LIQUID PENETRANT METHOD

LEVEL – III
CHAPTER 1
REVIEW QUESTIONS

1. Military specifications for penetrants list Penetrant materials in family

groups. Which of the following is the most sensitive?
a. Group I
b. Group III
c. Group IV
d. Group VI

2. The Groups listed in the military specifications have three levels of

sensitivity, with Level I the lowest. Which of the following Groups has a
Level I sensitivity?
a. Group I
b. Group II
c. Group III
d. Group IV
e. All of the above

3. The Static Penetration Parameter (SPP) relates the properties of a liquid

that control its penetrating capability. The properties that control the
penetration of a liquid are:
a. Contact angle and viscosity.
b. Contact angle and capillary action.
c. Surface tension and contact angle.
d. Capillary action and surface tension.

4. What is the highest contact angle that a Penetrant can have and still
penetrate spontaneously?
a. 15°
b. 5°
c. 40°
d. 90°

5. The contact angle is measured at the air-liquid surface interface on a

solid material. Which of the following is true?
a. The contract angle is the same on all materials having the same
surface roughness.
b. Different materials with the same smooth finish can have different
contact angles.
c. The surface roughness does not influence the contact angle.
d. The contact angle is the same for all metals.
e. None of the above is true.

1
6. The Kinetic Penetration Parameter (KPP) relates the properties of a
liquid that controls the rate of Penetration. What property of a liquid
with good penetrating capabilities controls its rate of penetration?
a. Viscosity
b. Surface tension
c. Contact angle
d. Capillarity

7. The size of a Penetrant indication depends on:

a. The size of the discontinuity.
b. The flaw entrapment efficiency.
c. The method of Penetrant testing.
d. All of the above
e. Only A and C above.

8. What type of small indication is the easiest to see?

a. A line, short indication
b. A wide, short indication
c. A fine, long indication
d. A shallow, short indication

9. Capillary action is fastest in which of the following?

a. A wide, long crack
b. A long, dirt-filled crack
c. A fine, clean crack
d. A wide, shallow crack

10. Oil in a crack, can influence the penetration rate by partially filling the
crack and possibly affecting which of the following properties?
a. Surface tension
b. Contact angle
c. Viscosity
d. All of the above

11. Flaw Entrapment Efficiency is a term that describes the ability of a

Penetrant to enter a discontinuity and form a visible indication.
Properties that influence the Flaw Entrapment Efficiency include:
a. Penetrability of the Penetrant.
b. Discontinuity size and type
c. Processing procedures
d. Type of Penetrant
e. All of the above

2
12. Which of the following is an advantage of background fluorescence?
a. Background reduces the contrast of an indication.
b. Background indicates that the part was not over-washed.
c. Background reveals an excessive emulsification time.
d. Background is hard to remove when a high sensitive Penetrant is
applied to rough or porous surfaces.

13. Which of the following tests is the best for measuring flaw entrapment
efficiency?
a. Water-wash test
b. Fluorescent brightness test
c. Sensitivity test
d. Fluorescent stability test

14. Which sensitivity test specimen is the most practical for comparing in-
service penetrate a sample of fresh unused Penetrant?
a. Cracked aluminum block
b. Cracked chrome plate specimens
c. A part with a known crack
d. A meniscus lens

15. A Penetrant having low surface tension, a low contact angle, and a low
viscosity (properties of a fast penetrator) can also have which of the
following undesirable properties?
a. Good Kinetic Penetration Parameter
b. Good Static Penetration Parameter
c. Excessive bleeding
d. High dye absorption efficiency

16. The human eye response is not the same to all colors in the visible light
range. Which of the following colors is the easiest to detect, if all have
the same brightness?
a. Red
b. Yellow-green
c. Blue
d. Purple

17. A visible dye Penetrant is not as sensitive as most fluorescent dye

penetrants. Why?
a. A red visible dye needs a thicker threshold film.
b. A visible dye does not emit light to attract the eye.
c. A thick developer coat to provide a good white background mask an
indication
d. All of the above
e. Only A and C above.

3
18. Fluorescent dyes used in penetrants absorb photon energy at a
wavelength of 356 nm. What is the approximate wavelength of the color
that most fluorescent penetrants emit?
a. 425 nm.
b. 525 nm.
c. 625 nm.
d. 725 nm.

19. The property that controls the rate of penetration is the:

a. Viscosity of the Penetrant
b. Surface tension of the Penetrant
c. Volatility of the Penetrant
d. Wetting action of the Penetrant

20. Some of the properties of fluorescent dyes in penetrants are controlled

by the Penetrant manufactures, e.g., k (extinction coefficient), Φ
(quantum yield), and c (dye concentration). The Penetrant user can
control or vary which of the following factors?
a. X (film thickness)
b. I0 (black light intensity)
c. C (dye concentration)
d. All of the above

21. The rate of penetration can be compensated for varying which of the
following processing variables?
a. Emulsification time
b. Penetrating time
c. Drying time
d. Water washing time

22. The ability of the Penetrant to penetrate a flaw is controlled by its:

a. Surface tension
b. Contact angle
c. Viscosity
d. Both A and B above.

23. A Penetrant must be lighter than water so that water contamination will
always sink to the bottom of the tank. This property is related to the:
a. Viscosity
b. Surface tension
c. Volatility
d. Specific gravity

4
24. Rapid evaporation of a Penetrant can affect the viscosity as well as the
economic and safety aspects of a Penetrant. The rate of evaporation is
controlled by:
a. Volatility
b. Viscosity
c. Surface tension
d. Specific gravity

25. Flammability is a property of hydrocarbons and types of oils and

solvents that impact on the safe use of a Penetrant material. What is the
best test to evaluate flammability?
a. Viscosity
b. Flashpoint
c. Volatility
d. Specific gravity

26. Which of the following are not compatible with chloride ions, total
chlorine, and sulphur?
a. Titanium
b. High nickel alloys
c. Austenitic steels
d. All of the above
e. Both B and C above

27. It is often recommended that chloride content be limited to what

percentage of the Penetrant?
a. 0.01%
b. 0.1%
c. 1.0%
d. 1.1%

28. It is often recommended that sulphur content be limited to what percent

of the Penetrant?
a. 0.01%
b. 0.1%
c. 1.0%
d. 1.1%

29. Many specifications, including Mil-I-25135, require corrosion tests of

Penetrant materials with:
a. Aluminum
b. Magnesium
c. Steel
d. All of the above
e. A and B above

5
30. The water-wash test is used to evaluate the washing properties of
penetrants and emulsifiers. The spray nozzle is held 12 inches from the
wash surface. What should the water pressure be during spraying?
a. 10 pounds per square inch
b. 20 pounds per square inch
c. 30 pounds per square inch
d. 40 pounds per square inch

31. What is the minimum grain hardness of water that should provide an
adequate wash?
a. 2
b. 10
c. 20
d. 30

32. Electrostatic spraying requires that Penetrant materials have what level
of electrical resistance to provide safety for manual spray gun
operates?
a. High resistance
b. Medium resistance
c. Low resistance
d. It does not matter what resistance exists

33. Activity, viscosity, and water tolerance are the three properties of:
a. Lipophilic emulsifiers
b. Post-emulsified penetrants
c. Hydrophilic emulsifiers
d. Wet developers

34. Lipophilic emulsifiers are used full-strength as received. The

recommended emulsifier dwell time for a medium sensitivity (Group V)
Penetrant, depending on the surface roughness, is:
a. ½ to 3 minutes.
b. 1 to 3 minutes.
c. 2 to 5 minutes.
d. 5 to 20 minutes.

35. Hydrophilic emulsifiers have an infinite water tolerance. The higher the
dilution, the lower the tank life. What percent mixture has best tank life
for dipping application?
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 20%
d. 33%

6
36. Lipophillic emulsifiers have limited water tolerance. Excessive water
can reduce their activity, change their viscosity, and change their
appearance. What is the general range of water tolerance?
a. 1 to 5%
b. 5 to 10%
c. 5 to 20%
d. Over 20%

37. Lipophilic emulsifiers are oil-based and are flammable. What is the
minimum flashpoint of an emulsifier that is usually required by fire
insurance underwriters?
a. 100°F
b. 125°F
c. 135°F
d. 150°F

38. Water in a lipophilic emulsifier reduces its activity by lowering the

concentration. At the same time, the water increases the activity by:
a. Increasing the viscosity
b. Decreasing the viscosity
c. Making the emulsifier cloudy
d. Reducing the flashpoint

39. Hydrophilic emulsifier sensitivity can be varied by the e percent of

emulsifier-water mixture. What percent of emulsifier in the water
generally provides the best sensitivity?
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 20%
d. 30%

40. Hydrophilic emulsifiers can be mixed with the rinse water to act as a
spray remover. However many parts of water should be added to one
part of emulsifier for this application?
a. 20 to 1
b. 50 to 1
c. 100 to 1
d. 200 to 1

41. What test best indicates the overall performance of an emulsifier?

a. Penetrant Tolerance Test
b. Water Tolerance Test
c. Water Washability Test
d. Viscosity and Activity Balance

7
42. Which of the following is not recommended in the use of removers in
the solvent-removed method?
a. Wipe with a clean, lint-free cloth.
b. Wipe with a clean, solvent-dampened cloth.
c. Flush with a water spray
d. Flush the surface with a solvent spray

43. When no developers are used with fluorescent penetrants, what black
light intensity is recommended at the inspection surface?
a. 800 μW/cm2
b. 1200 μW/cm2
c. 1500 μW/cm2
d. 3000 μW/cm2
44. The primary requirement of a developer is to form an indication.
Essential developer action is to:
a. Draw a sufficient amount of Penetrant from a flaw to form an indication.
b. Expand the width of the indication to make it detectable by the eye.
c. Increase the brightness of the dye above bulk brightnes.
d. All of the above
e. Only A and B above

45. Which of the following developers is most sensitive?

a. Dry
b. Water-washable Penetrant
c. Solvent-suspended
d. Plastic film

46. For dip tank applications, which developer requires the least
maintenance and quality test?
a. Dry
b. Water-washable Penetrant
c. Solvent-suspended
d. Water-soluble

47. Which developer is not recommended with a water-washable Penetrant?

a. Dry
b. Plastic film
c. Solvent-suspended
d. Water-soluble

8
48. Which of the following developing actions is predominant with dry
developer?
a. Capillary action
b. Expands the developer in a crack
c. Provides a uniform film surface for a contrasting background
d. Dissolves the Penetrant in the defect
49. Solvent-suspended developer forms an indication by which of the
following actions?
a. The developer particles form capillaries for the Penetrant
b. The solvent dissolves and expands the Penetrant in the crack
c. The developer provides a uniform white coating
d. All of the above

50. The most important functional test for we-suspended developer is the:
a. Sensitivity test
b. Water-break test
c. Hydrometer test
d. Specific gravity

51. Which of the following methods of applying dry developer is the most
sensitive?
a. Immersion
b. Dust cloud
c. Fluidized bed
d. Dust cloud-electrostatic gun

9
 LPT CHAPTER 1 ANSWERS

Q.NO ANS Q.NO ANS Q.NO ANS

1 D 21 B 41 C
2 E 22 D 42 D
3 C 23 D 43 D
4 D 24 A 44 D
5 B 25 B 45 C
6 A 26 D 46 A
7 D 27 C 47 D
8 B 28 C 48 A
9 C 29 D 49 D
10 D 30 C 50 A
11 E 31 C 51 D
12 B 32 A
13 C 33 A
14 A 34 A
15 C 35 D
16 B 36 C
17 E 37 B
18 B 38 B
19 A 39 A
20 D 40 D

10
 CHAPTER 2
REVIEW QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following ways describes how soils on the surface affect
Penetrant testing?
a. Restrict bleed-out of the Penetrant to form indications
b. Restrict entry of the Penetrant into the discontinuity
c. Reduce wetting of the test object surface by the Penetrant
d. All of the above
e. Only A and B above

2. Which of the following surface conditions is not classified as a so

a. Residues from previous Penetrant inspections
b. Smeared metal from machining or polishing
c. Lubricating oil
d. Scale

3. Which of the following cleaning methods should be used to remove

smeared metal?
a. Etching
b. Abrasive cleaning
c. Salt bath descaling
d. Ultrasonic degreasing

4. What cleaning method is recommended to remove paint and varnish

before Penetrant testing?
a. Abrasion
b. Solvent
c. Etching
d. Vapor degreasing

5. Which of the metals listed will smear with machining and grinding?
a. Steel
b. Aluminum
c. Titanium
d. All of the above
e. Only B and C above

6. Intergranular, stress, fretting and exfoliation are related terms. Under

which of the following conditions are they related?
a. Oxidation
b. Corrosion
c. Erosion
d. Fatigue

11
7. Penetrant will detect corrosion deposits; how can cracks under the
corrosion be detected?
a. The surface should be scrubbed with detergent.
b. The corrosion deposits should be ground away.
c. The surface should be solvent-cleaned.
d. The surface corrosion deposits should be selectively removed by
chemicals in a process similar to etching.
e. Cracks under the corrosion cannot be detected.

8. A certain soil on the surface of a service part cannot be removed by

normal cleaning methods. What steps should be taken to find other
cleaning methods?
a. Analyze the soil chemically to determine its constituents.
b. Call in a consultant
c. Grind the soil off and pickle the metal.
d. Burn the soil off and pickle the metal
e. None of the above

9. Processing of turbine blades requires grinding and polishing. What

cleaning method can be used to remove metal smear and burring?
a. Heat deburring
b. Etching
c. Electro-polishing
d. All of the above
e. Only A and C above

10. Which of the sources listed would be the best reference for electro-
cleaning parts?
a. ASTM standards
b. ASNT handbook
c. Equipment manufacturer’s instruction manual
d. None of the above

11. Which application method provides the greatest sensitivity?

a. Keep the part continuously submerged in the Penetrant during the
dwell time.
b. Dip the part into the Penetrant for a short time; remove and drain for
the remainder of the dwell time
c. Apply the Penetrant with a brush; continue applying Penetrant to keep
the surface fluid.
d. All of the above provide equal sensitivities.

12
12. What is the maximum temperature of a Penetrant in a tank, when
dipping hot parts?
a. 90°F, 32°C
b. 100°F, 38°C
c. 110°F, 43°C
d. 135°F, 57°C
13. When dipping hot parts, which of the following procedures is best?
a. Dip for one-third of dwell time; drain
b. Leave the part submerged for the full dwell time
c. Leave the part submerged until it is cool; drain.
d. None of the above; dipping hot parts is not a recommended procedure.

14. Which spray method applies the thinnest coat of Penetrant with the
least overspray?
a. Airbrush
b. Pressure gun
c. Electrostatic spray
d. Spray can

15. A Penetrant that has a higher viscosity than one previously used
requires what adjustments in the dwell time?
a. Viscosity doesn’t influence dwell time
b. Higher viscosity requires and increase in dwell time
c. Higher viscosity requires and decrease in dwell time
d. None of the above

16. Visible penetrants have low sensitivity. Which of the following is the
most suitable application(s) of visible penetrant?
a. Detection of fatigue cracks
b. Inspection of weldments on building constructions
c. Inspection for stress corrosion cracks
d. Detection of intergranular cracks
e. Only B and C above

17. Group VI and VII fluorescent penetrants used for detection of stress
corrosion cracking should have a minimum dwell time of:
a. 30 minutes
b. 60 minutes
c. 120 minutes
d. 240 minutes
e. Group VI penetrants should not be used for this application.

13
18. Which of the following is not a good method to apply emulsifier to
remove surface Penetrant?
a. Spraying
b. Brushing
c. Dipping
d. Flowing

19. Hydrophilic and lipophilic are types of:

a. Penetrants
b. Emulsifiers
c. Developers
d. Removers

20. Which is the proper procedure to remove surplus Penetrant?

a. Wipe the wet surface with toweling; remove the background with
toweling dampened with remover.
b. Wipe off the surplus with toweling; remove the background with
toweling saturated with remover.
c. Flush the Penetrant off the surface by spraying
d. Wash the surface with a rag saturated with remover.

21. Hydrophilic emulsifier used in a dip tank is typically used within what
concentration with water?
a. 0% dilution
b. 5% to 33 1/3%
c. 20% to 33 1/3%
d. .0033% to 0.005%
e. 67% to 95%

22. Lipophilic emulsifier used in a dip tank is typically diluted before initial
use with what amount of water?
a. 0% dilution
b. 5% to 33 1/3%
c. 20% to 33 1/3%
d. .0033% to 0.005%
e. 67% to 95%

23. Hydrophilic emulsifier used as a spray scrubber remover can be diluted

to what percentage concentration with water?
a. 0% dilution
b. 5% to 33 1/3%
c. 20% to 33 1/3%
d. .0033% to 0.005%
e. 67% to 95%

14
24. Which of the following solvents contain halogens?
a. Naphtha
b. Alcohol
c. Trichloroethylene
d. Gasoline
e. None of the above

25. Which of the following developer are used with a Group VI Penetrant to
obtain the same sensitivity as a Group V Penetrant with a solvent-
suspended developer?
a. No developer
b. Dry developer
c. Water-suspended developer
d. Water-soluble developer

26. In the following diagram of a Penetrant process using a hydrophilic

emulsifier removal, which step should be in block 1?

Penetrant Drain 1 2 3 4 Dryer

a. Emulsifier drain
b. Pre-rinse
c. Emulsifier application
d. Wash

27. Which should be in block 2, above?

a. Emulsifier drain
b. Pre-rinse
c. Emulsifier application
d. Wash

28. Which should be in block 3, above?

a. Emulsifier drain
b. Pre-rinse
c. Emulsifier application
d. Wash

29. Which should be in block 4, above?

a. Emulsifier drain
b. Pre-rinse
c. Emulsifier application
d. Wash

15
30. What is the usual emulsifier dwell time range for a Group VI Penetrant in
a lipophilic emulsifier?
a. ½ to 3 minutes
b. 1 to 5 minutes
c. 2 to 10 minutes
d. 3 to 20 minutes

31. What is the usual emulsifier dwell time range for a Group V Penetrant in
a hydrophilic emulsifier?
a. ½ to 3 minutes
b. 1 to 5 minutes
c. 2 to 10 minutes
d. 3 to 20 minutes

32. On the following, what percent of concentration of hydrophilic

emulsifier in a dip tank will provide the best sensitivity?
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 20%
d. 33%
e. 95%

33. Water pressure in the metric system is measured in kilopascals (kPa). If

1 psi = 6.845kPa, what is the metric equivalent of 30 psi?
a. 195.46 kPa
b. 205.35 kPa
c. 215.35 kPa
d. 225.55 kPa

34. Which of the following developers is capable of producing the greatest

system sensitivity?
a. Dry
b. Water-soluble
c. Water-suspended
d. Solvent-suspended

35. Which of the following methods of applying dry developer will provide
the highest sensitivity?
a. Dipping
b. Fog chamber
c. Electrostatic fog
d. Dusting

16
36. Which of the following developers is the easiest to remove?
a. Solvent-suspended
b. Water-suspended
c. Dry
d. Water-soluble

37. By which method should solvent-suspended developer be applied?

a. Dipping
b. Spraying
c. Fogging
d. Fluidized bed

38. How many coats of plastic film developer should be applied before the
coating can be stripped off?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 5
e. 10

39. What post-cleaning method should be used on the parts for a LOX
system?
a. Vapor degreaser
b. As specified by the prime contractor
c. Detergent wash
d. Alcohol

17
 LPT CHAPTER 2 ANSWERS

Q.NO ANS Q.NO ANS

1 D 21 B
2 B 22 A
3 A 23 D
4 B 24 C
5 D 25 A
6 B 26 B
7 D 27 C
8 A 28 A
9 D 29 D
10 A 30 B
11 B 31 D
12 C 32 A
13 C 33 B
14 C 34 D
15 B 35 C
16 B 36 C
17 D 37 B
18 B 38 D
19 B 39 B
20 A

18
 CHAPTER 3
REVIEW QUESTIONS

1. The detectability of a discontinuity depends on:

a. How the discontinuity was formed
b. How the part was formed and machined
c. The size and characteristics of the discontinuity
d. The location of the discontinuity
e. All of the above

2. Parts being tested have been recently heat-treated; heat treating cracks
are suspect. Which method would be most appropriate?
a. Group IV water-washable Penetrant; dry developer
b. Group V post-emulsified Penetrant; wet developer
c. Group V post-emulsified Penetrant; solvent-suspended developer
d. Group VI water-washable Penetrant; dry developer

3. A forging procedure sometimes forms a lap in the radius of a hub.

Which of the following should be used to detect it?
a. Group IV water-washable Penetrant; dry developer
b. Group V water-washable Penetrant; wet developer
c. Group V post-emulsified Penetrant; solvent-suspended developer
d. Group VI post-emulsified Penetrant; solvent-suspended developer

4. Stress corrosion cracks are very fine and often contain corrosion
products. Four-hour Penetrant dwell times are often required. What
method should be used?
a. Group VI post-emulsified Penetrant; solvent-removed remover;
solvent-suspended developer
b. Visible penetrant; solvent-removed remover; solvent-suspended
developer
c. Group VI post-emulsified Penetrant; solvent-removed remover; dry
developer
d. Group V post-emulsified Penetrant; hydrophilic emulsifier; solvent-
suspended developer

19
 5. A production inspection facility was needed to inspect several thousand
engine components each day. These parts range in size from turbine
blades (1 inch long) to burner and compressed cases (36 inches long).
Two sensitivity levels are necessary. A block diagram of proposed
systems are shown; the conveyor is a continuous monorail that can be
programmed to use or pass any station to obtain the proper sensitivity
level. Which of the following will provide two sensitivity levels?

a.
Solvent-
Water 5% 33% hydrophilic Dry developer suspended
rinse hydrophilic emulsifier Water rinse dry log chamber developer inspect
emulsifier spray
Low sensitivity
Low sensitivity
High sensititvity High
sensititvity
b.

hydrophilic Dry developer Solvent-

Solvent dip emulsifier Water dip Water rinse dry log chamber suspended inspect
developer
Rough surfaces spray
high sensitivity
Low sensitivity

High
c. sensititvity

Wet developer Solvent-

Solvent Lipophilic Water dip spray dry suspended
dip emulsifier Water rinse developer inspect
spray
Rough surfaces high sensitivity Low sensitivity
High
sensititvity

d. All of the above

e. None of the above

6. Cast magnesium and aluminum normally have a considerable amount of

microshrinkage and gas porosity. These discontinuities are usually no
problem when Penetrant testing the raw casting; however, after
machining into these internal voids, it is often very difficult to detect
cracks due to the large amount of background. Which of the following
is most likely to provide the best approach?
a. A high viscosity, high contact angle Penetrant; fogged dry developer
b. A small Miniscus spot Penetrant; part dipped in wet developer
c. A visible Penetrant and a heavy coat of developer
d. A group IV water-washable Penetrant; a wet developer with a long
drying time

20
7. The first step in preparing a Penetrant procedure is to determine
a. How fine a discontinuity a method can detect
b. What size of discontinuities are in the part
c. What size and type of discontinuities it is necessary to detect.
d. The cost of the inspection

8. A large tank has a welded liner on the inside surface; the welds must be
inspected for porosity and cracks. The tank has a number of openings
in the top and bottom around which the liner is welded. What is the best
approach?
a. Group IV water-washable Penetrant removed by water spray
b. Water-washable visible Penetrant removed by water spray
c. Group IV water-washable Penetrant removed with wet towels
d. Group V post-emulsified Penetrant, hydrophilic emulsifier, and water
spray.

9. A ceramic ware manufacturer received a contract to make high voltage

insulators. The quality requirements would not allow cracks; all cracks
must be detected in the green ware prior to glazing. What type of
Penetrant would provide the best results?
a. Water-washable Group IV Penetrant; dry developer
b. Filtered particle Penetrant
c. Visible Penetrant; dry developer
d. Water-washable Group V Penetrant; no developer

10. What type of developer is used with filtered particle penetrants?

a. Dry
b. Water-suspended
c. Water-soluble
d. Solvent-suspended
e. No developer required

11. What technique is used to reduce the background an increases the

contrast of filtered particle Penetrant?
a. Fluorescent filtered particle used
b. Prewetting the part with oil
c. Prewetting the part with water
d. Soaking in water ad detergent

12. The best method to applied filtered particle penetrate is:

a. Brushing
b. With a pressure gun
c. Dipping
d. All of the above

21
13. Some types of clay and chinaware can be salvaged by chasing out the
crack. How can be bottom of the crack be indicated to show when the
crack is removed?
a. Use a chemical to interact with the filtered particle Penetrant
b. Add dye to the filtered particle vehicle
c. Chase it until no more filtered particles are found in the crack
d. There is no way to tell except by retesting with filtered particles

14. When evaluated filtered particle indications, what is the cause of

circular indications or ring marks?
a. Circular mold marks
b. The filtered particle Penetrant was held in a puddle
c. Shrinkage cracks
d. Water marks

15. Noxious fumes are:

a. Toxic
b. Annoying but not toxic
c. Leakage indicators
d. Not a problem

16. Penetrants must be sprayed only:

a. In the open
b. In a paint booth
c. At a café distance from a spark or flame
d. All of the above

17. Corrosion tests on bright smooth specimens are intended to produce:

a. No tarnish or pitting in the liquid, the vapor area or at the vapor/liquid
interface
b. No tarnish in the liquid area
c. No pitting in the liquid; tarnish is allowed
d. No pitting in the liquid submerged area; tarnish is allowed in the vapor
area above the liquid.

18. Components of liquid oxygen (LOX) systems can be Penetrant tested

with commercial penetrants:
a. If the component is assembled in the system
b. If the component is assembled by brazing
c. Only if the component is completely disassembled and cleaned of all
Penetrant materials after inspection.
d. Under no conditions

22
LPT CHAPTER 3 ANSWERS

Q.NO ANS
1 E
2 A
3 D
4 A
5 D
6 A
7 C
8 A
9 B
10 E
11 C
12 B
13 B
14 B
15 B
16 D
17 A
18 C

23
 CHAPTER 4
REVIEW QUESTIONS

1. Which of the items listed is not a consideration in evaluating fluorescent

Penetrant equipment for a specific facility?
a. The size of the material and parts to be inspected
b. The production rate
c. The type of light in the room
d. The floor space needed for equipment and material storage

2. Of the items listed, which should have least consideration when

determining whether the equipment should be stock modular units or a
specially designed automated Penetrant processor?
a. Must the system have optimum reproducibility?
b. What production rate can be expected?
c. What Penetrant process will be used?
d. What is the type and capacity of the utilities in the proposed test area?

3. The best technique for applying wet developer for the highest sensitivity
is:
a. Dipping and draining
b. Spraying
c. Flowing the developer onto the part
d. All of the above methods provide equal sensitivity

4. Automated processors are designed to handle the total production.

When the system is down production can be delayed. Therefore,
equipment maintenance is a very important consideration. Which is the
best procedure to assure that timely maintenance is available?
a. Have a maintenance contract with the manufacturer
b. Trained service personnel should be available in the plant
maintenance function.
c. Have a maintenance contract with an equipment maintenance
company.
d. All of the above are equally effective

5. The best method of applying dry developer in an automatic processor in

high production is with:
a. A fog chamber
b. A dip bin
c. Heated air
d. An electrostatic gun

24
6. In automatic processors, what is the best method for applying Penetrant
to achieve the highest sensitivity?
a. Dip and drain
b. Air spray
c. Electrostatic gun
d. All of the above are satisfactory

7. The best technique for applying solvent-suspended developers is by:

a. Dipping
b. Brushing
c. Flowing on
d. Spraying

8. Lipophilic and hydrophilic emulsifiers should be applied by which of the

following methods?
a. Dipping
b. Spraying
c. Flowing on
d. Any of the above

9. A hydrophilic emulsifier, when used as a remover with up to 300:1

diluiton, usually is applied by:
a. Automatic mixing pressure guns.
b. Air spray
c. Dip tank
d. Fog chamber

10. The wash station for fluorescent penetrants should be illuminated by

which of the following lights?
a. Fluorescent
b. Ultraviolet
c. Incandescent
d. Infrared
e. Mercury vapor

11. For best results, visible penetrants should be illuminated with white
light of what intensity?
a. 80 foot-candles
b. 90 foot-candles
c. 100 foot-candles
d. 1200 microwatts per square centimeter

25
12. The filter used in front of the high pressure mercury vapor light has a
peak transmission at what wavelength of light?
a. 256 nm
b. 360 nm
c. 365 nm
d. 390 nm

13. The black light intensity needed for the detection of very fine indications
is:
a. 750 μW/cm2
b. 900 μW/cm2
c. 1200 μW/cm2
d. 3000 μW/cm2

14. Light is made up of rays of various colors and wavelengths.

Wavelengths is described as a number of different units; which of the
following has the shortest increment?
a. Angstrom units (Å)
b. Millimicron (mμ)
c. Nanometer (nm)
d. Millimeter (mm)

15. The recommended black light intensity at the inspection surface for
normal inspection is:
a. 900 μW/cm2
b. 1200 μW/cm2
c. 1500 μW/cm2
d. 3000 μW/cm2

16. Tanks of a Penetrant system should be made of a material that will not
be corroded by the liquid it contains. Which of the following equipment
stations should be made of steel and/or galvanized iron?
a. PE Penetrant application station
b. Emulsifier station
c. Dryer
d. All of the above
e. Only A and C above

17. Which of the following stations should be made of stainless steel and/or
fiberglass and resin?
a. Emulsifier station
b. Rinse station
c. Wet developer station
d. All of the above
e. Only B and C above

26
18. Which of the materials listed is not usually induced in a portable
Penetrant kit?
a. Penetrant
b. Emulsifier
c. Solvent-suspended developer
d. Solvent remover

19. What type of light is used in a 100 watt black light?

a. Incandescent
b. Fluorescent
c. Sodium vapor
d. High pressure mercury vapor

20. What type of bulb is used in the 100 watt black light?
a. Spherical
b. Long round
c. Prefocused spot
d. Prefocused flood

21. The maximum time that a 100 watt blacklight can be operated at one
time is:
a. 1 hour
b. 4 hour
c. 6 hour
d. Not limited

22. The water pressure at the wash station should be controlled by a:

a. Pressure gauge
b. Pressure regulator valve
c. Thermometer
d. Gauge section

23. The wash nozzle should provide what type of spray for a water-
washable Penetrant?
a. A very fine soft spray
b. A coarse soft spray
c. A coarse brisk spray
d. A hard scrubbing spray

24. The wash nozzle should provide what type of spray when hydrophilic
emulsifier is used as a remover?
a. A very fine soft spray
b. A coarse soft spray
c. A coarse brisk spray
d. A hard scrubbing spray

27
LPT CHAPTER 4 ANSWERS

Q.NO ANS
1 C
2 C
3 B
4 B
5 A
6 D
7 D
8 D
9 A
10 B
11 C
12 C
13 D
14 A
15 C
16 E
17 D
18 B
19 D
20 C
21 D
22 B
23 C
24 D

28
 CHAPTER 5
REVIEW QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following fluorescent indications would most likely

represent a tight or contaminated crack?
a. A line of bright fluorescent spots
b. A wide bright line
c. One small spot
d. A cluster of spots

2. A heat treatment crack would most likely show which type of

fluorescent indication?
a. A fine, blue-white indication
b. An intermittent fine line of indications
c. A bright yellow-green indications
d. A line of bright dots

3. A cold shut in a casting would show which type of indication?

a. A line of dots
b. A group of dots
c. A continuous line; narrow and not jagged
d. An intermittent line

4. Forging laps can be partially welded along their length. They can be full
of scale in some instances; sometimes they are deep and tight. Which
of the following indications is probably not from a forging lap?
a. A wavy, intermittent line of bright dots
b. A short, sharp, fine indication
c. A curved, bright line
d. An intermittent line, somewhat fuzzy and dull

5. A round group of dot-type indications is detected in a casting. Which of

the following discontinuities is suspect?
a. Quench crack
b. Mis-run
c. Hot tear
d. Gas porosity

6. Which of the following indications is probably not from a fatigue crack?

a. A fine line of dots, some with a blue-white fluorescence
b. A fine, sharp, straight line
c. An area of fine, sharp indications
d. A fine, sharp, jagged or forked indication

29
7. Which of the following types of indications are typical of grinding
burns?
a. An area of short and long parallel sharp indications
b. And area of fine cracks that are bright and run in all directions
c. A few very short, fine, dim indications
d. All of the above

8. An aircraft landing gear part was inspected with a Group V Penetrant;

no indications were detected. Later, the rod was reinspected with a
Group VI Penetrant using solvent-suspended developer from a spray
can. Many fine, dim indications were scattered over all the part. What
could cause these indications?
a. Fatigue cracks
b. Grinding cracks
c. Cracks normally found in hard chrome plate
d. Stress corrosion

9. Two forget aircraft wing attach fittings were submerged in the tank
containing Group VI Penetrant; they remained submerged for 30
minutes and were then put on the drain rack. The operator processed
one before going home; no indications were found. The next morning,
the Penetrant on the second part was too dry; the part had to be re-
dipped in order to wash it. Solvent-suspended developer was used on
the second one (as it was on the first); however, this fitting showed a
group of very fine indications on each side of the bottom clevis holes.
Which of the following would be suspected?
a. Fatigue cracks
b. Stress corrosion cracks
c. Grinding checks
d. Forging laps

10. To find stress corrosion which method will be used?

a. Dry powder
b. Water-suspended
c. Solvent-suspended
d. Water soluble

11. In the inspection of turbine blades, the inspector wiped the indications
off the leading edge and reapplied the developer. Some of the small
indications did not return; some of the larger indications reappeared.
What is the proper evaluation?
a. Irrelevant indications
b. False indications
c. Fine, shallow, tight cracks which held a very small amount of
Penetrant; the indication will not redevelop
d. The wrong developer was used

30
12. A very fine visible indication was detected; the inspector set the part
aside for later inspection. Several hours later, the indication could not
be found. Why?
a. The inspector did not really see an indication initially
b. The indication was irrelevant
c. The indication has bled out laterally into the coat of developer and had
disappeared
d. Any of the above was likely

13. Which of the following conditions influence(s) the persistence of and

indication?
a. Precleaning
b. Type of Penetrant and its dye system
c. Processing procedure
d. Developer type
e. All of the above

14. Light intensity requirements in military and industrial specifications

issued since 1970 are frequently being:
a. Increased
b. Decreased
c. Not changed
d. Left unspecified

15. Defect can also be which of the following?

a. Discontinuity
b. Blemish
c. Flaw
d. All of the above

16. Which of the following characteristics of a fluorescent Penetrant

indication can be used to evaluate the type and cause of the
discontinuity?
a. Brightness
b. Size and shape
c. Location
d. Persistence
e. All of the above

17. Pre-wetting is a technique used to reduce the background in which of

the following Penetrant methods?
a. Water-washable fluorescent Penetrant
b. Water-washable visible Penetrant
c. Filtered particle Penetrant
d. Post-emulsified Penetrant; hydrophilic emulsifier

31
18. Which of the following is not an irrelevant indication?
a. Bleeding from a press fit
b. Bleeding from faying surfaces
c. Porosity indications seen in a casting during service maintenance
inspection
d. Streaks and background from poorly washed parts
e. A streak caused by bleeding from a small, blind hole.

19. Recording Penetrant indications for documentation and illustration is

important. Which of the following recording methods can provide the
most information?
a. Photography
b. Sketching
c. Replication
d. Lifting the indication with tape

20. Which of the following filters can be used for color photography of
fluorescent indications?
a. K-2
b. No. 2B Wratten
c. No. 8 Wratten
d. All of the above

21. The primary characteristic(s) of the photographic filter for

photographing fluorescent Penetrant indications is which of the
following?
a. An absorber of visible light
b. An absorber of UV light and a good transmitter of red light
c. An absorber of light with a wavelength of less than 400 nanometers
d. None of the above

22. Which of the developers listed is best for lifting Penetrant indications?
a. Water soluble
b. Plastic
c. Dry
d. Solvent-suspended

32
LPT CHAPTER 5 ANSWERS

Q.NO ANS
1 A
2 C
3 C
4 B
5 D
6 C
7 D
8 C
9 B
10 C
11 C
12 C
13 E
14 A
15 D
16 E
17 C
18 C
19 A
20 D
21 C
22 B

33
 CHAPTER – 6
REVIEW QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following is not a fabrication method for metals?

a. Casting
b. Heat treating
c. Forging
d. Welding

2. Which of the following is not a casting discontinuity?

a. Stringer
b. Shrinkage
c. Porosity
d. Cold shut

3. Which of the following discontinuities in a raw sand casting can be

detected with penetrants?
a. Hot tears
b. Cold shuts
c. Porosity
d. All of the above

4. Which type of Penetrant test was developed primarily for castings?

a. Solvent-removed fluorescent Penetrant
b. Water-washable fluorescent Penetrant
c. Post-emulsification visible Penetrant
d. Post-emulsification fluorescent Penetrant

5. Which of the following Penetrant methods is recommended for

production inspection of forgings?
a. Solvent-removed fluorescent Penetrant
b. Water-washable fluorescent Penetrant
c. Post-emulsification visible penetrant
d. Post-emulsification fluorescent Penetrant

6. High integrity castings and forgings require high reliability in the

Penetrant materials and test methods used. Which of the listed
combination is recommended?
a. Water-washable fluorescent Penetrant , Group IV Penetrant, dry
developer
b. Post-emulsification visible Penetrant, Group II Penetrant, solvent-
suspended developer
c. Post-emulsification fluorescent Penetrant, Group IV Penetrant, dry
developer
d. Post-emulsification fluorescent Penetrant, Group VI Penetrant, dry
developer

34
7. Welds at construction sites are usually tested with which of the
following systems?
a. Visible dye Penetrant, solvent-removed
b. Post-emulsified Penetrant, solvent-suspended developer
c. Water-washable visible Penetrant, dry developer
d. Fluorescent Penetrant, solvent-removed

8. Penetrant testing used for maintenance inspection on aircraft must have

the highest sensitivity. Which of the following Penetrant techniques is
needed?
a. Group IV Penetrant, solvent removed, solvent-suspended developer
b. Group VI Penetrant, solvent removed, solvent-suspended developer
c. Group II Penetrant, solvent removed, nonaqueous wet developer
d. Group VI Penetrant, solvent removed, dry developer.

9. Which of the following typed of modes are usually used for casting
turbine blades?
a. Ceramic
b. Shell
c. Sand
d. Silicone rubber

10. Which of the following are likely to be found in a weld?

a. Mis-run
b. Crater cracks
c. Laps
d. Shrinkage porosity

11. Which of the following is not a welding discontinuity?

a. Slag inclusion
b. Lack of root penetration
c. Cold shut
d. Longitudinal crack

12. Which of the following welding methods would not require the removal
of slag and oxide prior to testing?
a. Metal inert gas
b. Rod welds
c. Submerged arc
d. Electroslag welds
e. All of the above may require precleaning

35
13. Which of the following solder joint discontinuities can be detected with
Penetrant?
a. Soft solder joint
b. Silver solder joint
c. Cold solder joint
d. None of the above

14. Which of the following is not a method for working wrough metals?
a. Extruding
b. Rolling
c. Drawing
d. Electro-forming

15. Which of the following is not found in forget metal?

a. Inclusions
b. Die tears
c. Lack of fusion
d. Laps
e. Chevron cracks

16. Penetrants may not show which of the following in a forging unless it is
pickled?
a. Inclusions
b. Laminations
c. Bursts
d. Quench cracks

17. Which of the following metals is not smeared by machining?

a. Aluminum
b. Brass
c. Steel
d. Titanium
e. All of the above can be smeared

18. The first step is evaluating the use of Penetrant on a plastic material is
to:
a. Degrease the part
b. Check the Penetrant test materials compatibility with the plastic
c. Apply a water-washable fluorescent Penetrant
d. Remove oxidation from the surface

36
19. Which of the following non-metallic items can be tested with
penetrants?
a. Distributor caps
b. Spark plug insulators
c. Nylon orthopedic implants
d. All of the above
e. Only B and C above

20. What Penetrant should be used to test porous ceramics for cracks?
a. Group IV water-washable Penetrant, dry developer
b. Filtered particle Penetrant
c. Group V fluorescent Penetrant, no developer
d. Group III visible Penetrant

21. Which of the following Penetrant test methods is most used for in-
service inspection of aircraft structures?
a. A high sensitivity solvent-removed method
b. A high sensitivity water-washable method
c. A high resolution visible dye Penetrant method
d. A high sensitivity post-emulsified Penetrant method

22. Prior to Penetrant inspection of turbine blades, the carbon and oxidized
metal must be removed from the blades. Which of the following
cleaning methods is used?
a. Grinding and sanding
b. Chemical strippers
c. Liquid honing
d. All of the above

23. When acid is used to etch steel, what must be done to the steel
immediately after etching?
a. Wash and dry to remove the water
b. Wash, dry, and pickle
c. Electropolish to remove the scale
d. Bake to remove the hydrogen and rinse with water

24. What is the minimum dwell time frequently recommended for Group VII
Penetrant for detecting stress corrosion cracking?
a. 30 minutes
b. 60 minutes
c. 120 minutes
d. 240 minutes

37
25. Directives for the maintenance of commercial and civilian aircraft are
called:
a. Technical orders
b. Technical manuals
c. Airworthiness directives
d. Form 62-20C

38
LPT CHAPTER 6 ANSWERS

Q.NO ANSWER
1 B
2 A
3 D
4 B
5 D
6 D
7 A
8 B
9 A
10 B
11 C
12 E
13 C
14 D
15 C
16 A
17 E
18 B
19 D
20 B
21 A
22 D
23 D
24 D
25 C

39
 CHAPTER -7
REVIEW QUESTIONS

1. Penetrant quality control tests are comparison tests in most cases.

How is the comparison standard obtained?
a. A sample is retained from an unused batch of Penetrant or emulsifier
b. A sample is obtained from a centralized qualifying agency
c. A composite running sample is maintained from new material over a
time span
d. Standard samples are obtained from the National Bureau of Standards

2. Which of the following is a reason for making quality control rests of in-
service Penetrant materials?
a. To determine if the Penetrant materials being used can detect flaws as
well as new Penetrant materials
b. To determine if the Penetrant removal system provides a minimum
background without over-removal
c. To determine if the Penetrant materials act as effectively as the
laboratory procedure requires
d. All of the above
e. Only A and B above.

3. Below are lists of samples and types of tests. Place the proper test
number in the blank before each specimen.

________a. Production part

________b. Quench cracked block
________c. Sand blasted panel
________d. Cracked chrome plated panel
________e. Paper toweling
________f. Meniscus lenses
________g. Doped anodized aluminum panel

TESTS: 1. Water Washability

2. Fluorescent Dye Fading Test
3. Sensitivity Test
4. Developer Sensitivity Test

4. Which of the following include(s) instructions on how to prepare the

quench cracked aluminum panel and how to use it?
a. NDT handbook
b. General Dynamics, CT-6.2
c. Principle of penetrants
d. Mil-I-12135
e. All of the above

40
5. Recracking the aluminum test block at 800°F (427°C) affects the
sensitivity of the block in what way?
a. Decreases sensitivity
b. Increases sensitivity
c. Does not affect sensitivity
d. None of the above, since recracking cannot be accomplished
effectively

6. The brightness of the black light for evaluating background after a

water-wash test should be:
a. 1200 μW/cm2
b. 1500 μW/cm2
c. 3000 μW/cm2
d. 4000 μW/cm2

7. In the water tolerance sensitivity test, the standard penetrant sample

should contain;
a. No water dilution
b. 5 % water dilution
c. The same water dilution as in the test sample
d. 20% water dilution

8. Which of the following combinations of physical properties of a liquid

has the most effect on its penetrating properties?
a. Wetability and surface tension
b. Surface tension and contact angle
c. Capillarity, wetability, and surface tension
d. Specific gravity and viscosity

9. Which of the following variables influence(s) a drop test for comparing

surface tension?
a. Size of the drop
b. Roughness of the surface
c. Temperature of the liquid and test surface
d. All of the above
e. Only B and C above

10. The contact angle of Penetrant on aluminum is usually related in what

way with contact angle on stainless steel or chrome plate?
a. It is larger on aluminum
b. It is smaller on aluminum
c. It is the same on each metal
d. The contact angle is not a function of the type of material

41
11. Scratches on a smooth surface cause a drop of Penetrant to spread:
a. Faster
b. Slower
c. To the nearest scratch and then stop spreading
d. More slowly if he Penetrant is of high viscosity

12. In a capillary tube test of a Penetrant, the surface of the Penetrant in the
capillary tube should have what shape?
a. Flat
b. Positive meniscus
c. Negative meniscus
d. The shape of the surface cannot be determined with this test

13. What effect does viscosity have on the penetrating properties of a

Penetrant?
a. It has no effect
b. It influences the rate of penetration
c. It influences the brightness in a fluorescent Penetrant
d. It produces variations in the dye concentration in a visible dye
Penetrant

14. Viscosity is measured with which of these instruments?

a. Viscometer
b. Hydrometer
c. Surface diffractometer
d. Cleveland open cup
e. Both A and D above

15. Which of the following conditions is a desirable effect of water in a

lipophilic emulsifier?
a. Water increases viscosity
b. Water decreases viscosity
c. Water reduces activity
d. Water causes it to cloud
e. None of the above are desirable effects

16. Which of the following methods can be used to compare the dye
content of visible dye Penetrant?
a. A light transmission comparator
b. A stoppered graduate
c. A capillary tube
d. A pear-shaped centrifuge tube
e. None of the above

42
17. Which of the following properties of a fluorescent dye penetrant is the
most important?
a. Viscosity
b. Capillarity
c. Fluorescent brightness
d. Contamination resistance

18. Which of the following conditions will cause fluorescent dyes to

deteriorate most rapidly?
a. Sunlight
b. Black light
c. Contamination
d. Hot dipping parts

19. When visually evaluating the brightness of two drops of fluorescent

Penetrant on a piece of paper toweling, which of the following methods
should be used to reduce the brightness of the spot?
a. Move the black light away form the specimen
b. Use cobalt glass filters to reduce the brightness
c. Use polarized materials to reduce the brightness
d. Any of the above are acceptable methods

20. What instrument can be used to measure fluorescent brightness?

a. A light spectrometer
b. Al photofluorometer
c. A brightness comparator
d. A photodensitometer

21. The spot caused by contaminated Penetrant in a meniscus lens test

should compare in which way with the standard penetrant?
a. It should be smaller than the standard
b. It should be larger than the standard
c. It should be the same as the standard
d. Its size is irrelevant; brightness is what is measured in a meniscus lens
test

22. A fluorescent Penetrant dye changes to a blue-white color during a

brightness or fading test. Why?
a. The booster dye is fading
b. The color forming dye is fading
c. The black light has shifted in wavelength
d. This condition is not possible

43
23. Accurate water content in a Penetrant or emulsifier can be determined by
a. The ASTM D-95 xylene test
b. The water-break test
c. The water tolerance test
d. An antifreeze hydrometer

24. A 60 gallon Penetrant tank is ¼ full. This show a water content of 4%,
the sensitivity is acceptable, but the dye shows a slight tendency to
fade. How should a Penetrant specimen be prepared to determine if the
Penetrant in the tank should be discarded or replenished? (Note:
Penetrant costs $ 12 per gallon).
a. 3 parts new Penetrant, 1 part old Penetrant
b. 3 parts old Penetrant, 1 part new Penetrant
c. 2 parts new Penetrant, 2 parts old Penetrant
d. Since the costs of replenishment is $530, compared with $720 to
replace it, replenishment should be made prior to testing a specimen

25. The water tolerance of hydrophilic emulsifiers is in what range of water

content?
a. 5 to 7% water
b. 15 to 20% water
c. 20 to 33% water
d. 33 to 50% water
e. Water tolerance does not apply to hydrophilic emulsifiers

26. Which developer requires the fewest quality control checks when used
in a high production Penetrant testing facility?
a. Wet developer in a dip tank
b. Dry developer in a fog chamber
c. Wet developer in a spray booth
d. Water-soluble developer in a dip tank

27. Which of the following developers is purchased as a dry powder?

a. Dry
b. Water-suspended
c. Water-soluble
d. All of the above

28. What property of a liquid is measured by a hydrometer?

a. Temperature
b. Density
c. Specific gravity
d. Viscosity
e. Wetability

44
29. Which of the following test object factors influence(s) penetrant testing?
a. Rough surface
b. Complex configurations
c. Objects with smooth machined areas and rough cast areas
d. All of the above
e. Only A and C above

30. When application method should be considered as an economical

approach for applying Penetrant to small parts with complex shaped
and interior cavities?
a. Dip tanks
b. Pressure spray nozzles
c. Air spray systems
d. Electrostatic spray

31. Emulsifiers are difficult to control when they are applied to rough and
smooth surfaces on the same part, complicated shapes, and large
complex parts. Which of the following emulsifier applications would be
the best to remove Penetrant from such surfaces?
a. Lipophilic emulsifier
b. Solvent flow over the rough areas
c. Hydrophilic emulsifier dip
d. Hydrophilic emulsifier water mixture sprayed under black light

32. What is the best procedure for controlling the overall quality of
Penetrant inspection processes?
a. Process control
b. Careful personnel selection and supervision
c. Application technique development
d. All of the above
e. Only A and C above

33. As sensitivity requirements increase, how should the process control

and audit procedures be changes?
a. The process control period should be shortened
b. The audit period should be shortened
c. Process requirements should be more specific
d. All of the above
e. Only a and c above

45
34. In addition to personnel qualifications, Penetrant materials control, and
procedures audits, what else is needed to assure that the Penetrant
process is in control?
a. Calibration of instruments and gauges
b. Checking of intensity of inspection lights
c. Cleanliness of the area
d. Maintenance of all machinery
e. All of the above

35. In Penetrant facilities testing items with different sensitivity and

reliability requirements, which of the following procedures will best
assure technique control?
a. Make a list of parts that use each type of technique
b. Brief personnel on procedures to be used with a specific part
c. Place a test procedure with each lot to be inspected
d. The inspector should be required to know what procedure to use from
experience.

36. How can a customer or management best determine that the Penetrant
facility is operated properly and is in control?
a. Check all of the records of the facility
b. Perform periodic unannounced audits of the facility
c. Issue directives to specify how the tests must be performed
d. Personality inspect the facility on a specific day once a week

37. A reliable Penetrant inspection requires that:

a. All schedules are met
b. The procedures meet government requirements
c. The Penetrant tests be reproducible
d. 100% of all discontinuities in the parts be detected

46
 LPT CHAPTER 7 ANSWERS

Q.NO ANSWER Q.NO ANSWER

1 A 21 B
2 D 22 B
3A 1,3 23 A
3B 3 24 A
3C 1 25 E
3D 3,4 26 B
3E 2 27 D
3F 2 28 C
3G 3 29 D
4 E 30 D
5 A 31 D
6 C 32 D
7 A 33 D
8 C 34 E
9 D 35 C
10 B 36 B
11 A 37 C
12 C
13 B
14 A
15 B
16 A
17 C
18 A
19 D
20 B

47