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COMEDK 2012 Question Set PDF
COMEDK 2012 Question Set PDF
COMEDK 2012
1. COMEDK Pattern
2. There are totally 180 questions in this booklet
3. Question No 151 to Question No 180 are case study based multiple choice questions
4. Choose only one best response for each question
5. No marks will be awarded for multiple marking
6. Each correct answer is awarded one mark
7. There will be no negative marking
8. The question paper and OMR (Optical Mark Reader) Answer sheet are issued separately at the start of
the examination
9. Please ensure to fill in the following on your OMR answer sheet in the relevant boxes
a. Name
b. Question Booklet Version Code
c. Question Booklet Serial Number
d. Test Admission Ticket Number
10. Fill the appropriate circle completely for answering the particular question with BLACK/BLUE BALL
POINT PEN only. USE OF PENCIL FOR MARKING IS PROHIBITED
11. Candidates should not make any markings on the question booklet. This amounts to MALPRACTICE
and can result in expulsion
12. MARKS DISTRIBUTION: Anatomy, Biochemistry, Physiology, Microbiology, Pharmacology, Pathology,
Medicine, Surgery, Dental Anatomy, Dental Histology – 6 each. Dental Materials, Community Dentistry,
Oral Pathology, OMR, Pedodontics, Periodontics, OMFS, Prosthodontics, Orthodontics, Conservative
Dentistry with Endodontics – 12 each
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16. Coating of bacteria particles with host 23. The head tilt procedure while dealing with
proteins to facilitate Phagocytosis is an unconscious patient in dental chair is
known as done to ensure
a. Chemotaxis a. Patent airway
b. Chemokine b. Blood circulation to the brain
c. Opsonization c. To clear the foreign body obstacle
d. Membrane attack complex d. To relive spasm of respiratory
muscles
17. ‘Hot Potato’ voice is characteristically seen
in 24. Which of the following statements
a. Pterygomandibular space infection regarding pulp stones are true?
b. Retropharyngeal space infection a. Pulp stones are due to Metastatic
c. Pre tracheal space infection calcification
d. Lateral pharyngeal space infection b. Pulp stones are due to dystrophic
calcification
18. Facial vein communicates with cavernous c. Pulp stones are usually of true
sinus through denticles type
a. Posterior facial vein d. Pulp stones are usually embedded
b. Common facial vein in dentine
c. Deep facial vein
d. Posterior auricular vein 25. Which is the best choice of heat source for
soldering, from the following fuel gases?
19. Non-caseating granulomas are a. Propane
characteristic of b. Acetylene
a. Tuberculosis c. Natural gas
b. Syphilis d. Hydrogen
c. Sarcoidosis
d. Actinomycosis 26. Over heating of impression compound
during softening will lead to leaching out
20. The most important factor associated with of more soluble constituents such as
causation of head and neck carcinomas is a. Rosin
a. Intravenous drug abuse b. Talc
b. Exposure to nickel c. Waxes
c. History of syphilis d. Stearic acid
d. Tobacco use
27. In the blood bank, platelets are stored at
a.
21. Most common oral change in patients on 18o C for 1 year
Calcium channel blockers is b. 20 to 24o C for 35 days
a. Dry mouth c. 20 to 24o C for 3 to 5 days
b. Gingival enlargement d. 2 to 4o C for 35 days
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b. PHASE-III
28. Local anesthetics block nerve conduction c. PHASE-I
by d. PHASE-IV
a. Depolarizing the nerve membrane
reducing threshold potential 35. Which of the following agents of gas
b. Decreasing the membrane gangrene is capsulated?
permeability to Na+ions there by a. Cl. Septicum
stabilizing nerve membrane b. Cl. novyi
c. Increasing the membrane c. Cl. perfingens
permeability to K+ions and by d. Cl. Histolyticum
depolarizing nerve membrane
d. None of the above 36. Fiber group which prevents the extrusion
of the tooth is
29. The dose of a drug required to produce a a. Alveolar crest group
specified effect in 50% of the population is b. Transseptal group
a. LD 50 c. Oblique group
b. TD 50 d. Horizontal group
c. MD 50
d. Ed 50 37. Shingles of geniculate ganglion with ear
eruption and facial paralysis is termed as
30. The file which has a non-cutting side is a. Peutz – Jegher Syndrome
a. K – files b. Melkersson – Rosenthal syndrome
b. Safety K – files c. Ramsay Hunt Syndrome
c. Hedstroem files d. Gardner’s Syndrome
d. Safety Hedstroem files
38. The major purpose of randomization is
31. All of the following canals open on the a. Facilitate double blinding
posterior wall of the pterygo palatine fossa b. Help ensure the study subjects are
EXCEPT representative of general
a. Greater palatine canal population
b. Foramen Rotundum c. Ensure the groups are comparable
c. Pterygoid canal to baseline characteristics
d. Palatovaginal canal d. Reduce selection bias in allocation
to treatment
32. When a drug creates an effect that is
unpredictable and unique it is termed as 39. The cortical plates are thickest in the
a. Side effect a. Premolar and molar region of the
b. Toxicity effect maxilla on the buccal side
c. Idiosyncratic effect b. Premolar and molar region of the
d. Drug-on Drug effect maxilla on the lingual side
c. Premolar and molar region of the
33. Fibrotomy to prevent rotational relapse mandible on the lingual side
was advocated first by d. Premolar and molar region of the
a. Edwards mandible on the buccal side
b. Peck and Peck
c. Ashley Howes 40. Increased spatulation of gypsum products
d. Carey a. Increase setting time
b. Decrease setting time
34. Human dose establishment study is the c. Does not interfere with setting time
focus of this phase of clinical trial d. Only produces more exothermic
a. PHASE-II heat
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45. Ghon complex of the lung usually 52. Length of junctional epithelium ranges
a. Undergoes cavitation from
b. Undergoes calcification a. 0.10 to 0.20 mm
c. Progresses to tuberculous b. 0.25 to 1.35 mm
pneumonia c. 1.35 to 1.75 mm
d. Progresses to military tuberculosis d. 1.75 to 2.00 mm
46. Most fungi of medical importance belong 53. The mechanism of action of afp is via
to following reaction products
a. Zygomycetes a. Fluoridated hydroxyapatite
b. Ascomycetes b. Stannous trifluorophosphate
c. Basidiomycetes c. Dicalcium phosphate dehydrate
d. Deuteromycetes (DCPD)
d. DCPD + calcium fluoride +
47. Injury to which nerve causes non-closure fluorapatite
of eyelids, sagging of mouth and dribbling
of saliva? 54. Which of the following is used to measure
a. Maxillary nerve pain intensity?
b. Occulomotor nerve a. Visual Analog Scale
c. Facial nerve b. Visual Aesthesia Score
d. Ophthalmic nerve c. Verifiable Assessment of Soreness
d. Visual Assessment of Soreness
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58. Lymph from the teeth drains into all of the 64. Second molars that get locked under the
following nodes EXCEPT distal cusps of First molars during eruption
a. Sub mandibular nodes are best
b. Deep cervical nodes a. Extracted and Third molars allowed
c. Retro pharyngeal nodes to erupt
d. Sub mental nodes b. Autogenously transplanted
c. Disimpacted with “disimpaction
59. Desorbtion is a term which is used to springs”
describe d. Guided with distal shoe space
a. Strain hardening maintainer
b. Process of removing the absorbed
impurities 65. Thyroid storm can be treated by all the
c. Recrystallization following drugs EXCEPT
d. Grain growth a. Propylthiouracil
b. Dexamethasone
60. Torsional force is c. Propranolol
a. Compression d. Aspirin
b. Tensile force
c. Shear 66. Hypokalemia is likely to be seen in
d. Transverse bending force a. Insulin therapy
b. Addison’s disease
61. The length of the sprue former should be c. Starvation ketosis
adjusted for gypsum bonded investment d. Hemolytic anemias
so that the top of the wax pattern is
a. Within 6mm of the open end of the 67. Which one of the following developmental
ring stages of Plasmodium is transmitted from
humans to anopheles mosquito?
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80. Which medium of storage for avulsed c. Right superficial temporal artery
tooth is best for prolonged extra oral d. Right maxillary artery
periods?
a. Hank’s balanced salt solution 88. The use of electro surgery facilitate
b. Milk impression making by
c. Distilled water a. Reopening the gingival sulcus
d. Saliva b. Forcing the impression material
c. Enlarging the gingival sulcus and
81. Kussmaul’s respiration occurs in response control of hemorrhage
to d. Hemorrhage
a. Decrease in pH of blood
b. Increase in pH of blood 89. Which among the following anti-HIV drugs
c. Obstructive pulmonary disease is also used to treat viral hepatitis B?
d. Carbon monoxide poisoning a. Enfuvirtide
b. Lamivudine
82. An example of a preventive anti oxidant is c. Efavirenz
a. Catalase d. Ritonavir
b. Tocopherol
c. Superoxide dismutase 90. The predominant cell in an ‘Established
d. Urate Lesion’ is
a. PMNL
83. DiGeorge’s syndrome is due to b. T – Cell
a. Congenital Thymic aplasia c. Macrophage
b. Deficiency of complement factors d. Plasma cell
c. Inborn error of metabolism
d. Chromosomal anomaly 91. During the fabrication of band for band
and loop space maintainer, where should
84. Hardness test used for elastic materials be the band biter be placed for final
a. Brinnel’s hardness test positioning of the band?
b. Rock wells hardness test a. Distolingual aspect of the maxillary
c. Vickers hardness test teeth and distofacial aspect of the
d. Knoops hardness test mandibular teeth
b. Distofacial aspect of the maxillary
85. Bundle bone, due to its increased teeth and mesiofacial aspect of the
radiopacity is also called mandibular teeth
a. Lamina dura c. Mesiolingual aspect of the
b. Lamina limitans maxillary teeth and distolingual
c. Lamina lucia aspect of the mandibular teeth
d. Lamina propria d. Distofacial aspect of the maxillary
teeth and distolingual aspect of the
86. Mutation in the oxidative enzymes mandibular teeth
(peroxisomes) could lead to
a. Zellweger’s syndrome 92. A biological experiment in which one
b. Gaucher’s disease compares the effects of two preparations
c. Epidermolysis bullosa by means of common biological response
d. Leber’s neuropathy is known as
a. Biodegradable
87. Right anterior quadrant of the scalp is b. Bio – experiment
supplied by the following arteries EXCEPT c. Bio – assay
a. Right supra orbital artery d. Bio – stamen
b. Right supra trochlear artery
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d. Neurofibroma a. 28mm
b. 38mm
107. Characteristic thistle – tube – c. 48mm
shaped appearance of pulp chambers of d. 58mm
single rooted teeth are seen
a. Type I Dentinogenesis Imperfecta 114. The following is not a
b. Type II Dentinogenesis Imperfecta Communicative management technique
c. Type II Dentine dysplasia according to American Academy of
d. Type I Dentine dysplasia Pediatric dentistry’s Standards
a. Voice Control
108. Rate of activation with slow b. Positive reinforcement
expansion is c. Physical Restraint
a. 1 mm per day d. Distraction
b. 1 mm for 3 days
c. 1 mm for a month 115. The main disadvantage of Florida
d. 1 mm per week probe system is
a. Inconsistent probing force
109. A fractured mandibular condyle is b. Recording errors
displaced by the action of c. Non reproducibility
a. Temporalis d. Lack of tactile sensitivity
b. Masseter
c. Lateral pterygoid 116. Entry of Caldwell procedure is
d. Medial pterygoid made through-------------
a. Incisive Fossa
110. Following splenectomy in children, b. Canine fossa
which one of the following is c. Molar prominence
recommended? d. Tuberosity
a. Hepatitis B vaccination
b. Typhoid vaccination 117. Slow ESR is usually seen in
c. Pneumococcal vaccination a. Active myocardial infarction
d. Regular follow up b. Congestive heart failure
c. Oral contraceptives
111. Posterior ethmoidal air sinus opens into d. Chronic infections
a. Superior meatus
b. Middle meatus 118. Sodium metabisulfite used in LA
c. Inferior meatus solution acts as
d. Spheno-ethmoidal recess a. Anti-reducing agent for LA agent
b. Anti-oxidant for LA agent
112. Specificity is c. Anti –reducing agent for
a. Ability of a test of identify correctly vasoconstrictor
all those who have the disease d. Anti-oxidant for vasoconstrictor
b. Ability of a test to identify correctly
those who do not have the disease 119. When one primary canine is lost
c. Diagnostic power of a test prematurely, it is imperative to maintain
d. The amount of previously the
unrecognized disease that is a. Midline
diagnosed through screening b. Opposing canine
c. Vertical dimension
113. In the open position of the d. Canine guidance
mandible, the interincisal distance in
males is approximately
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120. What is the amount of time 126. Tooth loss that causes the patient
required by erupting premolar to move to bite in an abnormal relation of maxilla
through 1 mm of bone as measured on a to mandible, in order to obtain better
bite-wing radiograph? function during mastication is termed
a. 3-4 months a. Convenience bite
b. 4-5 months b. Dramatic bite
c. 5-6 months c. Temporary bite
d. 6-7 months d. Squashed bite
121. The basic tools of measurement in 127. Hanging drop sign is best seen in
epidemiology are a. Water’s projection
a. Place, person, time b. Orthopantomogram
b. Determinants, frequency, c. Submentovertex
distribution of disease d. Upper occlusal view
c. Rate, ratio, proportion
d. Agent, host and environment 128. The half life of plasma Albumin is
approximately
122. Eruption fails in this bone disease, a. 7 days
as there is no bone resorption b. 20 days
a. Primary hyperparathyroidism c. 60 days
b. Phantom bone disease d. 90 days
c. Paget’s disease
d. Osteopetrosis 129. The dicrotic notch on the aortic
pressure curve is caused by
123. Condensation reaction of silicones a. Closure of the pulmonary valve
occur in presence of b. Rapid filling of the left ventricle
a. Lead – di-oxide c. Closure of the aortic valve
b. Titanium di-oxide d. Contraction of the atria
c. Stannous octate
d. Platinum slat 130. A 20 year Male complains of
recurrent attacks of sore throat since 2
124. Which of the following agents is years. The total leucocyte count was
used to prevent the formation of 1000/ul. A differential count revealed
deleterious oxides on gold foil? severe neutropenia. The diagnosis is
a. Methane a. Subleukemic leukemia
b. Ammonia b. Infectious mononucleosis
c. Hydrogen peroxide c. Agranulocytosis
d. Carbon monoxide d. Leukoerythroblastic anemia
134. Bell’s palsy is characterized by 140. Tooth which is involved in the most
a. Bilateral involvement of the side of common cause of oro antral
the face communication is
b. Inability to whistle a. II premolar
c. No loss of muscular control b. I premolar
d. Closing of the eyes c. I molar
d. II molar
135. Current recommendation for
Systemic fluoride supplements for all 141. All of the following drugs may be
children residing in areas where the water effective against methicillin – resistant
fluoride deficient until they reach the age Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) EXCEPT
a. 12 a. Vancomycin
b. 14 b. Streptogramins
c. 16 c. Imipenem
d. 18 d. Linezolid
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neck down over his anterior chest wall d. Low birth weight
where his chest pain was localized.
168. The number of Streptococcus mutans
162. The patient is suffering from Colony forming units (CFU) per unit of saliva will
a. Quinsy be
b. Ludwig’s angina a. Negligible
c. Acute parotitis b. <100000
d. Angioneurotic edema c. 10000-10,00,000
d. >10,00,000
163. This condition is an emergency as it can
lead to For questions 169 to 172
a. Difficulty in swallowing
b. Aspiration pneumonia 40-year-old male patient reported with the
c. Air way obstruction chief complaint of missing back teeth in the
d. CSOM upper jaw, and desired replacement of the
same. On clinical examination revealed
164. The infection spreads to the missing 14,15,16,17,18,24,25,26,27 & 28.
a. Submental, sublingual, and
submandibular spaces 169. What is the kennedy’s classification for the
b. Parapharyngeal spaces given clinical scenario?
c. Nasopharyngeal area a. Class II
d. Sinusitis b. Class III
c. Class VI
165. The treatment of choice in such an acute d. Class I
condition would be
a. Antibiotic and antifungal therapy 170. Special design feature to be included in the
b. Removal of the offending tooth above given clinical situation is
c. Continue the penicillin in larger a. Broad occlusal table
doses b. Minimal extension of denture base
d. Surgical drainage, antibiotic and c. Indirect retainer
intensive care d. Tube teeth
For questions 166 to 168: 171. One of the special impression methods to
be employed for class – I situation is
A 4 year old presents with Labio lingual a. Closed mouth impression technique
caries affecting only maxillary incisors and b. Open mouth technique
involving molars. c. Corrected cast technique
d. Mucocompressive technique
166. The diagnosis would be
a. Type I ECC 172. Major connector of choice for the above
b. Type II ECC given clinical situation is
c. Type III ECC a. Palatal bar
d. Rampant caries b. Palatal strap
c. Horse shoe connector
167. The most probable cause of such a d. Complete palate
condition is
a. High salivary pH For questions 173 to 176
b. Consumption of cariogenic food
c. Inappropriate use of feeding bottle
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An 18 years old male reported with chief lymphadenopathy. Plain radiography of the
complaint of sensitivity and deep, dull, chest showed bilateral hilar
radiating pain during chewing. Intra-oral lymphadenopathy. The serum calcium level
examination showed sparse plaque and was elevated at 16.2 mg per deciliter; serum
dental calculus deposits, distolabial parathyroid hormone is within normal
migration of the maxillary incisors with range.
diastema formation, mobility of maxillary
and mandibular incisors and first molars. 177. The probable diagnosis of the above
Prescribed radiographs showed an arc condition is
shaped loss of alveolar bone extending from a. Parathyroid carcinoma
the distal surface of the mandibular second b. Hyperthyroidism
premolar to the mesial surface of the second c. Squamous-cell lung cancer
molar. There was vertical bone loss in the d. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
maxillary incisor region.
178. Urgent treatment to be instituted for him
173. The most likely disease is would be
a. Chronic Periodontitis a. Intravenous administration of
b. Refractory Periodontitis normal saline and a
c. Localized Aggressive Periodontitis bisphosphonate
d. Necrotizing Ulcerative Periodontitis b. Oxygen 6L/m by mask
c. Antibiotics and anti-inflammatory
174. The bacterial etiology of this disease is drugs
a. A.actinomycetemcomitans d. Anti tussive and chest
b. A.viscosus physiotherapy
c. A.naeslundii
d. S.aureus 179. A diagnostic investigation was performed
on him
175. The antigens consistently associated with a. FNAC of the mediastinal lymph
this disease are node
a. HLA A9 and B15 b. Excisional biopsy of the axillary
b. HLA A0 and B30 node
c. HLA A15 and B 9 c. CT chest and abdomen
d. HLA A30 and B0 d. Core needle biopsy of the neck
node
176. The host modulation therapy that may be
used as adjunctive therapy for this disease is 180. The treatment regimen consists of
a. Subantimicrobial-dose clindamycin a. Chemotherapeutic regimen of
b. Subantimicrobial-dose doxorubicin, bleomycin,
metronidazole vinblastine, and dacarbazine
c. Subantimicrobial-dose doxycycline b. Anti tuberculosis regimen of INH,
d. Subantimicrobial-dose ciprofloxacin rifampicin, ethambutol and PAS
c. Linear radiation to the chest
For questions 177 to 180 d. Radical thyroidectomy and neck
node dissection
A 41-year-old man presented to the
emergency department with a 9-month
history of cough, exertional dyspnea,
nocturnal diaphoresis, and weight loss of 10
kg. the physical examination revealed
painless, massive, discrete, rubbery
cervical, supraclavicular and axillary
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