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PMP Sample Questions based on PMBOK Fourth
Edition

PMP 4th Edition - 1630 Questions with Explanations

Question No : 1
Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?

A. Accepted deliverables
B. Change Requests
C. Project document updates.
D. Project scope statement

Answer : D
Explanations :
Project scope statement is an output of Define Scope.

Question No : 2
Which of the following is an output of Verify Scope?

A. Accepted deliverables
B. Change Requests
C. Project document updates.
D. All of the above

Answer : D
Explanations :
All are output of verify scope.

Question No : 3
You are a project manager of ABC Company and your project is currently in
execution phase. The customer has requested you for additional work. This work
will affect the budget but not the schedule of the project. What should you do next?

A. add the additional requirements to the project plan.

B. Ignore the request
C. Explain the change procedure and ask to submit a request for change.
D. Discuss with the project team about the change.

Answer : C
Explanations :
Explain the change procedure and ask to submit a request for change is the best choice.
Question No : 4
You are the project manager for a project. While reviewing the cost estimates for
the project you notice that one of the cost estimates for an element in the WBS is
20% higher than previous project for very similar work. What should you do next?

A. Accept the estimate

B. Ask the person responsible about the difference
C. Ignore it
D. Reduce the estimate

Answer : B
Explanations :
Best option is ask the person responsible about the difference and create the most
accurate estimate that is practical.

Question No : 5
Your company policy allow to gift exchange with customer within certain limit. By
Mistake, you have given a gift to the customer's representative already which is
beyond the limit mentioned in your company policy What should you do?

A. Forget it and don't tell to any one

B. Contact your company's senior management and ask for assistance.
C. Ask your customer to return the gift
D. Ask your customer to gift you which cost same.

Answer : B
Explanations :
Best option is Contact your company's senior management and ask for assistance.

Question No : 6
Your company policy allows accepting gifts from customer within certain limit.
Your customer is giving you a gift which is beyond limit of your company policy.
You have given a gift to the customer's representative already with of similar value.
What should you do?

A. Accept it and don't tell to any one.

B. Contact your company's senior management and ask for assistance.
C. Ask your customer to about company policy.
D. Refuse it.

Answer : B
Explanations :
Best option is Contact your company's senior management and ask for assistance.

Question No : 7
You are a project manager of Software Product Company. After hired a person you
got to know that many of this person's ideas were developed by the competing
company. Are you going to implement the same ideas?

A. Accept the new ideas.

B. Ignore the ideas because it may be violation of code of conduct.
C. Ask to sign NDA.
D. Tell the person that he should not mention that the ideas came from another company.

Answer : A
Explanations :
Unless the employee signed the NDA with his or her previous organization, there is no
obligation for him or her not to share knowledge that was gained while working for the
competitor.

Question No : 8
Which of the following process involves measures project and product scope
performance and managing scope baseline changes ?

A. Collect Requirements
B. Define Scope
C. Verify scope.
D. Control scope

Answer : D
Explanations :
Control scope process involves measures project and product scope performance and
managing scope baseline changes.

Question No : 9
A single source seller is ____________.

A. There is only one seller the company wants to do business with.

B. There is only one qualified seller.
C. There is only one seller in the market.
D. None

Answer : A
Explanations :
A single source seller is only one seller the company wants to do business with.

Question No : 10
Which organization , the project manager has total control of projects?

A. Projectized organization
B. Balanced Matrix organization
C. Strong Matrix
D. Weak Matrix organization

Answer : A
Explanations :
Projectized organization : The project manager has total control of projects. Personnel are
assigned and report to a project manager.

Question No : 11
At which stage, stakeholders have maximum influence on project?

A. Initial stage
B. Closing stage
C. Execution stage
D. None of the above

Answer : A
Explanations :
It is easy to make changes to project goals and approach at the initial stage. Stake holders
have maximum influence at Initial stage.

Question No : 12
Reserve Analysis technique NOT used during __________.

A. Control Costs
B. Estimating Activity Duration
C. Determine Budget
D. Estimate Costs

Answer : A
Explanations :
Reserve analysis is used during Estimate Costs to calculate contingency buffers that
apply to individual or group of activities. Reserve analysis is used during Determine
Budget to calculate management contingency buffers that apply to the entire project.
Reserve analysis is done during Activity Duration estimation in order to calculate
duration buffers for individual or group of activities.

Question No : 13
Project Cost Management Plan is created as a part of:

A. Develop Project Management Plan process

B. Control Costs process
C. Determine Budget process
D. Estimate Costs process

Answer : A
Explanations :
There is no separate process in the Project Cost Estimation knowledge area to develop a
cost management plan. It is devloped in Develop Project Management Plan process.

Question No : 14
Analogous Estimate Costs is _________.

A. Generally Accurate
B. Generally less accurate
C. Bottom-up estimating
D. None

Answer : B
Explanations :
Analogous Estimate Costs is Generally less accurate . Analogous Estimate Costs Uses
Expert Judgment . It is used when reference projects are similar . It is useful in early
phases of the project.

Question No : 15
Which of the following Enterprise Environmental factors is not input for Develop
Human Resource Plan process:

A. Organizational Chart Tempates

B. Reduced Training Funds
C. Hiring Freeze
D. Technical competencies of project staff

Answer : A
Explanations :
Enterprise Environmental Factors: The definition of project roles and responsibilities is
developed with an understanding of the ways that existing organizations will be involved
and how the technical disciplines and people currently interact with one another. Inputs
are Reduced Training Funds , Technical competencies of project staff and Hiring Freeze
etc.

Question No : 16
Which is the most important element of Project Management Plan that is useful in
Develop Human Resource Plan process:

A. Risk Management activities

B. Activity Resource requirements
C. Budget Control activities
D. Quality Assurance activities

Answer : B
Explanations :
Activity Resource requirements is a primary input to Develop Human Resource Plan
process.

Question No : 17
Which is not used to document team member roles and responsibilities ?

A. Text-oriented Format
B. Functional Chart
C. Hierarchical-type Organizational Chart
D. Matrix-based Responsibility Chart

Answer : B
Explanations :
Functional Chart is not listed in PMBOK as a type of Organizational Chart

Question No : 18
Which is developing an approximation of the costs of the resources needed to
complete project activities.

A. Resource planning
B. Estimate Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Control Costs

Answer : B
Explanations :
Estimate Costs:Assessing how much it will cost the organization to provide the product
or service

Question No : 19
Which must be measured regularly to identify variances from the plan.

A. Stakeholder requirements
B. Project performance
C. Control Schedule
D. Project controls

Answer : B
Explanations :
Project performance must be measured regularly to identify variances from the plan.

Question No : 20
Which is ensuring all features and functions are included in a product or service

A. Project scope
B. Project verification
C. Project control
D. Product scope

Answer : B
Explanations :
Project verification ensuring all features and functions are included in a product or
service

Question No : 21
A process that is not part of Project Risk Management is:

A. Identification
B. Solicitation
C. Quantification
D. Response Development

Answer : B
Explanations :
All are part of Project Risk Management except Solicitation.

Question No : 22
The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features
and functions is:

A. Project scope
B. Project verification
C. Project control
D. Product scope

Answer : A
Explanations :
Project Scope: The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the
specified features and functions.

Question No : 23
With triangular distribution, the low, likely and high values are 20, 30 and 40,
respectively. The mean is _____.

A. 30.0
B. 22.5
C. 25.0
D. 27.5

Answer : A
Explanations :
mean = (20+30+40)/3= 30
Question No : 24
The scope management provides:

A. A basis for future decisions about the project.

B. A baseline to accomplish verification measures.
C. A baseline to evaluate potential scope changes.
D. All of the above.

Answer : D
Explanations :
Project Scope Management is a group of processes required to ensure that the project
includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project.

Question No : 25
Lessons learned are most often based upon project historical records. Lessons
learned can be used to:

A. See what mistakes others have made

B. See how others have solved problems
C. "Predict trends, highlight problems and identify alternatives"
D. All of the above

Answer : D
Explanations :
All of the above

Question No : 26
The major project scope management processes include:

A. Change order control

B. Initiation
C. Program evaluation
D. Scope statement

Answer : B
Explanations :
Initiation included in major project scope management processes

Question No : 27
A graphic display of resource usage hours is:

A. Organizational chart
B. Responsibility matrix
C. WBS
D. Histogram
Answer : D
Explanations :
histogram that is useful in determining how much time is expected from the various team
members and or functions.

Question No : 28
Which is an input to resource planning?

A. Historical information
B. Cost baseline
C. Cost management plan
D. Chart of accounts

Answer : A
Explanations :
Develop Human Resource Plan Inputs : Enterprise Environmental Factors, Historical
information, Organizational Process Assets and Project Management plan.

Question No : 29
Which tools or techniques are not used in Sequence Activities?

A. Precedence diagramming method (PDM)

B. Arrow diagramming method (ADM)
C. Expert judgment
D. Network templates

Answer : C
Explanations :
Expert judgment is not used in Sequence Activities. Sequence Activities : Identifying and
documenting interactivity logical relationships.

Question No : 30
Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a PMP.

A. Project Management Policy of Ethics

B. Project Management Professional Standards
C. Project Management Code of Professional Ethics and Standards
D. Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct

Answer : D
Explanations :
The Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct is published by
PMI.

Question No : 31
Which ensures that project objectives are met by monitoring and measuring
progress and taking corrective action when necessary.

A. Project controls
B. Controlling process
C. Control logs
D. Project chart

Answer : B
Explanations :
Controlling process ensures that project objectives are met by monitoring and measuring
progress and taking corrective action when necessary.

Question No : 32
An example of a project is:

A. Billing customers
B. Managing an organization
C. Constructing a building
D. Providing technical support

Answer : C
Explanations :
An example of a project is Constructing a building.

Question No : 33
Inputs to Team Development include all except

A. Project staff
B. Reward and recognition systems
C. Performance reports
D. Project plan

Answer : B
Explanations :
Inputs to Team Development include all except Reward and recognition systems.

Question No : 34
In optimal organization structure , the project manager is:

A. Functional
B. Weak matrix
C. Projectized
D. Dedicated project team

Answer : D
Explanations :
Dedicated project team

Question No : 35
Precedence diagramming method (PDM) uses which of the following dependencies

A. Finish-to-start
B. Start-to-start
C. Finish-to-finish
D. Start-to-finish

Answer : A
Explanations :
Finish-to-start An activity must finish before the next activity begins. Finish-to-finish An
activity must finish before the next activity can finish. Start-to-start An activity must start
before the next activity can start. Start-to-finish An activity must start before the next
activity can finish.

Question No : 36
Which is not a tool or technique for Source Selection?

A. Contract negotiation
B. Weighting system
C. Payment system
D. Screening system

Answer : C
Explanations :
Payment system is not a tool or technique for Source Selection. Other options are .

Question No : 37
What is not among the tools and techniques of Organizational Planning?

A. Staffing management plan

B. Templates
C. Human resource practices
D. Organizational theory

Answer : A
Explanations :
Staffing management plan is not tools and techniques of Organizational Planning. Other
options are true.

Question No : 38
Control Costs is concerned with:
A. Managing changes when they occur
B. Resource rates
C. Chart of accounts
D. Organizational policies

Answer : A
Explanations :
Control Costs is concerned with Managing changes when they occur

Question No : 39
The closing process scope includes:

A. Contract closeout
B. Final reporting
C. Activity List
D. Exit interview

Answer : A
Explanations :
closing process scope includes Contract closeout.

Question No : 40
Collect Requirements is:

A. Developing a plan from major stakeholders

B. Developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project decisions
C. Formalizing acceptance of the project scope
D. Planning project milestones

Answer : B
Explanations :
Collect Requirements :Process of progressively elaborating and documenting the project
work that produces the product of the project

Question No : 41
Which is not input to Define Activities :

A. Work breakdown structure

B. Product description
C. Constraints
D. Assumptions

Answer : B
Explanations :
Define Activities - Inputs : Work breakdown structure , Constraints , Assumptions and
Organizational Process Assets .
Question No : 42
When the project team directs staff assignments, what is not considered in the
selection of a staff?

A. Previous experience
B. Staff age
C. Availability
D. Personal interest

Answer : B
Explanations :
Staff age is not considered in the selection of a staff

Question No : 43
Which involves estimating the cost of individual work items:

A. Computerized
B. Bottom up estimating
C. Analogous estimating
D. Square foot

Answer : B
Explanations :
Bottom-up estimating : Estimating the cost of individual work items and then rolling up
the costs to arrive at a project total , more accurate

Question No : 44
The most rapid Estimate Costs technique is:

A. Square foot estimating

B. Template estimating
C. Computerized estimating
D. Analogous estimating

Answer : C
Explanations :
Computerized estimating rapid Estimate Costs technique

Question No : 45
Which is another term for top down estimating.

A. Analogous estimating
B. Life-cycle costing
C. Parametric modeling
D. Bottom up estimating
Answer : A
Explanations :
Analogous estimating is also called top-down estimating and uses the actual cost of a
previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project.

Question No : 46
In which of the following scope management processes is the scope management
plan prepared?

A. Initiation
B. Collect Requirements
C. Define Scope
D. Verify Scope

Answer : A
Explanations :
A Schedule Management Plan is developed as part of "Develop Project Management
Plan".

Question No : 47
_______ is the most accurate Estimate Costs technique.

A. Parametric modelling
B. Bottom up estimating
C. Analogous estimating
D. None

Answer : B
Explanations :
Bottom-up estimating : Estimating the cost of individual work items and then rolling up
the costs to arrive at a project total - more accurate

Question No : 48
__________ involves using project characteristics in a mathematical model

A. Analogous estimating
B. Life-cycle costing
C. Parametric modelling
D. Bottom up estimating

Answer : C
Explanations :
Parametric modeling : Using project characteristics (or parameters) in a mathematical
model to predict costs (e.g., price per square foot).
Question No : 49
Project risk is defined as the cumulative effect of chances of _____ which will
adversely affect project objectives.

A. Likely events
B. Complex activities
C. Complex schedules
D. Uncertain occurrences

Answer : D
Explanations :
Uncertain occurrences can affect project objective.

Question No : 50
Which is generally the least accurate.

A. Using stakeholders to predict cost

B. Parametric modelling
C. Analogous estimating
D. Computerized estimating

Answer : C
Explanations :
Analogous estimating : Analogous estimating is also called top-down estimating and uses
the actual cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the
current project.

Question No : 51
Contract close out contains:

A. Contract documentation
B. Procurement audits
C. Formal acceptance and closure
D. All of the above

Answer : D
Explanations :
Contract close out contains Contract documentation,Procurement audits and Formal
acceptance and closure.

Question No : 52
Which is not included in General Management :

A. Finance and accounting

B. Strategic planning
C. Sales and marketing
D. Developing a new product or service

Answer : D
Explanations :
Developing a new product or service is not included in General Management.

Question No : 53
A program is defined in the PMBOK as:

A. A program consists of a related group of projects and Program management is the

process of managing multiple on going projects
B. A number of subprojects divided into manageable components enabling a project team
to ensure the completion of a desired outcome
C. A project plan developed by key management personnel to obtain a desired outcome
D. The means to subdivide the project into manageable segments

Answer : A
Explanations :
A program consists of a related group of projects and Program management is the process
of managing multiple on going projects

Question No : 54
Which process is not included in Project Time Management?

A. Define Activities
B. Sequence Activities
C. Develop Schedule and Control Schedule
D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Answer : D
Explanations :
Work breakdown structure (WBS) is not included in Project Time Management but all
other options provided in Project Time Management.3/7/2009

Question No : 55
Which is not included in Performance improvements :

A. Improvements in amount of overtime worked

B. Improvements in individual skills
C. Improvements in team behaviours
D. Improvements in team capabilities

Answer : A
Explanations :
Improvements in amount of overtime worked is not included in Performance
improvements.
Question No : 56
Which describes how cost variances will be managed?

A. Cost management plan

B. Cost baseline
C. Cost estimate
D. Chart of accounts

Answer : A
Explanations :
Cost management plan describes how cost variances will be managed.

Question No : 57
___________ coordinates people and other resources to carry out the plan.

A. Work Breakdown Structure

B. Resource planning
C. Resource leveling
D. Executing process

Answer : D
Explanations :
Executing process coordinates people and other resources to carry out the plan.

Question No : 58
The process of identifying and defining a product or service is called:

A. Procurement planning
B. Source selection
C. Contract administration
D. Contract closeout

Answer : A
Explanations :
Procurement planning : Determining what project needs can best be met by procuring
products or services outside the organization

Question No : 59
The Critical Path Method of scheduling is:

A. A mathematical analysis technique for Develop Schedule

B. A technique that uses weighted averages to calculate project duration
C. A technique that uses sequential network logic for schedule
D. A technique that allows for probabilistic treatment of both network logic and activity
duration estimates
Answer : C
Explanations :
Critical Path Method (CPM): Calculates a single, deterministic early and late start and
finish date for each activity, to be used to determine which activities must be completed
on time to avoid impacting the finish date of the project

Question No : 60
During what part of Procurement Management process does procurement
negotiations happened ?

A. Plan Procurements
B. Conduct Procurements
C. Administer Procurements
D. Close Procurements

Answer : B
Explanations :
In Conduct Procurements process negotiations occurs.

Question No : 61
You are project manager and now in middle of creating RFP(Request for proposal).
RFP(Request for proposal) is done in _______.

A. Plan Procurements
B. Conduct Procurements
C. Administer Procurements
D. Close Procurements

Answer : A
Explanations :
RFP(Request for proposal) is done in Plan Procurements process,

Question No : 62
Create Procurement document is done in _______.

A. Plan Procurements
B. Conduct Procurements
C. Administer Procurements
D. Close Procurements

Answer : A
Explanations :
Create Procurement document is done in Plan Procurements process.

Question No : 63
You are project manager and now you are middle of comparing proposals received
from sellers . Comparing proposals received from sellers done in _______ .

A. Plan Procurements
B. Conduct Procurements
C. Administer Procurements
D. Close Procurements

Answer : B
Explanations :
Comparing proposals received from sellers done in Conduct Procurements.

Question No : 64
Make payment to seller is done in _______ .

A. Plan Procurements
B. Conduct Procurements
C. Administer Procurements
D. Close Procurements

Answer : C
Explanations :
Make payment to seller is done in Administer Procurements.

Question No : 65
Complete final contract performance reporting and verify product is done in
_______ .

A. Plan Procurements
B. Conduct Procurements
C. Administer Procurements
D. Close Procurements

Answer : D
Explanations :
Complete final contract performance reporting and verify product is done in Close
Procurements.

Question No : 66
Which is controlling changes to the budget.

A. Control Costs
B. Estimate Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. None
Answer : A
Explanations :
Control Costs is controlling changes to the budget.

Question No : 67
Key Management skills include:

A. Leading
B. Communicating
C. Negotiating
D. All of the above

Answer : D
Explanations :
All options are key management skills.

Question No : 68
Which is not output from Control Schedule:

A. Schedule updates
B. Revisions
C. Corrective action
D. Lessons learned

Answer : B
Explanations :
Outputs of Control Schedule : Schedule updates, Corrective action and Lessons learned

Question No : 69
A resource pool description provides:

A. The unit cost for each resource

B. What are the resources are available, at what times and in what patterns
C. Performance of the pool resources
D. Duration of the project

Answer : B
Explanations :
A resource pool description : What are the resources are available, at what times and in
what patterns

Question No : 70
Which process recognizes that a project or phase should begin and commits the
organization.

A. Initiating process
B. Solicitation process
C. Scoping process
D. Planning process

Answer : A
Explanations :
Initiating process :recognizes that a project or phase should begin and commits the
organization.

Question No : 71
Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?

A. Accepted deliverables
B. Change Requests
C. Project document updates.
D. Project scope statement

Answer : D
Explanations :
Project scope statement is an output of Define Scope.

Question No : 72
Risk event is the description of what may happen to the _____ of the project.

A. Manager
B. harm
C. Schedule
D. Budget

Answer : B
Explanations :
Risk event is the description of what may happen to the harm of the project.

Question No : 73
A RAM is:

A. Random access memory

B. Rapid and movement
C. Responsibilities and methods
D. Responsibility assignment matrix

Answer : D
Explanations :
The Responsibility Assignment Matrix is used to give an overview of personnel
responsibility for particular tasks.
Question No : 74
Contingency planning is a means to _____ risks to the project through a formal
process and provides the resources to meet the risk events.

A. Address
B. Classify
C. Assign
D. Resolve

Answer : A
Explanations :
Contingency Planning:The development of a management plan that identifies alternative
strategies to be used to ensure project success if specified risk events occur.

Question No : 75
Which devises and maintains a worktable scheme to accomplish the business need
that the project was undertaken to address.

A. Development process
B. Scoping process
C. Planning process
D. Information development process

Answer : C
Explanations :
Planning process

Question No : 76
Staffing requirements do not define:

A. What types of skills are required

B. What time frames
C. What kinds of individuals or groups
D. What type of resource planning is required

Answer : D
Explanations :
Staffing requirements do not define What type of resource planning is required.

Question No : 77
A major assumption of all network scheduling methods is that activity durations
must be _____.

A. Statistically dependent
B. Variance distributed
C. Statistically independent
D. Deterministic

Answer : C
Explanations :
Statistically independent

Question No : 78
Constraints do not include:

A. Impacts of weather
B. Organizational structure of the performing organization
C. Collective bargaining
D. Expected staff assignments

Answer : A
Explanations :
Impacts of weather

Question No : 79
Which is not the tools and techniques used in Contract Administration:

A. Contract change control system

B. Contract negotiation
C. Payment system
D. Performance rating

Answer : B
Explanations :
Contract negotiation is not the tools and techniques used in Contract Administration.

Question No : 80
What documents the characteristics of the product or service that the project was
undertaken to build.

A. Resource plan
B. Project charter
C. Project description
D. Scope statement

Answer : C
Explanations :
Project description documents the characteristics of the product or service that the project
was undertaken to build.

Question No : 81
A _______ is a series of actions bringing about a result.
A. Project plan
B. Process
C. Schedule
D. Flowchart

Answer : B
Explanations :
Process

Question No : 82
What involves determining what quantities are to be used to perform project
activities.

A. Resource planning
B. Estimate Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Control Costs

Answer : A
Explanations :
Resource planning :Planning, identifying, documenting, and assigning project roles,
responsibilities, and reporting relationships to individuals or groups.

Question No : 83
Which is the Estimate Costs technique used most frequently in the early stages of a
project.

A. Analogous estimating
B. Life-cycle costing
C. Parametric modeling
D. Bottom up estimating

Answer : A
Explanations :
Analogous estimating : Analogous estimating is also called top-down estimating and uses
the actual cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the
current project.

Question No : 84
"A Project Manager is at the project kick-off meeting. He confidently states the
vision and mission for the project. This PM is exhibiting the following leadership
style:

A. Hierarchal
B. Authoritarian
C. Charismatic
D. Associative

Answer : C
Explanations :
No Expl 0

Question No : 85
You are in charge of developing a new product for a bank. Your quality metrics are
based on the 80th percentile of each of the last three products developeD. This is an
example of:

A. Statistical sampling
B. Metrics
C. Benchmarking
D. Operational definitions

Answer : B
Explanations :
No Expl 1

Question No : 86
The two closing procedures are called:

A. Contract close out and Verify Scope

B. Contract close out and administrative closure
C. Project closure and product verification
D. Project closure and lessons learned

Answer : B
Explanations :
No Expl 2

Question No : 87
Scoring models, comparative approaches and benefit contribution are all part of:

A. Constrained optimization models for selecting a project

B. Benefit measurement models for selecting a project
C. Quality measurement techniques
D. Distribute Information tools

Answer : B
Explanations :
No Expl 3

Question No : 88
During the Develop Schedule process the Project Manager may have to go through
several iterations of the schedule before establishing the schedule baseline. All of the
following are tools and techniques that may be used during this process:

A. Critical Path Method, GERT, Resource Requirements

B. Resource Levelling Heuristics, Mathematical Analysis, Calendars
C. Duration compression, Resource Leveling Heuristics, PERT
D. GERT, PERT, Leads and Lags

Answer : C
Explanations :
No Expl 4

Question No : 89
Which of the following models of conflict resolution allows a cooling off period, but
seldom resolves the issue in the long term?

A. Problem solving
B. Withdrawal
C. Forcing
D. Smoothing

Answer : C
Explanations :
No Expl 5

Question No : 90
The "To Complete Performance Index" (TCPI) is calculated by:

A. Subtracting the actual costs to date from the estimate at completion

B. Dividing the budgeted cost of the remaining work by the difference between the
estimate at completion and actual costs to date
C. Multiplying the estimate at completion by the cumulative cost performance index
D. Adding the estimate at completion to the actual costs to date and multiplying by the
cumulative cost performance index

Answer : B
Explanations :
No Expl 6

Question No : 91
A complex project will fit best in what type of organization?

A. Functional
B. Cross-functional
C. Matrix
D. Balanced

Answer : C
Explanations :
No Expl 7

Question No : 92
Which of the following could be an appropriate WBS code for a work package at
the fourth level in a WBS where the top level code is 1.0?

A. 1.4
B. 1.1.1.1
C. 1.2.3.4
D. b and c

Answer : D
Explanations :
No Expl 8

Question No : 93
Which of the following Project Scope Management processes involves subdividing
the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components?

A. Collect Requirements
B. Initiation
C. Scope Change Control
D. Define Scope

Answer : D
Explanations :
No Expl 9

Question No : 94
The review of key deliverables and project performance at the conclusion of a
project phase is called:

A. phase exit
B. kill point
C. stage gate
D. all of the above

Answer : D
Explanations :
No Expl 10

Question No : 95
Which of the following is a common characteristic of most project life cycle
descriptions?

A. Cost and staffing are low at the start, higher towards the end, and drop rapidly as the
project nears completion.
B. The probability of successfully completing the project is highest at the start of the
project.
C. Stakeholders have the most influence on the final characteristics of the product at the
end of the project.
D. a and b

Answer : A
Explanations :
No Expl 11

Question No : 96
Project scope is:

A. The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features
and functions.
B. The features and functions that are to be included in a product or service.
C. A narrative description of work to be performed under contract.
D. a and b

Answer : A
Explanations :
No Expl 12

Question No : 97
What is the purpose of the WBS?

A. To show which work elements have been assigned to organizational units.

B. To ensure that all work within a project is identified and defined within a common
framework.
C. To show the organizational structure of a program.
D. all of the above

Answer : B
Explanations :
No Expl 13

Question No : 98
The unique identifiers assigned to each item of a WBS are often known collectively
as:

A. The work package codes

B. The project identifiers
C. The code of accounts
D. The element accounts

Answer : C
Explanations :
No Expl 14

Question No : 99
Change requests can occur due to:

A. An external event such as a change in government regulation.

B. An error or omission in defining the scope of the product.
C. An error or omission in defining the scope of the project.
D. all of the above

Answer : D
Explanations :
No Expl 15

Question No : 100
What is the difference between Verify Scope and quality control?

A. There is no difference.
B. Verify Scope is primarily concerned with the correctness of work results while quality
control is primarily concerned with the acceptance of work results.
C. Verify Scope is concerned with ensuring that changes are beneficial while quality
control is concerned that the overall work results are correct.
D. Verify Scope is primarily concerned with the acceptance of work results while quality
control is primarily concerned with the correctness of work results.

Answer : D
Explanations :
No Expl 16

Question No : 101
Which of the following is an output of Verify Scope?

A. Accepted deliverables
B. Change Requests
C. Project document updates.
D. All of the above

Answer : D
Explanations :
All are output of verify scope.
Question No : 102
Which of the following are outputs of the Scope Change Control Process?

A. Scope changes
B. Corrective action
C. Lessons learned
D. All of the above

Answer : D
Explanations :
No Expl 18

Question No : 103
Who should contribute to the development of the project plan?

A. Project manager
B. Entire project team including project manager
C. Senior management
D. Just the planning department

Answer : B
Explanations :
No Expl 19

Question No : 104
A project plan is:

A. A formal, approved document used to guide both project execution and project
control.
B. A document issued by senior management that provides the project manager with the
authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.
C. A narrative description of products or services to be supplie
D. A document describing the organizational breakdown structure of the company.

Answer : A
Explanations :
No Expl 20

Question No : 105
Which of the following tools and techniques are commonly used in the Define Scope
Process?

A. Benefit/cost analysis
B. Decomposition
C. Inspection
D. b and d

Answer : D
Explanations :
No Expl 21

Question No : 106
Which of the following is NOT an example of a type of schedule report?

A. Gantt chart
B. Milestone chart
C. fishbone diagram
D. network diagram

Answer : C
Explanations :
No Expl 22

Question No : 107
What is the primary purpose of a milestone chart?

A. To show task dependencies.

B. To show resource constraints.
C. To show significant events in the project such as completion of key deliverables.
D. To highlight the critical path.

Answer : C
Explanations :
No Expl 23

Question No : 108
When should the project manager be assigned?

A. As early in the project as feasible.

B. Preferably before much project planning has been done.
C. At least prior to the start of project plan execution.
D. All of the above.

Answer : D
Explanations :
No Expl 24

Question No : 109
In which type of organization(s) is the project manager's role most likely part-time?

A. Functional
B. Balanced Matrix
C. Weak Matrix
D. a and c

Answer : D
Explanations :
No Expl 25

Question No : 110
A document which describes how project scope will be managed and how scope
changes will be integrated into the project is: (choose the best answer)

A. A project plan
B. A risk analysis
C. A scope management plan
D. A scope statement

Answer : C
Explanations :
No Expl 26

Question No : 111
Which of the following statements concerning a scope statement are true?

A. It provides a documented basis for making future project decisions and for developing
common understanding of the project scope among stakeholders.
B. Scope statement and Statement of work are synonymous.
C. Project justification and project objectives are not included or referenced in the scope
statement.
D. Once written, the scope statement should never be revise

Answer : A
Explanations :
No Expl 27

Question No : 112
During what Time Management Process are the specific activities that must be
performed to produce the deliverables in the WBS identified and documented?

A. Sequence Activities
B. Define Activities
C. Develop Schedule
D. Estimate Activity Durations

Answer : B
Explanations :
No Expl 28

Question No : 113
A period of time in work weeks which includes non-working days is called:

A. Elapsed Time
B. Duration
C. Effort
D. Earned Time

Answer : A
Explanations :
No Expl 29

Question No : 114
The amount of time that an activity can be delayed from its early start without
delaying the project end date is called:

A. Negative Float
B. Total Float
C. Float
D. c and b

Answer : D
Explanations :
No Expl 30

Question No : 115
What are you likely to see as a project progresses in a schedule with must fix dates
and little or no slack?

A. Lots of free float

B. Idle resources
C. Negative float
D. Positive float

Answer : B
Explanations :
No Expl 31

Question No : 116
Given the following estimates: Optimistic 3 days, Pessimistic 9 days, and most likely
6 days, what is the PERT weighted average?

A. 6
B. 4
C. 6.3
D. 6.1

Answer : C
Explanations :
No Expl 32

Question No : 117
What is the standard deviation for the estimates in the above problem?

A. 0.6
B. 2
C. 1.5
D. 0.5

Answer : A
Explanations :
No Expl 33

Question No : 118
In crashing the schedule, you would focus on:

A. Accelerating as many tasks as possible

B. Accelerating just the non-critical tasks
C. Accelerating the performance of tasks on the critical path
D. None of the above

Answer : C
Explanations :
No Expl 34

Question No : 119
To calculate the late start and late finish dates for a set of tasks , you must do :

A. An analysis of the critical path

B. A forwards pass
C. A backwards pass
D. a and c

Answer : C
Explanations :
No Expl 35

Question No : 120
An activity that consumes no time or resources and shows only that a dependency
exists between two activities is called:
A. A milestone
B. A hammock
C. A dummy activity
D. a and c

Answer : C
Explanations :
No Expl 36

Question No : 121
A modification of a logical relationship that allows an acceleration of the successor
task is represented by:

A. Lead time
B. Lag time
C. Negative Lag
D. a or c

Answer : D
Explanations :
No Expl 37

Question No : 122
Assuming a PERT weighted average computation, what is the probability of
completing the project within plus-or-minus 3 standard deviations of the mean?

A. 68%
B. 99.74%
C. 95%
D. 75%

Answer : B
Explanations :
No Expl 38

Question No : 123
Activity Resource Requirements is an input to ____________ :

A. Estimate Activity Durations

B. Control Schedule
C. Sequence Activities
D. Estimate Activity Resources

Answer : A
Explanations :
Activity Resource Requirements is an input to Estimate Activity Durations.

Question No : 124
Dummy relationships or dummy activities can be used in which Sequence Activities
techniques ?

A. Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM]

B. Precedence Diagramming Method [PDM]
C. Fragment Network
D. None

Answer : A
Explanations :
Dummy activities are used to show complete relationships between tasks, and the fact
that ADM uses only finish-to-start dependences.

Question No : 125
Which of the following relationships is used in Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM]
:

A. Start-to-Finish
B. Finish-to-Start
C. Start-to-Start
D. Finish-to-Finish

Answer : B
Explanations :
Dummy activities are used to show complete relationships between tasks, and the fact
that ADM uses only finish-to-start dependences.

Question No : 126
Which is not a technique for Sequence Activities ?

A. Rolling Wave Planning

B. Mandatory Dependencies
C. Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM
D. Precedence Diagramming Method [PDM]

Answer : A
Explanations :
Rolling wave planning is a technique for Define Activities. Other options are technique
for Sequence Activities.

Question No : 127
Which is a technique for Define Activities?
A. Rolling Wave Planning
B. Mandatory Dependencies
C. Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM
D. Precedence Diagramming Method [PDM]

Answer : A
Explanations :
Rolling wave planning is a technique for Define Activities. Other options are technique
for Sequence Activities.

Question No : 128
Reserve Analysis is a technique for:

A. Estimate Activity Durations

B. Estimate Activity Resources
C. Sequence Activities
D. Define Activities

Answer : A
Explanations :
Reserve Analysis ( Contingency ): Project teams may choose to incorporate an additional
time frame, called time reserve, contingency or buffer, that can be added to the activity
duration or elsewhere in the schedule as recognition of schedule risk.

Question No : 129
Resource Leveling is a technique for:

A. Develop Schedule
B. Estimate Activity Durations
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Sequence Activities

Answer : A
Explanations :
Resource Levelling Heuristics: Allocate scare resources to critical path activities first etc.
Tools and Techniques for Develop Schedule are : Mathematical analysis, Duration
compression, Simulation,Resource-leveling ,Project management software, Adjusting
Leads and Lags and Coding structure.

Question No : 130
Adjusting Leads and Lags is a technique for:

A. Develop Schedule
B. Estimate Activity Durations
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Sequence Activities
Answer : A
Explanations :
Adjusting Leads and Lags: Since the improper use of leads or lags can distort the project
schedule, the leads or lags are adjusted during schedule network analysis to develop a
viable project schedule. Tools and Techniques for Develop Schedule are : Mathematical
analysis,Duration compression,Simulation,Resource-leveling ,Project management
software,Adjusting Leads and Lags and Coding structure.

Question No : 131
Parametric Estimating is done as a part of which process:

A. Develop Schedule
B. Estimate Activity Durations
C. Sequence Activities
D. Estimate Activity Resources

Answer : B
Explanations :
Tools and Techniques for Estimate Activity Durations are : Analogous estimates ,
Parametric Estimating, Three-Point Estimates and Reserve Analysis.

Question No : 132
Three-Point Estimates includes _________.

A. Most likely
B. Optimistic
C. Pessimistic
D. All

Answer : D
Explanations :
Three-Point Estimates includes Most likely, Optimistic and Pessimistic.

Question No : 133
Identification of Mandatory Dependencies is done during which process:

A. Sequence Activities
B. Develop Schedule
C. Define Activities
D. Estimate Activity Durations

Answer : A
Explanations :
Sequence Activities : Identifying and documenting interactivity logical relationships
Question No : 134
A Project with a total funding of $70,000 finished with a BAC value of $60,000.
What term can best describe the difference of $10,000?

A. Cost Variance
B. Management Overhead
C. Management Contingency Reserve
D. Schedule Variance

Answer : C
Explanations :
The difference between the Cost Baseline and Funding requirement at Project completion
is Management Contingency Reserve. BAC represents the revised Cost baseline for the
project. So C is true.

Question No : 135
Project Cost Management Plan is created as a part of:

A. Estimate Costs process

B. Determine Budget process
C. Control Costs process
D. None

Answer : A
Explanations :
Cost management plan : Describes how cost variances will be managed and Part of the
overall project plan. Output of Estimate Costs process is : Cost estimates and Cost
management plan

Question No : 136
Which is not a part of the project cost baseline but is included in the project
budget?

A. Management Contingency Reserve

B. Management Overheads
C. Project Management Planing
D. Activity Cost Contingency Reserve

Answer : A
Explanations :
The difference between the Cost Baseline and Funding requirement at Project completion
is Management Contingency Reserve. Management Contingency Reserve is not part of
project cost baseline.

Question No : 137
Which is not part of the Earned Value calculations ?
A. Unknown Unknowns
B. Project Budget
C. Known Unknowns
D. Amount of work completed

Answer : A
Explanations :
Unknown Unknowns is not part of the Earned Value calculations.

Question No : 138
Resource reallocation from non critical to critical activities is an example of which
Project Scheduling technique:

A. Resource Leveling
B. Schedule Compression
C. Critical Path Method
D. What if Analysis

Answer : A
Explanations :
Resource Leveling :Allocate scare resources to critical path activities first .

Question No : 139
Trend Analysis is best described as:

A. Examining project performance over time

B. Calculating Earned Value
C. Calculating Cost Variance
D. Analyzing performance of similar projects over time

Answer : A
Explanations :
Trend Analysis is Examining project performance time by time

Question No : 140
What is the lowest level in a work breakdown structure?

A. Project task
B. Work package
C. SOW
D. none

Answer : B
Explanations :
A work package is the lowest level of a work breakdown structure.
Question No : 141
Knowledge of best practices in a particular area is most likely to give rise to which
of the following dependencies:

A. Finish-to-Start dependency
B. External dependency
C. Mandatory dependency
D. Soft Logic

Answer : D
Explanations :
This kind of dependency is also known as Soft Logic, Preferential Logic, or Preferred
Logic

Question No : 142
Reserve Analysis involves:

A. Estimating by multiplying the quantity of work by productivity rate

B. Adding resource reserves to the activity resource estimates
C. Developing project schedule with contingency reserves as a recognition of the
schedule risk
D. Incorporating time buffers into the activity duration estimates

Answer : D
Explanations :
Reserve Analysis ( Contingency ): Project teams may choose to incorporate an additional
time frame, called time reserve, contingency or buffer, that can be added to the activity
duration or elsewhere in the schedule as recognition of schedule risk.

Question No : 143
Reserve Analysis technique NOT used during __________.

A. Control Costs
B. Estimating Activity Duration
C. Determine Budget
D. Estimate Costs

Answer : A
Explanations :
Reserve analysis is used during Estimate Costs to calculate contingency buffers that
apply to individual or group of activities. Reserve analysis is used during Determine
Budget to calculate management contingency buffers that apply to the entire project.
Reserve analysis is done during Activity Duration estimation in order to calculate
duration buffers for individual or group of activities.
Question No : 144
Which of the following is not true for Resource Leveling:

A. Project's Critical path may be altered

B. Reverse resource allocation scheduling
C. Resource based scheduling method
D. None

Answer : D
Explanations :
All are true about Resource Levelling. Resource Levelling is another tool in Develop
Schedule. Resource Levelling removes the peaks and valleys of resource allocation. This
technique also examines resource over allocation and critical resource allocation. This
technique lets the schedule and cost slip.

Question No : 145
If you are project manager , After a change request has been denied, you should:

A. Record it and save it.

B. Pass on to the project team.
C. Forget it
D. None

Answer : A
Explanations :
You have to keep track of all change requests.

Question No : 146
Change requests are made against the ____________?

A. Project baseline
B. SOW
C. Charter
D. Executive summary

Answer : A
Explanations :
All change requests are made against a project plan that has the project baseline.

Question No : 147
Change requests should be ______ ?

A. Formal
B. Interesting
C. Short
D. None
Answer : A
Explanations :
Record of changes request should be maintained.

Question No : 148
The Change Control Board should be _______?

A. flexible
B. Include the project manager
C. appropriate authority
D. All of the above

Answer : D
Explanations :
CCB should have all the mentioned characteristics.

Question No : 149
The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features
and functions included in the __________?

A. Execution Plan
B. Project Scope
C. Product scope
D. Statement of work.

Answer : B
Explanations :
Product scope - The features and functions that are to be included in a product or service.
Project scope - The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the
specified features and functions.

Question No : 150
The outcome that must be produced to complete a part of a project or the project
itself is called a _______ ?

A. Deliverable
B. Work Statement
C. Project Plan
D. WBS

Answer : A
Explanations :
The outcome that must be produced to complete a part of a project or the project itself is
called a Deliverable.
Question No : 151
Which is a valid response to positive risks?

A. Exploit
B. Share
C. Enhance
D. All

Answer : D
Explanations :
Risk mitigation is a response to negative risks and not positive risks. Positive risks may
be responded by - "Exploit", "Enhance", "Share", "Accept".

Question No : 152
Which is a valid response to negative risks?

A. Exploit
B. Share
C. Enhance
D. mitigation

Answer : D
Explanations :
Risk mitigation is a response to negative risks and not positive risks. Positive risks may
be responded by - "Exploit", "Enhance", "Share", "Accept".

Question No : 153
Which of the following processes has risk register as the primary output?

A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B. Monitor and Control Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Identify Risks

Answer : D
Explanations :
Process of Identify Risks has Risk register as the major output.

Question No : 154
During which stage of Risk planning are risks prioritized based on probability and
impact?

A. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

B. Monitor and Control Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Identify Risks
Answer : A
Explanations :
Risk probability and impact are defined during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.

Question No : 155
Which of the following compression techniques increases risk?

A. Crashing
B. Resource leveling
C. Fast tracking
D. Lead and lag

Answer : C
Explanations :
Fast tracking is a compression technique that increases risk and potentially causes rework

Question No : 156
Which performance measurement tells us how much more of the budget is required
to finish the project?

A. ETC
B. EV
C. EAC
D. AC

Answer : A
Explanations :
Estimate to completion calculates how much more of the budget is needed to complete
the project if everything continues at the current level of performance.

Question No : 157
Project risk is characterized by three factors. What are they ?

A. Severity of impact, duration of impact and cost of impact

B. Identification, type of risk category and probability of impact
C. Risk event, risk probability and the amount at stake
D. Occurrence, frequency and cost

Answer : C
Explanations :
Risk event, risk probability and the amount at stake are the factors.

Question No : 158
A project is defined in the PMBOK as:
A. A process of considerable scope that implements a plan
B. A group of ideas managed in a coordinated way to obtain a desired outcome
C. A temporary endeavour undertaken to create a unique product or service
D. A collection of activities with a beginning and an end

Answer : C
Explanations :
A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service

Question No : 159
Which of the following is best for handling cross functional project needs for a
large, complex project?

A. A strong matrix organization

B. A project coordinator
C. A project expeditor
D. Direct executive involvement

Answer : A
Explanations :
Strong Matrix: Power rest with Project Manager.

Question No : 160
Project Stakeholders are defined as:

A. Individuals and organizations who use the project's product

B. Individuals and organizations whose interest may be positively or negatively affected
as a result of project execution or successful project completion
C. Individuals and organizations who provide the financial resources
D. All of the above

Answer : D
Explanations :
All of the above

Question No : 161
The tools and techniques used in the initiation process are:

A. Product analysis
B. Project Develop Schedule
C. Expert judgment
D. Project budget

Answer : C
Explanations :
Expert judgment is required in the initiation process
Question No : 162
Likely schedule durations for Estimate Activity Durations are available from
historical information that is derived from the following sources except:

A. Commercial duration databases

B. Project files
C. Project team knowledge
D. Outside consultants

Answer : D
Explanations :
All are inputs to Estimate Activity Durations except Outside consultants.

Question No : 163
Your spouse works for a vendor and the vendor bidding on a project at your
company. You are not affiliated with the specific project team evaluating bids but
you are part of the executive project management team. What do you do?

A. Inform your company of the relationship

B. Inform the vendor of the relationship
C. Both of the above are true
D. None

Answer : C
Explanations :
It is your responsibility to disclose to both the vendor and your company .

Question No : 164
Which of the following process involves measures project and product scope
performance and managing scope baseline changes ?

A. Collect Requirements
B. Define Scope
C. Verify scope.
D. Control scope

Answer : D
Explanations :
Control scope process involves measures project and product scope performance and
managing scope baseline changes.

Question No : 165
Which is not one of the triple constraint of a project?

A. Scope
B. Time
C. Cost
D. Resources

Answer : D
Explanations :
Projects triple constraints are 1) Scope, 2)Time and 3)Cost

Question No : 166
What are triple constraints of a project?

A. Scope
B. Time
C. Cost
D. All of the above

Answer : D
Explanations :
Projects triple constraints are 1) Scope, 2)Time and 3)Cost

Question No : 167
Which organization is same as Functional organization?

A. Projectized organization
B. Balanced Matrix organization
C. Strong Matrix
D. Weak Matrix organization

Answer : D
Explanations :
Weak Matrix : Power reset with Functional Manager and Functional organization :
Project Manager has least power and all management is taken care by functional manager
like marketing engineer, sales engineer etc.

Question No : 168
A Schedule Management Plan is developed in which of the following knowledge
areas:

A. Develop Project Management Plan

B. Project Cost Management
C. Project Scope Management
D. Project Time Management

Answer : A
Explanations :
A Schedule Management Plan is developed as part of "Develop Project Management
Plan".

Question No : 169
Define Activities is typically performed by which of the following:

A. Project Manager who created the WBS

B. Management
C. Project Team Members responsible for the work package
D. Project Stakeholder

Answer : B
Explanations :
Define Activities is typically performed by Project Team Members. identify the activities
that need to be done to complete the project.

Question No : 170
Which is not an activity attribute:

A. Time when to perform the activity

B. Location where to perform the activity
C. Leads and Lags
D. Person responsible for the activity

Answer : A
Explanations :
Activity attributes are an input for project Develop Schedule. The scheduling information
is not a part of the activity attribute.

Question No : 171
Which does not create changes to the Project Scope Statement or Work Breakdown
Structure ?

A. Estimate Activity Durations

B. Define Activities
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Sequence Activities

Answer : A
Explanations :
Estimate Activity Durations : Process of taking information on project scope and
resources and then developing durations for input to schedules.

Question No : 172
Which organization is same as Functional organization?

A. Projectized organization
B. Balanced Matrix organization
C. Strong Matrix
D. Weak Matrix organization

Answer : D
Explanations :
Weak Matrix : Power reset with Functional Manager and Functional organization :
Project Manager has least power and all management is taken care by functional manager
like marketing engineer, sales engineer etc.

Question No : 173
At which stage, project cost is maximum?

A. Initial stage
B. Closing stage
C. Middle stage
D. None of the above

Answer : C
Explanations :
Middle stage : Execution stage has the resources and cost usage is maximum.

Question No : 174
Which is not correct about initial phase of a project?

A. The cost associated at the initial phase of the project is highest.

B. Stake holders have maximum influence during this phase
C. The highest uncertainty is at this stage of the project.
D. All of the above

Answer : A
Explanations :
minimum cost at the project initiation stage because minimum requirement of resources .

Question No : 175
Process analysis is a function of ____________.

A. Process Improvement Plan

B. Quality Improvement Plan
C. Quality Metrics
D. Performance Analysis

Answer : A
Explanations :
process analysis is simply execution of the steps outlined in Process Improvement Plan.
Question No : 176
Root Cause Analysis related to ________.

A. Process Analysis
B. Quality Audits
C. Performance Measurements
D. All of the above

Answer : A
Explanations :
Root Cause Analysis relates to Process Analysis.

Question No : 177
Trend Analysis is performed using ______.

A. Run Chart
B. Scatter Diagram
C. Pareto Chart
D. Control Charts

Answer : A
Explanations :
Trend Analysis involves forecasting the future trend based on past performance. Run
Chart shows the past pattern of variation.

Question No : 178
A Pareto diagram can be best described as:

A. Histogram
B. Control Chart
C. Scatter Chart
D. Cause and Effect Diagram

Answer : A
Explanations :
Pareto diagram mainly helps the project management team to quantify and categories the
defects/issues according to sources ( engineering defects, setup problems, etc)

Question No : 179
A planning phase for an engineering component generated 100 engineering
components. The QA team randomly selected 5 components for inspection. This
exercise can best be described as example of:

A. Statistical Sampling
B. Flowcharting
C. Inspection
D. None

Answer : A
Explanations :
entire process of random selection and inspecting a work product is known as Statistical
Sampling.

Question No : 180
The process of Manage Stakeholder Expectations is part of which process?

A. Planning
B. Monitoring and Control
C. Executing
D. QA

Answer : B
Explanations :
Manage Stakeholder Expectations is part of Monitoring and Control process.

Question No : 181
Which is not an example of formal communication?

A. Contract
B. email
C. Project status report
D. Status meeting

Answer : B
Explanations :
Communication via email is not considered a formal communication.

Question No : 182
Which of the following process is not included in project communication knowledge
area?

A. Communication Planning
B. Documenting Project Closure
C. Managing stakeholders
D. Distribute Information

Answer : B
Explanations :
Document Project Closure is not a part in Project communication knowledge area.

Question No : 183
You are the project manager of a project .You have just completed the Collect
Requirements and Define Scope. What should you do next?

A. Create WBS
B. Verify Scope
C. Value analysis
D. Control Scope

Answer : A
Explanations :
Create the WBS is the process that follows Collect Requirements and Define Scope.

Question No : 184
Reserve Analysis a technique not used in:

A. Estimate Costs
B. Estimating Activity Duration
C. Control Costs
D. Determine Budget

Answer : C
Explanations :
Reserve Analysis: Many cost estimators include reserves, also called contingency
allowances, as costs in many schedule activity cost estimates. Reserve Analysis a
technique not used in Control Costs .

Question No : 185
A Project with a total funding of $70,000 finished with a BAC value of $60,000.
What term can best describe the difference of $10,000?

A. Cost Variance
B. Management Overhead
C. Management Contingency Reserve
D. Schedule Variance

Answer : C
Explanations :
The difference between the Cost Baseline and Funding requirement at Project completion
is Management Contingency Reserve. BAC represents the revised Cost baseline for the
project. So C is true.

Question No : 186
Project Cost Management Plan is created as a part of:

A. Estimate Costs process

B. Determine Budget process
C. Control Costs process
D. None

Answer : A
Explanations :
Cost management plan : Describes how cost variances will be managed and Part of the
overall project plan. Output of Estimate Costs process is : Cost estimates and Cost
management plan

Question No : 187
Which is not a part of the project cost baseline but is included in the project
budget?

A. Management Contingency Reserve

B. Management Overheads
C. Project Management Planing
D. Activity Cost Contingency Reserve

Answer : A
Explanations :
The difference between the Cost Baseline and Funding requirement at Project completion
is Management Contingency Reserve. Management Contingency Reserve is not part of
project cost baseline.

Question No : 188
Which is not part of the Earned Value calculations ?

A. Unknown Unknowns
B. Project Budget
C. Known Unknowns
D. Amount of work completed

Answer : A
Explanations :
Unknown Unknowns is not part of the Earned Value calculations.

Question No : 189
If the Earned Value is equal to Actual Cost, What does it means:

A. There is no cost variance

B. There is no schedule variance
C. Schedule Variance Index is 1
D. Project is on budget and on schedule

Answer : A
Explanations :
Cost Variance = EV - AC . Therefore if EV = AC, the Cost Variance is zero .
Question No : 190
Trend Analysis is best described as:

A. Examining project performance over time

B. Calculating Earned Value
C. Calculating Cost Variance
D. Analyzing performance of similar projects over time

Answer : A
Explanations :
Trend Analysis is Examining project performance time by time

Question No : 191
What is the lowest level in a work breakdown structure?

A. Project task
B. Work package
C. SOW
D. none

Answer : B
Explanations :
A work package is the lowest level of a work breakdown structure.

Question No : 192
Which is not part of Performance Measurements?

A. Calculating Earned Value

B. Calculating ETC
C. Calculating Cost Variance
D. Calculating Planned Value

Answer : A
Explanations :
Calculating Earned Value is not done as part of Performance Measurements.

Question No : 193
Management Contingency Reserve is identified in which process:

A. Determine Budget
B. Estimate Activity Resources
C. Estimate Costs
D. Estimate Activity Durations

Answer : C
Explanations :
The difference between the Cost Baseline and Funding requirement at Project completion
is Management Contingency Reserve. Management Contingency Reserve is identified in
Estimate Costs process.

Question No : 194
Resource Breakdown Structure is an example of:

A. Text-oriented Format
B. Functional Chart
C. Hierarchical-type Organizational Chart
D. Matrix-based Responsibility Chart

Answer : C
Explanations :
Resource Breakdown Structure is a type of hierarchical chart breaks down the project by
resource types so that the project manager can see quickly which resources can be
grouped together. The RBS does not have to be only for human resources and may
include materials, communication technologies, and other types of resources needed to
execute the project

Question No : 195
Which types of Organizational Charts can be best used to track project costs :

A. Organizational Breakdown Structure

B. Responsibility Assignment Matrix
C. Resource Breakdown Structure
D. Hierarchical-type Organizational Chart

Answer : C
Explanations :
Resource Breakdown Structure is a type of hierarchical chart breaks down the project by
resource types so that the project manager can see quickly which resources can be
grouped together. The RBS does not have to be only for human resources and may
include materials, communication technologies, and other types of resources needed to
execute the project. A RBS can be aligned with Organization's accounting system.

Question No : 196
Which of the following is not true for a Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM):

A. Defines all people associated with each activity

B. Defines responsibilities for each WBS component
C. Text description of roles, responsibilities, authorities
D. Defines what project member is responsible for each act
ivity
Answer : C
Explanations :
The Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) details the different tasks for the people
listed in the matrix chart.

Question No : 197
Which of the following is not true for a Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM):

A. Defines all people associated with each activity

B. Defines responsibilities for each WBS component
C. Defines what project member is responsible for each activity
D. All of the above

Answer : D
Explanations :
The Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) details the different tasks for the people
listed in the matrix chart.

Question No : 198
War room creation during project deployment phase is an example of:

A. Team Building activity

B. General Management Skills
C. Working together on Co-Location
D. Establishing Ground Rules

Answer : C
Explanations :
War room : Working together on Co-Location

Question No : 199
Building a virtual team for a project will limit the usability of which of the following
tools and techniques for Team Development:

A. Team Building
B. Reward and Recognitions
C. Working together on Co-Location
D. Establishing Ground Rules

Answer : C
Explanations :
Virtual team for a project will limit the usability of Working together on Co-Location.

Question No : 200
You are a Project Manager and takes over a project currently in Execution phase.
Where you are going to find best source of information on the costs associated with
each level of expertise needed for the project:

A. Project Quality Management Plan

B. Project Schedule Management Plan
C. Project Staffing Management Plan
D. Project Cost Management Plan

Answer : C
Explanations :
Based on the PMBOK, this information would be available in Staffing plan. The Cost
management plan would contain cost of scheduled activities.