Airlaw 1

1. The body of ICAO that considers and recommends modification

modificati on to the Annexes of the Convention to the ICAO
Council is the
Air Navigation Commission
2. The Freedom of the Air exercised by an airline planning a technical stop in a neighboring State is the
2nd freedom
3. Cabotage refers to:

Domestic air services
4. One of the main objectives of ICAO is to :

Develop principles and technique for international aviation
5. Standards defined
defi ned in the Annexes of Chicago convention are:
Binding for the Contracting States unless they have notified ICAO about a national difference
6. The Warsaw convention

convent ion and the later amendments in the Montreal Convention deal with the:
Operator’s liability for loss and damage caused to passengers and goods
goods
7. Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO?

ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the convention
8. The objectives
objectiv es of ICAO were established and are ratified
ratifi ed by the:
Chicago convention 1944
9. The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has committed
committ ed or is about
to commit an unlawful act on board the aircraft may:
Deliver such person to the competent authorities
10. Any contracting

contracti ng state may denounce the Convention of Tokyo by notification
notificati on addressed
Internationall Civil Aviation Organisation
Internationa
11. The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with:

Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface
12. The convention signed by the states and moved

mov ed by a desire to ensure adequate compensation
compensati on for persons
persons
who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is:
The Rome Convention 1933/1952
13. The convention signed by the states and moved

mov ed by a desire to ensure adequate compensation
compensati on for persons
persons
who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is:
The Rome Convention 1933/1952
14. The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft is:
The convention of Tokyo
15. The convention which deals with offences against penal law, is
The convention of Tokyo
16. The Convention of Rome 1933/1952 for the Unification of certain Rules Relating
Relati ng to Damage caused by
Aircraft was established
established in order
order to define
define the liability
liability in case of
of damage:
To third parties on the surface
17. The International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.)

(I.C.A.O. ) was established
establi shed by the international
internati onal convention
conventi on of:
Chicago
Airlaw - P a g e | 1

18. The Second Freedom of the air as defined in the International

Internati onal Air Services Transit Agreement
Agreement is the right for
non-scheduled
non-scheduled flights to:
Land for a technical stop in another State
19. The First Freedom of the air defined in the International Air Services Transit Agreement is the:
Right to overfly another State without landing
20. The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes;

Standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states
21. The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibili

responsibilities
ties of international
internati onal air carriers for the
carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is the:
Warsaw Convention
22. For aircraft flying over the high seas, which rules shall be in force?
The rules established under the Convention of international civil aviation
23. Which is the permanent body of ICAO being responsible to the Assembly?
The Council
24. Which of the following ICAO documents contain International

Internati onal Standards and Recommended Practices
(SARPS)?
Annexes to the Convention on international civil aviation
25. What is the obligation of a State in the event of non-compliance with an International Standard?
The State has to notify the Council of ICAO and publish such differences in the national AIP
26. Within
Withi n Europe, certain non-scheduled commercial
commerci al flights between ECAC States may be carried out without
the obligation to request prior permission from the state concerned by the operator of the aircraft. This is based on
which international agreement/convention?
Agreement of Paris
27. According to which Convention may an aircraft commander impose measures upon a person committing
committi ng a
crime or an offence on board the aircraft?
The Convention of Tokyo
28. Annex 14 to the convention on internati

international
onal civil aviation contains SARPS for
Aerodromes
29. The privilege to land for non-traffic purposes,

purposes, e.g. refueling, maintenance is to following freedom of the air:
2nd freedom
30. Which convention deals with the unification of rules related to damage caused by aircraft to third parties on
the surface?
The Rome convention
31. Annex 17 to the Convention of Chicago covers:

Security
32. How will a member state withdraw from the Tokyo Convention?
By informing ICAO
33. The privilege to fly across the territory of another participating

participati ng state without landing is called:
The first freedom of the air
34. The privilege to land in another ICAO participating

participati ng state for technical reasons is called:
The second freedom

35. 5th freedom of the air is:

The right to carry revenue traffic between any points of landing on flights between 3 or more treaty partner
nations (B to C to D)
36. Which convention on international

internati onal air navigation resulted in the agreements concerning the responsibilities
responsibiliti es
with illegal acts committed on board aircraft?
The Tokyo Convention
37. The privilege for an airplane registered in one state and enroute to or from that state, to take on passengers,
mail and cargo in a second state and put them down in a third state is called:
5th freedom rights
38. The JAA is controlled by:

The JAA Committee
39. Which convention makes acts of violence on board, destruction of aircraft in flight and destroying or damaging
any air navigation facility punishable?
The Montreal Convention
40. What is Cabotage?

Domestic air services by an operator within another state
41. What privilege does the first freedom of the air grant?
To fly across the territory of a state without landing in that state
42. What is Cabotage?

Limitation of domestic scheduled air services to a national carrier
43. What does the second freedom of the air permit?

To land for technical purposes (non commercial) in the territory of another state
44. The Convention of Tokyo applies to damage:

The above convention does not deal with this item
45. What can the commander

commander of an aircraft do if he has reason to believe that a person has or is about
about to commit
an offence in the aeroplane that is against penal law?
a) land in any country and off-load the offender
b) use force to place the person in custody
c) deliver the person to the competent authority
All of the above
46. Under the terms ooff the Tokyo Convention of of 1963, what is a contracting
contracti ng state required
required to do in the event
event of
of an
act of unlawful seizure occurring within the territory of that state?
The state shall take all appropriate measures to restore control of the aircraft to its lawful commander, or to
preserve his control of the aircraft
47. Any person, who suffers damage on the surface caused by an aircraft in flight,
flight , or by any person or thing
falling therefore, is entitled to compensation as provided by the:
Rome Convention 1933/1952
48. Contracting
Contracti ng States have the obligation to inform ICAO about:
Differences and/or deviations from the standards with the Annexes to the convention

49. The Convention defining

defining rules of the parties relating to the carriage of passengers, baggage and cargo and
the liability of the carriers and extent of compensation for damage is the:
Montreal Convention 1999
50. Any contracting

contracti ng state may denounce the Convention of Montreal by written notification
notificati on to the depositary
governments. The denunciation shall take effect:
6 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments
51. The right to damages is lost if an action is not brought within 2 years, this time starts from:
The date of arrival at the destination, or from the date on which the aircraft ought to have arrived, or from the
date on which the carriage ceased
52. The right to damages is lost if an action is not brought within:

2 years
53. What flights

flight s is protected by the Prevention of Terrorism Act?
All flights
54. When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall
shall not
not be used which might be confused with
the
Five letter combinations used in the international code of signals
55. The state of design shall ensure that, there exists a continuing structural
structu ral integrity
integrit y program to ensure the
airworthiness of the aeroplane, which includes specific information concerning corrosion prevention and control, in
respect of aeroplanes:
Over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass
56. When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if
The state of registry considers that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy
57. The loading limitations shall include:

All limiting mass, centres of gravity position, mass distributions and floor loadings
58. Load factors have the following meaning:

The ratio of a specified load to the weight of the aircraft, the former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic
forces, inertia forces and ground reactions
59. According to ICAO Annex 8, a certificate

certifi cate of airworthiness shall be renewed or shall remain
remain valid subject to the:
Laws of the State of registry
60. The continuing airworthiness of an aircraft, according to ICAO Annex 8, shall be determined by:
The State of registry
61. An aircraft having

having sustained
sustained damage while on the territory of
of a Contracting S
State
tate other than the State of
Registry may fly without fare-paying passengers to an airport at which it can be restored to an airworthy condition if:
It receives permission of the State of Registry
62. Who is competent to issue a Certificate

Certifi cate of Airworthiness?
The Contracting State which approves the aircraft on the basis of satisfactory evidence that the aircraft
complies with appropriated airworthiness requirements
63. For the standards of Annex 8 (Airworthiness of Aircraft) to be applicable, how many engines must the aircraft
have?
2 or more
64. The standards to Annex 8 (Airworthiness of Aircraft) relate to:

Aircraft with MTOM greater than 5700 kgs

65. Which of the following statements

statement s is correct concerning the flight crew compartment
compartm ent door?
It must be capable of being locked
66. Annex 8 covers the airworthiness of aircraft. Who is responsible for the administration
administrati on of the Certificates
Certific ates of
Airworthiness?
Airworthiness?
The authority of the state of registration
67. Which of the following is not found on the Certificate

Certific ate of Airworthiness?
Airworthi ness?
The name and address of the owner
68. Who is responsible for determining the continuing airworthiness of an aeroplane?

The state of registry
69. The continued validity

validit y of a Certificate
Certificat e of Airworthiness of an aircraft is based on:
The law of the State of Registry
70. From the selection below, choose the most complete answer:
Annex 8 contains limitations on
Limiting masses, centres of gravity positions, mass distribution and floor loading
71. Validity and renewal of airworthiness certificates

certif icates shall be subject of the
Laws of the State of registry
72. The assignment of the common mark to a common mark registering

registeri ng authority will
will be made by:
The Interna
In ternational
tional Civil Aviation Organisation
Organisation
73. The common mark shall be selected from the series of symbols included in the radio call signs allocated:
To the International Civil Aviation Organisation by the International Telecommunication Union
74. According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, n

numbers
umbers or a combination of letters and numbers
and shall be that assigned by:
The state of registry or common mark registering authority
75. When letters are used for registration

registrati on mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with
urgent signals for example
TTT
76. When letters are used for registration

registrati on mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with
urgent signals for example
PAN
77. When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall
shall not
not be used which might be confused with
urgent or distress signals for example
XXX
78. The height of the marks on lighter than air aircraft other than unmanned free balloons
balloons shall be
At least 50 centimetres
79. The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be

80. The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure)
structure) and on the vertical
verti cal tail surfaces of
of heavier
heavier
than air aircraft shall be
81. When the first character of the registration

registration mark is a letter:
It shall be preceded by a hyphen
82. Which of the following registration

registrati on marks would not be permitted?
SY-PAN
83. When the first character of the registration mark is a letter:

It shall be preceded by a hyphen
84. ICAO Annex 7 contains...

Standards but no recommended practices
85. Which of the following is not found on the Certificate of Registration?

The category of aircraft
86. Annex 7 (Aircraft Nationality and Registrati

Registration
on Marks) contains:
Standards only
87. Under certain circumstances

circumstanc es a medical examination may be deferred at the discretion of the licensing
Authority, provided
provided that such
such deferment
deferment shall only be made as an
an exception and shall
shall not exceed:
exceed:
A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial
operations
88. When a contracting

contracti ng state renders valid
vali d a license issued by another contracting state, the validity
validit y of the
authorization:
Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the original license
89. You may act

act as a flight instructor to carry
carry out flight instruction for the issue of a PPL
With a theoretical CPL examination plus flight instructor rating
90. The validity

validit y of the instrum
instrument
ent rating aeroplane, IR (A) is:
1 year
91. The minimum age for obtaining a PPL is:

17 years
92. To be able to execute a public transport flight,

flight , the minimum and maximum age (with ATPL) is:
21 and 59 years
93. Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications
specificati ons for a crew license
to have internationa
internationall validity?
v alidity?
Annex 1
94. The holder of a pilot's license should inform the Authority of any illness, which
which involves
involv es incapacity
incapaci ty to undertake
license related functions for a certain number of days.
The number of days is:
21
95. If a license holder is unable to perform the flight crew functions

functi ons appropriate to that license due to illness, the
authority must be informed:

After 21 days of consecutive "illness"

96. The holder of a pilot license, when acting as co-pilot

co-pil ot of an aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall
be entitled to be credit with not more than :
50 % of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot license
Please refer to the ICAO Annex 1, 2.1.9.2 rules differ from JAR-FCL
97. The minimum age for an applicant for a Commercial Pilot License shall not be less than:
18 years of age
98. The applicant for a Commercial Pilot License shall hold a current:
Class I medical assessment
99. One of the privileges of the holder of a Commercial Pilot

Pilot License aeroplane is to act as
Pilot in command on any aeroplane engaged in operations other than commercial air transportation
100. An applicant for a commercial pilot

pilot license-aeroplane
license-aeropl ane shall ha
have
ve completed
completed not less than........
than... ..... hours of cross
country flight time as pilot in
i n command including a cross country flight totaling not less than........ km ( -NM), in the
course of which full stop landings at two different aerodromes shall be made. The hours and distance referred are:
20 hours and 540 km (300NM)

pilot license aeroplane
aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
20 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540
km (300NM)
102. As part of
of the total flight time requirement of
of 1500 hours for the issue of
of the ATPL, the minimum PIC flight
time requirements are
250 hours as PIC or not less than 100 hours as PIC and the additional required flight time as co-pilot,
performing under the supervision of the PIC the duties and functions of a PIC, provided that the method of
supervision is acceptable to the licensing authority
103. As part of the total flight time requirement of 1500 hours for the issue of the ATPL, an applicant shall have
have
completed not less than 200 hours of cross-country flight time.
How many of these hours shall be PIC time or co-pilot time performing the duties and functions of a PIC under the
supervision of a PIC, provided that the method of supervision is acceptable to the licensing authority?
At least 100 hours PIC flight time and not less than 100 hours supervised co-pilot flight time
104. As part of
of the total flight time requirement of
of the ATPL, the minimum instrument
instrum ent
time requirements are
75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours may be instrument ground time
105. As part ofof the total flight time requirement of

of the ATPL, the minimum requirements
for night flight time are
100 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot
106. As part of the total flight time requirement of 1500 hours for the issue of the ATPL, up to 100
100 hours
hours may have
been completed in FS or FNPT.
Credit for experience on a FNPT or a BITD shall be limited to a maximum of
25 hours
107. For the issue of an instrument rating the holder ofof a PPL or CPL shall have completed at least 50 hours of
cross-country flight time as pilot in command of aircraft in categories acceptable to the licensing Authority.
The minimum required cross country flight hours on aeroplanes is
10 hours
108. The duration of the period of currency of

of a medical assessment shall begin on the date:
The medical assessment is issued

109. When a contracting

contracti ng state renders valid
vali d a license issued by another contracting state the validity of the
authorization
Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the license
110. When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licenses (single pilot operations) aeroplane and helicopter have
have
passed their 40th birthday the medical examination shall be reduced from:
12 months to 6 months
111. There are conditions for the establishment of a type rating.

Amongst other
other conditions type ratings
ratings are
are established
established for
For any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authority
112. The holder

holder ooff a pilot license when acting as co-pilot performing under
under the supervisi
supervision
on of the pilot in command
the functions and duties of a pilot in command shall be entitled to be credit:
In full with his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot license
113. For commercial pilot license aeroplane the applicant

applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than if the
privileges of the license are to be exercised at night
5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in command
114. An applicant for a commercial pilot license aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
200 hours of flight time or 150 hours if completed during a course of approved training as a pilot of
aeroplanes

pilot license shall
shall have
have completed
completed in aeroplanes not less than:
10 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time
116. The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing

containi ng standards and recommended practices for
Personnel Licensing is:
Annex 1
117. The applicant to exercise the functions

functi ons of an Instrumental Flight Rating in_____ aeroplanes shall prove,
according to Annex I, PERSONNEL LICENSING, his/her capability to pilot such aircraft only by instrumental rules and
an engine _________.
Multi-engine / inoperative or simulated inoperative
118. According to JAR-FCL, a professional flight crew license issued by a non JAA State may be rendered valid for
use on aircraft registered in a JAA Member State
At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year,
provided that the basic license remains valid
119. License holder shall without undue delay seek the advice
advice of
of the Authority or AME when
when becoming aware of
hospital or clinic admissions for:
More than 12 hours
120. According to JAR-FCL,

JAR-FCL, Class
Class 2 medical
medical certificate
certificate for private
private pilots
pilots will
will be valid for
60 months until age of 40, 24 months until age of 50, 12 months thereafter
121. According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has satisfactorily
satisf actorily followed and completed
compl eted an integrated
integrat ed
flying training course shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplanes having a certificate of airworthiness issued or
accepted by a JAA Member State at least:
150 hours of flight time
122. According to JAR-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for:

One year

123. According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a PPL (A) including a night qualification or CPL(A)
and shall have completed at least 50 hours :
Cross country flight time as pilot-in-command in aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be
in aeroplanes
124. The Class Rating SEP(L) includes the Single Pilot Engine Piston (A) Class Rating not requiring a Type Rating,
plus
Touring Motor Glider/TMG
125. According to JAR-FCL, establishment of of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be assessed on the basis of
three criteria. One of these three criteria is that the aeroplane has:
Handling characteristics that require additional flying or simulator training
126. The validity
validit y of Type Ratings and multi-engine
multi -engine Class Ratings is one year from the date:
Of issue
127. The Single Pilot, Single Engine Class Rating is valid for:
Two years
128. The successful completion of multi-crew

multi-cr ew co-operation (MCC) training is one of the conditions required for:
The first type rating on multi-pilot aeroplanes
129. The applicant

applicant for ATPL (A)
(A) shall have completed as a pilot of
of aeroplane at least 1500 hours of flight time,
including 500 hours in multi-pilot operations
On aeroplanes type certificated in accordance with JAR/FAR 25 or JAR/FAR 23
130. According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for ATPL (A) shall have demonstrated
demonstrated the ability to perform
perform as
as pilot-in-
pilot -in-
command, the procedures and manoeuvres of an aeroplane type certificated for.
A minimum crew of two pilots under IFR
131. According to JAR-FCL, the privileges ofof a newly qualified Flight Instructor are restricted to carrying out
out
instruction under the supervision of a FI(A), approved for this purpose. The restrictions may be removed from the
rating:
On the recommendation of the supervising FI(A) after the holder of the restricted FI(A)rating has completed at
least 100 hours flight instruction and , in addition, has supervised at least 25 student solo flights
132. According to JAR-FCL, the aeroplane instructor

instruct or categories recognised are:
FI (A)/TRI (A)/CRI (A)/IRI (A) and SFI authorisati
authorisation
on
133. According to JAR-FCL, the privileges of

of the holder of
of an unrestrict
unrestricted
ed FI (A) rating are to conduct flight
instruction for the issue of a CPL(A):
Provided that the FI(A) has completed at least 500 hours of flight time as a pilot of aeroplanes including at
least 200 hours of flight instruction
134. According to JAR-FCL, an examiner's authorisation is valid for:

Not more than three years
135. The classes of Medical certificates

certifi cates in JAR-FCL 3 are:
1 and 2
136. Medical requirements are contained in the foll

following
owing JAR-FCL Part:
Part 3
137. "Demonstration
"Demonstrati on of skill to revalidate or renew ratings, and
and including such oral examination as the examiner
may require" is the definition for a:

Proficiency check

138. May further ratings under JAR-FCL requirements be obtained by other States than the State of of lic
license
ense issue
and if yes, by whom are such ratings entered into the license?
Yes, ratings may
may be obtained
obtained by any JAA
JAA Member State,
State, they will
will be entered into the license
license by State of
license issue
139. The holder

holder o
off a license with a night flying
flyi ng qualificati
qualification
on that does not include a valid IR (A) and not operating
under EU OPS 1 shall not act as a PIC of aeroplane carrying passengers at night unless
During the previous 90 days, at least one landing has been carried out at night
140. Which medical certificate

certifi cate is required for a CPL or ATPL and by whom s
shall
hall the medical checks be carried out.
Class 1 medical certificate; the first check has to be carried out by an AMC, the consecutive checks may be
carried out by an AME
141. If due to an illness, a pilot is unable to act as a member of a flight crew for a period
period of 21 days or more, the
holder of the license shall
Inform the Authority in writing when the period of 21 days has elapsed. Flight duties may only be resumed
when the requirements imposed by the Authority have been met
142. Type ratings are established for

Each type of multi-pilot aeroplane (MPA)
143. The validity

validit y period of a type rating is
One year
144. (CPL) Which of the statements concerning the privileges of a holder of a CPL (A) is correct?
Act as PIC in commercial air transportation of any single-pilot aeroplane
145. The minimum age for a ATPL (A) shall be at least:

21 years
146. (CPL) The minimum age for a CPL (A) shall be at least:
18 years
147. (CPL) An applicant for a CPL (A) shall have

have completed at least the following
followi ng flight time:
150 hours if following an integrated course
148. For which aircraft is MCC required?

For multi-crew aeroplanes
149. In accordance
accordance with JAR-FCL 1 the credit for MPA co-pilot time is:
100% of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot license
150. For the initial medical examination the validity of the medical assessment
assessment shall begin at the date the
Medical examination is performed
151. Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit,

unit, a VFR flight shall not take off or land at an aerodrome
aerodrome
within a CTR of Airspace Class C or D or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or traffic pattern when the ceiling is less
than:
1 500 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
152. The person charged with the safe conduct of a fli

flight
ght is the:
Pilot in command
153. The flight that has the highest priority for landing is
An aircraft that is compelled to land (emergency landing)

154. An aircraft operating under

under VFR,
VFR, above
above the sea at altit
altitudes
udes between 4500 ft and 9000 ft AMSL, outside
controlled airspace shall maintain a distance from cloud of at least:
1500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility of 5 km
155. Above 3050 m/10000 ft AMSL, the VMC minima for flights under VFR in all classes of airspace are:
Visibility 8 km, distance from clouds 1500 m horizontal, 1000 ft vertical
156. Pilots of controlled flights shall inform the appropriate ATS whenever the average
average TAS at cruising level varies
or is expected to vary from the TAS given in the flight plan by:
5%
157. Unless otherwise instructed

instruct ed by the appropriate air traffic service
service unit, an aircraft equipped
equipped with
with transponder,
intercepted by another aircraft shall select immediately transponder Mode A
Code 7700
158. The crew of an intercept

intercepted
ed aircraft s
shall
hall immediately attempt to establish radio communication with
with the
intercepting aircraft or with the appropriate intercept control unit by making a general call on the frequency:
121.5 MHz
If no contact has been established, and if practicable, repeat this call on the frequency 243 MHz
159. An intercepting
intercepti ng aircraft communicates to the intercepted aircraft "YOU MAY PROCEED"
With an abrupt break-away manoeuvre from the intercepted aircraft consisting of a climbing turn of 90
degrees or more
more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft
160. The foll

following
owing signal means that an aircraft wishes to give notice of difficult
difficulties
ies which compel it to land without
without
requiring immediate assistance
The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights
161. The standard phrase used by an intercepti

intercepting
ng aircraft con
conveyi
veying
ng the meaning "descend for landing" is:
DESCEND
162. If radio contact with the intercepting

interc epting aircraft is established
established but communication on a common language is not
possible, the pilot of the intercepted aircraft shall communicate to the intercepting aircraft that he is unable to comply
with the instructions by pronouncing the phrase
CAN NOT
163. A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:
The airport is unsafe, do not land
164. On aerodromes aircraft taxying on the manoeuvring area

area of an aerodrome shall give way to:
Aircraft taking off or about to take off
165. Unless otherwise prescribed, what

what is the rule regarding the level to be maintained by an aircraft flying IFR
outside controlled airspace?
1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of the estimated position of the aircraft
166. Aircraft "A" with an ATC clearance is flying

flyi ng in VMC conditions
conditions within a control area. Aircraft "B" with no ATC
clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which has the right of way?
Aircraft "B" if "A" is on its left
167. In the event that a controlled

controlled flight
flight inadvertently
inadvertently deviats
deviats from
from its track given
given in the current
current flight plan,
plan, action
should be taken in order to:
Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable

168. While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation
deviati on from an ATC clearance.
clearance. What action
must be taken?
t aken?
The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action taken as soon as circumstances permit
169. A signalman will

will ask
ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist
170. An aircraft is flying

flyi ng under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the vi
visibility
sibility is unlimited and the sky is
clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radio communications. The procedure to be followed is:
Land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, and then advise Air Traffic Services of landing
171. A red flare addressed to a flyi

flying
ng aircraft means:
Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being
172. A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area indicates that:
The aerodrome is being used by gliders and glider flights are being performed
173. A signalman (Marshaller) requests the pilot to engage brakes with the following signal:
Raising arm and hand with fingers extended horizontally in front of body, then clench fist
174. For flights

flight s under IFR within advisory airspace. a fli
flight
ght plan:
Shall be submitted. Changes to the flight plan have to be reported
175. An overtaking aircraft is an aircraft that approaches another aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of
less than:
70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
176. The provisions for a fli

flight
ght under VFR in Class E airspace are:
Services provided: Traffic Information as far as practical; ATC Clearance: not required

177. VMC minima for VFR flights

flight s in Class B airspace, above
above 3050m
3050m (10000 ft)
ft ) AMSL, are:
8 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds
178. The procedure to be followed after having experienced a two way communication
communi cation failure during a flight under
IFR in VMC is:
Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and report its arrival by most expeditious
means to the appropriate ATS unit
179. In the event

event that a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flight plan, the appropriate ATC unit
has to be informed:
When the average TAS at cruising level between reporting points varies or is expected to vary by plus or
minus 5 percent from the TAS given in the flight plan
180. Where State has not established minimum IFR altit

altitudes,
udes, the minimum height of an aircraft above
above the highest
obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight:
At least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
181. An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision

anti-colli sion light:
On the ground when the engines are running

182. A horizontal white dumb-bell with a black bar

bar placed perpendicular to the shaft across each circular portion
placed in the signal area indicates that:
Aircraft are required to land and take off on runways only, but other manoeuvres do not need to be confined
to runways or taxiways
183. Your aircraft is intercepted

intercept ed by a military
milit ary aircraft
The signals given by this aircraft conflict with ATC instructions
You should:
Follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft
184. An aircraft manoeuvering in an

an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. This
signifies that the aircraft must:
Not land because the airport is not available for landing
There is a difference between red flashes and red pyrotechnics:
Red flashes: aerodrome unsafe, do not land
Red pyrotechnic: notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being
185. A series of green flashes from aerodrome control directed

directed towards an aircraft
aircraf t in flight means:
Return for landing
186. While taxying an aircraft receives the foll

following
owing light signal from the control tower: series of red flashes. This
signal means that the
t he aircraft:
Must vacate the landing area in use
187. A series of green flashes from aerodrome control directed

directed towards an aircraft
aircr aft on ground means:
Cleared to taxi
188. Given:
AGL = above
above ground level
AMSL = above
above mean sea level
level
FL = flight level
l evel
Within uncontrolled airspace, the first usable level in IFR must provide a 500 ft margin above the following two levels:
3 000 ft AMSL or 1 000ft AGL
189. On anan IFR flight in airspace class D, you receive traffic information from ATC, that a VFR flight
fli ght is going to
cross your flight path from right to left. Who has the right-of-way?
right-of-way?
The VFR flight has the right-of-way
190. To cross lighted stop bars on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome, the following applies:
An aircraft may only proceed further if the lights are switched off
191. When has a flight

fli ght plan to be filed at the latest?
60 minutes before departure or, if filed in flight, 10 minutes before the aircraft is estimated to reach the
intended point of entry into a control area or advisory area or the point of crossing an airway or advisory
route
192. If the time estimated

estimat ed for the next reporting point
point differs from that notified
notifi ed to ATS, a revised estimate shall be
notified to ATS if the time difference is:
In excess of three minutes
193. If a communication failure is experienced on an IFR flight in IMC, the pilot shall:
Proceed to the navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome and commence descent at the expected
approach time or, if no expected approach time has been received, as close as possible to the estimated time
of arrival resulting from the current flight plan

194. If the instructions

instruct ions received by radio from any sources are in conflict w
with
ith those given by visual signals from an
intercepting aircraft, the intercepted aircraft shall:
Follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft and request immediate clarification
195. The minimum flight visibility

visi bility and distance from clouds on a VFR flight in airspace class C at 9000 ft.
AMSL/2500 ft. AGL is:
5 km, distance from clouds 1500 m horizontally and 300 m vertically
196. For flights

flight s into control zones, the following meteorological conditions do not require a special VFR clearance:
Ground visibility 5 km, ceiling 1500 ft
197. Except when necessary for take-off or landing, a VFR flight over congested areas of cities, towns or
settlements or over an open-air assembly of persons shall not be flown at a height less than
300 m. above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft
198. (IR) Where no minimum flight altitudes have been established for IFR flights,
fli ghts, which statement concerning
minimum flight altitudes for IFR flights is correct:
Over high terrain or in mountainous areas, at a level which is at least 600 m (2000 ft.) above the highest
obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft
199. Which of the following signals is a distress signal?

A parachute flares showing a red light
200. A series of red flashes from aerodrome

aerodrome control directed towards an aircraft on ground means:
Taxi clear of landing area in use
201. A horizontal white dumb-bell when

when displayed on a signal area of an aerodrome means:
Aircraft are required to land, take off and taxi on runways and taxiways only
202. On a VFR
VFR flight, your magnetic
magnetic track
track is 005°, the magnetic heading
heading 355°. Which of the following
following flight level is
correct?
FL 55
203. In areas where a vertical

verti cal separation of 2000 ft. has to be applied above FL 290, which group of the following
flight levels contains odd flight levels only?
FL 410, FL 330
204. An aircraft which

which is intercepted
intercept ed by another aircraft shall set its transponder to:
Mode A, Code 7700 unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit
205. A red pyrotechnic discharged

discharged from aerodrome control to an aircraft in flight means
206. "Raise arm and hand, w with

ith fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist". This signal from a
signalman to an aircraft means:
Engage brakes
207. In areas where a separation minimum of 1000 ft. is applied up to FL 410, authorisati
authorisation
on for VFR flight shall not
be granted above which flight level?
FL 290
208. A special VFR clearance may be obtained from ATC for the following airspaces:
CTR
209. (IR) On an IFR flight, you experience a total communication failure in conditions of no clouds and in unlimited
visibility. What should you do?
Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATS immediately

210. (IR) An ETA for an IFR flight refers to the following:

IAF
211. An aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give

give way
way to
212. If the ground visibility

visi bility is reported 1000 m, can a special
special VFR flight
fli ght take off from an aerodrome in a control
zone?
No
213. Which of the following defines flight visibility?

The forward visibility from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight
214. Which of the following correctly defines Special VFR?

A flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in conditions below VMC
215. On a VFR flight in airspace class

class B, what
what is the minimum distance from clouds?
300 m vertically, 1500 m horizontally
216. What defines a danger area?

Airspace of defined dimension where activities dangerous to flight may exist
217. Above FL 290 the standard vertical

verti cal flight separation
separation between
between aircraft on the same direction is:
4000 ft
218. Above FL 290 the Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) shall be:
2000 ft
219. In areas where a vertical

verti cal separation
separation minimum (VSM) of
of 300 metres (1000 ft) is applied between FL 290 and
FL 410 inclusive, an aircraft on a magnetic track of 350 would be expected to fly at:
FL 400
220. When not flying

flyi ng over high terrain or mountainous areas and where no minimum flight altitude has been
established,
established, flights under IFR shall be flown at a level
l evel which is at lleast:
east:
1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft
221. Aircraft A and B approach each

each other on converging cou courses
rses in VMC at at approximately
approximately the same level in a
controlled airspace class D. Aircraft A is flying under IFR, aircraft B is flying under VFR.
Who has the right of way?
Aircraft B, providing it has A on its left
222. When two aircraft are approaching head-on

head-on or approximately so and there is a danger of collision,
collisi on, each
aircraft shall:
Alter its heading to the right
223. In flight the pilot of

of an aircraft observes a series o
off projectiles discharged from the ground at intervals of 10
seconds, each showing, on bursting, red and green lights or stars.
The meaning of this signal is:
The aircraft is flying in or is about to enter a restricted, prohibited or danger area. The aircraft is to take such
remedial action as may be necessary
224. When displayed in the signal area or at the end of the runway strip in use, a right-hand arrow of conspicuous
colour indicates
i ndicates::
That in this runway direction turn before landing and after takeoff has to be made to the right

225. Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, fli

flights
ghts under
under VFR shall
shall not take off from an
aerodrome within a Control Zone or enter a Control Zone when the
Ceiling is lower than 1500 ft or the ground visibility is less than 5 km
226. A series of red flashes from aerodrome

aerodrome control directed towards an aircraft
aircraf t in flight means
Aerodrome unsafe, do not land
227. Over high

high terrain or mountainous
mountai nous areas and where no minimum flight altitude has been established, flights
under IFR shall be flown at a level which is at least:
2000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft
228. Aircraft equipped

equipped with red anti-collision lights may display them:
To attract attention to the aircraft
229. At or above FL 290, in RVSM airspace, the Vertical Separation Minimum for controlled traffic flying in the
same direction is
2000 feet (600 m)
230. During circling-to-land ( with or without prescribed flight tracks), the maximum allowed airspeed for a Cat B
aeroplane, in order to remain within the protection envelope, is:
135 kt
231. As a rule, while establishing the departure procedures, the operator reckons that an aeroplane has a climb
gradient of:
3.3% with all engines operating
232. A four-engine
four-engi ne aeroplane is about to take-off from an airport where poor weather conditions
conditi ons are prevailing. The
closest accessible aerodrome is three flying hours away.
The take-off minima to be observed at departure airfield are:
Ceiling greater or equal to DH/MDH, and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to VH required for landing,
with an available instrument approach procedure
233. The protection areas associated with

with instrument
instrum ent approach procedures are determined with
with the assumption
that turns are performed at a bank angle of:
25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure, approach or missed approach
instrument procedures, as well as circling-to-land (with or without prescribed flight tracks)
234. Under which conditi

conditions
ons may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR
straight -in-VOR approach continue its descend
descend below the OCA?
When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights in sight
235. A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial

initi al approach between the end of the outbound track and the
beginning of the intermediate or final approach track is a:
Base turn
236. If a stepdown fix is establi

established
shed on the final approach track, a descend shall be made so as to:
Pass the fix not below the specified crossing altitude
237. In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to:

Mean sea level
238. A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track foll followed
owed by a turn in the opposite
direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a :
Procedure turn

239. You are on an IFR flight executing a circling

circli ng approach. A descend below the MDA should not be made until:
1. the pilot has the landing threshold in sight
2. visual reference has been established and can be maintained
3. the required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing can be made
The combination regrouping all the correct answers is:
1, 2, 3
240. What will

will be your action if you can not comply with a standard holding pattern?
Inform the ATC immediately and request a revised clearance
241. In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a:

Rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 25°, which ever requires the lesser bank
242. Entering a holding pattern at

at FL 110 with a jet aircraft, which will
will be the maximum speed?
speed?
230 kt IAS
243. Unless otherwise published or instructed

instruct ed by ATC, all
all turns after initial entry into the holding pattern
pattern shall be
made into which direction?
To the right
244. The outbound

outbound time in a holding pattern at 14000 ft or below in still air conditions are:
1 minute
245. The inbound Magnetic Track for the holding

holding is 052°, turns are to the right, the outbound time is 1 minute.
minut e.
The appropriate entry procedure for a flight on Magnetic Track 232° with no wind is:
Either offset or parallel
246. The outbound time in a holding pattern above 14000 ft in still air conditions is:
1 minute 30 seconds
247. On flights in accordance with

with IFR, the change of the altimeter
altimeter setting from QNH to Standard shall be made at
the:
Transition altitude
248. When a transponder code is assigned to an aircraft

aircraf t and two way radio communication is lost without the
possibility of reestablishment, the transponder setting to indicate COM failure is:
Mode A code 7600
249. In an approach procedure, a descent or climb conducted in a holding pattern is called:

Shuttle
250. Where an operational ad advantage

vantage can be obtained, an ILS procedure may include a dead reckoning segment
from a fix to the
t he localizer. The DR track will:
Intersect the localizer at 45° and will not be more 10 NM in length
251. The minimum obstacle clearance requirement at the end of the primary area of the intermediate
intermediat e approach
segment in an instrument approach procedure is:
300m (984 ft) reducing to 150 m (492 ft)
252. In an instrum
instrument
ent approach procedure, the segment in which
which alignment
alignment and descent for landing are made is
called:
Final approach segment
253. In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach

approach segment begins at the:
FAP

254. In a precision approach (ILS), generally

generally glide
glide path interception
intercepti on occurs at heights above
above runway elevation
elevati on
between:
300m (984 ft) and 900m (2955 ft)
255. What does the abbreviation OIS mean?

Obstacle identification surface
256. What does the abbreviation DER mean?

Departure end of runway
257. Flying an Instrument Departure Procedure pilots are expected to:

Correct the track for known wind to remain within the protected airspace
258. In general, which

which is the main factor that dictates the design of an instrument departure procedure?
The terrain surrounding the airport
259. In an instrum
instrument
ent departure p
procedure
rocedure the minimum obstacl
obstaclee clearance at the departure end of runway equals:
0 ft
260. In a straight departure the initial track does not deviat

deviatee from the alignment of the extended
extended runway centre line
by more than:
15 degrees
261. In an offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack procedure,

procedure, the time on
on the 30° offset track is limited to:
1 minute 30 seconds
262. How many separate segments has an instrument

instrum ent approach procedure?
Up to 5
263. Where does the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure commence?
At the IAF
264. Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary

primary area of the initial approach segment in an instrument
instrum ent approach
procedure?
At least 300m (984 ft)
265. In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed
performed from the start of turn for
categories A and B aircraft for:
1 minute
266. In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed
performed from the start of the turn
for categories C, D, E aircraft for:
1 minute 15 seconds
267. ILS obstacle

obstacle clearance surfaces are established under the assumption that the pilot does not allow the aircraft
aircraft
to deviate from the centreline by more than:
Half a scale deflection after being established on the track
268. In a precision approach (ILS), the OCA oror OCH values are based among other standard conditions, on a
vertical distance between the flight paths of the wheels and glide path antenna, not greater than:
6m
269. A complete missed approach procedure consists of the foll

following
owing phases:
Initial, intermediate and final
270. Missed approach procedures are normally based on a nominal missed approach climb
clim b gradient of:
2.5%

271. Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end?
At the point where the climb is established
272. The procedure describing the visual phase foll

following
owing an instrument approach, brining an aircraft into position
for the landing on a runway different from the one for straight-in approach, is called:
Visual manoeuvring (circling)
273. For a circling it is permissible to disregard a prominent obstacle in a particular

particul ar sector outside the final
approach and missed approach area.
When this option is exercised, the published procedure:
Prohibits circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists
274. When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established the obstacle clearance altitude/height
(OCA/H) is determined:
For each category of aircraft, and it may be different for each one of them
275. A circling approach

approach is the extension of an instrum
instrument
ent approach procedure:
Allowing visual circling prior to landing
l anding
276. If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is expected that the pilot will
will
make an initial climbing turn towards the:
Landing runway
277. In relation to the three e

entry
ntry sectors,
sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be according to:
Heading
278. The three entry sectors

sectors in a holding pattern have a zone of flexibility
flexibil ity on either side of the sectors
sectors boundaries
of:
5°
279. The buffer area beyond the boundary of the holding area extends to:
5 NM
280. The height

height o
off the transition altitude abo
above
ve the aerodrome shall
shall be as low as possible
possibl e but normally
normally not less
than:
3000 ft AGL
281. The vertical

vertic al position of
of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude will be reported:
As altitude
282. The vertical

vertic al position of an aircraft at or above the transition
transiti on level with altimeter setting 1013.25 hPa shall be
expressed in terms of:
Flight level
283. When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponder:
At all times during flight, regardless of whether the aircraft is within or outside airspace where SSR is used
for ATS purposes
284. When the aircraft carries serviceable

serviceabl e Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode:
Unless otherwise directed by ATC
285. The pilot of

of an aircraft losing two-way communications shall
shall set the transponder to Mode A Code:
7600

286. When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command

pilot-in- command shall attempt to indicate
indicat e the
situation to ATC by setting the transponder to Mode A, Code
7500
287. Pilots shall not operate the SSR special position indicator (IDENT) feature unless:
Requested by ATC
288. To acknowledge mode and code setting instructions,

instruct ions, pilots shall:
Read back the mode and code to be set
289. Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach

approach is based on the assumption that the pilot does not deviate
deviate from the
centre line more than:
Half scale deflection of the localizer indicator
290. Turning departures provide track guidance within:

10 Km
291. In a standard holding pattern turns are made:

To the right
292. Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height)

Altitude/Hei ght) for an approach procedure?
The state
293. A so-called "straight-in-approach"

"straight -in-approach" is considered to be acceptable for a non-precision
non-precisi on approach if the angle
between the final approach track and the runway centreline is:
30 degrees or less
294. The MSA, which

which must be established around
around a navigation facility,
facilit y, is in general valid
vali d within a sector of:
of:
25 NM
295. We can distinguish two types of departure

departure routes. During a straight departure the initial departure track is
within:
15° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
296. Normally, the maximum descent

descent gradient, applicable in the final approach segment to ensure the required
minimum obstacle clearance, is:
6,5%
297. The primary area of an instrum

instrument
ent approach segment is :
A defined area symmetrically disposed about the nominal flight track in which full obstacle clearance is
provided
298. In the primary area, the obstacle clearance for the initial approach segment provides at least:
984 ft
299. At what moment during

during the approach should the reported airfield altimeter setting be set?
When passing the transition level
300. In the vicinity

vicinit y of an aerodrome of intended landing or used for take-off, the vertical
verti cal position
position of the aircraft
aircraft shall
be expressed in term of:
Altitude above sea level at or below the transition altitude
301. Unless instructed

instruct ed otherwise by an air traffic controller, when passing through the transition
transiti on layer, a pilot shall
report the vertical position of the aircraft as:
Altitude in a descent

302. On a VFR-Flight which of the foll

following
owing cruising levels would you select under
under the following conditions: True
track 358°, variation 3°E, deviation 2°W?
FL 65
303. If contact is lost with the runway

runway on the down-wind
down-wind leg of a circling manoeuvre, what actions should be taken?
Initiate a missed approach
304. What action should be taken if contact is lost with

with the aerodrome on the downwind leg?
Initiate a missed approach
305. The transition level:

Shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude
306. The transition level:

Is normally an integrated part of the ATIS
307. The minimum obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial
initi al approach segment for an instrument
approach procedure is at least:
300 m (984 ft)
308. During an instrum

instrument
ent approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in
the intermediate phase of this missed approach is:
30 m (98 ft)
309. During an instrum

instrument
ent approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle cl
clearance
earance (MOC) in
the final phase of this missed
mi ssed appr
approach
oach is:
50 m (164 ft)
310. Which of
of the following correctly lists special
special purpose codes that are to be used in conjunction
conjunction with Secondary
Surveillance Radar (SSR)?
Distress 7700. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7600
311. Standard airway holding pattern below 14 000 ft?

Right hand turns / 1 minute outbound
312. Transition
Transiti on from altitude to flight level and vice-versa
vice -versa is done:
At transition altitude during climb and transition level during descent
313. Your transponder code assigned by ATC is 5320.

In flight, in case of radio communications failure, you will squawk code:
A 7600 Mode C
314. A "precision approach" is a direct instrument approach...

Using bearing, elevation and distance information
315. Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach procedures published on the IAC charts are based on a
minimum climb gradient of:
2.5%
316. Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are
established
established for a distance from the IAF of:
25 NM

317. The width of the corridor around a specified arrival route is:
± 5 NM
318. For a non-precision or circling approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) cannot be lower than:
The Obstacle Clearance Height (OCH)
319. For a category I precision approach, the decision height cannot be lower than:
200 ft
320. (IR) Who is responsible

responsible for the development of
of the contingency procedures required to cover the case of
engine failure during an instrument departure, which occurs after V1?
The operator of the aircraft
321. (IR) Which

Whi ch of the following s standard
tandard instrument
instrum ent departures is not a straight departure?
A) A departure where
where the initial
initial departure
departure track differs
differs more than
than 20° from
from the runway
runway alignment.
B) A departure where the initial departure track differs more than 15° from the runway alignment.
C) A departure where the initial departure track differs more than 10° from the runway alignment.
D) A departure where the initial departure track differs more than 5° from the runway alignment.
A and B
322. The abbreviation DER stands for:

Departure end of runway
323. (IR) Minimum

Minimum sector
sector altitudes
altitudes published
published on approach charts provide at
at least the following obstacle clearance:
300 m within 25 nm of the homing facility associated with the approach procedure for that aerodrome
324. (IR) For the constructi

construction
on of precision approaches, which
which is the operationally preferred glide path angle?
3°
325. (IR) Which

Whi ch is the minimum
minim um obstacle clearance within the primary area of an intermediate approach segment?
150 m
326. (IR) During a visual circling, descent below MDA/H shall

shall not be made until:
until:
A) Visual reference
reference has been
been established
established and
and can be maintained.
maintained.
B) The pilot has the landing threshold in sight.
C) The required obstacle clearance can be maintained and the aircraft is in a position to carry out a landing.
D) A landing clearance has been received by ATC.
A, B and C
327. When foll

following
owing an instrument approach, visual contact with the runway is lost on the downwind leg, the
procedure to be followed is as follows:
Make an initial climbing turn towards the landing runway and initiate the respective missed approach
procedure
328. (IR) The entry into a holding pattern shall be according to:
Magnetic heading in relation to the three entry sectors
329. (IR) In a holding pattern, turns are to be made:

At a bank angle of 25° or at a rate of 3° per second, whichever requires the lesser bank
330. (IR) Which

Whi ch is the normal still air outbound time in a holding pattern?
One and one half minute for altitudes above 14'000 ft
331. (IR) Based on operational considerations, a margin may be added to the OCA of a non-precision
non-precisi on approach.
The result is then called:
MDA

332. During flight below the transiti

transition
on altitude, the altimeter of an aircraft shall be set to
QNH and its vertical position is expressed in terms of altitude
333. Pilots shall not SQUAWK IDENT unless they

Are requested to do so by ATC
334. (IR) Where does the initial section of a missed approach procedure end?
When established in the climb
335. (IR) Where a final approach fix (FAF) is specified for a non-precision
non-precisi on approach procedure, what
what is the
minimum obstacle clearance fixed margin that is applied for all aircraft?
75 m (246 ft)
336. (IR) For non precision approaches, the FFinal

inal Approach Fix (FAF)
(FAF) is set at a specified distance from the
threshold of the instrument runway. What is the maximum this distance can be?
19 km (10 nm)
337. (IR) Under what circumstances an ILS glide path in excess

excess of 3° would be used?
Where other means of obstacle clearance are impracticable
338. (IR) Where does the missed approach procedure start?

At the missed approach point
339. (IR) If the ILS glide path transmitter

transmitt er fails during an instrument approach procedure, can the approach
approach be
continued?
Yes, but the non-precision
non-precision criteria
criteria must be complied
complied with
with
340. (IR) Why is the descent g

gradient
radient kept as low as possible in the intermediate
intermedi ate approach segment?
This is the segment in which speed and configuration are adjusted
341. (IR) A Visual Manoeuvring

Manoeuvring (Circling) Area may be
be sectored to exclude
exclude a prominent obstacle.
obstacle. Under what
circumstances is this permitted?
The obstacle is outside the final approach or missed approach areas
342. (IR) Is the length of the outbound leg of

of a holding pattern always expressed in terms of time?
No, where DME is used it may be specified in terms of distance
343. (IR) Where does the final approach segment for a precision approach start?
FAP
344. What is the normal procedure design climb gradient for a missed a
approach
pproach procedure?
2.5 %
345. During a precision approach, what

what is the maximum scale deflection
deflecti on tolerated according to EU OPS/JAR O
OPS
PS
for the glide slope?
1/2
346. One of the conditions to descend below the MDA on a circling

circli ng approach is:
The required visual references have been established and can be maintained
347. If for any reasons

reasons a pilot is unable to comply with
with the procedures for normal conditions laid down for any
particular holding pattern, he should:
Advise ATC as early as possible
348. Above 14000 ft in still air, the outbound

outbound time on a 30° offset track is limited to:
1 minute 30 seconds

349. The names of all separate

separate segments
segments that can be part of an instrument approach procedure are:
Arrival, initial, intermediate, final, missed approach
350. When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot in command shall indicate the situation by
setting the transponder to Mode A, Code:
7500
351. The longitudinal separation minima based

based on time between
between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation
navigati on
aids permit frequent determination of position and speed is:
10 minutes

between aircraft at same cruising level where
where navigation
navigati on
aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of
20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
5 minutes

where navigation
navigati on
40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft,
aircraft, is:
i s:
3 minutes
354. The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the
same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding
aircraft, is:
5 minutes
aircraft, is:
3 minutes
356. When an aircraft will pass through the level of

of another
another aircraft on the same track, the following minimum
longitudinal separation shall be provided:
15 minutes at the time the level is crossed
357. The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using

using DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses DME
stations, is:
20 NM
358. A controlled airspace

airspace extending upwards
upwards from a specified limit above
above the earth is:
Control area
359. A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of

of the earth to a specified upper limit is:
Control zone
360. ATS airspaces

airspaces where IFR and VFR flights
flight s are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and
are separated from each other are classified as:
Class B
361. Aerodrome
Aerodrome traffic is all traffic:
On the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome
362. Air Traffic Service

Service unit means:
Air Traffic Control units and Flight Information Centers
363. One of the condition required so that an aerodrome may be considered as being controlled
controll ed is:
The aerodrome shall be provided with a Control Tower

364. The minimum services provided in a Flight Information

Informati on Region (FIR) are:
Flight Information and Alerting Service
365. A Control Area (CTA) is a controlled airspace extending upwards from:

A specified limit above ground or water
366. How many NM shall a Control Zone extend at least from a reference point of the aerodrome or aerodromes
into the direction from which approaches may be made?
5 NM
367. The lower limit of

of a Control Area is established at a height of not less than:
200 m or 700 ft above ground or water
368. The units providing Air Traffic Services are:

Area Control
Control Centre - Flight
Flight Information
Information Centre - Approach
Approach Control
Control Office - Aerodro
Aerodrome
me Control Tower
Tower and Air Traffic
Traffic
Services reporting office
369. The Approach Control Service is an air traffic control service

An air traffic control service provided for the arriving and departing controlled flights
370. Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose

purpose of:
Preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the manoeuvring area and
expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
371. An ATS unit will issue clearances for the purpose of:
Achieving separation between controlled flights
372. Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of:
373. The en-route IFR clearance expires at 0920. What does

does this mean?
If the aircraft is not airborne by 0920, a new clearance has to be issued
374. When are ATIS broadcasts updated?

Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values
375. When it becomes apparent that an aircraft operating within controlled airspace
airspace is in difficulty,
difficulty , the decision to
initiate the appropriate alert phases is the responsibility of:
Air Traffic Control
376. The Alerting Service is provided by:

The ATS unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment
377. The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are:

Uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase
378. A radio communications, "Distress" differs

diff ers from "Urgency" because in the first case:
There is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance
379. Alert phase is defined as foll

follows:
ows:
Apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants
380. For a flight under VFR in airspace Class E:

Two-way radio communication is not required
381. Which of the following statements

statement s regarding Alerting service is correct?
Alerting Service and Flight Information Service are often provided by the same ATS unit

382. The lower limit of a TMA

TMA shall be established
established at a height
height above
above the ground or water of
of not less than:
700 ft/200 m
383. Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international
internati onal standards and
recommended practices for air traffic services (ATS)?
Annex 11
384. The maximum IAS in airspace Class E is:

For IFR and VFR, 250 kt up to FL 100/10000 ft
385. A first aircraft flies under

under IFR, in controlled airspace, maintaining FL 150. The pilot requests a descent.
A second aircraft
aircraft flying at FL 140
140 on the same
same route reques
requests
ts descent and receives
receives the clearance
clearance "descend to FL 70,
report passing FL 100".
The aircraft at FL 150 can expect to receive a clearance for a descent to FL 140 or below when the aircraft at FL 140:
Has left FL 140
386. The shortest distance

distance in the landing sequence between a 'HEAVY' and a preceding 'LIGHT' aircraft
aircraft is:
3 NM
387. The speed

speed limitation
limitati on for IFR flights
flight s inside ATS airspace classified
classif ied as C, when
when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft)
AMSL, is:
Not applicable
388. The speed

speed limitation
limitati on for VFR fli
flights
ghts inside ATS airspace classified
classif ied as C, when flying
flyi ng below 3.050 m (10.000 ft)
AMSL, is:
250 KT IAS
389. The speed

speed limitation
limitati on for IFR flights
classif ied as E, when
when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft)
AMSL, is:
250 KT IAS
390. The speed limitation

limitati on for both IFR flights
flight s and VFR flights
classif ied as B, when flying
below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMLS, is:
Not applicable
391. Flight information service

service provided
provided to flights
flight s shall include
incl ude the provision of
of information
informati on concerning collisi
collision
on
hazards to aircraft operating in airspace classes:
C to G (inclusive)
392. ATIS broadcast messages containing

containi ng departure and arrival information
informati on should include cloud cover, when the
clouds are:
Below 1 500 m (5.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is higher
393. Where an upper flight information

informati on region (UIR) is established, the procedures applicable
applicabl e therein:
Do not have to be identical with those established for the flight information region below

394. The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified
classif ied as B, is:
8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from
clouds
395. A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace

airspace classified as B has to maintain the foll
following
owing minima of flight
visibility and distance from clouds
5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
396. Flights under VFR, operating inside controlled airspace

airspace Class C at or above 3050 m/10000 ft AMSL have
have to
maintain the following minima:
Flight visibility 8 km, distance from clouds: 1500 m horizontal, 300 m vertical
397. Name the Class of Airspace with the following conditions and services:
servic es:
IFR and VFR permitted
Air Traffic Control
Control Service: all
all flights
Separation: IFR from IFR, IFR from VFR, VFR f rom IFR
Traffic information: in respect of other VFR flights
Airspace Class C
398. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights

flight s are permitted, all flights
flight s are subject to air traffic
traffi c control servic
servicee
and are separated from each other is classified as
Airspace B

399. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flightsflight s are permitted and all flights are subject to air traffic control
service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights.fli ghts. VFR
flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights, is classified as:
Airspace D
servic es:
Air Traffic Control
Control Service: IFR flights
Separation: IFR from IFR
Traffic information: for all flights as far
f ar as practicable
Airspace Class E
401. ATS airspace

airspace where
where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating
participati ng IFR flights
flight s receive an air traffic
traffi c
advisory service and all flights receive flight information service if requested, is classified
Airspace F
servic es:
Air Traffic Control
Control Service: none
none
Separation: not provided
Information: Flight Information Service if requested
Airspace G
403. When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP
tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius of:
15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL 190
404. Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication

indicati on RNP 4, represents a navigation
navigati on
accuracy of
Plus or minus 4 NM on a 95 per cent containment basis
405. When on a RNP 1 route is indicated B235 Y, Y, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP
tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of:
22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above FL200
406. The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed
30 seconds
407. Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be updated

Immediately a significant change occurs
408. Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of

of the ATIS message shall be the
responsibility
respons ibility of
The air traffic services
409. ATIS broadcast

Shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS
410. Air traffic services unit clocks

clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure
correct time to within plus or minus
30 seconds of UTC at all times
411. An information issued by a meteorological

meteorol ogical watch office concerning the occurrence or expected occurrence of
specified en-route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was not
already included in the forecast issued for low level flights in the flight information region concerned or sub-area
thereof is
AIRMET information

412. Except in some special cases the establishment

establi shment of change-over points should be limited to route segments
segments of
of
60 NM or more
413. Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be prescribed

By states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements
414. Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to avoid collision hazards when operating in
airspace classes:
C, D, E, F, and G
415. An air traffic control unit:

May ask an aircraft to temporarily change its call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion
between two or more similar call signs
416. The transfer of

of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done:
done:
By agreement with the receiving unit
417. Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information

Informati on (AFIS):
It can only supply limited services to the users and under no circumstances may it supply ATC services
418. When an aircraft is experienci

experiencing
ng difficulti
difficulties,
es, triggering of
of the alert phase is the responsibility
responsibilit y of:
Air traffic control and flight information centers
419. Which of the following objectives is not

not an
an objective of air traffic services?
Provide advice and information for the safe and efficient preparation of flights
420. The purpose of the issue of clearances by an Air Traffic Control Unit is:
To prevent collision between aircraft under its control and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of
traffic
421. At least which services ha

have
ve to be provided by ATS within a flight information region?
Flight information service and alerting service
422. The abbreviation RNP means:

Required navigation performance
423. In which airspace classes has separation

separation between IFR flights and VFR flight
flightss to be
be provided by ATC?
B, C
424. For VFR flight

flights,
s, continuous two way radio communication with
with ATS is required in the following airspace
classes.
B, C, D
425. Who is responsible to determine minimum flight altitudes for ATS routes?
Each State for ATS routes over their territory

426. Which phase of emergency is declared

declared if an aircraft is known or believed to be the subject of unlawful
interference?
ALERFA
427. The additional letter Z in the designator of

of an ATS route (e.g. A126Z) has the following meaning:
RNP 1 route at and below FL190. All turns on the route between 30° and 90° shall be made within the
allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of 15 NM
428. On IFR flights,

flight s, who is responsible for the prevention of collision
colli sion with terrain?
A) The Pilot.
B) ATC, when IFR flights are vectored by radar.
C) The Pilot and ATC in close co-operation.
D) ATC, if the respective unit is equipped with SSR.
Combination of A and B
429. When may ATC assign a level previously occupied by another aircraft?
After the aircraft has reported vacating this level

The ATIS is updated immediately when a significant change occurs
431. The foll

following
owing applies for aircraft equipped with ACAS:
A) The ACAS capability
capability of an aircraft
aircraft will normally
normally not be known
known to ATC controllers.
controllers.
B) Separation minima may be reduced by ATC between aircraft equipped with ACAS.
C) As the ACAS capability of an aircraft is known to ATC, pilots may be required to maintain their own separation in
cruise.
D) The ATS procedures to be applied to aircraft with ACAS shall be identical to those applicable to non-ACAS
equipped aircraft.
A and D
432. When applying longitudinal separation based on distance (DME), the minimum separation between two
aircraft on reciprocal tracks climbing or descending through the same flight level shall be at least:
10 nm
433. When IFR flights are cleared to fly maintaining

maintaini ng own separation while in VMC, the following shall apply:
A) The clearance
clearance shall be for a specified portion
portion of
of the flight at or below
below 10'000
10'000 ft., during climb
climb or descent.
descent.
B) The clearance shall be for a specified portion of the flight at or below 10'000 ft., during cruise, climb or descent.
C) A pilot may be required by ATC to fly maintaining own separation while in VMC if no other means for the provision
of separation are available.
D) The procedure may be applied during the hours of daylight only.
A and D
434. "Traffic
"Traffi c to which the provision of
of ATC is applicable, but which, in relation to a particular controlled flight,
flight , is not
separated there from by the minima set forth" is called:
Essential traffic
435. For an aerodrome in Controlled Airspace Class C:

ATC provides separation between flights under IFR and IFR/VFR.
ATC does not provide separation between flights under VFR
436. Which is the minimum

minim um longitudinal
longit udinal separation for two aircraft at the same cruising level, if the preceding
aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt higher than the succeeding aircraft?
5 minutes
437. Two aircraft

aircraf t are departing from a reporting point
point defined by an NDB. What is the minimum
minim um track separation
required before one aircraft would be permitted to climb/descend through the other aircraft's level?
30° and a distance of 15 nm or more

438. ATIS messages shall:

Not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS
439. The unit responsible for promoting

promoting efficient organisati
organisation
on of search and rescue service
servic e in each SAR region is
the:
Rescue Co-ordination Centre RCC
440. In airspace Class C below 3050 m/10000 ft AMSL the maximum speed for flights under IFR is:
Not restricted
441. What type of airspace is normally established at the confluence of ATS routes in the vicinity
vicinit y of one or more
major aerodromes?
Terminal Control Area (TMA)
442. What is defined as: "A control area or portion thereof established in the form of
of a corridor equipped with
navigation aids"?
An airway
443. The take-off mass of MEDIUM aircraft is as follows:

Less than 136'000 kg but more than 7000 kg
444. The minimum separation of a MEDIUM a

aircraft
ircraft taking-off from the same runway behind a HEAVY aircraft is:
2 minutes
445. One condition to initiate

initiat e the distress phase is:
The aircraft and its occupants are threatened by grave and imminent danger or require immediate assistance
446. In airspace Class C below 3050 m/10000 ft AMSL the maximum speed for flights under VFR is:
250 kt IAS
servic es:
Air Traffic Control
Control Service: all
all flights
Separation: IFR from IFR
Traffic information: IFR receive traffic information
information in respect of VFR flights, VFR receive traffic information in resp
respect
ect of
all other flights
Airspace Class D
servic es:
Air Traffic Advisory Service: all
all participating IFR flights
Traffic information: if requested for all flights
f lights
Airspace Class F
449. RNP means a statement of:

The navigation performance necessary for operation within a defined airspace
450. RNP types shall be determined on the basis of:

Communication, navigation and air traffic services provided in the airspace concerned
451. The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft using the same cruising level, may be
reduced, provided:
Navigation aids permit frequent determination of the aircraft position and the speed of the preceding aircraft
is higher than the one of the following aircraft

452. Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit,

unit, a VFR flight shall not take off or land at an
an aerodrome
aerodrome
within a CTR of Airspace Class C or D or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or traffic pattern when the ceiling is less
than:
1 500 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
453. The person charged with the safe conduct of a fli

flight
ght is the:
Pilot in command
454. The flight that has the highest priority for landing is
An aircraft that is compelled to land (emergency landing)
455. An aircraft operating under

under VFR,
VFR, above
above the sea at altit
altitudes
udes between 4500 ft and 9000 ft AMSL, outside
controlled airspace shall maintain a distance from cloud of at least:
1500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility of 5 km
456. Above 3050 m/10000 ft AMSL, the VMC minima for flights under VFR in all classes of airspace are:
Visibility 8 km, distance from clouds 1500 m horizontal, 1000 ft vertical
457. Pilots of controlled flights shall inform the appropriate ATS whenever the average TAS at cruising level varies
or is expected to vary from the TAS given in the flight plan by:
5%
458. Unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate air traffic ser

servic
vicee unit, an aircraft equipped with transponder,
intercepted by another aircraft shall select immediately transponder Mode A
Code 7700
459. The crew of an intercept

intercepted
ed aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication
communic ation with the
intercepting aircraft or with the appropriate intercept control unit by making a general call on the frequency:
121.5 MHz
if no contact has been established, and if practicable, repeat this call on the frequency 243 MHz
460. An intercepting
intercepti ng aircraft communicates to the intercepted aircraft "YOU MAY PROCEED"
With an abrupt break-away manoeuvre from the intercepted aircraft consisting of a climbing turn of 90
degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft
461. The foll

following
owing signal means that an aircraft wishes to give notice of difficult
difficulties
ies which compel it to land without
without
requiring immediate assistance
The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights
462. The standard phrase used by an intercepti

intercepting
ng aircraft con
conveyi
veying
ng the meaning "descend for landing" is:
DESCEND
463. If radio contact with the intercepting

interc epting aircraft is established
established but communication on a common language is not
possible, the pilot of the intercepted aircraft shall communicate to the intercepting aircraft that he is unable to comply
with the instructions by pronouncing the phrase
CAN NOT
464. A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:
The airport is unsafe, do not land
465. On aerodromes aircraft taxying on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to:
466. According to the "Aerodrome Re

Reference
ference Code", the "Code Letter E" shall identify
identif y an aircraft wing span of:
52 m up to but not including 65 m

467. In the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the code element 2 shall identify:
identify :
The aircraft wing span and the outer main gear wheel span
468. The "Aerodrome Reference

Reference Code" is a code composed of two elements
element s which are related to the aeroplane
performance characteristics and dimensions. These elements are a combination of a number and a letter as in the
example under listed:
2B
469. According with the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the "Code number 4" shall identify an aircraft reference field
length of:
1 800 m and over
470. The STOPWAY

STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground
ground at the end of take-off runs available prepared as
a suitable area where:
An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off
471. Acceleration Stop Distance Available/ASDA is the length of the:

Take-off run available plus the length of stopway (if stopway provided)
472. Unless otherwise prescribed, what

what is the rule regarding the level to be maintained by an aircraft flying IFR
outside controlled airspace?
1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometers of the estimated position of the aircraft
473. Aircraft "A" with an ATC clearance is flying

flyi ng in VMC conditions
conditions within a control area. Aircraft "B" with no ATC
clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which has the right of way?
Aircraftt "B" if
Aircraf i f "A" is on its left
l eft
474. In the event

event that a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its track given in the current flight plan, action
should be taken in order to:
Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable
475. While on IFR flight,

flight , a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation
deviati on from an ATC clearance. W hat action
must be taken?
The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action taken as soon as circumstances permit
476. A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist

flyi ng under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the vi
visibility
sibility is unlimited and the sky is
clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radio communications. The procedure to be followed is:
Land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advice Air Traffic Services of landing
478. A red flare addressed to a flyi

flying
ng aircraft means:
479. During circling-to-land

circli ng-to-land (with or without prescribed fli
flight
ght tracks), the maximum allowed
allowed airspeed for a Cat B
aeroplane, in order to remain within the protection envelope, is:
135 kt
480. As a rule, while establishing the departure procedures, the operator reckons that an aeroplane has a climb
gradient of:
3.3% with all engines operating
481. A four-engine
four-engi ne aeroplane is about to take-off from an airport where poor weather conditions
conditi ons are prevailing. The
closest accessible aerodrome is three flying hours away. The take-off minima to be observed at departure airfield are:
Ceiling greater or equal to DH/MDH, and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to VH required for landing,
with an available instrument approach procedure

482. The protection areas associated with

with instrument
instrum ent approach procedures are determined with the assumption
that turns are performed at a bank angle of:
25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure, approach or missed approach
instrument procedures, as well as circling-to-land (with or without prescribed flight tracks)
483. Under which conditi

conditions
ons may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR
straight -in-VOR approach continue its descend below the OCA?
When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights in sight
484. A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial

initi al approach between the end of the outbound track and the
beginning of the intermediate or final approa
approach
ch track isi s a:
Base turn
485. If a stepdown fix is establi

established
shed on the final approach track, a descend shall be made so as to:
Pass the fix not below the specified crossing altitude
486. In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to:

Mean sea level
487. A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite
direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a:
Procedure turn
488. You are on anan IFR flight executing a circling

circli ng approach. A descend below
below the MDA should not be made until :
1. the pilot has the landing threshold in sight
2. visual reference has been established and can be maintained
3. the required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing can be made
The combination regrouping all the correct answers is:
1, 2, 3
489. What will

will be your action if you can not comply with a standard holding pattern?
Inform the ATC immediately and request a revised clearance
490. In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a:

Rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 25°, which ever requires the lesser bank
491. Entering a holding pattern at

at FL 110 with a jet aircraft, which will
will be the maximum speed?
speed?
230 kt IAS
492. Unless otherwise published or instructed

instruct ed by ATC, all
all turns after initial entry into the holding pattern
pattern shall be
made into which direction?
To the right
493. The outbound

outbound time in a holding pattern at 14000 ft or below in still air a condition is:
1 minute
494. The inbound Magnetic Track for the holding is 052°, turns are
are to the right, and the outbound time is 1 minute.
The appropriate entry procedure for a flight on Magnetic Track 232° with no wind is:
Either offset or parallel
495. The outbound time in a holding pattern above 14000 ft in still air conditions is:
1 minute 30 seconds
496. On flights in accordance with

with IFR, the change of the altimeter
altimeter setting from QNH to Standard
Standard shall
shall be made at
the:
Transition altitude

497. When a transponder code is assigned to an aircraft

aircraf t and two way radio communication is lost without the
possibility of reestablishment, the transponder setting to indicate COM failure is:
Mode A code 7600
498. In which section

section of AIP are contained information
informati on elements relating
relati ng to areas and/or routes for which
meteorological service is provided?
GEN
499. In which section of

of AIP are contained information
relati ng to refuelli
refuelling
ng facilities
facilit ies and limitations on
refueling services?
AD

relati ng to prohibited, restricted and dangerous
areas?
ENR
501. A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation,

navigati on, technical,
technical , administration
administrati on or legislative
legislativ e
matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called:
Aeronautical
Aeronautic al Information Circular (AIC)
502. A notice providi

providing
ng information on Rules of the Air, Air Traffic Services and Air Navigation
Navigation Procedures and
distributed in advance of its effective date is:
An AIRAC
503. Each contracting

contracti ng state sha
shallll provide
provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas
areas in
which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and
origination of:
Integrated Aeronautical Information Package
504. Non-precision
Non-precisi on approach runways and precision approach runways CAT I, II and III are defined as:
Instrument runways
505. "Code letter D" shall

shall be chosen to identify
identif y a taxiway used by aircraft having an outer main gear wheel span of
less than 9 m. The taxiway width shall be:
18 m
506. "TODA" is the length of the:

Take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if provided)
507. "Clearway" is a defined rectangular area established to:

Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height
508. Which "code letter"

lett er" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway to be used by an aircraft having a wheel base of 15 m?
Code letter "C"
509. On final approach, on a normal glide

glide path the numbers
numbers of red lights
light s visible
visibl e of a PAPI are:
2
510. Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway are fixed lights
light s showing:
Green
511. "3-BAR AVASIS", "PAPI" and "T-VASIS"

"T-VASI S" shall be provided for aircraft having eye-to-wheel heights, when
when in
the flare attitude, not exceeding:
Approximately 16 m

512. The centre line and crossbar lights of a precision approach Category I lighting system are fixed lights, showing
variable intensity in the following
f ollowing colour:
White
513. The acronym PAPI stands for:

Precision Approach Path Indicator
514. The "PAPI" shall consist of:

A wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced
515. In the "PAPI" system the pilot during an approach

approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two
units farthest from the runway as white when:
On or close to the approach slope
516. In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number

number shall be supplemented:
By a letter - for example 2 parallel runways "L" and "R" - for 3 "L", "C" and "R”
"R”
517. Taxiway edge lights shall be fixed showing:

Blue
518. The colour of the fixed, unidirectional

unidirecti onal Runway End Lights shall be:
Red
519. Runway threshold lights shall be:

Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway
520. Runway edge lights

light s shall consist of at least:
Fixed lights showing variable white
521. Runway threshold

threshold identification lights are:
Flashing white lights
522. The light shown by an "Aerodrome Identification

Identifi cation Beacon" at a land aerodrome shall be:
Green colour identification given by Morse Code
523. In the "VASIS”, how many light units are in each wing bar?
4
524. In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the centre line
have a length of:
300m
525. High intensity obstacle lights are:

Flashing white
526. Low intensity

intensit y obstacle lights
light s on vehicles other than those associated
associat ed with emergency or
or security shall
shall be:
Flashing yellow
527. Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects are:

Fixed red
528. The runway edge lights

light s shall be:
White
529. A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area indicates that:
The aerodrome is being used by gliders and glider flights are being performed

530. The aerodrome category determining the rescue and fire fighting
fi ghting equipment is based on the:
Over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage width
531. When desinsecting is required by

by a Contracting
Contracti ng State as a public health measure, the desinsecting is made
when the aircraft is suitably equipped by means of an automatic dispersal or vapour while the aircraft is flying, but as
far in advance as possible and:
At least 30 minute prior to land
532. The correct statement about the obligation of

of a carrier to carry away any non-admitted
non-admitt ed person from the
territory of a Contracting State is:
The obligation of the operator shall terminate, when such a person has been legally admitted for entry into a
State
533. The units responsible for promoting efficient organization of search and rescue service
servic e are:
Rescue coordination centre and rescue sub-centres
534. After landing, while taxiing the landing gear sinks into a hole. No person gets injured, but the aircraft
aircraft sustains
structural failure, obliging the crew to delay the departure.
This is an accident and the crew must follow the procedure relevant to this case.

where navigation
navigati on
aids permit frequent determination of position and speed is:
10 minutes

where navigation
navigati on
20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
5 minutes

where navigation
navigati on
40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft,
aircraft, is:
i s:
3 minutes
aircraft, is:
5 minutes
aircraft, is:
3 minutes
540. When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same
same track, the following minimum
541. The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using

using DME, and each aircraft
aircraft "on track" uses DME
stations, is:
20 NM

based on DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses DME stations, is:
10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding
aircraft

543. A controlled airspace

airspace extending upwards
upwards from a specified limit above
above the earth is:
Control area
544. A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of

of the earth to a specified upper limit is:
Control zone
545. ATS airspaces

airspaces where IFR and VFR flights
flight s are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and
are separated from each other are classified as:
Class B
546. Aerodrome
Aerodrome traffic is all traffic:
On the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome
547. Air Traffic Service

Service unit means:
Air Traffic Control units and Flight Information Centers
548. One of the condition required so that an aerodrome may be considered as being controlled is:
The aerodrome shall be provided with a Control Tower
549. The minimum services provided in a Flight Information

Informati on Region (FIR) are:
Flight Information and Alerting Service
550. A Control Area (CTA) is a controlled airspace extending upwards from:

A specified limit above ground or water
551. How many NM shall a Control Zone extend at least from a reference point of the aerodrome or aerodromes
into the direction from which approaches may be made?
5 NM
552. The lower limit of

of a Control Area is established at a height of not less than:
200 m or 700 ft above ground or water
553. The units providing Air Traffic Services are:

Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office - Aerodrome Control Tower and Air
Traffic Services reporting office
554. The Approach Control Service is an air traffic control service

An air traffic control service provided for the arriving and departing controlled flights
555. Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose

purpose of:
Preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the manoeuvring area and
expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
556. An ATS unit will issue clearances for the purpose of:
557. Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of:
558. The en-route IFR clearance expires at 0920. What does

does this mean?
If the aircraft is not airborne by 0920, a new clearance has to be issued

Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values

560. When it becomes apparent that an aircraft operating within controlled airspace
airspace is in difficulty,
difficulty , the decision to
initiate the appropriate alert phases is the responsibility of:
Air Traffic Control
561. The Alerting Service is provided by:

The ATS unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment
562. The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are:

Uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase
563. A radio communications, "Distress" differs

diff ers from "Urgency" because in the first case:
There is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance
564. Alert phase is defined as foll

follows:
ows:
Apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants
565. The rule governing flight over water for a single engine aeroplane engaged in the public transport of
of
passengers:
Limits such flight to a height sufficient to land safely if the engine fails
566. The period of validity for take-off slots assigned by CFMU (Central Flow Management Unit):
Is 15 minutes
567. Essential traffic information is provided to:

Controlled traffic not separated from another controlled traffic with the prescribed separation minima
568. A flight plan shall be submitted

submitt ed prior to departure for a controlled flight at least:
60 minutes prior to departure
569. If radio
radio communication
communicati on failure is experienced on an IFR fli
flight
ght in IMC, generally
generally the pilot shall:
Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or aircraft stations - Transmit blind indicating important
details required 2 times.
570. When, in air space where VFR is permitted, the pilot in command of
of an IFR flight wishes to continue his flight
in accordance with visual flight rules, until the destination is reached:
1 He must informs the control unit ("cancel IFR")
2 He must request and obtain clearance.
3 He may request his IFR flight plan to be changed to a VFR flight plan.
4 The flight plan automatically becomes a VFR flight plan.
The correct combination of statements is:
1 and 4
571. A signalman (Marshaller) requests the pilot to engage brakes with the following signal:
Raising arm and hand with fingers extended horizontally in front of body then clench fist
572. In the event of

of a delay of a controlled
controll ed flight, the s
submitted
ubmitted flight plan should be amended or cancelled and a
new flight plan submitted when the delay is:
30 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks
573. Which is the content of section 2 of Air-Report (AIREP)?

Estimated time of arrival (ETA), endurance
574. A complete position report transmitted

transmitt ed by radiotelephony shall contain the following elements of information in
the order listed:
Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over and ensuing
significant point

575. The general responsibility

responsibilit y for an ATC clearance to be safe with respect to terrain clearance is with the:
Pilot in command
576. Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance with
with VFR and
subsequently changes to IFR?
Z
577. Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance with IFR and
subsequently changes to VFR?
Y
578. An uncontrolled flight for which a flight plan has been submitted is delayed. The ATS flight plan shall be
amended or a new ATS flight plan submitted and the old one cancelled, if the delay exceeds the original
Estimated off block time by 60 minutes
579. A pilot receiving an IFR clearance from ATC should:

Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation
580. Which procedure you follow if during an IFR flight in VMC you have two way communication
communicati on failures?
Continue the flight maintaining VMC and land as soon as practicable
581. Track separation between aircraft using the same NDB shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly:
At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility
582. Track separation between aircraft using the same FIX shall
shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly:
At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the fix
583. If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an aircraft:

He may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended clearance
584. The "VMC and own separation" ATC clearance is used for a controlled flight to cross the level of another
controlled flight when:
Requested by the pilot, during the day light and authorized by the state over flown
585. Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar controller, have
have to be executed as:
Standard rate turns if not otherwise instructed by ATC
586. The separation methods applied by ATC for controlled traffic are:
Vertical and horizontal separation
587. When an aircraft will pass through the level of

of another
another aircraft on the same track, the following minimum
588. Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international
internati onal standards and
recommended practices for air traffic services (ATS)?
Annex 11
589. An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR mode C derived level
information indicated
indicated that it is within:
+/- 300 ft of the assigned level
590. Subject to conditions specified

specifi ed by the appropriate ATS authority,
authorit y, a radar controller
controll er may request
request radar-
controlled aircraft to adjust their speed when established on intermediate and final approach. This speed adjustment
should not be more than:
+/- 20 kt

591. A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is:

Poor
592. Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible

If the commander so requests
593. Aircraft flying along the sa

same
me track may be separated by DME-distances from the same DME and it is
confirmed that the aircraft have passed each other. Specify the shortest difference in DME-distance to make it
possible for one aircraft to climb or descend
10 NM
594. When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP
tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius of:
15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL 190
595. Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication

indicati on RNP 4, represents a navigation
navigati on
accuracy of
Plus or minus 4 NM on a 95 per cent containment basis
596. When on a RNP 1 route is indicated B235 Y, Y, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP
tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of:
22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above FL200
597. The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed
30 seconds
598. Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be updated

Immediately a significant change occurs
599. Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of

of the ATIS message shall be the
responsibility
respons ibility of
The air traffic services
600. ATIS broadcast

Shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS
601. Air traffic services unit clocks

clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure
correct time to within plus or minus
30 seconds of UTC at all times
602. An information issued by a meteorological

meteorol ogical watch office concerning the occurrence or expected occurrence of
specified en-route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was not
already included in the forecast issued for low level flights in the flight information region concerned or sub-area
thereof is
An AIRMET information
603. Except in some special cases the establishment

establi shment of change-over points should be limited to route segments
segments of
of
60 NM or more
604. Required Navigation

Navigati on Performance (RNP) shall be prescribed
By states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements
605. Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to avoid collision hazards when operating in
airspace classes:
C, D, E, F, and G

606. Which of the following objectives is not

not an
an objective of air traffic services?
Provide advice and information for the safe and efficient preparation of flights
607. At least which services ha

have
ve to be provided by ATS within a flight information region?
Flight information service and alerting service
608. The abbreviation RNP means:
Required navigation performance
609. In which airspace classes has separation

separation between IFR flights and VFR flights to be provided by ATC?
B, C
610. For VFR flight

flights,
s, continuous two way radio communication with
with ATS is required in the following airspace
classes.
B, C, D
611. Who is responsible to determine minimum flight altitudes for ATS routes?
Each State for ATS routes over their territory
612. Which phase of emergency is declared

declared if an aircraft is known or believed to be the subject of unlawful
interference?
ALERFA
613. The additional letter Z in the designator of

of an ATS route (e.g. A126Z) has the following meaning:
RNP 1 route at and below FL190. All turns on the route between 30° and 90° shall be made within the
allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of 15 NM
614. On IFR flights,

flight s, who is responsible for the prevention of collision
colli sion with terrain?
A) The Pilot.
B) ATC, when IFR flights are vectored by radar.
C) The Pilot and ATC in close co-operation.
D) ATC, if the respective unit is equipped with SSR.
Combination of A and B
615. "A surveillanc

surveillancee technique in which aircraft automatically
automaticall y provide, via data link, data
data derived from on-board
navigation and position-fixing systems, including aircraft identification, four-dimensional position and additional data as
appropriate"
approp riate" is the definition for:
Automatic Dependent Surveillance (ADS)
616. Aircraft in which wake turbulence category shall include their category immediately after the call sign
sign in the
initial radiotelephony contact with the aerodrome control tower or the approach control office prior to departure or
arrival.
Heavy aircraft
617. When may ATC assign a level previously occupied by another aircraft?
After the aircraft has reported vacating this level
618. The foll

following
owing applies for aircraft equipped with ACAS:
A) The ACAS capability
capability of an aircraft
aircraft will normally
normally not be known
known to ATC controllers.
controllers.
B) Separation minima may be reduced by ATC between aircraft equipped with ACAS.
C) As the ACAS capability of an aircraft is known to ATC, pilots may be required to maintain their own separation in
cruise.
D) The ATS procedures to be applied to aircraft with ACAS shall be identical to those applicable to non-ACAS
equipped aircraft.
A and D

619. When applying longitudinal separation based on distance (DME), the minimum separation between two
aircraft on reciprocal tracks climbing or descending through the same flight level shall be at least:
10 nm
620. When IFR flights are cleared to fly maintaining

maintaini ng own separation while in VMC, the following shall apply:
A) The clearance
clearance shall be for a specified portion
portion of
of the flight at or below
below 10'000
10'000 ft., during climb
climb or descent.
descent.
B) The clearance shall be for a specified portion of the flight at or below 10'000 ft., during cruise, climb or descent.
C) A pilot may be required by ATC to fly maintaining own separation while in VMC if no other means for the provision
of separation are available.
D) The procedure may be applied during the hours of daylight only.
A and D
621. "Traffic
"Traffi c to which the provision of
of ATC is applicable, but which, in relation to a particular controlled flight,
flight , is not
separated therefrom by the minima set forth" is called:
Essential traffic
622. For vi
visual
sual approaches, the foll
following
owing shall apply:
A) A visual approach
approach may only
only be requested
requested when
when the reported
reported ceiling is at or above
above the initial approach
approach altitude/level.
altitude/level.
B) When so requested by a pilot, ATC is obliged to clear the aircraft for a visual approach.
C) When cleared for a visual approach, the pilot has to maintain own separation to other aerodrome traffic.
D) Separation has to be provided by ATC between an aircraft cleared for a visual approach and other arriving and
departing aircraft.
D only
623. Under which circumst

circumstances
ances may a pilot deviate from a published instrument
If visual reference is established before the completion of the instrument approach procedure and the aircraft
is cleared for a visual approach
624. The expression "Expected

"Expec ted approach time (EAT)" is defined as foll
follows:
ows:
The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will leave the holding point to
complete its approach for a landing
625. Which wake

wake turbulence radar separation minima shall be applied between a HEAVY aircraft and a succeeding
MEDIUM aircraft during the approach and departure phases of a flight?
5 nm
626. The definition of "Manoeuvring Area" is:

That part of an aerodrome to be used for take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, excluding apron(s)
627. Which is the minimum

minim um longitudinal
longit udinal separation for two aircraft at the same cruising level, if the preceding
aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt higher than the succeeding aircraft?
5 minutes
628. Approach Control has the following duties:

Inform aircraft if the approach delay is greater than 30 minutes
629. Two aircraft

aircraf t are departing from a reporting point
point defined by an NDB. What is the minimum
minim um track separation
required before one aircraft would be permitted to climb/descend through the other aircraft's level?
30° and a distance of 15 nm or more
630. What is an air traffic controller, using radar to provide ATC,

ATC, required to do prior to providing
providing an aircraft with
ATC based on
on radar information?
information?
Radar identifies the aircraft and inform the pilot
631. Which of the following is not a valid SSR mode A squawk?

A5678

632. A MEDIUM wake wake turbulence aircraft is foll

following
owing a HEAVY category aircraft
aircraft on a radar vectored approach to
land. What is the radar separation minimum to be applied?
Normal radar separation of 5 nm
633. Which of the following defines a visual approach?

When an instrument approach is not completed and visual reference to terrain is subsequently maintained
634. What type of airspace is normally established at the confluence of ATS routes in the vicinity
vicinit y of one or more
major aerodromes?
Terminal Control Area (TMA)
635. Which of the following would be described as aerodrome traffic?

traffi c?
All traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome
636. What is defined as: "A control area or portion thereof established in the form of
of a corrid
corridor
or equipped with
with
navigation aids"?
An airway
637. The take-off mass of MEDIUM aircraft is as follows:

Less than 136'000 kg but more than 7000 kg
638. The minimum separation of a MEDIUM a

aircraft
ircraft taking-off from the same runway behind a HEAVY aircraft is:
2 minutes
639. In which section

section of AIP are contained information
relati ng to areas and/or routes for which
meteorological service is provided?
GEN

relati ng to refueling facilities
faciliti es and limitations
limitati ons on
refueling services?
AD

relati ng to prohibited, restricted and dangerous
areas?
ENR
642. A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical,
technic al, administration
administrati on or legislativ e
matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called:
Aeronautical
Aeronautic al Information Circular (AIC)
643. A notice providi

providing
ng information on Rules of
of the Air, Air
Air Traffic Services and Air Navigation Procedures and
distributed in advance of its effective date is:
An AIRAC

contracti ng state sha
shallll provide
provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas
areas in
which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and
origination of:
Integrated Aeronautical Information Package
645. In which chapter of the AIP can you find a list with
with "location
"locati on indicators"?
GEN
646. The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published:
In NOTAM and AIP, inclusive Supplement

647. Which of
of the following is information that is not
not given in AIP approach
approach and landing charts
Visibility minima
648. Which information is not included

incl uded in Instrument Approach Charts (IAC) in the AIP?
Any addition to minima when the aerodrome is used as alternate
649. An integrated aeronautical information

informati on package consists of the following elements
AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP; NOTAM and pre-flight information bulletin (PIB); AIC;
checklists and summaries
650. The identification

identific ation of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall be composed by:
The nationality letters for location indicators assigned to the state or territory, followed the letters P. R and D
and figures
651. In order to avoid confusion, the identification

identifi cation numbers
numbers given to each prohibited area, restricted area and
danger area shall not be re-used for a period of
At least one year after cancellation of the area to which they refer
652. Temporary AIP changes of "long duration" published in AIP supplements are changes that last for at least:
Three months
653. Operationally significant changes to the AIP published at a specific date

date are called:
call ed:
AIRAC
654. A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at intervals of:
Not more than one month
655. A checklist of NOTAM currently in force shall be issued at the AFTN at

at intervals
interval s of:
Not more than one month
656. The ASHTAM provides information on the status status of

of activity of a volcano when a change in its activity
activit y is, or is
expected to be of operational significance. This information is provided using the volcano level of colour code. When
volcanic eruption in progress or volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash plume/cloud is reported above FL 250 or
is expected to rise above FL 250, the level of alert colour code is
RED
657. The contents of Aeronautical Information

Informati on Publication (AIP) are:
GEN, ENR (en-route) and AD (aerodromes)
658. Information
Informati on about SIGMET can be found in the AIP part:
GEN
659. The information concerning charges for aerodromes/heliports

aerodromes/hel iports and Air Navigation Services are on the following
part of the AIP
GEN
660. The information on holding, approach and departure procedures, are found in the following part of the AIP
ENR
661. Detailed
Detail ed descripti
description
on of meteorological
meteorologic al information provided
provided at the aerodrome and an indication
indicati on of which
meteorological
meteorological office is responsible, is in the following part of the AIP
AD
662. An AIRAC is:

An Acronym for a system aimed at advance notification based on common effective dates, of circumstances
necessitating significant changes in operating procedures

663. A special NOTAM

NOTAM series notifying
notifyi ng a possible important change for the aircraft operation due to volcano activity,
eruption or ash cloud by means of a specific format is called:
ASHTAM
664. The system notifying in advance the circumstances

circumstanc es requiring important changes in the methods of
of operation,
based on common effective dates, is identified by the acronym:
AIRAC
665. The temporary, long-term modification

modific ation (3 months or more) and the short-term extensiv
extensivee or graphical
information are published as:
AIP Supplements
666. "A publicati

publication
on issued by or with the authority of a State and containing
containi ng aeronautical information
informati on of a lasting
character essential to air navigation" is the definition of:
Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)
667. An AIP shall contain the following parts:

GEN, ENR, AD
668. Which of
of the following has had a significant
signifi cant effect on the role and importance of aeronautical information and
flight data?
The introduction of RNAV, RNP and computer systems
669. At least how many days in advance of the effective

effectiv e date must AIRAC information is distributed?
distri buted?
42
670. What is an ASHTAM used for?

Volcanic activity
671. Which part of the AIP contains a brief description

description of the service(s) responsible for search and rescue?
GEN
672. The ASHTAM provides

provides information about the status of activity
activ ity of a volcano by publishing a:
a:
Colour code
673. According to the "Aerodrome Re

Reference
ference Code", the "Code Letter E" shall identify
identif y an aircraft wing span of:
52 m up to but not including 65 m
674. In the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the code element 2 shall identify:
identify :
The aircraft wing span and the outer main gear wheel span
675. The "Aerodrome Reference

Reference Code" is a code composed of two elements
element s which are related to the aeroplane
performance characteristics and dimensions. These elements are a combination of a number and a letter as in the
example under listed:
2B
An answer
answer "4F" might be presented
presented a att the examination,
examination, together
together with "2B". 4F"
4F" would also
also be correct, considering
considering the
certification of certain airports for the A380, i.e., wingspan of 65 metres or more.
Should this be the case, we recommend that you verify the answers with the invigilator during the exam
676. According with the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the "Code number 4" shall identify an aircraft
aircraf t reference field
length of:
1 800 m and over
677. The STOPWAY

STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a
suitable area where:
An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off

678. Acceleration
Accelerati on Stop Distance Available/ASDA
Availabl e/ASDA is the length of the:
Take-off run available plus the length of stopway (if stopway provided)
679. Non-precision
Non-precisi on approach runways and precision approach runways CAT I, II and III are defined as:
Instrument runways
680. "Code letter D" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway used by aircraft having an outer main gear wheel span of
less than 9 m. The taxiway width shall be:
18 m
681. "TODA" is the length of the:

Take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if provided)
682. "Clearway" is a defined rectangular area established to:

Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height
683. Which "code letter"

lett er" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway to be used by an aircraft having a wheel base of 15 m?
Code letter "C"
684. On final approach, on a normal glide path the number

number of red lights visible of
of a PAPI are
are::
2
685. Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway are fixed lights
light s showing:
Green
686. "3-BAR AVASIS", "PAPI" and "T-VASIS"

"T-VASI S" shall be provided for aircraft having eye-to-wheel heights, when
when in
the flare attitude, not exceeding:
Approximately 16 m
687. The centre line and crossbar lights of a precision approach Category I lighting system are fix
fixed
ed lights, showing
variable intensity in the following
f ollowing colour:
White
688. The acronym PAPI stands for:

Precision Approach Path Indicator
689. The "PAPI" shall consist of:

A wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced
690. In the "PAPI" system the pilot during an approach

approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two
units farthest from the runway as white when:
On or close to the approach slope
691. In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number

number shall
shall be supplemented:
By a letter - for example 2 parallel runways "L" and "R" - for 3 "L", "C" and "R"
692. Taxiway edge lights shall be fixed showing:

Blue
693. The colour of the fixed, unidirectional

unidirecti onal Runway End Lights shall be:
Red
694. Runway threshold lights shall be:

Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway
695. Runway edge lights

light s shall consist of at least:
Fixed lights showing variable white

696. Runway threshold identification

identifi cation lights are:
Flashing white lights
697. The light shown by an "Aerodrome Identification

Identifi cation Beacon" at a land aerodrome shall be:
Green colour identification given by Morse code
698. In the "VASIS" , how many light units are in each wing bar?
4
699. In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the centre line
have a length of:
300 m
700. High intensity obstacle lights are:

Flashing white
701. Low intensity

light s on vehicles other than those associated
associ ated with emergency or security shall
shall be:
Flashing yellow
702. Low intensity

light s on fixed objects are:
Fixed red
703. The runway edge lights

light s shall be:
White
704. The aerodrome category determining the rescue and firefi

firefighting
ghting equipment is based on the:
Over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage width
705. The length of an approach lighting

lighti ng system for a precision approach runway CAT II is:
900 m
706. A "barrette" consists of:

Three or more ground lights closely spaced together to appear as a bar of lights
707. A precision approach runway CAT II is an instrum

instrument
ent runway served by ILS and visual aids intended for
operations down to:
A RVR of not less than 350 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft
708. When a fixed-distance

fixed-dist ance marking
marki ng has to be provided this marking shall commence at :
300 m from threshold
709. Runway-lead-in
Runway-lead-i n lighting
lighti ng shall consist of:
Groups of at least three white lights flashing in sequence towards the runway
710. Information
Informati on signs other than location signs consist of:
Black inscriptions on yellow background
711. Which of
of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention
convention contains minimum specifications
specific ations for the design of
aerodromes?
Annex 14
712. Within
Withi n the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifi
specifies
es dimensions of aerodromes are codes for diff
different
erent
runways. Which is the minimum width of a runway with runway code 4?
45 metres

713. Within
Withi n the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifi
specifies
es dimensions of aerodromes is a specific dimension
given for the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What should be the length of this approach light system?
900 metres
714. Which of
of the following alternatives describes the complete CAT 1 ('Calvert')
('Calvert' ) type of approach light system?
5 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 and 1 lamp per light unit
715. A defi
defined
ned rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run avail
available
able prepared as a suitable area in
which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off is called:
Stopway
716. "An area symmetrical

symmetric al about the extended runway centre line and adjacent to the end of the strip primarily
intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aeroplane undershooting or overrunning the runway" is the definition for:
Runway end safety area
717. When the surface of

of a runway is soaked
soaked but
but there is no standing water, the correct term is:
Wet
718. The colour of a runway designation

designati on marking on a paved runway shall be
White
719. Where no barrettes are used, each centre line light position of a category I precision approach lighting
lighti ng system
shall consist of:
A single light source
source in the innermost
innermost 300 m, two light
light sources in the central
central 300 m and three light sources
sources in the outer
300 m
720. Which of the following systems describes an abbrevi

abbreviated
ated precision approach
approach path indicator:
A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp units normally located on the left side of the runway unless it is
physically impracticable to do so
721. If runway centre line lights are installed

install ed on a runway with
with a length of 1800 m or more, they shall have the
following colours on the last 900 m:
Alternate red and white from 900 m to 300 m and red from 300 m to the runway end
722. Where are taxiway centre line lights showing alternatively

alternativ ely green and yellow installed?
From the beginning of a taxiway near the runway centre line to the perimeter of the ILS/MLS critical/sensitive
area
723. Mandatory instructions

instructi ons signs on an aerodrome shall have the following colours:
White inscription on a red background
724. Which of the following lights is a high intensity obstacle

obstacle light:
Flashing white light
725. The width

width of a runway for an aerodrome with code number 4/D should not be less than:
45 m
726. A runway
runway may be contaminated by frozen water deposits. What are the three states of frozen water reported
by ATC?
Snow, ice and slush
727. What is the principle requ

requirement
irement for a signals area on an aerodrome?
It must be clearly visible from the air
728. What colour is taxiway edge lighting?

lighti ng?
Blue

729. What does a white line drawn across a runway indicate?

indicat e?
A displaced threshold
730. What colour are apron markings?

A contrasting colour from the taxiway markings
731. Do all runways require centreline markings?

No, only paved runways
732. For planning purposes, an aerodrome is categorised by aerodrome reference code. This consists of two
elements: A number, and a letter. What does the number relate to?
Take-off distance required for an aeroplane
733. For an instrument

instrum ent runway, how far from the centre line of a runway is a "runway vacated"
vac ated" sign
sign positioned?
At the end of the ILS/MLS sensitive area
734. How is a paved pre-threshold area which is greater than 60 m in length but not suitable for use by aircraft,
marked?
By yellow chevrons pointing towards the threshold
735. What colour are runway edge lights?

White
736. When a threshold is displaced, the colour of

of the lights in approach direction between the beginning of the
runway and the displaced threshold are:
Red
737. Which of the following correctly describes runway end lights?

Fixed; uni-directional; red
738. Where a runway has a displaced threshold and the w whole

hole of the runway
runway is used for take-off, which of the
following can be used to indicate the centre of the runway from the end to the displaced threshold?
Approach lighting (such that it does not dazzle the pilot taking-off)
739. Generally, when and where are stop bars provided?

They are positioned at all runway-holding positions for runways used when RVR is less than 350 m
740. What is/are required if a stop

stop bar is not provided at a runway entrance and the runway is intended to be used
in RVR conditions less than 550 m?
Runway guard lights
741. What is the name

name for a taxiway connected to a runway at an acute angle designed to allow aeroplanes to turn
off at higher speeds than are achieved on other exits thereby minimizing runway occupancy time?
Rapid exit taxiway
742. Which of
of the following group shows the correct designators for three parallel runways
runways seen from the direction
of the approach?
29L, 29C, 29R
743. The length of a clearway should not exceed:

1/2 TORA

744. The basic holding position shown in the figure will be used:
At an intersection of a taxiway and a non-instrument, non-precision approach or takeoff runway

745. Figure 5 indicates:

A runway intersection sign
746. Sign 4 is a:
Information sign
747. On an aerodrome equipped with parallel

parallel runways, the designation number of each runway shall be
supplemented as follows:
In case of two parallel runways by the letter "L" and "R" in the sequence from left to right
748. For a full Calvert CAT I approach lighting system, how many bars are required and what is the configuration of
the centerline?
5 bar and distance-coded centerline increasing from the threshold
749. A defined
defined rectangular area,
area, selected or prepared as a suitable area over which
which an aeroplane may make a
portion of its initial climb to a specified height is called:
Clearway
750. How does a pilot see the PAPI

PAPI wing
wing bar lights, when the position of the aircraft
aircraft is fa
farr above the approach
slope?
All the four units are steady white
751. The colour of the fixed, unidirectional runway threshold and

and wing bar lights shall be:
Green
752. A precision approach Category I lighting system shall consists

consists of a row of lights on the extended runway
centre line over a distance of:
900 m with a row of lights forming a crossbar 30 m in length at a distance of 300 m from the runway threshold
753. The complete CAT I/Calv

I/Calvert
ert type of approach light system (with additional crossbars) consists of:
A centre line with 5 crossbars
754. The principal composition of a precision approach Category I lighting system is:
A row of lights on the extended centre line over a distance of 900 m from the runway threshold and a
crossbar at 300 m from the threshold

755. When desinsecting is required by

by a Contracting
Contracti ng State as a public health measure, the desinsecting is made
when the aircraft is suitably equipped by means of an automatic dispersal or vapour while the aircraft is flying, but as
far in advance as possible and:
At least 30 minute prior to land
756. The correct statement about the obligation of

of a carrier to carry away any non-admitted
non-admitt ed person from the
territory of a Contracting State is:
The obligation of the operator shall terminate, when such a person has been legally admitted for entry into a
State
757. A contracting
contracti
information nginstate
indicated w
which
hich continues
the heading to require
of the format of thethe presentation
cargo manifest, of
nota cargo
requiremanifest shall,
more than theapart from item(s)
following the :
The air waybill number; the number of packages related to each air waybill number and the nature of the
goods
758. Contracting
Contracti ng states shall not require the authorized agent or pilot-in-command
pilot-in-comm and to deliver to the public
authorities concerned, before departure of the aircraft, more than some copies of General Declaration, Cargo Manifest
and stores list. The numbers of the copies are:
3 of each
759. In case of aircraft registered in other Contracting States, which are not engaged in schedule international
internati onal
services, and which are making flights across the territory of a Contracting State or stopping for non traffic purposes,
such Contracting State shall accept the information contained in a flight plan as adequate advance notification. This
information is to be received:
At least 2 hours in advance of arrival
760. An aircraft which is not engaged in scheduled international air services and which is making a flight to or
through any designated airport of a Contracting State and is admitted temporarily free of duty shall be allowed to
remain within that State without security for customs duty.
For a period to be established by that State
761. Which one of the statements is correct?

Contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of baggage from passengers and crew
762. In cases where a visitor

vi sitor travelling
travelli ng by air
air holds
holds a valid passport and no visa is required of
of him, contracting
contracti ng
states
Shall not require him to obtain any other identity document from their consulates or operators prior to initiate
the flight
763. When cargo, unaccompanied baggage or stores are not unladen at their intended destination but are unladen
at another international airport, the contracting state where the unlading takes place; if satisfied that there has been no
gross negligence or careless by the operator
Shall not impose penalties, fines, customs duties and taxes on the operator
764. Unaccompanied
Unaccompani ed baggage carried by air shall be cleared under the procedure applicable to:
Accompanied baggage or under another simplified customs procedure distinct from that normally applicable
to other cargo
765. Contracting
Contracti ng states shall carry out the handling, forwarding and clearance of airmail and shall comply with
with the
documentary procedures as prescribed:
In the Acts in force of the Universal Postal Union
766. Except in special circumstanc

circumstances
es determined by the public authorities
authorities concerned, when a passenger is passing
through the territory of a contracting state and has to stay in that contracting state until the next flight for lack of
facilities or any other circumstances, the contracting state where the international airport is located shall permit such a
passenger to remain within its territory without requiring visas prior to the arrival when
The passenger is to leave that state within two (2) days from the day of his (her) arrival

767. Subject to the technology available documents for entry and departure of aircraft:
Are accepted in handwritten block lettering in ink
768. When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator for transport away from the territory of
the state, the operator:
Shall not be preclude from recovering from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her)
inadmissibility
769. The ICAO annex

annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage in international
internati onal flights is:
Annex 9
770. The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of cargo and other articles
articles on international flights is :
Annex 9
771. (CPL) The crew member certificate

certific ate (CMC) shall be accepted by each Contracting
Contracti ng State for identification
identific ation
purposes:
a) Together with a valid passport.
passport.
b) Together wwith
ith a valid flight crew license.
c) Together w
with
ith a visa if required.
None of the above
772. (CPL) When an airline crew member, in the exercise of her/his duties, travels to another Contracting
Contracti ng State as
a passenger in order to join an aircraft, she/he must carry for identification purposes:
A CMC
773. (CPL) What is the purpose of a CMC?

To provide identification of aircrew
774. The units responsible for promoting efficient organization of search and rescue service
servic e are:
Rescue coordination centre and rescue sub-centres
775. The color identification

identif ication of the contents of
of droppable containers and packages containing
containi ng survival equipment
equipment
should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code:
Red for medical supplies and first aid equipment

identif ication of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing
Yellow for blankets
blankets and
and protective
protective clothing

equipment
Blue for food and water

containi ng survival
surviv al equipment
Black for miscellaneous equipment
779. An operator shall not operate an aeroplane certificated to JAR25, across an area in which which search and rescue
would be especially difficult, without survival equipment if it flies away from an area suitable for making an emergency
landing at a distance greater than:
90 minutes at cruising speed
780. A turboprop aeroplane is performi

performing
ng an overwater flight, which takes it further than 340 NM away from an
aerodrome where an emergency landing could be performed. Normal cruising speed is 180 kt. One engine out
airspeed is 155 kt.
Life jackets must be available for all occupants

781. Using the ground

ground - air visual code the symbol meaning "we have found all personnel"
personnel" is :
2
782. What is the meaning o

off the showed symbol in the ground air visual signal code for use by survivors?
Require medical assistance
783. The ground - air visual code illustrated

illustr ated means:
Require assistance


ground - air visual signal code, the letter similar to the symbol meaning "REQUIRE MEDICAL
ASSISTANCE" is:
2
785. What is the meaning o

off the showed symbol in the ground-air visual signal code for use by rescue
rescue units?
units?
Operation completed
786. Which of the following is NOT an internati

international
onal distress frequency?
2430 KHz

flyi ng over a mountainous region in which a search
search is being carried out to find the survivors of an
aircraft accident. The pilot sees a ground signal in the form of an "X".
This indicates
i ndicates::
"Need medical assistance"
788. At night
night an aircraft observes a luminous signal
signal requesting help. To indicate that he has received these ground
signals, the pilot must:
Switch his landing lights on and off twice or, if he is not so equipped, his navigation lights twice
789. Three aircraft, (1), (2) and (3), ar

arrive
rive successiv
successively
ely at ten minut
minutee intervals, overhead the scene of a recent
aircraft accident.
-aircraft (1) is unable to establish contact with the Search and Rescue Centre
-aircraft (2) is able to contact the Search and Rescue Centre
-aircraft (3) is a Search and Rescue helicopter
The command of the situation is the responsibility of;
(1), then by mutual consent (2) and then (3).
790. Ground-air signals code for survivors: What is the meaning of an

an X displayed on
on the ground?
Require medical assistance
791. Contracting
Contracti ng States shall establish a rescue co-ordination
co-ordinati on centre:
In each search and rescue region

792. COSPAS-SARSAT
COSPAS-SARSAT is:
a) A space s
system
ystem for the search of vessels in distress.
b) A communication system linking major airports.
c) A S
SAR
AR satellite-aided
satellite-aided tracking system.
a and c
793. Whenever a distress signal

signal and/or message or equivalent transmission is intercepted by the PIC of an aircraft,
he shall:
a) Record the position of the craft in distress if given.
b) Enter into a holding pattern and wait for an SAR aircraft to arrive.
c) If poss
a and possible
c ible take a bearing on the transmission.
794. When a PIC observes

observes that either another aircraft or a surface craft is in distress he shall, unless he is unable,
or in the circumstances of the case considers it unreasonable or unnecessary:
a) Keep in sight of the craft in distress
distress until such time as his presence is no longer necessary.
b) Report to the rescue co-ordination
co-ordinati on centre or the air traffic
traffi c services
services as much information
informati on as possible.
c) Act as instructed
instruct ed by the rescue co-ordination
co-ordinati on centre or the airair traffic servic
services
es unit.
All of the above
795. "A situati

situation
on wherein apprehension exists
exist s as to the safety of
of an aircraft and its occupants" is the definition
definiti on for:
Alert phase
796. The ground-air visual signal code for use by survivors

surviv ors on ground to indicate "NEGATIVE" is:
N
797. The ground-air visual signal code for use by survivors

surviv ors on ground to indicate "AFFIRMATIVE" is:
Y

ground - air visual signal code, the letter similar to the symbol meaning "REQUIRE ASSISTANCE
ASSISTANCE""
is:
1
799. The ground - air visual signal code for use by survivors on ground indicating
indicati ng "REQUIRE MEDICAL
ASSISTANCE" is :
X

800. An aircraft is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked')

('hijacked ') in non RVSM airspace. The pilot is forced to
divert from the cleared track and/or cruising level without being able to communicate this to ATS. He shall try to:
Precede at a level which differs from the cruising level normally used for IFR flights in that area by 1000 ft
above FL 290 or 500 ft below FL 290
801. The national civil aviation security programme is established by:

Each Contracting State

contracti ng state shall designate an appropriate authority within its administrat
administration
ion to be responsible for
the development, implementation and maintenance of the national civil aviation security programme. The said
appropriate authority:
Shall be specified to ICAO

contracti ng state shall establish measures to ensure that the aircraft operator is informed when
passengers are obliged to travel because they have been the subject of judicial or administrative proceedings in order
that appropriate security measures can be taken
The statement above question is incomplete. The pilot in command and the aircraft operator are to be
informed
804. When mixing or contact does take place between passengers subjected to securitysecurity control and other persons
persons
not subjected to such control after the security screening points at airports serving international civil aviation have
been passed
The passengers concerned and their cabin baggage shall be re screened before boarding an aircraft
805. Each member state should

should designate an appropriate authority
authority with its administrati
administration
on to be responsible for the
development implementation and maintenance of a national aviation security programme. This programme should
apply:
To all international civil air transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo and yet to
domestic flights at
at the discretion of each member state
806. When a member state allows police officers, security staff, bodyguards or other agents agents of foreign states to
carry weapons in their territory for the protection of aircraft in flight, permission for the carriage of weapons should be
conditional upon:
Prior notification by the state of embarkation to the foreign state in which the weapons will be carried on the
airport of arrival and notification of the pilot in command of a decision to permit a weapon to be carried on
board his aircraft
807. Member states should introduce specific security measures for the air transport of
of the following groups of
potentially disruptive passengers defined below:
Deportees, inadmissible persons and persons in lawful custody
808. For the boarding of potentially disruptive passengers supplementary

supplement ary safeguards are to be observing such as:
Boarding the potentially disruptive passenger prior to all passengers
809. The movement area of an aerodrome, the adjacent lands and buildings
buildi ngs or portions thereof with controlled
access is called:
Airside
810. Referring to the operational aspects in the unlawful seizure acts, it can be said:
The contracting States will make provisions to ensure that an aircraft affected by an unlawful seizure act,
which has landed in their territory, would be retained, unless its departure is justified to protect lives

811. Definition
Definiti on of Security, the ICAO Annex 17, is a combination of measures...
measures.. .
And human and material resources intended to safeguard international civil aviation against acts of unlawful
interference
812. Each Contracting

Contracti ng State shall ensure that the appropriate Authority arranges for the supporting resources
resources and
facilities required by the aviation security services to be available:
At each airport serving international civil aviation
813. The ICAO Annex 17 comprises rules in order to establish security

securit y measures for passengers:
Cabin baggage, checked baggage, cargo and other goods, access control and airport design
814. When an aircraft subjected to an unlawful interference has landed it shall notify by the most expediti
expeditious
ous
means of the State of registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator of the landing and shall similarly transmit all
other relevant information to the:
Two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose
citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens are known to be on board the aircraft and the
ICAO
815. A State shall provide

provide assistance
assistance to an aircraft subjected
subjected to an act of
of unlawful
unlawful seizure.
seizure. This assistance
assistance includes:
includes:
Provision of navigation aids, air traffic services and permission to land
816. A State shall take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and
and crew of an aircraft which is subjected
subjected
to an act of unlawful interference,
Until their journey can be continued
817. "The movement area of an airport, adjacent terrain and buildings or portions thereof, access to which
which is
controlled" is the definition for:
Air side
818. The aim of aviation security is the following:

Safeguard international civil aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference
819. An airport security programme shall be established by each State for:

Each airport serving international civil aviation
820. (CPL) If an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful

unlawful seizure has landed on its territory, each Contracting State
shall:
a) Detain the aircraft on ground.
b) Deliver food and water but turn down requests for fuel.
c) Let the a
aircraft
ircraft depart
depart if it is necessary
necessary to protect human life.
a and c
821. Where a parking bay is not provided at an aerodrome

aerodrome for the use by aircraft that have been subject to unlawful
interference, what is the minimum distance that parking bay is to be from other bays?
100 m
822. Security measures apply to:

Airport design
823. After landing, while taxiing the landing gear sinks into a hole. No person gets injured, but the aircraft
aircraft sustains
structural failure, obliging the crew to delay the departure.
This is an accident and the crew must follow the procedure relevant to this case

824. The responsibility

responsibilit y for the initiation
initiati on of an accident investigation
investigat ion in a Contracting State is with:
The Authority of the State in which the accident occurred
825. Upon receipt of the notification and a request by the state of

of occurrence for participation, the state of
of design
and the state of manufacture shall in the case of an accident or serious incident inform the state of occurrence of the
name of its representative to be present at the investigation when the aircraft :
Has a maximum mass over 2 250 kg
826. The sole objective

objectiv e of the investigation
investi gation of an accident or incident shall be the:
Prevention of accidents or incidents
827. Which ofof the following, according to ICAO Annex

Annex 13, shall be entitled to appoint an accredited representativ
representativee
to participate in the investigation?
Any State which, on request, provides information, facilities or experts to the State conducting the
investigation
828. The accident investigation

investi gation preliminary report shall be submitted to appropriate States and to the ICAO, in:
One of the working languages of ICAO
829. The respons

responsibility
ibility to institute an investigation into the
the circumstances of an accident rests with:
The State of Occurrence
830. The purpose of an aircraft accident investigation

investigat ion shall be:
The prevention of accidents
831. The conducting of an accident investigation may be delegated by the State of Occurrence, in whole or in part,
to:
Another State by mutual agreement and consent
832. The State conducting an accident investigation

investi gation shall:
Publish a final report according to ICAO Standards
833. An aeroplane exits

exits the runway and the aeroplane becomes stuck in the mud. What kind of occurrence are it
and what action should be taken by the Commander?
It is an incident. The Commander must inform the operator using the normal procedure
834. The aircraft

aircraft has made a complete stop on the apron. When leaving the aircraft, one of the passengers
passengers walks
into the trailing edge of the wing and gets seriously injured:
This is an accident. The crew must follow the procedure relevant for this case
835. During the climb-out phase

phase of a flight the pilot in command becomes incapacitated. The co-pilot takes over
control of the aircraft and decides that he will return for landing. What action has to be taken after landing?
This is a serious incident. The crew must follow the procedure relevant to an incident

836. Track separation between aircraft using the same VOR shall be applied requiring the aircraft
aircraft to fly:
837. A "RNAV" distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is crossed, provi
provided
ded that
each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same "on track" way-point. This minimum is:
80 NM
838. Special VFR flights may be authorized to operate locally within a control zone when the ground
ground visibility
visi bility is not
not
less than 1 500 metres, even when the aircraft is not equipped with a functioning radio receiver within class:
E airspace
839. A minimum separation of at least 2 minutes shall be applied between a LIGHT or MEDIUM aircraft and a
HEAVY aircraft taking off behind, using parallel runways:
Separated by less than 760 m

based on DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses DME stations, is:
10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding
aircraft
841. The rule governing flight over water for a single engined aeroplane engaged in the public transport of
passengers:
Limits such flight to a height sufficient to land safely if the engine fails
842. The period of validity for take-off slots assigned by CFMU (Central Flow Management Unit):
Is 15 minutes
843. Essential traffic information is provided to:

Controlled traffic not separated from another controlled traffic with the prescribed separation minima
844. A flight plan shall be submitted

submitt ed prior to departure for a controlled flight at least:
60 minutes prior to departure
845. If radio
radio communication
communicati on failure is experienced on an IFR fli
flight
ght in IMC, generally
generally the pilot shall:
Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or aircraft stations - Transmit blind indicating important
details required 2 times
846. When, in air space where VFR are permitted, the pilot pilot in command ofof an IFR flight wishes to continue his
flight in accordance
accordance with visual flight rules, until the
t he destination is reached
reached::
1 He must inform the control unit ("cancel IFR")
2 He must request and obtain clearance.
3 He may request his IFR flight plan to be changed to a VFR flight plan.
4 The flight plan automatically becomes a VFR flight plan.
The correct combination of statements is:
1 and 4

of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended or cancelled and a
new flight plan submitted when the delay is:
30 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks
848. Which is the content of section 2 of Air-Report (AIREP)?

Estimated time of arrival (ETA), endurance

849. A complete position report transmitted

transmitt ed by radiotelephony shall contain the following elements of information in
the order listed:
Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over and ensuing
significant point
850. The general responsibility

responsibilit y for an ATC clearance to be safe with respect
respect to terrain clearance
clearance is with the:
Pilot in command
851. Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance with VFR and
and
subsequently changes to IFR?
Z
852. Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance with IFR and
subsequently changes to VFR?
Y
853. An uncontrolled flight for which a flight plan has been submitted is delayed. The ATS flight plan shall be
amended or a new ATS flight plan submitted and the old one cancelled, if the delay exceeds the original
Estimated off block time by 60 minutes
854. A pilot receiving an IFR clearance from ATC should:

Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation
855. Which procedure you follow if during an IFR flight in VMC you have two way communication
communicati on failures?
Continue the flight maintaining VMC and land as soon as practicable
856. Track separation between aircraft using the same NDB shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly:
857. Track separation

separation between aircraft using the same FIX shall be
be applied requiring the aircraft to fly:
At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the fix
858. If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an aircraft:

He may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended clearance
859. The "VMC and own separation" ATC clearance is used for a controlled flight to cross the level of another
controlled flight when:
Requested by the pilot, during the day light and authorized by the state overflown
860. Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar controller, have
have to be executed as:
as:
Standard rate turns if not otherwise instructed by ATC
861. The separation methods applied by ATC for controlled traffic are:
Vertical and horizontal separation
862. Below FL 290 the Vertical Separation Minimum between controlled

controll ed opposite traffic is:
1000 feet (300 m)
863. The vertical

vertic al IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within
within a controlled airspace
airspace above
above FL 290 is:
2000 feet (600 m)
864. Track separation between aircraft using the same VOR shall be applied requiring
requiring the aircraft to fly:
Airlaw P a g e | 63
865. The pilot

pilot requests to pass through the level of another aircraft on the same
same track. He has to expect
expect
instructions:
Allowing minimum longitudinal separation based on time
866. Above FL 290, flights

flight s operated under IFR in non-RVSM airspace, proceeding in the same
same direction
direction are
separated by:
4000 feet
867. The MSA provides an obstacle clearance of at least 300 m (984 ft) within a circle, associated with the homing
homing
facility for the approach procedure of that aerodrome.
The circle has a radius of:

25 NM
868. "Time Approach Procedure" is used as necessary to expedite the approach of a number of arriving aircraft.
This will be obtained requesting aircraft:
To pass the specified point inbound at the previously notified time
869. During a take-off into IMC conditions with low ceiling

ceili ng the pilot should
should contact departure control:
When advised by Tower
870. When a runway is 2 000 metres in length, and taxi holding

holding positions have not been established, aircraft shall
not be held closer to the runway in use more than:
50 metres
871. Flight information service shall be provided to all

which are: all aircraft
aircraft which are likely to be affected by the information and
Provided with the air traffic control services or otherwise known to the relevant air traffic service units
872. Alerting service shall be provided:

For all controlled flight, to any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference, and in so far
as practicable to all aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known to the ATS
873. Upon intercepting

intercepti ng the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway
airway and to "resume
own navigation". This phrase means that:
You are to assume
assume responsibility
responsibility for
for your own
own navigation
navigation
874. Air Traffic Control Services have the responsibility

responsibilit y to prevent terrain collisions:
collisi ons:
When a flight under IFR is vectored by radar
875. Which code shall be used on mode "A" to provide recognition of an emergency aircraft?
Code 7700
876. One of the functi

functions
ons ensured by a radar control unit for the provisi
provision
on of approach control service is:
To conduct surveillance radar approaches
877. The primary duty provided by a radar unit is:

To provide radar separation
878. When radar identification

identif ication of an aircraft has been achieved, the radar controller shall:
shall:
Inform the pilot
879. One of the functi

functions
ons ensured by a radar control unit for the provisi
provision
on of approach control service is:
To conduct precision radar approach (PAR)
Airlaw P a g e | 64
880. Except otherwise established by the appropriate ATS authority a Surveillance Radar Approach (SRA) shall be
terminated at a distance from the touchdown of:
2 NM
881. When "Secondary Radar" is used,

used, an aircraft may be identifi
identified
ed by one of the foll
following
owing procedures:
Observation of compliance with an instruction to operate transponder from "ON" to "STBY" and back to "ON"
882. When "Secondary Surveillance Radar" (SSR) is not available, the pilot may be requested by ATC to execute
one or more heading changes for radar identification. The requested changes to be expected are in the order of:
30 degrees or more
883. Which code shall be used on Mode "A" to provide recognition of an aircraft subjected
subjected to unlawful interference?
interf erence?
Code 7500
884. Which does ATC Term "Radar contact" signify?

Your aircraft
aircraft has been
been identified on the radar
radar display
display and radar flight
flight instructions
instructions will
will be provided
provided until radar
identification is terminated
885. What is meant when

when departure control instruct you to "resume own navigation"
navigati on" after you have been vectored
to an airway?
You should maintain
maintain that airway by use of your navigation equipment
equipment
886. aircraft
each A "RNAV" distance
reports based
its distance to separation
t heminimum
or from the same "onmay beway-point.
track" used at theThis
timeminimum
the levelis:
is crossed, provi
provided
ded that
80 NM
887. A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR flights, when operating in controlled
controll ed airspace classified
classif ied
as:
B
888. One minute separation

separation may be used between departing aircraft if they
they are to fly on
on tracks diverging by at least:
45° immediately after take-off
889. Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on the same
same track, when:
The preceding aircraft is 40 kt or more faster than the following aircraft
890. When an aircraft is vectored

vector ed by radar to the localiser course, the angle between the interception
intercepti on course and
the localiser course is normally 30 degrees. In accordance with DOC 4444 this angle shall not be greater than:
45 degrees
891. The foll

following
owing minimum radar separation shall be provided between aircraft
aircraf t on the same localizer
locali zer with
additional longitudinal separation as required for wake turbulence:
3 NM
892. The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft established on the localizer
locali zer course shall be:
3.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course
893. The tolerance value used to determine that mode C derived level information displayed to the controller
controll er is
accurate shall be:
+/- 300 ft
894. Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar separation minimum
minim um shall
be:
5.0 NM
Airlaw P a g e | 65
895. The criterion

criterion which shall be used to determine that a specific level is occupied by an aircraft shall be, (except
(except
that appropriate ATS authorities may specify a smaller criterion):
+/- 300 ft
896. An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR mode C derived level
information indicated
indicated that it is within:
+/- 300 ft of the assigned level
897. An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the SSR mode C derived level
information indicates that it has passed this level in the required direction by:
More than 300 ft

898. When radar capabilities so permit, the minimum radar separation of
of 5 NM may be reduced, but shall not be
less than:
3.0 NM
899. Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the radar controller should
should notify the non-radar
controller when an aircraft making a radar approach is approximately:
8 NM
900. An aircraft making a radar approach should be advised to consider executing

executing a missed approach, if the
position or identification of the aircraft is in doubt during any portion of the final approach or if the aircraft is not visible
on the radar display for significant interval during the last:
2 NM
901. When conducting a surveillance

surveillanc e radar approach, the radar controller
controll er shall terminate the surveillance radar
approach, except as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, at a distance of:
2 NM from touchdown
902. Subject to conditions specified

specifi ed by the appropriate ATS authority,
authorit y, a radar controller
controll er may request
request radar-
controlled aircraft to adjust their speed when established on intermediate and final approach. This speed adjustment
should not be more than:
+/- 20 kt
903. The radar controller shall not request

request the pilot
pilot to adjust the speed where the aircraft
aircraft has passed:
4 NM from the threshold on final approach
904. Radar controlled

controll ed aircraft on intermediate
intermediat e or final approach may be requested to make minor speed
adjustments by ATC. These adjustments shall never be more than:
20 knots and not within 4 NM of threshold
905. Which statement regarding approach control service is correct?

If it is anticipated that an aircraft has to hold for 30 minutes or more, an Expected Approach Time will be
transmitted by the most expeditious means to the aircraft
906. When ATC is equipped with and using PSR, at what distance
distance from the end of
of the runway may a pilot expect
that his aircraft can be identified?
1NM
907. When an aircraft enters the traffic circuit without

without proper authorisation,
authorisati on, it shall:
Be permitted to land if its actions indicate that it so desires
Airlaw P a g e | 66
908. The separation method whereby the vertical

verti cal and horizontal separation may be reduced to half of the standard
value is called:
Composite separation
909. When the transponder is unserviceable

unservi ceable and repair is not
not possible at the aerodrome of departure, then:
The pilot will only be allowed to proceed to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be effected
910. A so called "Visual Approach" can be performed by a flight under IFR:

When either part or all of an instrument approach procedure is not completed and the approach is executed
with visual reference to the terrain
911. An approaching aircraft may descend below the MSA provided:

All conditions detailed in the other three answers are fulfilled
912. A pilot receives an EAT as soon as practicable,

practic able, when the expect
expected
ed approach delay is:
10 minutes or more
913. Except when prescribed in procedures or made possible by agreements, aircraft under radar-control
radar-contr ol shall not
be vectored closer to the boundary of controlled airspace than:
2,5 NM
914. Under Radar control, a pilot receives

receives missed approach instructions
instruct ions from Radar when the tower has not issued
the clearance to land by the time the aircraft reaches a distance from touchdown of:
2 NM
915. Which statement

statement is correct?
During a "Visual Approach" in Controlled Airspace (Class C):
ATC will apply separation with other traffic
916. A Special Air Report comprises a number of sections.

In section I the pilot fills in
in :
A position report, including aircraft identification, height, position and time
917. According to international agreements wind direction shall

shall be adjusted to the local variation
variati on and given in
degrees magnetic:
Before take-off and landing
918. The expression "radar contact"

contact " in RT phraseology means:
The radar identity of the aircraft has been established
919. The Vertical Separation Minima (VSM) between opposite aircraft flying under IFR, within controlled airspace
airspace
below FL 290 is:
1000 feet (300 m)
920. A change
change from instru
instrument
ment flight rules (IFR) to visual flight rules
rules (VFR)
(VFR) is only acceptable
acceptable when
when VFR is
permitted in that airspace and when:
The change is initiated by the PIC with a message containing the specific expression "cancelling my IFR
flight"
921. A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is:

Poor
922. Within
Withi n controlled airspace,
airspace, IFR cruising levels shall
shall be given as flight
fli ght level (FL):
Above the transition level
923. Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible

If the commander so requests
924. For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity

vicinit y of an airport, separation
separation minima may be reduced:
When the following aircraft has the preceding aircraft in sight
925. An aircraft approaches an aerodrome located in controlled

controll ed airspace. When a pilot reports
reports that he has the "field
in sight", a clearance for "visual approach" may be given under condition that the:
Air traffic controller is able to separate this aircraft to other controlled traffic
926. Aircraft flying along the sa

same
me track may be separated by DME-distances from the same DME and it is
confirmed that the aircraft have passed each other. Specify the shortest difference in DME-distance to make it
possible for one aircraft to climb or descend
10 NM
927. If an arriving a
aircraft
ircraft is making a straight in approach a departing aircraft may take off in any direction
directi on
Until five minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway
928. When surveillance

surveillanc e radar approaches are to be continued to the threshold of of the runway transmission
transmissi on should
not be interrupted for intervals of more than five seconds while the aircraft is within a distance of from touchdown of:
4 NM
929. The surveill

surveillance
ance radar approach
approach shall
shall be terminated at a distance of 2 NM from the touchdown except when
as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, the accuracy of the radar equipment permits to be continued to a
prescribed point less than 2 NM from the touchdown. In this case distance and level information shall be given at each
Half NM
930. A pilot
pilot may expect to receive the clearance to land or any alternative
alternativ e clearance before
before the aircraft reaches a
distance from touchdown of:
2 NM
931. A pilot
pilot may expect instructions
instructi ons for a missed approach from Radar when the controller has not issued the
landing clearance at the moment the aircraft is:
2 NM from the touchdown
932. An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to consider executing

executing a missed approach if the aircraft
aircraf t
is not visible on the radar display for any significant interval during the :
Last 2 NM of the approach
933. The request

request for a speed adjustment that a pilot may expect
expect on intermediate
intermedi ate and/or final approach should not
not
exceed plus/minus:
20 kt IAS
934. A pilot may expect that lights on and in the vicinity

vici nity of
of an aerodrome may be turned off, on condition that they
can be brought back into operation before the expected arrival of an aircraft in at least:
One hour
935. A significant
signific ant change in the mean surface
surface wind direction is reported to the pilot when
when the mean crosswind
component changes by more than:
5 kt/9 km/h
936. At the commencement of of final approach, if the controller

controll er possesses wind
wind information in the form of
of
components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The
mean tail-wind component significant change is:
2 KT
937. A signifi
significant
cant change in the mean surface
surface wind direction is reported to the pilot
pilot when the mean headwind
headwind
component changes by more than:
10 kt/19 km/h
938. Whenever unlawful interference

interf erence with an aircraft is suspected, and where automatic distinct display
display o
off SSR
Mode A code 7500 and code 7700 is not provided, the radar controller shall attempt to verify this suspicion by :
Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7500 and thereafter to code 7700
939. When the Mach number technique (MNT) is being applied, and the preceding aircraft
aircraft shall maintain a mach
number equal to or greater than the following aircraft a RNAV distance based separation minimum may be used on
the same direction tracks in lieu of 10 minutes longitudinal separation minimum. The distance is:
80 NM
940. Longitudinal separation minim

minimaa based on distance using DME for aircraft at the same
same cruising level and track,
provided that each aircraft utilizes "on Track" DME stations and separation is checked by obtaining simultaneous DME
readings,, is :
readings
20 NM

minimaa based on time for aircraft
aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids
permit
of 40 Ktfrequent
or moredetermination of succeeding
faster than the position andaircraft
speedwill
provided
be that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed
3 minutes

permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed
of 20 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be
5 minutes

permit frequent determination of position and speed will be
10 minutes
944. Repetitive
Repetitiv e flight plans (RPL's) shall
shall be used for flights operated regularly on the same day(s) of consecutive
weeks and:
On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least ten consecutive days
945. What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when

when a light aircraft is taking off
off behind a medium
aircraft and both are using the same runway?
2 minutes
946. Special VFR flights may be authorized to operate locally within a control zone when the ground visibility
visi bility is not
less than 1 500 metres, even when the aircraft is not equipped with a functioning radio receiver within class:
E airspace
947. The minimum wake turbulence separation for landing to be applied between a MEDIUM aircraft
aircraft and a HEAVY
aircraft is:
2 minutes
948. A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS localizer
localiz er
course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted:
300 m (1000 ft)
949. A minimum separation of at least 2 minutes shall be applied between a LIGHT or MEDIUM aircraft and a
HEAVY aircraft taking off behind, using parallel runways:
Separated by less than 760 m
950. A separation minimum

minim um shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft
aircraft and
between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and
the lighter aircraft is utilizing an opposite direction runway for takeoff, this minimum is :
2 minutes
951. For independent approaches, the minimum radar separation provided until the aircraft is established inbound
on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track is:
3.0 NM
952. Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided

provi ded that:
The missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 30° (degrees) from the missed approach
track of the adjacent approach
953. Independent parallel approaches are being conducted with vectoring

vect oring to the ILS localizer
localiz er course or MLS final
approach track. The final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localiser or MLS final
approach track at an angle not greater than:
30 degrees
954. Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways
runways provided
provid ed that a no transgression zone
(NTZ) of at least:
610 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display
955. When independent parallel approaches are being conducted to parallel runways and vectoring
vec toring to intercept the
ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to be established on
the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track in level flight
f light for :
At least 2.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle
956. Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways

runways provided that : the missed approach
track for one approach diverges by :
At least 30° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
957. The minimum wake turbulence separation to be applied between a LIGHT or MEDIUM aircraft
aircraft,, taking off
off
behind a HEAVY aircraft using the same runway is:
2 minutes
958. A strayed aircraft is an aircraft:

Which has deviated significantly from its intended track or which reports that it is lost
959. The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of
of the cruising portion of
of the flight must be entered in the
speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the:
True air speed (TAS).
960. The "estimated total time" in block 16 of a VFR fli

flight
ght plan is the estimated time:
Required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport
961. The pilot in command of an aircraft:

1 - must
m ust comply immediately
immediately to all instructions received from ATC.
2 - is responsible only if he is the "pilot flying".
3 - may deviate from air regulations for safety reasons.
4 - may be exempt from air regulations in order to comply to an ATC instruction.
5 - may ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory clearance.
Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
3-5
962. When a RADAR operator says the following to an aircraft: "fly heading 030", the pilot must fly heading:
030° magnetic
963. The letter "L" is writt

written
en in the wake
wake turbulence box of
of a flight plan form when the maximum certified take-off
weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to:
7 000 kg
964. If no ICAO identifier

identif ier has been attributed
attri buted to an alternate airport (box 16) of a flight plan form...
Write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the name of the airport
965. For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with navaids,

navaids, the estimated time of arrival
arrival is the estimated
estimated time at
which the aircraft will:
Arrive overhead the initial approach fix

966. During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC conditions, traffic avoidance
avoidance is the responsibili
responsibility
ty
of:
The approach controller

of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended or
or cancelled and a
new flight plan submitted when the delay is in excess of:
30 minutes of the estimated off block time
968. "A surveillanc

surveillancee technique in which aircraft automatically
automaticall y provide, via data link, data
data derived f rom on-board
navigation and position-fixing systems, including aircraft identification, four-dimensional position and additional data as
appropriate"
approp riate" is the definition for:
Automatic Dependent Surveillance (ADS)
969. Aircraft in which wake

wake turbulence category shall include their category immediately after the call sign in the
initial radiotelephony contact with the aerodrome control tower or the approach control office prior to departure or
arrival.
Heavy aircraft
970. For visual approaches,

approaches, the following shall apply:
A) A visual approach
approach may only
only be requested
requested when
when the reported
reported ceiling is at or above
above the initial approach
approach altitude/level.
altitude/level.
B) When so requested by a pilot, ATC is obliged to clear the aircraft for a visual approach.
C) When cleared for a visual approach; the pilot has to maintain own separation to other aerodrome traffic.
D) Separation has to be provided by ATC between an aircraft cleared for a visual approach and other arriving and
departing aircraft.
D only
971. Under which circumst

circumstances
ances may a pilot deviate from a published instrument
If visual reference is established before the completion of the instrument approach procedure and the aircraft
is cleared for a visual approach
972. The expression "Expected

"Expec ted approach time (EAT)" is defined as foll
follows:
ows:
The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will leave the holding point to
complete its approach for a landing
973. The minimum radar separation provided between aircraft established on the same localizer
locali zer course,
disregarding additional longitudinal separation as required for wake turbulence, shall be:
2.5 NM
974. Which wake

wake turbulence radar separation minima shall be applied between a HEAVY aircraft and a succeeding
MEDIUM aircraft during the approach and departure phases of a flight?
5 nm
975. The definition of "Manoeuvring Area" is:

That part of an aerodrome to be used for take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, excluding apron(s)
976. Approach Control has the following duties:

Inform aircraft if the approach delay is greater than 30 minutes
977. What is an air traffic controller, using radar to provide ATC,

ATC, required to do prior to providing an aircraft with
ATC based on
on radar information?
information?
Radar identifies the aircraft and inform the pilot

978. Which of the following is not a valid SSR mode A squawk?
A5678
979. When radar capabilities at a given location so permit, the minimum radar separation of
of 5 NM may be reduced,
but shall not be less than:
3.0 NM
980. A MEDIUM wake wake turbulence aircraft is foll

following
owing a HEAVY category aircraft
aircraft on a radar vectored approach to
land. What is the radar separation minima to be applied?
Normal radar separation of 5 nm
981. Which of the following defines a visual approach?

When an instrument approach is not completed and visual reference to terrain is subsequently maintained
982. Which of the following would be described as aerodrome traffic?

traffi c?
All traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome
983. A request
request for a "clearance to maintain own
own separation
separation while
while in VMC" may be granted
granted by the appropr
appropriate
iate ATS
authority. This has to be agreed by the pilot of other involved aircraft.
984. Conditions are:

Airspace Class D and E, VMC, hours of daylight
985. A flight
flight is operating in IMC under IFR, exactly
exactly on the current
current flight plan
plan route.
route.
At 18:36 UTC the radar concontroller
troller gives
gives the following instruction: "Turn to heading 050,
050, maintain
maintain heading
heading 050 until
until
further advised". This message is acknowledged.
At 18:37 UTC a two two way communication
communication failure occurs.
occurs. Radio
Radio communication
communication cannot
cannot be re-established.
re-established.
The procedure to be followed is:
Return to the current flight plan route
986. To expedite the approach, an aircraft may be asked to:

Pass a specified point inbound at the previously notified time
987. An Expected Approach Time (EAT) will be transmitted by the most expeditious means to the aircraft
aircraft when it is
expected that it has to hold:
For 30 minutes or more
988. A change from IFR to VFR takes place:

On the initiative of the pilot in command of an aircraft
989. The pilot in command of an aircraft:

May depart from air regulations for safety reasons only
990. A Special Air Report shall be made:

When experiencing severe icing or severe turbulence
991. A change from IFR to VFR is initiated by:
The pilot in command

992. What is the minimum sep
separation
aration between a LIGHT or HEAVY aircraft
aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft taking off on
parallel runways, separated by less than 760 m/2500 ft?
2 minutes
993. The purpose of the NTZ is to:

Protect aircraft that are carrying out independent parallel approaches
994. An aircraft manoeuvering in an

an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. This
signifies that the aircraft must:
Not land because the airport is not available for landing
995. The registration mark shall be assigned by

State of Registry or a common mark registering Authority
996. A detailed description of

of the visual ground aids can be found in ICAO:
Annex 14
997. Which body

body of ICAO finalizes the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission and
adoption?
The Air Navigation Commission
998. If a state finds that is impracticable

impracticabl e to comply with an Internati
International
onal Standard:
It shall give immediate notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International
Standard
999. Does the liability of a carrier extend

extend to the carriage of mail and cargo as well as passengers?
Yes, but only on scheduled
scheduled flights (3rd, 4th and and 5th freedom
freedom flights)
flights)
1000. 6th Freedom of the Air is:

A combination of Freedoms 3 and 4. Revenue traffic flown between two treaty partner nations (C to A)
through carriers base nation (B)
1001. The ICAO Annex dealing with

with the registration
registrati on and marking of aircraft is:
Annex 7
1002. According
Accordi ng to the Chicago Convention,
Convention, aircraft of contracting
contracti ng states
states shall have
have the right to make flights
flight s into or
in transit non-stop across the territory of other contracting states and to make stops for non-traffic purposes without
the necessity of obtaining prior permission. This applies to the following flights:
To aircraft not engaged in scheduled international air services.
1003. In which area of Air Traffic Control in Europe does Eurocontrol have a logical and operationally essential role
to play?
Air Traffic Flow Management in Europe
1004. The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has committed
committ ed or is about
to
Maycommit, onsuch
deliver board the aircraft,
person to thean offense against
competent penal law:
authorities
1005. Which ICAO annex

annex is dedicated to facilitate the passage of passengers at the aerodromes?
Annex 9
1006. A carrier is liable for damage sustained

sustained in the event of death or wounding
wounding of a passenger if the accident that
caused the damage:
Took place on board the aircraft or in the course of any of the operations of embarking and disembarking
1007. According to Annex 6 Part I, "flight time" is defined as the total time from the moment an aeroplane:
First moves for the purpose of taking off until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight
1008. According to EU OPS, the pre-flight fuel calculation for a VFR flight for aeroplanes with
with reciprocating
reciprocati ng engines
must include a final reserve to fly
fl y for:
45 minutes
1009. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger

passenger seating configuration
configurati on is
61 to 200 seats must be equipped with at least:
3 hand fire extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment
1010. The ICAO Annex dealing with the safe

safe transport of dangerous goods by air is:
Annex 18

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1. The body of ICAO that considers and recommends modification

3. Cabotage refers to:

4. One of the main objectives of ICAO is to :

6. The Warsaw convention

7. Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO?

10. Any contracting

11. The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with:

12. The convention signed by the states and moved

13. The convention signed by the states and moved

17. The International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.)

18. The Second Freedom of the air as defined in the International

20. The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes;

21. The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibili

24. Which of the following ICAO documents contain International

28. Annex 14 to the convention on internati

29. The privilege to land for non-traffic purposes,

31. Annex 17 to the Convention of Chicago covers:

33. The privilege to fly across the territory of another participating

The first freedom of the air

34. The privilege to land in another ICAO participating

35. 5th freedom of the air is:

36. Which convention on international

38. The JAA is controlled by:

40. What is Cabotage?

42. What is Cabotage?

43. What does the second freedom of the air permit?

44. The Convention of Tokyo applies to damage:

45. What can the commander

49. The Convention defining

50. Any contracting

52. The right to damages is lost if an action is not brought within:

53. What flights

57. The loading limitations shall include:

58. Load factors have the following meaning:

59. According to ICAO Annex 8, a certificate

61. An aircraft having

62. Who is competent to issue a Certificate

64. The standards to Annex 8 (Airworthiness of Aircraft) relate to:

65. Which of the following statements

67. Which of the following is not found on the Certificate

68. Who is responsible for determining the continuing airworthiness of an aeroplane?

69. The continued validity

71. Validity and renewal of airworthiness certificates

72. The assignment of the common mark to a common mark registering

74. According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, n

75. When letters are used for registration

76. When letters are used for registration

81. When the first character of the registration

82. Which of the following registration

83. When the first character of the registration mark is a letter:

84. ICAO Annex 7 contains...

85. Which of the following is not found on the Certificate of Registration?

86. Annex 7 (Aircraft Nationality and Registrati

87. Under certain circumstances

88. When a contracting

89. You may act

90. The validity

91. The minimum age for obtaining a PPL is:

92. To be able to execute a public transport flight,

95. If a license holder is unable to perform the flight crew functions

authority must be informed:

96. The holder of a pilot license, when acting as co-pilot

99. One of the privileges of the holder of a Commercial Pilot