroller?
a. (1/2) x frequency of OSC1
b. (1/4) x frequency of OSC1
c. (1/8) x frequency of OSC1
d. (1/16) x frequency of OSC1
ANSWER:(c) (1/8) x frequency of OSC1
27) Which form of clocking mechanism is highly efficient and reliable for crystal or ceramic clock sources for operating at the range of 5- 200 kHz in PIC?
a. RC
b. LP (Low-Power Clocking)
c. XT
d. HS (High Speed)
ANSWER: (b) LP (Low-Power Clocking)
28) Which significant feature/s of crystal source contribute/s to its maximum predilection and utility as compared to other clock sources?
a. High accuracy
b. Proficiency in time generation
c. Applicability in real-time operations
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (a) All of the above
29) What is the executable frequency range of High speed (HS) clocking method by using cystal/ ceramic/ resonator or any other external clock source?
a. 0-4 MHz
b. 5-200 KHz
c. 100kHz- 4 MHZ
d. 4-20 MHz
ANSWER: (d) 4-20 MHz
30) How many bits are required for addressing 2K & 4K program memories of PIC 16C61 respectively?
a. 4 & 8 bits
b. 8 & 16 bits
c. 11 & 12 bits
d. 12 & 16 bits
ANSWER: (c) 11 & 12 bits
31) What location is attributed to ‘goto Mainline’ instruction in the program memory of PIC 16C61?
a. 000H
b. 004H
c. 001H
d. 011H
ANSWER: (a) 000H
32) When do the special address 004H get automatically loaded into the program counter?
a. After the execution of RESET action in program counter
b. After the execution of ‘goto Mainline ‘ instruction in the program memory
c. At the occurrence of interrupt into the program counter
d. At the clearance of program counter with no value
ANSWER: (c) At the occurrence of interrupt into the program counter
33) How many bits are utilized by the instruction of direct addressing mode in order to address the register files in PIC?
a. 2
b. 5
c. 7
d. 8
ANSWER:(c) 7
34) Which registers are adopted by CPU and peripheral modules so as to control and handle the operation of device inhibited in RFS?
a. General Purpose Register
b. Special Purpose Register
c. Special Function Registers
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) Special Function Registers
35) Which among the below specified registors are addressable only from bank1 of RFS?
a. PORTA (05H)
b. PORTB (06H)
c. FSR (04H)
d. ADCON0 (07H)
ANSWER: (a) PORTA (05H)
36) Which register acts as an input-output control as well as data direction register for PORTA in bank 2 of RFS?
a. INDF (80H)
b. TRISB (85H)
c. TRISA (85H)
d. PCLATH (8A)
ANSWER: (c) TRISA (85H)
37) Which bank of RFS has a provision of addressing the status register?
a. Only Bank 1
b. Only Bank 2
c. Either Bank 1 or Bank 2
d. Neither Bank 1 nor Bank 2
ANSWER: (c) Either Bank 1 or Bank 2
38) Which bit of OPTION register has a potential to decide the falling or rising edge sensitivity for the external interrupt INT?
a. RBPU
b. INTEDG
c. PSA
d. RTS
ANSWER: (b) INTEDG
39) Where are the prescalar assignments applied with a usage of PSA bit?
a. Only RTCC
b. Only Watchdog timer
c. Either RTCC or Watchdog timer
d. Neither RTCC nor Watchdog timer
ANSWER: (c) Either RTCC or Watchdog timer
40) Where is the exact specified location of an interrupt flag associated with analog-to-digital converter?
a. INTCON
b. ADCON0
c. ADRES
d. PCLATH
ANSWER: (b) ADCON0
41) Which bit permits to enable (if set) or disable (if cleared) all the interrupts in an INTCON register?
a. GIE
b. ADIE
c. RBIE
d. TOIE
ANSWER: (a) GIE
42) When does it become possible for a bit to get accessed from bank ‘0’ in the direct addressing mode of PICs?
a. Only when RPO bit is set ‘zero’
b. Only when RPO bit is set ‘1’
c. Only when RPO bit is utilized along with 7 lower bits of instruction code
d. Cannot Predict
ANSWER: (a) Only when RPO bit is set ‘zero’

43) When does it become feasible for portB pins (RB4 to RB7) to support its unique feature of ‘interrupt on change’?
a. By configuring all the pins (RB4-RB7) as inputs
b. By configuring all the pins (RB4-RB7) as outputs
c. By configuring any one of the pins as inputs
d. By configuring any one of the pins as outputs
ANSWER: (a) By configuring all the pins (RB4-RB7) as inputs
44) Which digital operations are performed over the detected mismatch outputs with an intention to generate a single output RB port change output?
a. OR
b. AND
c. EX-OR
d. NAND
ANSWER: (a) OR
45) What is the purpose of acquiring two different bits from INTCON register for performing any interrupt operation in PIC 16C61 / 71?
a. One for enabling & one for disabling the interrupt
b. One for enabling the interrupt & one for its occurrence detection
c. One for setting or clearing the RBIE bit
ANSWER: (b) One for enabling the interrupt & one for its occurrence detection
46) Which among the below specified combination of interrupts belong to the category of the PIC 16C61 / 71?
a. External, Timer/Counter & serial Port Interrupts
b. Internal, External & Timer/Counter Interrupts
c. External, Timer 0 & Port B Interrupts
d. Internal, External, Timer 0 & PortA Interrupts
ANSWER: (c) External, Timer 0 & Port B Interrupts
47) Which condition results in setting the GIE bit of INTCON automatically?
a. Execution of retfie instruction at the beginning of ISR
b. Execution of retfie instruction at the end of ISR
c. Execution of retfie instruction along with interrupt enable bit
d. Execution of retfie instruction along with interrupt disable bit
ANSWER: (b) Execution of retfie instruction at the end of ISR
48) What kind of external edge-sensitive interrupt is generated due to transition effect at pin RBO/INT?
a. INT
b. RBO
c. INTF
d. All of the above
ANSWER:(a) INT
49) Which bit-register pair plays a significant role in configuring the rising or falling edge triggering levels in external interrupts of PIC 16C61/71?
a. INTF bit – INTCON register
b. INTEDG bit – OPTION register
c. INT bit -INTCON register
d. INTE bit – OPTION register
ANSWER: (b) INTEDG bit – OPTION register
50) Consider the following statements. Which of them is /are incorrect?
a. By enabling INTE bit of an external interrupt can wake up the processor before entering into sleep mode.
b. INTF bit is set in INTCON only when a valid interrupt signal arrives at INT pin.
c. During the occurrence of interrupt, GIE bit is set in order to prevent any further interrupts.
d. goto instruction written in program memory cannot direct the program control to ISR.
a. A & B
b. C & D
c. Only A
d. Only C
ANSWER: (b) C & D
51) What is the purpose of setting TOIE bit in INTCON along with GIE bit?
a. For setting the TOIF flag in INTCON due to generation of Timer 0 overflow interrupt
b. For setting the TOIE flag in INTCON due to generation of Timer 0 overflow interrupt
c. For setting the RBIF flag in INTCON due to generation of PORTB change interrupt
ANSWER: (a) For setting the TOIF flag in INTCON due to generation of Timer 0 overflow interrupt
52) Where do the conversion interrupt flag (ADIF) end after an accomplishment of analog-to-digital (ADC) conversion process?
a. INTCON
b. ADCON0
c. OPTION
ANSWER: (b) ADCON0
53) How much time is required for conversion per channel if PIC 16C71 possesses four analog channels, each comprising of 8-bits?
a. 10 μs
b. 15 μs
c. 20 μs
d. 30 μs
ANSWER: (c) 20 μs
54) How much delay is required to synchronize the external clock at TOCKI in Timer ‘0’ of PIC 16C61?
a. 2-cycles
b. 4-cycles
c. 6-cycles
d. 8-cycles
ANSWER: (a) 2-cycles
55) Which command enables the PIC to enter into the power down mode during the operation of watchdog timer (WDT)?
a. SLEEP
b. RESET
c. STATUS
d. CLR
ANSWER: (a) SLEEP
56) Which channel would be selected if the values of channel bits CHS0 & CHS1 are ‘1’ & ‘0’ respectively in ADC Status Register?
a. AIN0
b. AIN1
c. AIN2
d. AIN3
ANSWER: (c) AIN2
57) Which bit is mandatory to get initiated or set for executing the process of analog to digital conversion in ADCON0?
a. ADIF
b. ADON
c. Go/!Done
d. ADSC1
ANSWER: (c) Go/!Done
58) What would be the value of ADC clock source, if both the ADC clock bits are selected to be ‘1’?
a. FOSC/2
b. FOSC/8
c. FOSC/32
d. FRC
ANSWER: (d) FRC
59) The functionalities associated with the pins RA0- RA3 in ADCON1 are manipulated by __________
a. PCFG1 & PCG0
b. VREF
c. ADON
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (a) PCFG1 & PCG0
60) Which among the below mentioned aspect issues are supported by capture/compare/PWM modules corresponding to time in PIC 16F877?
a. Control
b. Measurement
c. Generation of pulse signal
d. All of the above
61) Which mode allows to deliver the contents of 16-bit timer into a SFR on the basis of rising/falling edge detection?
a. Capture Mode
b. Compare Mode
c. PWM Mode
d. MSSP Mode
ANSWER: (a) Capture Mode
62) What among the below specified functions is related to PWM mode?
a. Generation of an interrupt
b. Generation of rectangular wave with programmable duty cycle with an user assigned frequency
c. Variations in the status of an output pin
d. Detection of an exact point at which the change occurs in an input edge
ANSWER: (b) Generation of rectangular wave with programmable duty cycle with an user assigned frequency
63) What happens when the program control enters the Interrupt Service Subroutine (ISS) due to enabling of CCP1IE bit in PIE1 especially during the initialization of CCP1 Module in capture
mode?
a. CCP1F bit gets cleared in PIR1 by detecting new capture event
b. GIE bit gets enabled
c. Contents of CCPR1L & CCPR1H are automatically copied in TMR1L & TMR1H respectively
d. Interrupt flag bit CCP1IF gets enabled in PIR
ANSWER: (a) CCP1F bit gets cleared in PIR1 by detecting new capture event
64) Which register is suitable for the corresponding count, if the measurement of pulse width is less than 65,535 μs along with the frequency of 4 MHz?
a. 4-bit register
b. 8-bit register
c. 16-bit register
d. 32-bit register
ANSWER: (c) 16-bit register
65) The capture operation in counter mode is feasible when mode of CCP module is _________
a. synchronized
b. asynchronized
c. synchronized as well as asynchronized
d. irrespective of synchronization
ANSWER: (a) synchronized
66) What is the fundamental role exhibited by the CCP module in compare mode in addition to timer 1?
a. To vary the pin status in accordance to the precisely controlled time
b. To vary the duty cycle of the rectified output
c. To vary the oscillator frequencies in order to receive larger periods
d. To vary the status of synchronization levels
ANSWER: (a) To vary the pin status in accordance to the precisely controlled time
67) How does the pin RC2/CCP1 get configured while initializing the CCP module in the compare mode of operation?
a. As an input by writing it in TRISC register
b. As an output by writing it in TRISC register
c. As an input without the necessity of writing or specifying it in TRISC register
d. Compare mode does not support pin RC2/CCP1 configuration CCP initialization
ANSWER: (b) As an output by writing it in TRISC register

1) Where does the comparison level occur for 16-bit contents in the compare mode operation?
a. Between CCPR1 register & TMR1
b. Between CCPR1 & CCPR2 registers
c. Between CCPR2 register & TMR1
d. Between CCPR2 register & TMR0
ANSWER: (a) Between CCPR1 register & TMR1
2) Why are the pulse width modulated outputs required in most of the applications?
a. To control average value of an input variables
b. To control average value of output variables
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: (b) To control average value of output variables
3) What would be the resolution value if oscillator and PWM frequencies are 16MHz and 2 MHz respectively?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 8
ANSWER: (b) 3
4) How do the variations in an average value get affected by PWM period?
a. Longer the PWM period, faster will be the variation in an average value
b. Shorter the PWM period, faster will be the variation in an average value
c. Shorter the PWM period, slower will be the variation in an average value
d. Longer the PWM period, slower will be the variation in an average value
ANSWER: (b) Shorter the PWM period, faster will be the variation in an average value
5) Which among the below stated components should be filtered for determining the cut-off frequency corresponding to the PW period of low-pass filter?
a. Fundamental FPWM & higher harmonics
b. Resonant FPWM & higher harmonics
c. Slowly Varying DC components
d. Slowly Varying AC components
ANSWER: (a) Fundamental FPWM & higher harmonics
6) Which among the below stated conditions are selected by the SSPCON & SSPSTAT control bits?
a. Slave Select mode in slave mode
b. Data input sample phase
c. Clock Rate in master mode
d. All of the above
7) Which bit of SSPCON must be necessarily set so as to enable the synchronization of serial port?
a. WCOL
b. SSPOV
c. CKP
d. SSPEN
ANSWER: (d) SSPEN
8) What should be the value of SSPM3:SSPM0 bits so that SPI can enter the slave mode by enabling SS pin control?
a. 0000
b. 0100
c. 0010
d. 0001
ANSWER: (b) 0100
9) Which bits assist in determining the I2C bit rate during the initialization process of MSSP module in I 2C mode?
a. SSPADD
b. SSPBUF
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: (a) SSPADD
10) Which command/s should be essentially written for I2C input threshold selection and slew rate control operations?
a. SSPSTAT
b. SSPIF
c. ACKSTAT
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (a) SSPSTAT
11) Where does the baud rate generation occur and begins to count the bits required to get transmitted, after an execution (set) of BF flag?
a. SCL line
b. SDA line
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: (b) SDA line
12) How many upper bits of SSPSR are comparable to the address located in SSPADD especially after the shifting of 8 bits into SSPSR under the execution of START condition?
a. 7
b. 8
c. 16
d. 32
ANSWER: (a) 7
13) Where should the value of TX9 bit be loaded during the 9 bit transmission in an asynchronous mode?
a. TXSTA
b. RCSTA
c. SPBRG
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (a) TXSTA
14) What is the purpose of a special function register SPBRG in USART?
a. To control the operation associated with baud rate generation
b. To control an oscillator frequency
c. To control or prevent the false bit transmission of 9th bit
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (a) To control the operation associated with baud rate generation
15) Why is the flag bit TXIF tested or examined in the PIR1 register after shifting all the data bits during the initialization process of USART in asynchronous mode?
a. For ensuring the transmission of byte
b. For ensuring the reception of byte
c. For ensuring the on-chip baud rate generation
d. For ensuring the 9th bit as a parity
ANSWER: (a) For ensuring the transmission of byte
16) How is the baud rate specified for high-speed (BRGH = 1) operation in an asynchronous mode?
a. FOSC / 8 (X + 1)
b. FOSC / 16 (X + 1)
c. FOSC / 32 (X + 1)
d. FOSC / 64 (X + 1)
ANSWER: (b) FOSC / 16 (X + 1)
17) What is the status of shift clock supply in an USART synchronous mode?
a. Master-internally, Slave-externally
b. Master-externally, Slave-internally
c. Master & Slave (both) – internally
d. Master & Slave (both) – externally
ANSWER: (a) Master-internally, Slave-externally
18) Which bit plays a salient role in defining the master or slave mode in TXSTA register especially in synchronous mode?
a. RSRC
b. CSRC
c. SPEN
d. SYNC
ANSWER: (b) CSRC
19) Which register/s should set the SPEN bit in order to configure RC7/RX/DT pins as DT (data lines)?
a. TXSTA
b. RCSTA
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: (b) RCSTA
20) Which among the below assertions represent the salient features of PIC in C-18 compiler?
a. Transparent read/ write access to an external memory
b. Provision of supporting an inline assembly during the necessity of an overall control
c. Integration with MPLAB IDE for source-level debugging
d. All of the above
21) Which command-line option of compiler exhibits the banner comprising overall number of errors, messages, warnings and version number after an accomplishment of the compilation
process?
a. help
b. verbose
c. overlay
d. char
ANSWER: (b) verbose
22) In which aspects do the output functions specified in stdio.h differ from ANSI specified versions?
a. Provision of MPLAB specific extensions
b. Floating-point Format Support
c. Data in Program Memory
d. All of the above
23) What does the ‘program idata’ section of data memory contain in C-18 Compiler?
a. statically assigned/allocated initialized user variables
b. statically assigned /allocated uninitialized user variables
c. only executable instructions
d. variables as well as constants
ANSWER: (a) statically assigned/allocated initialized user variables
24) Which instruction is applicable to set any bit while performing bitwise operation settings?
a. bcf
b. bsf
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: (b) bsf
25) Where is the result stored after an execution of increment and decrement operations over the special – purpose registers in PIC?
a. File Register
b. Working Register
c. Both a & b
26) Which flags of status register are most likely to get affected by the single-cycle increment and decrement instructions?
a. P Flags
b. C Flags
c. OV Flags
d. Z Flags
ANSWER: (d) Z Flags
Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on Optical Fiber Communication(Part-1)

1) In an optical fiber communication system, which among the following is not a typical transmitter function?
a. Coding for error protection
b. Decoding of input data
c. Electrical to optical conversion
d. Recoding to match output standard
ANSWER: (d) Recoding to match output standard
2) Which among the following is provided by an optical receiver for the regeneration of data signal with minimum error?
a. Photo-diode
b. Signal Processing Circuits
c. Linear Circuitry
ANSWER: (c) Linear Circuitry
3) For a sine wave, the frequency is represented by the cycles per ______
a. Second
b. Minute
c. Hour
ANSWER: (a) Second
4) Which property/ies of PCM stream determine/s the fidelity to original analog signal?
a. Sampling rate
b. Bit depth
c. Both a and b
5) In single-mode fibers, how does the fraction of energy traveling through bound mode appear in the cladding?
a. As a crescent wave
b. As a gibbous wave
c. As an evanescent wave
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) As an evanescent wave
6) What is the typical value of refractive index for an ethyl alcohol?
a. 1
b. 1.36
c. 2.6
d. 3.4
ANSWER:(b) 1.36
7) If a light travels in a certain medium and it gets reflected off an optically denser medium with high refractive index, then it is regarded as _______
a. External Reflection
b. Internal Reflection
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: (a) External Reflection
8) In an optical fiber, the concept of Numerical aperture is applicable in describing the ability of __________
a. Light Collection
b. Light Scattering
c. Light Dispersion
d. Light Polarization
ANSWER:(a) Light Collection
9) Which among the following do/does not support/s the soot formation process?
a. OVPO
b. MCVD
c. PCVD
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) PCVD
10) Which type of photonic crystal fiber exhibit/s its/their similarity to the periodic crystalline lattice in a semiconductor?
a. Index guiding fiber
b. Photonic bandgap fiber
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: (b) Photonic bandgap fiber
11) Which type of fiber optic cable has/have its/their core with the size of about 480 μm to 980 μm & made up of polymethylmethacrylate (PMMA)?
a. Glass fiber optic cable
b. Plastic fiber optic cable
c. Plastic clad silica fiber optic cable
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (b) Plastic fiber optic cable
12) In multifiber cable system, which form of outer jacket/s consist/s of polyolefin compounds and are regarded as halogen free?
a. OFNR
b. OFNP
c. LSZH
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) LSZH
13) During the design of FOC system, which among the following reasons is/are responsible for an extrinsic absorption?
a. Atomic defects in the composition of glass
b. Impurity atoms in glass material
c. Basic constituent atoms of fiber material
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (b) Impurity atoms in glass material
14) Which among the following represent/s the measure/s to minimize the inhomogenities for Mie scattering reduction?
a. Extrusion Control
b. Increase in relative R.I. difference
c. Removal of imperfections due to glass manufacturing process
d. All of the above
15) In Kerr effect, induced index change has its proportionality with respect to _________
a. square of electric field
b. cube of electric field
c. cube root of electric field
d. one-fourth power of electric field
ANSWER: (a) square of electric field
16) Which among the following is regarded as an inelastic scattering of a photon?
a. Kerr Effect
b. Raman Effect
c. Hall Effect
d. Miller Effect
ANSWER: (b) Raman Effect
17) Which kind/s of misalignment assist/s in the reduction of overlap region in fiber?
a. Angular
b. Longitudinal
c. Lateral
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) Lateral
18) Which is the correct order of sequential steps for an electric arc fusion technique?
A. Pressing of fiber ends for fusion
B. Application of heat for smoothening of end-surfaces
C. Alignment of broken fiber edges
a. A, B, C
b. B, A, C
c. C, B, A
d. C, A, B
ANSWER: (c) C, B, A
19) Which splicing technique involves the alignment and locking of broken fiber edges by means of positioning devices & optical cement?
a. Fusion
b. Mechanical
c. Both a and b
ANSWER:(b) Mechanical
20) By using Springroove splicing technique, what is the value of mean insertion loss for multi mode graded index fiber?
a. 0.01
b. 0.03
c. 0.05
d. 0.09
ANSWER: (c) 0.05
21) In the fiber optic link, power transfer from one fiber to another and from fiber to detector must take place with _________coupling efficiency.
a. maximum
b. stable
c. minimum
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: (a) maximum
22) In spontaneous emission, the light source in an excited state undergoes the transition to a state with _______
a. Higher energy
b. Moderate energy
c. Lower energy
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) Lower energy
23) Which among the following is a key process adopted for the laser beam formation as it undergoes the light amplification?
a. Spontaneous Emission
b. Stimulated Emission
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: (b) Stimulated Emission
24) While coupling of LEDs with fiber, on which factor/s does the size of source and lighting angle generated within the semiconductor depend/s?
a. Geometry of die
b. Refractive index of semiconductor
c. Encapsulation Medium
d. All of the above
25) Which among the following results in the removal of LED lens interface for achieving high coupling efficiency?
a. Spherical lens
b. Cylindrical lens
c. Integral lens LED
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) Integral lens LED
26) For a photo-diode with responsivity of 0.50 A/W & optical power of about 12μW, what would be the value of generated photocurrent?
a. 3 μA
b. 6 μA
c. 9 μA
d. 12 μA
ANSWER: (b) 6 μA
27) Which component of an optical receiver is a linear frequency shaping filter used for the compensation of signal distortion and Inter Symbol Interference (ISI)?
a. Photodetector
b. Amplifier
c. Equalizer
ANSWER: (c) Equalizer
28) In digital receivers, which codes are used to designate the sampled analog signals after their quantization into discrete levels?
a. Binary
b. Decimal
c. ASCII
d. Excess-3
ANSWER: (a) Binary
29) Which feature of an eye-diagram assists in the measurement of additive noise in the signal?
a. Eye opening (height, peak to peak)
b. Eye overshoot/ undershoot
c. Eye width
ANSWER: (a) Eye opening (height, peak to peak)
30) Which method determines the dispersion limitation of an optical link?
a. Link power budget
b. Rise time budget
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: (b) Rise time budget
31) Which phenomenon causes the dynamic line width broadening under the direct modulation of injection current?
a. Modal Noise
b. Mode-partition Noise
c. Frequency Chirping
d. Reflection Noise
ANSWER: (c) Frequency Chirping
32) Speckle pattern is generated due to interference of nodes from a coherent source especially when the coherence time of source is _________ the intermodal dispersion time in the fiber.
a. Less than
b. Greater than
c. Equal to
ANSWER: (b) Greater than
33) Which among the following is/are determined by the fiber characterization?
a. Fiber integrity & performance for desired transmission rate
b. Installation practices
c. Service Implementation
d. All of the above
34) From the tests carried out in fiber characterization, which among the following measures the total light reflected back to the transmitter caused by the fiber as well as the components like
connector pairs and mechanical splices?
a. ORL
b. OTDR
c. LTS
d. PMD
ANSWER: (a) ORL
35) In fiber fault location, the equation of length (l) for time difference (t) is expressed as L = ct / 2n 1 . Which factor in this equation implies that the light travels a length from source to break
point and then through another length on the return trip?
a. L
b. c
c. t
d. 2
ANSWER: (d) 2
36) Which line code in PCM indicates the return of signal to zero between each pulse & takes place even due to occurrence of consecutive 0’s & 1’s in the signal?
a. Return-to-zero (RZ)
b. Non-Return to zero space
c. Return to zero inverted
d. Non-return to zero inverted
ANSWER: (a) Return-to-zero (RZ)
37) In the structure of fiber, the light is guided through the core due to total internal ______
a. reflection
b. refraction
c. diffraction
d. dispersion
ANSWER: (a) reflection
38) In the structure of a fiber, which component provides additional strength and prevents the fiber from any damage?
a. Core
b. Cladding
c. Buffer Coating
ANSWER: (c) Buffer Coating
39) Which is the transmission medium for VLF electromagnetic waves especially applicable for aeronautical and submarine cables?
a. Paired wires
b. Coaxial cable
c. Waveguide
d. Wireless
ANSWER: (a) Paired wires
40) Which rays exhibit the variation in the light acceptability ability of the fiber?
a. Meridional
b. Skew
c. Leaky
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (b) Skew
41) If a fiber operates at 1400nm with the diameter of about 10 μm, n1 = 1.30, Δ = 0.80% , V = 3.5, then how many modes will it have?
a. 6.125
b. 9.655
c. 12.95
d. 16.55
ANSWER: (a) 6.125
42) Which kind of dispersion phenomenon gives rise to pulse spreading in single mode fibers?
a. Intramodal
b. Intermodal
c. Material
d. Group Velocity
ANSWER: (a) Intramodal
43) With respect to single mode and graded index fibers, which parameter specifies the propagation of polarization modes with different phase velocities & the difference between their effective
refractive indices?
a. Mode field diameter
b. Birefringence
c. Fiber beat length
d. Spot Size
ANSWER: (b) Birefringence
44) On which of the following factor/s do/does the ‘Hydrogen Effect’ depend/s?
a. Type of fiber & Cable Design
b. Operating Wavelength
c. Installation Method
d. All of the above
45) Consider the statements given below. Which among them is not a drawback of double crucible method?
a. Utility in mass production of fibers
b. High attenuation
c. High OH content in drawn fiber
d. Addition of impurity while the fiber is drawn
ANSWER: (a) Utility in mass production of fibers
46) Consider the assertions given below. Which is the correct sequential order of process adopted in glass fiber preparation?
A. Drawing of fiber
B. Production of pure glass
C. Pulling of fiber
D. Conversion of pure glass into preform
a. B, D, A, C
b. A, B, C, D
c. C, A, D, B
d. D, B, A, C
ANSWER: (a) B, D, A, C
47) At which level of temperature does the oxidation process occur in MCVD?
a. Low
b. Moderate
c. High
d. Unpredictable
ANSWER: (c) High
48) Assuming no ISI, the maximum possible bandwidth of a multimode graded index fiber with 5 MHz, shows the total pulse broadening of 0.1s for the distance of about 12km. What would be
the value of bandwidth length product?
a. 40 MHz
b. 60 MHz
c. 90 MHz
d. 120 MHz
ANSWER: (b) 60 MHz
49) In Rayleigh scattering of light in glass, at which type of temperature does the glass attain the state of thermal equilibrium and exhibits its relativity to annealing temperature?
a. Junction
b. Fictive
c. Breakdown
d. Decomposition
ANSWER: (b) Fictive
50) Which type of scattering occurs due to interaction of light in a medium with time dependent optical density variations thereby resulting into the change of energy (frequency) & path?
a. Stimulated Brilliouin Scattering (SBS)
b. Stimulated Raman Scattering (SRS)
c. Mie Scattering
d. Rayleigh Scattering
ANSWER: (a) Stimulated Brilliouin Scattering (SBS)
Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on Optical Fiber Communication(Part-2)

1) The macroscopic bending losses show an exponential increase due to ________ in radius of curvature.
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Stability
ANSWER: (b) Decrease
2) Which type of mechanical splicing exhibits the permanent bonding of prepared fiber ends with the rigid alignment of the tube?
a. Snug Tube Splicing
b. Loose Tube Splicing
c. Elastomeric Splicing
d. Precision Pin Splicing
ANSWER: (a) Snug Tube Splicing
3) Which component of fiber-optic connector has a provision of entry for the fiber along with the fixation to connector housing?
a. Ferrule
b. Cable
c. Connector Housing
d. Coupling Device
ANSWER: (b) Cable
4) Which among the following is regarded as a keyed bayonet connector along with its feasibility of easiest insertion and removal from the fiber optic cable?
a. FC Connectors
b. LC Connectors
c. MT-RJ Connectors
d. ST Connectors
ANSWER: (d) ST Connectors
5) How many mating cycles are being rated by typically matched SC Connectors?
a. 500
b. 600
c. 800
d. 1000
ANSWER: (d) 1000
6) In Stimulated Emission, which among the following parameters of generated photon is/are similar to the photon of incident wave?
a. Phase
b. Frequency
c. Polarization & direction of travel
d. All of the above
7) Consider a crystal of ruby laser whose length is 6 cm and the refractive index is 1.8, emits the wavelength of about 0.55 μm. What will be the value of number of longitudinal modes?
a. 3.9 x 105
b. 4.9 x 105
c. 5.6 x 105
d. 7.7 x 105
ANSWER: (a) 3.9 x 105
8) In a laser structure, the existence of standing waves is possible at frequencies for which the distance between the mirrors is an integral number of ________
a. λ / 2
b. λ / 4
c. λ / 6
d. λ / 8
ANSWER: (a) λ / 2
9) The small section of fiber which is coupled to the optical source is known as _________
a. Flylead
b. Pigtail
c. Both a and b
10) In Lambertian output pattern of LED, the source is ______ bright from all directions.
a. Less
b. Equally
c. More
d. Unpredictably
ANSWER: (b) Equally
11) In pyroelectric photodetectors, the consequent increase in dielectric constant due to temperature variation by the photon absorption, is generally measured as change in _______
a. resistance
b. inductance
c. admittance
d. capacitance
ANSWER: (d) capacitance
12) Which type of preamplifier plays a crucial role in reducing the effect of thermal noise?
a. Low Impedance Pre-amplifier
b. High Impedance Preamplifier
c. Transimpedance Preamplifier
ANSWER: (b) High Impedance Preamplifier
13) In high impedance preamplifier, how are the noise sources kept to minimum level?
a. By reducing dark current with proper selection of photodiode
b. By reducing thermal noise of biasing resistor
c. By using high impedance amplifier
d. All of the above
14) Which among the following are the disadvantages of an optical feedback transimpedance receiver?
A. Increase in receiver input capacitance
B. Increase in dark current
C. Decrease in receiver input capacitance
D. Decrease in dark current
a. A & B
b. C & D
c. A & D
d. B & C
ANSWER: (a) A & B
15) Which category/ies of wavelength division multiplexer comprise/s two 3dB couplers where the splitting of an incident beam takes place into two fiber paths, followed by the recombination
with second 3-dB coupler?
a. Interference filter based devices
b. Angular dispersion based devices
c. Mach-Zehnder Interferometers
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) Mach-Zehnder Interferometers
16) Which among the following controls the length of Fabry-Perot interferometer so that it can act as a tunable optical filter?
a. Transducer
b. Tachometer
c. Multimeter
d. Phase-meter
ANSWER: (a) Transducer
17) In circulator, an optical path of signal follows _______
a. An open loop
b. A closed loop
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: (b) A closed loop
18) Which among the following is/are responsible for generating attenuation of an optical power in fiber?
a. Absorption
b. Scattering
c. Waveguide effect
d. All of the above
19) Consider the assertions/ characteristics given below. Which type of attenuation measurement technique exhibits these characteristics?
1. Necessity of accessing both ends of fiber.
2. Measurements corresponding to specific wavelengths.
3. Requirement of spectral response over a range of wavelengths.
a. Cutback Technique
b. Insertion Loss Technique
c. Use of OTDR Technique
ANSWER: (a) Cutback Technique
20) For neglecting the pulse dispersion in the digital systems, the rms width of fiber impulse response must be _________one-quarter of the pulse spacing.
a. Less than
b. Equal to
c. Greater than
ANSWER: (a) Less than
21) If a noisy channel has a bandwidth of 4 MHz with signal to noise ratio of about 1, what would be the maximum capacity of the channel?
a. 2 Mb/sec
b. 4 Mb/sec
c. 6 Mb/sec
d. 8 Mb/sec
ANSWER: (b) 4 Mb/sec
22) In the structure of fiber optic cable, the refractive index of core is always _______the refractive index of cladding.
a. Less than
b. Equal to
c. Greater than
ANSWER: (c) Greater than
23) The order of mode is equal to the number of field____ across the guide.
a. Zeros
b. Poles
c. Ones
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (a) Zeros
24) Which among the following represents the lateral shift of a light beam on reflection at a dielectric interface?
a. Doppler’s Shift
b. Goos-Haenchen’s Shift
c. Frequency Shift
d. Phase Shift
ANSWER: (b) Goos-Haenchen’s Shift

25) Why are plastic clad silica fiber optic cables not used widely?
a. Difficulty in connector application due to excessive plasticity in cladding
b. Difficulty in bonding
c. Insolubility in organic solvents
d. All of the above
26) In cables, water is prevented from filling the spaces with __________resistant compounds.
a. moisture
b. pressure
c. temperature
d. stress
ANSWER: (a) moisture
27) Which reason/s is/are responsible for the occurrence of non-linear Cross Phase Modulation (XPM)?
a. Difference in transmission phase of peak pulse & leading or trailing edges of pulse
b. Third-order optical non-linearity
c. Intensity dependence of refractive index
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) Intensity dependence of refractive index
28) What is/ are the consequence/s of Self Phase Modulation in non-linear optics?
a. Modification in pulse spectrum
b. Limited transmission rate
c. Dispersion effect
d. All of the above
29) Which type of fiber-optic coupler causes the distribution of an optical power from more than two input ports among the several output ports?
a. Star Coupler
b. Tree Coupler
c. X Coupler
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (a) Star Coupler

30) Which optical devices are adopted or applicable for routing signals from one waveguide to another?
a. Optical Combiner
b. Optical Splitter
c. Optical Coupler
ANSWER: (c) Optical Coupler
31) Which among the following characteristics of Laser light specifies the precise movement of all individual light waves together through time and space?
a. Monochromatic
b. Directional
c. Coherent
d. Brightness
ANSWER: (c) Coherent

32) Which modes are acknowledged due to their association with electromagnetic field and beam profile in the direction perpendicular to the plane of pn junction?
a. Longitudinal Modes
b. Transverse Modes
c. Lateral Modes
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (b) Transverse Modes
33) Which type of injection laser involves the use of geometry for fabrication of the multimode injection laser with a single or small number of lateral modes?
a. Gain guided laser
b. Index guided laser
c. Quantum well laser
d. Quantum dot laser
ANSWER: (a) Gain guided laser
34) In the dynamic response of Injection Laser Diode (ILD), the delay which is followed by ____ frequency damped oscillations give rise to the generation of relaxation oscillations.
a. Low
b. Medium
c. High
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) High
35) The spectral response of an ideal photodetector depicts its efficiency as a function of _________
a. amplitude
b. frequency
c. period
d. wavelength
ANSWER: (d) wavelength
36) According to frequency response of photo-detector, the modulation frequency at which the output current decreases to ________of peak value.
a. one-third
b. one-fourth
c. half
d. one-tenth
ANSWER: (c) half
37) Which photodiodes are crucially applicable to overcome the bandwidth-quantum efficiency trade-off along with its resemblence to the pyramid structure?
a. Mushroom Waveguide Photodiode
b. Traveling Wave Photodiode
c. Resonant Cavity Photodiode
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (a) Mushroom Waveguide Photodiode
38) When an optical signal is incident on a photo-detector, which noise originate/s due to statistical nature of production and collection of photoelectrons?
a. Dark Current Noise
b. Quantum Noise
c. Surface Leakage Current noise
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (b) Quantum Noise
39) In an eye-diagram, digital signals with very bad interference resembles the shape of _____
a. circle
b. rectangle
c. triangle
d. straight line
ANSWER:(d) straight line
40) On which factor/s do/does the response time of photodiode depend/s?
a. Diffusion time of photo carriers outside the depletion region
b. Diffusion time of photo carriers within the depletion region
c. RC time constant
d. All of the above
41) Which nature of charge carriers give rise to the current fluctuations thereby resulting into the generation of shot noise?
a. Continuous
b. Discrete
c. Sampled
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (b) Discrete
42) Which among the following parameters is/are decided by the front-end of a receiver?
a. Sensitivity
b. Bandwidth
c. Both a and b
43) In an optical network, increase in the number of lasers ________the bit rate.
a. Increases
b. Stabilizes
c. Decreases
ANSWER: (a) Increases
44) Which band/s specify/ies the operation range of Erbium doped fiber amplifier (EDFA)?
a. By O band
b. By C band
c. By S band
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (b) By C band
45) Basically, solitons are pulses which propagates through the fiber without showing any variation in ______
a. Amplitude
b. Velocity
c. Shape
d. All of the above
46) Why is an electrical isolation required between several portions of an electronic circuit?
a. Provision of high voltage protection
b. Reduction in noise level
c. Both a & b
47) For measuring the shape of input pulse in time-domain intermodal dispersion method, the test fiber is replaced by another fiber whose length is less than ___ of the test fiber.
a. 1%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 20%
ANSWER: (a) 1%
48) In chromatic dispersion, which parameter for the modulation of the received signal is measured with the help of a vector voltmeter?
a. Amplitude
b. Frequency
c. Phase
d. Period
ANSWER: (c) Phase
49) Which among the following stages is/are adopted in Splice Loss Experiment?
a. Translational
b. Rotational
c. Both a and b
50) Which among the following misalignments give/gives rise to the occurrence of splice loss?
a. Longitudinal separation between the end-faces of fiber
b. Angular tilt between fiber ends
c. Transverse offset between fiber ends
d. All of the above
Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on Amplifiers with Negative Feedback
Q1. When negative voltage feedback is applied to an amplifier, its voltage gain ……………….
1. Is increased
2. Is reduced
3. Remains the same
Answer : 2
Q2. The value of negative feedback fraction is always …………….
1. Less than 1
2. More than 1
3. Equal to 1
Answer : 1
Q3. If the output of an amplifier is 10 V and 100 mV from the output is fed back to the input, then feedback fraction is ………..
1. 10
2. 1
3. 01
4. 15
Answer : 3
Q4. The gain of an amplifier without feedback is 100 db. If a negative feedback of 3 db is applied, the gain of the amplifier will become …………..
1. 5 db
2. 300 db
3. 103 db
4. 97 db
Answer : 4
Q5. If the feedback fraction of an amplifier is 0.01, then voltage gain with negative feedback is approximately………..
1. 500
2. 100
3. 1000
4. 5000
Answer : 2
Q6. A feedback circuit usually employs ……………… network
1. Resistive
2. Capacitive
3. Inductive
Answer : 1
Q7. The gain of an amplifier with feedback is known as ………….. gain
1. Resonant
2. Open loop
3. Closed loop
Answer : 3
Q8. When voltage feedback (negative) is applied to an amplifier, its input impedance ………….
1. Is decreased
2. Is increased
3. Remains the same
Answer : 2
Q9. When current feedback (negative) is applied to an amplifier, its input impedance …………..
1. Is decreased
2. Is increased
3. Remains the same
Answer : 1
Q10. Negative feedback is employed in ……………..
1. Oscillators
2. Rectifiers
3. Amplifiers
Answer : 3
Q11. Emitter follower is used for …………
1. Current gain
2. Impedance matching
3. Voltage gain
Answer : 2
Q12. The voltage gain of an emitter follower is ………..
1. Much less than 1
2. Approximately equal to 1
3. Greater than 1
Answer : 2
Q13. When current feedback (negative) is applied to an amplifier, its output impedance ……..
1. Is increased
2. Is decreased
3. Remains the same
Answer : 1
Q14. Emitter follower is a ……………….. circuit
1. Voltage feedback
2. Current feedback
3. Both voltage and current feedback
Answer : 2
Q15. If voltage feedback (negative) is applied to an amplifier, its output impedance …………..
1. Remains the same
2. Is increased
3. Is decreased
Answer : 3
Q16. When a negative voltage feedback is applied to an amplifier, its bandwidth……….
1. Is increased
2. Is decreased
3. Remains the same
4. Insufficient data
Answer : 1
Q17. An emitter follower has ………… input impedance
1. Zero
2. Low
3. High
Answer : 3

Q19. The output impedance of an emitter follower is ……….

1. High
2. Very high
3. Almost zero
4. Low
Answer : 4

Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on FET ( Field Effect Transistors )

Q1. A JFET has three terminals, namely …………
1. cathode, anode, grid
2. emitter, base, collector
3. source, gate, drain
Answer : 3
Q2. A JFET is similar in operation to …………. valve
1. diode
2. pentode
3. triode
4. tetrode
Answer : 2
Q3. A JFET is also called …………… transistor
1. unipolar
2. bipolar
3. unijunction
Answer : 1
Q4. A JFET is a ………… driven device
1. current
2. voltage
3. both current and voltage
Answer : 2
Q5. The gate of a JFET is ………… biased
1. reverse
2. forward
3. reverse as well as forward
Answer : 1
Q6. The input impedance of a JFET is …………. that of an ordinary transistor
1. equal to
2. less than
3. more than
Answer : 3
Q7. In a p-channel JFET, the charge carriers are …………..
1. electrons
2. holes
3. both electrons and holes
Answer : 2
Q8. When drain voltage equals the pinch-off-voltage, then drain current …………. with the increase in drain voltage
1. decreases
2. increases
3. remains constant
Answer : 3
Q9. If the reverse bias on the gate of a JFET is increased, then width of the conducting channel …………..
1. is decreased
2. is increased
3. remains the same
Answer : 1
Q10. A MOSFET has …………… terminals
1. two
2. five
3. four
4. three
Answer : 4
Q11. A MOSFET can be operated with ……………..
1. negative gate voltage only
2. positive gate voltage only
3. positive as well as negative gate voltage
Answer : 3
Q12. A JFET has ……….. power gain
1. small
2. very high
3. very small
Answer : 2
Q13. The input control parameter of a JFET is ……………
1. gate voltage
2. source voltage
3. drain voltage
4. gate current
Answer : 1
Q14. A common base configuration of a pnp transistor is analogous to ………… of a JFET
1. common source configuration
2. common drain configuration
3. common gate configuration
Answer : 3
Q15. A JFET has high input impedance because …………
1. it is made of semiconductor material
2. input is reverse biased
3. of impurity atoms
Answer : 2
Q16. In a JFET, when drain voltage is equal to pinch-off voltage, the depletion layers ………
1. almost touch each other
2. have large gap
3. have moderate gap
Answer : 1
Q17. In a JFET, IDSS is known as …………..
1. drain to source current
2. drain to source current with gate shorted
3. drain to source current with gate open
Answer : 2
Q18. The two important advantages of a JFET are …………..
1. high input impedance and square-law property
2. inexpensive and high output impedance
3. low input impedance and high output impedance
Answer : 1
Q19. …………. has the lowest noise-level
1. triode
2. ordinary trnsistor
3. tetrode
4. JFET
Answer : 4
Q20. A MOSFET is sometimes called ………. JFET
1. many gate
2. open gate
3. insulated gate
4. shorted gate
Answer : 3
Q21. Which of the following devices has the highest input impedance?
1. JFET
2. MOSFET
3. Crystal diode
4. ordinary transistor
Answer : 2
Q22. A MOSFET uses the electric field of a ………. to control the channel current
1. capacitor
2. battery
3. generator
Answer : 1
Q23. The pinch-off voltage in a JFET is analogous to ………. voltage in a vacuum tube
1. anode
2. cathode
3. grid cut off
Answer : 3

Q25. In class A operation, the input circuit of a JFET is ………. biased

1. forward
2. reverse
3. not
Answer : 2
Q26. If the gate of a JFET is made less negative, the width of the conducting channel……….
1. remains the same
2. is decreased
3. is increased
Answer : 3
Q27. The pinch-off voltage of a JFET is about ……….
1. 5V
2. 0.6 V
3. 15 V
4. 25 V
Answer : 1
Q28. The input impedance of a MOSFET is of the order of ………..
1. Ω
2. a few hundred Ω
3. kΩ
4. several MΩ
Answer : 4
Q29. The gate voltage in a JFET at which drain current becomes zero is called ……….. voltage
1. saturation
2. pinch-off
3. active
4. cut-off
Answer : 2

Q31. In a FET, there are ……….. pn junctions at the sides

1. three
2. four
3. five
4. two
Answer : 4
Q32. The transconductance of a JFET ranges from ……………..
1. 100 to 500 mA/V
2. 500 to 1000 mA/V
3. 0.5 to 30 mA/V
4. above 1000 mA/V
Answer : 3
Q33. The source terminal of a JEFT corresponds to ………….. of a vacuum tube
1. plate
2. cathode
3. grid
Answer : 2
Q34. The output characteristics of a JFET closely resemble the output characteristics of a ………. valve
1. pentode
2. tetrode
3. triode
4. diode
Answer : 1
Q35. If the cross-sectional area of the channel in n-channel JEFT increases, the drain current ……….
1. is increased
2. is decreased
3. remains the same
Answer : 1
Q36. The channel of a JFET is between the …………….
1. gate and drain
2. drain and source
3. gate and source
4. input and output
Answer : 2
Q37. For VGS = 0 V, the drain current becomes constant when VDS exceeds ………
1. cut off
2. VDD
3. VP
4. oV
Answer : 3
Q38. A certain JFET data sheet gives VGS(off) = -4 V. The pinch-off voltage Vp is ……..
1. +4 V
2. -4 V
3. dependent on VGS
4. data insufficient
Answer : 1
Q39. The constant-current region of a JFET lies between
1. cut off and saturation
2. cut off and pinch-off
3. o and IDSS
4. pinch-off and breakdown
Answer : 4
Q40. At cut-off, the JFET channel is ……….
1. at its widest point
2. completely closed by the depletion region
3. extremely narrow
4. reverse baised
Answer : 2
Q41. A MOSFET differs from a JFET mainly because ………………
1. of power rating
2. the MOSFET has two gates
3. the JFET has a pn junction
Answer : 3
Q42. A certain D-MOSFET is biased at VGS = 0 V. Its data sheet specifies IDSS = 20mA and VGS(off) = -5 V. The value of the drain current is …………
1. 20 mA
2. 0 mA
3. 40 mA
4. 10 mA
Answer : 1
Q43. A n-channel D-MOSFET with a positive VGS is operating in …………
1. the depletion-mode
2. the enhancement-mode
3. cut off
4. saturation
Answer : 2
Q44. A certain p-channel E-MOSFET has VGS(th) = -2V. If VGS= 0V, the drain current is ……….
1. 0 mA
2. ID(on)
3. maximum
4. IDSS
Answer : 1
Q45. In a common-source JFET amplifier, the output voltage is …………………
2. in phase with the input
4. taken at the source
Answer : 1
Q46. In a certain common-source D-MOSFET amplifier, Vds =3.2 V r.m. and Vgs = 280 mV r.m.s. The voltage gain is …………
1. 1
2. 11.4
3. 8.75
4. 3.2
Answer : 2
Q47. In a certain CS JFET amplifier, RD= 1kΩ , RS= 560 Ω , VDD=10V and gm= 4500 μS. If the source resistor is completely bypassed, the voltage gain is …………
1. 450
2. 45
3. 2.52
4. 4.5
Answer : 4
Q48. A certain common-source JFET has a voltage gain of 10. If the source bypass capacitor is removed, ……………….
1. the voltage gain will increase
2. the transconductance will increase
3. the voltage gain will decrease
4. the Q-point will shift
Answer : 3
Q49. A CS JFET amplifier has a load resistance of 10 kΩ , RD= 820Ω . If gm= 5mS and Vin= 500 mV, the output signal voltage is ………..
1. 2.05 V
2. 25 V
3. 0.5 V
4. 1.89 V
Answer : 4
Q50. If load resistance in the above question (Q.49) is removed, the output voltage will …………
1. increase
2. decrease
3. stay the same
4. be zero
Answer : 1
555 IC Timer Questions and Answers

Sasmita October 8, 2015 Electronics Questions and Answers, Short Questions and Answers
555 IC Timer Questions and Answers

Q1. What is 555 timer?
The 555 times is a highly stable IC that can produce accurate and highly stable time delays or oscillation. The frequency of oscillation and duty cycle are accurately controlled by only two external resistors
and a capacitor.
Q2. What do you mean by a grounded load?
When the load is connected between the output terminal (pin 3) and grounded terminal (pin 1), it is called grounded load, this is also sometimes called the normally off load.
Q3. Why normally control terminal of 555 timer is connected to ground through a 0.01µF bypass capacitor?
Normally control terminal (pin 5) of timer is connected to ground through a 0.01µF bypass capacitor so as to prevent noise coupled onto this pin from causing false triggering.
Q4. What are the two basic modes in which the 555 timer operates?
The 555 timer basically operates in one of the two modes – either as monostable or as an astable multivibrator.
Q5. Name the CMOS version of the 555 timer.

IC 7555.
Operational Amplifiers Questions and Answers

Q1. What is an operational amplifier?
An operational amplifier, abbreviated as op-amp, is basically a multi-stage, very high gain, direct-coupled, negative feedback amplifier that uses voltage shunt feedback to provide a stabilized voltage gain.
Q2. State assumptions made for analyzing ideal op-amp.

Assumptions made for analyzing ideal op-amp are :
o Infinite open-loop gain

o Infinite input impedance
o Zero output impedance
o Perfect balance
o Infinite frequency bandwidth
o Infinite slew rate
o Infinite common-mode rejection ratio
o Nil drift of characteristics with temperature
Q3. What is a voltage transfer curve of an op-amp?
The curve drawn between output voltage and input differential voltage, for an op-amp, keeping voltage gain A constant is known as voltage transfer curve.
Q4. What are differential gain and common-mode gain of a differential amplifier?
When the difference of the two inputs applied to the two terminals of a differential amplifier is amplified, the resultant gain is termed as differential gain. But when the two input terminals are connected to
the same input source then the gain established by the differential amplifier is called the common mode gain.
Q5. Define CMRR.

CMRR is defined as the ration of differential voltage gain to common-mode voltage gain and it is given as CMRR = A d/Acm
Q6. Why does an op-amp have high CMRR?
High CMRR ensures that the common mode signals such as noise are rejected successfully and the output voltage is proportional only to the differential input voltage.
Q7. Why open-loop op-amp configurations are not used in linear applications?
When an op-amp is operated in the open-loop configuration, the output either goes to positive saturation or negative saturation levels or switches between positive and negative saturation levels and thus clips
the output above these levels. So open-loop op-amp configurations are not used in linear applications.
Q8. List the parameters that should be considered for ac and dc applications.
The parameters to be considered for dc applications are:
o Input offset voltage

o Input offset current
o Input bias current
o Drift
The parameters to be considered for ac applications are:
o Gain bandwidth product (GBW)

o Rise time
o Slew rate
o Full-power response
o AC noise
Q9. Define offset voltage as applied to an op-amp.
Input offset voltage may be defined as that voltage which is to be applied between the input terminals to balance the amplifier.
Q10. Give the typical value of bias current for CA741 operational amplifier.
80nA
Q11. Define slew rate.

Slew rate of an op-amp is defined as the maximum rate of change of output voltage per unit time and is expresses in V/µs.
Q12. What kind of negative feedback is present in a noninverting op-amp.

Negative voltage-series feedback.
Q13. What is a voltage follower?

Voltage follower is an electronic circuit in which output voltage tracts the input voltage both in sign and magnitude.
Q14. What are the advantages of using a voltage follower amplifier?

Voltage follower has three unique characteristics viz. extremely high input impedance, extremely low output impedance and unity transmission gain and is , therefore, an ideal circuit device for use as a
buffer amplifier.
Q15. In what way is the voltage follower a special case of the non-inverting amplifier?
If feedback resistor is made zero or R1 is made ∞(by keeping it open-circuited) in a noninverting amplifier circuit, voltage follower is obtained.
Q16. What is an inverting amplifier?
In an inverting amplifier, the input is connected to the minus or inverting terminal of op-amp.
Q17. What are the applications of an inverting amplifier?
Inverting amplifier is a very versatile component and can be used for performing number of mathematical stimulation such as analog inverter, paraphrase amplifier, phase shifter, adder, integrator,
differentiator.
Q18. What is a differential amplifier?

Differential amplifier is a combination of inverting and noninverting amplifiers and amplifies the voltage difference between input lines neither of which is grounded.
Q19. Give examples of linear circuits.

Adder, subtractor, differentiator, integrator fall under the category of linear circuits.
Q20. What is an adder or summing amplifier?

Adder or summing amplifier is a circuit that provides an output voltage proportional to or equal to the algebraic sum of two or more input voltages multiplied by a constant gain factor.
Q21. What is an integrator?

An integrator is a circuit that performs a mathematical operation called integration.
Q22. What are the applications of integrators?

Integrators are widely used in ramp or sweep generators, filters, analog computers etc.
Q23. Op-amp is used mostly as an integrator than a differentiator. Why?

Op-amp is used mostly as an integrator than a differentiator because in differentiator at high frequency, gain is high and so high-frequency noise is also amplified which absolutely abstract the differentiated
signal.
Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on Semiconductor Theory

Q1. A semiconductor is formed by ……… bonds.
1. Covalent
2. Electrovalent
3. Co-ordinate
Answer : A
Q2. A semiconductor has ………… temperature coefficient of resistance.
1. Positive
2. Zero
3. Negative
Answer : C
Q3. The most commonly used semiconductor is ………..
1. Germanium
2. Silicon
3. Carbon
4. Sulphur
Answer : B
Q4. A semiconductor has generally ……………… valence electrons.
1. 2
2. 3
3. 6
4. 4
Answer : D
Q5. The resistivity of pure germanium under standard conditions is about ……….
1. 6 x 104
2. Ω cm
3. 60
4. Ω cm
5. 3 x 106
6. Ω cm
7. 6 x 10-4
8. Ω cm
Answer : B
Q6. The resistivity of a pure silicon is about ……………
1. 100 Ω cm
2. 6000 Ω cm
3. 3 x 105 Ω m
4. 6 x 10-8 Ω cm
Answer : B
Q7. When a pure semiconductor is heated, its resistance …………..
1. Goes up
2. Goes down
3. Remains the same
4. Can’t say
Answer : B
Q8. The strength of a semiconductor crystal comes from ……..
1. Forces between nuclei
2. Forces between protons
3. Electron-pair bonds
Answer : C
Q9. When a pentavalent impurity is added to a pure semiconductor, it becomes ………
1. An insulator
2. An intrinsic semiconductor
3. p-type semiconductor
4. n-type semiconductor
Answer : D
Q10. Addition of pentavalent impurity to a semiconductor creates many ……..
1. Free electrons
2. Holes
3. Valence electrons
4. Bound electrons
Answer : A
Q11. A pentavalent impurity has ………. Valence electrons
1. 3
2. 5
3. 4
4. 6
Answer : B
A12. An n-type semiconductor is ………
1. Positively charged
2. Negatively charged
3. Electrically neutral
Answer : C
Q13. A trivalent impurity has ….. valence electrons
1. 4
2. 5
3. 6
4. 3
Answer : D
A14. Addition of trivalent impurity to a semiconductor creates many ……..
1. Holes
2. Free electrons
3. Valence electrons
4. Bound electrons
Answer : A
Q15. A hole in a semiconductor is defined as …………….
1. A free electron
2. The incomplete part of an electron pair bond
3. A free proton
4. A free neutron
Answer : B
Q16. The impurity level in an extrinsic semiconductor is about ….. of pure semiconductor.
1. 10 atoms for 108 atoms
2. 1 atom for 108 atoms
Answer : B
Q17. As the doping to a pure semiconductor increases, the bulk resistance of the semiconductor ………..
1. Remains the same
2. Increases
3. Decreases
Answer : C
Q18. A hole and electron in close proximity would tend to ……….
1. Repel each other
2. Attract each other
3. Have no effect on each other
Answer : B
Q19. In a semiconductor, current conduction is due to ……..
1. Only holes
2. Only free electrons
3. Holes and free electrons
Answer : C
Q20. The random motion of holes and free electrons due to thermal agitation is called ……….
1. Diffusion
2. Pressure
3. Ionisation
Answer : A
Q21. A forward biased pn junction diode has a resistance of the order of
1. Ω
2. kΩ
3. MΩ
Answer : A
Q22. The battery connections required to forward bias a pn junction are ……
1. +ve terminal to p and –ve terminal to n
2. -ve terminal to p and +ve terminal to n
3. -ve terminal to p and –ve terminal to n
Answer : A
Q23. The barrier voltage at a pn junction for germanium is about ………
3. 5V
4. 3V
5. Zero
6. 3V
Answer : D
Q24. In the depletion region of a pn junction, there is a shortage of ……..
1. Acceptor ions
2. Holes and electrons
3. Donor ions
Answer : B
Q25. A reverse bias pn junction has …………
1. Very narrow depletion layer
2. Almost no current
3. Very low resistance
4. Large current flow
Answer : B
Q26. A pn junction acts as a ……….
1. Controlled switch
2. Bidirectional switch
3. Unidirectional switch
Answer : C
Q27. A reverse biased pn junction has resistance of the order of
1. Ω
2. kΩ
3. MΩ
Answer : C
Q28. The leakage current across a pn junction is due to …………..
1. Minority carriers
2. Majority carriers
3. Junction capacitance
Answer : A
Q29. When the temperature of an extrinsic semiconductor is increased, the pronounced effect is on……
1. Junction capacitance
2. Minority carriers
3. Majority carriers
Answer : B
Q30. With forward bias to a pn junction , the width of depletion layer ………
1. Decreases
2. Increases
3. Remains the same
Answer : A
Q31. The leakage current in a pn junction is of the order of
1. Aa
2. mA
3. kA
4. µA
Answer : D
Q32. In an intrinsic semiconductor, the number of free electrons ………
1. Equals the number of holes
2. Is greater than the number of holes
3. Is less than the number of holes
Answer : A
Q33. At room temperature, an intrinsic semiconductor has ……….
1. Many holes only
2. A few free electrons and holes
3. Many free electrons only
4. No holes or free electrons
Answer : B
Q34. At absolute temperature, an intrinsic semiconductor has ……….
1. A few free electrons
2. Many holes
3. Many free electrons
4. No holes or free electrons
Answer : D
Q35. At room temperature, an intrinsic silicon crystal acts approximately as ……
1. A battery
2. A conductor
3. An insulator
4. A piece of copper wire
Answer : C
Zener Breakdown
When a heavily doped junction is reverse biased, the energy bands become crossed at relatively low voltages (i.e., the n-side conduction band is lowered in energy than the p-side valence band). The crossing
of the bands aligns the large number of empty states in the n-side conduction band opposite the many filled states of the p-side valence band. As the barrier separating these two bands is narrow, tunneling of
electrons can occur. Tunneling of electrons from the p-side valence band to the n-side conduction band constitutes a reverse current from n to p; the is the Zener breakdown .
The basic requirement for tunneling current are a large number of electrons separated from a large number of empty states by a narrow barrier of finite height. Since the tunneling probability depends upon
the width of the barrier (d in fig.(b)), it is important that the metallurgical junction be sharp and the doping high , so that the transition region W extends only a very short distance from each side of the
junction.
Avalanche Breakdown
For lightly doped junctions, electron tunnelling is negligible. If the electric field E in the transition region is large, an electron entering from the p side may be accelerated to high enough kinetic energy to
cause an ionizing collision with the lattice. A single such interaction results in carrier multiplication; the original electron and the generated electron are both swept to the n side of the junction, and the
generated hole is swept to the p side. The degree of multiplication can become very high if carriers generated within the transition region also have ionizing collisions with the lattice and create an EHP
(Electron Hole Pair); each of these carriers has a chance of creating a new EHP, and each of those can also care an EHP, and so forth. This is an avalanche process, since each incoming carrier can initiate the
creation of a large number of new carriers.
Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on Semiconductor Diode

Q1. A crystal diode has ………
1. one pn junction
2. two pn junctions
3. three pn junctions
Answer : 1
Q2. A crystal diode has forward resistance of the order of ……………
1. kΩ
2. Ω
3. MΩ
Answer : 2
Q3. If the arrow of crystal diode symbol is positive w.r.t. bar, then diode is ………….. biased.
1. forward
2. reverse
3. either forward or reverse
Answer : 1
Q4. The reverse current in a diode is of the order of ……………….
1. kA
2. mA
3. μA
4. A
Answer : 3
Q5. The forward voltage drop across a silicon diode is about …………………
1. 2.5 V
2. 3V
3. 10 V
4. 0.7 V
Answer : 4
Q6. A crystal diode is used as ……………
1. an amplifier
2. a rectifier
3. an oscillator
4. a voltage regulator
Answer : 2
Q7. The d.c. resistance of a crystal diode is ………….. its a.c. resistance
1. the same as
2. more than
3. less than
Answer : 3
Q8. An ideal crystal diode is one which behaves as a perfect ……….. when forward biased.
1. conductor
2. insulator
3. resistance material
Answer : 1
Q9. The ratio of reverse resistance and forward resistance of a germanium crystal diode is about ………….
1. 1:1
2. 100 : 1
3. 1000 : 1
4. 40,000 : 1
Answer : 4
Q 10. The leakage current in a crystal diode is due to …………….
1. minority carriers
2. majority carriers
3. junction capacitance
Answer :1
Q11. If the temperature of a crystal diode increases, then leakage current ………..
1. remains the same
2. decreases
3. increases
4. becomes zero
Answer :3
Q12. The PIV rating of a crystal diode is ………….. that of equivalent vacuum diode
1. the same as
2. lower than
3. more than
Answer :2
Q13. If the doping level of a crystal diode is increased, the breakdown voltage………….
1. remains the same
2. is increased
3. is decreased
Answer :3
Q14. The knee voltage of a crystal diode is approximately equal to ………….
1. applied voltage
2. breakdown voltage
3. forward voltage
4. barrier potential
Answer :4
Q15. When the graph between current through and voltage across a device is a straight line, the device is referred to as ……………….
1. linear
2. active
3. nonlinear
4. passive
Answer :1
Q16. When the crystal current diode current is large, the bias is …………
1. forward
2. inverse
3. poor
4. reverse
Answer :1
Q17. A crystal diode is a …………… device
1. non-linear
2. bilateral
3. linear
Answer :1
Q18. A crystal diode utilises …………….. characteristic for rectification
1. reverse
2. forward
3. forward or reverse
Answer :2
Q19. When a crystal diode is used as a rectifier, the most important consideration is ………..
1. forward characteristic
2. doping level
3. reverse characteristic
4. PIC rating
Answer :4
Q20. If the doping level in a crystal diode is increased, the width of depletion layer………..
1. remains the same
2. is decreased
3. in increased
Answer :3
Q21. A zener diode has ………..
1. one pn junction
2. two pn junctions
Answer :1
Q22. A zener diode is used as …………….
1. an amplifier
2. a voltage regulator
3. a rectifier
4. a multivibrator
Answer :2
Q23. The doping level in a zener diode is …………… that of a crystal diode
1. the same as
2. less than
3. more than
Answer :3
Q24. A zener diode is always ………… connected.
1. reverse
2. forward
3. either reverse or forward
Answer :1
Q25. A zener diode utilizes ……….. characteristics for its operation.
1. forward
2. reverse
3. both forward and reverse
Answer :2
Q26. In the breakdown region, a zener didoe behaves like a …………… source.
1. constant voltage
2. constant current
3. constant resistance
Answer :1
27. A zener diode is destroyed if it…………..
1. is forward biased
2. is reverse biased
3. carrier more than rated current
Answer :3
Q28. A series resistance is connected in the zener circuit to………..
1. properly reverse bias the zener
2. protect the zener
3. properly forward bias the zener
Answer :2
A29. A zener diode is …………………. device
1. a non-linear
2. a linear
3. an amplifying
Answer :1
Q30. A zener diode has ………….. breakdown voltage
1. undefined
2. sharp
3. zero
Answer :2
Q31. ……………. rectifier has the lowest forward resistance
1. solid state
2. vacuum tube
3. gas tube
Answer :1
Q32. Mains a.c. power is converrted into d.c. power for ……………..
1. lighting purposes
2. heaters
3. using in electronic equipment
Answer :3
Q33. The disadvantage of a half-wave rectifier is that the……………….
1. components are expensive
2. diodes must have a higher power rating
3. output is difficult to filter
Answer :3
Q34. If the a.c. input to a half-wave rectifier is an r.m.s value of 400/√2 volts, then diode PIV rating is ………………….
1. 400/√2 V
2. 400 V
3. 400 x √2 V
Answer :2
Q35. The ripple factor of a half-wave rectifier is …………………
1. 2
2. 1.21
3. 2.5
4. 0.48
Answer :4
Q36. There is a need of transformer for ………………..
1. half-wave rectifier
2. centre-tap full-wave rectifier
3. bridge full-wave rectifier
Answer :2
Q37. The PIV rating of each diode in a bridge rectifier is ……………… that of the equivalent centre-tap rectifier
1. one-half
2. the same as
3. twice
4. four times
Answer :1
Q38. For the same secondary voltage, the output voltage from a centre-tap rectifier is ………… than that of bridge rectifier
1. twice
2. thrice
3. four time
4. one-half
Answer :4
Q39. If the PIV rating of a diode is exceeded, ………………
1. the diode conducts poorly
2. the diode is destroyed
3. the diode behaves like a zener diode
Answer :2
Q40. A 10 V power supply would use …………………. as filter capacitor.
1. paper capacitor
2. mica capacitor
3. electrolytic capacitor
4. air capacitor
Answer :3
Q41. A 1,000 V power supply would use ……….. as a filter capacitor
1. paper capacitor
2. air capacitor
3. mica capacitor
4. electrolytic capacitor
Answer :1
Q42. The ……………….. filter circuit results in the best voltage regulation
1. choke input
2. capacitor input
3. resistance input
Answer :1
Q43. A half-wave rectifier has an input voltage of 240 V r.m.s. If the step-down transformer has a turns ratio of 8:1, what is the peak load voltage? Ignore diode drop.
1. 27.5 V
2. 86.5 V
3. 30 V
4. 42.5 V
Answer :4
Q44. The maximum efficiency of a half-wave rectifier is ………………..
1. 40.6 %
2. 81.2 %
3. 50 %
4. 25 %
Answer :1
Q45. The most widely used rectifier is ……………….
1. half-wave rectifier
2. centre-tap full-wave rectifier
3. bridge full-wave rectifier
Answer :3
Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on Transistors
Q1. A transistor has …………………
1. one pn junction
2. two pn junctions
4. four pn junctions
Answer : 2
Q2. The number of depletion layers in a transistor is …………
1. four
2. three
3. one
4. two
Answer : 4
Q3. The base of a transistor is ………….. doped
1. heavily
2. moderately
3. lightly
Answer : 3
Q4. The element that has the biggest size in a transistor is ………………..
1. collector
2. base
3. emitter
4. collector-base-junction
Answer : 1
Q5. In a pnp transistor, the current carriers are ………….
1. acceptor ions
2. donor ions
3. free electrons
4. holes
Answer : 4
Q6. The collector of a transistor is …………. doped
1. heavily
2. moderately
3. lightly
Answer : 2
Q7. A transistor is a …………… operated device
1. current
2. voltage
3. both voltage and current
Answer : 1
Q8. In a npn transistor, ……………. are the minority carriers
1. free electrons
2. holes
3. donor ions
4. acceptor ions
Answer : 2
Q9. The emitter of a transistor is ………………… doped
1. lightly
2. heavily
3. moderately
Answer : 2
Q10. In a transistor, the base current is about ………….. of emitter current
1. 25%
2. 20%
3. 35 %
4. 5%
Answer : 4
Q11. At the base-emitter junctions of a transistor, one finds ……………
1. a reverse bias
2. a wide depletion layer
3. low resistance
Answer : 3
Q12. The input impedance of a transistor is ………….
1. high
2. low
3. very high
4. almost zero
Answer : 2
Q13. Most of the majority carriers from the emitter ………………..
1. recombine in the base
2. recombine in the emitter
3. pass through the base region to the collector
Answer :3
Q14. The current IB is …………
1. electron current
2. hole current
3. donor ion current
4. acceptor ion current
Answer : 1
Q15. In a transistor ………………..
IC = IE + IB
IB = IC + IE
IE = IC – IB
IE = IC + IB
Answer : 4
Q16. The value of α of a transistor is ……….
o more than 1
o less than 1
o 1
o none of the above
Answer : 2
Q17. IC = αIE + ………….
1. IB
2. ICEO
3. ICBO
4. βIB
Answer : 3
Q18. The output impedance of a transistor is ……………..
1. high
2. zero
3. low
4. very low
Answer : 1
Q19. In a tansistor, IC = 100 mA and IE = 100.2 mA. The value of β is …………
1. 100
2. 50
3. about 1
4. 200
Answer : 4
Q20. In a transistor if β = 100 and collector current is 10 mA, then IE is …………
1. 100 mA
2. 100.1 mA
3. 110 mA
Answer : 2
Q21. The relation between β and α is …………..
1. β = 1 / (1 – α )
2. β = (1 – α ) / α
3. β = α / (1 – α )
4. β = α / (1 + α )
Answer : 3
Q22. The value of β for a transistor is generally ………………..
1. 1
2. less than 1
3. between 20 and 500
4. above 500
Answer : 3
Q23. The most commonly used transistor arrangement is …………… arrangement
1. common emitter
2. common base
3. common collector
Answer : 1
Q24. The input impedance of a transistor connected in …………….. arrangement is the highest
1. common emitter
2. common collector
3. common base
Answer : 2
Q25. The output impedance of a transistor connected in ……………. arrangement is the highest
1. common emitter
2. common collector
3. common base
Answer : 3
Q26. The phase difference between the input and output voltages in a common base arrangement is …………….
1. 180o
2. 90o
3. 270o
4. 0o
Answer : 4
Q27. The power gain in a transistor connected in ……………. arrangement is the highest
1. common emitter
2. common base
3. common collector
Answer : 1
Q28. The phase difference between the input and output voltages of a transistor connected in common emitter arrangement is ………………
1. 0o
2. 180o
3. 90o
4. 270o
Answer : 2
Q29. The voltage gain in a transistor connected in ………………. arrangement is the highest
1. common base
2. common collector
3. common emitter
Answer : 3
Q30. As the temperature of a transistor goes up, the base-emitter resistance ……………
1. decreases
2. increases
3. remains the same
Answer : 1
Q31. The voltage gain of a transistor connected in common collector arrangement is ………..
1. equal to 1
2. more than 10
3. more than 100
4. less than 1
Answer : 4
Q32. The phase difference between the input and output voltages of a transistor connected in common collector arrangement is ………………
1. 180o
2. 0o
3. 90o
4. 270o
Answer : 2
Q33. IC = β IB + ………..
1. ICBO
2. IC
3. ICEO
4. αIE
Answer : 3
Q34. IC = [α / (1 – α )] IB + ………….
1. ICEO
2. ICBO
3. IC
4. (1 – α ) IB
Answer : 1
Q35. IC = [α / (1 – α )] IB + […….. / (1 – α )]
1. ICBO
2. ICEO
3. IC
4. IE
Answer : 1
Q36. BC 147 transistor indicates that it is made of …………..
1. germanium
2. silicon
3. carbon
Answer : 2
Q37. ICEO = (………) ICBO
1. β
2. 1 + α
3. 1 + β
Answer : 3
Q38. A transistor is connected in CB mode. If it is not connected in CE mode with same bias voltages, the values of I E, IB and IC will …………..
1. remain the same
2. increase
3. decrease
Answer : 1
Q39. If the value of α is 0.9, then value of β is ………..
1. 9
2. 0.9
3. 900
4. 90
Answer : 4
Q40. In a transistor, signal is transferred from a …………… circuit
1. high resistance to low resistance
2. low resistance to high resistance
3. high resistance to high resistance
4. low resistance to low resistance
Answer : 2
Q41. The arrow in the symbol of a transistor indicates the direction of ………….
1. electron current in the emitter
2. electron current in the collector
3. hole current in the emitter
4. donor ion current
Answer : 3
Q42. The leakage current in CE arrangement is ……………. that in CB arrangement
1. more than
2. less than
3. the same as
Answer : 1
Q43. A heat sink is generally used with a transistor to …………
1. increase the forward current
2. decrease the forward current
3. compensate for excessive doping
4. prevent excessive temperature rise
Answer : 4
Q44. The most commonly used semiconductor in the manufacture of a transistor is ………….
1. germanium
2. silicon
3. carbon
Answer : 2
Q45. The collector-base junction in a transistor has ……………..
1. forward bias at all times
2. reverse bias at all times
3. low resistance
Answer : 2
Q1. A differential amplifier ……………..
1. is a part of an Op-amp
2. has one input and one output
3. has two outputs
Answer : 4
Q 2. When a differential amplifier is operated single-ended, …………
1. the output is grounded
2. one input is grounded and signal is applied to the other
3. both inputs are connected together
4. the output is not inverted
Answer : 2
Q3. In differential-mode, …………….
1. opposite polarity signals are applied to the inputs
2. the gain is one
3. the outputs are of different amplitudes
4. only one supply voltage is used
Answer : 1
Q4. In the common mode, ……………
1. both inputs are grounded
2. the outputs are connected together
3. an identical signal appears on both the inputs
4. the output signal are in-phase
Answer : 3
Q5. The common-mode gain is ………..
1. very high
2. very low
3. always unity
4. unpredictable
Answer : 2
Q6. The differential gain is ………
1. very high
2. very low
3. dependent on input voltage
4. about 100
Answer : 1
Q7. If ADM = 3500 and ACM = 0.35, the CMRR is ……….
1. 1225
2. 10,000
3. 80 dB
Answer : 4
Q8. With zero volts on both inputs, an OP-amp ideally should have an output ………..
1. equal to the positive supply voltage
2. equal to the negative supply voltage
3. equal to zero
4. equal to CMRR
Answer : 3
Q9. Of the values listed, the most realistic value for open-loop voltage gain of an OP-amp is ……
1. 1
2. 2000
3. 80 dB
4. 100,000
Answer : 4
Q10. A certain OP-amp has bias currents of 50 μA. The input offset current is ……..
1. 700 nA
2. 99.3 μA
3. 49.7 μA
4. none of these
Answer : 1
Q11. The output of a particular Op-amp increases 8V in 12μs. The slew rate is …….
1. 90 V/μs
2. 0.67 V/μs
3. 1.5 V/μs
4. none of these
Answer : 2
Q12. For an Op-amp with negative feedback, the output is …….
1. equal to the input
2. increased
3. fed back to the inverting input
4. fed back to the noninverting input
Answer : 3
Q13. The use of negative feedback ………
1. reduces the voltage gain of an Op-amp
2. makes the Op-amp oscillate
3. makes linear operation possible
Answer : 4
Q14. Negative feedback ………..
1. increases the input and output impedances
2. increases the input impedance and bandwidth
3. decreases the output impedance and bandwidth
4. does not affect impedance or bandwidth
Answer : 2
Q15. A certain noninverting amplifier has Ri of 1 kΩ and Rf of 100 kΩ. The closed-loop voltage gain is ………
1. 100,000
2. 1000
3. 101
4. 100
Answer : 3
Q16. If the feedback resistor in Q15 (above question) is open, the voltage gain …….
1. increases
2. decreases
3. is not affected
4. depends on Ri
Answer : 1
Q17. A certain inverting amplifier has a closed-loop voltage gain of 25. The Op-amp has an open-loop voltage gain of 100,000. If an Op-amp with an open-loop voltage gain of 200,000 is
substituted in the arrangement, the closed-loop gain ……..
1. doubles
2. drops to 12.5
3. remains at 25
4. increases slightly
Answer : 3
Q18. A voltage follower ……….
1. has a voltage gain of 1
2. is noninverting
3. has no feedback resistor
4. has all of these
Answer : 4
Q19. The Op-amp can amplify
1. a.c. signals only
2. d.c. signals only
3. both a.c. and d.c. signals
4. neither d.c. nor a.c. signals
Answer : 3
Q20. The input offset current equals the ……….
1. difference between two base currents
2. average of two base currents
4. none of these
Answer : 1
Q21. The tail current of a differential amplifier is …….
1. half of either collector current
2. equal to either collector current
3. two times either collector current
4. equal to the difference in base currents
Answer : 3
Q22. The node voltage at the top of the til resistor is closes to ……….
1. collector supply voltage
2. zero
3. emitter supply voltage
4. tail current times base resistance
Answer : 2
Q23. The tail current in a differential amplifier equals …….
1. difference between two emitter currents
2. sum of two emitter currents
4. collector voltage divided by collector resistance
Answer : 2
Q24. The differential voltage gain of a differential amplifier is equal to RC divided by …….
1. r’e
2. r’e/2
3. 2r’e
4. RE
Answer : 3
Q25. The input impedance of a differential amplifier equals r’e times ……
1. β
2. RE
3. RC
4. 2β
Answer : 4
Q26. A common-mode signal is applied to ……….
1. the noninverting input
2. the inverting input
3. both iputs
4. top of the tail resistor
Answer : 3
Q27. The common-mode voltage gain is ………
1. smaller than differentail voltage gain
2. equal to differential voltage gain
3. greater than differential voltage gain
Answer : 1
Q28. The input stage of an Op-amp is usually a ……….
1. differential amplifier
2. class B push-pull amplifier
3. CE amplifier
4. swamped amplifier
Answer : 1
Q29. The common-mode voltage gain of a differential amplifier is equal to RC divided by ……..
1. r’e
2. 2r’e
3. r’e/2
4. 2RE
Answer : 4
Q30. Current cannot flow to ground through …….
1. a mechanical ground
2. an a.c. ground
3. a virtual ground
4. an ordinary ground
Answer : 3
Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on Transistor Biasing
Q1. Transistor biasing represents ……………. conditions
1. c.
2. c.
3. both a.c. and d.c.
Answer : 2
Q2. Transistor biasing is done to keep ………… in the circuit
1. Proper direct current
2. Proper alternating current
3. The base current small
4. Collector current small
Answer : 1
Q3. Operating point represents …………..
1. Values of IC and VCE when signal is applied
2. The magnitude of signal
3. Zero signal values of IC and VCE
Answer : 3
Q4. If biasing is not done in an amplifier circuit, it results in ……………
1. Decrease in the base current
2. Unfaithful amplification
3. Excessive collector bias
Answer : 2
Q5. Transistor biasing is generally provided by a …………….
1. Biasing circuit
2. Bias battery
3. Diode
Answer : 1
Q6. For faithful amplification by a transistor circuit, the value of VBE should ………. for a silicon transistor
1. Be zero
2. Be 0.01 V
4. Be between 0 V and 0.1 V
Answer : 3
Q7. For proper operation of the transistor, its collector should have …………
1. Proper forward bias
2. Proper reverse bias
3. Very small size
Answer : 2
Q8. For faithful amplification by a transistor circuit, the value of VCE should ……….. for silicon transistor
1. Not fall below 1 V
2. Be zero
3. Be 0.2 V
Answer : 1
Q9. The circuit that provides the best stabilization of operating point is …………
1. Base resistor bias
2. Collector feedback bias
3. Potential divider bias
Answer : 3
Q10. The point of intersection of d.c. and a.c. load lines represents …………..
1. Operating point
2. Current gain
3. Voltage gain
Answer : 1
Q11. An ideal value of stability factor is …………..
1. 100
2. 200
3. More than 200
4. 1
Answer : 4
Q12. The zero signal IC is generally ……………… mA in the initial stages of a transistor amplifier
1. 4
2. 1
3. 3
4. More than 10
Answer : 2
Q13. If the maximum collector current due to signal alone is 3 mA, then zero signal collector current should be at least equal to ………..
1. 6 mA
2. mA
3. 3 mA
4. 1 mA
Answer : 3
Q14. The disadvantage of base resistor method of transistor biasing is that it …………
1. Is complicated
2. Is sensitive to changes in ß
3. Provides high stability
Answer : 2
Q15. The biasing circuit has a stability factor of 50. If due to temperature change, ICBO changes by 1 µA, then I C will change by …………
1. 100 µA
2. 25 µA
3. 20 µA
4. 50 µA
Answer : 4
Q16. For good stabilsation in voltage divider bias, the current I 1 flowing through R1 and R2 should be equal to or greater than
1. 10 IB
2. 3 IB
3. 2 IB
4. 4 IB
Answer : 1
Q17. The leakage current in a silicon transistor is about ………… the leakage current in a germanium transistor
1. One hundredth
2. One tenth
3. One thousandth
4. One millionth
Answer : 3
Q18. The operating point is also called the ………….
1. Cut off point
2. Quiescent point
3. Saturation point
Answer : 2
Q19. For proper amplification by a transistor circuit, the operating point should be located at the ………….. of the d.c. load line
1. The end point
2. Middle
3. The maximum current point
Answer : 2
Q20. The operating point ………………… on the a.c. load line
1. Also line
2. Does not lie
3. May or may not lie
Answer : 1
Q21. The disadvantage of voltage divider bias is that it has ………….
1. High stability factor
2. Low base current
3. Many resistors
Answer : 3
Q22. Thermal runaway occurs when ……….
1. Collector is reverse biased
2. Transistor is not biased
3. Emitter is forward biased
4. Junction capacitance is high
Answer : 2
Q23. The purpose of resistance in the emitter circuit of a transistor amplifier is to ………….
1. Limit the maximum emitter current
2. Provide base-emitter bias
3. Limit the change in emitter current
Answer : 3
Q24. In a transistor amplifier circuit VCE = VCB + ……………..
1. VBE
2. 2VBE
3. 5 VBE
Answer : 1
Q25. The base resistor method is generally used in ………
1. Amplifier circuits
2. Switching circuits
3. Rectifier circuits
Answer : 2
Q26. For germanium transistor amplifier, VCE should ………….. for faithful amplification
1. Be zero
2. Be 0.2 V
Answer : 3
Q27. In a base resistor method, if the value of β changes by 50, then collector current will change by a factor ………
1. 25
2. 50
3. 100
4. 200
Answer : 2
Q28. The stability factor of a collector feedback bias circuit is ……….. that of base resistor bias.
1. The same as
2. More than
3. Less than
Answer : 3
Q29. In the design of a biasing circuit, the value of collector load RC is determined by …………
1. VCE consideration
2. VBE consideration
3. IB consideration
Answer : 1
Q30. If the value of collector current I C increases, then the value of VCE …………
1. Remains the same
2. Decreases
3. Increases
Answer : 2
Q31. If the temperature increases, the value of VCE …………
1. Remains the same
2. Is increased
3. Is decreased
Answer : 3
Q32. The stabilisation of operating point in potential divider method is provided by ……….
1. RE consideration
2. RC consideration
3. VCC consideration
Answer: 1
Q33. The value of VBE …………….
1. Depends upon IC to moderate extent
2. Is almost independent of IC
3. Is strongly dependant on IC
Answer : 2
Q34. When the temperature changes, the operating point is shifted due to …….
1. Change in ICBO
2. Change in VCC
3. Change in the values of circuit resistance
Answer : 1
Q35. The value of stability factor for a base resistor bias is …………
1. RB (β+1)
2. (β+1)RC
3. (β+1)
4. 1-β
Answer : 3
Q36. In a particular biasing circuit, the value of RE is about ………
1. 10 kΩ
2. 1 MΩ
3. 100 kΩ
4. 800 Ω
Answer : 4
Q37. A silicon transistor is biased with base resistor method. If β=100, VBE =0.7 V, zero signal collector current IC = 1 mA and VCC = 6V , what is the value of the base resistor RB?
1. 105 kΩ
2. 530 kΩ
3. 315 kΩ
Answer : 2
Q38. In voltage divider bias, VCC = 25 V; R1 = 10 kΩ; R2 = 2.2 V ; RC = 3.6 V and RE =1 kΩ. What is the emitter voltage?
1. 7V
2. 3V
o V
3. 8V
Answer : 4
Q39. In the above question (Q38.) , what is the collector voltage?
5. 3V
6. 8V
7. 6V
8. 7V
Answer : 1
Q40. In voltage divider bias, operating point is 3 V, 2 mA. If VCC = 9 V, RC = 2.2 kΩ, what is the value of RE ?
1. 2000 Ω
2. 1400 Ω
3. 800 Ω
4. 1600 Ω
Answer : 3
Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on Single Stage Transistor Amplifiers
Q1. A single stage transistor amplifier contains ……………. and associated circuitry
1. Two transistors
2. One transistor
3. Three transistor
Answer : 2
Q2. The phase difference between the output and input voltages of a CE amplifier is ………………..
1. 180o
2. 0o
3. 90o
4. 270o
Answer : 1
Q3. It is generally desired that a transistor should have …………….. input impedance
1. Low
2. Very low
3. High
4. Very high
Answer : 3
Q4. When an a.c. signal is applied to an amplifier, ,the operating point moves along …………….
1. c. load line
2. c. load line
3. both d.c. and a.c. load lines
Answer : 2
Q5. If the collector supply is 10V, then collector cut off voltage under d.c. conditions is ………….
1. 20 V
2. 5V
3. 2V
4. 10 V
Answer : 4
Q6. In the zero signal conditions, a transistor sees ……………….. load
1. c.
2. c.
3. both d.c. and a.c.
Answer : 1
Q7. The input capacitor in an amplifier is the ……………….. capacitor
1. Coupling
2. Bypass
3. Leakage
Answer : 1
Q8. The point of intersection of d.c. and a.c. load lines is called ……………..
1. Saturation point
2. Cut off point
3. Operating point
Answer : 3
Q9. The slope of a.c. load line is ……………… that of d.c. load line
1. The same as
2. More than
3. Less than
Answer : 2
Q10. If a transistor amplifier draws 2mA when input voltage is 10 V, then its input impedance is ………..
1. 20 kΩ
2. 2 kΩ
3. 10 kΩ
4. 5 kΩ
Answer : 4
Q11. When a transistor amplifier is operating, the current in any branch is ……………
1. Sum of a.c. and d.c.
2. c. only
3. c. only
4. difference of a.c. and d.c.
Answer : 1
Q12. The purpose of capacitors in a transistor amplifier is to ………………
1. Protect the transistor
2. Cool the transistor
3. Couple or bypass a.c. component
4. Provide biasing
Answer : 3
Q13. In the d.c. equivalent circuit of a transistor amplifier, the capacitors are considered ……………..
1. Short
2. Open
3. Partially short
Answer : 2
Q14. In a CE amplifier, voltage gain = ……………. x RAC/Rin
1. α
2. (1 + α)
3. (1+ β)
4. β
Answer : 4
Q15. In practice, the voltage gain of an amplifier is expressed ……………..
1. As volts
2. As a number
3. In db
Answer : 3
Q16. If the power and current gains of a transistor amplifier are 16500 and 100 respectively, then voltage gain is ………
1. 165
2. 165 x 104
3. 100
Answer : 1
Q17. If RC and RL represent the collector resistance and load resistance respectively in a single stage transistor amplifier, then a.c. load is ……..
1. RL + RC
2. RC || RL
3. RL – RC
4. RC
Answer : 2
Q18. In a CE amplifier, the phase difference between voltage across collector load R C and signal voltage is ………..
1. 180o
2. 270o
3. 90o
4. 0o
Answer : 4
Q19. In the a.c. equivalent circuit of a transistor amplifier, the capacitors are considered ………….
1. Short
2. Open
3. Partially open
Answer : 1
Q20. In a single stage transistor amplifier, RC and RL represent collector resistance and load resistance respectively. The transistor sees a d.c. load of ………..
1. RC + RL
2. RC || RL
3. RL
4. RC
Answer : 4
Q21. The purpose of d.c. conditions in a transistor is to …………..
1. Reverse bias the emitter
2. Forward bias the collector
3. Set up operating point
Answer : 3
Q22. An amplifier has a power gain of 100. Its db gain is ……………
1. 10 db
2. 20 db
3. 40 db
Answer : 2
Q23. In order to get more voltage gain from a transistor amplifier, the transistor used should have …………..
1. Thin base
2. Thin collector
3. Wide emitter
Answer : 1
Q24. The purpose of a coupling capacitor in a transistor amplifier is to ……….
1. Increase the output impedance of transistor
2. Protect the transistor
3. Pass a.c. and block d.c.
4. Provide biasing
Answer : 3
Q25. The purpose of emitter capacitor (i.e. capacitor across RE) is to ……….
1. Avoid voltage gain drop
2. Forward bias the emitter
3. Reduce noise in the amplifier
Answer : 1
Q26. The ratio of output impedance of a CE amplifier is ……………
1. About 1
2. Low
3. High
4. Moderate
Answer : 4
Q27. If a transistor amplifier feeds a load of low resistance (e.g. speaker), then voltage gain will be ………….
1. High
2. Very high
3. Moderate
4. Low
Answer : 4
Q28. If the input capacitor of a transistor amplifier is short-circuited, then………
1. Transistor will be destroyed
2. Biasing conditions will change
3. Signal will not reach the base
Answer : 2
Q29. The radio wave picked up by the receiving antenna is amplified about …….. times to have reasonable sound output
1. 1000
2. A million
3. 100
4. 10000
Answer : 2
Q30. A CE amplifier is also called ………….. circuit
1. Grounded emitter
2. Grounded base
3. Grounded collector
Answer : 1
Q31. The d.c. load of a transistor amplifier is generally ………….. that of a a.c. load
1. The same as
2. Less than
3. More than
Answer : 3
Q32. The value of collector load RC in a transistor amplifier is ………… the output impedance of the transistor.
1. The same as
2. Less than
3. More than
Answer : 2
Q33. A single stage transistor amplifier with collector load RC and emitter resistance REhas a d.c. load of ……….
1. RC
2. RC || RE
3. RC – RE
4. RC + RE
Answer : 4
Q34. In transistor amplifiers, we generally use ………….. capacitors.
1. Electrolytic
2. Mica
3. Paper
4. Air
Answer : 1
Q35. A single stage transistor amplifier with no load sees an a.c. load of ……..
1. RC + RE
2. RC
3. RC || RE
4. RC/RE
Answer : 2
Q36. The output power of a transistor amplifier is more than the input power because the additional power is supplied by …………
1. Transistor
2. Biasing circuit
3. Collector supply VCC
Answer : 3
Q37. A transistor converts ……………
1. c. power into a.c. power
2. c. power into d.c. power
3. high resistance into low resistance
Answer : 1
Q38. A transistor amplifier has high output impedance because ………..
1. Emitter is heavily doped
2. Collector has reverse bias
3. Collector is wider than emitter or base
Answer : 2
Q39. For highest power gain, one would use …………….. configuration
1. CC
2. CB
3. CE
Answer : 3
Q40. CC configuration is used for impedance matching because its ……………..
1. Input impedance is very high
2. Input impedance is low
3. Output impedance is very low
Answer : 1
Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on Multistage Transistor Amplifiers
Q1. A radio receiver has …………… of amplification
1. One stage
2. Two stages
3. Three stages
4. More than one stages
Answer : 4
Q2. RC coupling is used for ………………. amplification
1. Voltage
2. Current
3. Power
Answer : 1
Q3. In an RC coupled amplifier, the voltage gain over mid-frequency range …………….
1. Changes abruptly with frequency
2. Is constant
3. Changes uniformly with frequency
Answer : 2
Q4. In obtaining the frequency response curve of an amplifier, the …………
1. Amplifier level output is kept constant
2. Amplifier frequency is held constant
3. Generator frequency is held constant
4. Generator output level is held constant
Answer : 4
Q5. An advantage of RC coupling scheme is the ………….
1. Good impedance matching
2. Economy
3. High efficiency
Answer : 2
Q6. The best frequency response is of ………. coupling
1. RC
2. Transformer
3. Direct
Answer : 3
Q7. Transformer coupling is used for ………….. amplification
1. Power
2. Voltage
3. Current
Answer : 1
Q8. In an RC coupling scheme, the coupling capacitor CC must be large enough ………..
1. To pass d.c. between the stages
2. Not to attenuate the low frequencies
3. To dissipate high power
Answer : 2
Q9. In RC coupling, the value of coupling capacitor is about ……….
1. 100 pF
2. 0.1 µF
3. 0.01 µF
4. 10 µF
Answer : 4
Q10. The noise factor of an ideal amplifier expressed in db is …………..
1. 0
2. 1
3. 1
4. 10
Answer : 1
Q11. When a multistage amplifier is to amplify d.c. signal, then one must use …….. coupling
1. RC
2. Transformer
3. Direct
Answer : 3
Q12. ………….. coupling provides the maximum voltage gain
1. RC
2. Transformer
3. Direct
4. Impedance
Answer : 2
Q13. In practice, voltage gain is expressed ……………
1. In db
2. In volts
3. As a number
Answer : 1
Q14. Transformer coupling provides high efficiency because …………
1. Collector voltage is stepped up
2. c. resistance is low
3. collector voltage is stepped down
Answer : 2
Q15. Transformer coupling is generally employed when load resistance is ………
1. Large
2. Very large
3. Small
Answer : 3
Q16. If a three-stage amplifier has individual stage gains of 10 db, 5 db and 12 db, then total gain in db is ……….
1. 600 db
2. 24 db
3. 14 db
4. 27 db
Answer : 4
Q17. The final stage of a multistage amplifier uses ………………
1. RC coupling
2. Transformer coupling
3. Direct coupling
4. Impedance coupling
Answer : 2
Q18. The ear is not sensitive to ………….
1. Frequency distortion
2. Amplitude distortion
3. Frequency as well as amplitude distortion
Answer : 1
Q19. RC coupling is not used to amplify extremely low frequencies because ………
1. There is considerable power loss
2. There is hum in the output
3. Electrical size of coupling capacitor becomes very large
Answer : 3
Q20. In transistor amplifiers, we use ……………. transformer for impedance matching
1. Step up
2. Step down
3. Same turn ratio
Answer : 2
Q21. The lower and upper cut off frequencies are also called ………………… frequencies
1. Sideband
2. Resonant
3. Half-resonant
4. Half-power
Answer : 4
Q22. A gain of 1,000,000 times in power is expressed by …………….
1. 30 db
2. 60 db
3. 120 db
4. 600 db
Answer : 2
Q23. A gain of 1000 times in voltage is expressed by …………..
1. 60 db
2. 30 db
3. 120 db
4. 600 db
Answer : 1
Q24. 1 db corresponds to ………….. change in power level
1. 50%
2. 35%
3. 26%
4. 22%
Answer : 3
Q25. 1 db corresponds to …………. change in voltage or current level
1. 40%
2. 80%
3. 20%
4. 25%
Answer : 1
Q26. The frequency response of transformer coupling is ………….
1. Good
2. Very good
3. Excellent
4. Poor
Answer : 4
Q27. In the initial stages of a multistage amplifier, we use ………..
1. RC coupling
2. Transformer coupling
3. Direct coupling
Answer : 1
Q28. The total gain of a multistage amplifier is less than the product of the gains of individual stages due to …………
1. Power loss in the coupling device
2. Loading effect of the next stage
3. The use of many transistors
4. The use of many capacitors
Answer : 2
Q29. The gain of an amplifier is expressed in db because ………..
1. It is a simple unit
2. Calculations become easy
3. Human ear response is logarithmic
Answer : 3
Q30. If the power level of an amplifier reduces to half, the db gain will fall by …….
1. 5 db
2. 2 db
3. 10 db
4. 3 db
Answer : 4
Q31. A current amplification of 2000 is a gain of …………….
1. 3 db
2. 66 db
3. 20 db
4. 200 db
Answer : 2
Q32. An amplifier receives 0.1 W of input signal and delivers 15 W of signal power. What is the power gain in db?
1. 8 db
2. 6 db
3. 5 db
4. 4 db
Answer : 1
Q33. The power output of an audio system is 18 W. For a person to notice an increase in the output (loudness or sound intensity) of the system, what must the output power be increased to ?
1. 2W
2. 6W
3. 68 W
Answer : 3
Q34. The output of a microphone is rated at -52 db. The reference level is 1V under specified conditions. What is the output voltage of this microphone under the same sound conditions?
1. 5 mV
2. 2 mV
3. 8 mV
4. 5 mV
Answer : 4
Q35. RC coupling is generally confined to low power applications because of ………
1. Large value of coupling capacitor
2. Low efficiency
3. Large number of components
Answer : 2
Q36. The number of stages that can be directly coupled is limited because ……..
1. Changes in temperature cause thermal instability
2. Circuit becomes heavy and costly
3. It becomes difficult to bias the circuit
Answer : 1
Q37. The purpose of RC or transformer coupling is to …………
1. Block a.c.
2. Separate bias of one stage from another
3. Increase thermal stability
Answer : 2
Q38. The upper or lower cut off frequency is also called ………….. frequency
1. Resonant
2. Sideband
3. 3 db
Answer : 3
Q39. The bandwidth of a single stage amplifier is …………. that of a multistage amplifier
1. More than
2. The same as
3. Less than
Answer : 1
Q40. The value of emitter capacitor CE in a multistage amplifier is about ……..
1. 1 µF
2. 100 pF
3. 0.01 µF
4. 50 µF
Answer : 4
Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on Transistor Audio Power Amplifiers
Q1. The output stage of a multistage amplifier is also called ……………
1. Mixer stage
2. Power stage
3. Detector stage
4. F stage
Answer : 2
Q2. ………………. coupling is generally employed in power amplifiers
1. Transformer
2. RC
3. direct
4. Impedance
Answer : 1
Q3. A class A power amplifier uses …………
1. Two transistors
2. Three transistors
3. One transistor
Answer : 3
Q4. The maximum efficiency of resistance loaded class A power amplifier is ……..
1. 5%
2. 50%
3. 30%
4. 25%
Answer : 4
Q5. The maximum efficiency of transformer coupled class A power amplifier is ………………
1. 30%
2. 50%
3. 80%
4. 45%
Answer : 2
Q6. Class……. power amplifier has the highest collector efficiency
1. C
2. A
3. B
4. AB
Answer : 1
Q7. Power amplifiers handle …………. signals compare to voltage amplifiers
1. Small
2. Very small
3. Large
Answer : 3
Q8. In class A operation, the operating point is generally located ………. of the d.c. load line.
1. At cut off point
2. At the middle
3. At saturation point
Answer : 2
Q9. Class C amplifiers are used as …………….
1. AF amplifiers
2. Detectors
3. F. amplifiers
Answer : 3
Q10. A power amplifier has comparatively …………….. β
1. Small
2. Large
3. Very large
Answer : 1
Q11. The maximum collector efficiency of class B operation is ……………..
1. 50%
2. 90%
3. 5%
4. 5%
Answer : 4
Q12. A 2-transistor class B power amplifier is commonly called ……….. amplifier
1. Dual
2. Push-pull
3. Symmetrical
4. Differential
Answer : 2
Q13. If a transistor is operated in such a way that output current flows for 60 o of the input signal, then it is …………… operation
1. Class A
2. Class B
3. Class C
Answer : 3
Q14. If the zero signal dissipation of a transistor is 1W, then power rating of the transistor should be at least ……………….
1. 5W
2. 33 W
3. 75 W
4. 1W
Answer : 4
Q15. When a transistor is cut off……………..
1. Maximum voltage appears across transistor
2. Maximum current flows
3. Maximum voltage appears across load
Answer : 1
Q16. A class A power amplifier is sometimes called ………….. amplifier
1. Symmetrical
2. Single-ended
3. Reciprocating
4. Differential
Answer : 2
Q17. Class ………….. operation gives the maximum distortion
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. AB
Answer : 3
Q18. The output stage of a multistage amplifier usually employs ………..
1. Push-pull amplifier
2. Preamplifier
3. Class A power amplifier
Answer : 1
Q19. The size of a power transistor is made considerably large to …………
1. Provide easy handling
2. Dissipate heat
3. Facilitate connections
Answer : 2
Q20. Low efficiency of a power amplifier results in ……………….
1. Low forward bias
2. Less battery consumption
3. More battery consumption
Answer : 3
Q21. The driver stage usually employs………….
1. Class A power amplifier
2. Push-pull amplifier
3. Class C amplifier
Answer : 1
Q22. If the power rating of a transistor is 1W and collector current is 100mA, then maximum allowable collector voltage is ………..
1. 1V
2. 100V
3. 20V
4. 10V
Answer : 4
Q23. When no signal is applied, the approximate collector efficiency of class A power amplifier is …….
1. 10%
2. 0%
3. 25%
4. 50%
Answer : 2
Q24. What will be the collector efficiency of a power amplifier having zero signal power dissipation of 5 watts and a.c. power output of 2 watts?
1. 20%
2. 80%
3. 40%
4. 50%
Answer : 3
Q25. The output signal voltage and current of a power amplifier are 5V and 200 mA; the values being r.m.s. What is the power output?
1. 1W
2. 2W
3. 4W
Answer : 1
Q26. The maximum a.c. power output from a class A power amplifier is 10 W. What should be the minimum power rating of the transistor used ?
1. 10 W
2. 15 W
3. 5W
4. 20 W
Answer : 4
Q27. For the same a.c. power output as above, what should be the minimum power rating of transistor for class B operation?
1. 10 W
2. 4W
3. 8W
Answer : 2
Q28. The push-pull circuit must use …………… operation
1. Class A
2. Class C
3. Class B
4. Class AB
Answer : 3
Q29. The class B push-pull circuit can deliver 100 W of a.c. output power. What should be the minimum power rating of each transistor?
1. 20 W
2. 40 W
3. 10 W
4. 80 W
Answer : 1
Q30. What turn ratio (Np/Ns) of transformer is required to match 4 Ω speaker to a transistor having an output impedance of 8000 Ω?
1. 2
2. 7
3. 3
Answer : 2
Q31. A transformer coupled class A power amplifier has a load of 100 Ω on the secondary. If the turn ratio is 10:1, what is the value of load appearing on the primary?
1. 5 kΩ
2. 20 kΩ
3. 100 kΩ
4. 10 kΩ
Answer : 4
Q32. Power amplifiers generally use transformer coupling because transformer permits……..
1. Cooling of the circuit
3. Distortionless output
4. Good frequency response
Answer : 2
Q33. Transformer coupling can be used in …………… amplifiers
1. Either power or voltage
2. Only power
3. Only voltage
Answer : 1
Q34. The output transformer used in a power amplifier is a ……………. transformer
1. 1:1 ratio
2. Step-up
3. Step-down
Answer : 3
Q35. The most important consideration in power amplifier is ………..
1. Biasing the circuit
2. Collector efficiency
3. To keep the transformer cool
Answer : 2
Q36. An AF amplifier is shielded to …………
1. Keep the amplifier cool
2. Protect from rusting
3. Prevent induction due to stray magnetic fields
Answer : 3
Q37. The pulsating d.c. applied to power amplifier causes ……………..
1. Burning of transistor
2. Hum in the circuit
3. Excessive forward voltage
Answer : 2
Q38. The disadvantage of impedance matching is that it ………………….
1. Gives distorted output
2. Gives low power output
3. Requires a transformer
Answer : 1
Q39. If the gain versus frequency curve of a transistor amplifier is not flat, then there is distortion.
1. Amplitude
2. Intermodulation
3. Frequency
Answer : 3
Q40. The most costly coupling is ……………… coupling
1. RC
2. Direct
3. Impedance
4. Transformer
Answer : 4
Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on Amplifiers with Negative Feedback
Q1. When negative voltage feedback is applied to an amplifier, its voltage gain ……………….
1. Is increased
2. Is reduced
3. Remains the same
Answer : 2
Q2. The value of negative feedback fraction is always …………….
1. Less than 1
2. More than 1
3. Equal to 1
Answer : 1
Q3. If the output of an amplifier is 10 V and 100 mV from the output is fed back to the input, then feedback fraction is ………..
1. 10
2. 1
3. 01
4. 15
Answer : 3
Q4. The gain of an amplifier without feedback is 100 db. If a negative feedback of 3 db is applied, the gain of the amplifier will become …………..
1. 5 db
2. 300 db
3. 103 db
4. 97 db
Answer : 4
Q5. If the feedback fraction of an amplifier is 0.01, then voltage gain with negative feedback is approximately………..
1. 500
2. 100
3. 1000
4. 5000
Answer : 2
Q6. A feedback circuit usually employs ……………… network
1. Resistive
2. Capacitive
3. Inductive
Answer : 1
Q7. The gain of an amplifier with feedback is known as ………….. gain
1. Resonant
2. Open loop
3. Closed loop
Answer : 3
Q8. When voltage feedback (negative) is applied to an amplifier, its input impedance ………….
1. Is decreased
2. Is increased
3. Remains the same
Answer : 2
Q9. When current feedback (negative) is applied to an amplifier, its input impedance …………..
1. Is decreased
2. Is increased
3. Remains the same
Answer : 1
Q10. Negative feedback is employed in ……………..
1. Oscillators
2. Rectifiers
3. Amplifiers
Answer : 3
Q11. Emitter follower is used for …………
1. Current gain
3. Voltage gain
Answer : 2
Q12. The voltage gain of an emitter follower is ………..
1. Much less than 1
2. Approximately equal to 1
3. Greater than 1
Answer : 2
Q13. When current feedback (negative) is applied to an amplifier, its output impedance ……..
1. Is increased
2. Is decreased
3. Remains the same
Answer : 1
Q14. Emitter follower is a ……………….. circuit
1. Voltage feedback
2. Current feedback
3. Both voltage and current feedback
Answer : 2
Q15. If voltage feedback (negative) is applied to an amplifier, its output impedance …………..
1. Remains the same
2. Is increased
3. Is decreased
Answer : 3
Q16. When a negative voltage feedback is applied to an amplifier, its bandwidth……….
1. Is increased
2. Is decreased
3. Remains the same
Answer : 1
Q17. An emitter follower has ………… input impedance
1. Zero
2. Low
3. High
Answer : 3

Q19. The output impedance of an emitter follower is ……….

1. High
2. Very high
3. Almost zero
4. Low
Answer : 4
Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on Oscillators
Q1. An oscillator converts ……………..
1. c. power into d.c. power
2. c. power into a.c. power
3. mechanical power into a.c. power
Answer : 2
Q2. In an LC transistor oscillator, the active device is ……………
1. LC tank circuit
2. Biasing circuit
3. Transistor
Answer : 3
Q3. In an LC circuit, when the capacitor is maximum, the inductor energy is ……….
1. Minimum
2. Maximum
3. Half-way between maximum and minimum
Answer : 1
Q4. In an LC oscillator, the frequency of oscillator is ……………. L or C.
1. Proportional to square of
2. Directly proportional to
3. Independent of the values of
4. Inversely proportional to square root of
Answer : 4
Q5. An oscillator produces……………. oscillations
1. Damped
2. Undamped
3. Modulated
Answer : 2
Q6. An oscillator employs ……………… feedback
1. Positive
2. Negative
3. Neither positive nor negative
Answer : 1
Q7. An LC oscillator cannot be used to produce ……………….. frequencies
1. High
2. Audio
3. Very low
4. Very high
Answer : 3
Q8. Hartley oscillator is commonly used in ………………
1. Radio receivers
2. Radio transmitters
3. TV receivers
Answer : 1
Q9. In a phase shift oscillator, we use …………. RC sections
1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
Answer : 2
Q10. In a phase shift oscillator, the frequency determining elements are …………
1. L and C
2. R, L and C
3. R and C
Answer : 3
Q11. A Wien bridge oscillator uses ……………. feedback
1. Only positive
2. Only negative
Answer : 3
Q12. The piezoelectric effect in a crystal is ……………
1. A voltage developed because of mechanical stress
2. A change in resistance because of temperature
3. A change in frequency because of temperature
Answer : 1
Q13. If the crystal frequency changes with temperature, we say that crystal has ………….. temperature coefficient
1. Positive
2. Zero
3. Negative
Answer : 1
Q14. The crystal oscillator frequency is very stable due to ………………. of the crystal
1. Rigidity
2. Vibrations
3. Low Q
4. High Q
Answer : 4
Q15. The application where one would most likely find a crystal oscillator is ……………..
1. Radio receiver
2. Radio transmitter
3. AF sweep generator
Answer : 2
Q16. An oscillator differs from an amplifier because it ………
1. Has more gain
2. Requires no input signal
3. Requires no d.c. supply
4. Always has the same input
Answer : 2
Q17. One condition for oscillation is ………….
1. A phase shift around the feedback loop of 180 o
2. A gain around the feedback loop of one-third
3. A phase shift around the feedback loop of 0o
4. A gain around the feedback loop of less than 1
Answer : 3
Q18. A second condition for oscillations is ……………….
1. A gain of 1 around the feedback loop
2. No gain around the feedback loop
3. The attention of the feedback circuit must be one-third
4. The feedback circuit must be capacitive
Answer : 1
Q19. In a certain oscillator Av = 50. The attention of the feedback circuit must be …………
1. 1
2. 01
3. 10
4. 02
Answer : 4
Q20. For an oscillator to properly start, the gain around the feedback loop must initially be
1. 1
2. Greater than 1
3. Less than 1
4. Equal to attenuation of feedback circuit
Answer : 2
Q21. In a Wien-bridge oscillator, if the resistances in the positive feedback circuit are decreased, the frequency……….
1. Remains the same
2. Decreases
3. Increases
Answer : 3
Q22. In Colpitt’s oscillator, feedback is obtained …………….
1. By magnetic induction
2. By a tickler coil
3. From the centre of split capacitors
Answer : 3
Q23. The Q of the crystal is of the order of …………
1. 100
2. 1000
3. 50
4. More than 10,000
Answer : 4
Q24. Quartz crystal is most commonly used in crystal oscillators because ………….
1. It has superior electrical properties
2. It is easily available
3. It is quite inexpensive
Answer : 1


Q27. ………….. is a fixed frequency oscillator
1. Phase-shift oscillator
2. Hartely-oscillator
3. Colpitt’s oscillator
4. Crystal oscillator
Answer : 4
Q28. In an LC oscillator, if the value of L is increased four times, the frequency of oscillations is …………
1. Increased 2 times
2. Decreased 4 times
3. Increased 4 times
4. Decreased 2 times
Answer : 4
Q29. An important limitation of a crystal oscillator is ……………
1. Its low output
2. Its high Q
3. Less availability of quartz crystal
4. Its high output
Answer : 1
Q30. The signal generator generally used in the laboratories is ………….. oscillator
1. Wien-bridge
2. Hartely
3. Crystal
4. Phase shift
Answer : 1
Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on Transistor Tuned Amplifiers
Q1. A tuned amplifier uses ……………. load
1. Resistive
2. Capacitive
3. LC tank
4. Inductive
Answer : 3
Q2. A tuned amplifier is generally operated in ……………. operation
1. Class A
2. Class C
3. Class B
Answer : 2
Q3. A tuned amplifier is used in …………… applications
1. Radio frequency
2. Low frequency
3. Audio frequency
Answer : 1
Q4. Frequencies above …………… kHz are called radio frequencies
1. 2
2. 10
3. 50
4. 200
Answer : 4
Q5. At series or parallel resonance, the circuit power factor is …………..
1. 0
2. 5
3. 1
4. 8
Answer : 3
Q6. The voltage gain of a tuned amplifier is ……………. at resonant frequency
1. Minimum
2. Maximum
3. Half-way between maximum and minimum
4. Zero
Answer : 2
Q7. At parallel resonance, the line current is ……………….
1. Minimum
2. Maximum
3. Quite large
Answer : 1
Q8. At series resonance, the circuit offers …………….. impedance
1. Zero
2. Maximum
3. Minimum
Answer : 3
Q9. A resonant circuit contains ……………… elements
1. R and L only
2. R and C only
3. Only R
4. L and C
Answer : 4
Q10. At series or parallel resonance, the circuit behaves as a …………….. load
1. Capacitive
2. Resistive
3. Inductive
Answer : 2
Q11. At series resonance, voltage across L is ………………. voltage across C
1. Equal to but opposite in phase to
2. Equal to but in phase with
3. Greater than but in phase with
4. Less than but in phase with
Answer : 1
Q12. When either L or C is increased, the resonant frequency of LC circuit ……………
1. Remains the same
2. Increases
3. Decreases
Answer : 3
Q13. At parallel resonance, the net reactive component circuit current is …………
1. Capacitive
2. Zero
3. Inductive
Answer : 2
Q14. In parallel resonance, the circuit impedance is …………..
1. C/LR
2. R/LC
3. CR/L
4. L/CR
Answer : 4
Q15. In a parallel LC circuit, if the input signal frequency is increased above resonant frequency then …………………..
1. XL increases and XC decreases
2. XL decreases and XC increases
3. Both XL and XC increase
4. Both XL and XC decrease
Answer : 1
Q16. The Q of an LC circuit is given by ………………….
1. 2πfr x R
2. R / 2πfrL
3. 2πfrL / R
4. R2/2πfrL
Answer : 3
Q17. If Q of an LC circuit increases, then bandwidth …………………
1. Increases
2. Decreases
3. Remains the same
Answer : 2
Q18. At series resonance, the net reactive component of circuit current is ……………….
1. Zero
2. Inductive
3. Capacitive
Answer : 1
Q19. The dimensions of L/CR are that of …………….
1. Farad
2. Henry
3. Ohm
Answer : 3
Q20. If L/C ratio of a parallel LC circuit is increased, the Q of the circuit ……………..
1. Is decreased
2. Is increased
3. Remains the same
Answer : 2
Q21. At series resonance, the phase angle between applied voltage and circuit is ………..
1. 90o
2. 180o
3. 0o
Answer : 3
Q22. At parallel resonance, the ratio L/C is …………….
1. Very large
2. Zero
3. Small
Answer : 1
Q23. If the resistance of a tuned circuit is increased, the Q of the circuit ………….
1. Is increased
2. Is decreased
3. Remains the same
Answer : 2
Q24. The Q of a tuned circuit refers to the property of …………..
1. Sensitivity
2. Fidelity
3. Selectivity
Answer : 3
Q25. At parallel resonance, the phase angle between the applied voltage and circuit current is …………….
1. 90o
2. 180o
3. 0o
Answer : 3
Q26. In a parallel LC circuit, if the signal frequency is decreased below the resonant frequency, then ……………
1. XL decreases and XC increases
2. XL increases and XC decreases
3. Line current becomes minimum
Answer : 1
Q27. In series resonance, there is ………………
1. Voltage amplification
2. Current amplification
3. Both voltage and current amplification
Answer : 1
Q28. The Q of a tuned amplifier is generally …………….
1. Less than 5
2. Less than 10
3. More than 10
Answer : 3
Q29. The Q of a tuned amplifier is 50. If the resonant frequency for the amplifier is 1000kHZ, then bandwidth is …………
1. 10kHz
2. 40 kHz
3. 30 kHz
4. 20 kHz
Answer : 4
Q30. In the above question, what are the values of cut-off frequencies?
1. 140 kHz , 60 kHz
2. 1020 kHz , 980 kHz
3. 1030 kHz , 970 kHz
Answer : 2
Q31. For frequencies above the resonant frequency, a parallel LC circuit behaves as a ……………. load
1. Capacitive
2. Resistive
3. Inductive
Answer : 1
Q32. In parallel resonance, there is …………
1. Both voltage and current amplification
2. Voltage amplifications
3. Current amplification
Answer : 3
Q33. For frequencies below resonant frequency, a series LC circuit behaves as a ………… load
1. Resistive
2. Capacitive
3. Inductive
Answer : 2
Q34. If a high degree of selectivity is desired, then double-tuned circuit should have …………. coupling
1. Loose
2. Tight
3. Critical
Answer : 1
Q35. In the double tuned circuit, if the mutual inductance between the two tuned circuits is decreased, the level of resonance curve ………..
1. Remains the same
2. Is lowered
3. Is raised
Answer : 3
Q36. For frequencies above the resonant frequency , a series LC circuit behaves as a ………….. load
1. Resistive
2. Inductive
3. Capacitive
Answer : 2
Q37. Double tuned circuits are used in ……………. stages of a radio receiver
1. IF
2. Audio
3. Output
Answer : 1
Q38. A class C amplifier always drives ………. load
1. A pure resistive
2. A pure inductive
3. A pure capacitive
4. A resonant tank
Answer : 4
Q39. Tuned class C amplifiers are used for RF signals of ………………
1. Low power
2. High power
3. Very high power
Answer : 4
Q40. For frequencies below the resonant frequency , a parallel LC circuit behaves as a …………… load
1. Inductive
2. Resistive
3. Capacitive
Answer : 1
Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on Modulation and Demodulation
Q1. Modulation is done in …………..
1. Transmitter
2. Radio receiver
3. Between transmitter and radio receiver
Answer : 1
Q2. In a transmitter ……………. oscillator is used
1. Hartley
2. RC phase-shift
3. Wien-bridge
4. Crystal
Answer : 4
Q3. In India, ……………. modulation is used for radio transmission
1. Frequency
2. Amplitude
3. Phase
Answer : 2
Q4. In an AM wave useful power is carrier by ………….
1. Carrier
2. Sidebands
3. Both sidebands and carrier
Answer : 2
Q5. In amplitude modulation, bandwidth is ……………. the audio signal frequency
1. Thrice
2. Four times
3. Twice
Answer : 3
Q6. In amplitude modulation, the ………… of carrier is varied according to the strength of the signal.
1. Amplitude
2. Frequency
3. Phase
Answer : 1
Q7. Overmodulation (amplitude) occurs when signal amplitude is …………. carrier amplitude
1. Equal to
2. Greater than
3. Less than
Answer : 2
Q8. In an AM wave, the majority of the power is in …………….
1. Lower sideband
2. Upper sideband
3. Carrier
Answer : 3
Q9. At 100% modulation, the power in each sideband is ………………… of that of carrier
1. 50%
2. 40%
3. 60%
4. 25%
Answer : 4
Q10. Overmodulation results in …………..
1. Weakening of the signal
2. Excessive carrier power
3. Distortion
Answer : 3
Q11. If modulation is 100% then signal amplitude is ………….. carrier amplitude
1. Equal to
2. Greater than
3. Less than
Answer : 1
Q12. As the modulation level is increased, the carrier power …………..
1. Is increased
2. Remains the same
3. Is decreased
Answer : 2
Q13. Demodulation is done in …………
1. Receiving antenna
2. Transmitter
3. Radio receiver
4. Transmitting antenna
Answer : 3
Q14. A high Q tuned circuit will permit an amplifier to have high ……………
1. Fidelity
2. Frequency range
3. Sensitivity
4. Selectivity
Answer : 4
Q15. In radio transmission, the medium of transmission is ……………..
1. Space
2. An antenna
3. Cable
Answer : 1
Q16. If level of modulation is increased ……………. power is increased
1. Carrier
2. Sideband
3. Carrier as well as sideband
Answer : 2
Q17. In TV transmission, picture signal is ……………… modulated
1. Frequency
2. Phase
3. Amplitude
Answer : 3
Q18. In a radio receiver, noise is generally developed at ………….
1. IF stage
3. Audio stage
4. RF stage
Answer : 4
Q19. Man made noise are …………. variations.
1. Amplitude
2. Frequency
3. Phase
4. Both phase and frequency
Answer : 1
Q20. The signal voltage induced in the aerial of a radio receiver is of the order of …………….
1. mV
2. µV
3. V
Answer : 2
Q21. Superhertodyne principle refers to
1. Using a large number of amplifier stages
2. Using a push-pull circuit
3. Obtaining lower fixed intermediate frequency
Answer : 3
Q22. If a radio receiver amplifies all the signal frequencies equally well, it is said to have high …………
1. Sensitivity
2. Selectivity
3. Distortion
4. Fidelity
Answer : 4
Q23. Most of the amplification in a superhetrodyne receiver occurs at ………. stage
1. IF
2. RF amplifier
3. Audio amplifier
4. Detector
Answer : 1
Q24. The letters AVC stand for …………..
1. Audio voltage control
2. Abrupt voltage control
3. Automatic volume control
4. Automatic voltage control
Answer : 3
Q25. The superhetrodyne principle provides selectivity at ………. stage
1. RF
2. IF
3. audio
4. Before RF
Answer : 2
Q26. In superhetrodyne receiver, the input at mixer stage is ……….
1. IF and RF
2. RF and AF
3. IF and AF
4. RF and local oscillator signal
Answer : 4
Q27. The major advantage of FM over AM is …………..
1. Reception is less noisy
2. Higher carrier frequency
3. Smaller bandwidth
4. Small frequency deviation
Answer : 1
Q28. When the modulating signal controls the frequency of the carrier, we get……….
1. Phase modulation
2. Amplitude modulation
3. Frequency modulation
4. May be any one of the above
Answer : 3
Q29. Modulation refers to a low-frequency signal controlling the …………
1. Amplitude of the carrier
2. Frequency of the carrier
3. Phase of the carrier
4. May be any of the above
Answer : 4
Q30. The IF is 455 kHz. If the radio receiver is tuned to 855 kHz, the local oscillator frequency is ………….
1. 455 kHz
2. 1310 kHz
3. 1500 kHz
4. 1520 kHz
Answer : 2
Q31. If Amin = 40 and Amax = 60, what is the percentage of modulation?
1. 20 %
2. 40 %
3. 50 %
4. 10 %
Answer : 1
Q32. The function of ferrite antenna is to …………….
1. Reduce stray capacitance
2. Stabilise d.c. bias
3. Increase the Q of tuned circuit
4. Reduce noise
Answer : 3
Q33. In a radio receiver, we generally use ………….. oscillator as a local oscillator
1. Crystal
2. Wien-bridge
3. Phase-shift
4. Hartley
Answer : 4
Q34. A 100 V carrier is made to vary between 160 V and 40 V by the signal. What is the modulation factor?
1. 3
2. 6
3. 5
Answer : 2
Q35. A 50 kW carrier is to be amplitude modulated to a level of 85%. What is the carrier power after modulation?
1. 50 kW
2. 5 kW
3. 8 kW
4. 25 kW
Answer : 1
Q36. In the above question, what is the power in sidebands?
1. 8 kW
2. 6 kW
3. 06 kW
4. 9 kW
Answer : 3
Q37. In a superhetrodyne receiver, the difference frequency is chosen as the IF rather than the sum frequency because …………….
1. The difference frequency is closer to oscillator frequency
2. Lower frequencies are easier to amplify
3. Only the difference frequency can be modulated
Answer : 2
Q38. The diode detector in an AM radio receiver is usually found ………….
1. Before the first RF stage
2. After the first RF stage
3. After several stages of amplification
Answer : 3
Q39. In a TRF radio receiver, the RF and detection stages are tuned to …………
1. Radio frequency
2. IF
3. Audio frequency
Answer : 1
Q40. In TV transmission, sound signal is ………………… modulated
1. Amplitude
2. Frequency
3. Phase
Answer : 2
Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on Regulated DC Power Supply
Q1. In an unregulated power supply, if load current increases, the output voltage ………..
1. Remains the same
2. Decreases
3. Increases
Answer : 2
Q2. In an unregulated power supply, if input a.c. voltage increases, the output voltage …….
1. Increases
2. Decreases
3. Remains the same
Answer : 1
Q3. A power supply which has voltage regulation of ……….. is unregulated power supply
1. 0%
2. 5%
3. 10 %
4. 8%
Answer : 3
Q4. Commercial power supplies have voltage regulation ………….
1. of 10%
2. of 15%
3. of 25%
4. within 1%
Answer : 4
Q5. An ideal regulated power supply is one which has voltage regulation of …………
1. 0%
2. 5%
3. 10%
4. 1%
Answer : 1
Q6. A Zener diode utilises ………… characteristic for voltage regulation
1. Forward
2. Reverse
3. Both forward and reverse
Answer : 2
Q7. Zener diode can be used as …………
1. c. voltage regulator only
2. c. voltage regulator only
3. both d.c. and a.c. voltage regulator
Answer : 3
Q8. A Zener diode is used as a …………… voltage regulating device
1. Shunt
2. Series
3. Series-shunt
Answer : 1
Q9. As the junction temperature increases, the voltage breakdown point for Zener mechanism …………
1. Is increased
2. Is decreased
3. Remains the same
Answer : 2
Q10. The rupture of co-valent bonds will occur when the electric field is ………….
1. 100 V/cm
2. 6 V/cm
3. 1000 V/cm
4. More than 105 V/cm
Answer : 4
Q11. In a 15 V Zener diode , the breakdown mechanism will occur by ………….
1. Avalanche mechanism
2. Zener mechanism
3. Both Zener and avalanche mechanism
Answer : 1
Q12. A Zener diode that has very narrow depletion layer will breakdown by ……… mechanism
1. Avalanche
2. Zener
3. Both avalanche and Zener
Answer : 2
Q13. As the junction temperature increases, the voltage breakdown point for avalanche mechanism ………….
1. Remains the same
2. Decrease
3. Increases
Answer : 3
Q14. Another name for Zener diode is ………… diode
1. Breakdown
2. Voltage
3. Power
4. Current
Answer : 1
Q15. Zener diode are generally made of ……….
1. Germanium
2. Silicon
3. Carbon
Answer : 2
Q16. For increasing the voltage rating, zeners are connected in …………..
1. Parallel
2. Series-parallel
3. Series
Answer : 3
Q17. In a Zener voltage regulator, the changes in load current produce changes in …………….
1. Zener current
2. Zener voltage
3. Zener voltage as well as Zener current
Answer : 1
Q18. A Zener voltage regulator is used for …………… load currents
1. High
2. Very high
3. Moderate
4. Small
Answer : 4
Q19. A Zener voltage regulator will cease to act as a voltage regulator if Zener current becomes ……………
1. Less than load current
2. Zero
3. More than load current
Answer : 2
Q20. If the doping level is increased, the breakdown voltage of the Zener …………..
1. Remains the same
2. Is increased
3. Is decreased
Answer : 3
Q21. A 30 V Zener will have depletion layer width …………. that of 10 V Zener
1. More than
2. Less than
3. Equal to
Answer : 1
Q22. The current in a Zener diode is limited by …………..
1. External resistance
2. Power dissipation
3. Both (1) and (2)
Answer : 3
Q23. A 5 mA changes in Zener current produces a 50 mA change in Zener voltage. What is the Zener impedance?
1. 1Ω
2. 1Ω
3. 100 Ω
4. 10 Ω
Answer : 4
Q24. A certain regulator has a no-load voltage of 6 V and a full-load output of 5.82 V. What is the load regulation?
1. 09%
2. 87 %
3. 72 %
Answer : 1
Q25. What is true about the breakdown voltage in a Zener diode?
1. It decreases when load current increases
2. It destroys the diode
3. It equals current times the resistance
4. It is approximately constant
Answer : 4
Q26. Which of these is the best description for a Zener diode?
1. It is a diode
2. It is a constant current device
3. It is a constant-voltage device
4. It works in the forward region
Answer : 3
Q27. A Zener diode …………..
1. Is a battery
2. Acts like a battery in the breakdown region
3. Has a barrier potential of 1 V
4. Is forward biased
Answer : 2
Q28. The load voltage is approximately constant when a Zener diode is ……….
1. Forward biased
2. Unbiased
3. Reverse biased
4. Operating in the breakdown region
Answer : 4
Q29. In a loaded Zener regulator, which is the largest Zener current?
1. Series current
2. Zener current
3. Load current
Answer : 1
Q30. If the load resistance decreases in a Zener regulator, then Zener current …………….
1. Decreases
2. Stays the same
3. Increases
Answer : 1
Q31. If the input a.c. voltage to regulated or ordinary power supply increases by 5% what will be the approximate change in d.c. output voltage?
1. 10%
2. 20%
3. 15%
4. 5%
Answer : 4
Q32. If the load current drawn by unregulated power supply increases, the d.c. output voltage ………..
1. Increases
2. Decreases
3. Stays the same
Answer : 2
Q33. If the load current drawn by unregulated power supply increases, the d.c. output voltage ………
1. Increases
2. Decreases
3. Stays the same
Answer : 2
Q34. A power supply has a voltage regulation of 1%. If the no-load voltage is 20 V, what is the full-load voltage?
1. 8V
2. 7V
3. 6V
4. 2V
Answer : 1
Q35. Two similar 15 V Zeners are connected in series. What is the regulated output voltage?
1. 15 V
2. 5V
3. 30 V
4. 45 V
Answer : 3
Q36. A power supply can deliver a maximum rated current of 0.5 A at full-load output voltage of 20 V. What is the minimum load resistance that you can connect across the supply?
1. 10 Ω
2. 20 Ω
3. 15 Ω
4. 40 Ω
Answer : 4
Q37. In a regulated power supply, two similar 15 V zeners are connected in series. The input voltage is 45 V d.c. If each Zener has a maximum current rating of 300 mA, what should be the value
of the series resistance?
1. 10 Ω
2. 50 Ω
3. 25 Ω
4. 40 Ω
Answer : 2
Q38. A Zener regulator …………… in the power supply
1. Increases the ripple
2. Decreases the ripple
3. Neither increases nor decreases the ripple
Answer : 2
Q39. When load current is zero, the Zener current will be ………
1. Zero
2. Minimum
3. Maximum
Answer : 3
Q40. The Zener current will be minimum when …………
1. Load current is maximum
2. Load current is minimum
3. Load current is zero
Answer : 1
Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on Solid State Switching Circuits
Q1. A switch has ………………
1. One state
2. Two states
3. Three states
Answer : 2
Q2. A relay is ……….. switch
1. A mechanical
2. An electronic
3. An electromechanical
Answer : 3
Q3. The switch that has the fastest speed of operation is ………….. switch
1. Electronic
2. Mechanical
3. Electromechanical
Answer : 1
Q4. The most inexpensive switch is ………….. switch
1. Electronic
2. Mechanical
3. Electromechanical
Answer : 1
Q5. The main disadvantage of a mechanical switch is that it………….
1. Is operated mechanically
2. Is costly
3. Has high inertia
Answer : 3
Q6. When a transistor is driven to saturation, ideally the output is ………………
1. VCC
2. 0
3. VCC/2
4. 2VCC
Answer : 2
Q7. The maximum speed of electronic switch can be ………….. operations per second
1. 104
2. 10
3. 1000
4. 109
Answer : 4
Q8. A relay is superior to a mechanical switch because it ……………
1. Is relatively inexpensive
2. Does not require moving contacts
3. Combines control with power amplification
Answer : 3
Q9. When a transistor is driven to cut off, ideally the output is …………..
1. VCC
2. 0
3. VCC/2
4. VCC/3
Answer : 1
Q10. ………………. multivibrator is a square wave oscillator
1. Monostable
2. Astable
3. Bistable
Answer : 2
Q11. An astable multivibrator has ………….
1. One stable state
2. Two stable states
3. No stable state
Answer : 3
Q12. If d.c. supply of 10 V is fed to a differentiating circuit, then output will be …….
1. 20 V
2. 10 V
3. 0V
Answer : 3
Q13. If the input to a differentiating circuit is a saw-tooth wave, then output will be ………….
1. Square
2. Triangular
3. Sine
4. Rectangular
Answer : 4
Q14. A bistable multivibrator has …………..
2. One stable state
3. No stable state
Answer : 1
Q15. If a square wave is fed to a differentiating circuit, the output will be …………
1. Sine wave
2. Sharp narrow pulses
3. Rectangular wave
4. Triangular wave
Answer : 2
Q16. An integrating circuit is a simple RC series circuit with output taken across ………
1. Both R and C
2. R
3. C
Answer : 3
Q17. For an integrating circuit to be effective , the RC product should be ………. the time period of the input wave
1. 5 times greater than
2. 5 times smaller than
3. Equal to
4. At least 10 times greater than
Answer : 4
Q18. A differentiating circuit is a simple RC circuit with output taken across …………..
1. R
2. C
3. Both R and C
Answer : 1
Q19. A monostable vibrator has …………..
1. No stable state
2. One stable state
Answer : 2
Q20. The multivibrator which generates square wave of its own is the ………… multivibrator
1. Monostable
2. Bistable
3. Astable
Answer : 3
Q21. For a differentiating circuit to be effective, the RC product should be ………… the time period of the input wave
1. Equal to
2. 5 times greater than
3. 5 times smaller than
4. At least 10 times greater than
Answer : 4
Q22. When a rectangular voltage waveform is applied to a capacitor, then the current waveform is ……………
1. Rectangular
2. Sinusoidal
3. Sawtooth
4. Square
Answer : 1
Q23. The positive clipper is that which removes the …………………. half-cycles of the input voltage.
1. Negative
2. Positive
Answer : 2
Q24. A clamping circuits adds ………………… component to the signal
1. c.
2. c.
3. both d.c. and a.c.
Answer : 1
Q25. One would find a clamping circuit in ………………..
2. Radio transmitter
3. Radio receiver
4. Television receiver
Answer : 4
Q26. When a transistor is used as an amplifier, it is operated in the ……………… region
1. Off
2. Saturation
3. Active
Answer : 3
Q27. When the transistor (CE arrangement) is in the cut off region, the collector current is ……………..
1. ICBO
2. ICEO
3. (β + 1) ICEO
4. IC(sat)
Answer : 2
Q28. A negative clipper removes the ……………… half-cycles of the input voltage
1. Negative
2. Positive
Answer : 1
Q29. If the input to an integrating circuit is a succession of alternating positive and negative pulses of very short duration, the output will be …………… wave
1. Rectangular
2. Triangular
3. Sine
4. Square
Answer : 4
Q30. In a multivibrator, we have ………. feedback.
1. Negative
2. 100 % positive
Answer : 2
Rectifiers Questions and Answers
Q1. What is a dc power supply?
The part of the equipment that converts ac into dc is called dc power supply.
Q2. What is a rectifier?

A rectifier is a device which converts alternating current (or voltage) into unidirectional current (or voltage).
Q3. What is PIV of a diode in a rectifier circuit?

Peak Inverse Voltage (PIV) is the maximum possible voltage that occurs across a diode when it is reverse biased.
Q4. What is the importance of peak inverse voltage?

If the applied voltage in reverse biased condition exceeds peak inverse voltage (PIV) rating of the diode, then the diode may get damaged.
Q5. Why half-wave rectifiers are generally not used in dc power supply?
The type of supply available from half-wave rectifier is not satisfactory for general power supply. That is why it is generally not used in dc power supply.
Q6. Why diodes are not operated in the breakdown region in rectifiers?
In breakdown region, a diode has a risk of getting damaged or burnt because the magnitude of current flowing through it increases in an uncontrollable manner. That is why didoes are not operated in the
breakdown region in rectifiers.
Q7. Define ripple as referred to in a rectifier circuit.

The ac component contained in the pulsating output of a rectifier is known as ripple.
Q8. What is transformer utilization factor?

Transformer utilization factor is defined as the ratio of power delivered to the load and ac rating of secondary of supply power transformer.
Q9. The output of a 60Hz full-wave bridge rectifier has a 60 Hz ripple. It this circuit working properly?
A full-wave rectifier with 60Hz input must have lowest ripple frequency equal to twice the input frequency i.e. 120Hz. If the ripple frequency is 60Hz, it means some diodes in the circuit are not working.
Q10. What is meant by filter?

Filter is a device that converts pulsating output of rectifier into a steady dc level.
Q11. Why series inductor and L-section filters cannot be used with half-wave rectifiers?
Series inductor and L-section filters cannot be used with half-wave rectifiers because operation of series inductor depends upon the current through it and needs a minimum current to flow at all times.
Q12. Why capacitor input filter is preferred to choke input filter?

In capacitor input filter, the dc output is much larger and ripples are less in comparison to those in choke input filter. So, capacitor input filter is preferred to choke input filter.
Q13. Why π-filters are not suitable for varying loads?

Voltage regulation in case of π-filters is very poor and, therefore, π-filters are not suitable for varying loads.
Q14. Why R-C filters are suitable only for light loads?
R-C filters have poor voltage regulation and need adequate ventilation to dissipate the heat developed in the resistor R. Thus R-C filters are suitable only for light loads.
Q15. Why is bleeder resistance employed in a filter circuit?

A resistance, called the bleeder resistance, is placed across the filter ouput, to provide flow of necessary minimum current through the choke at all time.
Q16. What is the purpose of bleeder resistance in a rectifier circuit using L-C filter?
Bleeder resistance RB is placed in parallel with the load so as to maintain a certain minimum current through the choke, even the load resistor gets open-circuited, and improves filtering action.
Q17. What is meant by voltage regulation of a dc power supply?
The change in voltage from no-load to full-load condition is known as voltage regulation.
Q18. Why is it necessary to include voltage stabilizer in a power supply?

The magnitude of output dc voltage may vary with the variation of either the input ac voltage or the magnitude of load current. So at the output of a rectifier-filter combination a voltage stabilizer is required.
Logic Gates and Boolean Algebra Questions and Answers

Q1. What is Boolean Algebra?
Boolean algebra is a mathematic system of logic in which truth functions are expresses as symbols and then these symbols are manipulated to arrive at conclusion.
Q2. What are the basic logic elements?

Basic logic elements are NOT gate, AND gate, OR gate and the flip-flop.
Q3. What is a truth table?

Truth table is a table that gives outputs for all possible combinations of inputs to a logic circuit.
Q4. Define positive logic and negative logic.

If the higher of the two voltages represents a 1 and the lower voltage represents a 0, then the logic is called a positive logic. On the other hand, if the lower voltage represents a 1 and the higher voltage a 0,
we have a negative logic.
Q5. What is pulse logic system?

A logic system in which a bit is recognized by the presence or absence of a pulse is called a pulse or dynamic logic system.
Q6. What is an inverter?
An inverter is a logic gate whose output is the inverse or complement of its input.
Q7. What are the universal logic gates?

Universal gate is a gate that can perform all the basic logical operations such as NAND and NOR gates.
Q8. What is the specialty of NAND and NOR gates?

The specialty of NAND and NOR gates is that they are universal gates and can perform all the basic logical operations.
Q9. Why NAND-NAND realization is preferred over AND-OR realization?

NAND-NAND realization needs only one type of gate(NAND), that minimizes IC package counter.
Q10. Why is a two-input NAND gate called universal gate?

NAND gate is called universal gate because any digital system can be implemented with the NAND gate. Sequential and combinational circuits can be constructed with these gates because element circuits
like flip-flop can be constructed from two NAND gates connected back-to-back. NAND gates are common in hardware because they are easily available in the ICs form. A NAND gate is in fact a NOT-AND
gate. It can be obtained by connecting a NOT gate in the output of an AND gate.
Q12. What is associate law?

Associate law is a low of addition and multiplication and according to this law grouping of the variable is the ORing or ANDing of several variables is immaterial and the results obtained are the same.
Bipolar Junction Transistors (BJTs) Questions and Answers

Q1. Explain why an ordinary junction transistor is called bipolar?
Because the transistor operation is carried out by two types of charge carriers (majority and minority carriers), an ordinary transistor is called bipolar.
Q2. Why transistor is called current controlled device?

The output voltage, current or power is controlled by the input current in a transistor. So it is called the current controlled device.
Q3. What is the significance of the arrow-head in the transistor symbol?

Arrow head is always marked on the emitter. The direction indicated the conventional direction of current flow( from emitter-to-base in case of p-n-p transistor and from base-to-emitter in case of n-p-n
transistor). Generally no arrow head is marked for collector since its reverse leakage current is always opposite to the direction of emitter current.
Q4. Discuss the need for biasing the transistor.

For normal operation, base-emitter junction should be forward biased and the collector-base junction reverse biased. The amount of bias required is significant for the establishment of the operating or the Q-
point which is dictated by the mode of operation desired.
In case the transistor is not biased properly, it would :
o work inefficiently
o produce distortion in the output signal
o with the change in transistor parameters or temperature rise, the operating point may shift and the amplifier output will be unstable.
Q5. What are ‘emitter injection efficiently’ and ‘base transport factor’ and how do they influence the transistor operation?
The ratio of current of injected carriers at emitter junction to the total emitter current is called the emitter junction efficiency. The ratio of collector current to base current is known as transport factor
i.e. β* = IC/IB
The larger the value of emitter injection efficiency, the larger the injected carriers at emitter junction and this increases the collector current. The larger the β* value the larger the injected carriers across
collector junction and hence collector current increases.
Q6. Which of the transistor currents is always the largest? Which is always the smallest? Which two currents are relatively close
in magnitude?
The emitter current IE is always the largest one. The base current IB is always the smallest. The collector current IC and emitter current IE are relatively close in magnitude.
Q7. Why silicon type transistors are more often used than germanium type?
Because silicon transistor has smaller cut-off current I CBO, small variations in ICBO due to variations in temperature and high operating temperature as compared to those in case of germanium type.
Q8. Why collector is made larger than emitter and base?
Collector is made physically larger than emitter and base because collector is to dissipate much power.
Q9. Why the width of the base region of a transistor is kept very small compared to other regions?
Base region of a transistor is kept very small and very lightly doped so as to pass most of the injected charge carriers to the collector.
Q10. Why emitter is always forward biased?

Emitter is always forward biased w.r.t base so as to supply majority charge carriers to the base.
Q11. Why collector is always reverse-biased w.r.t base?

Collector is always reverse-biased w.r.t baseso as to remove the charge carriers from the base-collector junction.
Q12. Can a transistor be obtained by connecting tow semiconductor diodes back-to-back?

No. Because in case of two discrete back-to-back connected diodes there are four doped regions instead of three and there is nothing that resembles a thin base region between an emitter and a collector.
Q13. How α and β are related to each other?

α and β are related as below:
α= β/(1+ β) or β= α/(1- α)
Q14. Define beta of a transistor.
The β factor transistor is the common emitter current gain of that transistor and is defined as the ratio of collector current to the base current :
Β = IC/IB
Q15. Why is there a maximum limit of collector supply voltage for a transistor?
Although collector current is practically independent of collector supply voltage over the transistor operating range, but if V CB is increase beyond a certain vale collector current I Cis eventually increases
rapidly and possibly destroys the device.
Q16. Explain why ICEO >> ICBO?
The collector cut-off current denoted by ICBO is much larger than ICBO. ICEO is given as :
ICEO = ICBO/(1-α)
Because α is nearly equal to unity (slightly less than unity), ICEO >> ICBO
Q17. Why CE configuration is most popular in amplifier circuits?
CE configuration is mainly used because its current, voltage and power gains are quite high and the ratio of output impedance and input impedance are quite moderate.
Q18. Why CC configuration is called a voltage buffer? What is other name?

Because of its high input impedance and low output impedance, the common collector circuit finds wide application as a buffer amplifier between a high impedance source and low impedance load. it is
called a voltage buffer. Its other name is emitter follower.
Q19. What are the main purposes for which a CC amplifier may be used.
Because of its high input impedance and low output impedance, the common collector circuit finds wide application as a buffer amplifier between a high impedance source and low impedance load.
Q20.Which configuration among CE, CB, CC gives highest input impedance and no voltage gain?
Common collector configuration has the highest input impedance and has voltage gain less than unity.
Q21. What do you understand by collector reverse saturation? In which configuration does it have a greater value?
When input current (IE in case of CB configuration and IB in case of CE configuration) is zero, collector current I C is not zero although it is very small. In fact this is the reverse leakage current or collector
reverse saturation current (ICBO or simply ICO in CB configuration and ICEO in CE configuration). In case of CE configuration it is much more than that in case of CB configuration.
Q22. What is meant by operating point?
Quiescent point is a point on the dc load line which represents VCE and IC in the absence of ac signal and variations in VCE and IC take place around this point when ac signal is applied.
Q23. Explain how BJT can be used as an amplifier.
A transistor operates as an amplifier by transfer of the current from low impedance loop to high impedance loop.
BJT Amplifiers Questions and Answers

Q1. What is an amplifier?
The device that amplifies the amplitude of the input signal is called the amplifier. An amplifier may be defined as a device that increases the current, voltage or power of an input signal with the help of a
transistor by furnishing the additional power from a separate source of supply.
Q2. What is meant by small signal amplifier?

When the input signal is quite weak and produces less small fluctuations in the output current in comparison to its quiescent value, the amplifier is called the small signal or voltage amplifier.
Q3. What is meant by phase reversal?

In a CE configuration, the output voltage increases in the negative direction when the input signal voltage increases in the positive direction and vice-versa. This is called the phase reversal and and causes a
phase difference of 180o between the input signal and output voltage.
Q4. What is an ac emitter resistance?
The dynamic resistance of the emitter-base junction diode is called the ac emitter resistance.
Q5. What do you mean by operating point?

The zero signal values of IC and VCEare known as the operating point. It is called operating point beacue the variations of IC and VCE take place about this point when signal is applied. It is also known as the
quiescent or Q-point.
Q6. What is transistor biasing?
The proper flow of zero signal collector current and the maintenance of proper collector emitter voltage during the passage of signal is called the transistor biasing.
Q7. What is faithful amplification?

The process of raising the strength of a weak signal without any change in its general shape is referred to as faithful amplification.
Q8. What is the effect of removal of bypass capacitor in a CE amplifier circuit?

Removal of bypass capacitor in a CE amplifier circuit causes excessive degeneration in the amplifier circuit and therefore reduction in voltage gain.
Q9. Why common-collector circuit is known as an emitter follower?

The CC circuit amplifier is called an emitter follower because in this circuit the output voltage at the emitter terminal follows the input signal applied to the base terminal.
Q10. What are the main purposes for which a common-collector amplifier may be used?
For a common collector amplifier, current gain is as high as for CE amplifier, voltage gain is less than unity, input resistance is the highest and the output resistance is the lowest of all the three (CE, ,CC and
CB) configurations. This circuit finds wide applications as a buffer amplifier between a high impedance source and a low load.
Cathode Ray Oscilloscope (CRO) Questions and Answers

Q1. What is a cathode ray oscilloscope (CRO)?
A CRO is an electronic device with a CRT as its main component and other associated circuits consisting of a power supply unit, a sawtooth-wave generator, horizon and vertical amplifiers .
Q2. How is CRO superior to ordinary measuring instruments?

CRO is an electronic device that gives graphical representation of alternating quantities under examination. The CRO gives very accurate measurements and is free from the errorsintroduced by the moving
parts. It is also from damping mechanisms and other inertia containing parts.
Q3. For what vertical and horizontal plates are provide in a CRO?
Horizontal and vertical plates are provided between electron gun and screen to deflect the beam according to the input signal.
Q4. For what a triggering circuit is provided in a CRO?

In a CRO, a triggering circuit is provided for synchronising two types of deflections so that horizontal deflection starts at the same point of the input vertical signal each time it sweeps.
Q5. What are the essential components of a CRT?

The essential components of a CRT are electron gun, focussing and accelerating anodes, horizontal and vertical deflection plates, and evacuated glass envelope with phosphorescent screen.
Q6. For what electron gun assembly is provided in CRT?

The sole function of an electron gun assembly in a CRO is to provide a narrow and sharply focused electron beam with is accelerated towards the phosphor screen.
Q7. Why is the grid in a CRO provided with a hole in it?

The hole in a grid of a CRO is provided to allow passage for electrons through it and concentrate the beam of electrons along the axis of the tube.
Q8. What is meant by the deflection sensitivity of a CRO?
The deflection sensitivity of a CRO is defined as the vertical deflection of the beam on the screen per unit deflecting voltage.
Q9. What is meant by the deflection factor of a CRO?

The deflection factor of a CRO is the reciprocal of the deflection sensitivity.
Q10. What is Astigmatism control?

Astigmatism control is an adjustment that will provide sharp focus over the entire screen.
Q11. What is graticule?

Graticule is a scale on transparent material that is fitted to the face of CRT for the purpose of measurement.
Q12. What is aquadag?

Coating of a conducting material, known as aquadag, is provided over the interior surface of CRT in order to accelerate the electron beam after passing between the deflation plates and to collect electrons
produced by the secondary emission when electron beam strikes the screen.
Q13. What is meant by retrace time?

Retrace time is the time required by the electron beam to return to its original position on a CRT screen after being deflected to the right by a sawtooth waveform.
Q14. What is sweep time?

Sweep time is time duration during which the beam is swept from left to right on the screen of a CRT by the linearly increasing sawtooth voltage.
Q15. What is a Lissajous pattern?

Lissajous pattern is a pattern that results from applying periodic signals to the deflection plates of a CRO.
Q16. How is focussing achieved?

Focussing is achieved by various sets of plated forming a sort of electronic lens. In general, there are three sets of plates. Voltages at anode 1 and 2 are kept fixed while it is variable on the third anode. By
varying the voltage on the third anode, the spot may be focussed.
Electronic Meters Questions and Answers

Q1. What is the difference between an ammeter and a voltmeter?
Ammeter is a low resistance indicating instrument while the voltmeter is a high resistance one.
Q2. Why an ammeter should be of very low resistance?

Ammeter, which is connected in series with the circuit carrying the current under measurement, must be over very low resistance so that the voltage drop across the ammeter and power absorbed from the
circuit are as low as possible.
Q3. Why a voltmeter should be of very high resistance?

Voltmeter, which is connected in parallel with the circuit across which the voltage is to be measured, must be of very high resistance so that the current flowing through the voltmeter and the power absorbed
from the circuit are minimum possible.
Q4. How an ammeter can be changed to a voltmeter?

An ammeter or low range can be converted into a voltmeter by connecting a high resistance in series with it provided the current through the series combination is within the range of the ammeter when
connected across the voltage under measurement.
Q5. What happens when an ammeter is connected across the circuit?

If an ammeter is connected in parallel to the circuit like a voltmeter, a very high current will flow through it which will produce such an excessive heat the insulation of the wire carrying the current will be
destroyed. The wire may itself melt away. Thus the instrument will get damaged.
Q6. What happens when a voltmeter is connected in series with the circuit?
If a voltmeter is connected in series with the circuit, the circuit resistance will become too large and consequently a very small current will flow through it. The instrument will, however, read almost the same
emf acting on the circuit.
Q7. What do you understand by ammeter shunt?

An ammeter shunt is merely a low resistance that is placed across the coil circuit of the instrument in order to measure fairly large currents.
Q8. What do you understand by voltmeter multiplier?

Voltmeter multiplier is a high non-inductive resistance connected in series with the voltmeter coil and is used for increasing the range of a voltmeter.
Q9. What is the advantage of using Ayrton or universal shunt in multi-range ammeters?
The advantage of using Ayrton or universal shunt is that it eliminates the possibility of the meter being in a circuit without a shunt.
Q10. What is VOM?

The volt-ohm-milliammeter (VOM) is another name of multimeter. It is also called AVO meter.
Q11. What is a multimeter?

The instrument, which contains a function switch to connect the appropriate circuits to the d’Arsonval movement, is often called a multimeter or ampere-volt-ohm (AVO) meter or volt-ohm-milliammeter
(VOM).
Q12. Indicate the various quantities that can be measured with a multimeter.
Multimeteris used for measument of current (dc as well as ac), voltage (dc as well as ac) and resistance. With the external source, high resistance (exceeding 1MΩ),inductance and capacitance can be
measured with this instrument.
Q13. What are the shortcomings of a multimeter?

It may be noted that the ac sensitivity of a half-wave ac meter is only 45% of the dc sensitivity, therefore, the loading effect is greater while measuring ac voltages than while measuring corresponding dc
voltages.
The rectifying action depends upon the frequency to some extent due to capacitance effect and rectifier instruments show lower readings. Instrument indications may be in error by as much as 0.5% decrease
for every 1kHz rise in frequency.
Q14. Where LCR meter is used?

LCR meters are used to measure the values of inductance (L), capacitance (C) and resistance (R) directly.
Q15. What is Q-meter?
The Q-meter is an instrument designed for measurement of Q-factor of a coil as well as for the measurement of electrical properties of coils and capacitors.
Q16. On what principle does a Q-meter operate?

The Q-meter operates on the principle of series resonance i.e, under resonant condition of an acseries, circuit voltage across the capacitor is equal to the applied voltage times of Q of the circuit.
Q17. What is Q-factor of the coil?

The ratio of the inductive reactance to the effective resistance of the coil is called the Q-factor of the coil.
Q18. What are the different parameters that can be measured using a Q-meter?
The Q-meter is used for measuring Q-factor, inductance, effective resistance, self-capacitance, bandwidth and capacitance.
Q19. What are the factors which the measurement accuracy of Q-meter?
o Factors affecting measurement accuracy are:
o Distributed capacitance or self capacitance of the coil.
o Residual inductance of the instrument.
o Conductance of voltmeter.
o Shunt resistor of Q-meter.
Q20. Why the actual Q-factor of the coil is somewhat larger than the calculated Q-factor?
Calculated value of Q-factor is somewhat smaller than its actual value because Q-factor measurement includes the losses of the resonating capacitor, voltmeter and the shunt resistance R sh.
Number Systems and Codes Questions and Answers
Q1. What is meant by radix (or base) of a number system?
Radix or base of a number system is the number of digits or distinct symbols it uses to represent various numbers.
Q2. What is a weighted code?

In a weighed code the value of a digit in a 4-bit depends on its position such as in BCD code.
Q3. What is non-weighted code?

In a non-weighted code, no definite weights are assigned to the four digit position such as in BCD code.
Q4. What is meant by LSB and MSB?

The right most bit of a binary number is called least-significant bit (LSB) while the left most bit of a binary number is known as the most-significant bit (MSB).
Q5. What are octal and hexadecimal systems?

The number systems with base (or radix) 8 and 16 are known as octal number system and hexadecimal number system respectively.
Q6. What is meant by BCD code?

BCD code is a decimal system with each digit encoded in its binary equivalent of 4 digits.
Q7. What is an excess-3 code?

Excess-3 code is derived from the natural BCD code by adding (0011) to each coded number.
Q8. Why hexadecimal code is widely used in digital systems?

It is very convenient to enter binary data in a digital system using hex code.
Q9. What is the difference between binary code and BCD?

BCD is not a number system like binary. It is a decimal system with each decimal digit encoded in its binary equivalent. A straight binary code takes the complete decimal number and represents it in binary
while the BCD code converts each decimal digit to binary individually.
Q10. State the disadvantage of a 8-4-2-1 code.

BCD requires more bits than straight binary to represent decimal numbers of more than one digit. This is because BCD does not use all possible 4-bit groups and is, therefore, inefficient.
Q11. Why is an excess-3 code called an unweighted code?

Since no definite weights can be assigned to the four digit positions in an excess-3 code, it is an unweighted code.
Q12. Explain the use of excess-3 code.

The key feature of the excess-3 code is that it is self-complementing code. It means that 1’s complement of the coded number yields 9’s complementing of the number itself. The self-complementing property
makes the ecess-3 code useful in some arithmetic operations, because subtraction can be performed using 9’ complement method and 1’s complement can be easily produced with digital logic circuits by
simply inverting each bit.
Q13. What are the advantages of Gray code?

In Gray code if we go from any one decimal number to the next, only one bit of the Gray code changes. Because of this feature, an amount of switching is minimized and the reliability of the switching
systems is improved.
Q14. What is an alphanumeric code?

The codes used for representing letters of alphabet, punctuation marks and other special characters along with numbers are called alphanumeric codes.
Q15. Which is the most commonly used code for representing alphanumeric information?
ASCII (American Standard Code for Information Interchange) is the most widely used alphanumeric code. It is a 7-bit code.

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Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on Transistor Biasing

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PT = 800 (1+ (0.5)2/2) = 900 W

The bandwidth required by 25 KHz signal = 2 * 25= 50 KHz

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The total power in an AM is given by

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