11.

With the pervasiveness of technologies nowadays, a

St. Louis Review Center, Inc. learner-centered instruction can be promoted. Which of
Eneelsus Bldg. Gen. Luna St., Davao City the following statements support this approach to
Tel. no. (082) 224-2515 or 222-8732 teaching?
I. It focuses on transformation of facts.
ED-TECH II. It supports the use of lecture and drill methods.
POST – TEST III. It gives emphasis on collaboration and authentic
assessment.
1. Which of the following statements is correct about the IV. Students work on tasks determined and controlled by
domains of educational technology? the teacher.
A. Design is the production stage while development is A. I and II only C. II and IV only
the planning stage. B. I and III only D. III and IV only
B. Both the design and development are the planning 12. Prof. Villamin’s students use cooperative learning, inquiry
stage, based and project-based learning approaches in creating
C. Evaluation is synonymous with implementation. their digital unit plans. What can be developed among
D. Utilization is the action phase. the learners through these approaches?
2. Ms. Cruz was hired in a well-equipped school but she has A. repetition and active learning
to start preparing her instructional materials before B. repetition & information delivery
classes begin. Which of the following is a systematic C. information processing and active learning
process in preparing her materials? D. construction of knowledge and information
A. design – utilization – evaluation - development exchange
B. design – development – utilization – evaluation 13. Which of these technologies are arranged from the most
C. development – design – utilization – evaluation symbolic to multisensory?
D. development – utilization – evaluation – design A. real objects, print, audio-visual materials, and visual
3. Ms. Briones is planning to integrate technology in her materials
Mathematics class. Which of the following would be her B. visual materials, audio visual materials, print and
second step? computers
A. set the objectives C. visual materials, print, audio-visual materials and
B. analyze the learners realia
C. utilize the materials with showmanship D. print, audio, visual materials, and computers
D. evaluate the performance of the students 14. Which group of technologies has the highest degree of
4. Which of the following should Ms. Gomez primarily abstraction?
consider in determining her teaching and learning A. book, imaginative literature, programmed
objectives and use of instructional media? instruction
A. the learner C. the instructional activity B. digital video, film, versatile compact disc
B. the teacher D. the instructional strategy C. video, pictures and television
5. Which is the best reason why teachers state the D. realia and computer
objectives before using instructional media? 15. Mrs. Soriano, a Grade V teacher prefers to use textbooks
A. To be able to practice how to operate the than other instructional materials. What could be her
equipment. reason for using it?
B. To determine which media to use best. A. Textbooks can be easily duplicated.
C. To prepare the materials beforehand. B. Textbooks quickly become updated.
D. To secure available materials. C. Textbooks address the needs of diverse students.
6. Ms. Villegas is thinking of an educational technology that D. Textbooks contain most of the materials they need
can relay information clearly to her class. Which principle to learn in the course.
will guide her in the selection of the material? 16. It is impractical to bring real objects to the classroom so
A. interest C. cost effectiveness Ms. Simangan constructed a threedimensional visual
B. meaningfulness D. communication effectiveness instead. Which of the following did she construct?
7. Mrs. Zinampan presented real samples of rocks when she A. cartoon C. graphic
discussed the different forms of rocks. What principle in B. chart D. model
the selection of instructional material did she apply? 17. If a teacher wants to teach her pupils the skill to organize
A. interest C. cost effective and integrate related concepts, which of the following is
B. B authenticity D. responsiveness the most appropriate graphic organizer to use?
8. Which of the following is a limitation of conventional A. timeline C. venn diagram
technologies in teaching and learning? B. fishbone D. semantic webbing
A. They pose problems on storage.. 18. Which graphic organizer is used to show how a series of
B. They are less abstract and more concrete. events interact to produce a set of results again and
C. They are readily available in the environment, again?
around school, and in the home. A. Series of events chart C. cycle
D. They provide hands-on learning experiences and B. Web D. timeline
emphasize real-world 19. Which instructional aid requires pupils to verbalize?
E. applications A. graphic C. . model
9. which of the following is not a contribution of technology B. diorama D. . video
to the learning process? . 20. Which of the following is inappropriate in using printed
A. The quality of learning can be improved visuals such as charts, graphs, and drawings?
B. The delivery of instructions can be more interesting A. Provide written or verbal cues to highlight important
C. The role of the teacher can be changed into a aspects of visuals.
demonstrator. B. Allow the students to pass the materials from one
D. The method of teaching and learning becomes more person to another.
interactive C. Use materials that everyone can see.
10. In what way can instructional aids foster learning? D. Present the material one at time.
A. Reinforce learning 21. Under what category will a globe as an instructional
B. Entertain students material fall?
C. Take the place of the teacher A. Realia C. solid model
D. Holds students in the classroom B. mock up D. cutaway model
22. Prof. Agustin would like to provide hands-on experience
on the expansion and contraction of matter. Which of
the following materials would be the best to use?
A. models C. realias
B. pictures D. slides
23. Ms. Sarah finds the chalkboard an effective instructional
material up to present. However, just like any other
materials, it also has its limitations. Which one is it?
A. It allows spontaneity, speed and change.
B. Absent students cannot keep up with their
assignments.
C. It is valuable for emphasizing the major points of the
lesson.
D. It can be used for displaying pictures and important
clippings.
24. With which learning style group are manipulatives MOST
effective?
A. Master style group
B. Interpersonal style group
C. Understanding style group
D. Self- expressive style group
25. Which does a pupil use when s/he sings a concept to a
familiar tune in order to help himself commit the concept
to memory?
A. rap C. pop
B. jingle D. lullaby
26. Prof. Arcilla would like to use audiocassette tape in
teaching a lesson in English. In which activity is
audiocassette tape very effective in the teaching-learning
process?
A. in developing listening skills
B. in teaching creative writing
C. in composing poems
D. in building concepts
27. Romalyn is going to discuss about The ADDIE Model to a
big class. She is planning to use a technology by which
parts of her presentation could be partly hidden to make
it more exciting and interesting. What do you think shall
she use?
A. model C. transparency
B. realia D. video
28. Marife wants to make a presentation material wherein
more additional transparent sheets with information can
be placed over a base transparency. Which one should
she make?
A. cut-out C. silhouette
B. puppet D. overlay
29. Which one is used with 2D and 3D materials?
A. Opaque projector C. digital projector
B. overhead projector D. slide projector
30. After watching the film, “Muro Ami’, the students of Mrs.
Tamaray are expected to show a demonstrative proof of
what they have learned. How is the technology used in
thissituation?
A. entertainment C. instructional
B. informational D. entertainment and informational
31. Self made charts and illustrations serve as universal aid
for bringing fascinating and exciting experiences in the
classroom. To tap the optimum potentials of these
materials, which of the following should be avoided?
A. Giving due consideration to lettering.
B. Presenting materials with accurate facts.
C. Giving more importance to austerity over legibility.
D. Focusing on the main idea of the lesson presented.
32. Kamyl used overhead transparencies when she
presented her assigned topic to class. What type of
educational technology are transparencies?
A. printed material C. projected material
B. graphic material D. non-projected material
33. Which instructional material/s is/are MOST fit in
contextualized learning?
A. TV C. pictures
B. Slides D. field trip
34. Ms. Villanueva wants to teach the students the
performance of a certain skill such as dancing. Which
technology would be the most appropriate and
convenient to use?
A. film C. television
B. video D. printed material
35. Slides are miniature transparencies. They can be created
with simple cameras and simple equipment. They display
color in a realistic manner. However, they also have
some limitations. Which one is it?
A. They can be easily updated and revised.
B. They can be adapted to group or to individual use.
C. They can get out of sequence if handled individually.
D. They can be combined with taped narration for
greater effectiveness.
36. Mrs. Santos used a film clip in teaching science concepts
to her Grade Six class. However, she found out that it
was inefficiently used in the classroom. When is a
technology considered inefficient?
A. When it makes viewing more interesting.
B. When it increases the time to master the lesson.
C. When it helps attain the objectives of the lesson.
D. When it enhances understanding of new lesson.
37. Prof. Manantan’s lesson in EPP is about “Pagtatanim ng
halaman” to her students. How can she make her lesson
more interesting and meaningful?
A. Have a viewing activity about the lesson.
B. Have them read their EPP book.
C. Give them a collaborative work.
D. Let them listen to a gardener.
38. Prof. Delos Santos would like her students to give more
accurate observations about plants in the environment.
Which technique would help her attain her objective?
A. Bring them to the garden.
B. Bring actual plants to class.
C. Show colorful pictures to the class.
D. Let the class read books about the topic.
39. Which of the following should be avoided in presenting
visuals?
A. Show visuals with an element of suspense.
B. Shut off the overhead projector when explaining
lengthily.
C. Present all the materials simultaneously to hold the
learners’ interest.
D. Erase any writing on the chalkboard or whiteboard
when you no longer need it.
40. After listing down the advantages and disadvantages of
computers, Mrs. Muñoz decided to purchase a computer
for her class. Which do you think is the last consideration
in purchasing the equipment?
A. Computers can make her more efficient.
B. Computers can be a form of entertainment.
C. Computers can enhance teaching and learning.
D. Computers can be used for interactive presentations.
41. Marnel prepares his school research works using
computer to submit his requirements on time. Does the
computer make him productive and efficient? Why?
I. Yes, because it can generate its own data.
II. Yes, because it can make one’s work easier.
III. Yes, because it can perform tasks fast and accurately.
A. I and II C. II and III
B. I and III D. I, II and III
42. Prof. Aguinaldo would like to integrate technology in
writing a friendly letter. How can he do it effectively?
A. Let the pupils surf a friendly letter from the Internet.
B. Have the pupils write a friendly letter and send it
through an email.
C. Have the pupils forward a downloaded friendly letter
to others via email.
D. Let the pupils write a friendly letter using word
processing and have it critiqued by
E. their peers.
43. Which of the following is known for its strength of giving
immediate feedback?
A. video C. digital encyclopedia
B. story book D. computer-assisted instruction
44. Which of the following computer-based instructional 55. Prof. Balagtas used worksheets, manipulatives and
material can be used to learn new concepts? models in teaching math to help her students understand
A. games C. simulation the lesson and love the subject. What did she bear in
B. tutorial D. drill and practice mind when she used these materials?
45. 45. Prof. Natividad would like to create a presentation A. appropriateness C. breadth
material for his lesson on the types of computer-assisted B. balance D. variety
Instruction. Which tool should he use? 56. Ms. Torres always makes sure that text, animation and
A. communicative tool C. productivity tool color do not confuse students in her presentation
B. Informative tool D. situating tool materials. Which principle is applied?
46. Prof. De Guzman uses an online learning approach by A. simplicity C. responsiveness
which content provides links to information at other B. variety D. cost effectiveness
locations and serves as a focal point for a distance 57. Mrs. Reyes, a librarian, informed the students as well as
education experience. Which of the following does he the teachers that several software are available for
use? classroom instruction and individual learning. Which
A. computer-aided instruction material is she referring to?
B. web-based instruction A. Computers C. Television set
C. self-paced program B. CD-ROM D. VCD and DVD players
D. teleconferencing 58. Susan’s mother tongue is a vernacular. Which of the
47. Mr. Villena searches for related literature by accessing following materials would be the most efficient and
several databases in the library computer that is effective material to learn a second language?
connected with other computers that have databases. A. interactive multimedia
How is this termed? B. pictures and print materials
A. CD ROM search C. mechanical search C. audio compact discs and radio
B. computer search D. online search D. printed materials and real objects
48. Which pair of tools provide synchronous 59. Computer can be a good tool for individualized
communication? instruction. Which of the following aspects can be a
A. chatroom and email deterrent for its full utilization in the classrooms?
B. email and bulletin board A. economic C. social
C. video conferencing and blogs B. physical D. technical
D. instant messaging and chatroom 60. With the increasing use of educational technology inside
49. Should Mrs. Reyes allow her pupils to surf the Internet in the classroom, what roles are expected of the teacher?
creating a group newsletter during her English class? A. facilitator C. knowledge giver
Why? B. demonstrator D. source of information
A. No, because pupils may just be exchanging messages 61. Which of the following technologies are properly
via email. classified?
B. No, because the pupils might open undesirable A. computers, compact discs, film, television
websites. B. imaginative literature, book, programmed
C. Yes, to allow the pupils to chat with their friends. instruction
D. Yes, as long as it is used effectively. C. versatile compact disc, printed material, diagram,
50. Which of the following should you ask yourself in sketches
evaluating the content of an instructional material? D. digital video, phonograph, compact discs, radio,
A. Do the materials reinforce learning effectively? audio tape
B. Are the materials of high technical quality? 62. Which of the following technologies are arranged from
C. Does the content match the curriculum? the most concrete to the most abstract?
D. Is it appropriate for the students? A. motion pictures, verbal symbols, visual symbols,
51. Which of the following statements does NOT describe radio, realias
educational technology? B. realias, visual symbols, television, motion pictures,
i. It includes hardware and software. still pictures
ii. It refers to the efficiency of teachers in using C. realias, motion pictures, still pictures, visual symbols,
computers verbal symbols
iii. It is the development, application, and evaluation of D. verbal symbols, still pictures, visual symbols, models,
systems, techniques and aids to improve human learning. motion pictures
A. i only C. Both ii and iii 63. Which is the best way to present instructional materials?
B. ii only D. Both i and iii A. concrete ->semi-concrete-> abstract->semi-abstract
52. What should Mr. Asuncion determine first in the B. semi-concrete-> concrete -> abstract-> semi-abstract
selection of media in teaching? C. abstract->semi-abstract-> semi-concrete-> concrete
A. needs of the students C. technique to be used D. concrete ->semi-concrete-> semi-abstract -> abstract
B. availability of the media D. objectives of the lesson 64. Which of the following technologies provide iconic
53. Which is the most important reason why teachers experiences?
preview materials to be used in class? A. videos and computer
A. To gain confidence in using them. B. books and periodicals
B. To encourage viewers to be more focused. C. audio and audio materials
C. To avoid potential problems that might occur while D. printed and verbal symbols
materials are in use. 65. How can Prof. Ubiña best promote the use of multimedia
D. To ensure appropriateness of the materials with the in teaching Science to her coteachers?
objectives and target audience. A. Sell multimedia at low cost.
54. After Ms. Raca planned her lesson in English, she found B. Demonstrate its use to them.
out that the materials at hand do not match her C. Explain the literature supporting its use.
objectives. Which is the best thing that she can do? D. Convince the principal to require the use of
A. Modify the available materials. technology.
B. Teach the lesson the following day.
C. Change the objectives to match with the available
materials.
D. Carry out the lesson as planned and use the
materials at hand.
66. There are countless things in the environment that you
and your students can use to learn from such as trees,
globes, pebbles, blocks etc. These real objects and
models are really effective if they are utilized properly.
Which of the following is incorrect about the use of real
objects and models?
A. Familiarize yourself with the object or model.
B. Allow passing of a single object around the class.
C. Make sure that objects/models are large enough to
be seen by the whole class.
D. Encourage students’ participation through
questioning and having students
E. decide the next step.
67. Aaron constructed a three dimensional material to
simulate the circulation of blood. Which of the following
did he construct?
A. A solid model C. mock-up model
B. cutaway model D. cross-sectional model
68. Which is a two-dimensional representation of the earth’s
geographic and/or political features?
A. globe C. mock-up
B. map D. model
69. You asked your students to illustrate what they have
understood from what they have read. Which of the
following non-projected visuals are you referring to?
A. printed visuals C. models
B. graphics D. realias
70. Which software should Dr. Balagtas to manipulate
numerical data in the computer?
A. Spreadsheet C. word processing
B. desktop publishing D. multimedia
71. Prof. Silva uses projected visuals such as OHP in
presenting her lesson. What could be her main reason in
using such an educational technology?
A. The materials are readily available.
B. Most visuals can be obtained at no cost.
C. It is more abstract than any other visuals.
D. She can easily prepare her own transparencies in
advance.
72. Ms. Pacheco showed a segment of matter in “sine
skwela” to her pupils without a follow-up activity. Thus,
the pupils got low in the test. What does this imply?
A. TV makes viewing enjoyable.
B. TV promotes mastery of the lesson.
C. TV induces alienation on the part of the learners.
D. TV is effective when learners attain the lesson
objectives.
73. Which activity is closest to the real thing?
A. hear C. watch a demonstration
B. view images D. perform in a presentation
74. Your department would like to purchase a computer set
as your project. Which of the following advantages of
computer will be your last consideration in purchasing it?
A. It can enhance the teaching and learning process.
B. It can be used for interactive presentation.
C. It can be used for research activity
D. It can be used for entertainment.
75. Prof. Orencia will have a digitized presentation to pre-
service teachers. Which of the following will make her
presentation appealing and effective?
A. Observe maximum use of animations and graphics
together.
B. Apply as many computer effects per slide as
possible.
C. Reinforce textual information with graphic
organizers.
D. Use as many color as possible.
76. Why are computers increasingly becoming pervasive in
schools nowadays?
A. Schools advocate the use of computers.
B. They increase efficiency and productivity.
C. Anybody can operate computers without formal
training.
D. Students have access to computers in school and at
home.
77. There are several reasons why teachers are reluctant in
using electronic media in the teaching-learning process.
Which is the most common reason?
A. The difficulty in integrating them in the curriculum.
B. The limited exposure of teachers to new equipment.
C. Their incompatibility to diverse needs of the
learners.
D. The excessive availability of local technology in the
community.
78. With the number of senses to be stimulated as criterion,
which one should be first in thelist?
A. multi sensory aid C. visual aid
B. audio-visual aid D. audio aid
79. Which of the following is considered in terms of technical
quality of a material?
A. stereotyping C. color and size of text
B. vocabulary level D. students’ achievement
80. Which statement is true about the opaque projector and
overhead projector?
A. An opaque projector allows more flexibility than an
overhead projector.
B. An overhead projector allows more flexibility than an
opaque projector.
C. Opaque and overhead projectors can
instantaneously project 3D visuals well.
D. The series of still visuals in an opaque projector are
arranged in a fixed pattern but not in an overhead
projector.
81. A grade II teacher wanted to show the parts of a seed by
using a large, wooden seed visual aid with detachable
cotyledons and tiny seed. Under what classification does
wooden structure fall?
A. assembly model C. realia
B. cutaway model D. solid model
82. Which term refers to a model which is constructed so as
to emphasize a particular part or function?
A. audio recording C. mock-up
B. simulation D, realia
83. Which is the best use of computers to students like you?
A. They are used for chatting and surfing the net.
B. They are used for research and collaboration.
C. They are used for playing online games.
D. They are used for watching movies.
84. Which statement makes technology ineffective in
student learning?
A. It develops higher thinking skills.
B. It prepares students for the workforce.
C. It enhances students’ collaborative skills.
D. It decreases achievement in content learning.
85. You plan to use instructional materials to a big class-size.
Which of these will you not use?
A. pictures C. 27-inch television
B. projection device D. computer with LCD projector
86. Computers can be classified according to the roles they
play namely communicative tool, informative tool, and
constructive tool. What is the other role of computes in
the options below?
A. instructional tool C. utility tool
B. situating tool D, application tool
87. Which of the following categories of CAI will you use in
your class if your objective is to increase proficiency in a
newly learned skill or refresh an existing one?
A. tutorial C. simulation
B. drill and practice . D. Instructional game
88. Which of the following is an ineffective use of
presentation software?
A. Darken the room
B. Use appropriate pacing
C. Read directly from the slides.
D. Allow interaction with the learner.
89. Which of the following is NOT an example of
communicative tool?
A. multimedia encyclopedia
B. teleconferencing
C. electronic mail
D. chat
90. Which is a characteristic of the teaching machines of B. F. A. Present problems which are relevant to learning
Skinner? objectives.
A. It does not need any feedback. B. Allow learners to select different content materials.
B. It requires teacher’s assistance. C. Provide a cooperative learning atmosphere.
C. It is meant for a collaborative work. D. Provide a scoring system.
D. It allows a student to learn at his/her own pace.
91. Why is one-way delivery of information a misuse of
communication tools? ***** THE END *****
A. because the teacher expects the student to study
more POST TEST
B. because it requires activities that focus on thinking ED-TECH
than responding 1. Which of the following statements is correct about the
C. because it enables the users to focus more on higher domains of educational technology?
level cognitive activities
D. because this kind of practice lessens interaction 1. D 51. B
capabilities of communication tools 2. B 52 A
92. Internet consists of thousands of connected computer 3 A 53 D
networks around the world. Which term does NOT refer 4 A 54 A
to Internet? 5 B 55 D
A. A. NET C. “Cyberspace” 6 D 56 A
B. B. Online D. “Information Superhighway” 7 B 57 B
93. Your class adviser is planning to have an asynchronous 8 A 58 A
communication with your classmates. Which technology 9 C 59 A
tools can she use? 10 A 60 A
A. chat and blog
11 B 61 B
B. chat and instant messaging
12 D 62 C
C. blog and video conferencing
13 D 63 D
D. electronic bulletin board and email
14 A 64 A
94. In your computer subject, you allow your class to chat as
a part of your motivation before discussing them the 15 D 65 B
roles of computer. How is chat used in this context? 16 D 66 B
A. Communicative tool C. Application tool 17 D 67 C
B. Informative tool D. Situating tool 18 C 68 B
95. Your mother wanted to finish her long dreamed course 19 A 69 B
but she wanted to do it at home during her free time. 20 B 70 A
How could you help your mother in pursuing her dream? 21 C 71 D
A. Encourage her to hire a helper so that she can attend 22 C 72 D
regularly to her class. 23 B 73 D
B. Give up your study so that your mother can attend 24 C 74 D
her classes. 25 B 75 C
C. Enroll her to the school where you enrolled. 26 A 76 B
D. Enroll her in distance education 27 C 77 B
96. The following statements are true about computer 28 D 78 A
conferencing. Which is an exception? 29 A 79 C
A. It refers to live student interaction with an expert. 30 C 80 A
B. It is also known as discussion forum or bulletin 31 C 81 A
board. 32 C 82 C
C. It also refers to online class discussions, forums or 33 D 83 B
debates 34 B 84 D
D. It permits two or more individuals to engage in
35 C 85 A
asynchronous text-based dialogue.
36 B 86 B
97. Which instructional tool application will you introduce to
37 C 87 B
your class if your objective is to help them find and use
38 A 88 C
information resources available in the internet?
A. Webquests C. Scavenger Hunt 39 C 89 A
B. Hybrid course D. Distance education 40 B 90 D
98. Maryjane is looking for an organized instructional 41 C 91 D
program in which the teacher and learners can be 42 D 92 B
physically separated. Which of the following will she 43 D 93 D
choose? 44 B 94 A
A. Distance Education 45 C 95 D
B. Uniform Resource Locator 46 B 96 A
C. Web Quests 47 D 97 C
D. Computer-Based Instruction 48 D 98 A
99. Prof. Ruscoe would like to show Rizal’s museum to the 49 D 99 A
students but due to financial constraint, she couldn’t 50 B 100 B
bring them there. What should she do to make the
teachinglearning process more realistic?
A. Conduct a virtual tour.
B. Use DVD with less resolution.
C. Show pictures of the museum to the whole class.
D. Go to the museum and relate all observations made.
100. Which of the following should you avoid if you were
asked to evaluate the effectiveness of an instructional
game after using it in teaching a lesson in high school
science?
 FILIPINO 24. Isang indihente ang tumawag ng aking pansin dahil sa
POST – TEST nakakatawang ayos nito.
a. Maralita c. mag-asawa
I. Panuto: Bilugan ang titik ng wastong sagot. b. Matanda d. paslit
1. Agad na sumigaw ang bata ____ makitang dumating ang 25. Naging Cum Laude si Memi dahil siya ay nagsunog ng
kanyang kapatid kilay gabi-gabi.
a. ng b. nang a. nagbubunot c. nag-aahit
2. Ang mga mag-aaral ay nagkasundo _____ sa iminungkahi b. puspos sa pag-aaral d. nag-aayuno
ng guro. 26. Parang balat-sibuyas ang kutis ng babaeng ito.
a. din b. rin a. namumula sa bilog c. mahaba at payat
3. Ang bawat tao _____ ay kailangang isakatuparan ang b. napakaputi at malinis d. pino at malambot
kanyang mithiin sa buhay. 27. Kapit-tuko sa isat’-isa habang naglalakad ang
a. Daw b. raw magkasintahang Heart at Echo.
4. Ang kirot ay unti-unti ______ nawawala. a. away nang away
a. ng b. nang b. mahigpit na magkahawak-kamay
5. Ayon kay Jose Rizal, ang mga bata _____ ang siyang pag – c. malayo ang agwat
asa ng bansa. d. patakbo
a. daw b. raw 28. Ang langitngit ng mga bintana ay gumigising nang lubos
6. Sa Sabado _____ gabi mawawalan ng kuryente. sa katahimikan ng silid-aralan.
a. ng b. nang a. Alatiit c. dekorasyon
7. Hindi na nakaramdam ng gutom si Kuya mula _____ siya b. kulay d. sira
ay natulog. 29. Mataginting na tinanggap ng batang paslit ang pangaral
a. ng b. nang ng guro.
8. _____ dalang pusa ang Inay nang umuwi. a. maingay c. mapayapa
a. May b. Mayroon b. pasigaw d. paismid
9. Maya-maya ay sisingaw _____ ang amoy ng Patay. 30. Ang paswit ay sa aso, ang Oo ay sa tao.
a. din b. rin a. Palo c. buto
10. Ang dunong ay kailangan ng tao ngunit kailangan _____ b. Sipol d. sigaw
niya ang tulong ng Maykapal.
a. din b. rin III. Ibinigay ang tamang sa mga tulang bayani
11. Sino ba ang sumisigaw _____ at nagtatakbuhan ang mga 31. Ang tawag sa mga tulang bayani
tao. a. dalit c. senakulo
a. doon b. roon b. epiko d. duplo
12. _____ tainga ang lupa, may pakpak ang balita. 32. Tinaguriang Joseng Batute ng Pilipinas
a. May b. Mayroon a. Jose Garcia Villa c. Jose Corazon de Jesus
13. Ang bawat tao sa mundo ___ ay dapat magkaunawaan b. Francisco Baltazar d. Modesto de Castro
para sa kanilang ikabubuti. 33. Mga sagisag na ginamit ni Rizal
a. Daw b. raw a. Piping Dilat c. Pudpod at Plaridel
14. Ang Pilipinas ay malakas ____ tulad ng Singapore kung b. Dolores Manapat d. Dimasalang at laong laan
karapatan ang Pag-uusapan. 34. Ang “ prinsipe” ng makatang Tagalog
a. din b. rin a. Modesto de Castro
15. Unti- unti ____ humuhupa ang kanyang galit. b. Francisco Baltazar
a. Ng b. nang c. Fernando bagong Lanta
d. Jose Garcia Villa
II. Ibinigay ang kahulugan ng salitang may salungguhit. 35. Siya ay tinaguriang “ Ama ng Balarila ng Wikang
16. Narinig ko ang alawat ng mga bata sa silid ng mag- Pambansa”
asawang Maria at Jose. a. Jose Villa Panganiban c. Severino Reyes
a. ingay c. sigaw b. Lope K. Santos d. Rafael Palma
b. mahinang alingawngaw d. tawanan 36. Isang dula noong panahon ng Hapon na isinulat ni
17. Ang Itay ay alimbuyaw nang dumating kanina. Francisco Soc Rodrigo
a. Aburido c. Patakbo a. Panibugho c. Panday Pira
b. Masaya d. sumigaw b. Sa pula, Sa Puti d. Luha ng Buwaya
18. Si Tj ay isang anluwagi nang mapangasawa ni Luisa. 37. Ama ng Katipunan
a. Guro c. karpintero a. Emilio Jacinto c. Apolinario Mabini
b. katulong d. pulis b. Andres Bonifacio d. Marcelo H. del Pilar
19. Kakarampot ang nakuha kong ulam sa mesa. 38. Isang uri ng panitikan na nagsasaad ng simulain ng mga
a. marami c. malalaki bagay o tao sa daigdig
b. katiting d. mamhahaba a. tula c. alamat
20. Alumpihit ang Itay habang hinihintay ang Inay. b. tibag d. maikling kwento
a. Kabang-kaba c. Di-mapalagay 39. Pinakabantog at pinakamahalagang awit na nasulat ni
b. Siyang- siya d. Tuwang-tuwa Francisco Baltazar
21. Iyon ang kinamihasnan ng babaeng iyon sa bundok kaya a. Senakulo c. duplo
di-makaunawa sa iyo. b. epiko d. Florante at Laura
a. natutuhan c. napag-aralan 40. Ang kauna-unahang Pilipinong manlilimbag
b. kinagawian d. nagustuhan a. Marcelo del Pilar c. Jose Maria Panganiban
22. Ang alipustahin ang mga dukha ay di kanais-nais na pag- b. Tomas Pinpin d. Emilio Aguinaldo
uugali. 41. Ang tawag sa ating unang alpabeto
a. layuan c. talikdan a. Alpabetong Romano c. Kartilya
b. apihin d. kagalitan b. Alibata d. Romanisasyon
23. Nakita kong pakimod na sumagot ang babae sa dalaga 42. Ang taong may “memorya fotograpica”
nang mag-usap sila. a. Jose Maria Panganiban
a. Paismid c. patawa b. Jose Garcia Villa
b. Pangiti d. pasigaw c. Jose Corazon de Jesus
d. Jose Rizal
43. “Ama ng Dulang Pilipino” 64.
a. Julian Balmaceda c. Lope K. Santos a. Istadyum c. Estadyum
b. Severino Reyes d. Emilio Jacinto b. Stadium d. estadium
44. Siya ay tinaguriang Joseng Sisiw 65.
a. Jose Villa Panganiban c. Jose dela Cruz a. Matematika c. matimatika
b. Pedro Paterno d. Modesto de Castro b. Mathematica d. matemateka
45. Ang kilalang epiko ng mga Muslim 66. Karamihan sa mga sugapa ay mula sa wasak na tahanan.
a. Hudhud c. Hinalawod a. malaki ang sita ng bahay
b. Darangan d. Bantugan b. maliit lamang ang bahay
46. Ang kauna-unahang aklat na nalimbag sa pilipinas c. magkahiwalay ang magulang
a. Pasyon c. Doctrina Christiana d. walng magulang
b. Barlaan at Josaphat d. Florante at Laura 67. Matagal na lumagay sa tahimik si Marcia. Ang ibig
47. Ama ng Wikang Pambansa sabihinay _______.
a. Emilio Aguinaldo c. Aurelio Tolentino a. matagal na namatay c. hindi na nagpakita
b. Manuel L. Quezon d. Florante at Laura b. nag-asawa na d. nanganak na
48. Ang “ Orator ng Pagbabago” 68. Alin ang salawikain sa sumusunod:
a. Graciano Lopez Jaena c. Urbana at Feliza a. Nasa Diyos ang awa
b. Mariano Ponce d. Jose Buhain Nasa Tao ang gawa
49. Isang dulang nagwagi ng kauna-unahang Gatimpalang b. Di-maliparang uwak
Palanca c. May puno walang bunga
a. Medusa c. Urbana at Feliza May dahon walang sanga
b. Tibag d. Hulyo 4, 1946 A.D d. Nag-bubuhat ng sariling bangko
50. Ang may-akda ng “Ang Cadaquilaan ng Dios” 69. Ang bagong alpabetong Filipino ay may ______ ng letra.
a. Emilio Aguinaldo c. Julian Felipe a. 20 b. 24 c. 28 d. 30
b. Marcelo H. del Pilar d. Lopez Jaena 70. Ito ay bahagi ng aklat na makikita sa likod. Ito ay talaan
51. Baston ni Adan Hindi mabilang-bilang ng lahat na mahalagang paksa kasama ang pahina. Ang
a. buhok c. dahon mga paksa ay nakasulat sa paalpabeto.
b. ulan d. palay a. Talatuntunan c. Talahulugan
52. Ang dalawa’Y tatlo na, b. Talatinigan d. Talaan ng nilalaman
Ang maitim ay maputi na 71. Isang kuwento ng ang gumagapang ay mga hayop na
Ang bakod ay lagas na kumikilos at nagsasalita na parang tao.
a. aso c. matandang tao a. Parabola c. kuwento
b. kalabaw d. punong kahoy b. pabula d. alamat
53. Ang anak ay nakaupo na 72. Ito ay isang uri ng dula na nawawakas a pagkamatay ng
Ang ina’y gumagapang pa pangunahing tauhan.
a. kalabasa c. sanggol a. komedya c. melodrama
b. saging d. aso b. epiko d. trahedya
54. Kung araw ay bumbong 73. Isang kuwento hango sa banal na kasulatan na umaakay
Kung gabi ay dahon sa tao sa matuwid na landas ng buhay. Ito ay may aral.
a. saging c. atip ng bahay a. Anekdota c. parabola
b. banig d. paying b. alamat d. sanaysay
55. Isang reyna 74. Isang tagisan ng mga talino sa pamamagitan ng katwiran
Nakaupo sa tasa sa pamamaraang patula.
a. kandila c. kasoy a. balagtasan c. tula
b. kapa d. santol b. talumpati d. duplo
56. Dalawang magkaibigan, 75. Si severino Reyes na lalong kilala sa tawag na Lola
unahan nang unahan. Basyang ay higit na kilala sa larangan ng:
a. trak c. bibig a. dulaan c. pag-awit
b. paa d. mata b. pagtula d. balagtasan
57. Dalawang bolang sinulid 76. Ang Kumitang ay isang uri ng awiting bayan. Ito ay may
Umaabot hanggang langit karaniwang inaawit sa:
a. bola c. lobo a. paghaharana c. paghehele
b. mata d. saranggola b. pakikidigma d. pamamangka
58. May ulong walang mukha 77. Ang senakulo ay isang panrelihiyon; ito ay naglalayon na
May katawan, walang sikmura a. ipaala ang kapanganakan ni Hesukristo
Namamahay nang sadya b. ipakita ang pagkakapatiran ng mga Kristiyano at
a. pako c. upo Muslim
b. palito ng posporo d. talong c. magsalarawan ngmga pinagdaanang buhay at
59. Bumili ako ng alipin kamatayan ni Hesukristo
Mataas pa sa akin d. magligtas sa mga kasalanan
a. payong c. sombrero 78. Sa akda niyang “Guryon”, ipinalintulad ni Idelfonso
b. atip d. bahay Santos ang Guryon sa:
60. Tubig sa ining-ining a. buhay ng tao c. anyo ng pagpapalipad
Di mahipan ng hangin b. tibay ng pisi d. hanging habagat
a. ilog c. ulan 79. “Unupo si Itim, sinulot ni Pula, heto na si Puti na bubuga-
b. balon d. dagat buga.” Ito ay halimbawa ng isang:
61. a. bugtong c. alamat
a. eskursiyon c. exkursion b. salawikain d. kuwentong bayan
b. iskursiyon d. excursion 80. “Ang sinuman ay makabubuo ng matibay na lubid kung
62. pagsasamahin ang sinulid.” Ang ibig sabihin ng
a. scout c. iskawt kasabihang ito ay:
b. escout d. skawt a. Mahirap magkaisa ang mga tao.
63. b. Madali ang gumawa ng lubid kung may sinulid
a. colisiyon c. koliseum c. Kailangan natin ang lubid sa ating mga Gawain.
b. kolisiyum d. coliseum d. Magkakaroon tayo ng lakas kung tayo’y magkakaisa.
81. “Ang taong nagigipit sa patalm kumapit.” Ano ang ibig 98. Kung ano ang “Urbana at felisa” sa mga tagalog ang
sabihin ng salawikaing ito: a. Lagda c. Bidasari
a. Ang kaligtasan ng taong nagigipit ay sa tapang ng b. Maragtas d. Hudhud
dibdib ay siya naman sa mga Bisaya.
b. Susuungin ng tao kahit ani mang panganib upang 99. Sa mga tauhan ng Noli Me Tangere ni Rizal, si
malunasan ang kanyang problema a. Basilio c. Capitan Tiago
c. Malapit sa panganib ang mga taong nagigipit. b. Elias d. Simon
d. Huwag makiharap sa taong nagigipit sapagkat siya ay Ang nagligtas kay Ibarra sa kapahamakan
siguradong galit 100. Ang aklat ng mga tinipong tula sa Tagalog ni Lope K.
82. Alin sa sumusunod ang hindi tuluyang anyo ng panitikan? Santos ay pinamagatang
a. korido c. kuwentong bayan a. Damdamin c. Tungkos ng Alaala
b. alamat d. maikling kuwento b. Puso at Diwa d. Mga Dahong Ginto
83. Tukuyin kung anong uri ng panitikan ang “Isang bayabas,
pito ang butas.” ***** THE END *****
a. Sawikain c. Salawikain
b. Idyoma d. Bugtong WORK HARD, DREAM HARDER
84. “Ano man ang tibay ng piling abaka ay wala ring lakas
kapag nag-iisa.” Isinasasaad ng salawikaing ito ang
kahalagaan ng : filipino
a. pagkakaisa’t pagtutulungan 1 B 51 B
b. tibay ng dibdib at lakas kahit nag-iisa 2 B 52 C
c. pagkakaroon ng lakas kahit nag-iisa 3 B 53 A
d. pagpapalakas ng loob lalo’t nag-iisa 4 B 54 B
85. Sa akin lipain doon nagmula 5 B 55 C
Lahat ng pagkain nitong ating bansa
6 A 56 B
Ang lahat ng tao mayaman o dukha
7 B 57 B
Sila’y umaasa sa pawis ko’t gawa.
Ano ang ipinahihiwatig ng saknong? 8 A 58 B
a. Lahat ng pagkain ay sa magsasaka nagmumula 9 B 59 C
b. Lahat ng magsasaka ay may lupang sinasaka 10 A 60 B
c. Lahat ng tao’t bagay ay galling sa lupa 11 A 61 B
d. Lahat ng umaasa sa biyayang galling sa magsasaka. 12 A 62 C
86. Ang kaibigan ko ay isa lamang maralita. 13 B 63 B
a. mangmang c. mabait 14 A 64 A
b. maliliit na tao d. mahirap 15 B 65 A
87. Si Nena ay inaruga ng kanyang lola mula pa noong siya’y 16 B 66 C
maulila. 17 A 67 B
a. pinabayaan c. inalagaan 18 C 68 A
b. pinamigay d. kinuha 19 B 69 C
88. Palasak na ang desenyong iyan. 20 C 70 A
a. pambihira c. magastos
21 B 71 B
b. pangkaraniwan d. wala sa moda
22 B 72 D
89. Ang mga salbahe ay kinamuhian niya
23 A 73 C
a. kinakalinga c. kinatatakutan
b. kinukumusta d. kinasusuklaman 24 A 74 A
90. Ang mga kawal na lumabag sa utos ay binigyan ng 25 B 75 A
babala. 26 D 76 B
a. sundalo c. kusinero 27 B 77 C
b. kaibigan d. pulis 28 A 78 A
91. Nangangamba ka ba na hindi ka niya pagbibigyan? 29 C 79 A
a. nasisiyahan c. nababanas 30 B 80 D
b. natatakot d. naiinis 31 A 81 B
92. Ang pagpunta sa Saudi Arabia ay di-gawang biro. 32 C 82 A
a. Madali c. mahirap 33 D 83 D
b. masayang Gawain d. maayos 34 B 84 A
93. Si Miguel ay sumakabilang buhay na noong Linggo. 35 B 85 D
a. nagpaalam c. nagpunta sa siyudad 36 B 86 D
b. namatay d. nagbayad ng utang
37 B 87 C
94. Bakit mukhang Biyernes Santo si Marko.
38 C 88 B
a. malungkot c. mukhang masaya
39 D 89 D
b. lumuluha d. tumatawa
40 B 90 A
95. Nakaririmarim ang nangyaring sakuna sa dagat.
a. nakalulungkot c. nakaiinis 41 A 91 B
b. nakatatakot d. nakapangingilabot 42 A 92 C
96. Ang dayuhang siyang pinakamatalik na kaibigan ni Rizal 43 B 93 B
ay 44 C 94 A
a. Austin Craig c. Otley beyer 45 B 95 D
b. Ferdinand Blumentritt d. Don Eulogio Despujl 46 C 96 B
97. Dahil sa tulong at pagmamalasakit ni 47 B 97 A
a. Dona Aurora A. Quezon 48 A 98 D
b. Tandang Sora 49 D 99 D
c. Luz B. Magsaysay 50 B 100 B
Sa kapakanan ng mga sinalanta ng sakuna, siyay
tinaguriang Ina ng Kruz na Pula.
 HUMAN GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT 14. This stimulation of action best explains the behavior of
POST-TEST April 2010 an individual to take what he perceives to be the shortest
route to his goals.
Multiple Choices: a. Recognition c. Response
b. Assimilation d. Motivation
1. The process by which certain potentials are inherited 15. The process by which an individual acquires the social
from the parents for his development and cultural heritage o the society where he belongs.
a. Life c. Heredity a. Socialization c. Integration
b. Birth d. Character b. Internalization d. Acquisition
2. This theory states that there are 8 basic development 16. Philosophy of education’s main function.
stages that the individual has to pass through his life a. Aid the leaner to build his own personal philosophy
a. Learning Theory b. Definition o goals and setting of directions from
b. Psychoanalytic Theory which education
c. Psychosocial Theory c. Educations carries on a lifetime cycle
d. Cognitive Development d. Provision of academic background prerequisite to
3. Transition age from childhood to adulthood where rapid learning
physical changes and sex maturity occur resulting in 17. According to Froebel, kindergarten is also known as
changes in ways of feelings, thinking and acting. “____________?
a. Puberty c. Early adulthood a. children have fun and enjoyment
b. Adolescence d. Stage V b. Garden where children could grow
4. Modifying an existing scheme after an individual’s c. He learning Center for Life
interaction with the environment, resulting in the d. Where new beginnings begin
creation of a new scheme. 18. Which of the following statements is given emphasis by
a. Assimilation c. Recognition “humanistic education?”
b. Interaction d. Accommodation a. The great works of man such as the classics should
5. Theory stating that a person’s behavior can be motivated be enjoyed.
by urges towards self satisfaction. b. Man should learn the different philosophies of
a. Psychoanalytic Theory education
b. Cognitive development theory c. “Build a man who is distinctly civilized, educations
c. Psychosocial Theory and refined”
d. Moral development theory d. Develop man into a thinking individual
6. The ability of a child to conceptualize the retention and 19. A teacher who advocates the pragmatic philosophy of
preservation of the same quantity under various education believes that experience should follow
changes. learning, thus, she has to?
a. Recognition c. Assimilation a. require her student mastery of the lessons
b. Reversibility d. Conservation b. encourage her students to memorize facts
7. Refers to the idea that no individual are exactly the same c. equip her students with basic skills and abilities
or alike. d. provide her student with opportunities to apply their
a. Cognitive theory c. Individual differences skills and abilities
b. Exclusivity theory d. Emotional quotient 20. How are institutions of learning encouraged to set higher
8. He is known as the Father of Modern I.Q. Test standards over and above the minimum requirement for
a. Lewis Terman c. Laurence Kohlberg state recognition?
b. Erick Erickson d. Martin Lesley a. Scholastic achievement
9. “Intellectual appreciative Experience” is … b. Faculty development
a. base on the premise that all learning has emotional c. Academic freedom
correlates d. Voluntary accreditation
b. obtained in the field of music, art and literature 21. The period of physical, especially sexual, and mental
c. the acquisition and retention o acts and information maturation which is characterized by rapid somatic
d. assumes that human activities are based on stimulus growth is known as
and response a. infancy c. puberty
10. These statements imply that children at the early b. early childhood d. adulthood
learning stage consider parents and teachers as 22. Claustrophobia is an irrational fear of
authorities and models. a. Darkness c. closed space
a. Parents and teachers should always coordinate b. strangers d. height
children’s activities 23. An eye defect characterized by clear vision in one
b. Parents should enforce strict discipline at home and dimension but unfocused vision on the other is called
teachers in school a. myopia c. hyperopia
c. Parents and teachers should be the role models at b. astigmatism d. presbyopia
all times 24. Which of the following statements does not apply to
d. Parents and teachers should always consult each adolescents?
other with regards the child’s intellectual a. they desire the approval of their peers
development b. they seek dependence on their parents
11. Any change in the behavior of an individual c. they have a marked sex development
a. Learning c. Change d. none of the above
b. Response d. Development 25. As young people mature, society expects them to
12. Which of the following principles IS NOT considered develop competencies and assume social roles in a
under Classical Conditioning by Ivan Pavlov? conventional manner.
a. Excitation a. expectation of parents
b. Adhesive Principle b. influence of peers groups
c. Stimulus Generalization c. influence of formal education
d. None of the above d. cultural demands
13. The reinforcement of a person’s responses by 26. The founder of the theory of psychology called
presentation or removal of rewards and punishment. psychoanalysis was
a. Operant conditioning c. Feedback Principle a. Lock c. Freud
b. Transfer of learning d. Discipline b. Hume d. leibnitz
27. When the learner reaches a point where no further 42. Hardship allowance is given to a teacher when
improvement can be expected, he is in a so-called a. he’s assigned in a depressed area
a. development crisis c. regression b. he’s given additional teaching load
b. learning plateau d. depression c. he’s in lahar area
28. Regarding the sexual maturation o boys and girls, d. he’s assigned in a hazardous area
teachers should bear in mind that: 43. The ability for quantitative learning of the relations of
a. girls mature at a late stage than boys facts taken from newspaper readings, letter writing and
b. girls mature at an earlier stage than boys the like is called:
c. boys and girls mature at the same time a. functional literacy c. Knowledge outcome
d. there are no marked differences in heir time of b. adjustment learning d. Social competence
maturity 44. A teacher who gives a uniform assignment to be worked
29. Rationalization is used by student who out by all learners in Arithmetic is not observing a
a. always give explanation or reason for their failures characteristic of a good assignment. Which characteristic
rather than own their faults is overlooked?
b. like to take the blame for their faults a. It should be definite
c. bribe their elders with promises b. It should be stimulating
d. substitute words for deeds c. It should emphasize the essential
30. Which of the following is true of Abnormal Psychology? d. It should provide for individual differences
a. it studies the cause of personality defects 45. If a student ask a question which the teacher does not
b. it measures the accomplishments of the individual have a ready answer, the latter should:
c. it concentrates on the scholastic performance of the a. dismiss the question as irrelevant
individual b. offer a bluff
d. it investigates the educational background of the c. admit the fact that he doesn’t know the answer
individual d. ask volunteers to answer the question and do
31. Which of the following is a continuous variable? research on it later.
a. weight c. nationality 46. The heredity traits acquired by a person in his lifetime;
b. sex d. race a. are transmissible to his offspring
32. Which of the following is true about one’s IQ? b. reappear in his future grandparent
a. it remains fairly constant c. Have no influence on the offspring
b. it is highly changeable d. Become recessive traits
c. it is affected by attitude 47. When student are given a chance to settle differences of
d. it is never constant opinion by discussion, they develop:
33. Transfer of training easily takes place if the activities a. fair play c. irritants
involved b. tolerance d. sociability
a. Are different 48. The school’s responsibility towards teenagers “gang age”
b. Have identical element is:
c. Occur in the same place a. provide the gang all the freedom it needs
d. Vary in difficulty b. gives classroom activities to give direction to out-of-
34. When the learner is well-motivated, he performs his task school youth activities
a. with indifference c. with arrogance c. supervise gang activities
b. with disinterest d. with enthusiasm d. set up norms of conduct or the member of the gang
35. A six-year-old child who has a mental age of eight years 49. In an intelligence test, a 13-year old girl got a score
has an IQ of equivalent to that of a 15-year old. This means:
a. 120 b. 130 c. 132 d. 133 a. that the girl must be accelerated
36. The ratio obtained by dividing mental age by b. that the girl is 2-years older mentally
chronological age times 100 is called c. that the girl has a chronological age of 15
a. derived quotient d. that she has a mental age of 13
b. deviation 50. Which statement is not necessary to achieve the
c. intelligence quotient or IQ learner’s interest in a learning activity?
d. intelligence ratio a. the activity must lead to a practical end
37. Which of the following was written by Plato? b. the activity must be within the ability of the learner
a. Sic et Non c. The Republic c. the activity must fill a need recognized by the learner
b. The School and Society d. Emile d. the learner must have the experience that will
38. Who among those below asserted that “Education is for furnish the background for the activity
complete living” 51. He is responsible for the theory which recognizes the
a. Dewey c. Kant importance of developing multiple intelligence
b. Spencer d. Froebel a. Jean Piaget c. Frederick Freobel
39. The right of an educational institution and its faculty to b. Howard Gardner d. Sigmund Freud
prescribe the methods/strategies of teaching refers to: 52. The need to recognize and develop special sensitivity to
a. building style language, thus helping the learners to use the right word,
b. choice of curriculum phrase and/ or graph to grasp new meaning refers to
c. academic freedom a. visual intelligence c. feelings sensitivity
d. co and extra curricular program b. linguistic intelligence d. jargon
40. The 1987 Constitution provides that religious institution 53. The sensitivity to tone and pitch, allowing one to
can be given produce musical scoring is intelligence in?
a. with the students’ consent a. musical c. quantitative exercises
b. with the parent/guardian approval b. verbal ability d. qualitative analysis
c. with mayor’s permit 54. One’s ability to do abstract reasoning and manipulate
d. with the school’s support symbols refers to what type of intelligence?
41. Public schools in the Philippines are the contribution of a. musical
which colonizer? b. personality identification
a. American c. Japanese c. mental ability
b. British d. Spanish d. mathematical-logical
55. The ability to perceive how objects are related in order to 66. Learning-disabled children most characteristically have:
mentally perceive what is seen, thus creating concrete a. low IQ
visual images from memory refers to? b. poor socio-economic backgrounds
a. visual-spatial intelligence c. an average level of intelligence
b. musical d. minimal brain damage
c. language 67. Which of the following is true about educable mentally
d. logical reasoning retarded children?
56. The capacity to analyze one’s feelings and thus be able to a. Their IQ range between 50 and 70
understand and be able to know the motives of other b. They have short attention spans and experience
people’s actions. difficulty in generalizing
a. spatial c. logical c. Their reading, writing, and arithmetic skills cannot be
b. personal d. diametric improved
57. The type of intelligence which enables a person to d. A and B above
understand other person’s feelings, behavior and 68. Which of the following is characteristics of a dyslexic
motivation. child
a. emotional c. social intelligence a. Mirror writing
b. spatial d. quantitative and qualitative b. listlessness
58. The type of intelligence which characterizes actress, c. Below-average intelligence
actors, mimes, dancers and people of the Arts? d. Hyperactivity
a. bodily-kinesthetic c. research 69. Primary reading retardation is presumed to be
b. scientific d. emotions neurologically based, related to parietal lobe
59. An emerging thrust in determining one’s personality, dysfunction?
whether pleasant or unwholesome, this type of a. Inability to relate sound to letter symbols
personality measurement is the wholesomeness of one’s b. Inadequate auditory information processing
virtues, i.e., values, relationships with other, adjustments c. Left-right directional confusion
to varying situations, behavior an motivations d. Speech aphasia
a. emotional quotient (E.Q.) 70. Students with secondary reading problems have capacity
b. intelligence quotient (I.Q.) to read, but are non-readers because of:
c. maladjustment personality a. auditory problems
d. anticipated behavior b. congenital defects
60. It is a measurement of personality which is the result by c. visual-acuity impairment
dividing the mental age by the chronological age. d. environmental or emotional actors
a. emotional quotient (E.Q.) 71. If a teacher accepts Maslow’s theory on the hierarchy of
b. intelligence quotient (I.Q.) needs, he or she will probably structure objectives to:
c. multiple Intelligence a. meet both the physiological and intellectual needs of
d. forecasted behavior quotient students
61. The teacher must be aware that both heredity and b. eliminate testing
environment represent complex factors, exerting many c. eliminate extrinsic motivations
specific influences on an individual’s growth. Which of d. maintain a certain anxiety level for increased
the following statements best represents the influence of competition
heredity and environment? 72. The knowledge explosion has led to crowding more and
a. Heredity counts; environment is less important. more information into curriculum courses. A likely result
b. If the environment is changed, heredity becomes is that:
less important. a. the textbook will no longer be the main instructional
c. The relative influences of heredity and environment medium in many classes
can vary widely in an individual’s growth. b. the child may spend more time in school
d. In the long run, both tend to cancel each other’s c. the teacher may have to rely more on the se of
influences multimedia materials
e. None of the above d. all of the above
62. The best possible way to measure the influence of 73. During the learning process the teacher has most control
heredity is by: over:
a. keeping the environment constant. a. the learners
b. Ignoring the environment b. the learning environment
c. Studying only fraternal o normal capability c. the learning process
d. Studying only identical twins of normal capability d. the behavior of the learners
e. Doing none of the above 74. Which of the following conditions does NOT contribute
63. Educators who contributed to the “open education” to a climate psychologically suited to learning?
movement includes: a. The teacher acts like a “real person.”
a. Neill and piaget c. Bruner and Silberman b. The teacher makes all of the decisions about
b. Kohl and kozol d. All of the above students’ learning activities.
64. A child’s social skills can be measured by: c. The teacher accepts students as they are
a. direct observation and parent-teacher conferences d. The teacher shows trust in students’ decisions
b. psychological test
c. adaptive behavior scales
d. A and C above
65. A teacher uses behavioral modification techniques in his
classes. Which of the following student behaviors would
he find most difficult to change?
a. Aggressive tendencies toward classmates
b. Poor habits in organizing work materials
c. Interrupting a speaker
d. Abandoning a project before it is finished
75. William Glasser advocates the frequent use of classroom
meetings, with teacher and students sitting in a small
circle. Which one of the following types of discussion
would NOT be appropriate in such a setting?
a. An educational-diagnostic conference on the
learning weaknesses of individual students.
b. An open-ended meeting for the purpose of exploring
and discussing student’s ideas about the curriculum
c. A social-problem-solving meeting to resolve teacher
or student problems elating to the school, the class,
or any individual member.
d. A sensitivity-training meeting for the purpose of
helping students ace their school-related problems
and learn how their actions can affect others
76. Which of the following does NOT represent a teacher’s
contribution to the emotional environment of the
classroom?
a. A strident, compelling voice.
b. A sustained sense of expectation where student
achievement is concerned
c. A well-written lesson plan
d. A sense of humor in a tense situation
77. According to Jones, student commitment to
accomplishing a learning goal depends on all of the
following EXCEPT:
a. how interesting the goal is
b. how likely it seems that the goal can be
accomplished
c. what degree of challenge the goal presents
d. whether the learner will be able to tell if the goal has
been accomplished
e. whether materials are ready assembled for
undertaking the goal
78. The teacher who understands the adolescent’s need to
conform will:
a. use sarcasm as a disciplinary device
b. disregard unique responses in discussion and on
examinations
c. establish a learning climate that fosters feelings of
security
d. lecture students on their weakness o character
79. The best public relations agents for a school are the:
a. pupils c. PTA members
b. Teachers and pupils d. principals
80. The structured curriculum is in decided contrast to the
child-centered curriculum, which:
a. emphasizes fundamental education
b. is changeable and is built around student interest
and needs
c. is oriented to the needs of a democratic society.
d. Utilizes the theory of mental discipline
81. According to Bruner, teacher working with young
children should
a. Push the children to maximum cognitive
development as rapidly as possible
b. Present all information verbally so the children will
listen well
c. Present new material from the concrete to the
abstract
d. Present new information from the abstract to the
concrete
82. from the educational viewpoint, intelligence is:
a. an abstract concept
b. a trait that can be manipulated
c. good judgment
d. a form of behavior
83. Every taxonomy of educational objectives:
a. describes increasingly difficult learning activities
b. describes levels of goals for learner development
c. suggest evaluation measure for teacher use
d. Classifies learning outcomes
84. A mathematics teacher following Gagne’s theory of
learning believes that:
a. learning can take place under all conditions
b. learning is mainly a mater of accurate discrimination
c. learning takes place only when the student is in a
receptive state
d. learning is reinforced chiefly by classical conditioning
85. Under which of the following conditions is a child’s IQ
more likely to increase?
a. If the emotional climate in the classroom improves
b. If the child is given a large “research” project.
c. If the child enjoys problem solving and is given
ample opportunity for it
d. If A and C are true
86. Intelligence is the basis of education. Education is the
effective means for national development, hence, a
country spends a large portion of its budget for the
systematic training of the learner to attain full
development
Why is education one major concern of every c
country? Because
a. intelligence has many facets
b. intelligence is useful in testing
c. intelligence is a safe gauge for budgetary allocation
d. intelligence test when carefully conducted, can help
in determining need for future facilities for national
building
87. There are no two individuals who are the same.
Individual differences, when early recognize and
provided for, enable the teacher to provide different
motivations and approaches in guiding the learning
process. Each pupil differs physically, mentally, socially
and emotionally from other children. Unless the teacher
provides for this nature of the learner, no amount of
modern approaches in teaching can elicit favorable
results.
a. The paragraph highlights the need or motivating
learning
b. Individual differences is an important consideration
in guiding the learner
c. The above paragraph focuses on teacher-pupil
relationship
d. It takes about the nature of the learning process
88. Robert Craig, et al, wrote of the phase of steps in every
learning process. These include: 1.) the focusing of
attention to the stimulation at hand, 2.) the interplay of
the learner and the social factors that surround him, 3.)
the acquisition of a new response or behavior he gives to
the new learning and 4.) Retention which presupposes
that the new learning is acquired.
The above paragraph emphasizes
a. the learning process
b. the steps/phase of how individuals learn
c. the manifestations of learning
d. why learning is a difficult process
89. Approaches in teaching change from time to time
depending on the traditional of sophistication attached
to the course being taught. Some mentors believe that
the tie tested ways to teaching is effective. Other are
easily carried away to use modern approaches in
imparting new subject matter. It maybe safe to conclude
that once results are realized in teaching, no specific
method can be considered the one-and-only method to
use.
When teaching a subject area, it is safe to
a. stick to the traditional way
b. be modern and most recent
c. get results in teaching
d. to try any method as they are all theories after all
90. In the early 1980’s programmed teaching became
popular in helping teachers to provide for individual ***** THE END *****
differences in learners. The chunks of the subject matter
which are divided into units are supposed to help the WORK HARD, DREAM HARDER
learner master the lesson, since it is simply to understand
the frame of the lessons. No test o mastery of the units
are done because the purpose is to provide information human growth and development
on certain subject matter 1 c 51 c
Would you as a teacher use programmed instruction 2 c 52 b
if you handle a subject on Values Education? 3 b 53 a
a. yes, definitely 4 d 54 d
b. no, not important for the subject matter
5 a 55 a
c. I don’t know
6 d 56 b
d. Why not if the subject matter calls for it
7 c 57 c
91. The data/subject matter to teach are gathered in
different ways, These include historical sources like 8 a 58 a
surveys, systematic observations, experimentation, 9 a 59 a
interviews, etc. to be reliable and valid, the data 10 c 60 b
collected must be organized, properly analyzed and 11 a 61 c
interpreted. From these processes, some conclusion or 12 d 62 d
generalization are done to reveal certain relationships 13 c 63 d
like cause & effect. Data gathering involves: 14 d 64 d
a. tedious and serious study 15 a 65 a
b. easy does it 16 b 66 c
c. data gathered are tested and filed, then verified 17 a 67 d
before being used
18 c 68 a
d. no follow-up needed
19 d 69 d
92. Heredity and environment play important roles in the
20 d 70 d
function of human beings. DNA or Deoxyribonucleic Acid
is the biological (heredity) band of our genes. Our 21 c 71 a
environment includes the house, school and the 22 c 72 d
community where we live. Whether we become 23 b 73 b
successful or a failure will depend on the interplay of 24 b 74 b
both nature and nurture. 25 d 75 a
If heredity and environment affect the individual, 26 c 76 c
thus, we can conclude that 27 b 77 e
a. both actors play equal roes in one’s life 28 b 78 c
b. one factor, either heredity or environment exerts 29 a 79 b
more influence than the other
30 a 80 b
c. neither factor is important
31 a 81 c
d. nurture and nature are the same
32 a 82 a
93. The first systematic philosopher to work in the field of
education was 33 b 83 b
a. Socrates c. Plato 34 d 84 c
b. Aristotle d. Rousseau 35 d 85 d
94. The first state in the world’s history where all human 36 c 86 d
capabilities were allowed to develop freely 37 c 87 b
a. Rome c. Sparta 38 b 88 b
b. Athens d. Germany 39 c 89 c
95. They are the most practical, pragmatic people who 40 b 90 b
absorbed themselves in the management of their state 41 a 91 a
affairs 42 c 92 a
a. Spartans c. Romans 43 d 93 c
b. Athens d. Chinese 44 d 94 b
96. Invented the first system of writing in the orient 45 a 95 c
a. Phoenicians c. Greeks
46 a 96 b
b. Chinese d. Romans
47 b 97 b
97. first to introduce the use of printing press in the
48 b 98 c
Philippines
a. Romans c. Greeks 49 b 99 b
b. Chinese d. Japanese 50 a 100 b
98. conducted the world’s first civil service test
a. Greeks c. Chinese
b. Romans d. English
99. To develop the capacity of man only for war was the
educational aim of the ancient
a. Romans c. Athenians
b. Spartans d. Chinese
100. To produce a young man who would be charming
in person and graceful in manner, e.g. a beautiful soul in
a beautiful body is the educational aim of education of
the
a. Romans c. Spartans
b. Athens d. Italians
 LICENSURE EXAMINATION FOR TEACHERS (LET)

Refresher Course

Content Area: MATHEMATICS

Focus: ANALYTIC GEOMETRY
Prepared by: Daisy de Borja-Marcelino
Competencies:
1. Solve problems involving coordinates of a point, midpoint of a line segment, and distance between two
points.
2. Determine the equation of the line relative to given conditions: slope of a line given its graph, or its
equation, or any two points on it.
3. Determine the equation of a non-vertical line given a point on it and the slope of a line, which is either
parallel or perpendicular to it.
4. Solve problems involving
a. the midpoint of a line segment, distance between two points, slopes of lines, distance between a
point and a line, and segment division.
b. a circle, parabola, ellipse, and hyperbola.
5. Determine the equations and graphs of a circle, parabola, ellipse and hyperbola.

I. The Cartesian Plane

Below is a diagram of a Cartesian plane or a rectangular coordinate system, or a coordinate plane.

The two axes separate the plane into

four regions called quadrants. Points can lie in
one of the four quadrants or on an axis. The
points on the x-axis to the right of the origin
correspond to positive numbers; while to the left
of the origin correspond to negative numbers.
The points on the y-axis above the origin
correspond to positive numbers; while below
the origin correspond to negative numbers.
An ordered pair of real numbers, called the coordinates of a point, locates a point in the Cartesian plane. Each
ordered pair corresponds to exactly one point in the Cartesian plane.

The following are the points in the figure on the right:

A(-6,3), B(-2,-3), C (4,-2), D(3,4), E(0,5), F(-3,0).

For numbers 1-2, use the following condition: Two insects M and T are initially at a point A(-4, -7) on a Cartesian
plane.

1. If M traveled 7 units to the right and 8 units downward, at what point is it now?
Solution: (-4+7, -7-8) or (-3,-15)
2. If T traveled 5 units to the left and 11 units downward, at what point is it now?
Solution: (-4-5, -7-11) or (-9, -18)

II. The Straight Line

A. Distance Between Two Points

A. The distance between two points (x1,y1) and (x2,y2) is given by ( x1  x2 ) 2  ( y1  y2 ) 2 .
Example: Given the points A(2,1) and B(5,4). Determine the length AB.

Solution: AB = 2  52  1  42   92   32  9  9  18 or 9  2 or 3 2 .

Exercises: For 1-2, use the following condition: Two insects L and O are initially at a point (-1,3) on a Cartesian plane.
1. If L traveled 5 units to the left and 4 units upward, at what point is it now?
A) (-6, 7) B) (4, 7) C) (-6, -1) D) (4, -7)

2. If O traveled 6 units to the right and 2 units upward, at what point is it now?
A) (7, 5) B) (5,5) C) (-7, 5) D) (-5, -5)

St. Louis Review Center-Inc-Davao Tel. no. (082) 224-2515 14

3. Two buses leave the same station at 9:00 p.m. One bus travels at the rate of 30 kph and the other travels at 40 kph. If
they go on the same direction, how many km apart are the buses at 10:00 p.m.?
A) 70 km B) 10 km C) 140 km D) 50 km

4. Two buses leave the same station at 8:00 a.m. One bus travels at the rate of 30 kph and the other travels at 40 kph. If
they go on opposite direction, how many km apart are the buses at 9:00 a.m.?
A) 70 km B) 10 km C) 140 km D) 50 km

5. Two buses leave the same station at 7:00 a.m. One bus travels north at the rate of 30 kph and the other travels east at
40 kph. How many km apart are the buses at 8:00 a.m.?
A) 70 km B) 10 km C) 140 km D) 50 km

6. Which of the following is true about the quadrilateral with vertices A(0,0), B(-2,1), C(3,4) and D(5,3)?
i) AD and BC are equal
ii) BD and AC are equal
iii) AB and CD are equal

A) both i and iii B) ii only C) both ii and iii D) i, ii, and iii

7. What is the distance between (-5,-8) and (10,0)?

A) 17 B) 13 C) 23 D) -0.5

B. Slope of a line
y1  y2 y  y1
a) The slope of the non-vertical line containing A(x1,y1) and B(x2,y2) is m or m  2 .
x1  x2 x2  x1
b) The slope of the line parallel to the x-axis is 0.
c) The slope of the line parallel to the y-axis is undefined.
d) The slope of the line that leans to the right is positive.
e) The slope of the line that leans to the left is negative.

C. The Equation of the line

In general, a line has an equation of the form ax + by + c = 0 where a, b, c are real numbers and that a and b
are not both zero.

D. Different forms of the Equation of the line

 General form: ax + by + c = 0.
 Slope-intercept form: y = mx + b, where m is the slope and b is the y-intercept.
 Point slope form: y  y1  m( x  x1 ) where (x1, y1) is any point on the line.
y2  y1
 Two point form: y  y1  ( x  x1 ) where (x1, y1) and (x2, y2) are any two points on the line.
x2  x1
x y
 Intercept form:   1 where a is the x-intercept and b is the y-intercept.
a b

Reminders:
 A line that leans to the right has positive slope. The steeper the line, the higher the slope is.

p q r
The slopes of lines p, q, r are all positive. Of the three slopes, the slope of line p is the lowest, the slope of r is the
highest.

 A line that leans to the left has negative slope. The steeper the line, the lower the slope is.

t s u

The slopes of lines t, s, u are all negative. Of the three slopes, t is the highest, while u has the lowest (because the values
are negative.)

Exercises
St. Louis Review Center-Inc-Davao Tel. no. (082) 224-2515 15
1. What is the slope of 5x - 4y + 12 = 0 ?
A)1.25 B) -1.25 C) 0.8 D) -0.8

2. What is the slope of x = -9?

A) 4 B) 1 C) 0 D) undefined

3. What is the slope of y= 12?

A) 7 B) 1 C) 0 D) undefined

x y
4. What is the slope of + = 1?
4 9
A) 0.4 B) 2.25 C) - 0.4 D) - 2.25

E. Parallel and Perpendicular lines

Given two non-vertical lines p and q so that p has slope m1 and q has slope m2.
 If p and q are parallel, then m1 = m2.
 If p and q are perpendicular to each other, then m1m2 = -1.

F. Segment division
Given segment AB with A(x1,y1) and B(x2,y2).
x1  x2 y1  y2
 The midpoint M of segment AB is M( , ).
2 2
r AP r1
 If a point P divides AB in the ratio 1 so that  , then the coordinates of P(x,y) can be obtained using
r2 PB r2
r x  r2 x1 r y  r2 y1
the formula x  1 2 and y  1 2 .
r1  r2 r1  r2
G. Distance of a point from a line

The distance of a point A(x1,y1) from the line Ax + By + C = 0 is given by

Ax1  By1  C
d .
A2  B 2
Exercises

1. Write an equation in standard form for the line passing through (–2,3) and (3,4).
a. 5x – y = -13 b. x – 5y = 19 c. x – y = -5 d. x – 5y = –17

2. Write an equation in slope intercept form for the line with a slope of 3 and a y-intercept of 28.
a. y = –3x + 28 b. y = 0.5x + 28 c. y = 3x + 28 d. y = 3x + 21

3. Write the equation in standard form for a line with slope of 3 and a y-intercept of 7.
a. 3x – y = –7 b. 3x + y = 7 c. 3x + y = 7 d. –3x + y = –7

4. Which of the following best describes the graphs of 2x – 3y = 9 and 6x – 9y = 18?

a. Parallel b. Perpendicular c. Coinciding d. Intersecting

5. Write the standard equation of the line parallel to the graph of x – 2y – 6 = 0 and passing through (0,1).
a. x + 2y = –2 b. 2x – y = –2 c. x – 2y = –2 d. 2x + y = –2
6. Write the equation of the line perpendicular to the graph of x = 3 and passing through (4, –1).
a. x – 4 = 0 b. y + 1 = 0 c. x + 1 = 0 d. y – 4 = 0
7. For what value of d will the graph of 6x + dy = 6 be perpendicular to the graph 2x – 6y = 12?
a. 0.5 b. 2 c. 4 d. 5

III. Conic Section

A conic section or simply conic, is defined as the graph of a second-degree equation in x and y.

In terms of locus of points, a conic is defined as the path of a point, which moves so that its distance from a fixed
point is in constant ratio to its distance from a fixed line. The fixed point is called the focus of the conic, the fixed line is
called the directrix of the conic, and the constant ratio is called the eccentricity, usually denoted by e.

If e < 1, the conic is an ellipse. (Note that a circle has e=0.)

If e = 1, the conic is a parabola.
If e > 1, the conic is hyperbola.

A. The Circle

1. A circle is the set of all points on a plane that are equidistant from a fixed point on the plane. The fixed point is
called the center, and the distance from the center to any point of the circle is called the radius.

St. Louis Review Center-Inc-Davao Tel. no. (082) 224-2515 16

 2. Equation of a circle
2 2
a) general form: x + y + Dx + Ey + F = 0
2 2 2
b) center-radius form: (x – h) + (y – k) = r where the center is at (h,k) and the radius is equal to r.

3. Line tangent to a circle

A line tangent to a circle touches the circle at exactly one point called the point of tangency. The tangent line is
perpendicular to the radius of the circle, at the point of tangency.

Exercises
y
For items 1-2, use the illustration on the right. 2

1.5

1. Which of the following does NOT lie on the circle?

1
a. (3,-1) b. (3,0)
0.5
c. (2,-1) d. (3,-2)
0 x
-3.5 -3 -2.5 -2 -1.5 -1 -0.5 0 0.5 1 1.5 2 2.5 3 3.5

2. What is the equation of the graph? -0.5

a. y  x  3  1
2
b. ( y  1)  x  3  1
2
-1

c. ( y  1)  x  3  1 d. ( y  1)  x  3  1
2 2 -1.5

-2

B. The Parabola

1. Definition. A parabola is the set of all points on a plane that are equidistant from a
fixed point and a fixed line of the plane. The fixed point is called the focus and the fixed line is the directrix.

2. Equation and Graph of a Parabola

2
a) The equation of a parabola with vertex at the origin and focus at (a,0) is y = 4ax. The parabola opens to
the right if a > 0 and opens to the left if a < 0.
2
b) The equation of a parabola with vertex at the origin and focus at (0,a) is x = 4ay. The parabola opens
upward if a > 0 and opens downward if a < 0.
2
c) The equation of a parabola with vertex at (h , k) and focus at (h + a, k) is (y – k) = 4a(x – h).
The parabola opens to the right if a > 0 and opens to the left if a < 0.
2
d) The equation of a parabola with vertex at (h , k) and focus at (h, k + a) is (x – h) = 4a(y – k).

e) The parabola opens upward if a > 0 and opens downward if a < 0.

2 2
f) Standard form: (y – k) = 4a(x – h) or (x – h) = 4a(y – k)
2 2
g) General form: y + Dx + Ey + F = 0, or x + Dx + Ey + F = 0

3. Parts of a Parabola

a) The vertex is the point, midway between the focus and the directrix.

b) The axis of the parabola is the line containing the focus and perpendicular to the directrix. The parabola is
symmetric with respect to its axis.

c) The latus rectum is the chord drawn through the focus and parallel to the directrix (and therefore
perpendicular to the axis) of the parabola.
2
d) In the parabola y =4ax, the length of latus rectum is 4a, and the endpoints of the latus rectum are (a, -2a)
and (a, 2a).

In the figure at the right, the vertex of the parabola is the origin,
the focus is F(a,o), the directrix is the line containing LL' ,
the axis is the x-axis, the latus rectum is the line containing CC ' .

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 16
The graph of x2   y. 2
The graph of (y-2) = 8 (x-3).
3

C. Ellipse

1. An ellipse is the set of all points P on a plane such that the sum of the distances of P from two fixed points F’ and F on
the plane is constant. Each fixed point is called focus (plural: foci).

2. Equation of an Ellipse

a) If the center is at the origin, the vertices are at ( a, 0), the foci are at ( c,0), the endpoints of the minor axis
x2 y2
are at (0,  b) and b 2  a 2  c 2 , then the equation is   1.
a 2 b2
b) If the center is at the origin, the vertices are at (0,  a), the foci are at (0,  c), the endpoints of the minor axis
x2 y2
are at ( b, 0) and b 2  a 2  c 2 , then the equation is   1.
b2 a 2
c) If the center is at (h, k), the distance between the vertices is 2a, the principal axis is horizontal and
( x  h) 2 ( y  k ) 2
b 2  a 2  c 2 , then the equation is   1.
a2 b2
d) If the center is at (h, k), the distance between the vertices is 2a, the principal axis is vertical and
( y  k ) 2 ( x  h) 2
b  a  c , then the equation is
2 2 2
  1.
a2 b2

4. Parts of an Ellipse 2 B(0,b 2

(c, ba ) (c, ba )
For the terms described below, refer to the ellipse )
shown with center at O, vertices at V’(-a,0) and V(a,0),
foci at F’(-c,0) and F(c,0), endpoints of the minor axis
V’(- F’(- O F(c,0 V(a,0 x
at B’(0,-b) and B(0,b), endpoints of one latus rectum
a,0) c,0) ) b2 )
b2 b2 ( c,  a )
2
(c, ba )
at G’ (-c,  ) and G(-c, ) and the other at B’(0,-
a a
b)
b2 b2
H’ (c,  ) and G(c, ).
a a

a) The center of an ellipse is the midpoint of the segment joining the two foci. It is the intersection of the axes
of the ellipse. In the figure above, point O is the center.
b) The principal axis of the ellipse is the line containing the foci and intersecting the ellipse at its vertices. The
major axis is a segment of the principal axis whose endpoints are the vertices of the ellipse. In the figure,
V 'V is the major axis and has length of 2a units.
c) The minor axis is the perpendicular bisector of the major axis and whose endpoints are both on the ellipse.
In the figure, B' B is the minor axis and has length 2b units.
d) The latus rectum is the chord through a focus and perpendicular to the major axis. G' G and H ' H are the
2
2b
latus rectum, each with a length of .
a
y y

(2,6)
(0, 3) (8,5)
(-6,4)
(-4, 9 ) (4, 9 )
5 5

St. Louis Review Center-Inc-Davao Tel. no. (082) (2,1)

(-5,0) (-4,0) (4,0) (5,0) (-8,1) 224-2515 (12,1) 18

O x O x
(4,- 9 )
(8,3)
(-4,- 9 ) 5
5
(0, -3) (2,-4)
 x2 y2 ( x  2) 2 ( y  1) 2
The graph of   1. The graph of   1.
25 9 100 25

4. Kinds of Ellipses
a) Horizontal ellipse. An ellipse is horizontal if its principal axis is horizontal. The graphs above are both horizontal
ellipses.
b) Vertical ellipse. An ellipse is vertical if its principal axis is vertical.

D. The Hyperbola

1. A hyperbola is the set of points on a plane such that the difference of the distances of each point on the set from two
fixed points on the plane is constant. Each of the fixed points is called focus.
2. Equation of a hyperbola
a) If the center is at the origin, the vertices are at ( a, 0), the foci are at ( c,0), the endpoints of the minor axis are
x2 y2
at (0,  b) and b 2  c 2  a 2 , then the equation is   1.
a 2 b2
b) If the center is at the origin, the vertices are at (0,  a), the foci are at (0,  c), the endpoints of the minor axis are
y2 x2
at ( b, 0) and b 2  c 2  a 2 , then the equation is  1.
a 2 b2
c) If the center is at (h, k), the distance between the vertices is 2a, the principal axis is horizontal and b 2  c 2  a 2
( x  h) 2 ( y  k ) 2
, then the equation is  1.
a2 b2
d) If the center is at (h, k), the distance between the vertices is 2a, the principal axis is vertical and b 2  c 2  a 2 ,
( y  k ) 2 ( x  h) 2
then the equation is  1
a2 b2

2. Parts of a hyperbola

For the terms described below, refer to the hyperbola shown which has its center at O, vertices at V’(-a,0) and
b2 b2
V(a,0), foci at F’(-c,0) and F(c,0) and endpoints of one latus rectum at G’ (-c,  ) and G(-c, ) and the other at
a a
b2 b2
H’ (c,  ) and H(c, ).
a a

a) The hyperbola consists of two separate parts called branches.

b) The two fixed points are called foci. In the figure, the foci are at ( c,0).

c) The line containing the two foci is called the principal axis. In the
figure, the principal axis is the x-axis.
d) The vertices of a hyperbola are the points of intersection of the
hyperbola and the principal axis. In the figure, the vertices are at ( a,0).

e) The segment whose endpoints are the vertices is called the transverse axis. In the figure V 'V is the transverse axis.

f) The line segment with endpoints (0,b) and (0,-b) where b 2  c 2  a 2 is called the conjugate axis, and is a
perpendicular bisector of the transverse axis.
g) The intersection of the two axes is the center of the hyperbola .

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h) The chord through a focus and perpendicular to the transverse axis is called a latus rectum. In the figure, G' G is a

b2 b2 2b 2
latus rectum whose endpoints are G’ (-c,  ) and G(-c, ) and has a length of .
a a a

3. The Asymptotes of a Hyperbola

Shown in the figure on the right is a hyperbola

with two lines as extended diagonals of the
rectangle shown.

These two diagonal lines are said to be the asymptotes of the curve, and are helpful in sketching the graph of a
x2 y2 b b
hyperbola. The equations of the asymptotes associated with 2
 2  1 are y  x and y   x . Similarly, the
a b a a
2 2
y x a a
equations of the asymptotes associated with 2  2  1 are y  x and y   x .
a b b b

y y

(6,9)

(-9,6) F(0,6) (9,6)

3y  x  0

F’(-6,0) (-3,0)O (3,0) F(6,0) x (0,3)

O x
(0,-3)
(6,-9) 3y  x  0

F’(0,-6)
x2 y2 y2 x2
The graph of  1. The graph of   1.
9 27 9 27

PRACTICE EXERCISES

Directions: Choose the best answer from the choices given and write the corresponding letter of your choice.

For items 1-5, use the illustration on the right.

3
M
1. Which of the following are the coordinates of A? 2
a. (1,2) b. (2,1) c. (-3,3) d. (2,-3) x 1 A
2. What is the distance between points M and T? -3 -2 -1 1 2 3
-10
a. 61 units b. 6 sq. units c. 51 units d. 8 units
H
3. Which of the following points has the coordinates (-3,-1) -3
-2
a. M b. A c. T d. H T
4. Which of the following is the area of the triangle formed with vertices M, A and H? y
a. 5 sq. units b. 10 sq. units c. 5 units d. 10 units
5. Which of the following is the equation of the line containing points A and T? O(0,b) V
a. y= 2 b. x=2 c. y+2x=3 d. y-2x+3=0
x
6. Suppose that an isosceles trapezoid is placed on the Cartesian plane as shown 0 D(a,0) E(b,0)
On the right, which of the following should be the coordinates of vertex V?
a. (a,b) b. (b+a, 0) c. (b-a,b)d. (b+a,b)
7. The points (-11,3), (3,8) and (-8,-2) are vertices of what triangle?
a. Isosceles b. Scalene c. Equilateral d. Right

8. What is the area of the triangle in #7?

a. 40.5 sq units b. 41.8 sq units c. 42 sq units d. 46.8 sq units
9. Which of the following sets of points lie on a straight line?
a. (2,3), (-4,7), (5,8) b. (-2,1), (3,2), (6,3) c. (-1,-4), (2,5), (7,-2) d. (4,1), (5,-2), (6,-5)
3
10. If the point (9,2) divides the segment of the line from P1(6,8) to P2(x2,y2) in the ratio r = , give the coordinates of P2.
7
St. Louis Review Center-Inc-Davao Tel. no. (082) 224-2515 20
 a. (16,–12) b. (–16, 15) c. (14,15) d. (12,–12)
11. Give the fourth vertex, at the third quadrant, of the parallelogram whose three vertices are (-1,-5), (2,1) and (1,5).
a. (-3,-2) c. (-3,-4) c. (-4,-1) d. (-2,-1)
12. The line segment joining A(-2,-1) and B(3,3) is extended to C. If BC = 3AB, give the coordinates of C.
a. (17,12) b. (15,17) c. (18,15) d. (12,18)
0
13. The line L2 makes an angle of 60 with the L1. If the slope of L1 is 1, give the slope of L2.
0.5 0.5 0.5 0.5
a. (3 + 2 ) b. (2 + 2 ) c. –(2 + 3 ) d. –(3 + 3 )
0
14. The angle from the line through (-4,5) and (3,m) to the line (-2,4) and (9,1) is 135 . Give the value of m.
a.7 b. 8 c. 9 d. 10
15. Which equation represents a line perpendicular to the graph of 2x + y = 2?
a. y = -0.5x – 2 b. y = –2x + 2 c. y = 2x – 2 d. y = 0.5x + 2
16. Which of the following is the y – intercept of the graph 2x – 2y + 8 = 0?
a. -4 b. -2 c. 2 d. 4
17. Which of the following may be a graph of x – y = a where a is a positive real number?
a. b. y c. y d. y
y

x x x x

18. Write an equation in standard form for a line with a slope of –1 passing through (2,1).
a. x + y = –3 b. –x + y = 3 c. x + y = 3 d. x – y = –3
b.
For items 19-22, use the illustration on the right. y

19. Which of the following are the coordinates of A? 2 T

a. (1,1) b. (1,-1) A 1.5

c. (-1,1) d. (-1,-1) 1

20. What is the distance between points A and H?

0.5

a. 61 units b. 6 sq. units 0 x

-3.5 -3 -2.5 -2 -1.5 -1 -0.5 0 0.5 1 1.5 2 2.5 3 3.5
c. 51 units
d. 8 units -0.5

21. Which of the following points has the coordinates (-2,-2)? -1

a. M b. A H
M -1.5
c. T d. H
-2

22. Which of the following is the equation of the given graph?

a. y  x  2 . b. y   x  2 .  
c. y  x  2 .
2
 
2
 
2
d. y   x2  2 .  
23. Which of the following is the equation of the line containing points M and T?
a. y= 2 b. x=2 c. y-2x-2=0 d. y+2x+2=0
24. What is the shortest distance of x  8 y from x  3?
2

a. 1 unit b. 2 units c. 3 units d. 8 units

2 2
y x
25. Which of the following is a focus of   1?
12 4
a. (0,-4) b. (-4,0) c. (0,4) d. (4,0)
2 2
x y
26. What are the x-intercepts of   1?
4 9
a. none b.  2 c.  3 d. 4
27. Which of the following is a graph of a hyperbola?
a. y
b. 15
y

15

10

10

0 x

x -30 -25 -20 -15 -10 -5 0 5 10 15 20 25 30

0
-30 -25 -20 -15 -10 -5 0 5 10 15 20 25 30
-5

-5

-10

-10
-15

-15

y
c. d.
2
y
2

1.5
1.5

1
1

0.5
0.5

0 x
0 x
-3.5 -3 -2.5 -2 -1.5 -1 -0.5 0 0.5 1 1.5 2 2.5 3 3.5
-3.5 -3 -2.5 -2 -1.5 -1 -0.5 0 0.5 1 1.5 2 2.5 3 3.5
-0.5
-0.5

-1 -1

-1.5 -1.5

-2 -2

28. Which of the following is an equation of an ellipse that has 10 as length of the major axis and has foci which are 4
units away from the center?

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 y2 x2 y2 x2 y2 x2 y2 x2
a.  1 b.  1 c.   1 d.  1
25 9 9 16 5 3 16 25

For items 29-31, consider the graph on the right.

29. Which of the following is the equation of y
the graph?
a. 100 y
2
 25x 2  2500 10

b. 100 x
2
 25 y 2  2500
c. 100 y
2
 25x 2  2500 0 x

d. 100 x  25 y  2500
2 2 -30 -20 -10 0 10 20 30

30. What are the x-intercepts of the graph?

a. none b.  2 -10
c.  5 d.  10

31. What kind of figure is shown on the graph?

a. circle b. ellipse c. hyperbola d. Parabola

32. Which of the following is the center of the graph

y
shown on the right?
a. (0,0) b. (0,10) 10
c. (10,0) c. (0,-10)

33. Which of the following is a focus of the graph

0 x
shown on the right? -30 -20 -10 0 10 20 30
a. (0,0) b. (0,10)
c. (0,5) c. (0,-10)
-10

34. What is the area of the shaded region?

a. 4 units b. 4 square units
c. 16 units d. 16 square units

LICENSURE EXAMINATION FOR TEACHERS (LET)

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 Refresher Course

Content Area: MATHEMATICS

Focus: ADVANCED ALGEBRA
Prepared by: Daisy de Borja-Marcelino
Competencies: Show mastery of the basic terms, concepts and equations in Advanced Algebra involving radicals, rational
exponents and functions. Solve, evaluate and manipulate symbolic and numerical problems in above areas by applying
fundamental principles and processes.

KEY IDEAS
Some Helpful Tips in Answering the LET

1 Read the question/s or the items carefully and understand what they say.
2 Determine what is/are wanted or what is/are asked for.
3 Find out what is/are given and which data are needed to solve the problem.
4 Reason out what processes (operations) to apply and the order in which they are to be applied.
5 Summarize the problem by means of an open number sentence.
6 Compute carefully. Check each step in the computations.
7 Decide the reasonableness of the result.
8 Check the result by seeing to it that the result satisfies all the conditions of the problem.

RATIONAL EXPONENTS
If a is a real number and n is any positive integer, the symbol a n denotes the nth power of a. The real number a is
called the base and n is called the exponent. In symbols,

an  a  a  a  ... a .
n factors

Examples: a) 3333  34 or 81. b)  2m3   2m 2m 2m.

4
1 1 1 1 1
c)        . d) 1.31.3  1.32 .
2 2 2 2 2
e) math  mathmath . e) 2 m m  2 m .     2
2

Note that any base raised to the power of 1, is just the base. Moreover, any base raised to the power of 0 is 1,
0
while 0 is indeterminate.
Examples: a) 90  1. b) 41  4. 1
c) (-m) = - m.
0
d) z = 1.

e) h op e
2 3 0
 1. f)  38.230  1 . g)  j 2o3 y 5 1  j 2o3 y 5 . h)
1 0 1 1
4
m a  a.
4

Laws of Exponents

If a and b are real numbers and m and n are positive real numbers, then the following are true.
a m a n  a mn . a n m
 a nm .
am
If m  n and a  0 , then n  a
mn
. abn  a nbn .
a
n
am a an
If n  m and a  0 , then n  nm .
1
If b  0 , then    n .
a a b b
n
a
If a  0 , then n  a  1 .
0

a
Examples: a) 4   4 . b) 2 2   2
2 3 32
6 3 2
 25  32. 2 2 2
c) (3 x 4 ) = 3 x 4 .
32
2
 1. 35 32 1 1
d) 3 e) 2
 352  33  27. f). 5
 325  33  3  .
3 3 3 27
Exercises
5
1. In the expression 8m , 5 is called the ________.
A. base B. coefficient C. constant D. exponent
0
25 m

2
20 m n s  9 3 14 0

 
2. Evaluate .
5m 10s 6 n8m 10
0 0

C. m  20
12 4 -2
2
A. 5 B. 23m n s D. undefined

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 1

   
1 1
( )4
3. Anthony wrote 3a  4b 4 = 3a + 4b 4 . Which of the following is his misconception?
A. It is possible to factor out the exponent.
B. It is possible to distribute exponents over a sum.
C. The exponents should be multiplied with the base.
D. The coefficient inside the parentheses should be added.
2
 5r 4  25r 6
4. Is  3  equal to ? Why or why not?
 3s  9s 5
A. Yes, for the exponents inside the parenthesis and the numerical coefficients should be added to 2.
B. No, for the exponents inside the parenthesis and the numerical coefficients should be subtracted from 2.
C. Yes, for the exponents inside the parenthesis should be added and the numerical coefficients should be
raised to 2.
D. No, for the exponent inside the parenthesis should be multiplied by 2 and the numerical coefficients should
be raised to 2.
x12 4
5. Explain why 3
is not equal to x ?
x
A. Because the exponents should be added.
B. Because the exponents should be multiplied.
C. Because the numerator should be divided by the denominator.
D. Because the exponent of the numerator should be subtracted by the exponent of the denominator.
5 3 2 4 2
6. Which of the following is the product of x y z and x y z ?
10 12 2 10 12 2 7 7 3 7 7 3
A. 2x 2y 2z B. x y z C. 2x 2y 2z D. x y z
7. Give the product of 5a and a3  2a5  11a.
A. 5a  10a  55a C. 5a  10a  55a
4 5 2 3 6

B. 5a  10a  55a D. 5a  10a  55a

4 6 2 3 5

  
3 5
8. Marlon claims that 2 2 is equal to 2 . Is he correct? Why or why not?
8

A. Yes, for the exponents inside the parenthesis and the numerical coefficients should be added to 5.
B. No, for the exponents inside the parenthesis should be multiplied by 2 and the numerical coefficients
should be raised to 5.
C. No, for the exponents should be multiplied.
D. Yes, for the exponents should be added.

The mentioned laws of exponents also hold when m and n are positive rational numbers.
Examples: The following are true if there is no zero denominator.
 12  12  1 1
  23  53  2 5

7
     31  3 .   
  m   m  m .
2 2 3 3 3
a) 3 3 3 b) m
  
     
2 5
2 1 1 5 3 2
53  p 7 
c) 1
5 3 3
5 .3
d) 3
 p7 7
 p7 .
3 7
5 p
e  e23  23  e0  1 .
2

e)
3
f) 3x y 
2 3 4
 314 x 24 y 34  34 x8 y12 .
e3
2

2
 art  5 art 5 x  4  1  1  1
2 5y

g)    . h) .
xy 5 x  4 x  4  4 x  4 x  2
2 11y 11y 5 y 6y 3y
 xy 
Negative Exponents
-n 1
If a is a nonzero real number and n is any rational number, then a = .
an
To simplify algebraic expressions with negative exponents is just to express the given expression into an
equivalent quantity where the exponents become positive.
Examples: Simplify the following such that they only have positive exponents.
1
 
3
2m 4
1
2
a) 3 b) 7 4
c)
1 3
 
c) 2m 
1 1 
1 1
Solution: a) 3 2
 . b) 7 4
 . 4  .
2m
1 3 1
2 4 4
3 7
Examples: Simplify the following such that they only have positive exponents. Assume nonzero bases and no denominator
is zero.

16 2 m 4 a t 3
a) b) c) d)
4 4 m 3 a 2 t 3

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 16 2 m 4 at 3 m 4 g 3
 32
1
e) f) g)
5
h) x  22
4 4 m 3a 2t 3 g 1h 3
Solution:
16
a) 4 =
4 2
4
 4  1 .
  2 2 4
m 4
b) 3 = m
4 3  1
 m 43  m 1  .
4
4 4 4 m m
a 12  t 3
c) 2
= a  a12  a3 d) = 1.
a t 3
16 2 m 4 at 3 44 m3aa 2t 3 44 m3a 3t 3 a 3
e) =  4 43  .
4 4 m 3a 2t 3 162 m 4t 3 4 mt m
m 4 g 3 m 4 g 3 1 1 g 31h3 g 4 h3
f) 1 3 =  1  3  4  g 31  h3 =  4 .
g h 1 g h m m4 m
5
1 1 3
2
 
1 ( 5)( ) ( 3)( )
5
g)
5
 3 2
=  2
 2
  2 2
 3
.
 2

h) x  22 = 1
or
1
or 2
1
.
x  22
x  2x  2 x  4 x  4
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
Note that is equal to  but 2 is not equal to 2   .
x  2x  2 x  2 x  2 x  4x  4 x 4x 4
a
Whenever the exponent of a base is in rational form where b 0, the expression can always be expressed in
b
radical form.

RADICALS
1
n n
If n is a positive integer and a is a real number for which a is defined, then the expression a is called a
1
n n
radical, and a =a .

n
The symbol is a radical sign, the number a is the radicand and n is the index of the radical a.
3
Examples: a) In the expression 5 , the number 3 is called the index and 5 is the radicand.
1
4 4
b) The expression 27 can be written as 27 .
When a radical notation has no index, it is understood that n=2 or we are going to extract the square roots of the
radicand.
1
Examples: a)
2
49  49. b) 3 2  2 3  3.

Simplified radicals

An expression with radicals is simplified when all of the following conditions are satisfied.
Exponents of the radicand and index of the radical have no common factor except 1.
The radicand has no factor raised to a power greater than or equal to the index.
All indicated operations have been performed (if possible).
No denominator contains a radical.
The radicand has no fractions.

m
Radical notation of an

 a
m
m n
If a is a real number, m is an integer and a is a real number, then
n n
a = n
= am .
Examples: Write each exponential expression using radical notation.
1 3 3
a) a3 b) m4 c) 52

 5
1 3 3
3 3
Solution: a) a = 3 3
a. b) 4
m = ( m) . 4
c) 5 = 2 53 =
2 2
or 53 .

Examples: Write each radical expression using exponential notation and simplify.
a) 22 b)
3
 27 c)
3
x6
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  
1 1 6
1
 27 = (2 7) 3 =  3  3 .
3 3
Solution: a) 22 = 22 . 2
b)
3 3
c) x6 = x3 = x 2 .

If n is an even positive integer, then

n
an = a =  a and if n is an odd positive integer then n an = a .

Examples: Simplify each of the following and give all the roots.
a) 625 b)
4
81 c) 169x 6 d) 3
27 x 6 y 9

Solution:
a) 625  252  25 . b)
4
81 = 4 34 =  3.
c) 169x 6 = 132 x 3   =  13x .
2 3

d) 3
27 x 6 y 9 = 3 3 x  y  =3x y .
3 2 3 3 3 2 3

For all real numbers a and b, and positive integers m and n for which the indicated roots are real numbers, the
following are true.

( a )( b ) =
n n n
ab . m n
a  mn a .
n
a a
n  n
where b is not equal to zero.
b b

Examples: The following are true.

a) 3  5  15. b) 4
81x  24 81x  8 81x . c) 12  x 6   
 x3 12 .

Examples: Simplify each of the following.

8 4
32 y 5
a) 3 b)
125 243
 8 3  8 3 (2)3  2 2
Solution: a)  3
3    .
125 53 5 5 5

32 y 5
= 
4
16  2 y 4 y

4
24  2 y 4 y

2 y 4 2 y
=
2y 4 2y 
 =
2 y 4 54 y  
 
b) 4 .
243 4
81  3 4
34  3 34 3 3  3  3

Operations on Radical Expressions

Addition and Subtraction

Radicals with the same radicand and the same index are called like radicals. Like radicals are added or subtracted
by using the distributive property of real numbers. Moreover, only like radicals can be combined.
3
Examples: a) Give the sum of 7 , 3 3 7 , 2 3 7 and 4 3 7 .
b) Evaluate 10 15 +3 15 - 15 .
c) If the lengths of the sides of a triangle is 24 cm, 2 6 cm and 4cm, give its perimeter.

3
Solution: a) 7 +3 3 7 +2 3 7 + 4 3 7 =10 3 7 .
b) 10 15 +3 15 - 15 = 12 15 .
c) Given a triangle, its perimeter is determined by adding the lengths of its sides. Hence,

24 cm + 2 6 + 4cm = 4  6 cm + 2 6 cm + 4cm
= 2 6 cm + 2 6 cm+ 4cm = 4 6 cm + 4cm.

Multiplication of Radicals
Note that
n
ab = n
a  n b allows multiplication of radicals with the same index.

Examples: Give the product of the following in simplest form. Take only the positive roots.

a)  6 8  9 10 b) 23 m2 (3 m  33 m2 ) c) (3 7 + 8) (3 7 - 8)

Solution: a)  6 8  9 10 =  69 8 10  54 80  54 16 5  544 5  216 5 .

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 b) 23 m2 [3 m  33 m2 ] = 23 m2m  2 33 m2m2  23 m3 -(6) 3 m4

= 2m  6m3 m .
c) (3 7 + 8 ) (3 7 - 8 ) = 9 7 2  82 = 97  8 =63-8=55.
Exercises

1. In the expression 34 5 , 5 is called the ________.

A. base B. index C. radicand D. root
2
5
2. Write 3 as a radical expression.
2 5 3
A. 35 B. 32 C. 3 D. 25 3
3. Write 5
5y 3 as an exponential expression.

A. 5y 
5 y   
5 y 3 5
1 3
3 5
B. C.
5 5y3
3 5
D.
4. The sides of a triangle measure 3 15 m, 5 15 m and 15 m. What is the perimeter of the triangle?
A. 5 15 cm B. 8 15 cm C. 10 15 cm D. 12 15 cm
5. The side of a square measures 4 3 m. Give its perimeter.
A. 4 3m B. 8 3m C. 16 3m D. 20 3m

FUNCTIONS
A relation is a set of ordered pairs (x, y) such that for every first element x, there corresponds at least one y. The
set of all first elements is called the domain of the relation, whereas the set of second elements is the codomain of the
relation.
A function is a relation such that for every first element x of the ordered pair (x, y), there corresponds a unique
second element y. The set of all first elements is called the domain of the function, whereas the set of second elements is
the range of the function.
Tests for a Function
There are some tests that can determine whether a relation is a function or not. We have a function if no two
pairs in the set consisting of ordered pairs have the same first components.

Examples: a) The relation {(Mr. Cruz, Mark), (Mr. Cruz, Mary), (Mr. Gonzales, Art), (Mrs. Tan, Alice), (Miss Peralta, Niko)} is
not a function because more than one ordered pair have the same first component- Mr. Cruz.
b) The relation {(-1,0), (0, 1), (1, 2), (2, 3), (3, 4)} has no ordered pair that has the same first component. Thus,
it is a function. Moreover, its domain is the set {-1,0,1,2,3} and its range is {0,1,2,3,4}.
c) Consider the relation {(-3, -9), (-2, -4), (-1, -1), (0, 0),(1, -1), (2, -4), (3, -9)}. This relation is considered a
function because it has no ordered pair that has the same first component.

A relation may be described by a set of ordered pairs. A function is described by a set of ordered pairs with no two
pairs having the same first components.
Example: The table below shows the relation of the distance traveled by a car for a given length of time.
d = rt
Number of Hours 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Distance 60 120 180 240 300 360 420 480 540 600

It can be observed that the distance traveled depends upon the number of hours or time. We say that distance is
a function of time. The relation can be expressed as d = rt or d = 60t in this particular example.

Example: The area of a square is a function of the length of its side.

2
A=s
Side 1 2 3 4 5
Area 1 4 9 16 25

If a relation described by an equation or defined by a rule, a functional relationship exists if a change in the
independent variable x causes a change in the dependent variable y.

Another method of showing the relationship between the elements of two sets is by means of an arrow diagram.

0 0
Example: An arrow diagram for the relation y = 8x, where x is in set
of whole numbers from 0 to 3, is shown on the right. 1 8

2 16

3 24
x

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10
 0 2

2
Example: An arrow diagram for the relation {(x, y) │y = x + 2} is -1
shown on the right where x = -3, -2,-1,0,1,2,3 and y = 2,3,6,11. 1 3

-2
2 6

-3
3 11

A relation described by an arrow diagram is a function if:

1 there exists a one-to-one correspondence between the elements of the two sets
2 there exists a many-to-one correspondence between the elements of the two sets.

Another method of identifying a function from a mere relation is through its graph. A graph of a relation is a
function if a vertical line is drawn through the graph will intersect the graph in no more than one point.
The most fundamental way to graph a function is to plot points. Once the behavior of the graph of the function
becomes familiar, graphing becomes easier. Note that in graphing functions, we include all possible real numbers in the
domain.
We may start by creating a table of values in order to find out the behavior of the function. It is very important to
choose different numbers to get a clear picture of the graph. That is, it is helpful to generate as many points possible.
1
Example: Graph f  x, y  y  3x   .
2
1
Solution: We note that f  x, y  y  3x   can be expressed in terms of slope and m = 3 and intercept
2
b= 0.5 . By plotting of points, we consider first a table of values.
X -2 -1 0 1 2 3
f(x) -6.5 -3.5 2.5 5.5 8.5
-0.5

y
8

0 x
-14 -12 -10 -8 -6 -4 -2 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14

-2

-4

-6

-8

Note that the when a vertical line is drawn through the graph, it will intersect the graph in no more than one
point. Hence, the given relation is a function.

Example: If we have f(x) = x, this function is called an identity function defined by f = {(x, y) │y = x}.
Let us graph the identity function by assigning to x the values 0, 1, 2. Hence, the corresponding values of y are 0,
1 and 2 respectively. Moreover, the line is determined by the following points.
X -2 -1 0 1 2 3
f(x) -2 -1 0 1 2 3
y
8

We now have the graph on the right. 4

0 x
-14 -12 -10 -8 -6 -4 -2 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14

-2

-4

-6

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-8
 If f is defined by f = {(x, y) │y = b} where the range of the function f consists of one number, then f is a constant
function whose graph is a straight line parallel to the x-axis.

Example: Graph f(x) = 4.

Solution: We now have first a table of values.

x -2 -1 0 1 2 3
f(x) 4 4 4 4 4 4

6 y

0 x
-7 -6 -5 -4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7

-1

-2

-3

Non-example: Graph y  x.
2

Solution: We now have first a table of values.

x 0 1 1 2 2 3 3 4 4
y 0 1 -1 2 2 3 3 2 2
- -
y
4

0 x
-3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12

-1

-2

-3

-4

Observe that the graph of the said set of points shows that if any vertical line drawn through the graph intersects
the graph at more than one point. Hence, it is not a function.

The graph of a relation shows a function if any vertical line drawn through the graph intersects the graph at no
more than one point.

Non-examples: The graphs below do not define functions.

5
y
y
2.5
4

2
3

1.5
2

1
1

0.5
0 x
-8 -7 -6 -5 -4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 x
0
-1 -4.5 -4 -3.5 -3 -2.5 -2 -1.5 -1 -0.5 0 0.5 1 1.5 2 2.5 3

-0.5
-2

-1

-3
-1.5

-4

PRACTICE EXERCISES

Directions: Choose the best answer from the choices given. Write the corresponding letter of your choice.
3
1. In the expression 9m , 3 is called the ________.
A. base B. coefficient C. constant D. exponent

 17  73 
2. Evaluate  7  7  ?
  
  

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 2 4
2 
A. 7 B. 7 C. 7 7
D. 77
2
 1 3
3. Which of the following is equal to  m 2 n 2  ?
 
 
3 2 3
A. 0 B. 1 C. mn D. m n
3
4
4. Which of the following is equal to 2 ?
3
A.
4
23 B. 24 C. 24 D. 23
3
5. Give the index of the expression 34m .
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 34 m
6. In the expression 888tm , 888tm is called the __________.
A. Index B. Radicand C. Radical sign D. Exponent
5
7. Which of the following is equal to ?
5
A. 0 B. 1 C. 5 D. 2 5
8. The length of a rectangle is 3 3 m and its width is 2 2 m. Which of the following is the area of the rectangle?
2 2 2 2
A. 10 m B. 5 6 m C. 9 6 m D. 6 6 m

9. Rosalinda was asked to get the perimeter of a rectangle whose width is 2 5 mm and whose length is 5 5 mm.
Which of the following should be her answer?
A. 7 10 mm B. 14 10 mm C. 14 5 mm D. 10 5 mm
10. Is the sum of 2 , 3 , and 7 equal to 42 ? Why or why not?
A. No, because the indices should be multiplied.
B. No, because the terms should not be combined for these are not like radicals.
C. Yes, because the radicands should be added and the indices should be copied.
D. Yes, because the terms have no coefficient and the radicands should be added.
3
11. Write as an exponential expression: 3x 2 .

A. 3x 
3x  33x 2 
1

D. 3x 
2
2 3 2 3
3
B. C.
12. The sides of a triangle measure 2 7 m, 3 7 m and 28 m. Give the perimeter of the triangle.
A. 5 7m B. 7 7m C. 9 7m D. 35 7m
13. The side of a square measures 5 22 cm. Give its perimeter.
A. 10 22 cm B.15 22 cm C. 20 22 cm D. 20 11 cm
24k 2k
14. A secretary can type 3 words in 3 minutes. How many words can she type in a minute?
23k 23
1 1
C.   D.  
22k 26k
A. 3 B. 3
3 3
3
8x7 y 6
15. Simplify .
27

A.
2 x y  x 
2 2 3
B. -
2 x y  2 2 3
x
C.
8x3 y 3 x
D.
2 x y  2 3
x
3 3 27 3
3 4 3 5
16. Which of the following is the index of the expression ho pe ?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
3
17. In the expression 8m , 8m is called the __________.
A. Index B. Radicand C. Radical sign D. Exponent
 4
 2

18. Which of the following is equal to 3 5  3 5 ?
  
  
6 6 6 8
10 10 5 25
A. 3 B. 6 C. 3 D. 3
4
35
19. Which of the following is equal to 4
?
5
3
4 8
5 5
A. 0 B. 1 C. 3 D. 3

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 3
 2 1
20. Evaluate  x 3 y 3  .
 
 
5
2 3
A. 0 B. 1 C. x y D. x y

21. Which of the following sets of ordered pairs describes a function?

A. {(-1, 4), (2, 8), (2, 20), (9, 36), (-3, -12)}
B. {(24, 6), ( 20, 5), (16, 4), (12, 3)}
C. {(1, 2), (-1, 3), (1, 4), (2, 3), (2, 4)}
D. {(1, -1), (-1, 1), (4, -2), (4, 2), (9, 3), (9, -3)}
22. Which of the following sets of ordered pairs DOES NOT describe a function?
A. {(-1, 4), (2, 8), (5, 20), (9, 36), (5, -12)}
B. {(-3, -2), (-2, -1), (-1, 0), (0, 1)}
C. {(24, 6), ( 20, 5), (16, 4), (12, 3)}
D. {(1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 4), (2, 3), (2, 4)}
23. Which of the following sets of ordered pairs describes a function?
A. {(0.5, 4), (1, 8), (1.5, 20), (2, 36), (-1, -12)}
B. {(4, 6), ( 4, 5), (16, 4), (3, 3)}
C. {(-1, 2), (-1, 3), (1, 4), (2, 3), (2, 4)}
D. {(0.25, -1), (0.5, 1), (0.75, -2), (1, 2), (9, 3), (9, -3)}
24. Which of the following sets of ordered pairs DOES NOT describe a function?
A. {(1.5, 1), (2, 1), (2.5, 1), (3, 1), (3.5, 1)}
B. {(-3, -2), (-2, -1), (-1, 0), (0, 1)}
C. {(24, 6), ( 20, 5), (16, 4), (12, 3)}
D. {(9, 1), (9, 2), (9, 4), (9, 3), (9, 4)}
25. Which of the following describes a function?
A.

x 1 1 2 4 4 6 6
y -2 -4 -6 -8 -10 -12 -14
B.

x 1 3 5 7 9 11 13
y -2 4 -6 8 -10 12 -14
C.

x 1 2 3 1 2 3 4
y 2 4 6 8 10 12 14
D.

x 1 2 3 4 5 1 2
y 0.5 1 1.5 2 2.5 3 3.5

26. Which of the following describes a function?

A.

x -1 -2 -3 -4 -5 -6 7
y 2 4 6 8 10 12 14
B.

x -1 1 -2 2 3 3 4
y 2 4 6 8 10 12 14
C.

x 1 -2 3 -1 -2 -3 4
y -2 -4 -6 8 10 12 14
D.

x 1 2 3 4 5 1 2
y -0.5 -1 -1.5 -2 -2.5 -3 -3.5

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27. Which of the following arrows or mapping diagrams DOES NOT specify a function?

A. B.

1 6
-2 9
2 7
-1 4
3 8
0 0
4 9

C. D.
-2 3 2
4
2
-3 9 6 3
3
-4 9
4 16 4

28. Which of the following arrows or mapping diagrams specifies a function?

A. B.

2 1
4 2 9 4
6 5

C. D.

4 1 1 8
2 4
9 4
2
0
C.16 7

29. Which of the following arrows or mapping diagrams DOES NOT specify a function?
A. B.

6 6
-1 9
7 7
0 4
8 8
1 0
9 9

C. D.

-2 -4 2
3
2
-3 9 -9 3
3
-4 -16
12 4
4

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30. Which of the following graphs is a function?

A. C.
3 y
y
2
2.5

1.5
2

1
1.5

0.5

1
0 x
-3.5 -3 -2.5 -2 -1.5 -1 -0.5 0 0.5 1 1.5 2 2.5 3 3.5
0.5
-0.5

0 x
-1 -3.5 -3 -2.5 -2 -1.5 -1 -0.5 0 0.5 1 1.5 2 2.5 3 3.5

-0.5
-1.5

-1
-2

-1.5

B. D.
y
3 y
2.5

2
2

1.5

1
1

0.5 0 x
-3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3

0 x
-3.5 -3 -2.5 -2 -1.5 -1 -0.5 0 0.5 1 1.5 2 2.5 3 3.5
-1
-0.5

-1 -2

-1.5

-3

31. Which is NOT a graph of a function?

A. B. C. D.

100 30 4 30
80 25 25
2
60
40 20 0 20
20 15 -4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4 15
0 -2
10 10
-6 -5 -4 -3 -2 -1
-20 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 -4
-40 5 5
-60 0 -6 0
-80 -6 -5 -4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 -6 -5 -4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6
-5 -8 -5
-100
-120 -10 -10 -10

32. Which of the following is NOT a graph of a function?

A. y C.
2 2.5
y

1.5
1.5

1
0.5

0 x

0.5 -3.5 -3 -2.5 -2 -1.5 -1 -0.5 0 0.5 1 1.5 2 2.5 3 3.5

-0.5

x -1
0
-1.5 -1 -0.5 0 0.5 1 1.5
-1.5

-0.5 -2

B. D.
1 y
3 y

0.5
2

0 x
-1.5 -1 -0.5 0 0.5 1 1.5 1

-0.5
0 x
-3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3

-1
-1

-1.5
-2

-2
-3

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33. Which of the following graphs represents a function?

A. 3 y
C.
3 y

2
2

1
1

0 x
0 x
-3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3
-3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3

-1
-1

-2
-2

-3
-3

C.
3 y
5
D.
y

2
4

1
3

0 x
-3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 2

-1
1

-2
0 x
-3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3

-3

34. Which of the graphs below best represents the following scenario? Chok was at home when he decided to visit his
friend. After a few hours, he was already at his friend’s house which is a few kilometers away from his home. He stayed
there for a few hours and went back home.

A. C.

Distance Distance

Time
Time

B. D.

Distance Distance

Time Time
35. Which of the graphs below best represents the following scenario? Avel is running at a steady rate and then comes to
a hill, which causes him to run at a slower rate. Once he reaches the top of the hill, he runs down the hill very fast. Upon
reaching the bottom of the hill, he resumes his original pace.

A. B.

Speed Speed

Time
Time

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C. D.

Speed Speed

Time Time

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Content Area: MATHEMATICS
Focus: Probability and Statistics
Prepared by: Daisy de Borja-Marcelino
LET Competencies:

Counting Techniques

Experiment: any activity that can be done repeatedly (e.g. tossing a coin, rolling a die).

Sample space: the set of all possible outcomes in an experiment.

Example: In rolling a die, the sample space is S = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}.

Sample point: an element of the sample space.

Example: In rolling a die, there are 6 sample points.

Counting Sample Points

1. Fundamental Principle of Counting (FPC)

If a choice consists of k steps, of which the first can be performed in n 1 ways, for each of these the second can be
performed in n2 ways, for each of these the third can be performed in n 3 ways…, and for each of these the kth
can be made in nk ways, then the whole choice can be made in n1n2n3…nk ways.
Example: In how many ways can two dice fall? Ans. : 6 · 6 = 36 ways
2. Permutation
Permutation is an arrangement of objects wherein the order is important.

a. Linear Permutation
If n objects are to be arranged r objects at a time, then the number of distinct arrangements is given by
nPr = ( )
.
Example: In how many ways can the first, second and third winners may be chosen with 10 contestants?
10P3 = ( )
b. Circular Permutation
If n objects are to be arranged in a circular manner, then the number of distinct arrangements is (n - 1)!

Example: In how many ways can 6 people be arranged around a circular table?
Answer: (6 - 1)! = 5!

c. Permutation with Repetitions

The number of permutations of n things of which n1 are one of a kind, n2 second of a kind, …, nk of a kth kind is
n!
n1!n2!...nk !
Example: How many different permutations are there in the word WAGAYWAY if all letters are to be taken?
8!
Answer:
2 !3 !2 !
3. Combination

Combination is the arrangement of objects regardless of order. In other words, the order of arranging the objects is not
important. If n objects are to be arranged r at a time, the number of distinct combinations is given by:
nCr = ( )
.
Example: In how many ways can a committee of 3 be chosen from 7 persons?
7!
Answer:
3! 4 !
Probability

Probability: the likelihood of occurrence of an event.

If E is any event, then the probability of an event denoted by P(E) has a value between 0 and 1, inclusive. In
symbols,
0 ≤ P (E) ≤ 1
If P(E) = 1, then E is sure to happen.
If P(E) = 0, then E is impossible to happen.
Moreover, if the probability that E will not happen is P(E’), then P (E) + P (E’) = 1.

Theoretical Probability
Theoretically, the probability of an event E, denoted by P(E), is defined as
n( E )
P(E) =
n( S )
where n(E) = number of favorable outcomes

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 n(S) = number of possible outcomes

Exercises

1. A coin is flipped once.

a. How many possible outcomes are there?

b. What are these outcomes?
c. How many of these outcomes consist of a face facing up?
d. What is the probability that a tail faces up?
2. A spinner can land on any of the numbers 1 through 12 with equal likelihood. What is the probability that the spinner
lands on a/an
a. odd number? b. number greater than 12?
c. prime number? d. number divisible by 3 or 4?
e. number divisible by 3 and 4? f. number between 3 and 9?

3. A box contains cards printed with the letters of the word “PHILIPPINES,” so that “P” is one 3 cards, “H” is on one card,
and so on. A card is drawn from the box.
a. How many possible outcomes are there?
b. What are these outcomes?
c. Are these outcomes equally likely?
d. What is the probability that the card drawn is
i. a “P” ii. a “H”
ii. a “I” iv. not a “P”

STATISTICS
Statistics is the branch of mathematics used to summarize quantities of data and help investigators draw sound
conclusions. Its two main branches are descriptive statistics and inferential statistics.
A sample is a specified set of measurements or data, which is drawn from a much larger body of measurements
or data called the population.

Kinds of Sampling
1. Random sampling techniques are used to ensure that every member of the population has an equal chance of being
included in the sample. A random sample is said to be representative of the entire population. The two methods of
random sampling are lottery method and the use of the table of random numbers.
2. Systematic sampling is a technique which selects every nth element of the population for the sample, with the starting
point determined at random from the first n elements.
3. Stratified random sampling is a technique of selecting simple random samples from mutually exclusive groupings or
strata of the population.
Graphical Representations of Data
Graphs are used in mathematics to show relationships between sets of numbers. Graphs are useful in the field of
statistics because they can show the relationships in a set of data.
1. Histogram - a graphical picture of a frequency distribution consisting of a series of vertical columns or rectangles, each
drawn with a base equal to the class interval and a height corresponding to the class frequency. The bars of a histogram
are joined together, that is, there are no spaces between bars.
2. Bar Chart- uses rectangles or bars to represent discrete classes of data. The length of each bar corresponds to the
frequency or percentage of the given class or category. The categories are in turn placed in either horizontal
3. Frequency Polygon- a special type of line graph, where each class frequency is plotted directly above the midpoint or
class mark of its class interval and lines are then drawn to connect the points.
4. Pie Chart- an effective way of presenting categorized (qualitative) distributions, where a circle is divided into sectors -
pie-shaped pieces - which are proportional in size to the corresponding frequencies or percentages.
5. Pictogram- known as picture graph where picture symbols are used to represent values.
MEASURES OF CENTRAL TENDENCY

A measure of central tendency is a single, central value that summarizes a set of numerical data. It describes a
set of data by locating the middle region of the set.
Measures Definition How to find Advantages Disadvantages
of Central
Tendency
Mean The sum of the data Ungrouped data: A single, unique Not appropriate for
divided by the number of value that is skewed distribution
data ∑ representative of all as it is affected by
̅=
the scores extreme scores or
outliers
Grouped Data:
Stable from group to
∑ group
̅=
May be used in
further
computations
Median The middle number of Ungrouped data: More stable from Not necessarily
the set when the data are group to group than representative of all

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 arranged in numerical The middle for the the mode scores
order ( )
Appropriate for Unstable from group
skewed distribution to group
Grouped Data:
Cannot be used in
Mdn = L + ( ) further analyses

Mode The number that occurs Ungrouped data: Easy to obtain Not necessarily
most frequently in the The most frequent score representative of all
data scores
Grouped Data:
The class mark of the Cannot be used in
class interval with the further analyses
highest frequency
Example: The scores for five students on a quiz are 40, 20, 30, 25, and 15. To find the mean score for this group of
students, we first find the sum of the scores:

40+20+30+25+15=130

We then divide the sum by 5, the number of scores:

130
 26 .
5

Example: Determine the median for the set of scores

82, 81, 80, 87, 20

Solution: We arrange the scores in Example 1 in order fro lowest to highest:

20, 80, 81, 82, 87

The middle number in this arrangement is 81 and it is the median.

Exercises

1. The mean score on a set of 10 scores is 71. What is the sum of the 10 test scores?

2. The mean score on a set of 13 score is 77. What is the sum of the 13 test scores?

3. The mean score on four of a set of five scores is 75. The fifth score is 90. What is the sum of the five scores?
What is the mean of the five scores?

4. Two sets of data are given. The first set of data has 10 scores with a mean of 70, and the second set of data has
20 scores with a mean of 80. what is the mean for both sets of data combined?

MEASURES OF VARIABILITY

A measure of variation or variability describes how large the differences between the individual scores. The
common measures of variability are range and standard deviation.

Measures Definition How to find Advantages Disadvantages

of Variation

Range The difference between the Ungrouped data: Easy to compute Unstable
highest score and the lowest R = HS - LS
score Gives a unique value Not representative
Grouped Data: of the set of data
Easy to understand
R = Upper Limit of
the Highest Class Not used in further
Interval - Lower computations
Limit of the Lowest
Class Interval
Standard The square root of the Ungrouped data: Most stable Affected by extreme
deviation variance of the set of data scores
∑( ̅) Gives a unique value
S=√ More difficult to
Grouped Data: Most representative compute and
understand
∑ ( ̅) Used in further
S=√ computations

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Exercises

1. On a quiz, the following scores were made in a class of 10 students: 72, 83, 86, 97, 90, 70, 65, 71, 80, 86. For this set of
scores, give the
a. mean b. median
c. mode d. range
e. midrange f. standard deviation

2. Jao, Dhei, Nelfe, Dada and Ched are all in the same statistics class. Their scores for the first two exams in the class are
listed in the accompanying table. The first exam had a mean of 84 and a standard deviation of 6, whereas the second
exam had a mean of 78 and a standard deviation of 4.
__________________________________
Exam 1 Exam 2
__________________________________
Jao 84 78
Dhei 90 74
Nelfe 66 78
Dada 78 70
Ched 84 78
__________________________________

a. Who improved on the second exam?

b. Who improved the most on the second exam?
c. Who did not improve on the second exam?
d. Considering both exams, who did the poorest?
e. Who performed the same on both exams?

PRACTICE EXERCISES
1. In a political science survey, voters are classified into six income categories and five education categories. In how many
different ways can a voter be classified?
A. 11 B. 25 C. 30 D. 45
2. The number of permutations of the word “probabilities” is
A. 13 B. 2!3! C. 13! D. 13!/(2!3!)
3. The number of ways seven visitors can be seated on a round table is
A. 6! B. 7! C. 6!7! D. 6!/2
4. In a certain town, 40% of the people have brown hair, 25% have brown eyes, and 15% have both brown hair and brown
eyes. A person is selected at random from the town. If he has brown eyes, what is the probability that he does not have
brown hair?
A. 3/8 B. 2/5 C. ½ D. none of these
5. A die is tossed. If the number is odd, what is the probability that it is prime?
2 3 2 1
A. B. C. D.
3 4 5 3
6. An accounting professor can assign grades of A, B, C, D, or F to student’s examinations. In how many ways can the
professor assign grades to three different student examinations?
A. 120 ways B.125 ways C. 25 ways D. 50 ways
7. A bag contains 15 red beads, 30 white beads, 20 blue beads, and 7 black beads. If one of the beads as drawn at random,
what is the probability that it will be white or blue?
25 15 13 17
A. B. C. D.
36 42 40 52
8. A whole number is chosen at random from the whole numbers from 1 to 50. What is the probability that it is an even
square?
A. 0.07 B. 0.06 C. 0.02 D. 0.09
9. A pair of dice is tossed. If the numbers appearing are different, find the probability that the sum is even.

1 2 2
A. B. C. D. none of these
2 3 5
10. If repetitions are not permitted, how many 3 digits number less than 400 can be formed from the digits 2, 3, 5, 6, 7
and 9?
A.30 B.126 C.40 D. 162
11. In how many different ways can a true-false test be answered if there are five items, assuming that the student give
an answer for each item.
2 5
A.5! B.2! C. 5 D. 2
12. There are five musical numbers in a program. The number of ways these numbers can be presented is
D. 5!/ 3!2!
5
A. 5 B.5! C. 2
13. The numbers of permutations of the word “probabilities” is
A.13 B. 13! C.2! 3! D. 13!/ 2!3!

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14. The number of ways seven students can be seated on a round table is
A. 6! B.6! 7! C.7! D. 6! /2
15. How many different signals, each consisting of 6 flags hung in a vertical line, can be formed from 4 identical red flags
and 2 identical blue flags?
A. 6! B. 6  4! C.4! 2! D. 6! 4!2!
16. The probability of getting a black heart is
A.0 B. 1 4 C.1 D. 1 52
17. In a certain town, 40% of the people have brown hair, 25% have brown eyes, and 15% have both brown hair and
brown eyes. A person is selected at random from the town. I he has brown eyes, what is the probability that he does not
have brown hair?
A. 3 8 B. 1 2 C. 2 5 D. None of these
For items 18-20: The scores of 10 students in a Math quiz are as follows:

Student A B C D E F G H I J
Score 18 32 10 15 27 18 23 28 29 30

18. What is the median score?

A. 18 B. 20 C. 23 D. 25
19. What is the mode of the scores?
A. 18 B. 20 C. 23 D. 25
20. What is the range of scores?
A. 18 B. 22 C. 23 D. 25
21. Jojo aims to get an average of 90 in 5 unit tests. The results of the first four unit tests are as follows: 89, 92, 86, and
91. What should his grade in the fifth unit be for his average to be at least 90?
A. 91 B. 92 C. 93 D. 94

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LICENSURE EXAMINATION FOR TEACHERS (LET)

Refresher Course

Content Area: MATHEMATICS

Focus: Calculus
Prepared by: Daisy de Borja-Marcelino
LET Competencies:

 Solve for the roots of a given quadratic equation

 Solve problems on quadratic equations
 Determine an equation given a set of roots which are imaginary/complex numbers
 Perform operations involving exponential and logarithmic functions
 Solve for the solution set of a given inequality

n
Determine the rth term of the expansion (a + b)
 Solve problems involving variations
 Determine the number of positive and negative roots of a given polynomial

Equations
An equation that contains at least one variable is called an open sentence. Equations b & c above are examples
of open sentences. In equation b, only -1 makes the sentence true or satisfies the equation. However, more than one
number might satisfy an equation. For example, +2 and -2 satisfy the equation x  4  0 . Any number that satisfies an
2

equation is called a solution or root to the equation. The set of numbers from which you can select replacements for the
variable is called the replacement set. The set of all solutions to an equation is called the solution set to the equation. To
solve an equation means to find all of its solutions.

QUADRATIC EQUATION
An equation of the form ax + bx + c = 0 where a  0, a ,b, and c are constants, is a quadratic equation.
2

ROOTS OF QUADRATIC EQUATIONS

To solve a quadratic equation means to find the value of x (unknown) that will satisfy the given equation. The
values of x that will make the equation true are called the roots or solution of the quadratic equation.

Methods of Finding the Roots of a Quadratic Equation

1. Factoring (Use this method if the quadratic equation is factorable)

2
Example: Determine the roots of x -8x - 15 = 0

Solution: Factoring the left side of the equation,

(x - 5) (x – 3) = 0

Equating each factor to zero,

(x - 5) = 0 (x – 3) = 0
x=5 x=3
2. Quadratic Formula
 b  b 2  4ac
The quadratic formula is x 
2a

BINOMIAL FORMULA
n
To obtain the terms of the binomial expansion (a + b) , we use the binomial formula:

n 1 n (n  1)a n  2 b 2 n (n  1)(n  2)a n 3 b 3

(a + b) = a  na
n n
b   ...  nab n 1  b n
2! 3!
n
THE rth TERM OF THE EXPANSION (a + b)

n (n  1)(n  2)...(n  r  2)a n  r 1 b r 1

rth term =
(r  1)!

EXPONENTIAL FUNCTIONS

The exponential function f with base b is denoted by f(x) = bx,

where b > 0 , b  1, and x is any real number.

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 x
Properties of f(x) = b

 f has the set of real numbers as its domain.

 f has the set of positive real numbers as its range.
 f has a graph with a y-intercept of (0,1).
 f is a one-to-one function.
 f has a graph asymptotic to the x-axis.
 f is an increasing function if b>1 and f is a decreasing function if 0<b<1.

An exponential function has a constant base and a variable exponent.

The Natural Exponential Function

For all real numbers x, the function defined by f ( x)  e x is called the natural exponential function. Note that e
is an irrational number and its accurate value to eight places is 2.71828183.

EXPONENTIAL EQUATIONS
An equation where the unknown quantity appears in an exponent is called an exponential equation.

SOLVING EXPONENTIAL EQUATIONS

To solve an exponential equation is to find the value of the unknown quantity in the given equation.

LOGARITHMIC FUNCTIONS

For x > 0, b > 0, and b  1, we have y = log a(x) if and

only if ay = x.

Note:
1. If the base of the logarithm is not indicated it is understood that the base is 10.
2. If the base of the logarithm is the number e, then it is called a natural logarithm and it is written as f(x) = ln x.

Properties of f x   log b x

 f has the set of positive real numbers as its domain.

 f has the set of real numbers as its range.
 f has a graph with a x-intercept of (1,0).
 f is a one-to-one function.
 f has a graph asymptotic to the y-axis.
 f is an increasing function if b>1 and f is a decreasing function if 0<b<1.

Remarks

 Logarithmic functions are the inverse of exponential functions.

 We can use the rules of exponents with logarithms.
 The two most common logarithms are called common logarithms and natural logarithms. Common logarithms
have a base of 10, and natural logarithms have a base of e.
 Equation in exponential form can be rewritten in logarithmic form, and vice versa.

The exponential form of y  log b x is b y  x .

The logarithmic form of b y  x is y  log b x .

2
Example1: The exponential equation 7 = 49 may be written in terms of a logarithmic equation as log7 (49) = 2.

-3 1 1
Example 2: The exponential equation 9 = 3
or may be written in terms of a logarithmic equation as log9
9 729
 1 
  = -3
 729 

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Basic Properties of Logarithms

0
Property 1 : loga (1) = 0 because a = 1.

0
Example 1: In the equation 22 = 1, the base is 22 and the exponent is 0. Remember that a logarithm is an exponent, and
the corresponding logarithmic equation is log22 (1) = 0, where the 0 is the exponent.

0
2 2
Example 2: In the equation   = 1, the base is and the exponent is 0. Remember that a logarithm is an exponent,
5 5
and the corresponding logarithmic equation is log 2 1 = 0.
5

1
Property 2: loga (a) = 1 because a = a

1
Example 3: In the equation 7 = 7, the base is 7, the exponent is 1, and the answer is 7. Since a logarithm is an exponent,
and the corresponding logarithmic equation is log7 7 = 1

1
Example 4: Use the exponential equation m = m to write a logarithmic equation. If the base m is greater than 0, then logm
(m) = 1.

x x x
Property 3: loga (a) = x because a = a

2 2 2
Example 5: Since 9 =9 , we may write the logarithmic equation with base 9 as log 9 9 = 2.

2 2 2
Example 6: Since you know that 11 =11 , we may write the logarithmic equation with base 11 as log1111 = 2.

INEQUALITIES
Any relation expressed using the symbols <, >, > or < is called an inequality.
An absolute inequality is an inequality which is always true. A conditional inequality is one which is true only for
certain values of the variable involved.
1. 4 > 3 is an absolute inequality
2. x > 3 is a conditional inequality

PROPERTIES OF INEQUALITIES
Let a, b, c, & d be real numbers. The following hold.
1. Trichotomy Property
a > b or a < b or a = b
2. a > b if a - b > 0
a < b if a – b < 0
3.
a. If a> 0 and b> 0, then a + b> 0 and ab>0.
b. If a < 0 and b < 0, then a+b< 0 and ab> 0

4. Transitivity

If a < b and b < c then a < c.

5. Addition Property

If a < b and c < d, then a + c < b+ d

6. Multiplication Property

If a < b and c > 0, then ac < bc

If a < b and c < 0, then ac > bc

SOLVING INEQUALITIES

To solve an inequality means to find the value of the unknown that will make the inequality true.

POLYNOMIAL FUNCTION
The function defined by the equation
n n-1 n-2 2
f(x) = a0x +a1x + a2x + . . .+ an-2x + an-1x + an

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 where n is a nonnegative integer and a0, a1, . . ., an are constants, a0,  0 is a polynomial function in x of degree n.
The zeros or roots of f(x) are the numbers that will make f(x) = 0.

The Number of Positive and Negative Roots of a Polynomial Function

If f(x) is a polynomial function with real coefficients, then the following are true.
 The number of positive real zeros of f(x) is either equal to the number of variations in sign in f(x), or to that number
diminished by a positive even integer.

 The number of negative real zeros of f(x) is either equal to the number of variations in sign in f(-x), or to that number
diminished by a positive even integer.

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 LICENSURE EXAMINATION FOR TEACHERS (LET)

Refresher Course

Content Area: MATHEMATICS

Focus: ARITHMETIC, NUMBER THEORY AND BUSINESS MATH
Prepared by: Daisy de Borja-Marcelino
Competencies:

1. Simplifying expressions involving series of operations

2. Solve problems involving
a. GFC and LCMF
b. prime and composite
c. divisibility
d. inverse and partitive proportions
e. compound interest
f. congruence
g. linear Diophantine Equation
3. Apply Euler’s function and theorems, or Fermat’s theorem in solving problem.

THE NUMBER SYSTEM

Example: Some examples of imaginary numbers are:  25 ,  49 , negative numbers , 3i, -7i.

Example: Simplify: 2 (3 + 2i) – 5 (4 – 6i)

Solution: 2 (3 + 2i) – 5 (4 – 6i) = ( 6 + 4i) – (20 – 30i) = 6 + 4i – 20 + 30i = -16 + 34i.

Rational numbers are numbers which can be expressed as quotient of two integers, or can be expressed as fractions in
2
simplest forms. Examples are 8, -3, 3.45, and .
3
Irrational numbers are numbers which cannot be expressed as fractions in simplest forms. Examples are 3 , 4 7 , , e
3
and .
3
Set of Natural/Counting numbers: {1, 2, 3, 4, … }. This set contains the numbers that we use in counting; also called
natural numbers.
Set of Whole Numbers: { 0 , 1, 2, 3, …}. This set is the union of the number zero and the set of counting numbers.

Set of Integers: { … , -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3, …}. This set is the union of the set of counting numbers, their negatives, and zero

II. THE COUNTING NUMBERS

A. Divisibility. An integer is divisible by a certain divisor (also an integer) if it can be divided exactly by that divisor. That is,
the remainder is zero after the division process is completed.
To illustrate, the integer 12 is divisible by 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, and 12.

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 To determine whether the integer is divisible by a certain integer or not, you may use the following divisibility
rules.

An integer is divisible by
a) 2 if it ends with 0, 2, 4, 6, or 8. (Examples: 134 or 12 or 12,330 or 4)
b) 3 if the sum of the digits is divisible by 3. (Examples: 132 or 18 or 12,330 or 45)
c) 4 if the last two digits form a number which is divisible by 4. (Examples: 13,412 or 12,332)
d) 5 if it ends with 0 or 5. (Examples: 135 or 10 or 12,330 or 495)
e) 6 if it ends with 0, 2, 4, 6, 8 and the sum of the digits is divisible by 3.(Examples: 134 or 12)
f) 7 if the difference obtained after subtracting twice the last digit from the number formed by the remaining digits
is divisible by 7. (Examples: 14 or 364)
g) 8 if the last three digits form a number which is divisible by 8. (Examples: 24160 or 5328)
h) 9 if the sum of the digits is divisible by 9. (Examples: 9, 432 or 18,504 or 270)
i) 10 if it ends with 0. (Examples: 120 or 7, 890 or 1, 230)
j) 11 if the difference between the sum of the digits on the even powers of 10 and the sum of the digits on the odd
powers of 10 is divisible by 11. (Examples: 2123 or 2816 or 94369 or 36465)
k) 12 if it is both divisible by 3 and 4. (Examples: 413,412 or 112,332)
l) 15 if it is both divisible by 3 and 5. (Examples: 150 or 350)

Remarks: Divisibility rules for two or more relatively prime numbers (GCF is 1) may be combined to serve as a divisibility
rule for their product.

Example: The rules for 3, 4, and 5 may be combined to serve as the rule for their product which is 60 since 3, 4, and 5 are
relatively prime.

Exercises: Put a check mark on the space provided for, if the integer on the first column divides exactly the integer on the
top row.

456 36,720 800,112 456 36,720 800,112

2 10
3 11
4 12
5 14
6 24
7 32
8 45
9 77

Even numbers are whole numbers which can be divided exactly by two whole numbers.

Odd numbers are whole numbers which cannot be divided exactly by two whole numbers.
3
Example: If n is odd, which of the following is true?
2 2
I. n is odd II. n is odd III. n + 1 is odd

A) II only C) I only
B) I and II only D) I and III only

Example: If x is an odd integer and y is an even integer, which of the following is an odd integer?
A. 2x-y C. x 2 + 3y
2
B. x + y - 1 D. x - 1
B. Factors and Multiples. In the number sentence 2 x 3 = 6, the numbers 2 and 3 are called factors, while 6 is their
product. Or we say, 2 and 3 are divisors of 6. Moreover, we say that 6 is a multiple of 2 and 3.
2
Example: How many factors does 4 have?
A) 2 B) 4 c) 5 D) 16
2
Answer: (C). The factors of 4 = 16 are {1, 2, 4, 8, 16}.
Example: What are the multiples of 6?
Answer: The multiples of 12 are {12, 24, 36, 48, …}

Exercises Fill in the blanks with either 7 or 42.

a. ______ is a factor of ______.
b. ______ is divisible by ______.
c. ______ is a divisor of ______.
d. ______ is a multiple of ______.
e. ______ divides _______.

C. Prime and Composite Numbers

Prime numbers are counting numbers that have exactly two factors in the set of counting numbers: 1 and itself.

Composite numbers are counting numbers that have more than two factors in the set of counting numbers.
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The numbers 0 and 1 are special numbers. They are neither prime nor composite.

Example: What is the sum of prime numbers less than 15?

A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 14
Answer: The number 2,3,5,7, 11 and 13 are prime number less than 15. Hence, the answer is C.

D. Prime Factorization. This is a process of expressing a number as product of prime factors.

Example: Express 24 as product of prime factors.

3 3
Solution: 24= 2 x 2 x 2 x 3 = 2 x 3 or 3 x 2 .

Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic

Every composite whole numbers can be expressed as the product of primes in exactly one way (the order of the
factors is disregarded).

E. The Greatest Common Factor (GCF)

The GCF of two or more numbers is the largest possible divisor of the given numbers.

Example: Determine the GCF of 12 and 42.

Solution: 24 = 2 x 2 x 3
42 = 2 x 3 x 7
GCF: 2x3=6

Example: What is the greatest integer that can divide the numbers 18, 24 and 36?
Solution: 18 = 3 x 3 x 2
24 = 3 x 2 x 2 x 2
36 = 3 x 3 x 2 x 2
GCF: 3 x 2 = 6

F. Least Common Multiple (LCM). The LCM of two or more numbers is the smallest possible number that can be divided
by the given numbers.
Example: Give the LCM of 20 and 30.
2
Solution: 20 = 2 x 2 x 5 = 2 x 5
30 = 2 x 3 x 5
2
LCM: 2 x 3 x 5 = 60.

Example: What is the smallest integer that can be divided by the numbers 24, 36 and 54?
3
Solution: 24 = 2 x 2 x 2 x 3 = 2 x 3
2 2
36 = 2 x 2 x 3 x 3 = 2 x 3
3
54 = 2 x 3 x 3 x 3 = 2 x 3
3 3
LCM: 2 x 3 = 216
G. Relatively Prime. Two numbers are relatively prime if their GCF is 1. The numbers themselves may not be prime. The
numbers 12 and 49 are relatively prime.

Example: Which of the following pairs are relatively prime to each other?
A)15 and 36 B) 23 and 51 C) 231 and 27 D) 121 and 330

III. INTEGERS

Consecutive integers are two or more integers, written in sequence, in which each integer after the first is 1 more than
the preceding integer.
Examples: 1,2,3,4,5, 6
3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
– – – –
4, 3, 2, 1, 0, 1, 2, 3
x, x+1, x+2, x+3, x+4, x+5

The absolute value of a number x, denoted by  x , is the undirected distance between x and 0 on the number line.

– – – – –
5 4 3 2 1 0 1 2 3 4 5

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It is also defined as

x if x ≥ 0
x = – x if x < 0

Examples:
Evaluate each of the following.
a) │2│ = 2 c) │0│ = 0

b) │– 7│ = 7 d) – │–15│ = –15

A. Multiplication. The product of two integers with like signs is a positive while the product of two integers with unlike
signs is negative.

Example: (-4) x 7 = (-28) or (-4) (7) = (-28) or (-4)  7 = (-28)

Example: (-8) x (-5) = 40 or (-8) (-5) = 40 or (-8)  (-5) = 40

B. Division. The quotient of two integers with like signs is a positive while the quotient of two integers with unlike signs is
negative.

Example: (-72) (-8) = 9

Example: (-123)  3 = - 41

C. Addition. The sum of two integers with like signs is the sum of their absolute values with the common sign prefixed
before it.

The sum of two integers with unlike signs is the difference of their absolute values with the sign of the integer
with the larger absolute value prefixed before the difference.

Example: (-3) + (-23) = (-26)

Example: (-34) + 12 = (-22)

D. Subtraction. Express subtraction statements as addition statements and follow the procedure in addition. (That is,
change the sign of the subtrahend to its opposite, and proceed to addition.)
Example: (-12) – (-3) = (-12) + 3 = -9

Exercise: What number should

a) be added to (-12) to yield 26?
b) be subtracted from (-2) to yield 5?
c) be multiplied by (-4) to yield (-36)?
d) be divided by (-2) to yield 30?
E. P-E-MDAS. P-E-MDAS stands for “Parenthesis-Exponent-Multiplication Division Addition Subtraction.

When two or more operations are involved in a single expression, operations are performed in the order of P-E-
MDAS. That is, we perform first the operation inside the parenthesis (or any grouping symbol), then followed by
determining the power of the number which is raised to a given exponent, then followed by multiplication/division, and
lastly by the addition/subtraction.
Should there be multiplication and division only, perform the operation from left to right.
Should there be addition and subtraction only, perform the operation from left to right.

Simplify 20 + 100  ( 5 – 63  3 + 12)

2
Example:

20 + 100  ( 5 – 63  3 + 12)
2
Solution:
= 20 + 100  ( 5 – 63  9 + 12)
= 20 + 100  ( 5 – 7+ 12)
= 20 + 100  ( (–2) + 12)
= 20 + 100  10
= 20 + 10
= 30.

1. Two bells ring at 5 P.M. For the rest of the day, one bell rings every half hour whereas the other rings every 45 minutes.
When is the first time, on that same day, that both bells ring at the same time again?
a. 6:30 P.M. b. 8:30 P.M. c. 8:45 P.M. d. 9:00 P.M.

2. Which is true?
a. The set of prime factors of 6 is {1,2,3} c. All prime numbers are odd numbers.
St. Louis Review Center-Inc-Davao Tel. no. (082) 224-2515 48
 b. The product of irrational and rational is irrational. d. 3.14 is a rational number.

3. Which of the two-digit numbers below when inserted in the blank will make 38__09 divisible by 3?
a. 98 b. 84 c. 34 d. 60

4. Which of the following number is divisible by 45?

a. 300,000,000,450 b.600,000,000,045 c. 100,200,600,090 d. 400,450,000,000
th th
5. On its anniversary, a certain store offers a free sandwich for every 4 customer and a free softdrink for every 6
customer. After 75 customers, how many had received both free sandwich and softdrink?
a. 30 b. 18 c. 12 d. 6

IV. FRACTIONS

Kinds of Fractions

As to relation between the numerator and the denominator

a. Proper – the numerator is less than the denominator
b. Improper – the numerator is equal to or greater than the denominator

As to relation of the denominators of two or more fractions

1 3 4
a. Similar – the denominators are equal. Examples:, ,
5 5 5
3 5 5
b. Dissimilar – the denominators are not equal. Examples: , ,
4 8 6

Other classes
3 6 12
a. Equivalent – fractions having the same value. Examples: , , .
4 8 14
3 5
b. Mixed – composed of a whole number and a proper fraction . Examples: 2 , 5 .
4 8
Rules involving Zero
a. Zero numerator and non-zero denominator – the value is zero
b. Zero denominator – no value, undefined
c. Zero value – the numerator is zero

A. Multiplication of Fractions. Multiply numerator by numerator and denominator by denominator to get the numerator
and denominator respectively of the product
12 5 60 2
Example:   or .
25 6 150 5

B. Division of Fractions. Multiply the supposed dividend by the reciprocal of the supposed divisor.
36 6 36 10 360 12 2
Example:     = or 2 .
25 10 25 6 150 5 5
1 2 19 3
Exercises: Evaluate the following. a) 2  3 b) 2 5
4 5 21 20
1 7 5 1
c) 2  1 d) 3 1
3 18 15 6
D. Changing Dissimilar Fractions to Similar Fractions. Determine the LCM of the denominators. Then with the said LCM as
the denominator, express each fraction to its equivalent.

1 3 5
Example: Express , , to similar fractions.
3 4 6

1 4 4 3 3 9 5 2 10
Solution:  = ,  = and  =
3 4 12 4 3 12 6 2 12
4 9 10
Therefore, the similar fractions are , and .
12 12 12

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E. Addition of fractions. Convert the fractions to similar fractions. Then add the numerators to obtain the numerator of
the sum and copy the denominator.
1 3 5
Example: Evaluate + + .
3 4 6

Solution: The LCM is 12, so convert the addends to similar fractions with 24 as the
denominator.
1 3 5 4 9 10 23 11
+ + =  +  or 1 .
3 4 6 12 12 12 12 12

F. Subtraction of Fractions. Convert the fractions to similar fractions. Then subtract the
numerators to obtain the numerator of the difference and copy the denominator.

7 1
Example: What number should be subtracted from to obtain ?
12 2

Solution: Let the desired number be x. Then, the equation is given by

7 1 7 1 7 6 1
-x=  x= - =  = .
12 2 12 2 12 12 12

G. Fraction as Part of a Whole

3
Example: What is of 28?
4
Solution: Let the desired number be m. Then, the equation is given by
3 3 28 84
M =  28     21 .
4 4 1 4

Example: What part of 24 is 4?

Solution: Let the desired number be q. Then, the equation is given by
q  24 = 4

4 1
 q= or .
24 6
H. Simplifying Fractions
A fraction is in simplest form if the numerator and the denominator are relatively prime (their GCF is 1). Thus, to
simplify fractions, multiply by the fraction whose numerator and denominator are the reciprocal of the GCF of the
numerator and the denominator of the given fraction.

12 2 12 2  6 2
Example: The simplest form of is because   .
18 3 18 3  6 3

I. Ordering Fractions

Two fractions are equivalent if their cross products are equal. Otherwise, that fraction the numerator of which
was used to get the greater of the two cross products is the larger fraction.

Exercises

1. A 100-m wire is cut into two parts so that one part is ¼ of the other. How long is the shorter piece of wire?
a. 120m b. 80m c. 25m d. 20m

2. Luis left ½ pan of a cake on the table. Dada ate ¾ of it. What fraction of cake was left?
a. 1/8 b. 3/8 c. ¼ d. ½

n
3. If 21 and are equivalent fractions, what is the value of n?
39 26
a. 13 b. 14 c. 20 d. 21
5 1
4. Mr. dela Cruz owned of a business. He sold of his share in the business at a cost of P1M. What is the total cost
8 5
of the business?
a. P 6M b. P7M c. P 8M d. P 9M
5. Arrange the fractions 5/8, 4/5, 3/4 in increasing order.
a. 5/8, 4/5, 3/4 c. 3/4, 4/5, 5/8
b. 4/5, 3/4, 5/8 d. 4/5, 5/8, 3/4

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6. Which of these fractions has the largest value?
a. 3/5 b. 11/16 c. 7/10 d. 5/8
7. Mark spent his monthly salary as follows: 3/5 for food and allowances, 1/3 for his child’s education and house rental.
If his monthly salary is P15, 000, how much would he left at the end of the month?
a. P 1,000 b. P2,000 c. P5,000 d. P 14,000

8. Chedy and Dada run for President for their organization. Chedy got 1/3 of the votes. If Dada got 300 votes, how many
students voted for Chedy?
a. 900 b. 200 c. 150 d. 100

V. DECIMAL NUMBERS

A. The Decimal Numbers and the place value chart

The place value chart

Hundred Thousands
Hundred Thousand

Ten Thousandths
Thousandths
Hundredths
Ten Thousand

Thousands

Hundreds

Tenths
Ones
Tens

100 000 10 000 1 000 100 10 1 0.1 0.01 0.001 0.0001 0.00001

The number 0.8 is read as “eight tenths” and .214 as “two hundred fourteen thousandths”.
The number 0.8 is equal to .800.
The number 0.8 is greater than 0.214.
Exercise: a) Arrange the following decimal numbers in ascending order:
0.5, 0.343, 0.142, 0.5254

b) In 2.3456, what digit is in the thousandths place?

B. Addition and Subtraction of Decimal Numbers. Addition of decimals is done by writing them in a column so that their
decimal points are aligned. Thus aligned, digits with the same place values would be in the same column, and the addends
(or the minuend and the subtrahend) are added (or subtracted) as if they were whole numbers.
C. Multiplication of Decimal Numbers. To multiply decimals, multiply the numbers as if they were whole and so place the
decimal point in the result as to have as many decimal places in it as there are in the factors combined.
D. Division of Decimal Numbers.

To divide a
i. decimal by a whole number, do as in dividing whole numbers but writing the decimal point directly above that of
the dividend.
ii. number by a decimal, multiply both dividend and divisor by that power of ten such that the divisor becomes the
least whole number, and then proceed as in (i) above.

VI. CONVERSION

A. Fraction to Decimal. Divide the numerator by the denominator.

Exercises: Convert the following to decimal:

a) 3/5 = ______
b) 5/6 = ______
c) 7/8 = ______

B. Decimal to fraction

a) Terminating – multiply the number by a fraction (equal to one) whose numerator and denominator is a multiple of 10
such that the numerator of the product is a whole number.

Example: Convert 0.15 to fraction.

100 15 3
Solution: 0.15  = 
100 100 20

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b) Repeating decimal number

Example: Convert 0.5 to fraction

Solution: Let n = 0.5 = 0.5555555.

10 n = 5.5555555.
- n = 0.5555555.
-----------------------------------
9n= 5
5
n=
9
5
Hence, 0.5 is equal to .
9

Exercises

1. Jeepney fares are computed as follows: P7.50 for the four kilometers plus P0.50 for every additional kilometer thereof.
How much should Au pay for a ride that covers 10 kilometers?
a. P8.00 b. P9.50 c. P10.00 d. P10.50
2. Which of the following is 0.3 of ♠ ♠ ♠ ♠ ♠ ♠ ♠ ♠ ♠ ♠?
a. ♠ ♠ ♠♠ ♠ ♠ b. ♠ ♠ ♠ c. ♠ ♠ d. ♠
3. Which of the following is between 3 and 4?
15
a. 5 b. -3.5 c. π d.
2
4. Evaluate 14.8 + 3.95 + .003.
a. 5433 b. 753 c. 446 d. 18.753
5. Carmen bought 4 kilograms of rice at P31.45 per kilo and 6 kilograms of salt at P22.35 per kilo. If she gave a P1000 bill
to the cashier, how much change did she get?
a. P8.00 b. P9.50 c. P120.10 d. P740.10
6. Each capsule of a certain commercial vitamins contains 0.6 mg of calcium. In how many pieces of capsules can 22.2 mg
of calcium be distributed?
a. 8 b. 37 c. 50 d. 105
7. Which of the following is equal to 2.4545454545… ?
5 5 44 44
a. b. 2 c. d. 2
11 11 45 45

1 1 1
8. The expression + + is equal to _____________.
100 1000 25
a. 0.0051 b. 0.006 c. 0.51 d. 0.051
9. Which of these numbers is greater than ¼?
2
a. .04 b. (1/2) c. 1/8 d. 1/0.04

VII. PERCENT

Per Cent – literally meaning “per hundred”, it is one way of writing fractions in which the denominator which is required
to be 100 is written as “%”, and read as “per cent”.
3 75 1
Since 1 = 100% hence  = 75%
4 100 4

A. CONVERSION
Percent to Decimal Number. Divide the number by 100%. Note that 100% = 1.

Example: Convert the following to decimal:

a) 35% c) 8.37%
1 1
b) 6 % d) %
4 4

Solution: a) (35%) 100% = 0.35

b) (6 ¼ %)  100%  (6.25%)  100% = .0625
c) (8.37)  100% = .0837
d) (1/4%)  100%  (0.25%)  100% = .0025

Decimal Numbers to Percent. Multiply the decimal number by 100%. Note that 100% = 1.

Example: Convert the following to percent.

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 a) 0.25 b) 0.143 c) 2.03 d) .005

Solution: a) 0.25 x 100% = 25% b) 0.143 x 100% = 14.3%

c) 2.03 x 100% = 203% d) .005 x 100% = 0.5%

Exercises: Fill in the blanks so that the entries in each row are equal.
Fraction Decimal Percent
A 4/7
B 160%
C 0.95
D 6/11
E ½%
B. Percentage. Percentage is a percent of a given number. The given number is called the base. The percent is called the
rate.

Formula: Percentage (P) = Base (B) x Rate (R)

Percentage Percentage
Base  and Rate   100%
Rate Base

Example: What is 50% of 140?

Solution: N = 0.50 x 140 = 70.00 = 70

Example: 36 is 10% of what number?

36
Solution: 36 = 0.10 N  N  360
0.10

Example: 22 is what percent of 88?

Solution: 22 = P  88
22
 P  0.25  100%  25%
88
Example: Mr. Ballaran receives a 10% increase in his salary. With the increase, he now receives P22, 000. How
much is his monthly salary before the increase?
Solution: present salary = previous salary + increase
22, 000 = previous salary + (10% of previous salary)
22,000= previous salary (1 + .10)
22 000  1.1 = previous salary
20,000 = previous salary

C. Discount

The discussion on DISCOUNT is very similar with the discussion on PERCENTAGE.

Original Price/ Marked Price/ List price - as the Base
Rate of Discount - as the Rate
Discount - as the Percentage
Selling Price - Original Price minus Discount

Example: A skirt with an original price of P250 is being sold at 40% discount. Find its selling price.

Solution: S.P. = Original price - Discount

= 250 – (0.40 x 250)
= 250 - 100
= 150

Example: An item has a selling price of P 210.00. If the selling price is 70% of the original price, what is its original
price?
Solution: Selling price is 70% of the original price
210 = 0.70  O.P.
 O.P. = 210  0.70 = 300.
Therefore, the original price is P300.

Example: A shirt is being sold at P 199.95. If its original price is P 430, find the rate of discount.
Solution: Discount = O.P. – S.P.
= 430 – 199.95 = 230.05
230.05
Rate of Discount =  100%  53.5%
430

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D. Simple Interest
 Interest (I) is the amount paid for the use of money or the money earned for depositing the money.
 Principal (P) is the money that is borrowed or deposited.
 Time (t) is the number of days/months/years for which the money is being borrowed/deposited and interest is
calculated.
I I I
I = Prt, P= t= r=  100%
Example: Give the rt Pr Pt simple
interest of P10,000 for three years
at 5.5% per year.
Solution: I=Prt
I = (10 000) (.055) (3)
I = P1 100.

Example: Determine the amount of the principal if the interest at 10% per annum after 8 months is
P3,600.
I 3600
Solution: I=Prt  P = = 45,000
rt (0.10)(8 / 12)

Compound Interest ( Final Amount = P[ 1 + r ]n )

Compound interest is different from simple interest because after the first interest calculation, the interest is added
to the principal, so interest is earned on previous interest in addition to the principal. Compound Interest rates may be
given as annual (1 time a year), semiannual (2 times a year), quarterly (4 times a year), monthly (12 times a year), and daily
(365 times a year).
Example: If P500is invested at 8% compounded semiannually, what will the final amount be after three years?
Final Amount = P[ 1 + r ]n = 500[ 1 + (8% / 2)]3 * 2 = 500[ 1 + 0.04 ]6
= 500[1.27]
= 635
Exercises

1. John bought a jacket for Php 850.00. If he was given a discount of 15%, what was the original price?
a. P8,500.00 b. P1,000.00 c. P900.00 d.P765.00
2. In a basket, there are 15 santol, 12 balimbing, and 3 durian. What percent of the fruits are durian?
a. 10% b. 12.5% c. 12% d. 15%
3. A certain mobile phone model was sold for P4,000 in 2000. Two years later, the same mobile phone model sold for
P2,800. What was the percent decrease of the price?
a. 15% b. 30% c. 20% d. 35%
4. If ♥♥♥♥ is 50% of a larger figure, which of the following is the larger figure?
a. ♥ b. ♥♥ c. ♥♥♥♥ d. ♥♥♥♥♥♥♥♥
5. A senior class of 50 girls and 70 boys sponsored a dance. If 40% of the girls and 50 % of the
boys attended the dance, approximately what percent attended?
a 44 b. 46 c. 42 d. 40
1
6. Which of the following is equal to 2 %?
2
5
a. 2.5 b. 0.25 c. d. 0.025
2
7. Sarah’s earning P 9,200 a month will receive a 15% increase next month. How much
will her new salary be?
a. P 10,500 b. P 10,530 c. P 10,580 d. P 10,560
8. How much is 37% of 80% of 24?
a. 7.1 b. 1.92 c. 19.2 d. 71
9. According to the latest survey, 60% of the cancer patients were smokers. If there were 180 smoking cancer patients,
how many cancer patients are there in all?
a. 90 b. 108 c. 240 d. 300
10. Which of the following is 70% of 50?
a. 7 b. 17.5 c. 35 d. 71
11. Twenty four is 12% of what number?
a. 40 b. 150 c. 200 d. 400
12. Thirty six is what percent of 90?
a. 32.4% b. 40% c. 45% d. 76%
13. In a mathematics test of 40 items, Mavic got 90%. How many items did Mavic get?
a. 7 b. 28 c. 36 d. 360
14. Mr. Mabini receives a 10% increase in his salary. With the increase, he now receives P13,200. How much is his
monthly salary before the increase?
a. P12 000 b. P 13, 500 c. 14, 100 d. P14, 520

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15. According to the latest survey, 60% of the cancer patients were smokers. If there were 180 smoking cancer patients,
how many cancer patients are there in all?
a. 70 b. 150 c. 300 d. 360

VIII. RATIO AND PROPORTION

 A ratio is a comparison of two or more quantities.

 A proportion is a number sentence stating the equivalence of two ratios.

Note that in ratio, we are comparing quantities of the same units and that the ratio is expressed in terms of integers.
Examples: a) The ratio of 12 days to 3 weeks is 12:21 or 4:7.
b) The ratio of 3 meters to 180 cm is 300:180 or 5:3.
c) The ratio of 2 hours to 25 minutes is 120:25 or 24:5.
d) The ratio of 1 ½ to 4 ½ is 1:3.

A. Direct Proportion. As one quantity increases, the other increases also.

Example: Find the value of x if 15:20 = 14 : x.

Solution: Equate the product of the means and the product of the extremes. Then solve for x. Thus,

(15) (n) = (20) (14)

x
2014 = 18.6 or 18 2 .
15 3

Example: A car travels at an average rate of 260 km in 5 hours. How far can it go in 8 hours,
if traveling at the same rate?
Solution: 260 : 5 = x : 8  (5) x = (260) (8)

x
2608 = 416.
5
Example: If the ratio of teachers to students in a school is 1 to 18 and there are 360 students, how many teachers are
there?
Solution: Let x be the number of teachers,

1 x
 or 1 : 18 = x : 360
18 360
(18)x = (360)1
x = 360/18 = 20 teachers

B. Inverse Proportion. As one quantity increases, the other decreases.

Example: If the food is sufficient to feed 10 flood victims in 15 days, how many days would it last for 8 flood
victims?

Solution: Equate the product of the terms in the first condition to the product of the terms in
the second condition. Thus, we have:

(10 victims)(15 days) = (x) (8 victims)

x
1015 = 18.75 days
8

C. Partitive Proportion. One quantity is being partitioned into different proportions.

Example: A wood 120 m long is cut in the ratio 2:3:5. Determine the measure of each part.
2 120 24
Solution: · = = 24 m
10 1 1

3 120 36
· = = 36 m
10 1 1

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 5 120 60
· = = 60 m
10 1 1

Example: A wire is cut into three equal parts. The resulting segments are then cut into 4, 6, and 8 equal parts
respectively. If each of the resulting segments has an integer length, what is the minimum length of the wire?
A) 24 B) 48 C) 72 D) 96

Solution: Each third of the wire is cut into 4,6 and 8 parts respectively, and all the resulting segments have integer lengths.
This means that each third of the wire has a length that is evenly divisible by 4, 6, and 8. The smallest positive integer that
is divisible by 4, 6, and 8 is 24, so each third of the wire has a minimum length of 24. So, the minimum length of the
whole wire is three times 24, or 72.

Exercises
1. A 300 m ribbon is cut into four pieces in the ratio 1:2:3:4. Give the length of the shortest piece.2. If there are 18 boys
and 45 girls in the gym, what is the ratio of the girls to the boys?
a. 2:5 b. 2:3 c. 5:2 d. 3:7
2. What one number can replace x in 2: x = x: 32?
a. 2 b. 6 c. 4 d. 8
3. If 5 men can do a job in 12 days, how long will it take 10 men to complete this task, assuming that they work at the
same rate?
a. 20 days b. 6 days c. 2 days d. 0.06 day
4. If 3 kg of oranges cost as much as 5 kg of chicos, how many kg of oranges would cost as much as 60 kg of chicos?
A. 100 B. 36 C. 7.5 D. 4
5. If 2/5 mm in a map represents 120 km, how many km will be represented by 2 mm?
A. 600 km B. 300 km C. 96 km D. 24 km
6. In a Mathematics Club, the ratio of boys to girls is 3:5. If there are 240 members, how many are girls?
A. 90 B. 144 C. 150 D. 450
7. A photographer wishes to enlarge a picture 18 cm long and 12 cm wide so that it will be
36 cm wide. How long will the enlarged picture be?
A. 54 cm B. 72 cm C. 24 cm D. 6 cm
8. If 8 secretaries can type 800 pages in 5 hours, how long would it take for 12 secretaries to
type 800 pages at the same rate?
A. 7 1/2 hours B. 3 1/3 hours C. 10 hours D. 2 1/2 hours

THE THEORY OF CONGRUENCES

If a and b are integers, m a positive integer and m(a – b), we say that “a is congruent to b modulo m”. In
symbols, we write this as a  b (mod m). CONGRUENCE was invented by Karl Friedrich Gauss at the beginning of the
th
19 century and is a convenient statement about divisibility.

The following are equivalent and may be used interchangeably.

 a  b (mod m).
 m  (a – b) or (a – b) is divisible by m.
 a = b + mk, k  Z.

Theorem: If a and b are integers and m a positive integer then a  b (mod m) if and only if a and b leave the same
remainder upon division by m.

Let m be a positive integer. A collection of m integers {a , a ,..., a } is called a complete residue system modulo m if
1 2 n

every integer b modulo m is congruent to exactly one of the elements in the collection.

Properties of Congruence
Congruence is an equivalence relation in the set of integers; that is, congruence is reflexive, symmetric and transitive with
respect to integers.
In the following, let a, b, c, and d be integers and m a positive integer.
 If a  b (mod m) then
 a+c  b+c (mod m).
 ac  bc (mod m).
a  b (mod m) where r is a positive integer.
r r


If a  b (mod m) and c  d (mod m), then

 a + c  (b + d) (mod m).
 ac  (bd) (mod m).

St. Louis Review Center-Inc-Davao Tel. no. (082) 224-2515 56

  m
 If ac  bc (mod m), then a  b mod  where d = (c, m).
 d

The following are some applications of congruence.

a) Finding the units digit (or hundreds digits) of a very large number written in exponential form; and
b) Finding the remainder when a very large number is divided by another number.

Two of the most prolific mathematicians in Number Theory are Pierre de Fermat and Leonhard Euler.

FERMAT’S AND EULER’S THEOREMS

Theorem 5. (Fermat’s Little Theorem) Let p be a prime number and a  Z . If p does not divide a, then
 1 (mod p) .
p–1
a

Theorem 6. (Fermat’s Second Theorem). Let p be a prime number and a  Z . If p and a are relatively prime, then
a  a (mod p) .
p

DEFINITION OF  (m)

Let m be a positive integer greater than 1. The number of positive integers less than and relatively prime to m is
the value of Euler’s totient or  function at m and is denoted by  (m) .

Remarks: If p is prime, then  ( p) = p – 1.

Theorem 7. Euler’s Theorem: If n is a positive integer and the greatest common divisor of a and n is 1, then
a n   1mod n .

LINEAR DIOPHANTINE EQUATIONS

 An equation in one or more unknowns having integral solutions is called a Diophantine equation, in honor of
Diophantus of Alexandria.

Theorem 8. Given two integers a and b where (a , b) = d. The linear Diophantine equation
ax + by = c has an integral solution if and only if dc.

Theorem 9. If the equation ax + by = c has a solution x = x0 , y = y0, then any other solutions can be expressed in the
form
b
x  x0  t , t  Z and
d
a
y  y0  t , t  Z.
d
Example: To determine the integral solution of 24x + 138y = 18, we note that since (24,138) = 6 and 618. Then we know
that it has solution. We now have the following.

138 = 5 (24) + 18
24 = 1 (18) + 6
18 = 6 (3).
Observe that,
6 = 24 – 1(18)
= 24 – [138 - 5 (24)]
= (-1)(138) + 6(24)

Moreover,
18 = 3(6)
= 3[(-1)(138) + 6(24)]
=(-3)(138) +(18)(24)

Thus, y0 = -3 and x0 = 18

Hence, the solution of the equation is of the form y = -3+23t and x = 18– 4t where t is an integer.
There are problems which can be solved using linear Diophantine equations as working equations.
The following steps may be used in solving word problems which involve linear Diophantine equations in two
unknowns/variables:
Step 1. Represent the unknown values using any two variables.

Step 2. Form the equation using the condition given in the problem.

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 Step 3. Solve the resulting linear Diophantine equation.

Step 4. Determine the solution/s to the problem using the results in step 3.

Theorem: (Wilson’s Theorem) If p is a prime, then (p-1)!  1mod p  .

Exercises

1. Which of the following is true?

A. 34  3mod 5 B. 54  5mod 25 C. 308  0mod11 D. 3  4mod 15
2. Mavic argues that 15  9mod 6 . Is she correct? Why?
A. Yes, because 6 divides 15 - 9. C. No, because 6 does not divide 15 + 9.
B. Yes, because 6 divides 15 + 9. D. No, because 15  9  61 .
3. Which of the following is congruent to 11 modulo 13?
A. -7 B. -5 C. -2 D. 4
4. Which of the following must be the value of n if n6  1  0mod 7 ?
A. x is divisible by 7 C. x is relatively prime with 7
B. x is prime D. x is any integer greater than 7
5. What is the remainder when 5105 is divided by 3?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5
100
6. What is the units digit of 3 ?
A. 1 B. 3 C. 5 D. 9
7. What is  12 ?
A. 1 B.4 C.6 D. 11

SET A Exercises. Choose the letter of the best answer.

1. What is the sum of the first four prime numbers?

a. 11 b. 26 c. 17 d. 28
2. Which of the following is NOT true about the sum of two consecutive positive odd integers?
a. it is even b. it is only divisible by 12
c. it is divisible by 4 d. it is always divisible by 1
3. In a sequence of starts and stops, an elevator travels from the first floor to the fourth floor and then to the second
floor. From there, the elevator travels to the third floor and then to the first floor. If the floors are 3 meters apart, how
far has the elevator traveled?
a. 21 m b. 24 m c. 28 m d. 32 m
4. An orange light blinks every 4 seconds. A blue one blinks every 5 seconds while a red one blinks every 6 seconds. How
many times will they blink together in two hours?
a. once b. 2 times c. 10 times d. 60 times
5. If one prime factor of 84 is 3, what are the other prime factors?
a. 2 and 3 b. 2 and 7 c. 3 and 5 d. 4 and 7

6. A television show reports the following temperature for 5 cities:

Beijing London Chicago Philippines Moscow
0 0 0 0 0
2 C -6 C 0 C 30 C -9 C
Which city is the coldest?
a. Beijing b. Chicago c. London d. Moscow
7. If the sum of a certain number and 7 is divided by 4, the quotient is 3. What is the number?
a. 5 b. 12 c. 15 d. 18
8. Which of the following numbers has the largest value?
a. –22 b. –10 c. –75 d.3
9. Which of the following numbers has the least value?
a. –22 b. –10 c. –75 d.3
10. What is the difference in the elevation between the top of a mountain 51 meters above sea level and a location 28
meters below sea level.
a. 23 m b. 33 m c. 79 m d. 89 m
11. A pack of P50-bills is numbered from RV628 to RV663. What is the total value of the pack of bills, in pesos?
a. 35 b. 36 c. 1750 d. 1800
12. Simplify: [ 5  81  3 – 5  3 + 2] (4 – 2 )
2 2 3

a. 15 ¼ b. 4 c. -6 d. – 15 1/4
2
13. If each container contains 5 kg of flour, how many kg of flour are there in 12 container?
3
b. 68 kg b. 70kg c. 72 kg d. 80 kg

14. Eighteen is 2/3 of what number?

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 a. 6 b. 12 c. 6 d. 27
15. What part of an hour has passed from 2:48 am to 3:20 am?
a. 7/8 b. 1/3 c. 8/15 d. 8/25
16. Clarita spent one-sixth of her money in one store. In the next store, she spent three times as much as she spent in the
first store. If she had 80 pesos left, how much money did she have from the start?
a. 240 pesos b. 252 pesos c. 300 pesos d. 360 pesos
17. Philip has obtained the following grades: 1.4, 1.7, 1.8 and 2.5. What must be his fifth grade so that his average is 1.7?
a. 2.1 b. 1.9 c. 1.5 d. 1.1
18. Out of the 20 numbers, 6 were 2.5’s, 4 were 3.25’s and the rest were 2.2’s. Give the arithmetic mean of the numbers.
a. 2.5 b. 2.65 c. 10 d. 22
19. Ron bought X number of notebooks at P23.00 each, Y pad papers at 18.45 each, and Z ballpens at P8.25 each. If he
gave an amount of P1000 to the cashier, how much change did he receive?
a. P 434.25 c. 1000 – [(23.00)(X) + (18.45) (Y) + (8.25) (Z)]
b. P 334.25 d. none of these
20. A bag has a selling price of P60.00. If the selling price is 75% of the original price, what is its original price?
a. P80 b. P120 c. P200 d. P280
21. Mr. de Borja, a store owner, advertises a polo-shirt originally sold for P200 for P170 only. What rate of discount is he
giving?
a. P 30 b. P15 c. 30% d. 15%
22. Ja bought an article for P400 and sold it for P500. What rate of profit did she enjoy in that deal?
a. P100 b. 100% c. 25 % d. 20%
23. The price of an item is increased by 70% and then offered at 40% discount. What happened
to the original price?
a. There is an increase of 30%. c. There is an increase of 2 %.
b. There is an increase of 28%. d. There is a decrease of 32%.
24. How much should Allan invest so that his money earns P2,250 deposited at 6% for 9 months?
a. P 50,000 b. 37,500 c. P 135 d. P 101.25
25. Dan sells a real estate. He receives a monthly salary of P10,000 plus a commission of 1/5 % of his net sales for that
month. Find his gross pay for a month during which his net sale is one million pesos.
a. P 2,000 b. P 12,000 c. P 200,000 d. P 210,000
26. There are 20 million Filipinos who are qualified voters. If 25% of the population are qualified voters, how many are
not qualified voters?
a. 80 million b. 60 million c. 15 million d. 5 million
27. Three cavans of rice for a family of six members last for 5 weeks. At this rate, how many weeks will 4 cavans of rice
last a family of 8 members?
A. 4 B. 5 C. 5 1/3 D. 6
28. If the assembly, ratio of boys to girls is 1:4. What percent of the assembly are the boys?
A. 10% B. 20% C. 25 % D. 80%
29. What is the remainder when 1130 is divided by 31?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 10 D. 101
2061
30. Which of the following is the remainder when 5 is divided by 7?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 6
31. If y is the remainder when 47 is divided by 6, what is the remainder when 19 is divided by y?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5
32. Which of the following is a value of z such that the congruence 3 z  1mod 13 is NOT true?
A. 9 B. 22 C. 30 D. 48
33. What is the remainder when 18! + 2 is divided by 19?
A. 0 B. 1 C.3 D. 97
34. A certain number of sixes and nines are added to give a sum of 126. If the numbers of sixes and nines are
interchanged, the new sum is 114. How many of each were there after the switch?
A. Ten sixes and 6 nines B. Four sixes and Twelve nines
C. Seven sixes and nine nines D. Six sixes and Ten nines

SET B Exercises. Choose the letter of the best answer.

1. How many prime numbers are less than 37?

a. 9 b. 10 c. 11 d. 12
2. In a series of card games. Marlon starts out with P200 and wins a total of P450. If he later loses P350, wins P60 and
loses P150, how much cash does Marlon have?
a. 0 b. P150 c. P210 d. P300
3. Your score in a game is -6. How many points must you earn to get a score of 10?
a. -6 b 15 c. 16 D. 22
4. Arrange the fractions 5/12, 3/7, 2/5 in decreasing order.
a. 2/5, 5/12, 3/7 c. 3/7, 5/12, 2/5
b. 5/12, 2/5, 3/7 d. 2/5, 3/7, 5/ 12
1 3
5. Edwin, Doms and Lon weigh 45 kg. If Edwin and Doms weigh 11 kg and 13 kg, respectively, what is the weight of
5 4
Lon in kilograms?

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 1 19 9 19
a. 20 b. 24 c. 42 d. 69
20 20 20 20
3
6. Which of the following should be multiplied to 4 so that the product is 57?
4
a. 6 b. 12 c. 6 d. 75
7. Which of the following is a value of m if 15  1mod m ?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 23 D. 32
1
8. Alex works on his assignment 3 hours a day, what part of the day does he spend doing his assignment?
3
a. 1/8 b. 1/7 c. 5/36 d. 15/28
9. What value of p will satisfy the equation 0.2 (2p + 1470) = p?
a. 294 b. 490 c. 560 d. 1470
10. A blouse originally priced at P600 is being sold at a discount of 30%. How much would you pay if you buy that blouse?
a. P 30 b. P180 c. P 420 d. P 570
11. A pair of slippers with a selling price of P120 is sold at 40% discount. What is its original price?
a. P 48 b. P72 c. P 200 d. P 300
12. An item is offered at 20% discount. Later, it is offered at 30% discount. If the new selling price is P112, what is the first
original price?
a. P162 b. P200 c. P224 d. P1866.67
13. To have a 25% profit, the vendor should sell the item at P80.00. How much is his profit?
a. P20.00 b. P60.00 c. P16.00 d. P64.00
1
14. Minda deposited P50,000 in a bank that pays a simple annual interest of 14 %. How much
5
money will she have in the bank after five years.
a. P 85,500 b. P35,500 c. P36,250 d. P86,250
15. The ratio of cows and carabaos in the field is 4:9. If there are 468 cows and carabaos in the
field, how many are carabaos?
A. 52 B. 117 C. 144 D. 324
16. In the class, the ratio of boys to girls is 6:5. If there are 90 girls, how many persons are in the class?
A. 75 B. 108 C. 165 D. 198
17. Edwin painting a wall at 9:00 a.m. and was able to finish painting 3/5 of it at 10:30 a.m. Continuing at this rate, at what
time will he finish?
A. 10:45 a.m. B. 11:30 a.m. C. 11:45 a.m. D. 12:15 a.m.
200
18. What is the remainder when 4 is divided by 15?
A. -1 B. 1 C. 2 D. 4
3x
19. If x is any positive integer, then 2 + 1 is _______ divisible by 8.
A. Always B. Never C. Sometimes D. Equivalently
20. What is  29 ?
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 28
21. Which of the following is the remainder when 2  1 is divided by 7?
50

A. 0 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5
22. Which of the following is equivalent to the pair of congruence x  1mod 4 and x  2mod 3 ?
A. x  1mod12 B. x  2mod12
C. x  3mod12 D. x  5mod12
23. Which of the following is NOT true if a is a positive integer?
C. a  amod 10
5
A. a divides a 5
B. a 5 divides a  1 . D. a and a 5 have the same units digit
24. Which of the following gives a remainder of 2 when divided by 5 and a remainder of 12 when divided by
13?
A. 22 B.38 C. 77 D. 92
25. What is the remainder upon dividing the sum 2!4!6!...  2008!2010! by 5?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
109
26. What is the least residue if 17 is a multiple of 6?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5
27. Which of the following has an integral solution?
A. 21x  13mod 77 B. 3x  4mod 81
C. 3x  5mod 36 D. 3x  4mod 5
28. How many integral solutions does 18x  21mod 24 have?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 6 D. 10

29. Which of the following has a solution if the variables are positive integers?
A. 5x + 30y = 18 B. 8x + 10y = 15
C. 22x + 4y = 28 D. 101x  37 y  3819

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30. When 16! is divided by 17, the remainder is ______.
A. 0 B. 1 C. 17 D. 18
31. A John’s transcript shows x number of 3-unit courses and y number of 5-unit courses for a total of 64 units. Which of
the following may appear in the transcript?
A. 2 x’s and 18 y’s B. 13 x’s and 5 y’s
C. 11 x’s and 3 y’s D. 9 x’s and 8 y’s

32. Which of the following is a value of x if x  1 mod 8 ?
2

A. 2 B. 5 C. 6 D. 10
33. When students in a certain college are grouped by 2’s, 3’s, 4’s, 5’s or 6’s at a time, there remain, 1,2,3,4, or 5 students
respectively. When the students are grouped by 7’s, no is student left. What is the smallest possible number of students
in the school?

A. 227 B.1,534 C. 1,379 D. 2,778

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 LICENSURE EXAMINATION FOR TEACHERS (LET)

Refresher Course

Content Area: MATHEMATICS

Focus: Plane and Solid Geometry
Prepared by: Daisy de Borja-Marcelino

Basic Ideas

The undefined terms, point, line, and plane are geometric ideas and they are visually represented by a tiny dot, a
thin wire, and a smooth flat surface, respectively. Points are labeled by means of capital letters, lines by naming any two
of its points, and planes by naming at least three of its points. The subsets of a line are ray, segment, and the line itself.
Space is the set of all points.

A
.. B. A. B. A. B.
Line Ray Line segment

AB AB AB
Some postulates on points, lines and planes:

The Distance Postulate. To every pair of different points there corresponds a unique positive number.

The Ruler Postulate. The point of a line can be placed in correspondence with the real numbers in such a way that
(1) to every point of the line there corresponds exactly one real number;
(2) to every real number there corresponds exactly one point of the line; and
(3) the distance between any two points is the absolute value of the difference of the corresponding numbers.

The Ruler Placement Postulate. Given two points P and Q of a line, the coordinate system can be chosen in such a way that
the coordinate of P is zero and the coordinate of Q is positive.

The Line Postulate. For every two points there is exactly one line that contains both points.

The Plane Postulate. Any three points lie in at least one plane, and any three noncollinear points lie in exactly one plane.

The Plane Separation Postulate. Given a line and a plane containing it. The points of the plane that do not lie on the line
form two sets such that
(1) each of the sets is convex, and
(2) if P is in one of the sets and Q is in the other, then the segment PQ intersects the line.

The Space Separation Postulate. The points of space that do not lie in a given plane form two sets, such that
(1) each of the sets is convex, and
(2) if P is in one of the sets and Q is in the other, then the segment PQ intersects the plane.

The following are also true.

(a) Every plane contains at least three noncollinear points.
(b) Space contains at least four noncoplanar points.
(c) If two points of a line lie in a plane, then the line lies in the same plane.
(d) If two different planes intersect then, their intersection is a line.

Some theorems on points, lines and planes:

 If A,B, and C are three different points of the same line, then exactly one of them is between the other two.
 The Point-Plotting Theorem. Let AB be a ray, and let X be a positive number. Then there is exactly one point P of AB
such that AP  x .
 Every segment has exactly one mid-point.
 If two different lines intersect, their intersection contains only one point.
 If a line intersects a plane not containing it, then the intersection contains only one point.
 Given a line and a point not on the line, there is exactly one plane containing both.
 Given two intersecting lines, there is exactly one plane containing both.
 The First Minimum Theorem. The shortest segment joining a point to a line is the perpendicular segment.
 In a given plane, through a given point of a given line, there is one and only one line perpendicular to the given line.
 The Perpendicular Bisector Theorem. The perpendicular bisector of a segment, in a plane, is the set of all points of the
plane that are equidistant from the end points of the segment.

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 Through a given external point there is at least one line perpendicular to a given line.
 Through a given external point there is at most one line perpendicular to a given line.
 If M is between A and C on a line L, then M and A are on the same side of any other line that contains C.
 If B and C are equidistant from P and Q, then every point between B and C is equidistant from p and Q.
 If a line is perpendicular to each of two intersecting lines at their point of intersection, then it is perpendicular to the
plane that contains them.
 Through a given point of a given line there passes a plane perpendicular to the given line.
 If a line and a plane are perpendicular, then the plane contains every line perpendicular to the given line at its point of
intersection with the given plan.
 Through a given point of a given line there is only one plane perpendicular to the line.
 The Perpendicular Bisecting Plane Theorem. The perpendicular bisecting plane of a segment is the set of all points
equidistant from the end points of the segment.
 Two lines perpendicular to the same plane are coplanar.
 Through a given point there passes one and only one plane perpendicular to a given line.
 Through a given point there passes one and only one line perpendicular to a given plane.
 The Second Minimum Theorem. The shortest segment to a plane from an external point is the perpendicular segment.
 Two parallel lines lie in exactly one plane.
 In a plane two lines are parallel if they are both perpendicular to the same line.
 Let L be a line and let P be a point on L. Then there is at least one line through P, parallel to L.

Angle. It is a union of two non-collinear rays that have a common endpoint.

o o
An acute angle measures more than 0 but less than 90 .
o
A right angle measures exactly 90 .
o o
An obtuse angle measures more than 90 but less than 180 .
o
Two angles are complementary if the sum of their measures is 90 .
o
Two angles are supplementary if the sum of their measures is 180 .
Two angles are adjacent if they have a common vertex, common side but no common interior points.
Two angles form a linear pair if they are both adjacent and supplementary.

Some postulates on angles:

 The Angle Measurement Postulate. To every angle there corresponds a real number between 0 and 180.
 The Angle Construction Postulate. Let AB be a ray on the edge of the half-plane H. for every number r between 0
and 180 there is exactly one ray AP , with P in H, such that mPAB  r .
 The Angle Addition Postulate. If D is in the interior of BAC , then mBAC  mBAD  mDAC .
 The Supplement Postulate. If two angles form a linear pair, then they are supplementary.

The transversal line is a line intersecting two or more coplanar lines at different points

1 2 Interior angles:  3,  4,  5,  6
3 4 Exterior angles:  1,  2,  7,  8
5 6 Corresponding angles:  1 and  5,  2 and  6
7 8  3 and  7,  4 and  8
Alternate interior angles:  3 and  6,  4 and  5
Alternate exterior angles: 1 and  8,  2 and  7
Same-side interior angles:  3 and 5,  4 and 6

Some theorems on angles and transversal lines:

 Given two lines cut by transversal. If a pair of alternate interior angles are congruent, then the lines are parallel.
 Given two lines cut by transversal. If a pair of corresponding angles are congruent, then a pair of alternate interior
angles are congruent.
 Given two lines cut by transversal. If a pair of corresponding angles are congruent, then the lines are parallel.
 Given two lines cut by transversal. If a pair of interior angles on the same side of the transversal are supplementary,
the lines are parallel.
 If two parallel lines cut by transversal, each pair of corresponding angles are congruent.
 In a plane, if a line intersects one of two parallel lines in only one point, then it intersects the other.
 Every right angle has measure 90, and every angle with measure 90 is a right angle.
 If two angles are complementary, then both are acute.
 Any two right angles are congruent.
 If two angles are both congruent and supplementary, then each is a right angle.
 The Supplement Theorem. Supplements of congruent angles are congruent.
 The Complement Theorem. Complements of congruent angles are congruent.

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 The Vertical Angle Theorem. Vertical angles are congruent.
 If two intersecting lines form one right angle, then they form four right angles.
 The Angle Bisector Theorem. Every angle has exactly one bisector.
 The Isosceles Triangle Theorem. If two sides of a triangle are congruent, then the angles opposite these sides are
congruent.
 If two angles of a triangle are congruent, then the sides opposite them are congruent.
 If M is between B and C, and A is any point not on BC , then M is in the interior of BAC .
 The Exterior Angle Theorem. An exterior angle of a triangle is greater than each of its remote interior angles.

Polygon. It is a closed plane figure with three or more sides, consists of segments (sides) that meet only at their endpoints
(vertices) such that every side contains only two vertices, and every vertex is on exactly two sides.

Name of Polygon Number of Exact Sides Name of Polygon Number of Exact sides
Triangle 3 nonagon 9
Quadrilateral 4 decagon 10
Pentagon 5 undecagon 11
Hexagon 6 dodecagon 12
Heptagon 7 pentadecagon 15
Octagon 8

Notes: a) In a triangle, the sum of the lengths of two sides is always greater than the length of the third side.
2 2 2
b) In a right triangle with legs x, y and hypotenuse z: x + y = z (Pythagorean triple)
o o
c) The sum of the interior angles of an n-gon is (n-2) 180 . The sum of the interior angles of a triangle is 180
o
while the sum of the interior angles of a quadrilateral is 360 .

 A polygon is equilateral if the measures of all its sides are equal.

 A polygon is equiangular if the measures of all its angles are equal.
 A polygon is regular if all its sides and angles are correspondingly congruent.

Some postulates on polygons

 The SAS Postulate. Every SAS correspondence is a congruence.
 The ASA Postulate. Every ASA correspondence is a congruence.
 The SSS Postulate. Every SSS correspondence is a congruence.
 The Parallel Postulate. Through a given external point there is only one parallel to a given line.
 The Area Postulate. To every polygonal region there corresponds a unique positive real number.
 The Congruence Postulate. If two triangles are congruent, then the triangular regions determined by them have the
same area.
 The Area Addition Postulate. If two polygonal regions intersect only in edges and vertices (or do not intersect at all),
then the area of their union is the sum of their areas.
 The Unit Postulate. The area of a square region is the square of the length of its edge.
 The Unit Postulate. The volume of a rectangular parallelepiped is the product of the altitude and the area of the base.
 The Cavalieri’s Principle. Given two solids and a plane. Suppose that every plane parallel to the given plane, intersecting
one of the two solids, also intersects the other, and gives cross sections with the same area. Then the two solids have
the same volume.
 The SAA Theorem. Every SAA correspondence is a congruence.
 The Hypotenuse-Leg Theorem. Given a correspondence between two right triangles, if the hypotenuse and one leg of
one of the triangles are congruent to the corresponding parts of the second triangle, then the correspondence is a
congruence.
 If two sides of a triangle are not congruent, then the angles opposite them are not congruent, and the larger angle is
opposite the longer side.
 If two angles of a triangle are not congruent, then the sides opposite them are not congruent, and the longer side is
opposite the larger angle.
 The Triangle Inequality. The sum of the length of any two sides of a triangle is greater than the length of the third side.
 The Hinge Theorem. If two sides of one triangle are congruent, respectively, to two sides of a second triangle, and the
included angle of the first triangle is larger than the included angle of the second, then the third side of the first triangle
is larger than the included angle of the second.
 The Converse Hinge Theorem. If two sides of one triangle are congruent respectively to two sides of a second triangle,
and the third side of the first triangle is longer than the third side o the second, then the included angle of the first
triangle is larger than the included angle of the second.
 For every triangle, the sum of the measures of the angles is 180.
 Each diagonal separates a parallelogram into two congruent triangles.
 In a parallelogram, any two opposite sides are congruent.
 In a parallelogram, any two opposite angles are congruent.
 In a parallelogram, any two consecutive angles are supplementary.
 The diagonals of a parallelogram bisect each other.
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Exercises

1. Which of the following has a definite length?

A) ray B) line C) angle D) line segment
2. A plane is determined by ______________.
i. a line and a point. ii. two intersecting lines.
iii. any three points. iv. a line and a point not on it.

A) ii only B) iv only C) ii and iii D) ii and iv

3. In angle LON, what is the vertex?
A) L B) O C) N D) cannot be determined

4. These shapes are arranged in a pattern.

Which of these shapes are arranged in the same pattern?

A)

B)

C)

D)

5. Which of these triangles cannot be isosceles?

A) acute B) right C) obtuse D) scalene

6. Two angles that are complementary _____________________.

i. are each acute. ii. are congruent.
0
iii. have equal measures. iv. have measures that add up to 90 .
A) ii only B) iv only C) ii and iii D) i and iv
7. Refer to the figure on the right. Given: m  1 = 57° and m  3 = 80°. What is m  5?
A) 43° B) 63° C) 137° D) 180°

8. A quadrilateral MUST be a parallelogram if it has ________________________.

A) one pair of adjacent sides equal B) one pair of parallel sides
C) two pairs of parallel sides C) two adjacent angles equal
9. NCTE is a parallelogram. If m  N = 67°, then m  T = _____.
A) 113° B) 90° C) 67° D) 23°
10. Which two properties of the rhombus do not hold true for other parallelograms?
A) Diagonals are perpendicular and congruent.
B) Diagonals are congruent and bisect each other.
C) Diagonals are perpendicular and bisect each other.
D) Diagonals are perpendicular and each bisects the angles of the parallelogram.
11. The supplement of an angle is three times its measure. What is the measure of its supplement?
A) 22.5° B) 45° C) 67.5° D) 135°

12. Refer to the figure on the right. If lines r and s are parallel,
which of the following pairs of angles are congruent?

A)  4 and  5 B)  4 and  3 C)  1 and  8 D)  3 and  5

13. The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 2: 3: 5. What is the largest angle?
A) 36° B) 54° C) 90° D) 99°
14. An angle measures 65.5°. What is the measure of its supplement?
A) 24.5° B) 25. 5° C) 114.5° D) 124.5°
15. Which refers to a pair of lines that intersect and form 4 right angles?
A) parallel lines B) perpendicular lines C) intersecting lines D) skew lines
16. Which of the following quadrilaterals best describes a square?
A) Its diagonals are perpendicular to each other. B) It is an equiangular rhombus.
C) Its diagonals are congruent. D) It has four right angles.
17. If ABC is an isosceles triangle with a right angle at B, then
A) ̅̅̅̅ is the hypotenuse. B) AC = BC
C) angle BCA measures 45°. D) AB = ½ AC a
18. What is the measure of each interior angle of a regular pentagon?
A) 108° B) 140° C) 180° D) 540°
19. What is the sum of the measures of the interior angles of a regular heptagon? m
A) 1260° B) 1080° C) 900° D) 112.5° t h
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20. In the adjoining figure, if m = 63° and h = 134°, then a must be equal to _____.
A) 46° B) 71° C) 109° D) 117°

21. Which of the following statements is true about parallel lines?

A) They form a right angle. B) They do not intersect at all.
C) They are skew. D) None of these.
22. In the adjoining figure, the quadrilateral is a parallelogram. What is the value of x?
A) 150 B) 75 C) 60 D) 50

23. Which of the following can be lengths of the sides of a triangle?

A) {3, 4, 9} B) {5, 5, 10} C) {-12, 6, 8} D) {3, 18, 20}
24. The measures of the exterior angles of a triangle are in the ratio 2:3:4. What is the measure of the widest angle?
A) 40° B) 80° C) 160° D) 170°
G. Perimeter. The distance around a polygon is called a perimeter. To obtain this, we just add the length of all the sides of
the polygon. In the case of equilateral polygons, we just multiply the length of one side to the number of sides.

Example: Determine the perimeter of a triangle with sides 7, 12, 18.

Solution: P = 7 + 12 + 18 = 37 units.

Exercises: Complete the table below.

Regular Polygon Length of a Side Perimeter

a) square 13 cm
b) 7 cm 56 cm
c) nonagon 54 cm
d) 9 cm 45 cm
e) heptagon 28 cm

H. Areas of Triangles and Quadrilaterals

a) triangle = (1/2) (base) (height)

b) rectangle = (length) (width) or (base) height)
c) square = (side)(side) or (1/2)(d1)(d2)
d) parallelogram = (base) height)
e) rhombus = (1/2)(d1)(d2)
f) trapezoid = (1/2) (upper base + lower base)(height)

Example: Give the area of a square whose perimeter is 100 m?

2
Solution: Since the perimeter of the square is 100 cm, then each side measures 25 m. Hence, its area is (25 m) =
2
625 m .
Example: Determine the area of a triangle whose base is 10 mm and its altitude is thrice its base.
1 1
Solution: A= bh  (10) [(3) (10)]  150 mm2 .
2 2

Example: Give the area of a rectangle whose width is 5 cm and its length exceeds 4 times the width by 3.
Solution: A = lw = [4w + 3] (w)
= [(4)(5) + 3] (5)
= (23) (5) = 115 sq. cm.

Example: Determine the area of the trapezoid whose bases are 6 cm and 10 m, while the altitude is 7 m.
2
Solution: A = (1/2) (b1 + b2) (height) = (1/2) (6 + 10) (7) = 56 m

I. Circle. This is a set of points in a plane, equidistant from a fixed point. The fixed point is
called the center, and the fixed distance is the length of the radius.

 Circumference is the distance around the circle. Formula: 2 r

 Area is the interior region bounded by the circle. Formula:  r2
 Terms related to a circle:
Center – the fixed point
Radius – segment (or distance) drawn from the center to any point on the circle
Chord – segment whose endpoints are any two points on the circle

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 Diameter – a chord that passes through the center (the longest chord)
Secant – a line/ray/segment that cuts the circle in two points
Tangent – a line that touches the circle in only one point

Note: The diameter is twice as long as the radius.

Exercises: In the figure on the right, identify the following:

center, radius, chord, diameter, secant, tangent.

Example: Determine the circumference of a circle with radius 10 mm.

Solution: C = 2 r = 2 (3.1416) (10 cm) = 62.832 mm

Example: Give the area of the circle if its circumference is 18  m.

Solution: Since the circumference is 18 cm, then its radius is 9 m. Hence,
A =  r = (3.1416) (9m) = 254.4696 or 254.47 m
2 2 2

Exercises

1. Complete the table below.

Radius Diameter Circumference (in  ) Area (in  )
1. 2 cm
2. 6 dm
3. 50  m
36  km
2
4.
5. 9 m

2. A diameter of a circle is also a ________.

A) radius B) secant C) chord D) tangent
3. Which of the following sets of numbers can be sides of a right triangle?
A. 4, 5, 6 B. 6, 6,2 3 C. 3, 6,3 2 D. 2, 2, 3
4. The length and width of a rectangle are (3x – 2) and (2x + 1). What is its perimeter?
2 2
A. 5x-1 B. 10 x - 2 C. 6x –x -2 D. 6x –x +2

5. The area of a square is 32x. Which of the following could be the value of x?
A. 2 B. 6 C. 3 D. 4
6. If the area of one circle is twice of another circle, what is the ratio of the area in percent of the smaller to larger circle?
A. 70% B. 25% C. 75% D. 50%

J. Volume of Solids. It describes how much space a three dimensional figure occupies.
3
a) cube = (side)
b) rectangular prism = (length)(width)(height) or (area of the base)(height)
c) pyramid = (1/3) (area of the base) (height)
= (4/3)( )(radius)
3
d) sphere
=  (radius) (height)
2
e) cylinder
= (1/3)  (radius) (height)
2
f) cone

Example: What is the volume of a cube whose edge is 4 mm?

3
Solution: V = (side)
3
= (4 mm)
3
= 64 mm

Example: The length of a rectangular box is 20 cm. Its width exceeds 1/4 of the length by 5
cm, while the height is 7 cm less than 1/2 of the length. What is its volume?

Solution: Volume = (length)(width)(height)

1  1 
= (20 cm)   20cm  5cm    20cm  7cm 
4  2 
3
= (20 cm) (10 cm) (3 cm) = 600 cm
2
Example: The area of the base of a pyramid is 48 cm while the height is 6 cm. What is its
volume?

Solution: V = (1/3) (area of the base) (height)

2
= (1/3) (48 cm ) (6 cm ) = 96 cu. cm.

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Example: Determine the volume (in ) of a sphere whose diameter is 12 m.
V = (4/3)( )(radius) and since diameter is 12 cm, then the radius is 6 m.
3
Solution:
= (4/3)( )(6 cm) = 288  m
3 3

Example: A cone has a base diameter of 32 cm and its height is 3 cm less than 3/4 of the
radius. What is its volume?

V = (1/3)  (radius) (height)

2
Solution:
1 3 
=    (16 cm)2   16cm  3cm 
3 4 
= 768  cm
3

K. Lateral and Total Surface Areas of Solids.

Solids Lateral area Total surface area

2 2
a) cube 4s 6s
b) rectangular prism (perimeter of the base)x height 2B + ph
c) pyramid 1/2 (perimeter of the base) slant height B + 1/2 p (slant height)
2
d) sphere None 4r
2
e) cylinder (Circumference of the base) (slant height) 2r + 2r (slant height)
r + r (slant height)
2
f) cone 1/2 (Circumference of the base) (slant height)

Exercise

1. Determine the volume, lateral and surface area of the following: (All units are in cm.) Express your answers in , if
possible.

edge = 2 mm
length = 10cm, base edge = 10 m
width = 3cm, slant height = 13m
height = 4cm altitude = 12m

radius = 5 radius = 5 radius = 5

height = 12 slant height = 5
altitude = 4

3 2 2
Volume (in cm ) Lateral Area (in cm ) Total Surface Area (in cm )
a) cube

b) rectangular prism

c) square pyramid

d) sphere

e) cylinder

f) cone

PRACTICE EXERCISES

1. What will happen to the area of a circle if its radius is doubled?

a. The area will be doubled. c. The area will be quadrupled.
b. The area will remain the same. d. The area will be reduced to half.

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 2. What is the reason for your answer in item number 1?
a. The area of the circle varies directly to the radius.
b. The area of the circle varies inversely to the radius.
c. The area of the circle varies directly to the square of its radius.
d. The area of the circle varies inversely to the square of its radius.
3. If a side of square measures 5mm, which of the following is its perimeter?
2 2
a. 20mm b. 25mm c. 20 mm d. 25mm
2
4. If a square has an area of 144m , which of the following is the measure of its side?
a. 12mm b. 12cm c. 1,200 cm d. 1.2m
5. If the base of a triangle measures 20 centimeters and its height measures 1 inch, which of the following is its
area?
2 2
a. 20 cm b. 25.4 cm c. 20 cm d. 25.4 cm
6. A string 1mm long is used to form a shape that would give a maximum area. What shape is it?
a. square b. rectangle c. circle d. parallelogram
7. If the length of the side of a square is reduced to half, what will happen to its perimeter?
a. It will be tripled. c. It will be doubled.
b. It will remain the same. d. It will be reduced to half.
8. The area of a new circle is nine times its original area. What made this happen?
a. The radius was tripled. c. The value of π was squared.
b. The radius was multiplied by 9. d. The radius was reduced to half.
9. A regular polygon is inscribed in a circle. Suppose we increase continuously the number of its sides, what do you
think will happen?
a. The regular polygon with infinitely many sides will never exist.
b. It is impossible for a regular polygon with infinitely many sides to be inscribed in a circle.
c. The perimeter of the regular polygon will be greater than the circumference of the circle.
d. The perimeter of the regular polygon will be approximately equal to the circumference of the circle.
10. Which of the following is the most reasonable weight of an adult woman?
a. 12 lbs b. 120 lbs c. 1,200 lbs d. 12,000 lbs
11. Which of the following is the nearest approximation of 10 kilometers?
a. 5 miles b. 10miles c. 16 miles d. 20 miles
12. Consider a rectangle with a fixed perimeter. Assume that we allow continuous variations of either its width of
length. Which of the following is NOT possible?
a. The area of the new rectangle will be greater than the original area.
b. The area of the new rectangle will be smaller than the original area.
c. The area of the original rectangle will be equal to the area of all new rectangles that can be formed.
d. The area of the original rectangle will be equal to the area of some new rectangles that can be formed.
13. What is the reason for your answer in item number 12?
a. Rectangles possibly have the same perimeter but of different area.
b. Rectangles with the same perimeter always have the same area.
c. If rectangles have larger perimeter, then their area is wide.
d. If rectangles have small perimeter, then their area is small.
14. A largest circle is to be made out of a square having sides of 20 cm. Approximate the materials that will be
wasted.
a. 400.00 sq. cm b. 314.00 sq. cm c. 86.00 sq. cm d. 22.80 sq. cm
15. A circle with radius 12 cm and a rectangle with width 16 cm have equal areas. Which of the following is the
approximation of the length of the rectangle?
a. 4.19 cm b. 9.00 cm c. 4.71 cm d. 28.26 cm
16. 2. One hectare is equivalent to 10,000 square meters. How many hectares are in a rectangular field which is 750
m wide and 800 m long?
A. 120 B. 56 C. 60 D. 40
17. An aquarium is 40 cm high. Its length is twice its height, while its width is half its height. How much water is
needed to fill in the aquarium in cu. cm.?
A. 64,000 B. 32,000 C. 16,000 D. 8,000
18. What is the volume of a cube if one face has a perimeter of 36 cm?
A. 729 cu. cm. B. 216 cu. cm. C. 46,656 cu. cm D. 5,832 cu. cm
19. How much water can be filled with a cone whose diameter is 24 cm and whose height exceeds 2/3 of the radius
by 2 cm?
A. 480  cu. cm. B. 540  cu. cm. C. 660  cu. cm. D. 900  cu. cm.

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 LICENSURE EXAMINATION FOR TEACHERS (LET)

Refresher Course

Content Area: MATHEMATICS

Focus: Algebra
Prepared by: Daisy de Borja-Marcelino
LET Competencies:

 Solve for the roots of a given quadratic equation

 Solve problems on quadratic equations
 Determine an equation given a set of roots which are imaginary/complex numbers
 Perform operations involving exponential and logarithmic functions
 Solve for the solution set of a given inequality
 Determine the rth term of the expansion (a + b)n
 Solve problems involving variations
 Determine the number of positive and negative roots of a given polynomial

Equations

An equation that contains at least one variable is called an open sentence. Equations b & c above are examples
of open sentences. In equation b, only -1 makes the sentence true or satisfies the equation. However, more than one
number might satisfy an equation. For example, +2 and -2 satisfy the equation x  4  0 . Any number that satisfies an
2

equation is called a solution or root to the equation. The set of numbers from which you can select replacements for the
variable is called the replacement set. The set of all solutions to an equation is called the solution set to the equation. To
solve an equation means to find all of its solutions.

QUADRATIC EQUATION
An equation of the form ax + bx + c = 0 where a  0, a ,b, and c are constants, is a quadratic equation.
2

ROOTS OF QUADRATIC EQUATIONS

To solve a quadratic equation means to find the value of x (unknown) that will satisfy the given equation. The
values of x that will make the equation true are called the roots or solution of the quadratic equation.

Methods of Finding the Roots of a Quadratic Equation

1. Factoring (Use this method if the quadratic equation is factorable)

2
Example: Determine the roots of x -8x - 15 = 0

Solution: Factoring the left side of the equation,

(x - 5) (x – 3) = 0

Equating each factor to zero,

(x - 5) = 0 (x – 3) = 0
x=5 x=3
2. Quadratic Formula
 b  b 2  4ac
The quadratic formula is x 
2a

BINOMIAL FORMULA
n
To obtain the terms of the binomial expansion (a + b) , we use the binomial formula:

n 1 n (n  1)a n  2 b 2 n (n  1)(n  2)a n 3 b 3

(a + b) = a  na
n n
b   ...  nab n 1  b n
2! 3!
n
THE rth TERM OF THE EXPANSION (a + b)

n (n  1)(n  2)...(n  r  2)a n  r 1 b r 1

rth term =
(r  1)!

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EXPONENTIAL FUNCTIONS

The exponential function f with base b is denoted by f(x) = bx,

where b > 0 , b  1, and x is any real number.

x
Properties of f(x) = b

 f has the set of real numbers as its domain.

 f has the set of positive real numbers as its range.
 f has a graph with a y-intercept of (0,1).
 f is a one-to-one function.
 f has a graph asymptotic to the x-axis.
 f is an increasing function if b>1 and f is a decreasing function if 0<b<1.

An exponential function has a constant base and a variable exponent.

The Natural Exponential Function

For all real numbers x, the function defined by f ( x)  e x is called the natural exponential function. Note that e
is an irrational number and its accurate value to eight places is 2.71828183.

EXPONENTIAL EQUATIONS
An equation where the unknown quantity appears in an exponent is called an exponential equation.

SOLVING EXPONENTIAL EQUATIONS

To solve an exponential equation is to find the value of the unknown quantity in the given equation.

LOGARITHMIC FUNCTIONS

For x > 0, b > 0, and b  1, we have y = log a(x) if and

only if ay = x.

Note:
1. If the base of the logarithm is not indicated it is understood that the base is 10.
2. If the base of the logarithm is the number e, then it is called a natural logarithm and it is written as f(x) = ln x.

Properties of f x   log b x

 f has the set of positive real numbers as its domain.

 f has the set of real numbers as its range.
 f has a graph with a x-intercept of (1,0).
 f is a one-to-one function.
 f has a graph asymptotic to the y-axis.
 f is an increasing function if b>1 and f is a decreasing function if 0<b<1.

Remarks

 Logarithmic functions are the inverse of exponential functions.

 We can use the rules of exponents with logarithms.
 The two most common logarithms are called common logarithms and natural logarithms. Common logarithms
have a base of 10, and natural logarithms have a base of e.
 Equation in exponential form can be rewritten in logarithmic form, and vice versa.

The exponential form of y  log b x is b y  x .

The logarithmic form of b y  x is y  log b x .

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 2
Example1: The exponential equation 7 = 49 may be written in terms of a logarithmic equation as log7 (49) = 2.

-3 1 1
Example 2: The exponential equation 9 = 3
or may be written in terms of a logarithmic equation as log9
9 729
 1 
  = -3
 729 

Basic Properties of Logarithms

0
Property 1 : loga (1) = 0 because a = 1.

0
Example 1: In the equation 22 = 1, the base is 22 and the exponent is 0. Remember that a logarithm is an exponent, and
the corresponding logarithmic equation is log22 (1) = 0, where the 0 is the exponent.

0
2 2
Example 2: In the equation   = 1, the base is and the exponent is 0. Remember that a logarithm is an exponent,
5 5
and the corresponding logarithmic equation is log 2 1 = 0.
5

1
Property 2: loga (a) = 1 because a = a

1
Example 3: In the equation 7 = 7, the base is 7, the exponent is 1, and the answer is 7. Since a logarithm is an exponent,
and the corresponding logarithmic equation is log7 7 = 1

1
Example 4: Use the exponential equation m = m to write a logarithmic equation. If the base m is greater than 0, then logm
(m) = 1.

x x x
Property 3: loga (a) = x because a = a

2 2 2
Example 5: Since 9 =9 , we may write the logarithmic equation with base 9 as log 9 9 = 2.

2 2 2
Example 6: Since you know that 11 =11 , we may write the logarithmic equation with base 11 as log 1111 = 2.

INEQUALITIES
Any relation expressed using the symbols <, >, > or < is called an inequality.
An absolute inequality is an inequality which is always true. A conditional inequality is one which is true only for
certain values of the variable involved.
1. 4 > 3 is an absolute inequality
2. x > 3 is a conditional inequality

PROPERTIES OF INEQUALITIES
Let a, b, c, & d be real numbers. The following hold.
1. Trichotomy Property
a > b or a < b or a = b
2. a > b if a - b > 0
a < b if a – b < 0
3.
a. If a> 0 and b> 0, then a + b> 0 and ab>0.
b. If a < 0 and b < 0, then a+b< 0 and ab> 0

4. Transitivity

If a < b and b < c then a < c.

5. Addition Property

If a < b and c < d, then a + c < b+ d

6. Multiplication Property

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 If a < b and c > 0, then ac < bc
If a < b and c < 0, then ac > bc
SOLVING INEQUALITIES

To solve an inequality means to find the value of the unknown that will make the inequality true.

POLYNOMIAL FUNCTION
The function defined by the equation
n n-1 n-2 2
f(x) = a0x +a1x + a2x + . . .+ an-2x + an-1x + an

where n is a nonnegative integer and a0, a1, . . ., an are constants, a0,  0 is a polynomial function in x of degree n.
The zeros or roots of f(x) are the numbers that will make f(x) = 0.

The Number of Positive and Negative Roots of a Polynomial Function

If f(x) is a polynomial function with real coefficients, then the following are true.
 The number of positive real zeros of f(x) is either equal to the number of variations in sign in f(x), or to that number
diminished by a positive even integer.

 The number of negative real zeros of f(x) is either equal to the number of variations in sign in f(-x), or to that number
diminished by a positive even integer.
LICENSURE EXAMINATION FOR TEACHERS (LET)

Refresher Course

Majorship: MATHEMATICS
Prepared by: Daisy de Borja-Marcelino
FOCUS: Mathematical Investigation and Problem Solving
LET COMPETENCIES:
1. Cite differences between problem solving and mathematical investigations.
2. State patterns observed as conjectures.
3. Solve non-routine problems.

CONTENT UPDATE
I. Problem Solving

Problem solving is defined as a set of actions to be done to perform the task or to solve the problem. It is a process of
applying acquired knowledge to a new or unfamiliar situation.

I. Polya’s Problem-Solving Principles

1. Understand the problem

Understanding the given problem is a very important principle in order to solve it correctly.
The following questions may be helpful in the analysis of a given problem:
 Do you understand all the words used in stating the problem?
 What are you asked to find or show?
 Can you restate the problem in your own words?
 Could you work out some numerical examples that would help make the problem clear?
 Could you think of a picture or diagram that might help you understand the problem?
 Is there enough information to enable you to find a solution?
 Is there extraneous information?
 What do you really need to know to find a solution?
 Is there yet another way to state the problem?
 What does key word really mean?

2. Devise a plan

The following strategies may be of great help as you learn the art of problem solving.
● guess and check ● make a table
● make an orderly list ● use a variable
● draw a diagram ● work backward
● look for a pattern ● eliminate possibilities

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3. Carry out the plan

To carry out the plan you devised earlier be careful and be patient to make it work. If it doesn’t work after
several trials, then discard it and try a new strategy.

4. Look back

Looking back is an important step in developing problem-solving skills. Once you have solved the problem make
it a habit to go over your solution and polish it.

II. Mathematical Investigation

A mathematical investigation of a problem or of an open-ended situation is a sustained exploration of

the problem or situation.

Stages in a Mathematical Investigation

1. Getting Started
- Attaining familiarity with the situation to be investigated.
- Producing instances, maybe starting from the simplest or whatever is interesting.
- Deciding on what is worth pursuing.
2. Exploring Systematically
- Systematic listing/ drawing;
- Organizing relationships in tables or graphs; and
- Looking for a pattern or relationship.

3. Making Conjecture
- Making general statements about patterns or relationships observed in the cases considered.

A conjecture is a generalization obtained inductively, which has not been validated or proven true.

4. Testing/ Verifying Conjectures

- Checking consistency of conjectures using existing cases;
- Predicting results for untried cases for which data are available.

5. Explaining/ Justifying Conjectures - Explaining why the conjectures made will work for new or all cases

6. Reorganizing
- Simplifying/ generalizing the approach
- Seeing the connection among the conjectures

7. Elaborating - Extending the investigation by considering other aspects of the investigation

8. Summarizing - Involves an account or summary, written or oral, of what has been obtained in stages 2 – 7, with some
reference on the experiences in stage 1.

MAJORSHIP: MODERN GEOMETRY

LET COMPETENCIES:

1. Give characteristics of non-Euclidean geometry which are not found in Plane Euclidean Geometry.
2. Define and illustrate concepts in linear algebra
3. Apply properties of matrices in performing matrix operations
4. Evaluate determinants
5. Perform modular clock arithmetic

MODERN GEOMETRY

Non-Euclidean geometry
Non-Euclidean Geometry is any geometry that is different from Euclidean geometry. The two most common non-
Euclidean geometries are elliptic geometry and hyperbolic geometry.
A. Hyperbolic Geometry

Hyperbolic geometry is known as saddle geometry or Lobachevskian geometry. It differs in many ways from Euclidean
geometry, often leading to quite counter-intuitive results. Some of the remarkable consequences of this geometry's
unique fifth postulate include: Moreover, in this field, more than one distinct line through a particular point will not
intersect another given line..

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1. The sum of the three interior angles of a triangle is strictly less than 180°. Moreover, the angle sums of two distinct
triangles are not necessarily the same.

2. Two triangles with the same interior angles have the same area.

B. Elliptic Geometry

In Elliptic geometry there are no lines that will not intersect,

Some theorems in Elliptic Geometry

o
1. The angle sum of any triangle is more than 180 .

2. Given two lines perpendicular to line CG. By the parallel postulate for elliptic geometry, these two lines meet at a
point A. Then every line through A is perpendicular to line CG.

C. Projective Geometry

Projective geometry is the most general and least restrictive in the hierarchy of fundamental geometries. It is an
intrinsically non-metric geometry, whose facts are independent of any metric structure. Under the projective
transformations, the incidence structure and the cross-ratio are preserved. In particular, it formalizes one of the central
principles of perspective art: that parallel lines meet at a point called an ideal point. Consequently, the five initial axioms
in Euclidean Geometry resulted to the following axioms.

1. Any two distinct points determine one and only one line.
2. Any two distinct coplanar lines intersect in one and only one point.
3. Any line not in a given plane intersects the plane in one and only one point.
4. Any two distinct planes intersect in one and only one line.
5. Any three noncollinear points, also any line and a point not on the line, determine one and only one plane.

MATRICES AND MATRIX OPERATIONS

Definition

A matrix is defined as a rectangular array of elements. The entries, also called elements, may be real, complex or
functions. If the arrangement has m rows and n columns, then the matrix is of order m x n (read as m by n). A matrix is
enclosed by a pair of parameters such as ( ) or [ ]. It is denoted by a capital letter.

 a11 a12  a1n 

a a22  a2 n 
A   21
   aij  
 
am1 am 2  amn 

A = [ aij ]

TYPES OF MATRICES

1. The ROW MATRIX: This matrix has only one row.

Example: [1 6 4 3] This is a 1 X 4 row matrix

2. The COLUMN MATRIX: This matrix has only one column.

 10 
  2
Example:   This is 4 x 1 column matrix
7 
 
  8

3. The RECTANGULAR MATRIX: This has two or more rows with two or more columns.

Example
  2 3 5  2
0 8 1 4 
This is a 2 X 4 matrix, because it contains two rows and four


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  8  11 22 0 
7 6  95 10  This is a 3 X 4 matrix

0 45 49 68

4. The SQUARE MATRIX: This is a special case of a Rectangular Matrix; here the
number of rows is equal to the number of columns.
1 3 2 4
a b c 5
 1 3 1
Example: A = d e
 f  B= 
8 1 1 1
 g h i   
8 5 3 1

Here A and B are square matrices of order 3 and 4 respectively

5. The DIAGONAL MATRIX: This is a square matrix where all its non-diagonal elements are 0
Example:
5 0 0 0
8 0 0 0
92 0    6 0 0 
(a)  0 1 (b) 0  1 0 (c) 
  0 0 3 0
  0 0 8  
0 0 0 10
These are diagonal matrices of order 2, 3 and 4 respectively.

6. The SCALAR MATRIX: This is a diagonal matrix where all the elements on its leading diagonal to bottom right are of
equal value.
Example:
6 0 0 0
3 0 0 0
2 0   6 0 0
(a) 0 2 (b) 0 3 0 (c) 
  0 0 6 0
  0 0 3  
0 0 0 6
7. The IDENTITY MATRIX: This is a scalar matrix where the elements on its leading diagonal (the diagonal running from
top left to bottom right) are 1 and the rest are of value 0
Example:
1 0 0 0
0 1 0 0
 This is an identity matrix I4 of order 4.
0 0 1 0
 
0 0 0 1

PROPERTIES OF MATRIX ADDITION

Theorem Let A, B, C, and D be matrices of the same size, m x n.

1. A + B = B + A (Commutativity)

2. A + (B + C) = (A + B ) + C (Associativity)

3. There is a unique m x n matrix O such that A+ 0 = A for any m x n matrix A. The matrix O is called the m x n
additive identity or zero matrix.

4. To each m x n matrix A, there is a unique m x n matrix D such that

A+D=0

We write D as (- A), so that A + D = 0 can be written as A + (-A) = 0. The matrix (-A) is called the additive inverse or
negative of A.

PROPERTIES OF MATRIX MULTIPLICATION

Theorem Let A, B, and C be matrices of the appropriate sizes.

1. A(BC) = (AB)C (Associativity)

2. A(B + C) = AB + AC (Right Distributivity)

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 3. (A + B)C = AC + BC (Left Distributivity)

PROPERTIES OF MULTIPLICATION BY A SCALAR

Theorem Let A and B be matrices of the appropriate sizes, and let r and s be scalars.

1. r(sA) = (rs)A (Associativity)

2. (r + s)A = rA + sA (Distributivity I)

3. r(A + B) = rA + rB (Distributivity II)

4. A(rB) = r(AB) = (rA)B

Definition Let A = [ai j ] be an n x n matrix. We define the determinant of A (written det(A) or A ) by

det A = A =  ()a1 j1 a2 j2 ...an j n

where the summation ranges over all permutations j1 j2 …jn of the set S = {1,2,…n}.The sign is taken as +
or – according to whether the permutation j1 j2…jn is even or odd.

Second-order Determinant

If A is the square matrix of order two  1

a b1 
then the determinant of A, denoted by
a b2 
 2

either det A or a1 b1 ,is defined by a1 b1 = a b – a b

1 2 2 1
a2 b2 a2 b2

Example:
Compute the determinant:

PROPERTIES OF DETERMINANT
T
1. The determinant of a matrix and its transpose are equal, that is, det(A ) = det(A).

2. If two rows (columns) of A are equal, then det (A) = 0

3. If a row (column) of A consists entirely of zeros, then det (A) = 0

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4. The determinant of a diagonal matrix is the product of the entries on its main diagonal.

5. If matrix A = [ai j] is upper (lower) triangular, then det (A) =a11a22…ann; that is
The determinant of a triangular matrix is the product of the elements on the main diagonal.

6. If a multiple of one row of A is added to another row to produce a matrix B,

then det B = det A.

7. If two rows of A are interchanged to produce B, then det B = - det A.

8. If one row of A is multiplied by k to produce B, then det B = k  det A.

9. The determinant of a product of two matrices is the product of their determinants; That is, det(A B) = det(A) det(B)

MODULAR CLOCK ARTITHMETIC

Clock (or modular) arithmetic is arithmetic you do on a clock instead of a number line. On a 12-hour clock, there are only
twelve numbers in the whole number system. However, every number has lots of different names. For example, the
number before 1 is 0, so 12 = 0 on a 12-hour clock

In clock arithmetic, you can add, subtract, and multiply, you can divide by some numbers.

Addition and Subtraction

Addition and subtraction work the same as on number line. For example, to add 9 and 7, start at 0, count 9 along the line,
and then count 7 more. You are at 16.If you count on a 12-hour clock, you will be at 4.

To add negative numbers, use the minus (-) sign to change direction. To subtract on a clock, first find standard (positive)
names for the two numbers, count clockwise for the first one, and count counter clockwise for the second.

 In ordinary arithmetic, the additive inverse of 4 is -4. In mod 12 arithmetic, the additive inverse of 4 is 8. In
either system, the sum of a number and its additive inverse is zero.
 Rows corresponding to additive inverses are opposites of one another, save for the number 0.

Addition Mod 12 ( 12- hour clock)

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 13 The educational theory, in response to
St. Louis Review Center, Inc. progressivism, which concerns with the revival of
RD
3 Flr. La Suerte Bldg., Rizal Ave., San effort in the direction of teaching the fundamental
Pablo City tools of learning as the most indispensable type of
Tel. no. (049) 562-2239/0929-688-4348 education
a. Essentialism c. Philosophical analysis
POST TEST SOCIAL SCIENCES b. Perennialism d. Social traditionalism
14 This philosophy believes that the schools should
L.E.T APRIL 2010 originate policies and progress which would bring
about reform of the social order
1 What branch of philosophy is closely related to a. reconstructionism c.
education because it is concerned with human Existentialism
knowledge in general and the criteria of truth? b. Progressivism d.
a. Metaphysics c. Epistemology Perennialism
b. Logic d. Ethics 15 This is the logical conclusion if we are to apply the
2 This is the philosophical study of the universe and philosophy of martin Buber to education
everything in it a. Education will be characterize by imposition
a. Cosmology c. Metaphysics and rules
b. Ethics d. Axiology b. Education will be characterize by mutual
3 What philosophy posits that a social teacher is a unfolding of persons
revered person, central to the educative process c. Education will be characterize by pretensions
and therefore must be excellent mentally and d. Education will be characterize by self
morally in personally conduct and conviction? motivation
a. Realism c. Essentialism 16 Man as an embodied spirit means
b. Idealism d. Progressivism a. Man is a body and soul
4 What would the aim of a realist education likely be? b. Man is a rational animal
a. Contribute to the development of mind and c. Man is a totally, unique core or center, source
self wellspring of initiative and meaning
b. Provide students with the knowledge he will d. Man is subjective
need to survive in the natural world 17 Man as an embodied sprit implies that education
c. Give students insights into their traditions and should
adapting students to society a. Develop the intellect / mind
d. Meet the need of a growing child rather than b. Develop man’s individuality
emphasize the subject matter c. Develop essential physical and intellectual skills
5 This philosophy emphasizes the teaching of d. Develop the total man
controversial issues to prepare students for a 18 human beings are living in a human world implies
progressive structuring of the social order that
a. Progressivism c. Reconstructionism a. Education must help man give meaning to his
b. Social traditionalism d. Social Experimentalism world of others
6 The philosophy whose criterion of truth is “ seeing b. Education must develop skills to survive in this
is believing” world
a. Essentialism c. Progressivism c. Education must be relevant to this world
b. Native realism d. Existentialism d. Education must be in the context of societal
7 This is the systematic consistent explanation of all needs
the facts of experience. Its technical term is reason 19 This philosophy contends that the intellectual
which is considered as the best criterion of truth faculty of man is higher that the physical faculties
a. Pragmatism c. Correspondence a. Idealism c. Existentialism
b. Consistency d. Coherence b. Realism d. Logical Positivism
8 This philosophy contends that truth is universal an 20 The philosophical study of the essence and nature
unchanging and therefore a good education is also of man
universal and constant a. Rational psychology
a. Perennialism c. Existentialism b. Epistemology
b. Progressivism d. Essentialism c. Philosophy of human person
9 Which philosophy has for its curriculum a body d. Social Philosophy
intellectual subject matter that are conceptual on 21 The branch of philosophy that studies the morality
subject, essential for the realization of mental and of human acts
moral development? a. Aesthetics c. Ethics
a. Realism c. Existentialism b. Cosmology d. Theodicy
b. Idealism d. Pragmatism 22 This is the philosophical study of human knowledge
10 A branch of Philosophy that studies the morality of and the criteria of truth
human action a. Axiology c. Logic
a. Epistemology c. Ethics b. Epistemology d. Metaphysics
b. Metaphysics d. Cosmology 23 This contemporary philosophical theme in
11 The area of Philosophy that specifically deals with education contends that education must involve in
the problem of human values its processes the total human being-his subjectivity,
a. criteriology c. Theodicy the rational, the material and the emotional aspect
b. Epistemology d. Axiology for man is a unity and not a duality
12 The aim of this philosophy is to reduce statements a. Genuine dialogue
about education to empirical terms b. Man as a being in the world
a. Reconstructionism c.Philosophical c. Man as an embodied spirit
analysis d. The socials and the inter human being
b. Existentialism d. Social
traditionalism
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24 This philosophy proclaims the spiritual nature and 36 It is a systematic consistent explanation of all the
the universe. It holds that the good, the true and facts of experience. Its technical name is reason.
the beautiful are permanently part of the structure This is believed to be the ultimate criterion of truth
of an unchanging universe a. Coherence c. Naïve Realism
a. Existentialism c. Materialism b. Consistency d. Pragmatism
b. Idealism d. Realism 37 This educational philosophy encourages
25 This philosophy posits the know ability of the world accumulation of knowledge and thinking and must
and everything in its as they are in themselves and apply criteria for moral evaluation. Suggested
their existence independent of human mind methods are questioning and discussion, lecture
a. Existentialism c. Materialism and the project, whether done singly or in group
b. Idealism d. Realism a. Existentialism c. Materialism
26 “The central aim of education should be to develop b. Idealism d. Pragmatism
the power of thought” this would likely be the aim 38 This theory views education as a recurring process
of what educational practitioner? based on eternal truths; thus, the school’s
a. Existentialism c. Progressivist curriculum should emphasize the recurrent themes
b. Perennialist d. Reconstructivist of human life
27 This educational theory is based on the philosophy a. Perennialism c. Progressivism
grounded on experience and the interaction of the b. Pragmatism d. Reconstructionism
person with his environment. It posits that 39 The philosophical study of human mind
education must use past experiences to direct a. Axiology c. Metaphysics
future experiences b. Epistemology d. Rational psychology
a. Existentialism c. Realism 40 The philosophical study of being, its nature and
b. Idealism d. progressivism essence
28 This philosophy is a way of viewing and thinking a. Axiology c. Metaphysics
about life in the world so that priority is given into b. Epistemology d. Rational
individualism and subjectivity. It believes that Psychology
human beings are the creator of their own 41 A sociologist would be most interested in studying
experiences a. Artifacts of the fast civilization
a. Existentialism c. Realism b. Group behavior
b. Idealism d. Reconstruction c. Psychological problems
29 This emerging social values in education stresses d. Economic institution
that man exist through the other and for others for 42 Interrelated social structures that fit together to
he becomes actuated through relations form an integrated whole
a. Existential Dialogue c. Socialization a. Structural functionalism
b. Personalization d. Vigilance b. Conflict theory
30 To what particular concept must education be c. Symbolic Interactionism
based according to contemporary philosophy? d. Disruptive Functionalism
a. Existential dialogue 43 Development of self and adaptation of individual to
b. Social Change society
c. Supremacy of the human person a. Structural functionalism
d. Synergy b. Conflict theory
31 This emerging social value in education stresses the c. Symbolic Interactionism
importance if the “we-experience” ad the d. Disruptive Functionism
converging of the worlds 44 Which is NOT a method in sociological inquiry
a. Authentic being c. Personalization a. Experimental study c. Intuitive study
b. Existential dialogue d. Synergy b. Longitudinal Study d. Ex-post Facto
32 The essentialist would likely have this as the study
ultimate aim of education 45 Which of the following give some difficulties to a
a. To fit man to perform, justly, skillfully and sociological researcher?
magnanimous in all times in peace and war a. Complexity of phenomena
b. To develop the power of thought. To search for b. Constant change
an disseminate the truth c. Unpredictability of behavior
c. To give all pupils insight into their traditions d. All of the above
d. To meet the needs of the growing child 46 A cluster of behavior patterns related to the general
33 The philosophical belief that reality is precisely culture of a society and yet distinguishable from it
what as it appear to be and adheres to the belief a. Sub-culture c. Norm
that “seeing is believing” b. Culture shock d. mores
a. Coherence c. Naïve Realism 47 Which group would most likely have a counter
b. Consistency d. Pragmatism culture?
34 It is belief that when an idea agrees with its object, a. Musician c. Singers
it is proof of its truth. However, it is definition of b. Drugs users d. Dancers
truth not a criteria 48 The complex whole which includes knowledge,
a. Coherence c. Naïve Realism beliefs, arts moral, laws, customs and other
b. Consistency d. Correspondence capabilities and habits acquired by man as a
35 The belief that the ultimate criterion of truth is if an member of the society
idea works then it is true a. Norm c. Culture
a. Coherence c. Naïve Realism b. Folkways d. Mores
b. Consistency d. Pragmatism 49 When one consider the culture of another group as
inferior to his own, this connotes
a. Ethnocentrism c. Assimilation
b. Cultural relativism d. Acculturation

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50 The rightness or wrongness of what one does 64 Which of the following statements is NOT true
depend on where he is doing it about Filipino families today?
a. Cultural integration c. Cultural relativism a. Male authority has declined
b. Cultural lag d. Cultural traits b. Division of labor has changed
51 The culture that includes undesirable behavior of c. Separation has become more common
the member of society. Formally condemned but d. Has cease to be socialization unit in society
widely practiced 65 Which of the following is NOT an ethical issue that
a. Real culture c. Sub-culture must be confronted when doing social research?
b. Ideal culture d. Counter culture a. Are the subjects being paid enough?
52 The process by which a member learns the norms b. What degree of risk, pain or harm is involved?
of the group c. To what extent are the subjects being
a. Accommodation c. Compartmentalization deceived?
b. Aggregation d. Socialization d. Will there be disclosure of confidential or
53 A role or status assigned according to heredity traits personally harmful information?
without regard to individual preference, ability or 66 In most instances of participant observation the
performance researchers:
a. Achieved c. Attached a. Hide their true identity
b. Ascribed d. Applied b. Do not hide their true identity
54 An achieved position in a society c. Pay their informants for information
a. Heir to the throne c. Movie actor d. Acts as therapist to the subject
b. Presidential son d. First lady 67 A research technique in which the investigators
55 Refers to the difficulty people have in meeting their enter to the activities of the group at the same time
role obligations they study the groups behavior is
a. Role conflict c. Role strain a. Participants observation
b. Role set d. Role ambiguity b. A semi-structured (open-ended) Interview
56 When a supervisor is tasked to report unsatisfactory c. A structured interview
performance of her co-workers who are also her d. A data discussion
friends. She may experience 68 Participant observation:
a. Role play c. Role strain a. A research tool used to follow-up on expected
b. Role conflict d. Role ambiguity findings
57 Social control imposed on social deviants to b. A research interview in which the investigators
maintain ash a list of questions, but is free to vary them
a. Social stigma c. Social order or make up new ones that become important
b. Social strata d. Social mobility during the course of the interview
58 Which of the following is NOT true? c. A research technique in which the investigators
a. The deviant behavior of one generation may enter into activities of the group at the same
become the norm of the next time they study the group’s behavior
b. All forms of deviant are bad d. A research interview determined entirely in
c. Deviant behavior is one way of adapting a advance and followed rigidly
culture to a social change 69 A research interview determined entirely in
d. Some deviation are due to the failure of the advance and followed rigidly is:
socialization process to integrate the cultural a. Participants observation
norms into individual’s personality b. A semi structured (open-ended) interview
59 A teenager in a “good” neighborhood of stable c. A structured interview
families and conventional people who rejects d. A data discussion
middle class norms and become a delinquent is an 70 A research interview in which the investigators ask
example of a list of questions, but is free to vary them or make
a. Individual deviation c. Counter deviation up new ones that become important during the
b. Group deviation d. Relative deviation course interview, that is
60 A case of compulsive drug addict is an example if a a. Participant observation
a. Primary deviant c. Tertiary deviant b. A semi structured (open-ended) interview
b. Secondary deviant d. All of the above c. Structured interview
61 Which is NOT a characteristic of a social group? d. A data discussion
a. Physical collection of people 71 A conversation between two or more individuals in
b. Shares a common purpose and conscious of which one party attempts to gain information from
each other others(s) by asking of questions is known as;
c. Share some common characteristics a. A survey c. Participant observation
d. Member interact with one another b. An interview d. Hypothesis testing
62 Which is NOT a characteristic of the relationship 72 Sociological and anthropological be misused
among members of a primary group? because it:
a. Personal c. Segmental a. Is hard to understand
b. Informal d. Sentimental b. Is often used selectively by groups or
63 Which is an example of members if a primary individuals to support certain motives
group? c. Is often ambiguous
a. Peer group c. School d. Has few applicants
administration 73 A survey by their nature usually
b. Family d. Neighbors a. Are cross-sectional
b. Are longitudinal
c. Involve secondary methodology
d. Involve participants observation

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74 A cross-sectional study is 85 If apes can be taught to use language, it denies the
a. A research technique in which investigators views that:
enter into activities of the group at the same a. Only human can think
time they study the groups behavior b. Only human have culture
b. Research examines a population at a given c. Apes do not have history to pass on
point in a time d. Apes are stupid
c. Research which examines a population, or 86 Which of the following statements about culture is
portion thereof, is questioned in order to not true?
reveal specific facts about itself a. Every social group must have a culture on its
d. Research that investigates a population at own in order to function
several intervals over relatively a long period of b. Every individual participates in a number of
time different culture
75 Research that investigates a population at several c. Meeting the social expectation of several
intervals over a relatively long period of time is cultures is often source of tree
called d. Families do not have their own culture but
a. A cross-sectional study c. Secondary instead reflect the culture of the larger society
Analysis 87 Promised to “make this country great again.” Ruled
b. A residual analysis d. Longitudinal for about twenty years
research a. Diosdado Macapagal c. Ramon Magsaysay
76 Survey are used when: b. Ferdinand Marcos d. Carlos Garcia
a. Other measure do not produce statistical 88 The form of government established by Aguinaldo
significance was change from dictatorial to:
b. The findings of the study must be repeatable a. Democratic c. Republic
c. It is desirable to discover he contribution and b. Sociologist d. Revolutionary
interrelations of certain variables among large 89 Which provides he Tagalog shall be the official
number of people language of the republic?
d. Procedures having cross-cultural applications a. Constitution of 1935 c. Biyak na Bato
needed b. Makabula d. Malolos
77 A research method is which a population, or portion 90 Which of the following were the greatest naval
thereof, is questioned in order to reveal specific battles in history during Japanese occupation of the
facts itself is known as: Philippines?
a. A survey c. Experiments a. Battle of Leyte gulf c. Claveri
b. Participant observation d. Residual analysis b. Surigao Strait d. Dela Torre
78 Which of the following is NOT one of the three main 91 The most cultured of the reformist, wrote a socio-
methods of research used by sociologists? historical novel based on facts he gathered in the
a. A survey c. Experiments Philippines
b. Participants observation d. Residual analysis a. Marcelo H. Del Pilar c. Mariano Ponce
79 A statistical technique to make all significant groups b. Jose Rizal d. Jose Ma.
in as society represented in a sample proportion to Paganiban
their numbers in the large society is known as: 92 The editor of La Solaridad and a great orator, he
a. Random sampling initiated the reform movement
b. A stratified random sample a. Marcelo H. Del Pilar c. Emilio Jacinto
c. Sampling b. Jose Rizal d. Graciano Lopez-
d. Randomized response Jaena
80 The goal in designing a research project should be: 93 The generation of the spirits was common among
a. To prove a point ancient Filipinos. Memories of their dead relatives
b. To provide a collection for all necessary and were kept alive through craved idol. This practice
sufficient data to test the stated hypothesis was called
c. To selectively isolate the variables in order to a. Cult of the dead c. Nature Worship
prove the hypotheses are either correct or b. Mass of the dead d. Divination
incorrect 94 The practice of having surnames was started during
d. To prove hypothesis false. If they cannot Spanish regime through the order of
proven false, they must be true a. Gov. Gen Jaudenes c. Gov. Gen Claveria
81 An independent variable is b. Gov. Gen Dela Torre d. Gov. Gen Polavejia
a. A testable statements about the relationship 95 As promised by Gen. Mc Arthur- he would return to
between two or more empirical variables liberate the Filipinos after he could train troops, in
b. Anything that can be change Australia. The Leyte landing signified the liberation
c. A variable that changes for reason that have of the Philippines, was well as the return of the
nothing to do with another variable commonwealth government. Who was the
d. A variable that changes in response to changes commonwealth president who came with Mc
in another variable Arthur?
82 Which of the following is not a sign? a. Romulo c. Osmeňa
a. A clenched first c. A flag b. Roxas d. Quezon
b. A knock on the door d. Yawning 96 Men and women of pre-colonial times had
83 The most important symbols are weakness for personal adornment. A side from
a. Action c. Actions jewels, tattooing of the body was common. In the
b. Words d. Behavior Visayas tattooed men were called
84 The principal means through which culture is a. Umalohokan c. Abi
transmitted from generation to generation is b. Pintados d. Plista
a. Actions c. Language
b. Diffusion d. Behaviors

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97 Memories of brutality which was so in human 42 a 92 d
during the Japanese regime were always associated 43 c 93 a
with a particular Japanese group called 44 c 94 c
a. Kalibapi c. Kamikaze 45 d 95 d
b. Kempetai d. Samurai 46 c 96 a
98 Membership in the Katipunan come in grades: first
47 b 97 b
(katipon’s); second (kawal); and third (bayani). Each
48 c 98 b
grade designed as well as password so they could
maintain their secrecy of the movement. The 49 a 99 b
password for the kawal grade was? 50 c 100 a
a. Rizal c. Kawal
b. Gomburza d. Sundalo
99 Pre-colonial trade in the Philippines was
prosperous. Business transactions made use of:
a. Money system c. Credit system
b. Barter system d. Banking System
100 The use of magic charms was very common among
pre-Spanish Filipinos. One of these is the anting-
anting or agimat which is meant to:
a. Insure a man against a weapon of every kind
b. Made a man lovable to all ladies
c. Made a man invisible
d. Made him walk in storm or sea without getting
wet
***** THE END *****

WORK HARD, DREAM HARDER

Social science
1 C 51 a
2 A 52 d
3 B 53 b
4 B 54 c
5 C 55 c
6 B 56 b
7 D 57 c
8 A 58 b
9 A 59 a
10 C 60 a
11 D 61 a
12 C 62 c
13 A 63 c
14 A 64 d
15 B 65 a
16 C 66 a
17 D 67 a
18 A 68 c
19 A 69 c
20 C 70 b
21 C 71 b
22 B 72 b
23 C 73 c
24 B 74 b
25 d 75 d
26 b 76 c
27 d 77 a
28 a 78 d
29 c 79 b
30 c 80 b
31 d 81 c
32 a 82 c
33 c 83 d
34 c 84 d
35 d 85 b
36 a 86 d
37 b 87 b
38 a 88 d
39 d 89 a
40 c 90 a
41 b 91 b
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POST TEST SOCIAL SCIENCES 114 This philosophy believes that the schools should
originate policies and progress which would bring
L.E.T APRIL 2010 about reform of the social order
a. reconstructionism c. Existentialism
101 What branch of philosophy is closely related to b. Progressivism d. Perennialism
education because it is concerned with human 115 This is the logical conclusion if we are to apply the
knowledge in general and the criteria of truth? philosophy of martin Buber to education
a. Metaphysics c. Epistemology a. Education will be characterize by imposition
b. Logic d. Ethics and rules
102 This is the philosophical study of the universe and b. Education will be characterize by mutual
everything in it unfolding of persons
a. Cosmology c. Metaphysics c. Education will be characterize by pretensions
b. Ethics d. Axiology d. Education will be characterize by self
103 What philosophy posits that a social teacher is a motivation
revered person, central to the educative process 116 Man as an embodied spirit means
and therefore must be excellent mentally and a. Man is a body and soul
morally in personally conduct and conviction? b. Man is a rational animal
a. Realism c. Essentialism c. Man is a totally, unique core or center, source
b. Idealism d. Progressivism wellspring of initiative and meaning
104 What would the aim of a realist education likely be? d. Man is subjective
a. Contribute to the development of mind and 117 Man as an embodied sprit implies that education
self should
b. Provide students with the knowledge he will a. Develop the intellect / mind
need to survive in the natural world b. Develop man’s individuality
c. Give students insights into their traditions and c. Develop essential physical and intellectual skills
adapting students to society d. Develop the total man
d. Meet the need of a growing child rather than 118 human beings are living in a human world implies
emphasize the subject matter that
105 This philosophy emphasizes the teaching of a. Education must help man give meaning to his
controversial issues to prepare students for a world of others
progressive structuring of the social order b. Education must develop skills to survive in this
a. Progressivism c. Reconstructionism world
b. Social traditionalism d. Social Experimentalism c. Education must be relevant to this world
106 The philosophy whose criterion of truth is “ seeing d. Education must be in the context of societal
is believing” needs
a. Essentialism c. Progressivism 119 This philosophy contends that the intellectual
b. Native realism d. Existentialism faculty of man is higher that the physical faculties
107 This is the systematic consistent explanation of all a. Idealism c. Existentialism
the facts of experience. Its technical term is reason b. Realism d. Logical Positivism
which is considered as the best criterion of truth 120 The philosophical study of the essence and nature
a. Pragmatism c. Correspondence of man
b. Consistency d. Coherence a. Rational psychology
108 This philosophy contends that truth is universal an b. Epistemology
unchanging and therefore a good education is also c. Philosophy of human person
universal and constant d. Social Philosophy
a. Perennialism c. Existentialism 121 The branch of philosophy that studies the morality
b. Progressivism d. Essentialism of human acts
109 Which philosophy has for its curriculum a body a. Aesthetics c. Ethics
intellectual subject matter that are conceptual on b. Cosmology d. Theodicy
subject, essential for the realization of mental and 122 This is the philosophical study of human knowledge
moral development? and the criteria of truth
a. Realism c. Existentialism a. Axiology c. Logic
b. Idealism d. Pragmatism b. Epistemology d. Metaphysics
110 A branch of Philosophy that studies the morality of 123 This contemporary philosophical theme in
human action education contends that education must involve in
a. Epistemology c. Ethics its processes the total human being-his subjectivity,
b. Metaphysics d. Cosmology the rational, the material and the emotional aspect
111 The area of Philosophy that specifically deals with for man is a unity and not a duality
the problem of human values a. Genuine dialogue
a. criteriology c. Theodicy b. Man as a being in the world
b. Epistemology d. Axiology c. Man as an embodied spirit
112 The aim of this philosophy is to reduce statements d. The socials and the inter human being
about education to empirical terms 124 This philosophy proclaims the spiritual nature and
a. Reconstructionism c. Philosophical analysis the universe. It holds that the good, the true and
b. Existentialism d. Social traditionalism the beautiful are permanently part of the structure
113 The educational theory, in response to of an unchanging universe
progressivism, which concerns with the revival of a. Existentialism c. Materialism
effort in the direction of teaching the fundamental b. Idealism d. Realism
tools of learning as the most indispensable type of
education
a. Essentialism c. Philosophical analysis
b. Perennialism d. Social traditionalism

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125 This philosophy posits the know ability of the world 137 This educational philosophy encourages
and everything in its as they are in themselves and accumulation of knowledge and thinking and must
their existence independent of human mind apply criteria for moral evaluation. Suggested
a. Existentialism c. Materialism methods are questioning and discussion, lecture
b. Idealism d. Realism and the project, whether done singly or in group
126 “The central aim of education should be to develop a. Existentialism c. Materialism
the power of thought” this would likely be the aim b. Idealism d. Pragmatism
of what educational practitioner? 138 This theory views education as a recurring process
a. Existentialism c. Progressivist based on eternal truths; thus, the school’s
b. Perennialist d. Reconstructivist curriculum should emphasize the recurrent themes
127 This educational theory is based on the philosophy of human life
grounded on experience and the interaction of the a. Perennialism c. Progressivism
person with his environment. It posits that b. Pragmatism d. Reconstructionism
education must use past experiences to direct 139 The philosophical study of human mind
future experiences a. Axiology c. Metaphysics
a. Existentialism c. Realism b. Epistemology d. Rational psychology
b. Idealism d. progressivism 140 The philosophical study of being, its nature and
128 This philosophy is a way of viewing and thinking essence
about life in the world so that priority is given into a. Axiology c. Metaphysics
individualism and subjectivity. It believes that b. Epistemology d. Rational
human beings are the creator of their own Psychology
experiences 141 A sociologist would be most interested in studying
a. Existentialism c. Realism a. Artifacts of the fast civilization
b. Idealism d. Reconstruction b. Group behavior
129 This emerging social values in education stresses c. Psychological problems
that man exist through the other and for others for d. Economic institution
he becomes actuated through relations 142 Interrelated social structures that fit together to
a. Existential Dialogue c. Socialization form an integrated whole
b. Personalization d. Vigilance a. Structural functionalism
130 To what particular concept must education be b. Conflict theory
based according to contemporary philosophy? c. Symbolic Interactionism
a. Existential dialogue d. Disruptive Functionalism
b. Social Change 143 Development of self and adaptation of individual to
c. Supremacy of the human person society
d. Synergy a. Structural functionalism
131 This emerging social value in education stresses the b. Conflict theory
importance if the “we-experience” ad the c. Symbolic Interactionism
converging of the worlds d. Disruptive Functionism
a. Authentic being c. Personalization 144 Which is NOT a method in sociological inquiry
b. Existential dialogue d. Synergy a. Experimental study c. Intuitive study
132 The essentialist would likely have this as the b. Longitudinal Study d. Ex-post Facto
ultimate aim of education study
a. To fit man to perform, justly, skillfully and 145 Which of the following give some difficulties to a
magnanimous in all times in peace and war sociological researcher?
b. To develop the power of thought. To search for a. Complexity of phenomena
an disseminate the truth b. Constant change
c. To give all pupils insight into their traditions c. Unpredictability of behavior
d. To meet the needs of the growing child d. All of the above
133 The philosophical belief that reality is precisely 146 A cluster of behavior patterns related to the general
what as it appear to be and adheres to the belief culture of a society and yet distinguishable from it
that “seeing is believing” a. Sub-culture c. Norm
a. Coherence c. Naïve Realism b. Culture shock d. mores
b. Consistency d. Pragmatism 147 Which group would most likely have a counter
134 It is belief that when an idea agrees with its object, culture?
it is proof of its truth. However, it is definition of a. Musician c. Singers
truth not a criteria b. Drugs users d. Dancers
a. Coherence c. Naïve Realism 148 The complex whole which includes knowledge,
b. Consistency d. Correspondence beliefs, arts moral, laws, customs and other
135 The belief that the ultimate criterion of truth is if an capabilities and habits acquired by man as a
idea works then it is true member of the society
a. Coherence c. Naïve Realism a. Norm c. Culture
b. Consistency d. Pragmatism b. Folkways d. Mores
136 It is a systematic consistent explanation of all the 149 When one consider the culture of another group as
facts of experience. Its technical name is reason. inferior to his own, this connotes
This is believed to be the ultimate criterion of truth a. Ethnocentrism c. Assimilation
a. Coherence c. Naïve Realism b. Cultural relativism d. Acculturation
b. Consistency d. Pragmatism 150 The rightness or wrongness of what one does
depend on where he is doing it
a. Cultural integration c. Cultural relativism
b. Cultural lag d. Cultural traits

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151 The culture that includes undesirable behavior of 165 Which of the following is NOT an ethical issue that
the member of society. Formally condemned but must be confronted when doing social research?
widely practiced a. Are the subjects being paid enough?
a. Real culture c. Sub-culture b. What degree of risk, pain or harm is involved?
b. Ideal culture d. Counter culture c. To what extent are the subjects being
152 The process by which a member learns the norms deceived?
of the group d. Will there be disclosure of confidential or
a. Accommodation c. Compartmentalization personally harmful information?
b. Aggregation d. Socialization 166 In most instances of participant observation the
153 A role or status assigned according to heredity traits researchers:
without regard to individual preference, ability or a. Hide their true identity
performance b. Do not hide their true identity
a. Achieved c. Attached c. Pay their informants for information
b. Ascribed d. Applied d. Acts as therapist to the subject
154 An achieved position in a society 167 A research technique in which the investigators
a. Heir to the throne c. Movie actor enter to the activities of the group at the same time
b. Presidential son d. First lady they study the groups behavior is
155 Refers to the difficulty people have in meeting their a. Participants observation
role obligations b. A semi-structured (open-ended) Interview
a. Role conflict c. Role strain c. A structured interview
b. Role set d. Role ambiguity d. A data discussion
156 When a supervisor is tasked to report unsatisfactory 168 Participant observation:
performance of her co-workers who are also her a. A research tool used to follow-up on expected
friends. She may experience findings
a. Role play c. Role strain b. A research interview in which the investigators
b. Role conflict d. Role ambiguity ash a list of questions, but is free to vary them
157 Social control imposed on social deviants to or make up new ones that become important
maintain during the course of the interview
a. Social stigma c. Social order c. A research technique in which the investigators
b. Social strata d. Social mobility enter into activities of the group at the same
158 Which of the following is NOT true? time they study the group’s behavior
a. The deviant behavior of one generation may d. A research interview determined entirely in
become the norm of the next advance and followed rigidly
b. All forms of deviant are bad 169 A research interview determined entirely in
c. Deviant behavior is one way of adapting a advance and followed rigidly is:
culture to a social change a. Participants observation
d. Some deviation are due to the failure of the b. A semi structured (open-ended) interview
socialization process to integrate the cultural c. A structured interview
norms into individual’s personality d. A data discussion
159 A teenager in a “good” neighborhood of stable 170 A research interview in which the investigators ask
families and conventional people who rejects a list of questions, but is free to vary them or make
middle class norms and become a delinquent is an up new ones that become important during the
example of course interview, that is
a. Individual deviation c. Counter deviation a. Participant observation
b. Group deviation d. Relative deviation b. A semi structured (open-ended) interview
160 A case of compulsive drug addict is an example if a c. Structured interview
a. Primary deviant c. Tertiary deviant d. A data discussion
b. Secondary deviant d. All of the above 171 A conversation between two or more individuals in
161 Which is NOT a characteristic of a social group? which one party attempts to gain information from
a. Physical collection of people others(s) by asking of questions is known as;
b. Shares a common purpose and conscious of a. A survey c. Participant observation
each other b. An interview d. Hypothesis testing
c. Share some common characteristics 172 Sociological and anthropological be misused
d. Member interact with one another because it:
162 Which is NOT a characteristic of the relationship a. Is hard to understand
among members of a primary group? b. Is often used selectively by groups or
a. Personal c. Segmental individuals to support certain motives
b. Informal d. Sentimental c. Is often ambiguous
163 Which is an example of members if a primary d. Has few applicants
group? 173 A survey by their nature usually
a. Peer group c. School a. Are cross-sectional
administration b. Are longitudinal
b. Family d. Neighbors c. Involve secondary methodology
164 Which of the following statements is NOT true d. Involve participants observation
about Filipino families today?
a. Male authority has declined
b. Division of labor has changed
c. Separation has become more common
d. Has cease to be socialization unit in society

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174 A cross-sectional study is 185 If apes can be taught to use language, it denies the
a. A research technique in which investigators views that:
enter into activities of the group at the same a. Only human can think
time they study the groups behavior b. Only human have culture
b. Research examines a population at a given c. Apes do not have history to pass on
point in a time d. Apes are stupid
c. Research which examines a population, or 186 Which of the following statements about culture is
portion thereof, is questioned in order to not true?
reveal specific facts about itself a. Every social group must have a culture on its
d. Research that investigates a population at own in order to function
several intervals over relatively a long period of b. Every individual participates in a number of
time different culture
175 Research that investigates a population at several c. Meeting the social expectation of several
intervals over a relatively long period of time is cultures is often source of tree
called d. Families do not have their own culture but
a. A cross-sectional study c. Secondary instead reflect the culture of the larger society
Analysis 187 Promised to “make this country great again.” Ruled
b. A residual analysis d. Longitudinal for about twenty years
research a. Diosdado Macapagal c. Ramon Magsaysay
176 Survey are used when: b. Ferdinand Marcos d. Carlos Garcia
a. Other measure do not produce statistical 188 The form of government established by Aguinaldo
significance was change from dictatorial to:
b. The findings of the study must be repeatable a. Democratic c. Republic
c. It is desirable to discover he contribution and b. Sociologist d. Revolutionary
interrelations of certain variables among large 189 Which provides he Tagalog shall be the official
number of people language of the republic?
d. Procedures having cross-cultural applications a. Constitution of 1935 c. Biyak na Bato
needed b. Makabula d. Malolos
177 A research method is which a population, or portion 190 Which of the following were the greatest naval
thereof, is questioned in order to reveal specific battles in history during Japanese occupation of the
facts itself is known as: Philippines?
a. A survey c. Experiments a. Battle of Leyte gulf c. Claveri
b. Participant observation d. Residual analysis b. Surigao Strait d. Dela Torre
178 Which of the following is NOT one of the three main 191 The most cultured of the reformist, wrote a socio-
methods of research used by sociologists? historical novel based on facts he gathered in the
a. A survey c. Experiments Philippines
b. Participants observation d. Residual analysis a. Marcelo H. Del Pilar c. Mariano Ponce
179 A statistical technique to make all significant groups b. Jose Rizal d. Jose Ma.
in as society represented in a sample proportion to Paganiban
their numbers in the large society is known as: 192 The editor of La Solaridad and a great orator, he
a. Random sampling initiated the reform movement
b. A stratified random sample a. Marcelo H. Del Pilar c. Emilio Jacinto
c. Sampling b. Jose Rizal d. Graciano Lopez-
d. Randomized response Jaena
180 The goal in designing a research project should be: 193 The generation of the spirits was common among
a. To prove a point ancient Filipinos. Memories of their dead relatives
b. To provide a collection for all necessary and were kept alive through craved idol. This practice
sufficient data to test the stated hypothesis was called
c. To selectively isolate the variables in order to a. Cult of the dead c. Nature Worship
prove the hypotheses are either correct or b. Mass of the dead d. Divination
incorrect 194 The practice of having surnames was started during
d. To prove hypothesis false. If they cannot Spanish regime through the order of
proven false, they must be true a. Gov. Gen Jaudenes c. Gov. Gen Claveria
181 An independent variable is b. Gov. Gen Dela Torre d. Gov. Gen Polavejia
a. A testable statements about the relationship 195 As promised by Gen. Mc Arthur- he would return to
between two or more empirical variables liberate the Filipinos after he could train troops, in
b. Anything that can be change Australia. The Leyte landing signified the liberation
c. A variable that changes for reason that have of the Philippines, was well as the return of the
nothing to do with another variable commonwealth government. Who was the
d. A variable that changes in response to changes commonwealth president who came with Mc
in another variable Arthur?
182 Which of the following is not a sign? a. Romulo c. Osmeňa
a. A clenched first c. A flag b. Roxas d. Quezon
b. A knock on the door d. Yawning 196 Men and women of pre-colonial times had
183 The most important symbols are weakness for personal adornment. A side from
a. Action c. Actions jewels, tattooing of the body was common. In the
b. Words d. Behavior Visayas tattooed men were called
184 The principal means through which culture is a. Umalohokan c. Abi
transmitted from generation to generation is b. Pintados d. Plista
a. Actions c. Language
b. Diffusion d. Behaviors

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197 Memories of brutality which was so in human 42 a 92 d
during the Japanese regime were always associated 43 c 93 a
with a particular Japanese group called 44 c 94 c
a. Kalibapi c. Kamikaze 45 d 95 d
b. Kempetai d. Samurai 46 c 96 a
198 Membership in the Katipunan come in grades: first
47 b 97 b
(katipon’s); second (kawal); and third (bayani). Each
48 c 98 b
grade designed as well as password so they could
maintain their secrecy of the movement. The 49 a 99 b
password for the kawal grade was? 50 c 100 a
a. Rizal c. Kawal
b. Gomburza d. Sundalo
199 Pre-colonial trade in the Philippines was
prosperous. Business transactions made use of:
a. Money system c. Credit system
b. Barter system d. Banking System
200 The use of magic charms was very common among
pre-Spanish Filipinos. One of these is the anting-
anting or agimat which is meant to:
a. Insure a man against a weapon of every kind
b. Made a man lovable to all ladies
c. Made a man invisible
d. Made him walk in storm or sea without getting
wet
***** THE END *****

WORK HARD, DREAM HARDER

Social science
1 c 51 a
2 a 52 d
3 b 53 b
4 b 54 c
5 c 55 c
6 b 56 b
7 d 57 c
8 a 58 b
9 a 59 a
10 c 60 a
11 d 61 a
12 c 62 c
13 a 63 c
14 a 64 d
15 b 65 a
16 c 66 a
17 d 67 a
18 a 68 c
19 a 69 c
20 c 70 b
21 c 71 b
22 b 72 b
23 c 73 c
24 b 74 b
25 d 75 d
26 b 76 c
27 d 77 a
28 a 78 d
29 c 79 b
30 c 80 b
31 d 81 c
32 a 82 c
33 c 83 d
34 c 84 d
35 d 85 b
36 a 86 d
37 b 87 b
38 a 88 d
39 d 89 a
40 c 90 a
41 b 91 b
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PRINCIPLES AND STRATEGIES OF TEACHING 14. It is “control by enforcing obedience or orderly
POST-TEST SEPTEMBER 2010 conduct or training that corrects and strengthens?
a. Management c. Techniques
1. It has reference to what teachers do in planning, b. Discipline d. Strategies
implementing and evaluating instruction. 15. When students are asked to respond to incomplete
a. Teaching c. Teaching strategies statements or questions that are presented in oral/
b. Curriculum d. Instruction written form
2. The orderly process directing learners to develop a. Open-ended Statement
their skills and habits so that they will be assisted b. Close-procedure
in acquiring knowledge and attitudes. c. PAC Strategy
a. Instructional Media d. Structured Activity
b. Instructional Method 16. These are all the experience which children have
c. Teaching Techniques under the direction of a school
d. Instructional System a. Curriculum c. Learning
3. Facial Expression, writing on the board, and oral b. Instruction d. Socialization
expression of the teacher is an example of 17. The subjects mater, not the child is important in
a. Teaching Behavior this type of curriculum
b. Technical Skills of teachers a. Correlated curriculum
c. Instruction b. Subject-centered curriculum
d. Instructional System c. Experience curriculum
4. Learning to draw, drive a car, play tennis, cook and d. Fused curriculum
type a poem often taught in is an example of 18. The child-instead of the subject-matter is
a. Cognitive Learning c. Verbal Learning important in this kind of curriculum
b. Motor Skill Learning d. Social Learning a. Correlated curriculum
5. Responding to telephone calls, writing one’s name, b. Core curriculum
reading a book orally is an example c. Experience curriculum
a. Cognitive Learning c. Verbal Learning d. Fused curriculum
b. Motor skill learning d. Serial Learning 19. It is a unified curriculum where subject matters
6. A process wherein the pupil’s attention and from different subject field are treated unitary of
interest are aroused and directed to a definite the same curriculum
purpose. a. Core curriculum
a. Learning c. Method b. Integrated Curriculum
b. Motivation d. Principle c. Broad field curriculum
7. Contains a statement of results to be accomplished d. Fused curriculum
and specific means by which these results are to be 20. Teacher’s initiative, imagination, puppet shows,
attained under direction and guidance. play, reading and animated cartoons can be
a. Method c. Technique examples of enriching the curriculum under these
b. Lesson Plan d. Principle resources
8. Could be the means of developing good study a. Specializing Resources
habits and independence in work as well as b. Creative Resources
preparing the pupils for the job to be done c. Human Resources
a. Review c. Assignment d. Reading Resources
b. Drill d. Recitation 21. A curriculum considered basics for all students,
9. The act of repeating from memory the reciting of that all must get them
a lesson and often described as a session lesson a. Broad field curriculum
hearing b. Core curriculum
a. Review c. Assignment c. Integrated Curriculum
b. Recitation d. Drill d. Experience Curriculum
10. A teaching procedure dealing with first-hand 22. The whole body of experience utilized by the
experiences pertaining to material obtained from school to attain the aims of education
experimentation a. Psychology c. Socialization
a. Demonstration Method b. Curriculum d. Methods
b. Laboratory Method 23. Formal education starts when the child
c. Discovery Method a. begins to talk
d. Deductive Method b. reaches the age of six years old
11. Starts with generalization and principles or from c. first enters school
general to particular d. begins to be inquisitive
a. Inductive Method c. Classical Method 24. That aspect of curriculum that has to do with the
b. Deductive Method d. Problem Method preservation of the best in our culture, customs
12. Students enact situations that arise in daily living, and traditions has been borrowed from
where values may be clarified, insights are a. Sociology c. Psychology
developed and decision-making is practiced b. Sociometry d. Ethics
a. Simulation Game c. Demonstration 25. The curriculum must take into consideration the
b. Role Playing d. Inquiry Process a. aim of education
13. Encouraging students to search for and see b. learning process
relationships that are not obvious; also it stretches c. motives and incentives
the intellect of students d. instincts
a. Open-ended Questions 26. The curriculum is
b. Recall Questions a. all-embracing c. all power
c. Explanatory Questions b. encompassing d. selective
d. Descriptive Question

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27. In the traditional school, the focus of attention was 39. Teaching method which proceeds from the details
on the of a lesson towards the generalization is called:
a. child c. method a. Inductive c. problem-solving
b. subject matter d. book b. deductive d. debate
28. Curriculum objects are formulated in the light of 40. A teaching method which proceeds from a
our generalization, principle or rule is:
a. past history a. inductive c. project
b. educational policy and philosophy b. deductive d. process
c. experience as a nation 41. The recent approach in teaching Social Studies is
d. needs in school called
29. Which of the following questions encourages a. discovery c. process
reflective thinking? b. conceptual d. formal-education
a. What are the parts of a complete flower? 42. A method of teaching which aptly applies to
b. What do we use to observe matter? lessons needing experiments is called:
c. In what ways can help his community a. problem-solving c. observation
d. Why are machine-made goods cheaper than b. laboratory d. demonstration
those made by hands? 43. What type of lesson is presented wherein the
30. The success of the pupils in formulating learner meets the learning experience through
generalization greatly depends on: understanding, analysis, and generalizations of
a. the interest of the pupils facts presented?
b. the devices used a. review c. developmental
c. the subjects matter b. drill d. deductive
d. the teacher’s skillful questioning 44. What lesson is presented when the teacher takes
31. In the inquiry method, the initiation phase calls for up the previous learning experiences of the
the teacher to set the stage for: learners in a recognized pattern of presentation?
a. finding solutions to problem a. Drill
b. raising of problems b. developmental
c. gathering data c. review
d. formulating generalization d. discussion procedure
32. Method is dependent upon: 45. A lesson which aims to focalize skills to make them
a. classroom techniques fixed to the point of mastery is
b. teacher’s expectation a. problem-type c. review
c. theoretical assumptions b. drill d. experimental
d. available textbooks 46. The law of exercise is aptly applied in a
33. To lead the students to the desired behavior, a. review lesson c. drill lesson
method must be implemented through: b. assignment d. check-up
a. selected technique 47. A type of review which presents the sum-total of
b. the curriculum all activities previously presented
c. the discussion of the teacher a. integrated c. daily
d. careful observation b. cumulative d. drill
34. Which is not true regarding the project method? 48. What recent technique o teaching calls for acting
a. Many worthwhile projects are impossible out of a situation where the participants aim to
because of the materials needed uncover a problem of great importance to the
b. The project method should be used class?
occasionally but not regularly a. panel c. role-playing
c. The pupil or the class should carry the chief b. debate-form d. lecture-form
responsibility of planning the project 49. What technique of in-service training for teachers
d. The project method is adaptable to all units in involves the identification and solution of common
the curriculum problems by them, thru live-in sessions,
35. The laboratory method is also called: conferences, and speeches of consultants?
a. the research methods a. buzz session c. seminar
b. the deductive method b. workshop d. professional meeting
c. the development method 50. The non-verbal symbols used to maximize learning
d. the problem method are referred to as
36. In the unit method, actual learning takes place in: a. Instructional devices
a. orienting the pupils b. Classrooms techniques
b. collecting, discovering and recording data c. Field trips
c. summarizing the unit d. Educational media
d. organizing the unit or study 51. Graphic material which are eye-catching and which
37. A statement of objectives, learning experience and use slogans and topics presented in bold letterings
the means of attaining results of teaching is called and strong colors to serve as reminders of
a. procedure c. outcomes standards and / or important events are called
b. lesson plan d. strategy a. poster c. projector
38. Teaching aids which the teacher uses to make b. film strips d. objects
learning meaningful, productive and interesting is 52. What contemporary aid to teaching utilizes
known as: carefully-planned materials where each step of
a. device learning requires repetition and practice until such
b. technique step is thoroughly learned?
c. method a. programmed instruction
d. learning continuum b. Keypunching
c. Educational Television
d. Educational hardware

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53. The Stimulus-Response theory of learning which 64. What teaching method helps the learners draw
involves the association between a conditioned generalization from a discipline with the end in
stimulus and a response thru the repeated view of applying the same similar situations in the
presentation of the stimulus was advocated by future?
whom? a. discovery approach
a. Edward Thorndike c. Burrhus Skinner b. process approach
b. Ivan Pavlov d. Wolfgang Kohler c. conceptual approach
54. What plan of promoting pupils is committed to d. problem-solving approach
encouraging the learners to progress from grade to 65. Which subjects is in the elementary and secondary
grade without needless repetition school levels mostly concerned with the study of
a. non-graded scheme societal problems and issues which are significant
b. individualized to the learners as member of society?
c. heterogeneous grouping a. Modern Mathematics
d. acceleration b. Social Studies
55. Differentiated assignments, tutorial and remedial c. Filipino
work to would-be-failures are not considered in d. Character Education
the individualized Instruction Scheme 66. Which of these are considered with two essential
a. Yes c. Maybe dimension of science teaching?
b. No d. Sometimes a. observing and inferring
56. A part of a daily lesson which serves as a carry- b. seeing and observing
over for the next day of what has been presented c. reading and researching
is the d. knowledge and performance
a. review 67. Which of these is not a process in science
b. drill teaching?
c. assignment or agreement a. Measurement
d. lesson proper b. Communication skill
57. A good learning environment is one c. Controlling variables
a. free from distraction c. disturbing noise d. None of these
b. aver decorated d. dilapidated 68. Of the process involve in the modern approach to
58. The proper handling of the physical condition ad science instruction, which one utilizes the most
instructional materials in the classroom to effect number of scientific processes.
learning refers to a. prediction c. inference
a. teaching method b. experimentation d. hypothesis
b. Classroom management 69. Give the main difference of these two objectives:
c. Discipline grouping  “ to teach the importance of proper nutrition
d. Guidance-oriented for good health “
59. What refers to the process o directing immediate  “ to give the importance of proper nutrition for
personal desires, interests or wishes for the good health”
purpose of achieving an effective action? a. The first objective is general while the second
a. discipline c. supervision is specific.
b. teaching d. management b. The first objective is hard to do while the
60. What characteristics an effective type of second is easy
discipline? c. The first objective needs a longer time while
a. vital, sympathetic, humane the second doesn’t
b. formal and strict d. The first objective is teacher behavior while
c. inhibited the second pupil behavior.
d. imposed 70. Which of the objectives below show overt
61. Which of these is not a quality of a good teacher? behavior?
a. mastery o the subject matter a. To appreciate the value of democracy.
b. broad background of liberal education b. To understand the importance of a
c. aims to enrich himself thru teaching constitution
d. understand the nature of the learners c. To recite he preamble of the constitution
62. Which of these is a good personal qualification of a d. To show love to one’s country
teacher? 71. The basis by which content is outlined and
a. resourceful, creative and intelligent institutional procedures are developed is the:
b. rich, capricious and luxurious a. lesson plan c. objectives
c. complaining, demanding and scornful b. basic text d. instructional materials
d. materialistic 72. An objective MUST specify:
63. Which of these is included among the professional a. What the learner must do or say.
ethics o school teachers? b. What the teacher must do or say
a. professional jealousy c. What projects are to be accomplished
b. integrity d. What the learner must understand
c. engaging in business pre-judicial to his 73. “Given ten photographs of biological cells, the
teaching duties pupils will be able to identify six of them as plant
d. gossip mongering or animal cells.” The underlined phrase is a :
a. terminal behavior
b. standard or acceptable performance
c. condition for learning
d. an accomplishment to be realized.

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74. “ To make statement” as an objective in an English 89. Which of the following statements is correct?
Lesson that is: a. Method is probably more important in college
a. specific c. correct than in the elementary
b. vague d. none of the above b. Method is more important in the elementary
75. What is the most fitting condition of learning for than in high school or college
this behavior: “to conclude that plants need c. Method is more important in college than in
sunlight in order to live”? high school
a. with the must of materials d. Method is less important than a lesson plan
b. given a set of pictures 90. What encourages the child to think, rationalize and
c. after reading the book make proper decisions?
d. realistic a. drill
76. Which of the following is not a criterion of a well- b. Appreciation lesson
formulated objective? c. Memorization
a. attainable c. interesting d. Problem- oriented strategies
b. observable d. realistic 91. The following except one are the factors that
77. Which task below is not in the psychomotor determine the choice of a method. Which is the
domain? exception?
a. imitation c. manipulation a. nature o the learners
b. evaluation d. articulation b. school equipment and facilities
78. The growth of attitudes or values is in the: c. educational background of the teacher
a. cognitive domain d. Subject matter
b. psychomotor domain 92. How well a teacher tells a story depends on:
c. affective domain a. Techniques c. the method used
d. behavioral domain b. the plot d. classroom
79. The domains of behavior do not come in isolation. 93. Which of the following statements is correct?
This statements is : a. Method is synonymous with technique
a. True c. False b. A device is a teaching method
b. Acceptable d. Partly true c. Method can be standardized
80. “Will a person do it freely without any type of d. There is no single best method
coercion?” This is: 94. When a teacher reviews a lesson, she is utilizing
a. a cognitive question the law of:
b. an affective question a. Readiness c. effect
c. a psychomotor question b. exercise d. multiple response
d. a behavioral question 95. In which situation is the law of readiness best
81. “ To develop appreciation of poetry” is a : applied?
a. general aim c. nature aim a. The teacher gives the aims of the lessons to be
b. specific aim d. serious aim taken up
82. Which aim below does not belong to the group? b. The teacher announces he subject matter at
a. To enumerate the uses of common garden the start of the period
tools c. The teacher waits or the children to be ready
b. To express opinion politely before teaching her lesson
c. To explain the significance of the story d. The teacher presents a song, related to the
d. To identify the parts of a flower. lesson
83. Which objective below is not realistic? 96. Which of the glowing is not an am in the inductive
a. To respect places of worship method
b. To sing the national anthem correctly a. To delay judgments until truth is given
c. To give the importance of cleanliness b. To enable pupils discover important truths for
d. To cite ways to show love one’s country themselves.
84. Which objective below is not specific? c. To help student/pupil to carry out an
a. To describe some of farming procedures investigation by themselves independent of
b. To define terms comprehensively the teacher
c. To pay tax promptly d. To make relationship of ideas clear to pupils
d. To know the life cycle of a moth. 97. In the inductive method, what does the child do
85. What phrase below is a standard of performance? during the comparison and “abstraction” step?
a. Solve the problem correctly within 10 minutes a. Recalls information and directs himself to the
b. Identify and sketch the curve activities to be accomplished
c. With the use of a ruler b. Perceives the common element present in the
d. After several examples cases given
86. A visible activity shows : c. Applies the principles learned to other
a. overt behavior problems or exercises
b. covert behavior d. Draw conclusion in his own words
c. confident behavior 98. The deductive method uses the following steps:
d. artificial behavior a. statement of the problem, generalization,
87. Which infinite below is not behavioral? inference, verification
a. to describe c. to compare b. statement of the problem, inference ,
b. to select d. To believe generalization, verification
88. Which objective below needs improvement c. inference, statement of the problem,
a. To prepare a seed box generalization, verification
b. To develop skill in embroidery d. inference, statement of the problem,
c. To plan a noon meal verification, generalization
d. To make an apron

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99. In reality, the type of study method is:
a. an inductive procedure
b. a deductive procedure
c. a traditional method
d. a question and answer method
100. The Herbartian formal steps corresponds to the
steps of:
a. the inductive method
b. teaching an appropriate lesson
c. the deductive method
d. the project method

“A thing becomes wasted when you fail to take

advantage of it

Principle and strategies

1 c 51 a
2 b 52 a
3 a 53 b
4 b 54 a
5 c 55 c
6 b 56 a
7 b 57 a
8 c 58 b
9 b 59 c
10 b 60 c
11 b 61 a
12 b 62 a
13 a 63 b
14 b 64 b
15 a 65 b
16 a 66 a
17 b 67 d
18 c 68 b
19 b 69 d
20 b 70 c
21 b 71 c
22 b 72 a
23 c 73 c
24 a 74 b
25 b 75 d
26 a 76 d
27 b 77 b
28 b 78 c
29 d 79 a
30 d 80 b
31 b 81 a
32 c 82 b
33 a 83 a
34 d 84 d
35 a 85 a
36 b 86 a
37 b 87 d
38 a 88 b
39 a 89 b
40 b 90 d
41 a 91 c
42 b 92 a
43 c 93 d
44 c 94 b
45 c 95 d
46 b 96 a
47 b 97 b
48 c 98 a
49 a 99 a
50 b 100 a
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PROFESSIONAL EDUCATION
Pre-board EXAM
April 2010
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. You are very much interested in a quality
professional development program for teachers.
What characteristic should you look for?
a. Prescribe by top educational teachers
b. Dependent on the availability of funds
c. Required for renewal of professional license
d. Responsive to identified teacher’s needs.
2. To ensure high standards of teachers’ personal and
professional development, which of the following
measures must be implemented?
I. A school head plans the professional
development of his/her teachers.
II. Every teacher formulates his/her own
professional development plan
III. The implementation of what is leaned in a
training must be monitored.
a. I only II and III
b. I and III d. II only
3. As a community leader, which of the following
should a teacher NOT do?
a. Support effort of the community to improve
their status in life.
b. Make herself aloof to ensure that her decisions
will not be influenced bu the community
politics.
c. Solicit donation from philanthropists in the
community.
d. Play an active part in the activities of the
community.
4. In a highly pluralistic society, what type of learning
environment is the responsibility of the teacher?
I. Safe
II. Gender-biased
III. Secure
a. I and II c. II only
b. I, II and III d. I and III
5. A teacher is said to be “trustee of the cultural and
educational heritage of the nation and is under
obligation to transmit to learners such heritage”.
Which practice makes the teacher fulfill such
obligation?
a. Use interactive teaching strategies.
b. Use the latest educational technology.
c. Observe continuing professional education
d. As a class, study the life of Filipino heroes.
6. Which actions show that political factors affect
schools as agents of change?
I. The strengthening of the teaching of English in
Philippines school.
II. The introduction of mandated subjects such as
Rizal in the curriculum
III. The practice of mainstreaming
IV. The turnover of day care centers for DSWD to
DepEd for supervision.
a. I and III c. II and III
b. I and II d. II and IV
7. For more efficient and effective management of
school as agents of change, one proposal is for the
DepEd to cluster remote stand-alone schools under
one lead school head. Which factor has the
strongest influence on this proposal?
a. Psychological c. Geographical
b. Historical d. Social
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8. What does the acronym EFA imply for schools?
a. The acceptance of exclusive schools for boys
and for girls.
b. The stress on the superiority of formal
education over that of alternative learning
system.
c. Practice of inclusive education
d. The concentration on formal education system
9. The wide acceptance of “bottom up” management
style has influenced schools to practice which
management practice?
a. Exclusion of politicians from the pool of guest
speakers during graduation exercises.
b. Prescription of what ought to be done from the
Center Office.
c. Involvement of students, parents, teachers,
and community in school planning
d. Allowing schools to do what they think is best
10. Large class size in congested cities is a common
problem in our public schools. Which measure/s
have schools taken to offset the effects of large
class?
I. The deployment of more teachers
II. The implementation of 1:1 pupil textbook
ratio
III. The conduct of morning and afternoon
sessions
a. I, II and III c. III only
b. I and II d. II only
11. The failure of independent study with most Filipino
students may be attributed to students’
a. unpreparedness fro schooling
b. ambivalence
c. high degree of independence
d. high degree of independence on authority
12. The schooling incidents in school campuses abroad
have made school to rethink the curriculum. Which
is believed to counteract such incidents and so is
being introduced in schools?
I. Inclusion of socio-emotional teaching
II. The emphasis on the concept of competition
against self and not against others
III. Focus on academic achievement and
productivity
a. I and III c. I and II
b. II and III d. I, II and III
13. Widespread abuse of Mother Earth prompted
schools to teach sustainable development. which
one does this prove about schools?
a. The curricula of schools are centered on
Mother Earth.
b. Schools can easily integrate sustained
development in their curriculum.
c. Sustained development cannot be effectively
taught in the classroom.
d. Environment factors influence the school as an
agent of change.
14. A father tells his daughter “You are a woman. You
are meant for the home and so for you, going to
school is not necessary.” Is the father CORRECT?
a. It depends on the place when the daughter and
the father live.
b. Yes, women are meant to be a mother only.
c. No. today women can take on the jobs of men.
d. No, there is gender equality in education.
94
15. Is there a legal basis for increasing the teacher’s
starting salary to P18,000 an months?
a. No, it is a gift to teachers from Congress
b. Yes, R.A 7836
c. No, it is simply an act of benevolence from
President GMA
d. Yes, the Phil. Constitution
16. As provided for the Educational Act of 1982, how
are the institutions of learning encourage to set
higher standards of equality over the minimum
standards required for state recognition?
a. Granting of Special Permit
b. Academic freedom
c. Continuing Professional Education
d. Voluntary accreditation
17. Despite of opposition from some school official,
DepEd has continuously enforced the “no collection
of fees” policy during enrolment period in public
schools. In this policy in accordance with EFA goals?
a. No, it violates the mandate of equality
education
b. Yes, it somewhat eliminates gender disparities
c. Yes, it supports equitable access to basic
education
d. No. it does not support parent of adult
education
18. “Specialization is knowing more and more about
less and less”. Hence, it is better to be a generalist,
claims Teacher F. Which Philosophy does Teacher F.
subscribe to?
a. Existentialism c. Essentialism
b. Perennialism d. Progressivism
19. Mencius believed that all people are born good.
This thought on the innate goodness of people
makes it easier to our pupils.
a. teach c. like
b. Respect d. motivate
20. The specialization requires of every professional
teacher for him/her to be competent is in line with
which pillar of learning?
a. Learning to know
b. Learning to be
c. Learning to live together
d. Learning to do
21. Which pillar of learning is aimed at the wholistic
development of man and his complete fulfillment?
a. Learning to be
b. Learning to know
c. Learning to live together
d. Learning to do
22. Material development at the expense of human
development points to the need to do more in
school.
a. “Learning to do”
b. “Learning to know”
c. “Learning to live together”
d. “Learning to be”
23. A student complains to you about his failing grade.
When you recomputed you found out that you
committed an error in this grade computation. Your
decision is not accept the erroneous computation
before the student and so leave the failing grade as
is for fear that you may lose credibility. Is this
morally right?
a. No, the reason for not accepting the error
before the students in flimsy.
b. No, the end does not justify the means
c. Yes, the end justifies the means
d. Yes, as a teacher you must maintain your
credibility
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24. Which violate(s) the principle of respect?
I. Teacher A tells her students that what Teacher
B taught is wrong.
II. To retaliate, Teacher B advises students not to
enroll in Teacher A’s class.
III. Teacher C secretly gives way to a special favor
(e.g. add 2 points to grade) requested by
student A who is vying for honors.
a. II and III c. I and II
b. I, II and III d. I and III
25. Which is/are in accordance with the principle of
pedagogical competence?
I. Communication of objectives of the course to
students
II. Awareness of alternative instruction strategies
III. Selection of appropriate methods of instruction
a. I and III c. III only
b. I, II and III d. II and III
26. With a death threat over his head, Teacher D is
directed to pass an undeserving student. Which will
a utilitarianist do?
a. Pass the student, why suffer the threat?
b. Don’t pass him; live by your principle of justice.
You will get reward, if not in this life, in the
next.
c. Pass the student. That will be of use to the
student, his parents and you.
d. Don’t pass him. You surely will not like
someone to give you a death threat in other to
pass.
27. Teacher A knows of the illegal activities of a
neighbor but keeps quiet in order not to be
involved in any investigation. Which foundational
principle of morality does Teacher A fail to apply?
a. The end does not justify the means
b. The end justifies the means
c. Always do what is right
d. Between two evils, do the lesser evil
28. To earn units for promotion, a teacher pays her fee
but does not attend class at all. Does this constitute
professional growth?
a. Not immediately but yes after promotion
b. It depends on the school she is enrolled in
c. No, it is simply earning MA units for promotion
d. Yes, just enrolling in an MA program is already
professional growth
29. If a teacher asks more higher-order questions, he
has to ask more questions.
a. fact c. convergent
b. close d. concept
30. Misdemeanor has a “ripple effect”. This implies that
as a classroom manager, a teacher
a. reinforces positive behavior
b. responds to misbehavior promptly
c. is consistent in her classroom management
practice
d. count 1 to 10 before she deals with a
misbehaving student
31. Based on Edgar Dale’s “Cone of Experience”, which
activity is farthest from the real thing?
a. Watching demo c. Video disc
b. Attending exhibit d. Viewing images
32. The students of Teacher Y scan an electronic
encyclopedia, view a film on subject, or look at
related topics at the touch of a button right there in
the classroom. Which device/s des teacher Y’s class
have?
a. Teaching machines
b. CD
c. Video disc
d. Videotaped lesson
95
33. Which is an INAPPROPIATE way to manage off-task
behavior?
a. Redirect a child’s attention to task and check
his progress to make sure he is continuing work
b. Make eye contact to communicate what you
wish to communicate
c. Move closer to the child to make him feel your
presence
d. Stop your class activity to correct a child who is
no longer on task
34. To be an effective classroom manager, a teacher
must be friendly but must at the same time be
. c. She reacts severely to a misbehaving student
a. confident c. analytical
b. businesslike d. buddy-buddy
35. Which software is needed when one wants to
perform automatic calculations on numerical data?
a. Database
b. Spreadsheet Program
c. Microsoft Word
d. Microsoft Powerpoint
36. Which of the following questions must be
considered in evaluating teacher-made materials?
a. In the material new?
b. Does the material simulate individualism?
c. Is the material expensive?
37. Kounin claims that “with-it-ness” is one of the
characteristics of an effective classroom manager.
What is one sign of “with-it-ness”?
a. Giving attention to students who are having
difficulty with school work
b. Seeing only a portion of the class but
intensively
c. Knowing where instructional materials are kept
d. Aware of what’s happening in all parts of the
classroom
38. Which of these is one of the ways by which the
internet enables people to browse documents
connected by hypertext links?
a. URL
b. Browser
c. Welcome page
d. World Wide Web
39. Which characteristics must be primary considered
as a choice of instructional aids?
a. Stimulate and maintain students interests
b. Suited to the lesson objectives
c. Updated and relevant to Filipino setting
d. New and skillfully made
40. You can exhibit referent power on the first day of
school by
a. telling them the importance of good grades
b. giving your students a sense of belongingness
and acceptance
c. making them feel you know what you are
taking about
d. reminding your students your authority over
them again and again
41. I would like to use a model to emphasize particular
part. Which of these would be MOST appropriate?
a. Regalia c. Stimulation
b. Audio recording d. Mock up
42. What must a teacher do to ensure orderly
transitions between activities?
a. Allow time for the students to socialize in
between activities
b. Have the materials ready at the start of the
activity
c. Assign fewer exercise to fill the allotted time
d. Wait for students who lag behind
43. The task of setting up routine activities for effective
classroom management is a task that a teacher
should undertake
a. as soon as the students have adjusted to their
schedules
b. on the very first day of school
c. every day at the start of the session
d. every homeroom day
44. Teacher S uses the low-profile classroom control
technique most of the time. what does this imply?
a. She is reactive in her disciplinary orientation
b. She manages pupils personalities
d. She stops misbehaving without disrupting
lesson flow
45. When teacher tries to elicit clarification on a
student response or solicits additional information,
which of these should be use?
a. Directing c. Structuring
b. Probing d. Cross examining
46. Which priority criterion should guide a teacher in
the choice of instructional devices?
a. Novelty c. Attractiveness
b. Cost d. Appropriateness
47. Which learning activity is MOST appropriate if a
teacher’s focus is attitudinal change?
a. Fieldtrip c. Role play
b. Exhibit d. Game
48. Teacher H strives to draw participation of every
student into her classroom discussion. Which of
these student needs is she trying to address? The
need to .
a. shoe one’s oral abilities to the rest of the class
b. feel significant and be part of a group
c. get everything and be part of a group
d. be creative
49. Instead of teacher giving this comment a student
response. “You’re on the wrong track!”, what
should be teacher do?
a. Change the question to an easier one
b. Redirect the question by calling another
student to recite
c. Probe to redirect the response into a more
productive area
d. Pause, ask the question, lecture, then ask the
question again
50. If curriculum is designed following the traditional
approach, which feature(s) apply(ies)?
I. The aims of the curriculum are set by
professionals and experts
II. Interested groups (teachers, students,
communities) are assumed to agree with the
aims of the curriculum
III. Consensus building in not necessary
a. III only c. I, II
b. I, II, III d. I, III
51. I want my student to develop the ability to look at a
problem from various perspectives. Which
approach will be MOST fit?
a. Behaviorist approach
b. Computer-based Education
c. Modular approach
d. Cognitive approach

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52. One’s approach to teaching is influenced by Howard
Gardner’s MI Theory. What is he/she challenged to
do?
I. To come up with 9 different ways of
approaching lesson to cater to the 9 multiple
intelligence
II. To develop all student’s skill in all nine
intelligences
III. To provide worthwhile activities that
acknowledge individual difference in children
a. I, II and III c. II only
b. II, III d. III only
53. If my approach to my lesson is behaviorist, what
features will dominate my lesson?
I. Copying notes III. Lecturing
II. Reasoning IV. Demonstration
a. III, IV c. I, II, III, IV
b. I, III, IV d. II, III, IV
54. You practice inclusive education. Which of these
applies to you?
I. You accept every student as full and valued
member of the class and school community
II. Your special attention is on learners with
specific learning or social needs
III. Your address the needs of the class as a whole
within the context of the learners with specific
learning or social needs
a. II only c. I only
b. I and II d. I and III
55. School curriculum reflects the world’s economic
and political integration and industrialization. What
does this point in curriculum development?
a. The trend towards the classical approach to
curriculum development
b. The trend toward the globalization and
localization
c. The trend toward participatory curriculum
development
d. The shift in the paradigm of curriculum
development from a process-oriented to a
product-oriented one
56. You choose cooperative learning as a teaching
approach. What thought is impressed on your
students?
a. Interaction is a must, but not necessarily face
to-face interaction
b. Student’s success depends on the success of
the group
c. Student’s individuality evaluate how effectively
their group worked.
d. The accountability for learning is on the group
not on the individual
57. What principle is violated by overusing the
chalkboard, as though it is the only education
technology available?
a. Isolated use c. Variety
b. Flexibility d. Uniformity
58. Which statement applies a CORRECTLY to Edgar
Dale’s ”Cone of Experience”
a. The farther you are from the base, the more
direct the learning experience becomes.
b. The farther you are from the bottom, the more
direct the learning experience becomes.
c. The closer you are from the base, the more
indirect the learning experience becomes
d. The closer you are from the base, the more
direct the learning experience becomes
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59. “When more senses are stimulated, teaching and
learning become more effective.” What is an
application of this principle?
a. Appeal to student’s sense of imagination
b. Use multisensory aids
c. Make your students touch the instructional
material
d. Use audiovisual aids because the eyes and the
eras are the most important senses in learning.
60. Which is a classroom application of the theory of
“operant conditioning”?
a. Help student see the connectedness of facts,
concepts, and principles
b. Create a classroom atmosphere that elicits
relaxation
c. Reinforce a good behavior to increase the
likelihood that the learner will repeat the
response
d. Make students learn by operating
manipulatives
Read the following teacher-student situation
61. TEACHER: Why is the process called
photosynthesis?
STUDENT: I don’t know
Which questioning technique should be the
teacher use?
a. Clarification c. Prompting
b. Multiple response d. Concept review
62. Here is the test item.
“From the data presented in the table, from
generalizations that are supported by the
data”.
Under what type of question does this
item fall?
a. Convergent c. Application
b. Evaluative d. Divergent
63. I want to teach concepts, patterns and abstractions.
Which method will be MOST appropriate?
a. Discovery c. Direct instruction
b. Indirect instruction d. Problem solving
64. Teacher A teaches English as a Second Language.
She uses vocabulary cards, fill-in-the-blanks
sentences, dialogues, dictation and writing
exercises in teaching a lesson about grocery
shopping. Based on this information, which of the
following is a valid conclusion?
a. The teacher wants to make her teaching easier
by having les talk
b. The teacher emphasizing reading and writing
skills
c. The teacher is teaching in a variety of ways
because not all students learn in the same
manner
d. The teacher is applying Bloom’s hierarchy of
cognitive learning
65. Teacher A an experienced teacher, does daily
review of past lessons in order to
a. introduce a new lesson
b. reflect on how he presented the previous
lessons
c. provide his pupils with a sense of continuity
d. determine who among his pupils are studying
66. I combined several subject areas in order to focus
on a single concept for interdisciplinary teaching.
Which strategy did I use?
a. Reading-writing activity
b. Thematic introduction
c. Unit method
d. Problem-centered learning
97
67. To teach the democratic process to the pupils, Biag
Elementary School decided that the election of class
officers shall be patterned after local elections.
There are qualifications set for candidates, limited
period for campaign and rules for posting campaign
materials, etc. Which of the following did the school
use?
a. Symposium c. Pole playing
b. Simulation d. Philips 66
68. Which are effective methods in teaching student
critical reading skills?
I. Interpret editorial
II. Read and interpret three different movie
reviews
III. Read a position paper and deduce underlying
assumptions of the position papers
a. II and III c. I and II
b. I and III d. I, II and III
69. Here is a test item
“The improvement of basic education should
be the top priority of the Philippine
government. Defend or refute this position”.
Under what type of question does this
test item fall?
a. Low-level c. Analysis
b. Evaluative d. Convergent
70. When I teach, I often engage in brainstorming.
Which do I avoid?
a. Break down barriers
b. Increase creativity
c. Generate many ideas
d. Selectively involves pupils
71. Teacher S teaches a lesson in which students must
recognize that ¼ is the same 0.25. They use this
relationship to determine that 0.15 and 0.20 are
slightly less than ¼. Which of the following
concept/s is/are being taught?
a. Numeration skills
b. Place value of decimals
c. Numeration skills of decimals and relationships
between fractions and decimals
d. Relationship between fraction and decimals
72. What is the best way to develop math concept?
a. Solving problems using multiple approaches
b. Solving problems by looking for correct answer
c. Learning math as applied to situations, such as
being a tool of science
d. solving problems by applying learned formulas
73. After the reading of a selection in the class, which
of these activities can enhance students creativity.
I. Reader’s theater
II. Reading aloud
III. Silent reading
a. I and II c. I only
b. II only d. III only
74. Teacher C, a Reading teacher, advised he class to
“read between the lines”. What does she want her
pupils to do?
a. Make an educated guess
b. Determine what is meant by what is stated
c. Apply the information read
d. Describe the characters in the story
75. To nurture students’ creativity, which activity
should a teacher AVOID?
a. Ask “hat if…” questions
b. Ask divergent thinking questions
c. Emphasize the need to give right answers
d. Be open to “out-of-this-world” ideas
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76. Teacher R wants to develop his student’s creativity.
Which type of questions will be MOST appropriate?
a. Synthesis questions
b. Fact questions
c. “What if….” questions
d. Analysis questions
77. In my attempt to develop creative thinking skills, I
want to test fluency of ideas. Which activity for my
students will be MOST appropriate?
a. Solve this math problem
b. List animals covered with hair in 1 minute
c. Solve this puzzle
d. Compare pictures 1 and 2. Where are the
differences?
78. You want your students to answer the questions at
the end of a reading lesson. “What did I learn
did?”,”What still puzzle me?”, “What did I enjoy,
hate accomplish in the class today”?,”How did I
learn from the lesson?”.Which of the following are
you asking them to do?
a. Work on an assignment
b. Make journal entry
c. Work on a drill
d. Apply what they learned
79. After reading an essay. Teacher B wants to help
sharpen her students’ ability to interpret. Which of
these activities will be most appropriate?
a. Drawing conclusions
b. Making inferences
c. Getting the main idea
d. Listing facts separately from opinion
Read the following then answer the question
80. A man and his son are driving in a car. The car
crashes into a tree, killing the father and seriously
injury his son. At the hospital, the boy needs to
have surgery. Looking at the boy, the doctor says
(telling the truth),”I cannot operate on him. He is
my son. How can this be?
ASWER: The doctor is the boy’s mother.
The above brain twister helps develop
critical reading skills. Which activity was used?
a. Comparing
b. Classifying
c. Inferring meaning
d. Looking for cause and effect
81. Research says that mastery experiences increase
confidence and willingness to try similar or more
challenging tasks as reading. What does this imply
for children’s reading performance?
a. Children who have not mastered the basic skills
are more likely to be motivated to read in order
to gain mastery over basic skills.
b. Children who have mastered basic skills are
more likely to be less motivated to read
because they get fed up with too much reading.
c. Children who have a high sense of self-
confidence are not necessarily those who can
read
d. Children who have gained mastery over basic
skills are more motivated to read
82. The value that students put on reading is critical to
their success. In what way/s can teachers inculcate
his value for reading?
I. Sharing the excitement of read-aloud
II. Showing their passion for reading
III. Being rewarded to demonstrate the value of
reading
a. II and III c. I, II and III
b. I and II d. II only
98
83. Bruner’s theory on intellectual development moves 92. Teacher H begins a lesson on tumbling,
from enactive to iconic and symbolic stages. demonstrating front and back somersaults in slow
Applying Bruner’s theory. How would you teach? motion and physically guiding his students through
a. Be interactive in approach the correct movements. As his students become
b. Begin with the abstract more skillful, he stands back from the man and
c. Begin with the concrete gives verbal feedback about how to improve. With
d. do direct instruction Vygotsky’s theory in mind, what did Teacher H do?
84. A person who has painful experiences at the a. Apprenticeship
dentist’s office may become fearful at the mere b. Guided participation
sight of the dentist’s office building. Which theory c. Peer interaction
can explain this? d. Scaffolding
a. Generalization 93. What does Gagne’s hierarchy theory propose for
b. Operant Conditioning effective instruction?
c. Attribution theory a. Be concerned with the socio-emotional climate
d. Classical conditioning in the classroom
85. Which is/are the basic assumption/s of b. Teach beginning with the concrete
behaviorists? c. Sequence instruction
I. The mind of newborn child is a blank state. d. Reward good behavior
II. all behaviors are determined by environmental 94. William Glasser’s control theory states that
events behavior in inspired by what satisfies a person’s
III. The child has a certain degree of freedom not want at any given time. What then must a teacher
to allow himself to be shaped by his do to motivate students to learn?
environment. a. Make teaching-leaning interactive
a. III only c. II only b. Avoid giving assignments
b. I and II d. I and II c. Organize a curriculum in a spiral manner
86. If a student is encourage to develop himself to the d. Make schoolwork relevant to students’ basic
fullest and must satisfy his hierarchy of needs, the human needs.
highest needs to satisfy according to Maslow is 95. Soc exhibit fear response to freely roaming dogs but
. does not show fear when a dog is on a leash or
a. psychological need c. belongingness confined to a pen. Which conditioning process is
b. self-actualization d. safety needs illustrated?
87. In a Social studies class. Teacher I presents a a. extinction c. acquisition
morally ambiguous situation and asks student what b. generalization d. discrimination
they would do. On whose theory is Teacher I’s 96. Based on Freud’s theory, which operate/s when a
technique based? student strikes a classmates at the height of anger?
a. Bandura c. Kohberg a. Ego c. Id and Ego interact
b. Piaget d. Bruner b. Id d. Superego
88. Teacher F is convinced that whatever a student 97. Bernadette enjoyed the roller coaster when he and
performs a desired behavior, provide reinforcement her family went to Enchanted Kingdom. The mere
and soon the student learns to perform the sight of a roller coaster gets her excited. Which
behavior on his own. On which principle is Teacher theory explains Bernadette’s behavior?
F’s conviction based? a. Operant conditioning
a. Environmentalism c. Cognitivism b. Social learning theory
b. Behaviorism d. Constructivism c. Attribution theory
89. Bandura’s social learning theory, states that d. Pavlovian conditioning
children often imitate those who 98. According to Frued, with which should one be
I. have substantial influence over their lives concerned if he/she has to develop in the students
II. belong their peer group a correct sense of right and wrong?
III. belong to other races I. Super-ego II. Ego III. Id
IV. are successful and seem admired a. I and II c. I
a. IV only c. I and II b. II d. III
b. I and IV d. II and IV 99. When small children call animals “dog”, what
90. According to Erikson, what years are critical for the process is illustrated on Piaget’s cognitive
development of self-confidence? development theory?
a. High school years a. reversion c. accommodation
b. College years b. assimilation d. conservation
c. Preschool years 100. Researchers found that when a child is engaged in a
d. Elementary school years learning experience a number of areas of the brain
91. Which of the following does NOT describe the are simultaneously activated. Which of the
development of children aged 11 to 13? following is/are implication/s of this research
a. They exhibit increased objectivity in thinking finding?
b. They shift from impulsivity to adaptive ability I. Make use of field trips, guest speakers
c. Sex difference in IQ become more evident II. Do multicultural units of study
d. They show abstract thinking and judgment III. Stick to the “left brain and right brain”
approach
a. I and III c. I and II
b. I only d. II only

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101. Which appropriate teaching practice flows from this 108. With assessment of affective learning in mind,
research finding on the brain: “The brain’s which does NOT belong to the group?
emotional center is tied into its ability to learn”. a. Cloze test c. Reflective writing
a. Establish the discipline of being judgmental in b. Moral dilemma d. Diary entry
attitude 109. I want to test student’s synthesizing skills. Which
b. Come up with highly competitive games where has the highest diagnostic value?
winners will feel happy a. multiple choice test c. Essay test
c. Tell the students to participate in class b. Performance test d. Completion test
activities or else won’t receive plus points in 110.
class recitation is an example of a leafy
d. Create a learning environment that encourages vegetable.
students to explore their feeling and ideas Why is this test item poor?
freely I. The test item does not pose a problem to the
102. Research on Piagetian tasks indicates that thinking examinee
becomes more logical and abstract as children II. There are variety of possible correct answer
reach the formal operations stage. What is an to this item
educational implication of this finding? III. the language used in the question is not
a. Engage children in analogical reasoning as early precise
as preschool to train them for higher order IV. The blank is near the beginning of a sentence
thinking skills (HOTS) A. I and III
b. Learners who are not capable of logical B. II and IV
reasoning from ages 8 to 11 lag behind in their C. I and IV
cognitive development D. I and II
c. Let children be children 111.
d. Expect hypothetical reasoning for learners What follows is a multiple choice type of
between 12 to 15 years of age test.
103. Research says: “People tend to attribute their Some test items .
successes to internal causes and their failures to a. are too difficult
external causes.”Based on this finding, what should b. are objective
be taught to students for them to be genuinely c. are poorly constructed
motivated to succeed? d. have multiple defensible answers
a. Tell them the research finding when applied
will make them genuinely motivated
b. Convince them that genuine motivation is the What makes the multiple choice type of test
only factor that matters for a person to poor?
succeed a. The options are not grammatically connected
c. Make them realize that failure is a part of life to the stem
d. Make them realize that both success and b. The stem fails to present a problem
failure are more a function of internal causes. c. There are grammatical clues
104. Which characterize/s a learning environment that d. The options are not parallel
promotes fairness among learners of various 112. If a teacher wants to measure her students’ ability
cultures, family background and gender? to discriminate, which of these is an appropriate
I. Inclusive type of test item as implied by the direction?
II. Exclusive a. “Outline the Chapter on The Cell”.
III. Gender-sensitive b. “Summarize the lesson yesterday”.
a. I only c. I and III c. “Group the following items according to
b. III only d. II and III shape”.
105. Which of the following steps should be completed d. “State a set of principle that can explain the
first in planning an achievement test? following events”.
a. Define the instructional objective 113. A test item has a difficult index of 0.89 and a
b. Set up a table of specialization discrimination index of 0.44. What should the
c. Select the types of test items to use teacher do?
d. Decide on the length of the test a. Reject the item
106. The computed r fro scores in Math and Science in b. Retain the item
0.92. What does this mean? c. Make it a bonus item
a. Math score is positive related to Science score d. Make it a bonus item and reject it
b. The higher the Math score, the lower the 114. Which form of assessment is consistent with the
Science score saying “The proof of the pudding is in the eating”.
c. Math score is not in any way related to Science a. Contrived c. Traditional
score b. Authentic d. Indirect
d. Science score is slightly related to math score 115.
107. Which types of test is most appropriate if Teacher Y Who is best admired for outstanding
wants to measure student’s ability to organize contribution to world peace?
thoughts and ideas? a. Kissinger c. Kennedy
a. Short answer type of test b. Clinton d. Mother Teresa
b. Extended response essay
c. Modified alternative response What is WRONG with this item?
d. Limited response essay a. Item is overly specific
b. Content is trivial
c. Test item is option-based
d. There is a cue to the right answer

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116. Student’s score were as follows: 82, 83, 84, 86, 88, 123. If the scores of your test follow a negatively skewed
84, 83, 85. The score 86 is the. score distribution, what should you do?
a. mode c. median Find out ?
b. average d. mean a. why your items were easy
117. Which text form would you choose if you want to b. why most of the scores are high
have a valid and reliable test based on the table c. why most of the scores are low
below? d. why some pupils scored high
Test Form Validity Index Reliability Index 124. Principal A is talking about “grading on the curve” in
A .47 .68 a faculty meeting. What does this expression refer
B .87 .57 to?
C .20 .86 a. A student mark compares his achievement to
D .40 .41 his effort.
E .63 .07 b. A student’s grade or mark depends on how his
achievement compares with the achievement
a. A only c. A and D of other students in a class.
b. B only d. B and E c. A student’s grade determines whether or not a
118. A mathematicians test was given to all Grade V student attains a defined standard of
pupils to determine the contestants for the Math achievement
Quiz Bee. Which statistical measure should be used d. A student mark tells how closely he is achieving
to identify the top 15? to his potential.
a. Mean percentage score 125. Which tests determine whether students accept
b. Quartile Deviation responsibility for their own behavior or pass on
c. Percentile Rank responsibility for their own behavior to other
d. Percentage Score people?
119. Nellie’s score is within x±1 SD. To which of the a. Thematic tests
following groups does she belong? b. Sentence-completion tests
a. Below average c. Stylistic test
b. Average d. Locus-of-control tests
c. Needs Improvement 126. Which of the one weakness of self-supporting
d. Above average personality checklists?
120. Use the inbox below to answer the question that a. Many personality measures have built-in lie
follows: scales
Percentage Grades for Final Examination b. They lack stability
c. They may not get true information because
individuals can hide or disguise feelings
d. They have poor internal consistency
40 70 80 90 127. Which of these can measure awareness of values?
100 a. Sociogram
Which of the following statement is TRUE b. Moral dilemmas
about the plot of grades above? c. Projective techniques
a. The median is a score of 80 and the range is d. Rating scales
60. 128. Marking on a normative basis means that
b. The median is a score of 70 and the range is a. the normal distribution curve should be
60. followed
c. The median is a score of 80 and the range is b. some should fall
20. c. some get high marks
d. The median is a score of 70 and the range is d. the grading is based on a present criteria
20. 129. Which process enhances the comparability of
121. Which can be said of Arielle who obtained a score grades?
of 75 out of 100 items in a Grammar objective test? a. Using a table specifications
a. She performed better than 25% of her b. Determining the level of difficulty of the tests
classmates c. Giving more HOTS (higher order thinking skills)
b. She answered 75 items in the test correctly d. Constructing departmentalized examinations
c. Her rating is 75 for each subject area.
d. She answered 75% of the test items correctly SITUATIONAL
122. The criterion of success in Teacher D’s objective is
that “the pupils must be able to spell 90% of the Situation 1- In a faculty meeting, the principle told his
words correctly”. Ana and 24 others in the class teacher: “We need to improve our school
spelled only 40 out of 50 words correctly while the performance in the National Achievement Test. What
rest scored 45 and above. This means that Teacher should we do?
D The teacher gave varied answers as follows:
a. attained her lesson objective 1. Let’s give incentives and rewards to students
b. did not attain her lesson objective because of who get a rating of 85%
the pupils’ lack of attention 2. Let’s teach them to accept complete
c. failed to attain her lesson objective as far as the responsibility for their performance
25 pupils are concerned 3. Let’s make the school environment
d. attained her lesson objective because of her
conducive for learning
effective spelling drill
4. Let’s make use of the experimental methods
of teaching

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130. Which response/s come/s from a behaviorist? 139. On which assumption/s is the principal’s action
a. #2 and #4 c. #3 and #4 anchored?
b. #1 and #2 d. #1 and #3 I. Students learn by personally constructing
131. On which educational philosophy is response #1 meaning of what is taught.
anchored? II. Students are construct and reconstruct
a. Existentialism c. Progressivism meaning based on experiences
b. Essentialism d. Bahaviorism III. Students derive meaning from the meaning
132. If you learned toward a progressivist philosophy, that the teacher gives
with which response would you agree? a. II only c. I, II, and III
a. #2 b. #3 c. #4 d. #1 b. I and II d. I only
140. Which materials will her teachers LEAST prefers?
a. Controversial issues
Situation 2- One principle in the utilization of b. Open-ended topics
technology of the classroom is appropriateness c. Unquestionable laws
of material or activity.
d. Problem or cases
141. Which concept/s of the learner will Principal E NOT
133. Teacher C wants his students to master the concept accept?
of social justice. Which series of activities will be I. “Empty vesse!”
most effective? II. “Tabula rasa”
a. Pretest-teaching-posttest III. Candle to be lighted
b. Pretest-teaching-posttest-re-teaching for a. III only c. II only
unlearned concepts-posttest b. I only d. I and II
c. Review-pretest-teaching-posttest
d. Teaching-posttest Situation 5- Study the matching type of test then
134. Teacher A likes to show how the launching of answer the 3 questions that follow:
spaceships takes place. Which of the following Column A Column B
materials available is most fit? 1. equilateral triangle A. With 3 equal sides
a. Model c. Replica 2. right triangle B. With 5 equal sides
b. Mock-up d. Realia 3. octagon C. Has 90- degree
135. Teacher B likes to concretize the abstract concepts angle
of an atom. She came up with a concrete 4. pentagon D. Means many
presentation of the atom by using wire and plastic
5. heptagon E. with 7 sides
balls. How would you classify Teacher B’s visual
aids? 6. poly F. with 8 sides
a. Chart c. Model
b. Replica d. Realia 142. How can you make the items homogeneous?
a. Increase the number of items in Column B
Situation 3- After reading and paraphrasing b. All items should be on polygons
Robert frost’s “Stopping by the Wood on a c. Remove the word triangle in items #1 and #2 in
snowy Evening”. Mr. Sales asked the class to column A
share any insight derived from the poem. d. The word “gon” must be included in column B
143. What is the main defect of this matching test?
136. The class was asked to share their insights about a. the matching type is an imperfect type
the poem. The ability to come up with a n insight b. the items are NOT homogeneous
stems from the ability to c. the items quite easy
a. analyze the parts of a whole d. an obvious pattern is followed in the answering
b. evaluate the worthiness of a thing 144. Which should be done to improve the matching
c. relate and organize things and ideas type of test?
d. comprehend the subject that is being studied a. Capitalize the items in Column A
137. To ask the class any insight derived from the poem b. Items in Column A and B should be exchanged
is based on the theory of c. Drop #6 item in Column A
a. realism c. conditioning d. The item in Column A should be increased
b. behaviorism d. constructivism
138. On which assumption about the learner is Mr. Situation 6- Below the template for Scoring
Marquez’s act of asking the class to share their Rubric.
insight based?
a. Learners are like empty receptacles waiting to 5-Demonstrate complete understanding of the
be filled up problem. All requirements of task are included in
b. Learners are meant to interact with one response
another 4-Demonstrate considerable understanding of
c. Learners have multiple intelligence and varied the problem. All requirements of task are
learning styles included
d. Learners are producers of knowledge not only 3- Demonstrate partial understanding of the
passive recipients of information problem. Most requirements of task are included
2- Demonstrate little understanding of the
Situation 4- Principal E wants her teachers problem. Many requirements of task are missing
to apply constructivism in teaching 1- Demonstrate no understanding of the
problem
0-No response/task not attempted

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145. Which of these is/are essential in constructing a
scoring rubric? 1 C 51 D 101 D
I. Description of criteria to serve as standard
2 B 52 B 102 D
II. Clear descriptions of performance at each
level 3 C 53 B 103 C
III. Levels of achievement (mastery) 4 D 54 D 104 C
IV. Rating scheme 5 D 55 D 105 A
a. I, II, III c. I, II, III, IV
6 D 56 C 106 A
b. I, II d. I only
146. Which statement is TRUE of the rubric? 7 C 57 C 107 B
a. It is developmental 8 C 58 D 108 A
b. It is analytical 9 C 59 B 109 B
c. It is both holistic and developmental
10 A 60 C 110 D
d. It is holistic
147. Which is TRUE of the scoring rubric? 11 D 61 A 111 B
I. It describes criteria of levels of achievement 12 D 62 B 112 C
II. It has a rating scheme 13 B 63 A 113 B
III. It limit itself to 4 levels of achievement
14 D 64 D 114 B
a. I and II
b. I and III 15 D 65 C 115 D
c. II and III 16 C 66 B 116 D
d. I, II and III 17 C 67 B 117 A
18 C 68 D 118 C
Situation 7- Study the table on item
analysis for non-attractiveness and non- 19 A 69 C 119 D
plausibility of distracters based on the 20 A 70 D 120 A
results of a try-out test in Science. The 21 A 71 D 121 B
letter marked with a asterisk is the correct
answer. 22 A 72 C 122 C
23 B 73 C 123 B
Item No. 1 A B C D E 24 B 74 B 124 B
Upper 27% 10 4 1 1 0 25 B 75 C 125 D
Lower 27% 6 5 2 2 0
26 C 76 C 126 C
148. The table shows that the test item analyzed 27 C 77 B 127 B
. 28 C 78 C 128 D
a. has a positive discrimination index 29 D 79 B 129 D
b. has a negative discrimination index
30 B 80 D 130 B
c. is extremely easy
d. is extremely difficult 31 D 81 D 131 D
149. Based on the table, which is the most effective 32 A 82 C 132 B
distracter? 33 D 83 A 133 B
a. Option D
34 B 84 D 134 D
b. Option A
c. Option C 35 B 85 C 135 B
d. Option B 36 C 86 B 136 A
150. Based on the table, which group got more correct 37 D 87 C 137 D
answer?
38 A 88 D 138 B
a. Upper group
b. It cannot be determined 39 B 89 C 139 B
c. Lower group 40 C 90 D 140 C
d. Data are not sufficient to give an answer 41 D 91 C 141 A
42 B 92 B 142 B
43 C 93 C 143 B
44 A 94 D 144 C
When you get right down to the root of the meaning of 45 B 95 D 145 C
the word "succeed," you find that it simply means to
46 D 96 B 146 C
follow through.
47 C 97 A 147 A
48 B 98 C 148 D
49 B 99 D 149 D
50 B 100 C 150 C

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GENERAL SCIENCE 15. What is a eat haze?
a. A reflection caused by pollutants in the air
POST – TEST b. A distorted image resulting from the bending o
Multiple Choices: sun’s light rays by changes in air temperature
c. A movement o warm air over a vast expanse of
1. These are living things that use sunlight, land
chlorophyll, water and carbon dioxide to produce d. Caused by extremely high temperature common
food. in dessert areas
a. Autotrophs c. Heterotrops 16. What sort of rock formation do the world’s greatest
b. Consumers d. Food chain mountain ranges consist of?
2. It is describe as the lifeline of the body. IT is the a. Magma c. Fold eruptions
body’s “pickup” and delivery system.” b. Chalk deposit d. Slip formation
a. Blood c. circulatory system 17. What is the fore that wears down mountains?
b. nervous system d. heart a. Earthquake c. Volcanic eruptions
3. It carries the oxygen-rich blood to the head, arms, b. Erosion d. Deforestation
chest and down to the waist and the legs. 18. How are volcanic island formed?
a. heart c. aorta a. Collision of two oceanic plates
b. ventricles d. arteries b. Cooling of lava by seawater
4. They are the transmitters of message from the c. Volcanic eruptions
different parts of the body to the brain and vice d. Accumulation of corals
versa. 19. When the Theory of plate Tectonics was generally
a. spinal cord c. brain accepted?
b. neurons or nerve cells d. arteries a. 1900’s c. 1950’s
5. Which part of the brain controls the following b. 1930’s d. 1980’s
activities: breathing, blood pressure, heart rate, 20. The weathering away of rocks by water, wind and
alertness. ice.
a. brainstem c. cerebrum a. Denudation c. Volcanic rock
b. hypothalamus d. spinal cord b. Erosion d. Metamorphic rock
6. Refers to a sequence of organism in a community 21. How do hormones work?
that constitutes a feeding chain. a. By releasing adrenaline
a. photosynthesis c. consumers b. By controlling cell chemistry
b. ecosystem d. food chain c. By regulating water loss
7. Is a group of interacting plants, animals and human d. By controlling blood pressure
in a particular area. 22. Name the male and female sex hormones
a. ecological community c. living organism a. Sperm cell & Ovum c. Chromosomes
b. environment d. food b. Testosterone d. Red & white blood
chain cells
8. Excessive presence of carbon dioxide in the air, 23. The unit of measurement of energy in a given an
trapping heat near the earth’s surface causing a rise mount of food
in temperature in the environment. a. Pound c. Olfactory system
a. El Nino c. Deforestation b. Kilo d. calorie
b. “Greenhouse Effect” d. Weather 24. Nitrogen compounds known as the building blocks
disturbance of proteins
9. The Earth’s shield against sun’s harmful radiation. 25. The growth of roots towards water is an example
a. Atmosphere c. Ozone layer of?
b. Air d. Forest a. Chemotropism c. Hydrotropism
10. The use of product containing ______ is b. Geotropism d. Phototropism
discouraged because they contribute to the 26. DNA means
depletion of_____. a. Data nurturing analysis c. Deoxyribonucleic
a. Chlorofluorocarbon-solar radiation acid
b. Gas-ozone layer b. Deoxytribonucleic acid d. Deotrixyl nucleic
c. Ozone layer air acid
d. Chlorofluorocarbon-ozone layer 27. What are the three products of oxygen when it has
11. What causes high and low tides? been burned?
a. Earth’s rotation on its axis a. Water, carbon dioxide and air
b. Moon’s gravitational pull b. Energy, water and carbon dioxide
c. Sun’s solar energy c. Energy, carbon and oxide
d. Earth’s gravitational pull d. Energy, air and water
12. How is coral a tool formed? 28. In flowering plants, fertilization happens in the?
a. Volcanic eruption a. Pollen tube c. Ovules
b. Corals growing around a volcanic island b. Stamen d. Pollen grain
c. Underwater bedrock formations 29. The development of egg without fertilization
d. Earthquake a. Mitosis c. Spermatogenesis
13. What is a long shore drift? b. Parthenogenesis d. Mitochondria
a. Movement o sand and shingles along the coast 30. Which of the following is a source of energy needed
b. Sand bars for photosynthesis?
c. Accumulation o sad at the river mouth a. Water c. Light
d. Island formed by volcanic eruptions b. Soil d. Fertilizer
14. How does an occlusion form? 31. Chemistry is primarily concerned with the
a. Cold air moving up from the ground composition and changes of?
b. Cold front pushing warm air up of the ground a. Nature c. Man
c. Unbalance electrical reaction in the air b. Matter d. Earth
d. Cold and warm air mixing in the atmosphere
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32. A scientific theory is 45. When a force is applied to a body, several effects
a. A hypothesis not yet subjected to experimental are possible. Which one of the following effect
test CAN”T occur?
b. An idea that correctly predict the result a. the body rotates
c. An imagination b. the body changes direction
d. A guess c. the body increase its mass
33. Which of the following units of measure is d. the body changes shape
equivalent to cubic centimeter? 46. It is the reluctance of the object to change either
a. Milligram c. Millimeter its’ state of rest or uniform motion in a straight line
b. Milliliter d. Centiliter a. Force c. Inertia
34. Which of the following is NOT a compound? b. Friction d. Motion
a. acetic acid c. magnesium 47. This law states that energy cannot be created nor
b. alcohol d. Zinc Oxide destroyed but only changes from one form to
35. The easier the atom to receive electrons is another
measured by its? a. Energy law
a. Elecrtonegativity c. Number of shells b. Kinetic Theory of Matter
b. Atomic radius d. Valence electrons c. Law of Conservation Energy
36. The willingness o an atom to receive electron is d. None of the above
measured by its? 48. This law states that matter is made up of a large
a. Electronegativity c. Atomic size number of molecules which are in continuous
b. Ionization potential d. Electron affinity motion
37. A molecule is said to be polar or dipole if? a. Boyles’s Law c. Law of Conservation Energy
a. Its positive and negative charges are at different b. Kinetic Theory d. None of the above
places 49. The lowest possible temperature that a substance
b. It possesses polar bonds can reach
c. Its’ polar bond have unsymmetrical charge a. Freezing point c. Steam point
distribution b. Absolute Zero d. Threshold
d. All of the above 50. It is the amount of heat required to raise the
38. Which of the following is NOT a physical property of temperature of kg. of a substance by degree C
water? a. Calorie c. Specific heat capacity
a. freezing point at 0 degree C b. Watt d. Joule
b. boiling point at 100 degrees C 51. The relationship of give-and-take of living organism
c. its’ heat of fusion at 80 cal/g. in the biosphere is a balance of nature
d. its’ density at 4 degrees at 1 lb/cu. Ft called________.
39. Which of the following statements is true? a. universal relationship
a. Molecular weight does not influence boiling and b. symbiotic relationship
melting point of a substance c. spontaneous relationship
b. Boiling and melting point tend to increase with d. abiogenetic relationship
molecular weight 52. Process of removing excess odor in water.
c. Boiling and melting point tend to decrease with a. sedimentation c. distillation
molecular weight b. chlorination d. aeration
d. None o the above 53. Which of the following statement is CORRECT?
40. A Mole is the amount of substance or a mass of a a. As altitude increases, atmospheric pressures
substance that contains? corresponding
23 23
a. 6.02 x 10 particles c. 6.02 x 10 b. Throughout the available space, gas tends to
particles contract
23 23
b. 60.2 x 10 particles d. 60.2x 10 c. Equal chances are always given to all in life
particles d. Shadow is formed when a colored object is
41. It is the measure of the amount of matter in an projected against the wall
object 54. The earth rotates on its axis from west to east. This
a. Weight c. Volume causes the sun to _______?
b. Mass d. Quantity a. appear with a fiery orange color
42. It is the distance traveled by the body per unit time b. cause the appearance of solar eclipse
and tell how fast or slow the body moves c. rise room the east and sets in the west
a. Velocity c. Acceleration d. emit solar radiation
b. Speed d. None of the above 55. One of these planets has the greatest gravitational
43. The rate of change of the distance traveled per unit pull. Which one is it?
time in a stated direction a. Mars b. Earth c. Mercury d. Jupiter
a. Velocity c. Acceleration 56. It is the law which explains why one can pull a piece
b. Speed d. None of the above without topping a glass in a quick motion.
44. This law states that the force acting upon an object a. energy in motion c. law of inertia
is equal to the product o the mass and acceleration b. gravity d. force
of the object 57. Which of the following is NOT a source of energy?
nd
a. Newton’s 2 law of motion a. water c. geothermal heat
rd
b. Newton’s 3 law of motion b. nuclear d. inertia at rest
st
c. Newton’s 1 law of motion 58. Which instrument will one use to convert
d. None of the amount mechanical energy to electrical energy?
a. rotor b. generator c. motor d. circuit

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59. Sun’s energy is generated by? 76. It is a segment of DNA molecule which controls the
a. nuclear fission appearance of a given trait
b. sun enacting with gravity a. Chromosomes c. Gametes
c. nuclear fusion reaction b. Genes d. Zygotes
d. reaction with magnetic field 77. Group of similar cells performing similar functions
60. Application of energy is called _______? together
a. work c. kinetics a. Organs b. System c. Nucleus d. Tissue
b. inertia d. simulation 78. The diffusion of water through a semi permeable
61. The falling of any form of water from the air to the membrane
earth’s surface a. osmosis c.
a. Condensation c. Water vapor Transfusion
b. Precipitation d. Rainwater b. permeability d. Capillary
62. The part of the atmosphere that filters the 79. It shows the complex food relationship of organism
ultraviolet rays of the sun in a given area and the cyclic flow of food through
a. stratosphere c. Ozone layer organisms
b. Troposphere d. Ionosphere a. Food chain c. Food pyramid
63. The point in the earth’s orbit nearest to the sun b. Food web d. Biological cycle
a. Solstice c. Aphelion 80. Which of the following does NOT occur to both
b. Eclipse d. Perihelion respiration and fermentation?
64. A property of minerals which gives off rays of light a. energy is released
when exposed to ultraviolet light. b. sugar is broken down
a. Luminescence c. Radiation c. carbon dioxide is produced
b. Phosphorescence d. Fluorescence d. alcohol is formed
65. Which process involves chemical weathering? 81. Energy removal is best illustrated in
a. Carbonation c. Hydration a. boiling of liquid substances
b. Oxidation d. All of the above b. changing water to ice
66. How long does it take for the earth to complete one c. changing water to stem
rotation d. none of the above
a. 365 days c. 24 hours 82. Refers to the maximum amount of solute
b. 30 days d. 12 hours expressed in grams that can be dissolved in 100
67. What is the principal function of gravity in the grams of water at a specific temperature
universe? a. Solubility c. Molarity
a. Provision for energy b. Stability d. Molality
b. Keeps the stars and other heavenly bodies in 83. Compounds with the same molecular formula but
orbit with different structural formulas
c. Causes movement in space a. Cellulose c. Polymers
d. Part of universal design b. Isomers d. Monomers
68. What does the word “monsoon” mean? 84. The most penetrating type of radiation given of by
a. Moon will soon come c. Seasons radioactive elements
b. Rains d. Wet a. Alpha particle c. Gamma particle
weather b. Beta particle d. None of the above
69. Its’ discovery enable geologist to date rocks 85. The basic unit for expressing the masses o
accurately individual atoms
a. layering c. a. Atomic number c. Nucleus
Radioactivity b. Atomic mass unit d. Atomic weight
b. Evolutionary staging d. Carbon- 86. A substance that speeds up a chemical reaction
dating without itself undergoing a chemical change
70. It occurs when the earth is between the sun and the a. catalyst c. Electrolytes
moon, with the earth’s shadow cast over the moon. b. Enhancer d. Ionizer
a. Total eclipse c. Eclipse 87. The temperature at which the vapor pressure of
b. Lunar eclipse d. Partial Eclipse the liquid is equal to the pressure of the
71. Male and female reproductive part of a flower surroundings atmosphere
a. Pollen grains and ovules c. Pollen grains and a. Melting point c. Boiling Point
pistil b. Critical point d. None of the above
b. Stamen and pistil d. Stamen and ovules 88. the warming of the earth’s surface due to an
72. In the human body, the cell that most nearly increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide
resembles a one-celled animals a. “Greenhouse effect” c. Atmospheric
a. Red Blood cell c. Nerve cell pressure
b. White Blood cell d. Antibodies b. Ozone d. El Nino
73. The main energy source of a plant-eating animals phenomena
a. Glucose b. Starch c. Cellulose d. Glycogen 89. Describe the force of gravity on an object
74. These are cellular secretions which help regulate a. mass c. capacity
the breakdown and buildup of various substance in b. weight d. pressure
the body 90. When gaseous molecules are compressed, they
a. Enzymes c. Plasma tend to?
b. Amino Acids d. Hormones a. increase in volume c. repel each other
75. It is the energy source of the cell which it uses for b. decrease in volume d.attract and liquefy
growing, reproducing and other activities 91. It is the union of two light nucleus to form a heavier
a. Adenosine Triphosphate c. nucleus, resulting in a mass defect and release of
Chloroplast energy
b. Amino Acids d. Sunlight a. Radiation c. Nuclear Fusion
b. Nuclear Fission d. Radioactivity

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92. Which of the following statements is a
characteristic of an electronic spectrum?
a. They all travel at the same speed in fire space
b. The exhibit diffraction and interference
phenomena
c. They follow the laws of refraction and reflection science and health
d. All of the above 1 a 51 b
93. The term “RADAR” is derived from the phrase? 2 c 52 d
a. “Radiation Detection and Ranging “ 3 d 53 a
b. “Radiation Diffusion and Ranging”
4 b 54 c
c. “Radio Diffraction and Resolution”
5 a 55 d
d. “Radiation Diffraction and Resolution”
94. A material whose ability to conduct electricity lies 6 d 56 c
between those of conductors and insulators 7 a 57 d
a. Integrated Circuits c. Semiconductors 8 b 58 b
b. Silicon Chips d. Insulators 9 c 59 c
95. “LASER” is derived from the phrase? 10 d 60 a
a. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of 11 b 61 b
Radiation 12 b 62 c
b. Light Application by Simulated Emission of 13 a 63 d
Radiation 14 b 64 b
c. Light Amplification by Simulated Ejection of 15 b 65 d
Radiation
16 c 66 c
d. None of the above
17 b 67 b
96. What is the color of a transparent substance?
a. The color of the light it absorbs 18 a 68 c
b. The color of light it reflects 19 c 69 c
c. The color of light it transmit 20 b 70 b
d. The color of light it refracts 21 b 71 b
97. What is a rotating electromagnetic called? 22 b 72 b
a. Motor b. Rotor c. Phasor d. Sensor 23 d 73 c
98. What happens with the centripetal force when sped 24 d 74 d
is doubled? 25 c 75 a
a. remains the same c. triples 26 c 76 b
b. force is increase 4x d. force is doubled 27 b 77 d
99. What is an electrochemical cell in which the
28 c 78 a
reacting materials can be renewed by the use o
29 b 79 b
reverse current
a. Storage cell c. Fuel cell 30 c 80 d
b. Primary cells d. Chemical cell 31 b 81 b
100. What will make an object move in a circular 32 a 82 a
path? 33 b 83 b
a. Central force c. Frictional force 34 c 84 c
b. Gravitational d. Electromagnetic 35 d 85 b
force 36 d 86 a
37 b 87 c
***** THE END ***** 38 b 88 a
39 b 89 b
WORK HARD, DREAM HARDER
40 c 90 a
41 b 91 c
42 b 92 d
43 c 93 a
44 a 94 c
45 c 95 a
46 d 96 c
47 b 97 b
48 b 98 d
49 b 99 a
50 c 100 a

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