Cambridge Institute of Technology

Electronics Instrumentation Engineering

4th Semester
Multiple Choice Questions and Answers
Semiconductor :

Q1. A semiconductor is formed by ……… bonds.

1. Covalent
2. Electrovalent
3. Co-ordinate
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q2. A semiconductor has ………… temperature coefficient of resistance.
1. Positive
2. Zero
3. Negative
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q3. The most commonly used semiconductor is ………..
1. Germanium
2. Silicon
3. Carbon
4. Sulphur
Answer : 2
Q4. A semiconductor has generally ……………… valence electrons.
1. 2
2. 3
3. 6
4. 4
Answer : 4
Q5. The resistivity of pure germanium under standard conditions is about ……….
4
1. 6 x 10 Ω cm
2. 60 Ω cm
6
3. 3 x 10 Ω cm
-4
4. 6 x 10 Ω cm
Answer : 2
Q6. The resistivity of a pure silicon is about ……………
1. 100 Ω cm
 2. 6000 Ω cm
5
3. 3 x 10 Ω m
-8
4. 6 x 10 Ω cm
Answer : 2
Q7. When a pure semiconductor is heated, its resistance …………..
1. Goes up
2. Goes down
3. Remains the same
4. Can’t say
Answer : 2
Q8. The strength of a semiconductor crystal comes from ……..
1. Forces between nuclei
2. Forces between protons
3. Electron-pair bonds
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q9. When a pentavalent impurity is added to a pure semiconductor, it becomes ………
1. An insulator
2. An intrinsic semiconductor
3. p-type semiconductor
4. n-type semiconductor
Answer : 4
Q10. Addition of pentavalent impurity to a semiconductor creates many ……..
1. Free electrons
2. Holes
3. Valence electrons
4. Bound electrons
Answer : 1
Q11. A pentavalent impurity has ………. Valence electrons
1. 3
2. 5
3. 4
4. 6
Answer : 2
A12. An n-type semiconductor is ………
1. Positively charged
2. Negatively charged
3. Electrically neutral
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q13. A trivalent impurity has ….. valence electrons
 1. 4
2. 5
3. 6
4. 3
Answer : 4
A14. Addition of trivalent impurity to a semiconductor creates many ……..
1. Holes
2. Free electrons
3. Valence electrons
4. Bound electrons
Answer : 1
Q15. A hole in a semiconductor is defined as …………….
1. A free electron
2. The incomplete part of an electron pair bond
3. A free proton
4. A free neutron
Answer : 2
Q16. The impurity level in an extrinsic semiconductor is about ….. of pure semiconductor.
8
1. 10 atoms for 10 atoms
8
2. 1 atom for 10 atoms
4
3. 1 atom for 10 atoms
4. 1 atom for 100 atoms
Answer : 2
Q17. As the doping to a pure semiconductor increases, the bulk resistance of the
semiconductor ………..
1. Remains the same
2. Increases
3. Decreases
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q18. A hole and electron in close proximity would tend to ……….
1. Repel each other
2. Attract each other
3. Have no effect on each other
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q19. In a semiconductor, current conduction is due to ……..
1. Only holes
2. Only free electrons
3. Holes and free electrons
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q20. The random motion of holes and free electrons due to thermal agitation is called
……….
1. Diffusion
2. Pressure
3. Ionization
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q21. A forward biased pn junction diode has a resistance of the order of
1. Ω
2. kΩ
3. MΩ
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q22. The battery connections required to forward bias a pn junction are ……
1. +ve terminal to p and –ve terminal to n
2. -ve terminal to p and +ve terminal to n
3. -ve terminal to p and –ve terminal to n
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q23. The barrier voltage at a pn junction for germanium is about ………
1. 5 V
2. 3 V
3. Zero
4. 3 V
Answer : 4
Q24. In the depletion region of a pn junction, there is a shortage of ……..
1. Acceptor ions
2. Holes and electrons
3. Donor ions
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q25. A reverse bias pn junction has …………
1. Very narrow depletion layer
2. Almost no current
3. Very low resistance
4. Large current flow
Answer : 2
Q26. A pn junction acts as a ……….
1. Controlled switch
2. Bidirectional switch
 3. Unidirectional switch
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q27. A reverse biased pn junction has resistance of the order of
1. Ω
2. kΩ
3. MΩ
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q28. The leakage current across a pn junction is due to …………..
1. Minority carriers
2. Majority carriers
3. Junction capacitance
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q29. When the temperature of an extrinsic semiconductor is increased, the pronounced
effect is on……
1. Junction capacitance
2. Minority carriers
3. Majority carriers
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q30. With forward bias to a pn junction, the width of depletion layer ………
1. Decreases
2. Increases
3. Remains the same
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q31. The leakage current in a pn junction is of the order of
1. A
2. mA
3. kA
4. µA
Answer : 4
Q32. In an intrinsic semiconductor, the number of free electrons ………
1. Equals the number of holes
2. Is greater than the number of holes
3. Is less than the number of holes
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q33. At room temperature, an intrinsic semiconductor has ……….
 1. Many holes only
2. A few free electrons and holes
3. Many free electrons only
4. No holes or free electrons
Answer : 2
Q34. At absolute temperature, an intrinsic semiconductor has ……….
1. A few free electrons
2. Many holes
3. Many free electrons
4. No holes or free electrons
Answer : 4
Q35. At room temperature, an intrinsic silicon crystal acts approximately as ……
1. A battery
2. A conductor
3. An insulator
4. A piece of copper wire
Answer : 3
Q36. Under normal conditions a diode conducts current when it is ……………
1. reverse biased
2. forward biased
3. avalanched
4. saturated
Answer : 2
Q37. The term bias in electronics usually means ……….
1. the value of ac voltage in the signal.
2. the condition of current through a pn junction.
3. the value of dc voltages for the device to operate properly.
4. the status of the diode.
Answer : 3

Diode :

Q1. A crystal diode has ………

1. one pn junction
2. two pn junctions
3. three pn junctions
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q2. A crystal diode has forward resistance of the order of ……………
1. kΩ
2. Ω
3. MΩ
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q3. If the arrow of crystal diode symbol is positive w.r.t. bar, then diode is …………..
biased.
1. forward
2. reverse
3. either forward or reverse
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q4. The reverse current in a diode is of the order of ……………….
1. kA
2. mA
3. μA
4. A
Answer : 3
Q5. The forward voltage drop across a silicon diode is about …………………
1. 2.5 V
2. 3 V
3. 10 V
4. 0.7 V
Answer : 4
Q6. A crystal diode is used as ……………
1. an amplifier
2. a rectifier
3. an oscillator
4. a voltage regulator
Answer : 2
Q7. The d.c. resistance of a crystal diode is ………….. its a.c. resistance
1. the same as
2. more than
3. less than
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q8. An ideal crystal diode is one which behaves as a perfect ……….. when forward biased.
1. conductor
2. insulator
3. resistance material
 4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q9. The ratio of reverse resistance and forward resistance of a germanium crystal diode is
about ………….
1. 1 : 1
2. 100 : 1
3. 1000 : 1
4. 40,000 : 1
Answer : 4
Q 10. The leakage current in a crystal diode is due to …………….
1. minority carriers
2. majority carriers
3. junction capacitance
4. none of the above
Answer :1
Q11. If the temperature of a crystal diode increases, then leakage current ………..
1. remains the same
2. decreases
3. increases
4. becomes zero
Answer :3
Q12. The PIV rating of a crystal diode is ………….. that of equivalent vacuum diode
1. the same as
2. lower than
3. more than
4. none of the above
Answer :2
Q13. If the doping level of a crystal diode is increased, the breakdown voltage………….
1. remains the same
2. is increased
3. is decreased
4. none of the above
Answer :3
Q14. The knee voltage of a crystal diode is approximately equal to ………….
1. applied voltage
2. breakdown voltage
3. forward voltage
4. barrier potential
Answer :4
Q15. When the graph between current through and voltage across a device is a straight
line, the device is referred to as ……………….
 1. linear
2. active
3. nonlinear
4. passive
Answer :1
Q16. When the crystal current diode current is large, the bias is …………
1. forward
2. inverse
3. poor
4. reverse
Answer :1
Q17. A crystal diode is a …………… device
1. non-linear
2. bilateral
3. linear
4. none of the above
Answer :1
Q18. A crystal diode utilises …………….. characteristic for rectification
1. reverse
2. forward
3. forward or reverse
4. none of the above
Answer :2
Q19. When a crystal diode is used as a rectifier, the most important consideration is
………..
1. forward characteristic
2. doping level
3. reverse characteristic
4. PIC rating
Answer :4
Q20. If the doping level in a crystal diode is increased, the width of depletion layer………..
1. remains the same
2. is decreased
3. in increased
4. none of the above
Answer :3
Q21. A zener diode has ………..
1. one pn junction
2. two pn junctions
3. three pn junctions
4. none of the above
Answer :1
Q22. A zener diode is used as …………….
1. an amplifier
2. a voltage regulator
3. a rectifier
4. a multivibrator
Answer :2
Q23. The doping level in a zener diode is …………… that of a crystal diode
1. the same as
2. less than
3. more than
4. none of the above
Answer :3
Q24. A zener diode is always ………… connected.
1. reverse
2. forward
3. either reverse or forward
4. none of the above
Answer :1
Q25. A zener diode utilizes ……….. characteristics for its operation.
1. forward
2. reverse
3. both forward and reverse
4. none of the above
Answer :2
Q26. In the breakdown region, a zener didoe behaves like a …………… source.
1. constant voltage
2. constant current
3. constant resistance
4. none of the above
Answer :1
27. A zener diode is destroyed if it…………..
1. is forward biased
2. is reverse biased
3. carrier more than rated current
4. none of the above
Answer :3
Q28. A series resistance is connected in the zener circuit to………..
1. properly reverse bias the zener
2. protect the zener
3. properly forward bias the zener
 4. none of the above
Answer :2
A29. A zener diode is …………………. device
1. a non-linear
2. a linear
3. an amplifying
4. none of the above
Answer :1
Q30. A zener diode has ………….. breakdown voltage
1. undefined
2. sharp
3. zero
4. none of the above
Answer :2
Q31. ……………. rectifier has the lowest forward resistance
1. solid state
2. vacuum tube
3. gas tube
4. none of the above
Answer :1
Q32. Mains a.c. power is converrted into d.c. power for ……………..
1. lighting purposes
2. heaters
3. using in electronic equipment
4. none of the above
Answer :3
Q33. The disadvantage of a half-wave rectifier is that the……………….
1. components are expensive
2. diodes must have a higher power rating
3. output is difficult to filter
4. none of the above
Answer :3
Q34. If the a.c. input to a half-wave rectifier is an r.m.s value of 400/√2 volts, then diode
PIV rating is ………………….
1. 400/√2 V
2. 400 V
3. 400 x √2 V
4. none of the above
Answer :2
Q35. The ripple factor of a half-wave rectifier is …………………
1. 2
 2. 1.21
3. 2.5
4. 0.48
Answer :2
Q36. There is a need of transformer for ………………..
1. half-wave rectifier
2. centre-tap full-wave rectifier
3. bridge full-wave rectifier
4. none of the above
Answer :2
Q37. The PIV rating of each diode in a bridge rectifier is ……………… that of the
equivalent centre-tap rectifier
1. one-half
2. the same as
3. twice
4. four times
Answer :1
Q38. For the same secondary voltage, the output voltage from a centre-tap rectifier is
………… than that of bridge rectifier
1. twice
2. thrice
3. four time
4. one-half
Answer :4
Q39. If the PIV rating of a diode is exceeded, ………………
1. the diode conducts poorly
2. the diode is destroyed
3. the diode behaves like a zener diode
4. none of the above
Answer :2
Q40. A 10 V power supply would use …………………. as filter capacitor.
1. paper capacitor
2. mica capacitor
3. electrolytic capacitor
4. air capacitor
Answer :3
Q41. A 1,000 V power supply would use ……….. as a filter capacitor
1. paper capacitor
2. air capacitor
3. mica capacitor
4. electrolytic capacitor
Answer :1
Q42. The ……………….. filter circuit results in the best voltage regulation
1. choke input
2. capacitor input
3. resistance input
4. none of the above
Answer :1
Q43. A half-wave rectifier has an input voltage of 240 V r.m.s. If the step-down transformer
has a turns ratio of 8:1, what is the peak load voltage? Ignore diode drop.
1. 27.5 V
2. 86.5 V
3. 30 V
4. 42.5 V
Answer :4
Q44. The maximum efficiency of a half-wave rectifier is ………………..
1. 40.6 %
2. 81.2 %
3. 50 %
4. 25 %
Answer :1
Q45. The most widely used rectifier is ……………….
1. half-wave rectifier
2. centre-tap full-wave rectifier
3. bridge full-wave rectifier
4. none of the above
Answer :3

Bipolar Junction Transistor :

Q1. A transistor has …………………
1. one pn junction
2. two pn junctions
3. three pn junctions
4. four pn junctions
Answer : 2
Q2. The number of depletion layers in a transistor is …………
1. four
2. three
3. one
4. two
Answer : 4
Q3. The base of a transistor is ………….. doped
1. heavily
 2. moderately
3. lightly
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q4. The element that has the biggest size in a transistor is ………………..
1. collector
2. base
3. emitter
4. collector-base-junction
Answer : 1
Q5. In a pnp transistor, the current carriers are ………….
1. acceptor ions
2. donor ions
3. free electrons
4. holes
Answer : 4
Q6. The collector of a transistor is …………. doped
1. heavily
2. moderately
3. lightly
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q7. A transistor is a …………… operated device
1. current
2. voltage
3. both voltage and current
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q8. In a npn transistor, ……………. are the minority carriers
1. free electrons
2. holes
3. donor ions
4. acceptor ions
Answer : 2
Q9. The emitter of a transistor is ………………… doped
1. lightly
2. heavily
3. moderately
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q10. In a transistor, the base current is about ………….. of emitter current
1. 25%
2. 20%
3. 35 %
4. 5%
Answer : 4
Q11. At the base-emitter junctions of a transistor, one finds ……………
1. a reverse bias
2. a wide depletion layer
3. low resistance
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q12. The input impedance of a transistor is ………….
1. high
2. low
3. very high
4. almost zero
Answer : 2
Q13. Most of the majority carriers from the emitter ………………..
1. recombine in the base
2. recombine in the emitter
3. pass through the base region to the collector
4. none of the above
Answer :3
Q14. The current IB is …………
1. electron current
2. hole current
3. donor ion current
4. acceptor ion current
Answer : 1
Q15. In a transistor ………………..
IC = IE + IB
IB = IC + IE
IE = IC – IB
IE = IC + IB
Answer : 4
Q16. The value of α of a transistor is ……….
 more than 1
 less than 1
 1
 none of the above
Answer : 2
Q17. IC = αIE + ………….
1. IB
2. ICEO
3. ICBO
4. βIB
Answer : 3
Q18. The output impedance of a transistor is ……………..
1. high
2. zero
3. low
 4. very low
Answer : 1
Q19. In a tansistor, IC = 100 mA and IE = 100.2 mA. The value of β is …………
1. 100
2. 50
3. about 1
4. 200
Answer : 4
Q20. In a transistor if β = 100 and collector current is 10 mA, then IE is …………
1. 100 mA
2. 100.1 mA
3. 110 mA
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q21. The relation between β and α is …………..
1. β = 1 / (1 – α )
2. β = (1 – α ) / α
3. β = α / (1 – α )
4. β = α / (1 + α )
Answer : 3
Q22. The value of β for a transistor is generally ………………..
1. 1
2. less than 1
3. between 20 and 500
4. above 500
Answer : 3
Q23. The most commonly used transistor arrangement is …………… arrangement
1. common emitter
2. common base
3. common collector
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q24. The input impedance of a transistor connected in …………….. arrangement is the
highest
1. common emitter
2. common collector
3. common base
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q25. The output impedance of a transistor connected in ……………. arrangement is the
highest
1. common emitter
2. common collector
3. common base
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q26. The phase difference between the input and output voltages in a common base
arrangement is …………….
1. 180o
2. 90o
3. 270o
4. 0o
Answer : 4
Q27. The power gain in a transistor connected in ……………. arrangement is the highest
1. common emitter
2. common base
3. common collector
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q28. The phase difference between the input and output voltages of a transistor connected
in common emitter arrangement is ………………
1. 0o
2. 180o
3. 90o
4. 270o
Answer : 2
Q29. The voltage gain in a transistor connected in ………………. arrangement is the
highest
1. common base
2. common collector
3. common emitter
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q30. As the temperature of a transistor goes up, the base-emitter resistance ……………
1. decreases
2. increases
3. remains the same
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q31. The voltage gain of a transistor connected in common collector arrangement is
………..
1. equal to 1
2. more than 10
3. more than 100
4. less than 1
Answer : 4
Q32. The phase difference between the input and output voltages of a transistor connected
in common collector arrangement is ………………
1. 180o
2. 0o
3. 90o
4. 270o
Answer : 2
Q33. IC = β IB + ………..
1. ICBO
2. IC
3. ICEO
4. αIE
Answer : 3
Q34. IC = [α / (1 – α )] IB + ………….
1. ICEO
2. ICBO
3. IC
4. (1 – α ) IB
Answer : 1
Q35. IC = [α / (1 – α )] IB + […….. / (1 – α )]
1. ICBO
2. ICEO
3. IC
4. IE
Answer : 1
Q36. BC 147 transistor indicates that it is made of …………..
1. germanium
2. silicon
3. carbon
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q37. ICEO = (………) ICBO
1. β
2. 1 + α
3. 1 + β
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q38. A transistor is connected in CB mode. If it is not connected in CE mode with same
bias voltages, the values of IE, IB and IC will …………..
1. remain the same
2. increase
3. decrease
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q39. If the value of α is 0.9, then value of β is ………..
1. 9
2. 0.9
3. 900
4. 90
Answer : 4
Q40. In a transistor, signal is transferred from a …………… circuit
1. high resistance to low resistance
 2. low resistance to high resistance
3. high resistance to high resistance
4. low resistance to low resistance
Answer : 2
Q41. The arrow in the symbol of a transistor indicates the direction of ………….
1. electron current in the emitter
2. electron current in the collector
3. hole current in the emitter
4. donor ion current
Answer : 3
Q42. The leakage current in CE arrangement is ……………. that in CB arrangement
1. more than
2. less than
3. the same as
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q43. A heat sink is generally used with a transistor to …………
1. increase the forward current
2. decrease the forward current
3. compensate for excessive doping
4. prevent excessive temperature rise
Answer : 4
Q44. The most commonly used semiconductor in the manufacture of a transistor is
………….
1. germanium
2. silicon
3. carbon
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q45. The collector-base junction in a transistor has ……………..
1. forward bias at all times
2. reverse bias at all times
3. low resistance
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q46. When transistors are used in digital circuits they usually operate in the ………….
1. active region
2. breakdown region
3. saturation and cutoff regions
4. linear region
Answer : 3
Q47. Three different Q points are shown on a dc load line. The upper Q point represents
the ………….
1. minimum current gain
2. intermediate current gain
3. maximum current gain
 4. cutoff point
Answer : 3
Q48. A transistor has a of 250 and a base current, IB, of 20 A. The collector
current, IC, equals to …………….
1. 500 μA
2. 5 mA
3. 50 mA
4. 5 A
Answer : 2
Q49. A current ratio of IC/IE is usually less than one and is called …………
1. beta
2. theta
3. alpha
4. omega
Answer : 3
Q50. With the positive probe on an NPN base, an ohmmeter reading between the other
transistor terminals should be ……
1. open
2. infinite
3. low resistance
4. high resistance
Answer : 3
Q51. In a CE configuration, an emitter resistor is used for ……
1. stabilization
2. ac signal bypass
3. collector bias
4. higher gain
Answer : 1
Q52. Voltage-divider bias provides ……….
1. an unstable Q point
2. a stable Q point
3. a Q point that easily varies with changes in the transistor’s current gain
4. a Q point that is stable and easily varies with changes in the transistor’s current gain
Answer : 2
Q53. To operate properly, a transistor’s base-emitter junction must be forward biased with
reverse bias applied to which junction?
1. collector-emitter
2. base-collector
3. base-emitter
4. collector-base
Answer : 4
Q54. The ends of a load line drawn on a family of curves determine ……
1. saturation and cutoff
2. the operating point
3. the power curve
4. the amplification factor
Answer : 1
Q55. If VCC = +18 V, voltage-divider resistor R1 is 4.7 k , and R2 is 1500 , then the base
bias voltage is ……….
1. 8.7 V
2. 4.35 V
3. 2.9 V
4. 0.7 V
Answer: 2
Q56. The C-B configuration is used to provide which type of gain?
1. voltage
2. current
3. resistance
4. power
Answer : 1
Q57. The Q point on a load line may be used to determine …………
1. VC
2. VCC
3. VB
4. IC
Answer : 3
Q58. A transistor may be used as a switching device or as a ………….
1. fixed resistor
2. tuning device
3. rectifier
4. variable resistor
Answer : 4
Q59. If an input signal ranges from 20–40 A (microamps), with an output signal ranging
from .5–1.5 mA (milliamps), what is the ac beta?
1. 0.05
2. 20
3. 50
4. 500
Answer : 3
Q60. Beta’s current ratio is ……..
1. IC/IB
2. IC/IE
3. IB/IE
4. IE/IB
Answer: 1
Q61. A collector characteristic curve is a graph showing ………..
1. emitter current (IE) versus collector-emitter voltage (VCE) with (VBB) base bias voltage held
constant
2. collector current (IC) versus collector-emitter voltage (VCE) with (VBB) base bias voltage
held constant
3. collector current (IC) versus collector-emitter voltage (VC) with (VBB) base bias voltage held
constant
 4. collector current (IC) versus collector-emitter voltage (VCC) with (VBB) base bias voltage
held constant
Answer: 2
Q62. With low-power transistor packages, the base terminal is usually the ……….
1. tab end
2. middle
3. right end
4. stud mount
Answer: 2
Q63. When a silicon diode is forward biased, VBE for a CE configuration is ……..
1. voltage-divider bias
2. 0.4 V
3. 0.7 V
4. emitter voltage
Answer: 3
Q64. What is the current gain for a common-base configuration where IE = 4.2 mA and
IC = 4.0 mA?
1. 16.8
2. 1.05
3. 0.2
4. 0.95
Answer: 4
Q65. With a PNP circuit, the most positive voltage is probably …………
1. ground
2. VC
3. VBE
4. VCC
Answer: 1
Q66. If a 2 mV signal produces a 2 V output, what is the voltage gain?
1. 0.001
2. 0.004
3. 100
4. 1000
Answer: 4
Q67. Most of the electrons in the base of an NPN transistor flow …………
1. out of the base lead
2. into the collector
3. into the emitter
4. into the base supply
Answer: 2
Q68. In a transistor, collector current is controlled by ………..
1. collector voltage
2. base current
3. collector resistance
4. all of the above
Answer: 2
Q69. Total emitter current is …………
1. IE – IC
2. IC + IE
3. IB + IC
4. IB – IC
Answer: 3
Q70. Often a common-collector will be the last stage before the load; the main function(s)
of this stage is to ………….
1. provide voltage gain
2. provide phase inversion
3. provide a high-frequency path to improve the frequency response
4. buffer the voltage amplifiers from the low-resistance load and provide impedance matching
for maximum power transfer
Answer: 4

Q71. For a CC configuration to operate properly, the collector-base junction should be

reverse biased, while forward bias should be applied to …………… junction.
1. collector-emitter
2. base-emitter
3. collector-base
4. cathode-anode
Answer: 1
Q72. The input/output relationship of the common-collector and common-base amplifiers
is ………..
1. 270 degrees
2. 180 degrees
3. 90 degrees
4. 0 degrees
Answer: 4
Q73. If a transistor operates at the middle of the dc load line, a decrease in the current gain
will move the Q point ………….
1. off the load line
2. nowhere
3. up
4. down
Answer: 4
Q74. Which is the higher gain provided by a CE configuration?
1. voltage
2. current
3. resistance
4. power
Answer: 4
Q75. What is the collector current for a CE configuration with a beta of 100 and a base
current of 30 A?
1. 30 A
2. 0.3 A
 3. 3 mA
4. 3 MA
Answer: 3

Field Effect Transistor :

Q1. A JFET has three terminals, namely …………

1. cathode, anode, grid

2. emitter, base, collector
3. source, gate, drain
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q2. A JFET is similar in operation to …………. valve
1. diode
2. pentode
3. triode
4. tetrode
Answer : 2
Q3. A JFET is also called …………… transistor
1. unipolar
2. bipolar
3. unijunction
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q4. A JFET is a ………… driven device
1. current
2. voltage
3. both current and voltage
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q5. The gate of a JFET is ………… biased
1. reverse
2. forward
3. reverse as well as forward
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q6. The input impedance of a JFET is …………. that of an ordinary transistor
1. equal to
2. less than
3. more than
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q7. In a p-channel JFET, the charge carriers are …………..
1. electrons
 2. holes
3. both electrons and holes
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q8. When drain voltage equals the pinch-off-voltage, then drain current …………. with the
increase in drain voltage
1. decreases
2. increases
3. remains constant
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q9. If the reverse bias on the gate of a JFET is increased, then width of the conducting
channel …………..
1. is decreased
2. is increased
3. remains the same
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q10. A MOSFET has …………… terminals
1. two
2. five
3. four
4. three
Answer : 4
Q11. A MOSFET can be operated with ……………..
1. negative gate voltage only
2. positive gate voltage only
3. positive as well as negative gate voltage
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q12. A JFET has ……….. power gain
1. small
2. very high
3. very small
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q13. The input control parameter of a JFET is ……………
1. gate voltage
2. source voltage
3. drain voltage
4. gate current
Answer : 1
Q14. A common base configuration of a pnp transistor is analogous to ………… of a JFET
1. common source configuration
2. common drain configuration
3. common gate configuration
 4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q15. A JFET has high input impedance because …………
1. it is made of semiconductor material
2. input is reverse biased
3. of impurity atoms
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q16. In a JFET, when drain voltage is equal to pinch-off voltage, the depletion layers
………
1. almost touch each other
2. have large gap
3. have moderate gap
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q17. In a JFET, IDSS is known as …………..
1. drain to source current
2. drain to source current with gate shorted
3. drain to source current with gate open
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q18. The two important advantages of a JFET are …………..
1. high input impedance and square-law property
2. inexpensive and high output impedance
3. low input impedance and high output impedance
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q19. …………. has the lowest noise-level
1. triode
2. ordinary trnsistor
3. tetrode
4. JFET
Answer : 4
Q20. A MOSFET is sometimes called ………. JFET
1. many gate
2. open gate
3. insulated gate
4. shorted gate
Answer : 3
Q21. Which of the following devices has the highest input impedance?
1. JFET
2. MOSFET
3. Crystal diode
4. ordinary transistor
Answer : 2
Q22. A MOSFET uses the electric field of a ………. to control the channel current
 1. capacitor
2. battery
3. generator
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q23. The pinch-off voltage in a JFET is analogous to ………. voltage in a vacuum tube
1. anode
2. cathode
3. grid cut off
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q24. This question will be available soon

Q25. In class A operation, the input circuit of a JFET is ………. biased

1. forward
2. reverse
3. not
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q26. If the gate of a JFET is made less negative, the width of the conducting
channel……….
1. remains the same
2. is decreased
3. is increased
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q27. The pinch-off voltage of a JFET is about ……….
1. 5 V
2. 0.6 V
3. 15 V
4. 25 V
Answer : 1
Q28. The input impedance of a MOSFET is of the order of ………..
1. Ω
2. a few hundred Ω
3. kΩ
4. several MΩ
Answer : 4
Q29. The gate voltage in a JFET at which drain current becomes zero is called ………..
voltage
1. saturation
2. pinch-off
3. active
4. cut-off
Answer : 2
Q30. This question will be available soon
Q31. In a FET, there are ……….. pn junctions at the sides
1. three
2. four
3. five
4. two
Answer : 4
Q32. The transconductance of a JFET ranges from ……………..
1. 100 to 500 mA/V
2. 500 to 1000 mA/V
3. 0.5 to 30 mA/V
4. above 1000 mA/V
Answer : 3
Q33. The source terminal of a JEFT corresponds to ………….. of a vacuum tube
1. plate
2. cathode
3. grid
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q34. The output characteristics of a JFET closely resemble the output characteristics of a
………. valve
1. pentode
2. tetrode
3. triode
4. diode
Answer : 1
Q35. If the cross-sectional area of the channel in n-channel JEFT increases, the drain
current ……….
1. is increased
2. is decreased
3. remains the same
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q36. The channel of a JFET is between the …………….
1. gate and drain
2. drain and source
3. gate and source
4. input and output
Answer : 2
Q37. For VGS = 0 V, the drain current becomes constant when VDS exceeds ………
1. cut off
2. VDD
3. VP
4. o V
Answer : 3
Q38. A certain JFET data sheet gives VGS(off) = -4 V. The pinch-off voltage Vp is ……..
 1. +4 V
2. -4 V
3. dependent on VGS
4. data insufficient
Answer : 1
Q39. The constant-current region of a JFET lies between
1. cut off and saturation
2. cut off and pinch-off
3. o and IDSS
4. pinch-off and breakdown
Answer : 4
Q40. At cut-off, the JFET channel is ……….
1. at its widest point
2. completely closed by the depletion region
3. extremely narrow
4. reverse baised
Answer : 2
Q41. A MOSFET differs from a JFET mainly because ………………
1. of power rating
2. the MOSFET has two gates
3. the JFET has a pn junction
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q42. A certain D-MOSFET is biased at VGS = 0 V. Its data sheet specifies IDSS = 20mA and
VGS(off) = -5 V. The value of the drain current is …………
1. 20 mA
2. 0 mA
3. 40 mA
4. 10 mA
Answer : 1
Q43. A n-channel D-MOSFET with a positive VGS is operating in …………
1. the depletion-mode
2. the enhancement-mode
3. cut off
4. saturation
Answer : 2
Q44. A certain p-channel E-MOSFET has VGS(th) = -2V. If VGS= 0V, the drain current is
……….
1. 0 mA
2. ID(on)
3. maximum
4. IDSS
Answer : 1
Q45. In a common-source JFET amplifier, the output voltage is …………………
1. 180o out of phase with the input
2. in phase with the input
 3. 90o out of phase with the input
4. taken at the source
Answer : 1
Q46. In a certain common-source D-MOSFET amplifier, Vds =3.2 V r.m. and Vgs = 280 mV
r.m.s. The voltage gain is …………
1. 1
2. 11.4
3. 8.75
4. 3.2
Answer : 2
Q47. In a certain CS JFET amplifier, RD= 1kΩ , RS= 560 Ω , VDD=10V and gm= 4500 μS. If
the source resistor is completely bypassed, the voltage gain is …………
1. 450
2. 45
3. 2.52
4. 4.5
Answer : 4
Q48. A certain common-source JFET has a voltage gain of 10. If the source bypass
capacitor is removed, ……………….
1. the voltage gain will increase
2. the transconductance will increase
3. the voltage gain will decrease
4. the Q-point will shift
Answer : 3
Q49. A CS JFET amplifier has a load resistance of 10 kΩ , RD= 820Ω . If gm= 5mS
and Vin= 500 mV, the output signal voltage is ………..
1. 2.05 V
2. 25 V
3. 0.5 V
4. 1.89 V
Answer : 4
Q50. If load resistance in the above question (Q.49) is removed, the output voltage will
…………
1. increase
2. decrease
3. stay the same
4. be zero
Answer : 1
Q.51. When not in use, MOSFET pins are kept at the same potential through the use of
…………
1. shipping foil
2. nonconductive foam
3. conductive foam
4. a wrist strap
Answer: 3
Q.52. D-MOSFETs are sometimes used in series to construct a cascode high-frequency
amplifier to overcome the loss of …………..
1. low output impedance
2. capacitive reactance
3. high input impedance
4. inductive reactance
Answer: 3
Q.53. A “U” shaped, opposite-polarity material built near a JFET-channel center is called
the ……….
1. gate
2. block
3. drain
4. heat sink
Answer: 1
Q.54. When testing an n-channel D-MOSFET, resistance G to D = , resistance G to S
= , resistance D to SS = and 500 , depending on the polarity of the ohmmeter, and
resistance D to S = 500 . What is wrong?
1. short D to S
2. open G to D
3. open D to SS
4. nothing
Answer: 4
Q.55. In the constant-current region, how will the IDS change in an n-channel JFET?
1. As VGS decreases ID decreases.
2. As VGS increases ID increases
3. As VGS decreases ID remains constant.
4. As VGS increases ID remains constant.
Answer: 1
Q.56. IDSS can be defined as ………
1. the minimum possible drain current
2. the maximum possible current with VGS held at –4 V
3. the maximum possible current with VGS held at 0 V
4. the maximum drain current with the source shorted
Answer: 3
Q.57. The input impedance of a common-gate configured JFET is …………
1. very low
2. low
3. high
4. very high
Answer: 1
Q.58. A very simple bias for a D-MOSFET is called ……..
1. self biasing
2. gate biasing
3. zero biasing
4. voltage-divider biasing
Answer: 3
Q.59. With the E-MOSFET, when gate input voltage is zero, drain current is …..
1. at saturation
2. zero
3. IDSS
4. widening the channel
Answer: 2
Q.60. With a 30-volt VDD, and an 8-kilohm drain resistor, what is the E-MOSFET Q point
voltage, with ID = 3 mA?
1. 6 V
2. 10 V
3. 24 V
4. 30 V
Answer: 1
Q.61. When an input signal reduces the channel size, the process is called …….
1. enhancement
2. substrate connecting
3. gate charge
4. depletion
Answer: 4
Q.62. Which JFET configuration would connect a high-resistance signal source to a low-
resistance load ?
1. source follower
2. common-source
3. common-drain
4. common-gate
Answer: 1
Q.63. When VGS = 0 V, a JFET is……….
1. saturated
2. an analog device
3. an open switch
4. an open switch
Answer: 1
Q.64. The electrons flow through a p-channel JFET from ……….. to …………..
1. from source to drain
2. from source to gate
3. from drain to gate
4. from drain to source
Answer: 4
Q.65. When applied input voltage varies the resistance of a channel, the result is
called…………..
1. saturization
2. polarization
3. cutoff
4. field effect
Answer: 4
Q.66. When is a vertical channel E-MOSFET used?
 1. for high frequencies
2. for high voltages
3. for high currents
4. for high resistances
Answer: 3
Q.67. When the JFET is no longer able to control the current, this point is called the
…………
1. breakdown region
2. depletion region
3. saturation point
4. pinch-off region
Answer: 1
Q.68. With a JFET, a ratio of output current change against an input voltage change is
called as ………..
1. transconductance
2. siemens
3. resistivity
4. gain
Answer: 1
Q.69. Which type of JFET bias requires a negative supply voltage?
1. feedback
2. source
3. gate
4. voltage divider
Answer: 3
Q.70. How will a D-MOSFET input impedance change with signal frequency?
1. As frequency increases input impedance increases.
2. As frequency increases input impedance is constant.’
3. As frequency decreases input impedance increases.
4. As frequency decreases input impedance is constant.
Answer: 3
Q.71. The type of bias most often used with E-MOSFET circuits is………….
1. constant current
2. drain-feedback
3. voltage-divider
4. zero biasing
Answer: 2
Q.72. The transconductance curve of a JFET is a graph of …………… vs ……….
1. IS versus VDS
2. IC versus VCE
3. ID versus VGS
4. ID × RDS
Answer: 3
Q.73. The common-source JFET amplifier has ………..
1. a very high input impedance and a relatively low voltage gain
2. a high input impedance and a very high voltage gain
 3. a high input impedance and a voltage gain less than 1
4. no voltage gain
Answer: 1
Q.74. The overall input capacitance of a dual-gate D-MOSFET is lower because the devices
are usually connected ………..
1. in parallel
2. with separate insulation
3. with separate inputs
4. in series
Answer: 4
Q.75. Which component is considered to be an “OFF” devic.
1. transistor
2. JFET
3. D-MOSFET
4. E-MOSFET
Answer: 4
Q.76. In an n-channel JFET, what will happen at the pinch-off voltage?
1. the value of VDS at which further increases in VDS will cause no further increase in ID
2. the value of VGS at which further decreases in VGS will cause no further increases in ID
3. the value of VDG at which further decreases in VDG will cause no further increases in ID
4. the value of VDS at which further increases in VGS will cause no further increases in ID
Answer: 1
Electronic Instruments :
Q1. An ammeter is connected in …………….. with the circuit element whose current we wish
to measure
1. Series
2. Parallel
3. Series or parallel
4. None of the above
Answer : 1

Q2. A galvanometer in series with a high resistance is called ……………

1. An ammeter
2. A voltmeter
3. A wattmeter
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q3. An ammeter should have ………….. resistance
1. Infinite
2. Very large
3. Very low
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q4. A voltmeter is connected in a ………….. with the circuit component across which potential
difference is to be measured
1. Parallel
 2. Series
3. Series or parallel
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q5. A voltmeter should have ………. resistance
1. Zero
2. Very high
3. Very low
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q6. The sensitivity of a multimeter is given in ……………..
1. Ω
2. Amperes
3. kΩ/V
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q7. If the full-scale deflection current of a multimeter is 50 μA, its sensitivity is ……..
1. 10 kΩ/V
2. 100 kΩ/V
3. 50 kΩ/V
4. 20 kΩ/V
Answer : 4
Q8. If a multimeter has a sensitivity of 1000 Ω per volt and reads 50 V full scale, its internal
resistance is ………..
1. 20 kΩ
2. 50 kΩ
3. 10 kΩ
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q9. A VTVM has ………. input resistance than that of a multimeter
1. More
2. Less
3. Same
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q10. The input resistance of a VTVM is about ………..
1. 1000 Ω
2. 10 kΩ
3. 20 kΩ
4. 10 MΩ
Answer : 4
Q11. If the negative potential on the control grid of CRT is increased, the intensity of spot
………….
1. Is increased
2. Is decreased
3. Remains the same
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q12. For display of signal pattern ………… voltage is applied to the horizontal plates of a CRO
 1. Sinusoidal
2. Rectangular
3. Sawtooth
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q13. Two multimeters A and B have sensitivities of 10 kΩ/V and 30 kΩ/V respectively. Then
…………..
1. Multimeter A is more sensitive
2. Multimeter B is more sensitive
3. Both are equally sensitive
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q14. A galvanometer of resistance G is shunted by a very small resistance S. The resistance of
the resulting ammeter is ………………
1. GS/(G+S)
2. G+S
3. G-S
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q15. A VTVM is never used to measure …………..
1. Voltage
2. Current
3. Resistance
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q16. The sensitivity of a voltmeter which uses a 100 μA meter movement is ……………..
Q1. An ammeter is connected in …………….. with the circuit element whose current we
wish to measure
1. Series
2. Parallel
3. Series or parallel
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q2. A galvanometer in series with a high resistance is called ……………
1. An ammeter
2. A voltmeter
3. A wattmeter
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q3. An ammeter should have ………….. resistance
1. Infinite
2. Very large
3. Very low
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q4. A voltmeter is connected in a ………….. with the circuit component across which
potential difference is to be measured
1. Parallel
 2. Series
3. Series or parallel
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q5. A voltmeter should have ………. resistance
1. Zero
2. Very high
3. Very low
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q6. The sensitivity of a multimeter is given in ……………..
1. Ω
2. Amperes
3. kΩ/V
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q7. If the full-scale deflection current of a multimeter is 50 μA, its sensitivity is ……..
1. 10 kΩ/V
2. 100 kΩ/V
3. 50 kΩ/V
4. 20 kΩ/V
Answer : 4
Q8. If a multimeter has a sensitivity of 1000 Ω per volt and reads 50 V full scale, its internal
resistance is ………..
1. 20 kΩ
2. 50 kΩ
3. 10 kΩ
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q9. A VTVM has ………. input resistance than that of a multimeter
1. More
2. Less
3. Same
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q10. The input resistance of a VTVM is about ………..
1. 1000 Ω
2. 10 kΩ
3. 20 kΩ
4. 10 MΩ
Answer : 4
Q11. If the negative potential on the control grid of CRT is increased, the intensity of spot
………….
1. Is increased
2. Is decreased
3. Remains the same
 4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q12. For display of signal pattern ………… voltage is applied to the horizontal plates of a
CRO
1. Sinusoidal
2. Rectangular
3. Sawtooth
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q13. Two multimeters A and B have sensitivities of 10 kΩ/V and 30 kΩ/V respectively.
Then …………..
1. Multimeter A is more sensitive
2. Multimeter B is more sensitive
3. Both are equally sensitive
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q14. A galvanometer of resistance G is shunted by a very small resistance S. The resistance
of the resulting ammeter is ………………
1. GS/(G+S)
2. G+S
3. G-S
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q15. A VTVM is never used to measure …………..
1. Voltage
2. Current
3. Resistance
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q16. The sensitivity of a voltmeter which uses a 100 μA meter movement is ……………..
1. 1 kΩ/V
2. 10 kΩ/V
3. 5 kΩ/V
4. Data insufficient
Answer : 2
Q17. What is the total resistance of a voltmeter on the 10 V range when the meter
movement is rated for 50 μA of full-scale current?
1. 10 kΩ
2. 20 kΩ
3. 200 kΩ
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q18. The materil used to coat inside the face of CRT is …………..
1. Carbon
2. Sulphur
3. Silicon
 4. Phosphorous
Answer : 4
Q19. When an ammeter is inserted in the circuit, the circuit current will ………..
1. Increase
2. Decrease
3. Remain the same
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q20. A series ohmmeter circuit uses a 3 V battery and a 1 mA meter movement. What is
the half-scale resistance for this movement?
1. 3 kΩ
2. 4 kΩ
3. 5 kΩ
4. 6 kΩ
Answer : 1
Q21. The most accurate device for measuring voltage is ………….
5. Voltmeter
6. Multimeter
7. CRO
8. VTVM
Answer : 3
Q22. The horizontal plates of a CRO are supplied with …………. to observe the waveform
of signal.
1. Sinusoidal wave
2. Cosine wave
3. Sawtooth wave
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q23. A CRO is used to measure ………….
1. Voltage
2. Frequency
3. Phase
4. All of above
Answer : 4
Q24. If 2% of the main current is to be passed through a galvanometer of resistance G,
then resistance of the shunt required is ……….
1. G/50
2. G/49
3. 49 G
4. 50 G
Answer : 2
Q25. Which of the following is likely to have the largest resistance?
1. Voltmeter of range 10 V
2. Moving coil galvanometer
3. Ammeter of range 1 A
4. A copper wire of length 1 m and diameter 3 mm
Answer : 1
Q26. An ideal ammeter has ………… resistance
1. Low
2. Infinite
3. Zero
4. High
Answer : 3
Q27. The resistance of an ideal voltmeter is …………
1. Low
2. Infinite
3. Zero
4. High
Answer : 2
Q28. To send 10% of the main current through a moving coil galvanometer of resistance 99
Ω the shunt required is …………..
1. 11 Ω
2. 9 Ω
3. 100 Ω
4. 9 Ω
Answer : 1
Q29. A voltmeter has a resistance of G ohms and range V volts. The value of resistance
required in series to convert it into voltmeter of range nV is ……………
1. nG
2. G/n
3. G/(n-1)
4. (n-1)G
Answer : 4
Q30. An ammeter has a resistance of G ohms and range of I amperes. The value of
resistance required in parallel to convert it into an ammeter of range nI is ………….
1. nG
2. (n-1)G
3. G/(n-1)
4. G/n
Answer : 3

Digital Electronics :

Q1. The binary number 10101 is equivalent to decimal number …………..

1. 19
2. 12
3. 27
4. 21
Answer : 4
Q2. The universal gate is ………………
1. NAND gate
 2. OR gate
3. AND gate
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q3. The inverter is ……………
1. NOT gate
2. OR gate
3. AND gate
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q4. The inputs of a NAND gate are connected together. The resulting circuit is ………….
1. OR gate
2. AND gate
3. NOT gate
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q5. The NOR gate is OR gate followed by ………………
1. AND gate
2. NAND gate
3. NOT gate
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q6. The NAND gate is AND gate followed by …………………
1. NOT gate
2. OR gate
3. AND gate
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q7. Digital circuit can be made by the repeated use of ………………
1. OR gates
2. NOT gates
3. NAND gates
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q8. The only function of NOT gate is to ……………..
1. Stop signal
2. Invert input signal
3. Act as a universal gate
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q9. When an input signal 1 is applied to a NOT gate, the output is ………………
1. 0
2. 1
3. Either 0 & 1
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q10. In Boolean algebra, the bar sign (-) indicates ………………..
1. OR operation
2. AND operation
3. NOT operation
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q11. The resolution of an n bit DAC with a maximum input of 5 V is 5 mV. The value
of n is …….
1. 8
2. 9
3. 10
4. 11
Answer : 3
Explanation:
(5/2N-1)1000 = 5 or N = 10
Q12. 2’s complement of binary number 0101 is ………..
1. 1011
2. 1111
3. 1101
4. 1110
Answer : 1
Explanation: 1’s complement of 0101 is 1010 and 2’s complement is 1010+1 = 1011.
Q13. An OR gate has 4 inputs. One input is high and the other three are low. The output
is …….
1. Low
2. High
3. alternately high and low
4. may be high or low depending on relative magnitude of inputs
Answer : 2
Explanation: In OR any input high means high output.
Q14. Decimal number 10 is equal to binary number ……………
1. 1110
2. 1010
3. 1001
4. 1000
Answer : 2
Explanation: 1010 = 8 + 2 = 10 in decimal.
Q15. Both OR and AND gates can have only two inputs.
1. True
2. False
Answer : 2
Explanation: Any number of inputs are possible.
Q16. A device which converts BCD to seven segments is called ……..
1. Encoder
2. Decoder
3. Multiplexer
4. None of these
Answer : 2
Explanation: Decoder converts binary/BCD to alphanumeric.
Q17. In 2’s complement representation the number 11100101 represents the decimal
number ……………
1. +37
2. -31
3. +27
4. -27
Answer : 4
Explanation:
A = 11100101. Therefore Ā = 00011010 and A’ = Ā + 1 = 00011011 = 16 + 8 + 2 + 1 = 27.
Therefore A = -27.
Q18. A decade counter skips ………..
1. binary states 1000 to 1111
2. binary states 0000 to 0011
3. binary states 1010 to 1111
4. binary states 1111 to higher
Answer : 3
Explanation: A decade counter counts from 0 to 9. It has 4 flip-flops. The states skipped are 10
to 15 or 1010 to 1111.
Q19. BCD input 1000 is fed to a 7 segment display through a BCD to 7 segment
decoder/driver. The segments which will lit up are ………….
1. a, b, d
2. a, b, c
3. all
4. a, b, g, c, d
Answer : 3
Explanation: 1000 equals decimal 8 Therefore all segments will lit up.
Q20. A ring counter with 5 flip flops will have ………. states.
1. 5
2. 10
3. 32
4. Infinite
Answer : 1
Q21. For the gate in the given figure the output will be ………..

1. 0
2. 1
3. A
4. Ā

Q22. In the expression A + BC, the total number of minterms will be ………
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
Answer : 4
Q23. The circuit in the given figure is a ………… gate.

1. positive logic OR gate

2. negative logic OR gate
3. negative logic AND gate
4. positive logic AND gate
Answer : 2
Explanation: Since V(1) is lower state than V(0) it is a negative logic circuit. Since diodes are
in parallel, it is an OR gate.
Q24. Which of the following is non-saturating?
1. TTL
2. CMOS
3. ECL
4. Both 1 and 2
Answer : 3

Q25. The number of digits in octal system is ………

1. 8
2. 7
 3. 9
4. 10
Answer : 1
Explanation: The octal system has 8 digits 0 to 7.
Q16.
Answer : 2
Explanation:
Q26. The access time of a word in 4 MB main memory is 100 ms. The access time of a word
in a 32 kb data cache memory is 10 ns. The average data cache bit ratio is 0.95. The
efficiency of memory access time is ………
1. 9.5 ns
2. 14.5 ns
3. 20 ns
4. 95 ns
Answer : 2
Explanation: Access time = 0.95 x 10 + 0.05 x 100.
Q27. The expression Y = pM (0, 1, 3, 4) is …………..
1. POS
2. SOP
3. Hybrid
4. none of these
Answer : 1
Explanation: This is a product of sums expression.

Analog Communication :
1) Amplitude modulation is
a. Change in amplitude of the carrier according to modulating signal
b. Change in frequency of the carrier according to modulating signal
c. Change in amplitude of the modulating signal according to carrier signal
d. Change in amplitude of the carrier according to modulating signal frequency
ANSWER: (a) Change in amplitude of the carrier according to modulating signal

2) The ability of the receiver to select the wanted signals among the various incoming signals
is termed as
a. Sensitivity
b. Selectivity
c. Stability
d. None of the above
ANSWER: (b) Selectivity

3) Emitter modulator amplifier for Amplitude Modulation

a. Operates in class A mode
b. Has a low efficiency
c. Output power is small
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (d) All of the above

4) Super heterodyne receivers

a. Have better sensitivity
b. Have high selectivity
c. Need extra circuitry for frequency conversion
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (d) All of the above

5) The AM spectrum consists of

a. Carrier frequency
b. Upper side band frequency
c. Lower side band frequency
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (d) All of the above

6) Standard intermediate frequency used for AM receiver is

a. 455 MHz
b. 455 KHz
c. 455 Hz
d. None of the above
ANSWER: (b) 455 KHz

7) In the TV receivers, the device used for tuning the receiver to the incoming signal is
a. Varactor diode
b. High pass Filter
c. Zener diode
d. Low pass filter
ANSWER: (a) Varactor diode

8) The modulation technique that uses the minimum channel bandwidth and transmitted
power is
a. FM
b. DSB-SC
c. VSB
d. SSB
ANSWER: (d) SSB

9) Calculate the bandwidth occupied by a DSB signal when the modulating frequency lies in
the range from 100 Hz to 10KHz.
a. 28 KHz
b. 24.5 KHz
c. 38.6 KHz
d. 19.8 KHz
ANSWER: (d) 19.8 KHz

10) In Amplitude Demodulation, the condition which the load resistor R must satisfy to
discharge capacitor C slowly between the positive peaks of the carrier wave so that the
capacitor voltage will not discharge at the maximum rate of change of the modulating wave (W
is message bandwidth and ω is carrier frequency, in rad/sec) is
a. RC < 1/W
b. RC > 1/W
c. RC < 1/ω
d. RC > 1/ω
ANSWER: (a) RC < 1/W

11) A modulation index of 0.5 would be same as

a. 0.5 of Modulation Depth
b. 1/2% of Modulation Depth
c. 5% of Modulation Depth
d. 50% of Modulation Depth
ANSWER: (d) 50% of Modulation Depth

12) A 3 GHz carrier is DSB SC modulated by a signal with maximum frequency of 2 MHz.
The minimum sampling frequency required for the signal so that the signal is ideally sampled
is
a. 4 MHz
b. 6 MHz
c. 6.004 GHz
d. 6 GHz
ANSWER: (c) 6.004 GHz

14) Aliasing refers to

a. Sampling of signals less than at Nyquist rate
b. Sampling of signals greater than at Nyquist rate
c. Sampling of signals at Nyquist rate
d. None of the above
ANSWER: (a) Sampling of signals less than at Nyquist rate