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Exam Test - 1 (02/Sept/2019) #813

1. Which is the shortest acting mydriatic

(A) Atropine
(B) Tropicamide
(C) Cyclopentolate
(D) Homatropine
Selected answer: (Not selected..)
The correct answer is: (B)

2. Catecholamine includes except

(A) Ephedrine
(B) Epinephrine
(C) Isoprenaline
(D) Norepinephrine
Selected answer: (A)
Correct!

3. Epinephrine is used in the treatment of all of the following disorders except

(A) Bronchospasm
(B) Anaphylactic shock
(C) Cardiac arrhythmia 
(D) Open angle glaucoma
Selected answer: (C)
Correct!

4. Which of the following drugs causes bronchodilation without signi cant


cardiac

(A) Isoprenaline
(B) Terbutaline
(C) Xylometazoline
(D) Methoxamine
Selected answer: (B)
The correct answer is: (D)

5. Hyperglycemia induced by epinephrine is due to

(A) Gluconeogenesis
(B) Inhibition of insulin secretion
(C) Stimulation of glycogenolysis
(D) All of the above
Selected answer: (B)
The correct answer is: (D)

6. Which of the following sympathomimetic is a beta-2 selective agonist?

(A) Terbutaline 
(B) Xylometazoline
(C) Isoproterenol
(D) Dobutamine
Selected answer: (D)
The correct answer is: (A)

7. Which of the following agents is an alpha-2 selective agonist with ability to


promote constriction of the nasal mucosa?

(A) Xylometazoline
(B) Phenylephrine
(C) Methoxamine
(D) Epinephrine
Selected answer: (A)
Correct!

8. Norepinephrine action at synaptic cleft is terminated by……….

(A) Metabolism by Glutamic acid decarboxylase


(B) Metabolism by MAO
(C) Reuptake
(D) Metabolism by acetylcholinesterase
Selected answer: (B)
The correct answer is: (C)
9. The following is a selective alpha-2 adrenoceptor……….

(A) Prazocin
(B) Phentolamine
(C) Yohimbine
(D) Clonidine
Selected answer: (C)
Correct!

10. First drug to be used in anaphylactic shock is

(A) Subcutaneous adrenaline


(B) I.V. corticosteroid
(C) Theophylline
(D) Antihistaminic
Selected answer: (A)
Correct!

11. Indicate the beta adrenoreceptor antagonist, which has partial beta-agonist
activity

(A) Propranolol
(B) Metoprolol
(C) Pindolol
(D) Betaxolol
Selected answer: (D)
The correct answer is: (A)

12. Indicate the alpha-1 selective antagonist

(A) Phentolamine
(B) Dihydroergotamine
(C) Prazocin
(D) Labetalol
Selected answer: (C)
Correct!

13. What is true of sildena l

(A) It enhance sexual enjoyment in normal men


(B) It delays ejaculation
(C) It improve penile tumescence in men with erectile dysfunction
(D) It blocks cavernosal alpha-2 adrenoreceptor
Selected answer: (Not selected..)
The correct answer is: (C)

14. Propanolol induced adverse e ects include all of the following, except

(A) Bronchoconstriction
(B) Supersenstivity of beta adrenergic receptors
(C) Hyperglycemia
(D) Sedation, sleep disturbance, depression and sexual dysfunction
Selected answer: (D)
The correct answer is: (C)

15. Which of the following anti-glaucoma medication is unsafe in infants

(A) Timolol
(B) Brimonidine
(C) Latanoprost
(D) Dorzolamide
Selected answer: (Not selected..)
The correct answer is: (B)

16. Select the drug which is administered orally for erectile dysfunction in men

(A) Yohimbine
(B) Papaverine
(C) Alprostadil
(D) Sildena l
Selected answer: (A)
The correct answer is: (D)

17. Subtype selective alpha-1 antagonist such as tamsulosin, terazosin, alfusosin


are e cacious in

(A) Hyperthyroidism
(B) Cardiac arrhythmias
(C) Benign prostatic hyperplasia
(D) Asthma
Selected answer: (Not selected..)
The correct answer is: (C)

18. Bimtoprost is used in ………

(A) Glaucoma
(B) Barrett esophagus
(C) Hypertrichosis of eyelid
(D) NSAIDS ulcer
Selected answer: (Not selected..)
The correct answer is: (A)

19. Most commonly postural hypotension is seen with ……..

(A) Prazocin
(B) ACE inhibitor
(C) Atenolol
(D) Both a & b
Selected answer: (D)
The correct answer is: (A)

20. Beta blocker with peripheral vasodilator action is …….

(A) Carvedilol
(B) Propranolol
(C) Atenolol
(D) Acebutalol
Selected answer: (A)
Correct!

21. Which of the following has the shortest plasma half life……..

(A) Propranolol
(B) Esmolol
(C) Sotalol
(D) Atenolol
Selected answer: (Not selected..)
The correct answer is: (B)

22. Beta blocking agents have all of the following e ects except
(A) Increases plasma concentration of HDL and decreases of VLDL
(B) Bronchoconstriction
(C) Decrease of aqueous humor production
(D) Membrane stabilizing e ect
Selected answer: (A)
Correct!

23. Which of the following is not given in a patient with pheochromocytoma

(A) Atenolol
(B) Prazosin
(C) Nitroprusside
(D) Metyrosine
Selected answer: (C)
The correct answer is: (A)

24. The enzyme pseudocholinesterase acts on

(A) Decamethonium
(B) Tubocurarine
(C) Gallamine
(D) Suxamethonium
Selected answer: (B)
The correct answer is: (D)

25. The following antagonizes the visceral side e ects of neostigmine used in
reversal of d-TC blockade

(A) Atropine
(B) Nicotine
(C) Pilocarpine 
(D) Pyridostigmine
Selected answer: (Not selected..)
The correct answer is: (A)

26. Idiosyncrasy is

(A) Genetically determined abnormal reaction


(B) Immunologically mediated reaction.
(C) Appearance of characteristic toxic e ect of a drug in an individual at therapeutic doses.
(D) Unwanted but often unavoidable pharmacodynamic e ects at therapeutic dose.
Selected answer: (B)
The correct answer is: (A)

27. Prodrug is

(A) Levodopa
(B) Amitriptyline
(C) Primidone
(D) Digitoxin
Selected answer: (A)
Correct!

28. Therapeutic index is

(A) ED50/LD50
(B) LD50/ED50
(C) ED50-LD50
(D) ED50XLD50
Selected answer: (C)
The correct answer is: (B)

29. ED50 is used for determining

(A) Potency
(B) E cacy
(C) Safety
(D) Toxicity
Selected answer: (B)
The correct answer is: (A)

30. High plasma protein binding

(A) Increases volume of distribution of drug


(B) Facilitates glomerular ltration of drug
(C) Minimizes drug interactions
(D) Generally makes the drug long acting
Selected answer: (A)
The correct answer is: (D)
31. On I.V. drug administration, elimination of drug depends upon

(A) Lipid solubility


(B) Volume of distribution
(C) Clearance, drug concentration
(D) All of the above
Selected answer: (D)
Correct!

32. Loading dose of drug primarily depends upon

(A) Volume of distribution


(B) Clearance
(C) Rate of administration
(D) Half life
Selected answer: (A)
Correct!

33. Which of the following drug in an inhibitor of cytochrome P450 enzymes?

(A) Ketocanazole
(B) Rifampicine
(C) Phenytoin
(D) Isoniazid
Selected answer: (Not selected..)
The correct answer is: (A)

34. Drug NOT metabolized in liver………….

(A) Penicillin G
(B) Phenytoin
(C) Erythromycin
(D) Cimetidine
Selected answer: (A)
Correct!

35. Cytochrome P450 is inhibited by………

(A) Phenobarbitone
(B) Cimetidine
(C) Phenytoin
(D) CCl4
Selected answer: (Not selected..)
The correct answer is: (B)

36. Clearance……….

(A) Refers to elimination of a drug by an organ or whole body


(B) Cannot be greater than blood ow to an organ
(C) Determines the steady state of drug concentration
(D) All of the above
Selected answer: (A)
The correct answer is: (D)

37. Time for peak plasma concentration (Tmax) indicates….

(A) The rate of elimination


(B) The rate of absorption
(C) The onset of e ect
(D) The intensity of e ect
Selected answer: (B)
Correct!

38. An agonist is a substance that

(A) Interacts with the receptor without inducing any e ect.


(B) Interacts with the receptor and initiate changes in cell function, producing various e ects
(C) Increases the concentration of another substance to produce e ect
(D) Interacts with plasma proteins and doesn’t produce any e ect
Selected answer: (B)
Correct!

39. Which of the following drug produces therapeutic window phenomenon?

(A) Captopril
(B) Furosemide
(C) Diazepam
(D) Imipramine
Selected answer: (Not selected..)
The correct answer is: (D)
40. Tachyphylaxis is………….

(A) A drug interaction between two similar types of drugs


(B) Very rapidly developing tolerance
(C) A decrease in responsiveness to a drug, taking days or week to develop
(D) None of the above
Selected answer: (B)
Correct!

41. Types of antagonism are…….

(A) Summarized
(B) Potentiated
(C) Additive
(D) Competitive
Selected answer: (D)
Correct!

42. A teratogenic action is ………….

(A) Toxic action on liver 


(B) Negative action on fetus causing fetal malformation
(C) Toxic action on blood system
(D) Toxic action on kidneys
Selected answer: (B)
Correct!

43. Target proteins which a drugs molecule binds are……

(A) Receptors
(B) Ion channels
(C) Carriers
(D) All of the above
Selected answer: (A)
The correct answer is: (D)

44. Alpha-1 receptor actions are mediated through…….

(A) cAMP
(B) cGMP
(C) Calcium ion 
(D) ADP
Selected answer: (A)
The correct answer is: (C)

45. If an agonist can produce maximal e ect and has high e cacy it’s called………

(A) Partial agonist


(B) Antagonist 
(C) Agonist-Antagonist
(D) Full agonist
Selected answer: (D)
Correct!

46. Irreversible interaction of an antagonist with a receptor is due to……….

(A) Ionic bond


(B) Hydrogen bond
(C) Covalent bond
(D) All of the above
Selected answer: (C)
Correct!

47. All of the following sub-serve as intracellular second messenger in receptor


mediated signal transduction except

(A) cAMP
(B) Inositol triphosphate
(C) Diacylgycerol
(D) G protein
Selected answer: (D)
Correct!

48. A receptor which itself has enzymatic property is….

(A) Insulin receptor


(B) Progesterone receptor
(C) Thyroxine receptor
(D) Glucagon receptor
Selected answer: (A)
Correct!

49. The receptor transduction mechanism with the fastest time course of
response e ectuation is

(A) Adenylylcyclase: cAMP pathway


(B) Phospholipase C-IP3/DAG pathway
(C) Intrinsic ion channel operation
(D) Protein synthesis
Selected answer: (A)
The correct answer is: (C)

50. Therapeutic drug monitoring is required in all except….

(A) Phenytoin
(B) Metformin
(C) Tacrolimus
(D) Cyclosporin
Selected answer: (Not selected..)
The correct answer is: (B)

Information for the solved exam

Started in: September 2, 2019, 1:58 pm

Finished in: September 2, 2019, 2:11 pm

Assesment: Very good 4.50!

Points: 66

Right: 21

Wrong: 18

Not Answered: 11

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