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Chapter05 PDF
Chapter05 PDF
Pringle
Which of the wave functions in Fig. 5.14 cannot have physical significance in the interval shown? Why not?
∞
2
Recall that ( Φ ) dV
∞
must be finite, and that Φ must be single-valued and continuous with finite, single-valued, and
continuous first derivatives.
The function in figure 5.14(a) appears to satisfy all of the conditions over the interval shown, so it can be
a wave function. If you want to be picky, its zero slope everywhere means the momentum is zero
everywhere, which is not allowed by the uncertainty principle. I will not be that tricky on the exam.
The function in figure 5.14(e) appears to satisfy all of the conditions, so it can be a wave
function.
The function in figure 5.14(f) is not continuous, so it cannot be a wave function. This is tricky,
because it is possible that the derivative could be continuous and finite.
2.π
x 2. π, 2.π .. 2 . π
100
We can see the function better if we choose the plot scale ourselves.
2
There are singularities wherever cos(x)=0, so
Φ( x ) this is not an allowed wave function if its range
includes an x-value where there is a singularity.
(b) Φ( x ) A. tan( x )
2.π
x 2. π, 2.π .. 2 . π
100
x 2
(d) Φ( x ) A. e
x 0 , .05 .. 5
2
x
(e) Φ( x ) A. e
3
x 4 , 3.9 .. 4
∞
2 2
x
2 2 2
1 A .x . e dx
∞
∞
2 2
x
2 2 2
1 A. x. e dx
∞
4
∞
∞
2
2. 2 x
1 A x .e dx
∞
∞
2
2. 2 x
1 A 2. x .e dx
0
2 π
1 A .2.
4
Solve for A:
1
4
2 2 4 4
A or A
π π
π
overflow
To get around the overflow, we can try reducing the range of integrating from ∞ to
something very large.
1
2 2
x
2 2 2
A .x . e dx = 0.428
1
Obviously -1 to 1 is not "large enough"; we have missed lots of the area under the integral.
10
5
10
2 2
x
2 2 2
A .x . e dx = 0.999999917507
10
π
2
2 4
1 A. cos( x ) dx
π
2
You could look the integral up in a table and evaluate it at its upper and lower limits. I see from the
result in the table that it will be easier to evaluate if I do this:
π
2
2 4 I can do this because cos4 is symmetric about
1 2.A . cos( x ) dx
the origin.
0
From tables
2 16
A
6.π
8
A
3. π
(b) Find the probability that the particle can be found between x=0 and x=π/4.
π
4
2 2
P A. cos( x ) dx
0
P = 0.462
That was easy with Mathcad. Analytically, here's what you would do:
π
4
8 . 4
P cos( x ) dx
3. π 0
π
sin
8 . 3. π 2 sin( π)
P
3. π 8 4 4 32
P = 0.462
7
Physics 107 Problem 5.11 O. A. Pringle
One of the possible wave functions of a particle in the potential well of Fig. 5.16 is sketched there. Explain why
the wavelength and amplitude of φ vary as they do.
This potential well is an infinite potential well (because the potential is infinite beyond the
boundaries) with a constant slope bottom (as opposed to parabolic or periodic).
Do the following on a photocopy of figure 5.16, or else do it in your head:
Draw a horizontal line across the well, somewhere about the level of the "V", it doesn't
matter exactly where, to represent the constant total energy, E = K + V.
The amplitude of the wave function is zero outside the well due to the infinite
potential energy there.
The kinetic energy is the difference between your drawn horizontal line and the potential V,
which is the slopeing line at the bottom of the well. The kinetic energy is greater at the left
of the well, so the wavelength is shorter there. Remember, K=p^2/2m, and λ=h/p. That's
why the wiggles in φ are closer together at the left of the well.
Because the kinetic energy is greater at the left, the velocity is also greater. This means
that the particle remains in any interval δx for a shorter time on the left than on the right. In
probability terms, there is less probability for finding the particle on the left half of the well
than there is on the right half. That's why the amplitude of φ increases on going from left to
right.
This problem can be solved using the program EXAM3 which can be found in the Physics
107 coursework file on the network. The wavefunction shown has quantum number n=6.
How do I know? (Hint: count the bumps.)
2. n. π. y x0
φ y x0 sin
L L
φ is just a name, so let's call it φprime, and y is just a dummy
variable, so let's call it x.
2. n. π. x x0
φprime( x ) sin
L L
Double check. Invent some values and calculate φprime.
L 1 x0 1
2. n. π. x x0
φprime( x , n ) sin
L L
φprime x 0 , 1 = 0 as required
φprime( L, 1 ) = 0 as required
φprime x 0 , 2 = 0
φprime( L, 2 ) = 0
Your intuition ought to suggest that moving the box along the x-axis should not
change the energy levels. We can verify this by plugging φ back into Schrodinger's
eqn.
Verify that
d d 2.m . .
φprime E φprime 0
dx dx 2
hbar
The second derivative of φprime with respect to x is
2 x x0
2 . n. π .
sin n. π.
L L L
which is equal to
2
n. π .
φprime( x )
L
9
Plugging the second derivative into Schrodinger's equation gives
2
n. π . 2. m . .
φprime E φprime 0
L 2
hbar
2
n. π 2. m .
E 0
L 2
hbar
Solve for E
2 2 2
n . π . hbar
E
2
2. m. L
Which is the same as eq. 5.27.
As shown in the text, the expectation value <x> of a particle trapped in a box L wide is L/2, which means that its
average position is the middle of the box. Find the expectation value <x^2>.
Set the width of the box: L 1
2. x
The nth wavefunction is: φ( x, n ) sin n. π. x 0 , .01 . L.. L
L L
x
10
x
x2bar( 1 ) = 0.283 L
So our numerical answer is the same as the analytical
answer.
Let's run some double-checks:
Is the wave function normalized?
L
φ( x , 2 ) . φ( x , 2 ) dx = 1
0
So the wave function is properly normalized.
Check the expectation value of <x>:
L
φ( x , 2 ) . x. φ( x , 2 ) dx = 0.5 L
0
This is L/2, as expected.
We did this for the n=1 wave function. Beiser's analytic answer is true in general. Let's
check the n=2 and n=3 cases.
For n=2:
L
2
φ( x , 2 ) . x . φ( x , 2 ) dx = 0.321 L
0
x2bar( 2 ) = 0.321 L
11
For n=3:
L
2
φ( x , 3 ) . x . φ( x , 3 ) dx = 0.328 L
0
x2bar( 3 ) = 0.328 L
Our numerical answers using Mathcad are in
agreement with the analytical answers.
See the document 5-15a.mcd for an analytical solution to this problem
2. x
φ( x, n ) sin n. π.
L L
Calculate <x2>:
L
2
x2_expect φ( x , 1 ) . x . φ( x , 1 ) dx
0
L
2. π 2 2 π
x2_expect sin n. . x . x . . sin n. . x dx
L L L L
0
L
2
2 . 2 π
x2_expect x . sin n. . x dx ------(1)
L L
0
From table of integrals:
12
From table of integrals:
3 2
2 2 x x 1 x. cos( 2 . a. x )
x . sin( ax ) dx . sin( 2 . a. x )
6 4. a 8. a
3
4.a
2
Here, a=nπ/L.
When ------(1) is evaluated at the lower limit, everything has either a factor of x or sin(2ax),
so everything goes to zero.
When ------(1) is evaluated at the upper limit, you get
π
3 2
L. cos 2 . n. . L
L L 1 . sin 2 . n. π . L L
6 π π
3 L π
2
4. n. 8 . n. 4 . n.
L L L
The middle term is zero because sin(2π)=0, so you are left with
3
L L. cos( 2 . n. π)
6 2
π
4 . n.
L
Because cos(2nπ)=1, we get, after simplifying
3 3
L L
6 2 2
4.n .π
The above constant is just the value of the integral.
Put this back into ------(1) to give
3 3
2 . L L
x2_expect
L 6 2 2
4.n . π
Multiply it out to get
2 2
L L
x2_expect Which is the answer given on page 595 of Beiser.
32. 2
2n π
.
See the document 5-11.mcd for a numerical solution to this problem.
x2
P φ( x ) . φ( x ) dx
x1
L
n 2
2 . n. π. x
P sin dx
L L
0
L
n 2
2 . n. π. x
P sin dx
L L
0
2 x 1 .
sin( a. x ) dx sin( 2 . a. x )
2 4.a
Thus
2
n. π. x x L . 2 . n. π. x
sin dx sin
L 2 4 . n. π L
The result is
L
2 . n. π.
2. L L . n
P sin
L 2. n 4 n. π
. L
14
2. L L .
P sin( 2 . π)
L 2. n 4 n. π
.
T exp 2 . k 2. L
2 . m. ( E V)
k2
hbar
Larger mass means larger k2, larger negative value of 2*k2*L, and smaller
value of T, so larger mass means smaller transmission probability.
This question can be answered in much more detail by looking at the exact transmission
probability.
Here are the transmission equations:
34
hbar 1.055. 10 i 1
19
2. m. E. 1.602. 10 Equation 5.45; E is in units of eV and
k1( E , m )
hbar k1 is in mks units
19
2. m. ( V E ) . 1.602. 10 Equation 5.54; V and E are in units
k2( E , m , V )
hbar of eV and k2 is in mks units
9 31 27
Let's put some numbers in: E 4 V 5 L 0.1 . 10 me 9.11. 10 mp 1.672. 10
T E , m e , V , L = 0.691 T E, m p , V , L = 0
The transmission probability for the proton is much much smaller. You can experiment with E and V
to see that the transmission probability for the proton is comparable with that for the electron only
when the incoming energy is much larger than the barrier height. It then makes sense that the more
massive proton ought to find it easier to get past the smaller barrier.
E 0.2 , 0.4 .. 10 V =5
T E , m e, V, L
T E, m p , V, L
The bumps in the electron's transmission probability are interference effects which result because the
electron's wave function is more likely to reflect off both the first and second walls of the barrier. The
proton is less likely to get through the first wall of the barrier and experience interference effects.
16
Physics 107 Problem 5.23 O. A. Pringle
A beam of electrons is incident on a barrier 6.00 eV high and 0.200 nm wide. Use Eq. 5.69 to find the energy they
should have if 1.00 percent of them are to get through the barrier.
31
m electron 9.11. 10 19 9
e 1.60. 10 L 0.200. 10 U 6.00. e
34 h
h 6.63. 10 hbar 2
2. π T 1.00. 10
Equation 5.69:
T exp 2 . k 2. L
2 . m electron . ( U E) ln( T )
hbar 2. L
2
ln( T ) . hbar
2 . m electron. ( U E)
2. L
. 2
1 . ln( T ) hbar
U E
2 . m electron 2. L
. 2
1 . ln( T ) hbar
E U
2 . m electron 2. L
E = 0 joules (The value is smaller than the zero tolerance, so it looks like zero.)
E
= 0.937 eV
e
17
e
Beiser's solution manual gives an answer of 0.95 eV, which I get if I use e=1.602x10-19 and h=6.626x10-34.
On the exam, use the values of the constants which I give on the first page.
2 . m electron . ( U E)
k2
hbar
T k 2,L exp 2 . k 2 . L
T k 2 , L = 0.192
That's all you need to do to solve the problem. Below are some extra "goodies".
Is the barrier "high" enough for the approximation to be valid?
2 . m electron . E 9
k1 k 1 = 3.236 10
hbar
k1 k2
= 0.392 = 2.55
k2 k1
k2/k1 is greater than k1/k2 by a factor of about 6.5, so "high" is a marginally good approximation.
18
Is the barrier "wide" enough?
k 2 . L = 0.825 This looks even less promising.
For a wide barrier,
16 . exp 2 . k . L
T 2
2
k2
4
k1
T = 0.293 And because the barrier is marginally high and wide, we expect this
result to be somewhat off from the full, correct expression.
Consider a beam of particles of kinetic energy E incident on a potential step at x = 0 that is U high, where E >
U (Fig. 5.18).
(a) Explain why the solution D*exp(-jk.2x) (in the notation of Sec. 5.8) has no physical
meaning in this situation, so that D = 0.
This term represents a wave travelling to the left (-x direction). There is no boundary from
which to reflect such a wave beyond x = 0. Therefore D = 0.
(b) Show that the transmission probability here is T = CC*/AA* and is equal to
4k.1^2/(k.1+k')^2.
Set the wave function amplitudes equal at x = 0:
19
Set the wave function amplitudes equal at x = 0:
j . k 1. x j . k 1. x j . k 2. x
A. e B. e C. e
k2
which gives... (2) ( A B) .C
k1
The transmission probability is found by taking the ratio of the probability CURRENTS. Probability
CURRENTS are found by multiplying probability densities by their respective particle velocities. Since
the velocity is proportional to k (v = hbar*k/m), ratios of velocities are simply ratios of k.
m . m .
k1 2. E k2 2. E V
2 2
hbar hbar
Transmission probability:
2
C. C . k 2 k1 k
. 2
T T 4.
k1 2 k
A. A k1 k2 1
For part (c), I am going to re-write the transmission equation in terms of the particle velocities...
20
E. E V Likewise, T = 1 when V = 0, or
T( E , V ) 4.
2 when the energy is well above
E E V the barrier, i.e., when E >> V.
v 1.v 2
T v 1,v 2 4.
2
v1 v2
c) A 1.00 ma beam of electrons moving at 2*10^6 m/s enters a region with a sharply defined boundary
in which the electron speeds are reduced to 1*10^6 m/s by a difference in potential. Find the
transmitted and reflected currents. Note that the powers of ten cancel in this equation. Relative
currents are all that are required.
R v 1,v 2 1 T v 1,v 2
This value of A is the largest value that x takes on (classically). The value of y
corresponding to this x is
2 . π. m. f .
y x
hbar
2 . π. m. f . h. f
y
hbar k
2 2
4 . π . m. h. f
y
h. k
2
m. h. f
y 2 . π.
h. k
1 . k
But, from Eq. 5.73, f
2.π m
m. h. k
So y 2 . π.
2
( h. k ) . ( 2 . π) . m
y 1
1
2
2 2 . m. f y
2
φ 0( x) . dx .e . dx
hbar
(a) What is its zero-point energy? Would you expect the zero-point oscillations to be detectable?
Just as a quick double-check, let's see if the period Beiser gives agrees with the classical
pendulum period
.25
T 2 . π. T = 1.004 seconds close enough
9.8
T 1
1
f
T
E0 =0 joules
(b) The pendulum swings with a very small amplitude such that its bob rises a maximum of
24
(b) The pendulum swings with a very small amplitude such that its bob rises a maximum of
1.00 mm above its equilibrium position. What is the corresponding quantum number?
The height of the rise gives us the maximum potential energy of the pendulum: we assume the
pendulum is on the earth and calculate the corresponding gravitational potential energy. Then we can
set the energy equal to the maximum potential energy and calculate the quantum number.
3 3
m 1 . 10 x max 1 . 10
U max 1
n
h. f 2
A variation on this problem would be a mass on a spring; to
28
n = 1.478 10 calculate the quantum number given x.max, you would first
calculate k and then use U=kx.max^2/2.
25