8 JUNE
• It shall provide support for creation of world class
Q.1) Which of the following statement is/are most
appropriate regarding Scheme for Promotion of
Manufacturing of Electronic Components and
Semiconductors (SPECS):
(a) It shall provide financial incentive of 25% on capital
expenditure for the identified list of electronic goods.
(b) This Scheme shall extend an incentive of 4% to 6% on
incremental sales (over base year) of goods manufactured
in India.
(c) It is a scheme for development of world class
infrastructure along with common facilities and amenities
through Electronics Manufacturing Clusters (EMCs).
(d) It is a scheme to boost electric mobility and increase
the number of electric vehicles in commercial fleets.
Answer- (a) It shall provide financial incentive of 25% on
capital expenditure for the identified list of electronic
goods.
Explanation-
• The government has launched three incentive schemes
with a total outlay of about ₹48,000 crore to boost large-
scale manufacturing of electronics in the country.
• These three schemes are -
1. Production Linked Incentive
2. Scheme for Promotion of Manufacturing of
Electronic Components and Semiconductors
(SPECS)
3. Modified Electronics Manufacturing Clusters
Production Linked Incentive
• Targeted at mobile phone manufacturing and specified
electronic components. The government initially plans to
incentivise 10 firms — five global and five local.
• This Scheme shall extend an incentive of 4% to 6% on
incremental sales (over base year) of goods manufactured
in India and covered under the target segments, to eligible
companies, for a period of five years subsequent to the
base year.
Scheme for Promotion of Manufacturing of Electronic
Components and Semiconductors (SPECS)
• It shall provide financial incentive of 25% on capital
expenditure for the
identified list of electronic goods, i.e., electronic
components, semiconductor/ display fabrication units,
Assembly, Test, Marking and
Packaging (ATMP) units, specialized sub-assemblies and
capital goods for manufacture of aforesaid goods.
Modified Electronics Manufacturing Clusters (EMC 2.0)
Scheme
1|Page
infrastructure along with common facilities and
amenities, including Ready Built Factory (RBF)sheds /
Plug and Play facilities for attracting major global
electronics manufacturers, along with their supply chains.
Q.2) With reference to the G7 artificial intelligence group,
consider the following statements:
1. The US has recently joined G7 artificial intelligence
group, an international panel for setting ethical guidelines
for the use of artificial intelligence.
2. The Group of Seven (G7) is an international
intergovernmental economic organization consisting of
the seven large IMF- advanced economies in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : Both statement are correct.
The US has joined G7 artificial intelligence group, an
international panel for setting ethical guidelines for the
use of artificial intelligence. The Trump administration
had earlier dismissed the idea.
◎ What is it? è This Global Partnership on AI setup by
the Group of Seven will guide the responsible adoption of
AI based on shared principles of “human rights, inclusion,
diversity, innovation and economic growth.
◎ G7-Global Partnership on AI launched recently
through a virtual meeting between national technology
ministers.
Q.3) Which of the following is NOT correct regarding
Matterhorn mountain recently seen in news :
1. It is a mountain of the Andes.
2. It is situated on the border between Poland and
Slovakia.
Choose the correct code given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (c) Both 1 and 2
• First statement is NOT correct because It is a mountain
of the Alps.
• Second statement is NOT correct because Matterhorn
mountain is situated in the Penninsular Alps on the border
between Switzerland and Italy.
Explanation -
• It is seen recently in news because Indian Tricolour of
more than 1,000 meters in size was projected on
Matterhorn Mountain, Zermatt, Switzerland to express
solidarity to all Indians in the fight against COVID-19.
• Matterhorn is a mountain of the Alps. It is situated in the
Pennine Alps on the border between Switzerland and
Italy.
• Its summit is 4,478 metres (14,692 ft) high, making it
one of the highest summits in the Alps and Europe.
Sometimes referred to as the Mountain of Mountains, the
Matterhorn has become an iconic emblem of the Alps in
general.
• The first ascent of the Matterhorn was in 1865 from
Zermatt by a party led by Edward Whymper; it ended
when four of its seven members fell to their deaths on the
descent.
2|Page
Q.4) Which of the following pair is correctly matched:
Bridge River
1. Daporijo bridge Subansiri River
2. Kasowal Bridge Chenab River
3. Bogibeel bridge Brahmaputra River
Choose the correct code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All are matched correctly
Answer (c) 1 and 3 only
Explanation- Second match is INCORRECT because
Kasowal Bridge is a long permanent bridge on the river
Ravi to connect the Kasowal enclave of Punjab along the
Pakistan border to the rest of the country.
Explanation -
1) Daporijo bridge
• The Border Roads Organization (BRO) constructed the
Daporijo bridge over Subansiri river in Arunachal
Pradesh in a record span of just 27 days.
• Significance ➔ The bridge is of utmost importance in
strategic connectivity as it links roads leading up to the
Line of Actual Control (LAC) between India and China.
• Subansiri River (gold river), originates in the Tibet
Plateau and enters India through Miri hills in Arunachal
Pradesh.
• It is the largest tributary of Brahmaputra River.
2) Kasowal Bridge
• It is a 484- metre long permanent bridge on the river
Ravi to connect the Kasowal enclave of Punjab along the
Pakistan border to the rest of the country. It is Built by the
Borders Roads Organization.
• The enclave was formed because it has the Ravi behind
it and the International Border ahead of it.
3) Bogibeel bridge
• Bogibeel river bridge is the longest rail-cum-road bridge
in India, measuring 4.94 kilometres over the Brahmaputra
river.
• It is Asia’s 2nd longest rail-cum-road bridge and has a
serviceable period of around 120 years.
• It is the 5th longest bridge in India after Bhupen
Hazarika Setu, Dibang River Bridge, Mahatma Gandhi
Setu and Bandra-Worli Sea Link.
Q.5) With reference to the PM SVANidhi, consider the
following statements:
1. It is a Special Micro-Credit Facility Scheme for
providing affordable loans to street vendors.
2. The vendors can avail a working capital loan of up to
Rs. 10,000, which is repayable in monthly instalments in
the tenure of one year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only years since the MSME Development Act came into
(b) 2 only existence in 2006.
(c) Both 1 and 2 ◎ It has also been decided that the turnover with respect
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 to exports will not be counted in the limits of turnover for
any category of MSME units whether micro, small or
Answer: Both statement are correct. medium.
The Ministry of Housing and UrbanAffairs has
launched a micro-credit facility for street vendors
under the Swanidhi Scheme.
◎ What is it? è It is a special micro-credit facility scheme
to enable more than 50 lakh urban/peri-urban & rural
street vendors to restart their livelihoods affected due to
the lockdown.
◎ The loans are meant to help kick-start activity for
vendors who have been left without any income since the
lockdown was implemented on March 25. Q.7) Which of the following is/are benefits of National
◎ Duration è The scheme will be applicable till March Air Quality Index (AQI):
2022. 1. It helps in comparing air quality conditions at different
◎ Expected beneficiaries è This loan will be given to locations/cities.
those who run shops on the roadside, handcart or streetcar. 2. It helps in identifying faulty standards and inadequate
Fruit-vegetable, laundry, saloon and paan shops are also monitoring programmes.
included in this category. 3. It is especially useful for people suffering from
◎ Features of the Scheme è illnesses aggravated or caused by air pollution.
○ Under this, each of the street vendors will be given a
credit loan of Rs 10,000 which they can return as Choose the correct code given below:
monthly installments within a year. (a) 1 and 3 only
○ Those who repay their loans on (b) 2 and 3 only
time will get 7% annual interest (c) 1 only
as subsidy which will be transferred in their bank (d) All are correct
accounts.
○ The loans would be without collateral. Answer- d) All are correct
There will be no penalty on early Explanation: Lockdown due to COVID-19 pandemic has
repayment of the loan. pushed pollution levels in Delhi to a 5-year low. Across
India, the number of cities that recorded ‘good’ on the air
Q.6) With reference to the Micro, Small and Medium quality index jumped from 6 to 30 within a fortnight,
Enterprises (MSMEs), consider the following statements: according to data from the Central Pollution Control
1. A company with up to Rs 200 crore investments and up Board.
to Rs 500 crore turnover is classified as a medium Air Quality Index (AQI)
enterprise. • The AQI is an index for reporting daily air quality. It
2. Proposal for equity infusion of Rs. 50,000 crores for tells how much clean or polluted the air is.
MSMEs through fund of funds has also been approved. • The higher the AQI value, the greater the level of air
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? pollution and the greater the health Concern.
(a) 1 only • Research studies have attributed the key sources of
(b) 2 only PM2.5 in summer to be: dust and construction activities
(c) Both 1 and 2 (35%), transport sector (20%) and industry (20%).
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 • It is determined on the basis of concentration of 8
pollutants,
Answer: Statement 2 is correct. including Particulate Matter (PM 2.5, PM 10), sulphur
Union Cabinet has announced policy changes for the dioxide (SO2), nitrogen dioxide, carbon monoxide (CO),
MSME sector as part of the Atmanirbhar Bharat package. ozone (O3), ammonia (NH3) and lead (Pb).
Benefits of Air Quality Index (AQI)
◎ It may be noted that this revision was done after 14 •It helps in comparing air quality conditions at different

3|Page
locations/cities.
• It also helps in identifying faulty standards and
inadequate monitoring programmes.
• AQI helps in analysing the change in air quality
(improvement or degradation).
• AQI informs the public about environmental conditions.
It is especially useful for people suffering from illnesses
aggravated or caused by air pollution.
Q.8) Identify the wildlife sanctuary with the information
given below :
1. It is located in the Dibrugarh and Tinsukia districts of
Assam.
2. It is also known as the Jeypore Rainforest.
3. National Board for Wild Life (NBWL) has recently
recommended coal mining in some part of the sanctuary.
4. It is a deciduous rainforest interspersed with semi-
evergreen and lush green flora.
Choose the correct wildlife sanctuary:
(a) Koundinya Wildlife Sanctuary
(b) Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary
(c) Dehing Patkai Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) Mehao Wildlife Sanctuary
Answer- (c) Dehing Patkai Wildlife Sanctuary
Explanation-
• Recently National Board for Wild Life (NBWL) has
recommended coal mining in a part of an Dehing Patkai
elephant reserve in Assam.
• Location ➔ Dehing Patkai Elephant Reserve includes
the Dehing Patkai Wildlife Sanctuary.
• The Dehing Patkai Wildlife Sanctuary is also known as
the Jeypore Rainforest.
• It is located in the Dibrugarh and Tinsukia districts of
Assam.
• Dehing is the name of the river that flows through this
forest and Patkai is the hill at the foot of which the
sanctuary lies.
• Type of Fauna: Rare fauna found in the region include
Chinese pangolin, flying fox, wild pig, sambar, barking
deer, gaur, serow and Malayan giant squirrels.
• It is the only sanctuary in India which is home to seven
different species of wild cats - tiger, leopard, clouded
leopard, leopard cat, golden cat, jungle cat and marbled
cat.
• Assamese macaque, a primate found in the forest, is in
the red list of endangered species.
• Type of Flora: Dehing Patkai is a deciduous rainforest
interspersed with semi-evergreen and lush green flora.
Q.9) SPIC MACAY's International Convention
4|Page
sometimes seen in the news, is related to-
(a) Protection of religious minorities in the world
(b) Promotion of Indian classical music and culture
amongst youth
(c) Worldwide conservation of critically endangered
gangetic dolphins
(d) Awareness among refugees about human rights.
Answer : b
Explanation
SPIC MACAY (Society for the Promotion of Indian
Classical Music And Culture Amongst Youth) is a non-
political, nationwide, voluntary movement founded in
1977 by Dr Kiran Seth. Hence, option B is the correct
answer.
Q.10) Which of the following is/are salient features of
Market Intervention Scheme?
1. It is a price support mechanism implemented on the
request of gram panchayats.
2. It is for procurement of perishable and horticultural
commodities in the event of a fall in market prices.
3. The Department of Agriculture & Cooperation is the
implementing agency of the
scheme.
Choose the correct code given below:
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Answer- (a) 2 and 3 only
Explanation: First statement is not correct because It is a
price support mechanism implemented on the request of
State Governments.
Market Intervention Scheme
• Context: The Central government has asked the state
governments to procure perishable agricultural and
horticultural items from the farmers under the Market
Intervention Scheme.
• It is a price support mechanism implemented on the
request of State Governments.
• It is for procurement of perishable and horticultural
commodities in the event of a fall in market prices.
• The Scheme is implemented when there is at least 10%
increase in production or 10% decrease in the ruling rates
over the previous normal year.
• Its objective is to protect the growers of these
horticultural/agricultural commodities from making
distress sale in the event of bumper crop during the peak
arrival period when prices fall to very low level.
• The Department of Agriculture & Cooperation is
implementing the scheme.
9 JUNE
Q.1) Which of the following would you accept most with
reference to the Persian Gulf countries,:
1. The lands around the Persian Gulf are shared by eight
countries namely, Bahrain, Iran,Iraq, Kuwait, Oman,
Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates.
2. Iran and Iraq are not members of the Gulf
Cooperation Council (GCC).
3. Out of Persian Gulf countries, only Iran, Iraq and
Saudi Arabia are members of OPEC.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (A) Only 1 and 2 are correct.
▪ The lands around the Persian Gulf are shared by eight
countries namely, Bahrain, Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Oman,
Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates.
These all eight countries are members of the United
Nations. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
▪ United Arab Emirates (UAE), Bahrain, Saudi Arabia,
Oman, Qatar, Kuwait are members of the Gulf
Cooperation Council (GCC). Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
▪ Out of Persian Gulf countries, Iran, Iraq, Kuwait,
United Arab Emirates (UAE) and Saudi Arabia are
members of OPEC. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Q.2) Creation and Harmonious Application of Modern
Processes for Increasing the Output and National Strength
(CHAMPIONS), recently seen in news, aims to empower:
a. Micro Small and Medium Enterprises
b. Large Edu-tech companies
c. International Automakers
d. Food Processing Industries
Answer: (A) Micro Small and Medium Enterprises
Prime Minister Modi launched the technology platform
CHAMPIONS to empower MSMEs. CHAMPIONS
stands for Creation and Harmonious Application of
Modern Processes for Increasing the Output and National
Strength. The portal is basically for making the smaller
units big by solving their grievances, encouraging,
5|Page
supporting, helping and handholding. It is a real one-stop-
shop solution of MSME Ministry. This ICT based system
is set up to help the MSMEs in present difficult situation
and also to handhold them to become national and
international champions. As part of the system a network
of control rooms is created in a Hub & Spoke Model. The
Hub is situated in New Delhi in the Secretary MSME’s
office. The spokes are in the States in various offices and
institutions of MSME Ministry. Hence, option (a) is the
correct answer.
Q.3) With reference to Tribals in India, Consider the
following statements:
1. Under Article 342, the President is empowered to
declare communities as scheduled tribes.
2. Tribal people constitute more than 20 % of the
nation's total population.
3. Rajiv Gandhi National Fellowship Scheme is related
to the tribal student pursuing higher education.
4. The XaXa committee was constituted to examine the
overall socio-economic conditions of the tribals.
Which of the statements mentioned above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (c)
▪ The President under Article 342 is empowered to
declare communities as scheduled tribes. While
Parliament by law can amend the list. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
▪ Tribal people constitute 8.6% of the nation's total
population and not 15%. Hence, statement 2 is not
correct.
▪ Rajiv Gandhi National Fellowship Scheme is related
to the tribal student pursuing higher
education. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
▪ The XaXa committee was constituted to examine the
overall socio-economic conditions of the tribals in
2013 under the chairmanship of Prof. Virginius
Xaxa. Hence, Statement 4 is correct.
Q.4) Nagar Van scheme was recently seen in news,
consider the following statements about it:
1. In the initial phase, under this program, forests will be
developed in 200 corporations and cities in the
country across the country over the next five years.
2. The scheme will be, in part, paid for by the CAMPA
(Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016) funds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
▪ Union Environment Minister launched the Urban
Forest program (Nagar Van scheme) on the occasion
of World Environment Day. In the initial phase, under
this program, forests will be developed in 200
corporations and cities in the country across the
country over the next five years.
▪ The scheme will be, in part, paid for by the CAMPA
(Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016) funds.
The forests were to come up either on existing forest
land or on any other vacant land offered by urban
local bodies. The Environment Minister highlighted
the success of Wajre Urban forest in the city of Pune,
Maharashtra which has been developed on a 40 acre
degraded land area.
▪ Hence both statements are correct.
Q.5) Consider the following statements with respect
to”Genome India”:
1. It aims to ultimately build a grid of the Indian reference
genome, to understand the genetic nature of Indo-
Aryan people in the Indian population.
2. It is being spearheaded (नेतत्ृ व) by the IISc’s Centre for
Brain Research institute.
3. A genome is an organism’s complete set of DNA,
including all of its genes.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a. 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. None of the above
Answer: b
• Recently, Scientists at Genome India propose study
of COVID’s genetic dimension.
• The team wants to study and develop more insights
into how this new viral disease, resistance to it and
susceptibility might have a genetic component.
• The Government of India has launched a gene-
mapping project called “Genome India”.
• It aims to build a grid of the Indian “reference
genome”, to understand fully the type and nature of
diseases and traits that comprise the diverse Indian
population.
• This is spearheaded by the Centre for Brain
Research at Bengaluru-based Indian Institute of
Science as the nodal point of about 20 institutions.
• Each of these institutions will do their bit in collecting
samples, doing the computations, and then the
6|Page
research.
• A genome is defined as an organism’s complete set
of Deoxyribose Nucleic Acid (DNA), including all of
its genes.
• Each genome contains all of the information needed
to build and maintain that organism.
Q.6) With reference to the Cyclones, consider the
following statements:
1. Cyclones formed in the Bay of Bengal side of the north
Indian Ocean are more frequent and stonger than those on
the Arabian Sea side.
2. The relatively hot waters of the Arabian Sea discourage
the kind of very strong cyclones that are formed on the
Bay of Bengal side.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a
Explanation
• On the western coast of India, Cyclone Nisarga is
headed towards the coastline of north Maharashtra
and south Gujarat.
• In strength and intensity, Cyclone Nisarga would be
much weaker than Cyclone Amphan that struck on
May 20 and passed through West Bengal on its way
to Bangladesh.
• Cyclones formed in the Bay of Bengal side of the
north Indian Ocean are more frequent and stonger
than those on the Arabian Sea side.
• The relatively cold waters of the Arabian Sea
discourage the kind of very strong cyclones that are
formed on the Bay of Bengal side; Odisha and Andhra
Pradesh face the brunt of these cyclones every
year. Hence only 1 statements are correct
Q.7) Which of the following is/are incorrect about the
agriculture sector:
1. With the amendment to Essential Commodities Act,
commodities like cereals, pulses, oilseeds, edible oils,
onion and potatoes will be removed from list of
essential commodities.
2. Under 'The Farming Produce Trade and Commerce
(Promotion and Facilitation) Ordinance, 2020',
farmers and traders will enjoy freedom of choice of
sale and purchase of agri-produce.
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)
▪ The Union Cabinet in its meeting held on 3rd June,
2020 took several landmark decisions for helping
India’s farmers while also transforming the
agriculture sector.
▪ Cabinet approved historic amendment to the Essential
Commodities Act
▪ With the amendment to Essential Commodities Act,
commodities like cereals, pulses, oilseeds, edible oils,
onion and potatoes will be removed from list of
essential commodities.
▪ This will remove fears of private investors of
excessive regulatory interference in their business
operations. The freedom to produce, hold, move,
distribute and supply will attract private
sector/foreign direct investment into agriculture
sector.
▪ But in situations such as war, famine, extraordinary
price rise and natural calamity, such agricultural
foodstuff can be regulated. However, the installed
capacity of a value chain participant and the export
demand of an exporter will remain exempted from
such stock limit imposition so as to ensure that
investments in agriculture are not discouraged.
Q.8) Consider the following pairs:
Strait : Connecting Water bodies
1. Strait of Hormuz : Gulf of Persia and Gulf of Aden
2. Strait of Gibraltar : Red Sea and Atlantic Ocean
3. Strait of Malacca : Andaman Sea and South China
Sea
4. Cook Strait : Arctic Ocean and Pacific Ocean
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (c)
▪ Strait of Hormuz is a channel linking the Persian Gulf
(west) with the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea
(southeast). Hence, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
▪ Strait of Gibraltar is a channel connecting the
Mediterranean Sea with the Atlantic Ocean, lying
between southernmost Spain and north western most
Africa. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
▪ Strait of Malacca, waterway connecting the Andaman
Sea (Indian Ocean) and the South China Sea (Pacific
Ocean). Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.
▪ Cook Strait is a strait separating the North and South
islands of New Zealand, extending northwest to
southeast from the Tasman Sea to the South Pacific
7|Page
Ocean. Hence, pair 4 is not correctly matched.
Q.9) Consider the following statements with respect to
TULIP Program
1. It is a dedicated window to provide internship
opportunities for fresh graduates in Urban Local Bodies
and in smart cities.
2. It is an initiative of All India Council for Technical
Education (AICTE), Ministry of HRD, and Ministry
of Housing and Urban Development.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c
• The Urban Learning Internship Program (TULIP) is
a program for providing fresh graduates experiential
learning opportunities in the urban sector.
• The platform is a dedicated window to internship
opportunities in Urban Local Bodies/smart cities.
• The platform will aggregate opportunities from
across India for graduates on a single platform and
allow them to apply for internships in the domain of
urban governance.
• It is an initiative of AICTE, Ministry of HRD, and
Ministry of Housing and Urban Development.
Q.10) With reference to the ‘Social Stock Exchange’,
consider the following statements:
1. It will promote investors to invest in select social
initiatives.
2. It will function on the lines of major stock exchanges
like BSE and NSE.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both are correct.
◎ It will function on the lines of major stock exchanges
like BSE and NSE. However, the purpose of the Social
Stock Exchange will be different – not profit, but social
welfare.
◎ Under the regulatory ambit of SEBI, a listing of social
enterprises and voluntary organizations will be
undertaken so that they can raise capital as equity, debt or
as units like a mutual fund.
◎ Why SSEs?
○ India needs massive investments in the
 coming years to be able to meet the human
development goals identified by global bodies like the
UN.
○ Currently, social enterprises are very active in India.
However, they face challenges in raising funds.
◎ Benefits
○ There is a great opportunity to unlock funds from
donors, philanthropic foundations and CSR spenders,
in the form of zero-coupon zero principal bonds.
These bonds will be listed on the SSE.
○ At first, the SSE could become a repository of social
enterprises and impact investors.
○ The registration could be done through a standard
process.
10 JUNE
Q.1) About Lakshadweep group of islands, consider the
following:
1. They are made up of coral deposits.
2. Recently for the very first time scientists carried out
genetic study on people of Lakshadweep Islands.
3. 10 degree channel separates entire group of
Lakshadweep islands from Maldives.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) All are correct
Answer: (c) Only 1 and 2 are correct.
• Recently, For the very first time scientists carried out
genetic study on people of Lakshadweep Islands. It
was conducted by a team of researchers at CSIR’s
(Council of Scientific & Industrial Research) Centre
for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB). The
authors studied major islands of Kadmat, Andorth,
Chetlat, Agatti, Kalpeni, Bitra, Kiltan and Minicoy of
Lakshadweep. Hence statement 2 is correct
• India has two major island groups: Andaman and
Nicobar, and Lakshadweep. Lakshadweep (and
Minicoy) islands are situated in the Arabian Sea off
the Malabar coast. They are scattered between 8°N-
12°N latitude and 71°E -74°E longitude. The entire
group of islands is made of coral deposits. Hence
statement 1 is correct.
• Nine Degree Channel separates Minicoy Island from
rest of Lakshadweep. Eight Degree Channel
Separates entire group of Lakshadweep islands from
Maldives. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
Q.2) With reference to Inter-State Water Disputes, which
of the following statements is/are correct?
8|Page
1. The Inter-State Water Disputes Act, 1956 empowers
the Parliament to set up an ad hoc tribunal for the
adjudication of an inter-state water dispute.
2. The decision of the tribunal would be final and
binding on the parties to the dispute.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
▪ Article 262 of the Constitution provides for the
adjudication of inter-state water disputes. Parliament
may by law provide for the adjudication of any
dispute or complaint with respect to the use,
distribution and control of waters of any inter-state
river and river valley.
▪ Under this provision, the Parliament has enacted two
laws [the River Boards Act (1956) and the Inter-State
Water Disputes Act (1956)].
▪ The River Boards Act provides for the establishment
of river boards for the regulation and development of
Inter-state River and river valleys. A river board is
established by the Central government on the request
of the state governments concerned to advise them.
▪ The Inter-State Water Disputes Act empowers the
Central government to set up an ad hoc tribunal for
the adjudication of a dispute between two or more
states in relation to the waters of an interstate river or
river valley. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
▪ The decision of the tribunal would be final and
binding on the parties to the dispute. Neither the
Supreme Court nor any other court is to have
jurisdiction in respect of any water dispute which may
be referred to such a tribunal under this Act. Hence,
statement 2 is correct.
Q.3) With reference to the Central Administrative
Tribunal (CAT), consider the following statements:
1. Its Mandate is to adjudicate disputes and complaints
with respect to recruitment and conditions of service of
persons appointed to public services
2. The Tribunal is guided by the principles of natural
justice in deciding cases and is not bound by the
procedure, prescribed by the Civil Procedure Code.
3. At present there are only 15 regular benches of Central
Administrative Tribunal (CAT).
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 2 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only
▪ Union Minister of Personnel & Public Grievances
inaugurated the 18th Bench of Central Administrative
Tribunal (CAT) for the Union Territories of Jammu
and Kashmir and Ladakh.
▪ Setting up of CAT Bench of Jammu to deal
exclusively with service matters of government
employees would reduce the burden of various
Courts.
▪ Earlier, in a notification issued under section 5(7) of
the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, the Central
Government has specified Jammu and Srinagar as the
places at which the benches of the CAT shall
ordinarily sit for the UT of Jammu and Kashmir and
UT of Ladakh.
▪ The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) had been
established under Article 323 - A of the Constitution.
▪ Mandate is to adjudicate disputes and complaints with
respect to recruitment and conditions of service of
persons appointed to public services and posts in
connection with the affairs of the Union or other
authorities under the control of the Government.
▪ Under Section 17 of the Administrative Tribunal Act,
1985, the Tribunal has been conferred with the power
to exercise the same jurisdiction and authority in
respect of contempt of itself as a High Court.
▪ The Tribunal is guided by the principles of natural
justice in deciding cases and is not bound by the
procedure, prescribed by the Civil Procedure Code.
▪ Salaries and Allowances and Conditions of Service of
the officers and other employees of the Tribunal are
specified by the Central Government. Hence only
statements 2 is correct.
Q.4) Consider the following statements about Pradhan
Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana (PMVVY):
1. PMVVY is a social security scheme that offers a
guaranteed payout of pension.
2. LIC is the sole operator of PMVVY.
3. Minimum age of eligibility for PMVVY is 40 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
The Union Cabinet has extended the Pradhan Mantri
Vaya Vandana Yojana (PMVVY) up to 31st March, 2023,
for a further period of three years beyond 31st March,
2020.
Details of PMVVY
9|Page
▪ Launched in 2017, PMVVY is a social security
scheme for senior citizens intended to give an assured
minimum pension to them based on an assured return
on the purchase price/ subscription amount.
▪ LIC of India has been given the sole privilege to
operate the scheme.
▪ Eligibility: The subscriber must be a senior citizen
(above the age of 60 years). There is no maximum
entry age for PMVVY scheme.
▪ One can invest a maximum amount of ₹15 lakh under
PMVVY scheme and the tenure of the policy is set at
10 years. The subscriber will receive a pension
amount based on the premium given by an individual.
▪ Subscribers can draw a minimum pension of ₹1,000
per month depending on the amount invested in the
scheme. The maximum pension amount is limited at
₹10,000 per month.
▪ A subscriber can apply for loans after completion of
three years. The maximum loan that can be granted
shall be 75% of the purchase price. The interest on the
loan will be recovered from the pension payment that
is being made.
Q.5) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct
regarding the Voluntary Retention Route (VRR) scheme?
1. It is aimed at attracting foreign portfolio investment
into the equity market.
2. Investments through this route is free of the
regulatory norms applicable to foreign portfolio
investment without any condition.
Select the correct option using the code given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d)
• VRR scheme is aimed at attracting long-term and
stable FPI investments into debt markets not equity
markets. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Investments through this route are free of the
regulatory norms applicable to foreign portfolio
investment only when investors maintain a minimum
value of their investments for a fixed period. Hence,
statement 2 is not correct.
Q.6) Which one of the following best describes the
term “Syndemic”?
a) It is a situation when two or more epidemics interact
to produce an increased burden of disease in a
population.
b) It is declared when a new disease for which people do
 not have immunity spreads around the world beyond
expectations.
c) It is a situation in which a disease affects 90% of the
region’s population and the people in the region learn
to live with the disease.
d) It is declared when the presence or usual prevalence
of its infectious agent is constant within a given
geographical area or population group.
Answer: (a)
▪ World Health Organization (WHO) has recently
announced that the Covid-19 would less likely to be
eliminated (i.e. may become endemic).
▪ The possibilities of Covid-19 being syndemic have
been raised in the backdrop of the announcement.
Classification of Diseases based on spread and
occurrence
▪ Epidemic - An epidemic is a large outbreak, one that
spreads among a population or region. It is less severe
than pandemic due to a limited area of spread.
▪ Endemic - A disease is called endemic when the
presence or usual prevalence of its infectious agent is
constant within a given geographical area or
population group.
▪ Pandemic - A pandemic is declared when a new
disease for which people do not have immunity
spreads around the world beyond expectations.
▪ Syndemic - A Syndemic is a situation when two or
more epidemics interact synergistically to produce an
increased burden of disease in a population.
▪ The least possibility of elimination of Covid-19
pandemic and warning about the second wave of
Covid-19 infections worldwide have reinforced the
presence of Covid-19 for the long term.
▪ Meanwhile, the alarm is being raised about diseases
like dengue and malaria emerging with the upcoming
monsoon season in tropical South Asia.
▪ Thus, there is a possibility that the world will face
increased burden of the diseases and thus the situation
of syndemic.
Q.7) If the real exchange rate of Indian rupee with respect
to a US dollar is less than one, it indicates that
(a) One rupee would buy less amount of same product in
USA than in India.
(b) Indian economy is facing very high levels of inflation.
(c) Indian rupee is significantly stronger with respect to
US dollars
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)
▪ Real exchange rate= Nominal Exchange rate* (Price
10 | P a g e
of good at abroad/ Price of good in the domestic
country)
▪ The real exchange rate measures prices abroad
relative to those at home. If the real exchange rate is
equal to one, currencies are at purchasing power
parity. This means that goods cost the same in two
countries when measured in the same currency. For
instance, if a pen costs $4 in the US and the nominal
exchange rate is Rs 50 per US dollar, then with a real
exchange rate of 1, it should cost Rs 200 in India.
▪ If the real exchange rises above one, this means that
goods abroad have become more expensive than
goods at home. Similarly, if the real exchange goes
below one, this means that goods at home have
become more expensive than goods abroad i.e. one
rupee can buy higher amount of same product in the
USA than in India.
▪ The real exchange rate is often taken as a measure of
a country‘s international competitiveness.
Q.8) Consider the following statements about the United
Nations Environment Programme (UNEP):
1. It was founded as a result of United Nations Conference
on Environment and Development.
2. It provides the Champions of the Earth award.
3. It is one of the implementing agencies for the Global
Environment Facility.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only
▪ 1 is not correct: United Nations Environment
Programme (UNEP) is an UN agency. It was founded
as a result of the UN Conference on the Human
Environment (Stockholm Conference) in 1972, with
headquarter at Nairobi, Kenya. It coordinates UN‘s
environmental activities, assisting developing
countries in implementing environmentally sound
policies and practices. The United Nations
Conference on Environment and Development
(UNCED), also known as the Rio Summit or Earth
Summit of 1992. The outcomes of this summit was:
Rio Declaration on Environment and Development,
Agenda 21, Convention on Biological Diversity and
UN Framework Convention on Climate Change
(UNFCCC).
▪ Statement 2 is correct: The Champions of the Earth
Award by United Nations Environment Programme.
It is the United Nations highest environmental
honour. The award celebrates outstanding figures
 from the public and private sectors and from civil
society whose actions have had a transformative,
positive impact on the environment.
▪ Statement 3 is correct: UNEP has also been active in
funding and implementing environment related
development projects. It has aided in the formulation
of guidelines and treaties on issues such as the
international trade in potentially harmful chemicals,
transboundary air pollution, and contamination of
international waterways. It is also one of several
Implementing Agencies for the Global Environment
Facility (GEF) and the Multilateral Fund for the
Implementation of the Montreal Protocol. UN
Environment is a founding partner of the SEED
Awards, which support innovative, small-scale and
locally driven entrepreneurs around the globe who
integrate social and environmental benefits into their
business models.
Q.9) Consider the following pairs:
Island in News : Conflict Between
1. Kuril island : Russia and Japan
2. Paracel Islands : China & Vietnam
3. Spratly Islands : Britain & Argentina
Which of the above state is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Answer (b) is correct. 1 and 2 only
1. Kuril Island: All the island are currently under
Russian jurisdiction. Japan claims the two
southernmost large island ( Iturup and Kunashir)
2. Both the Paracel and Spratly Island are associated
with South China Sea
3. The Paracel Islands are disputed among China
,Taiwan and Vietnam
4. The Pratas islands are disputed between China and
Taiwan.
5. The Macclesfield Bank is disputed among the China
, the Taiwan and the Philippines, with no land above
sea level.
6. The Scarborough Shoal is disputed among China ,
the Taiwan and the Philippines , with only rocks
above sea level.
7. Over Spratly Island Brunei, China , Malaysia,
Philippines and Vietnam are involved in a conflict.
8. Falkland Island is the region of conflict between
Britain and Argentina
Q.10) With respect to MARPOL Convention, consider
the following statements:
11 | P a g e
1. It intends to address all the issues associated with the
freedom of Navigation.
2. The Convention was adopted on 1973 at International
Maritime Organization (IMO).
3. India is a party to the MARPOL convention and has
ratified all of its six annexes.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer (c) is correct 2 and 3 only
• International Convention for the Prevention of
Pollution from Ships (MARPOL)
• The MARPOL Convention was adopted on 2
November 1973 at IMO.
• The Convention includes regulations aimed at
preventing and minimizing pollution from ships -
both accidental pollution and that from routine
operations - and currently includes six technical
Annexes.
• The MARPOL Convention has six annexes (I to VI)
and it deals with prevention of Pollution from ships
by Oil, Noxious liquid substances, Dangerous goods
in packaged form, Sewage, Garbage and Air pollution
from ships respectively.
• India and MARPOL
• India has signed the International Convention for the
Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL).
• India has ratified all of its annexes (Annexes I to VI).
11 JUNE
Q. 1) Which of the following is true regarding Ways and
Means Advances:
1. They are permanent loan facilities provided by RBI to
the government.
2. The government makes an interest payment to the
central bank when it borrows money and the rate of
interest is the same as the repo rate.
Choose the correct code given below
[a] 1 only
[b] 2 only
[c] Both 1 and 2
[d] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (b) 2 only is correct
Explanation : First statement is NOT correct because
Ways and Means Advances are temporary loan facilities
provided by RBI to the government to enable it to meet
temporary mismatches between revenue and expenditure.
• Recently, The Reserve Bank of India has raised the limit
for short term credit that the government can borrow from
the central bank.
• The limits for this credit facility, known as ‘Ways and
Means Advances’, has been raised sharply to Rs 1.2 lakh
crore for the first half of 2020-21.
• The increased limit comes at a time when government
expenditure is expected to rise as it battles the fallout of a
spreading Coronavirus.
What are Ways and Means Advances?
• They are temporary loan facilities provided by RBI to
the government to enable it to meet temporary
mismatches between revenue and expenditure.
• The government makes an interest payment to the
central bank when it borrows money.
• The rate of interest is the same as the repo rate, while
the tenure is three months.
• The limits for WMA are mutually decided by the RBI
and the Government of India.
• The WMA scheme for the Central Government was
introduced on April 1, 1997.
• WMA limits are if exceeded, is called overdraft.
• Overdrafts are not allowed beyond 10 consecutive
working days.
• The interest rate on overdrafts would be 2 percent more
than the repo rate.
Q.2) The Government of India has launched a initiative
SWADES to conduct a skill mapping exercise of the
returning citizens under which of the following
scheme/mission:
[a] National Social Assistance scheme
[b] Skill India Mission
[c] Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan
[d] Vande Bharat Mission
Answer (d) Vande Bharat Mission
Explanation-
SWADES Initiative
• The Government of India has launched a new initiative
SWADES to conduct a skill mapping exercise of the
returning citizens under the Vande Bharat Mission.
• Objective ➔ To create a database of qualified citizens
based on their skill sets and
experience and fulfil demand of Indian and
foreign companies.
• SWADES stands for Skilled Workers Arrival
Database for Employment Support.
• Bodies Involved ➔ This is a joint initiative of the
Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship, the
Ministry of Civil Aviation and theMinistry of External
Affairs.
• Implementation ➔ MSDE’s implementation arm
12 | P a g e
National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) is
supporting the implementation of the project.
• The collected information will be shared with the
companies for suitable
placement opportunities in the country.
• SWADES Skills Card ➔ The returning citizens are
required to fill up an online SWADES Skills Card.
• The card will facilitate the returning citizens with
suitable employment opportunities through discussions
with key stakeholders including State Governments,
Industry Associations and Employers.
National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC)
• Status ➔ NSDC is a not-for-profit public limited
company incorporated under section 25 of the Companies
Act, 1956 (corresponding to section 8 of the Companies
Act, 2013).
• It was set up by the Ministry of Finance as a Public
Private Partnership
(PPP) model.
• Share capital ➔ The Government of India through the
Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship
(MSDE) holds 49% of the share capital of NSDC, while
the private sector has the balance 51% of the share capital.
• Functions ➔ It aims to promote skill development by
catalyzing creation
of large, quality and for-profit vocational institutions.
Vandhe Bharat mission
• It is the massive repatriation operation planned by the
Indian government to bring back stranded Indians in
different parts of the world in the wake of the coronavirus
crisis.
• This airlift by the MEA would be the largest since the
Persian Gulf War evacuation of over 170,000 people from
Kuwait in 1990. Similar evacuations were also seen in
April 2015, when Operation Raahat was launched to
evacuate Indians from war-torn Yemen.
• Citizens in distress will be brought back on commercial
aircraft and naval ships based on lists prepared by the
India’s embassies. Over ten lakhs Indians are expected to
return home, and more than two lakhs are from the UAE
alone.
• The Ministry of External Affairs has developed a
dynamic online platform on which requests received by
Indian Missions from Indian nationals wishing to return
are regularly being uploaded.
Q.3) Consider the following statements about Swamitva
Yojana:
1. The scheme aims to revolutionise property record
maintenance in India.
 2. The scheme is piloted by the Ministry of Housing and
Urban Affairs.
Which of the above statement is/are correct
[1] 2 only
[2] 1 only
[3] Both 1 and 2
[4] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (b) 1 only is correct
Explanation- Second statement is NOT correct because
The scheme is piloted by the Panchayati Raj ministry.
Swamitva Yojana
• On Panchayati Raj Diwas , The Prime Minister of India
launched ‘Swamitva Yojana’ or Ownership Scheme to
map residential land ownership in the rural sector using
modern technology like the use of drones.
• The scheme aims to revolutionise property record
maintenance in India.
• The residential land in villages will be measured using
drones to create a non-disputable record.
• Property card for every property in the village will be
prepared by states using accurate measurements delivered
by drone-mapping. These cards will be given to property
owners and will be recognised by the land revenue records
department.
Benefits of the scheme:
1) The delivery of property rights through an official
document will enable villagers to access bank finance
using their property as collateral.
2) The property records for a village will also be
maintained at the Panchayat level, allowing for the
collection of associated taxes from the owners. The
money generated from these local taxes will be used to
build rural infrastructure and facilities.
3) Freeing the residential properties including land of title
disputes and the creation of an official record is likely to
result in appreciation in the market value of the properties.
4) The accurate property records can be used for
facilitating tax collection, new building and structure
plan, issuing of permits and for thwarting attempts at
property grabbing.
Q.4) Which of the following is/are INCORRECT for
Arsenicum album 30:
1. It is made in extremely low temperatures with distilled
water.
2. It is a homoeopathic drug that has less than 1% arsenic.
3. It is used to treat anxiety, restlessness, cold, ulcerations
and burning pains.
Select the correct code given below:
[a] 1 and 2 only
13 | P a g e
[b] 2 and 3 only
[c] 1 only
[d] 2 only
Answer c) 1 only
Explanation: First statement is INCORRECT because
Arsenicum album is made by heating arsenic with
distilled water, a process repeated several times over three
days.
• Arsenicum album 30, has become a subject of debate
after several states and AYUSH Ministry recommended it
for prophylactic (preventive) use against Covid-19.
About Arsenicum album 30
• Arsenicum album is made by heating arsenic with
distilled water, a process repeated several times over three
days.
• The health hazards of arsenic contamination in water are
well known, long-term exposure to the metal can cause
skin cancer, pulmonary and cardiovascular diseases.
• The homoeopath drug has less than 1% arsenic and
Arsenicum Album is considered to correct inflammation
in the body.
• Its uses ➔ Arsenicum album is used commonly by
homoeopaths to treat anxiety, restlessness, cold,
ulcerations and burning pains.
• Significance in the Context of COVID 19 ➔ The
Ministry of Ayush recommended taking a three-day dose
on an empty stomach of Arsenicum album 30 as a
prophylactic medicine against COVID 19 infections.
• Concerns ➔ The WHO neither has any guidelines nor
any effective evidence on using Arsenicum album as
Covid-19 treatment.
Q. 5) Identify the correct answer with the information
given below :
1. It is carved rock as well as a cultural heritage site in
Gilgit-Baltistan.
2. It carry carvings on them which are basically
inscriptions and images from the Prehistoric era.
3. The site had many Buddhist shelter caves in ancient
times and dates back to the 1st Millennium AD.
Select the correct answer given below:
[a] Saptaparni Cave
[b] Rock of Hunza
[c] Pandavleni Caves
[d] Guntupalle Buddhist Site
Answer (b) Rock of Hunza
Explanation-
•India has reacted strongly to reports of vandalism and
defacement of ancient Buddhist rock carvings in Gilgit-
Baltistan under Pakistan’s control. • What has Russia done so far? ➔ Boom obstacles were
• The Buddhist sites in Hunza in Gilgit-Baltistan have placed in the river,
been desecrated by Islamists, who painted Pakistani flags but they were unable to contain the oil because of shallow
and slogans on the rock-cut art. waters. The
• The Buddhist residents, who found the paintings to be state of emergency declared would bring in extra forces
fresh, said that the vandalism by the Islamists was in and federal resources for the clean-up efforts.
retaliation to the recent protests against the Diamer What is the extent of the damage? ➔
Bhasha dam project, a joint Pakistan-China project. • Environmentalists have said the river would be difficult
to clean, given its
Rock of Hunza shallow waters and remote location, as well as the
• The Sacred Rock of Hunza is carved rock as well as a magnitude of the spill.
cultural heritage site in Gilgit-Baltistan in Pakistan
occupied Kashmir.
• History ➔ The carvings on the rock dates back to the 1st
Millennium AD.
• The rock is on the top of a hill which lies east to the
Hunza River.
• The Sacred Rock is divided into two portions, an upper
portion and a lower one.
• Both the portions carry carvings on them which are
basically inscriptions and images from the Prehistoric era.
• The site had many Buddhist shelter caves in ancient
times which later collapsed or fell over the time.
• The rock carvings and engravings in areas were part of
the Buddhist circle covering Ladakh and Tibet.

Q.6) The Ambarnaya recently seen in news is a river in:

[a] India
[b] China
[c] Russia
[d] Pakistan

Answer (c) Russia

Explanation-
• Russia has declared a state of emergency after a power
plant fuel leak in its Arctic region caused 20,000 tonnes
of diesel oil to escape into a local river, turning its surface
crimson red.
• What is it? ➔ The Ambarnaya River, into which the oil
has been discharged, is part of a network that flows into
the environmentally sensitive Arctic Ocean.
• The Ambarnaya is a river in Siberia which flows in a
northerly direction into Lake Pyasino. • The clean-up effort could take between 5-10 years.
• Emergency measures were announced within Russia’s
Krasnoyarsk Region, located in the vast and sparsely
populated Siberian peninsula.
• How did the leak happen? ➔ The thermoelectric power
plant at Norilsk is
built on permafrost, which has weakened over the years
owing to climate change. The power plant is located near
the Region’s Norilsk city, around 3000 km northeast of
Moscow.

14 | P a g e
Q. 7) Which of the following is/are features of Asteroids:
1. These are made up of metals and rocks and orbit the
Sun.
2. They tend to have shorter and elliptical orbits.
3. They produce a coma or tail atmosphere.
Choose the correct code given below:
[a] 2 and 3 only
[b] 1 only
[c] 1 and 3 only
[d] 1 and 2 only
Answer (d) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Third statement is not correct because They
do not produce a coma or tail atmosphere.
• Recently, the National Aeronautics and Space
Administration (NASA) has announced that a giant
asteroid called as 163348 (2002 NN4), is expected to pass
Earth on 6th June 2020.
Asteroid
• Asteroids are made up of metals and rocks and orbit the
Sun and are small bodies in the solar system.
• They tend to have shorter and elliptical orbits.
• They do not produce a coma or tail atmosphere.
• The asteroid belt is a torus-shaped region in the Solar
System, located roughly between the orbits of the planets
Jupiter and Mars.
• Asteroids are minor planets, especially of the inner Solar
System.
• The scientific interest in comets and asteroids is largely
due to their status as relatively unchanged remnant debris
from the solar system formation process over 4.6 billion
years ago. Therefore, they offer clues about the chemical
mixture from the planets formed.
Near-Earth Objects (NEOs):
•NEOs are comets and asteroids pushed by the
gravitational attraction of nearby planets into orbits which
allow them to enter the Earth’s neighbourhood.
• These objects are composed mostly of water ice with
embedded dust particles.
NEOs occasionally approach close to the Earth as they
orbit the Sun.
• NASA’s Center for Near-Earth Object Study (CNEOS)
determines the times and distances of these objects, when
their approach to the Earth is close, through the Asteroid
Watch Widget.
Q.8) Ruhdaar recently seen in news is a:
[a] Robot to combat COVID-19
[b] Mechanical ventilator
15 | P a g e
[c] Name given to crater on Mercury
[d] Water Purification system
Answer (b) Mechanical ventilator
Ruhdaar:
• It is a low-cost mechanical ventilator to fight against
COVID19.
• It is developed by IIT Bombay team.
• The cost of production of one ventilator is Rs 10,000.
Q. 9) Which of the following statement is true regarding
LiDAR:
1. It is a instrument principally consists of a laser, a
scanner, and a specialized GPS receiver.
2. It is a remote sensing method to measure ranges &
variable distances.
Choose the correct code given below:
[a] 2 only
[b] 1 only
[c] Both 1 and 2
[d] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (c) Both 1 and 2 are true
Explanation-
• Recently a U.K.-based team of archeologists has
continued its research over the Tamar Valley through
LiDAR (Light Detection and Ranging) despite lockdown
due to Covid-19 in the country.
• LiDAR (Light Detection and Ranging) is a remote
sensing method that uses light in the form of a pulsed laser
to measure ranges & variable distances.
• These light pulses—combined with other data recorded
by the airborne system— generate precise, three-
dimensional information about the shape of the Earth and
its surface characteristics.
• A LiDAR instrument principally consists of a laser, a
scanner, and a specialized GPS receiver.
• Airplanes and helicopters are the most commonly used
platforms for acquiring LiDAR data over broad areas.
• LiDAR is used for agriculture, hydrology, water
management systems, geology-related applications, and
also used in archaeology.
Tamar Valley
• Tamar valley is located in the south of England and is a
rich archaeological landscape with many sites belonging
to the Iron Age and Roman era.
• The area is a World Heritage Site due to its historic
mining activities.
Q. 10) Q. Regarding Major Atmospheric Cerenkov
Experiment Telescope(MACE), which of the following is
correct:
1. It is an Imaging Atmospheric Cerenkov telescope
(IACT) located in Himachal Pradesh.
2. It is the highest (in altitude) telescope in the World and
was built by Electronics Corporation of India.
Choose the correct code given below-
(a)1 only
(b) 2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (b) 2 only is correct
Explanation-
• First statement is NOT correct because Major
Atmospheric Cerenkov Experiment Telescope (MACE)
is an Imaging Atmospheric Cerenkov telescope (IACT)
located at Hanle, Ladakh, India.
• It is the highest (in altitude) Cerenkov telescope in the
World and was built by Electronics Corporation of India,
Hyderabad, for the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre.
• It was assembled at the campus of Indian Astronomical
Observatory at Hanle.
• Operational since 2016, it is remotely operated and runs
on solar power.
• The telescope is the second-largest gamma ray telescope
in the world and will help the scientific community
enhance its understanding in the fields of astrophysics,
fundamental physics, and particle acceleration
mechanisms.
• The largest telescope of the same class is the 28-metre-
diameter High Energy Stereoscopic System (HESS)
telescope being operated in Namibia.
12 JUNE
Q. 1) What is the significance of iCommit initiative
launched on the occasion of the
World Environment day:
1. It will help to increase the forest cover and also protect
the existing forest land.
2. It will help the nation in meeting the objective of
energy access and security for all.
Choose the correct code given below
[a] 2 only
[b] 1 only
[c] Both 1 and 2
[d] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (a) 2 only is correct
Explanation : First statement is NOT correct because
16 | P a g e
iCommit initiative is centred around the idea of building
an energy resilient future.
About iCommit initiative
• Recently, the iCommit initiative was launched on the
occasion of the
World Environment day.
• Aim ➔ To call upon all stakeholders and
individuals to continue moving towards energy
efficiency, renewable energy and sustainability to create
a robust and resilient energy system for India in the future.
• Nodal agency ➔ The initiative is driven by Energy
Efficiency Services Limited (EESL), under the
administration of the Ministry of Power, Government of
India.
• The prerequisite for this goal is to create a flexible and
agile power system.
• Significance ➔ A healthy power sector can help the
nation in meeting the objective of
energy access and security for all.
• It seeks to bring together a diverse spectrum of
government and private players to build a new energy
future for India.
Q.2) Which of the following issues will be examined by
JAYA JAITLY TASK FORCE:
[a] Lowering Maternal Mortality Rate
[b] Workplace discrimination to women
[c] Finding affordable and quality child care
[d] Limited access of education to girls
Answer (a) Lowering Maternal Mortality Rate
Explanation-
JAYA JAITLY TASK FORCE
• The Women and Child Development Ministry has
constituted a task force to examine issues related to
-age of motherhood,
-lowering Maternal Mortality Rate and -improvement of
nutritional levels.
• Objective ➔The task force will be headed by Jaya Jaitly
and it will submit its report by 31st July of next month.
• The Terms of Reference - To examine the issues related
to Infant Mortality Rate, Maternal Mortality Rate, Total
Fertility
Rate, Sex Ratio at Birth, Child Sex Ratio (CSR) and any
other issues pertaining to health and
nutrition
Q.3) Consider the following statements about MAITREE
program:
1. It is a part of the Australia-India Energy Dialogue that
discuss bilateral engagement on energy and resources.
2. This program aimed at accelerating the adoption of
cost-effective energy efficiency as a standard practice
within buildings.
Which of the above statement is/are correct
[1] 1 only
[2] 2 only
[3] Both 1 and 2
[4] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (b) 2 only is correct
Explanation- First statement is NOT correct because The
Market Integration and Transformation Program for
Energy Efficiency (MAITREE) is a part of the US-India
bilateral Partnership between the Ministry of Power and
USAID.
Healthy and Energy Efficient Buildings” initiative
• The Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL) has
launched the “Healthy and Energy Efficient Buildings”
initiative that will pioneer
ways to make workplaces healthier and greener.
• Nodal agency ➔ The initiative has been launched by
EESL in partnership with the U.S. Agency for
International Development’s (USAID) MAITREE
program.
• As part of this initiative, EESL has taken the
leadership by being the first to implement this framework
in its own offices.
• This initiative addresses the challenges of retrofitting
existing buildings and air conditioning systems so that
they are both healthy and energy-efficient.
• It will pave the way for other buildings to take
appropriate steps to be healthy and energy-efficient.
MAITREE Program
What is it? ➔ The Market Integration and Transformation
Program for Energy Efficiency (MAITREE) is a part of
the US-India bilateral Partnership between the Ministry of
Power and USAID.
• Aim ➔ It is aimed at accelerating the adoption of cost-
effective energy
efficiency as a standard practice within buildings and
specifically focuses on
cooling.
Significance of the initiative ➔
• Poor air quality has been a concern in India for quite
some time and has become more important in light of the
COVID pandemic.
• As people return to their offices and public spaces,
maintaining good indoor air quality is essential for
occupant comfort, well-being, productivity and the
17 | P a g e
overall public health.
• Most buildings in India are not equipped to establish and
maintain healthy indoor air quality and need to be
upgraded.
Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL)
What is it? ➔ Energy Efficiency Services Limited
(EESL), is a joint venture of four National Public Sector
Enterprises– NTPC Limited, Power Finance Corporation
Ltd (PFC), REC and POWERGRID, and was set up under
Ministry of Power.
• Aim ➔ It aims to create market access for efficient and
future-ready transformative solutions that create a win-
win situation for every stakeholder.
• It is working towards mainstreaming energy efficiency
and is implementing
the world’s largest energy efficiency portfolio in the
country.
• It helps in implementing programmes such as
UnnatJyoti by Affordable LED for All (UJALA), Smart
Meters, etc.
Q.4) Which of the following is/are INCORRECT about
Payments Infrastructure Development Fund (PIDF):
1. It has a corpus of Rs. 500 crore and will encourage
acquirers to deploy point of sale (PoS) infrastructure, both
physical and digital.
2. The fund will be managed and administered by an
advisory council.
3. The PIDF will receive recurring
contributions to cover operational expenses from card-
issuing banks and card networks.
Select the correct code given below:
[a] 1 and 2 only
[b] 2 and 3 only
[c] 1 only
[d] 2 only
Answer d) 2 only
Explanation: Second statement is INCORRECT because
The fund will be governed
through an advisory council but it will be
managed and administered by the RBI.
Payments Infrastructure Development Fund (PIDF)
• Recently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has
announced the creation of a Rs. 500-crore Payments
Infrastructure Development Fund (PIDF).
• Objective ➔ This fund has been created to
encourage acquirers to deploy point of sale
(PoS) infrastructure, both physical and digital,
in tier-3 to tier-6 centres and north eastern
states.
• Governance ➔ The fund will be governed
through an advisory council but it will be
managed and administered by the RBI.
• Corpus ➔ It has a corpus of Rs. 500 crore in which the
RBI has made an initial contribution of Rs. 250 crore. The
remaining will come from the card-issuing banks and card
networks operating in the country.
• Recurring contributions ➔ The PIDF will also receive
recurring contributions to cover operational expenses
from card-issuing banks and card networks. RBI will also
contribute to yearly shortfalls, if necessary.
• Need ➔ Most of the PoS terminals in the country are
concentrated in tier 1 and 2 cities because of the high cost
of merchant acquisition and merchant terminalisation.
•Benefits ➔
○ It will give a push to digital payments across India.
○ Reduce demand for cash over time.
Q. 5) With reference to Mass extinction, Consider the
following statements:
1. It refers to the extinction of a large number of species
within a relatively short period of geological time.
2. The ongoing sixth mass extinction is referred to as the
Anthropocene extinction.
Which of the following statements is/are correct:
[a] 2 only
[b] 1 only
[c] Both 1 and 2
[d] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation-
Mass extinction
• The extinction of a large number of species within a
relatively short period of geological time, due to factors
such as a catastrophic global event or widespread
environmental change that occurs too rapidly for most
species to adapt.
18 | P a g e
• It refers to a substantial increase in the degree of
extinction or when the Earth loses more than three-
quarters of its species in a
geologically short period of time.
• An extinction event is a widespread and rapid decrease
in the biodiversity on Earth.
• Such an event is identified by a sharp change in the
diversity and abundance of multicellular organisms. It
occurs when the rate of extinction increases with respect
to the rate of speciation.
• According to researchers at National Academy of
Sciences of the United States of America(PNAS), the
ongoing sixth mass extinction may be one of the most
serious environmental threats to the persistence of
civilisation.
• Sixth Extinction ➔ The sixth mass extinction which is
ongoing is referred to as the Anthropocene extinction or
Holocene extinction.
• The research has claimed that this extinction is human-
caused and is more immediate than climate destruction.
The rate of extinction of species is also estimated at 100
to 1,000 times higher than natural background rates.
Q.6) World Water Development Report (WWDR) is a
flagship report of:
[a] Global water intelligence
[b] International water association
[c] UN-Water
[d] Stockholm International Water Institute
Answer (c) UN-Water
Explanation-
• The 2020 edition of the World Water Development
Report (WWDR 2020) entitled ‘Water and Climate
Change’ aims at helping the water community to tackle
the challenges of climate change and informing the
climate change community about the opportunities that
improved water management offers in terms of adaptation
and mitigation.
• The United Nations World Water Development Report
(WWDR) is a global report that provides an authoritative,
comprehensive assessment of the world’s freshwater
resources.
• It is produced annually by the World Water Assessment
Programme and released by UN-Water.
• The Report examines the ways that the world’s water
resources are being managed and the varied water
problems that different regions of the world are
experiencing.
• It takes a close look at growing water problems
worldwide, such as access to clean water and sanitation,
and the cross-cutting issues which affect them, such as
energy, climate change, agriculture, and urban growth.
• The Report also offers recommendations on how
freshwater resources could be managed more sustainably.
• The content of the Report comes from the coordinated
efforts of 26 UN agencies that make up UN-Water,
working with governments, international organizations,
non-governmental organizations and other stakeholders.
Q. 7) GARUD PORTAL recently making news is
launched by:
[a] Ministry of Science and Technology
[b] Ministry of Earth Sciences
[c] Ministry of Mines and Energy
[d] Ministry of Civil Aviation
Answer (d) Ministry of Civil Aviation
Explanation:
• Ministry of Civil Aviation and Directorate General of
Civil Aviation have launched the GARUD portal to fast-
track exemptions of coronavirus-related drone operations.
• GARUD Acronym ➔ Government Authorisation for
Relief Using Drones.
• Significance ➔ To help state-owned entities in seeking
exemption from central government for coronavirus
related drone operations.
• Also help in addressing the challenges posed by
COVID-19 and will remain in force until further orders.
Q.8) Which of the following statements appropriately
define Hypoxia often seen in news:
[a] It is a condition in which the brain swells with fluid.
[b] It is a condition in which the body or a region of the
body is deprived of adequate oxygen supply at the tissue
level.
[c] Swelling and inflammation in the main passages that
carry air to the lungs.
[d] It is a condition where there is a collection of fluid
between the lung and the chest wall.
Answer (b) It is a condition in which the body or a region
of the body is deprived of adequate oxygen supply at the
tissue level.
Hypoxia
• Recently medical practitioners have reported a condition
called silent or happy hypoxia, in which Covid-19
patients have extremely low blood oxygen levels, yet they
do not show signs of breathlessness.
• What is it? ➔ Hypoxia is a condition wherein there is
not enough oxygen available to the blood and body
tissues.
• Hypoxia can either be generalised, affecting the whole
19 | P a g e
body, or local, affecting a region of the body.
• Hypoxia is a condition in which the body or a region of
the body is deprived of adequate oxygen supply at the
tissue level.
• Normal arterial oxygen is approximately 75 to 100
millimetres of mercury (mm Hg), and normal pulse
oximeter readings usually range from 95 to 100 per cent.
Values under 90 per cent are considered low.
• Symptoms ➔ When levels fall below 90%, patients
could begin experiencing lethargy, confusion or mental
disruptions because of
insufficient quantities of oxygen reaching the brain.
• Levels below 80% can result in damage to vital organs.
About silent Hypoxia
• What it is? ➔ is a form of oxygen deprivation that is
harder to detect than
regular hypoxia. Patients appear to be less in distress.
• Covid pneumonia, a serious medical condition found in
severe Covid-19
patients, is preceded by silent hypoxia.
• Symptoms ➔ In many cases, Covid-19 patients with
silent hypoxia did not
exhibit symptoms such as shortness of breath or coughing
until their oxygen fell to acutely low levels, at which point
there was a risk of acute respiratory distress (ARDS) and
organ failure.
Reasons ➔ The reason why people are left feeling
breathless is not because of the fall
in oxygen levels itself but due to the rise in carbon dioxide
levels that occur
at the same time, when lungs are not able to expel this gas
efficiently.
• A medical device called a pulse oximeter can be used in
the early detection of silent hypoxia.
About Pulse Oximeter
• Application ➔ It is a test used to measure the oxygen
level (oxygen saturation) of the blood.
• How ➔ The device measures the saturation of oxygen
in red blood cells (RBCs) and can be attached to a
person’s fingers, toes, nose, feet, ears or forehead.
• Benefits ➔ The method is easy and painless and the
device can be reused or disposed of after use.
Q. 9) Which of the following statement is true regarding
INS Jalashwa:
1. It is an amphibious transport dock currently in service.
2. It is the only Indian naval ship to be acquired from the
United States.
Choose the correct code given below: 156,000 rials per dollar.
[a] 2 only • Iran’s weak currency and high inflation have led to
[b] 1 only sporadic street protests.
[c] Both 1 and 2
[d] Neither 1 nor 2 13 JUNE

Answer (c) Both 1 and 2 are true
Explanation-
INS Jalashwa
• INS Jalashwa is an amphibious transport dock currently
in service with the Indian Navy. • INS Jalashwa is the only
Indian naval ship to be acquired from the United States.
• It is based in Visakhapatnam under the Eastern Naval
Command.
Operation Samudra Setu
• What it is? ➔ The Indian Navy launched ‘Operation
Samudra Setu’ (Sea Bridge) as a part of national effort to
repatriate Indian citizens from overseas.
• Indian Naval Ships Jalashwa and Magar are enroute to
the port of Male, Republic of Maldives etc to commence
evacuation operations.
Q. 10) Which of the following pair given below is
correctly matched?
Currency Country
1) Yuan Japan
2) Rial Iran
3) Dirham United Arab Emirates
Choose the correct code given below
[a] 2 only
[b] 2 and 3 only
[c] 1 and 3 only
[d] 3 only
Answer (b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation- Yuan/Renminbi is the currency of China.
• Japanese Yen is the currency of Japan.
TOMAN Currency
• The Iran’s parliament has passed a bill allowing the
government to the replacement of the national currency,
the rial with another basic unit of currency called the
toman.
• Changes ➔ The plan is set to effectively cut four zeros
from its currency, making each toman worth 10,000 rials
under the new system.
•Why ➔ There was a sharp fall in the value of the
currency as a result of crippling U.S. sanctions.
• As a result, the Iranian currency was trading at about
Q. 1) Which of the following is true regarding Jeypore
Dynasty:
1. It was a kingdom in the Kalinga region ruled by the
kings of the Suryavansh dynasty.
2. It was a princely estate under British rule from 1776 to
1947 and was the largest of all princely states and estates
in the Madras Presidency.
Choose the correct code given below
[a] 2 only
[b] 1 only
[c] Both 1 and 2
[d] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (c) Both are 1 and 2 correct
Explanation :
Recently 30 confirmed cases of chikungunya, has been
reported from the Raygada District.
• Rayagada is a district in southern Odisha, a state in India,
which became a separate district in October 1992.
• Its population consists mainly of tribes, primarily the
Khonds and the Soras.
• It was founded by Maharajah Vishwanath Dev Gajapati
of the Suryavansh dynasty of Jeypore.
• The district is reportedly rich in bauxite and silicon.
Jeypore Dynasty
• The Kingdom of Jeypore or Jeypore Kalinga Rajya was
a kingdom in the Kalinga region ruled by the kings of the
Suryavansh dynasty, who trace their origins from ‘Dev’
Suryavanshis of Jammu & Kashmir and thus claim to be
the descendants of Rama.
• It was an independent princely state from 1443 to 1775
and a princely estate under British rule from 1776 to 1947.
• It had three capitals under different rulers: Nandapur,
Rayagada and Jeypore, the most prominent.
• It was the largest of all princely states and estates in the
Madras Presidency, covering an area of 31,079 km2 in
1880 and 36,259 km2 in 1925.
• Despite being the largest kingdom, it never had the
status of a princely state because it lost the crucial
feudatories of Bobbili, Vizianagaram, Kalahandi, Salur,
Srungavarapukota, Nowagarh, Khariar and
Gajapathinagaram, which clinched independence from
Jeypore and were later recognized as princely estates

20 | P a g e
under British Rule.
• The last ruler of the kingdom was King Vikram Dev IV
when the estate was dissolved in 1947 and merged into
the Union of India.
Chikungunya
• Chikungunya virus is an arbovirus that belongs to the
genus Alphavirus.
• It is a viral disease that is spread by the bite of Aedes
aegypti and Aedes albopictus mosquitoes.
• Symptoms usually appear within a week of infection, It
causes fever and severe joint pain.
• Other symptoms include muscle pain, headache, nausea,
fatigue and rash.
• Joint pain is often debilitating and can vary in duration.
• The disease is most prevalent in in Africa, South- Asia
and India.
Q. 2) No new funds are allocated to Sansad Adarsh Gram
Yojana and funds may be raised through:
1. The Member of Parliament Local Area Development
Scheme.
2. The gram panchayat’s own revenue
3.Central and State Finance Commission Grants
4.Corporate Social Responsibility funds
Choose the correct code given below
[a] 1 and 2 only
[b] 2 and 4 only
[c] 1 and 4
[d] 1,2,3 and 4
Answer (d) 1,2,3 and 4
Explanation-
Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana
• It is a rural development programme broadly focusing
upon the development in the villages which includes
social development, cultural development and spread
motivation among the people on social mobilization of the
village community.
• The programme was launched on the birth anniversary
of Jayaprakash Narayan, on 11 October 2014.
• The distinct feature of this Yojana is that it is
(a) Demand driven
(b) Inspired by society
(c) Based on people's participation.
• Under this Yojana, each Member of Parliament needs to
choose one village each from the constituency that they
represent, except their own village or their in-laws village
and fix parameters and make it a model village by 2019.
• Villages will be offered smart schools, universal access
to basic health facilities and Pucca housing to homeless
villagers.
21 | P a g e
• No new funds are allocated to this Yojana and funds may
be raised through
1) Funds from existing schemes, such as the Indira Awas
Yojana, Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana, Mahatma
Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme,
and Backward Regions Grant Fund, etc.,
2) The Member of Parliament Local Area Development
Scheme (MPLADS),
3)The gram panchayat’s own revenue,
4)Central and State Finance Commission Grants, and
5) Corporate Social Responsibility funds.
Q.3) Consider the following statements about Aditya
Ferry:
1. It is India's first solar-powered ferry and the largest
solar-powered boat in India.
2. The vessel was designed and built by NavAlt Solar and
Electric Boats.
Which of the above statement is/are correct
[1] 1 only
[2] 2 only
[3] Both 1 and 2
[4] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation-
• India’s first solar-powered ferry ‘Aditya’ is among 12
such ferries around the globe that have been shortlisted
for the Gustave Trouvé
Award.
• What is it? ➔ The electric ferry boat is operated by the
Kerala State Water Transport Department.
• It is India's first solar-powered ferry and the largest
solar-powered boat in India.
• The vessel was designed and built by NavAlt Solar and
Electric Boats in Kochi, India.
• NavAlt is a joint venture firm between Navgathi Marine
Design and Constructions, Alternative Energies (France)
and EVE Systems (France).
• As a public transport solar-electric ferry, it has proven
its performance by transporting 11 lakh passengers and
clocking a distance of 70,000 km, without a single drop
of fossil fuel.
• The zero-pollution vehicle resulted in saving over 1 lakh
litres of diesel and thus reducing carbon emission.
• The per km energy cost of Aditya is low, and the ferry
normally operates 22 trips a day, covering a total of 66
km, carrying 75 passengers per trip.
• It needs just ₹180 per day in energy cost, compared to
about ₹8,000 for a diesel-run ferry of similar size.

Gustave Trouvé Award
• The Gussies electric boat award is a global award
instituted after Gustave Trouvé, a French electrical
engineer and pioneer in electric cars and boats.
• Gustave Trouvé was a prolific inventor with over 75
patents.
• This is the inaugural edition of the award in the
remembrance of the inventor & aimed to promote
innovative excellence with electric boats.
Q.4) Which of the following is/are used for the treatment
of COVID-19 in India-
1. Remdesivir
2. Favipiravir
3. Hydroxychloroquine
4. Itolizumab
5. Tocilizumab
Select the correct code given below:
[a] 1 and 3 only
[b] 1,3 and 4 only
[c] 2 and 3 only
[d] 1,2 ,3,4 and 5
Answer d) 1, 2 ,3,4 and 5
Explanation:
List of Treatments for COVID-19 used in India
1)Remdesivir
• Remdesivir, an antiviral drug first developed for treating
Ebola in 2014, is one of the possible Covid-19 treatments
being investigated in the WHO’s Solidarity Trial.
• It inhibits viral replication in the body.
US National Institutes of Allergies and Infectious
Diseases released preliminary trial results showing
recovery time of Covid patients given remdesivir
improved from 15 to 11 days.
• The Drug Controller General of India on June 1
approved a five-day regime of remdesivir.
• Doctors are currently prescribing it for moderately to
severely ill patients.
Remdesivir costs Rs 10,000-20,000 per vial.
2)Favipiravir
•Favipiravir is an antiviral given to inhibit viral
replication, It is used as an anti-influenza drug.
• First manufactured by Japan’s Fujifilm Toyama
Chemical Ltd, it is manufactured in India by Glenmark
Pharmaceutical and Strides Pharma.
• It is being used for moderately symptomatic to severely
ill Covid patients, but access is not easy.
22 | P a g e
3)Tocilizumab
• This is an immunosuppressant commonly used to treat
for rheumatoid arthritis.
• This is an expensive drug, that costs Rs 40,000-60,000
per dose, it is used as a preventive against ventilator
requirement, government hospitals are giving it free.
• Tocilizumab is manufactured by Roche Pharma, and
marketed by Cipla.
• In India it is sold under the brand name Actemra.
4)Itolizumab
• This drug is commonly used for the skin disorder
psoriasis, rheumatoid arthritis, multiple sclerosis, and
autoimmune disorders. In India, Biocon launched it in
2013.
• It is being trailled in Mumbai and Delhi on moderately
to severely ill Covid patients. Initial results will come by
July.
5)Hydroxychloroquine
• This antimalarial drug is a subject of debate over its
efficacy against Covid.
• India is the largest producer of this drug.
• Doctors use HCQ use in Covid patients with symptoms
as mild as headache, fever, body pain, and even in
critically ill patients.
• ICMR guidelines recommend low doses for nine days.
• This drug is helping in faster recovery, but that is just
preliminary assessment.
• Side effects of the drug includes chaotic heartbeat.
6)Doxycycline + ivermectin
• Doxycycline is an antibiotic used to fight infection in the
urinary tract, eye, or respiratory tract.
• Ivermectin is an anti-parasite drug for treatment of
scabies, head lice, and filariasis.
• The combination is used to treat Covid patients with
acute symptoms.
7)Ritonavir + lopinavir
• These antivirals are commonly used to treat HIV
patients.
• They are being investigated in the Solidarity Trial.
• Some studies suggest they reduce mortality risk in
Covid-19 patients, while others have found no major
improvement.
• Over a dozen manufacturers supply ritonavir and
lopinavir in India.
• Doctors sometimes use the combination for severely ill
patients.
8)Plasma therapy
• Basis of the Therapy: The convalescent plasma therapy
seeks to make use of the antibodies developed in the
recovered patient against the coronavirus.
• The whole blood or plasma from such people is taken,
and the plasma is then injected in critically ill patients so
that the antibodies are transferred and boost their fight
against the virus.
• This is meant for critical patients with low oxygen
saturation levels, or those suffering a cytokine storm.
• Patients who have recovered from severe Covid-19
donate their plasma, which is then injected into other
critical patients to boost their immunity.
• A protocol approved by ICMR is used to select which
patient is best suited for plasma therapy.
• Preference is given to those at risk of cytokine storm,
extreme breathlessness with severe pneumonia.
Facts about plasma
• Plasma is the largest part of your blood. It, makes up
more than half (about 55%) of its overall content.
• When separated from the rest of the blood, plasma is a
light yellow liquid.
• Plasma carries water, salts and enzymes.
• The main role of plasma is to take nutrients, hormones,
and proteins to the parts of the body that need it.
• Cells also put their waste products into the plasma.
• The plasma then helps remove this waste from the body.
• Blood plasma also carries all parts of the blood through
your circulatory system.
Q. 5) With reference to So’ham, Consider the following
statements:
1. It is the first cultural media platform of India, under
banner of Ministry of Culture.
2. It is inspired by the Vedic philosophy of So’ham, which
stands for one's identity and its connection to the universe.
Which of the following statements is/are correct:
[a] 2 only
[b] 1 only
[c] Both 1 and 2
[d] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (b) 2 only
Explanation- First statement is NOT correct because It is
the first cultural media platform of India, under the banner
of National Gallery of Modern Art (NGMA).
About NAIMISHA 2020
• The National Gallery of Modern Art (NGMA), New
Delhi will organize online NAIMISHA 2020- Summer
Art Program from 8th June 2020 to 3rd July 2020, to reach
its audiences during the Covid-19 outbreak.
• What is it? ➔ It is an initiative to provide a chance to
23 | P a g e
participants and art enthusiasts to create and learn from
practicing artists.
• Activities ➔ The programme includes online workshops
sessions on painting, sculpture, printmaking and indrajaal
(an interdisciplinary creative workshop).
• The exhibition of selected artworks from the program
will be displayed onSo’ham, the cultural media platform
of NGMA.
About So’ham
• It is the first cultural media platform of India, under the
banner of NGMA.
• Aim ➔ The platform aims to develop a dialogue
between NGMA, artists and art enthusiasts.
• It is inspired by the Vedic philosophy of So’ham, which
stands for one's identity and its connection to the universe.
About NGMA
• Established ➔ NGMA was established in 1954, at the
Jaipur House, NewDelhi.
• Parent Organization ➔ It is run and administered as a
subordinate office to the Ministry of Culture, Government
of India.
• The NGMA has two branches, one at Mumbai and the
other at Bengaluru.
• Objective ➔ One of its objectives is to acquire and
preserve works of modern art from the 1850s onward.
Q.6) Environmental performance index is released by
Yale and Columbia universities
in collaboration with :
[a] World Wide Fund for Nature
[b] United Nations Environment Programme
[c] Worldwatch Institute
[d] World Economic Forum
Answer (d) World Economic Forum
Explanation-
• 12th edition of the biennial Environment Performance
Index (EPI Index 2020) has been released.
• Released by ➔ Yale and Columbia universities in
collaboration with the World Economic Forum(WEF).
• The index is released biennially (once every two years).
• The EPI measures the environmental
performance of 180 countries.
• Indicators ➔ It considers 32 indicators of environmental
performance, giving a snapshot of the 10-year trends in
environmental performance at the national and global
levels.
• Top ranks ➔ Denmark was ranked first
followed by Luxembourg and Switzerland.
• Performance of India ➔ India secured 168th
rank. The country scored 27.6 out of 100 in
the 2020 index.
• India’s rank was 177 (with a score of 27.6 out
of 100) in 2018.
• All South Asian countries except Afghanistan
are ahead of India in the ranking.
• Remarks for India ➔ The report indicated that black
carbon, carbon dioxide emissions and greenhouse
emissions per capita increased in 10 years.
• India needs to re-double national sustainability efforts
on all fronts,
according to the index.
• It needs to focus on a wide spectrum of sustainability
issues, with a high- priority to critical issues such as air
and water quality, biodiversity and climate change.
Q. 7) Consider the following pair:
1) Haldwani - Uttar Pradesh Bio-Diversity Park
2) Dibru-Saikhowa - Assam National Park
3) Yamuna - Bihar Biodiversity Park
Which of the following pair given above is correctly
matched?
[a] 2 only
[b] 2 and 3
[c] 1 and 3
[d] 3 only
Answer (d) 2 only
Explanation:
• Haldwani Bio-Diversity Park is in Uttrakhand
• Yamuna biodiversity park is in Delhi
Haldwani Bio-Diversity Park
• Recently, Uttrakhand opened its biggest biodiversity
park in Haldwani on the World Environment Day .
• Inside the Park, there are thematic gardens, a soil
museum, species of plants, lichens, mosses and algae
24 | P a g e
from the Jurassic era, a vermicomposting unit, an
interpretation center, and a state-of-the-art weather
station.
• The Park has 40 unique sections having 479 rare plant
species of cactus, medicinal herbs, different types of trees,
etc.
• The various species of plants have been brought to the
park from diverse terrains like Niti Mana Valley and even
from some glaciers around Kedarnath.
• Niti Mana Valley is located near the India Tibetan
Border in Chamoli district of Uttarakhand.
• The plant species in the biodiversity park is divided into
spiritual & religious, scientific, human health, and
aesthetic value sections.
• The spiritual section has trees that find mention in holy
scriptures like Guru Granth Sahib, Quran, Bible, and
others.
• It showcases the different kinds of soil found in various
topographies of Uttarakhand — alpine, bhabhar, sub-
mountainous, mountainous, tertiary, loam, terai.
Yamuna biodiversity park
• This park was in news because of the locusts attack and
its impact on Delhi as it has a large green area as well –
providing foraging material for the locusts. Delhi has
around 22% of its area under green cover.
• It located on Yamuna river front is a 9770 hectares
biodiversity area in Delhi, India.
• It is developed by Delhi Development Authority (DDA)
with the technical help of Centre for Environmental
Management of Degraded Ecosystems (CEMDE),
University of Delhi.
• It serves as an ideal alternative habitat for migratory and
resident bird species.
• It also is designed to conserve the wild genetic resources
of agricultural crops and enhance groundwater recharge
and augment freshwater availability.
Q.8) Consider the following statements regarding UNCS:
1) The United nation Security Council consists of 10 non-
permanent members and five permanent members.
2) It is the only UN body with the authority to issue
binding resolutions to member states.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below
[a] 2 only
[b] 1 only
[c] Both 1 and 2
[d] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation-
• Recently, India has released a campaign brochure ahead
of the vote for the non-permanent member of the United • Ocean currents are primarily horizontal water
Nations Security Council (UNSC) in 2021-22. movements.
• An ocean current flows for great distances and together
About UNSC they create the global conveyor belt, which plays a
• What is it? ➔ The UNSC is one of the six principal dominant role in determining the climate of many of
organs of the United Nations and is charged with the Earth’s regions.
maintenance of international peace and security. • More specifically, ocean currents influence the
• Powers ➔ Its powers include the establishment of temperature of the regions through which they travel.
peacekeeping operations, the establishment of • For example, warm currents traveling along more
international sanctions, and the authorization of military temperate coasts increase the temperature of the area by
action through Security Council resolutions. warming the sea breezes that blow over them.
• It is the only UN body with the authority to issue binding • Perhaps the most striking example is the Gulf Stream,
resolutions to member states. which makes northwest Europe much more temperate
than any other region at the same latitude.
• Members ➔ The Security Council consists of fifteen
• Surface oceanic currents are sometimes wind driven and
members. Russia, the United Kingdom, France, China,
develop their typical clockwise spirals in the northern
and the United States—serve as the body’s five
hemisphere and counter-clockwise rotation in the
permanent members.
southern hemisphere due to imposed wind stresses.
• These permanent members can veto any substantive
• Deep ocean currents are driven by density and
Security Council resolution, including those on the
temperature gradients.
admission of new member states or candidates for
Secretary-General.
Q. 10) Lima, Peru, where the climate is cooler, being sub-
• The Security Council also has 10 non-permanent
tropical, than the tropical latitudes in which the area is
members, elected on a
located, due to the effect of the:
regional basis to serve two-year terms.
• The body’s presidency rotates monthly among its
[a] Labrador Current
members.
[b] Humboldt Current
[c] West wind drift
Q. 9) Which of the following factor/factors influence a
[d] Canary current
current's direction and strength:
1. wind
Answer (b) Humboldt Current
2. Coriolis effect
Explanation
3. Temperature and salinity differences
• Peru Current, also called Humboldt Current is a current
Choose the correct code:
of the southeast Pacific Ocean.
(a) 3 only
• It is a cold, low-salinity ocean current that flows north
(b) 1 and 3 only
along the western coast of South America.
(c) 1 and 2 only
• The zone where Peru Cold current meets the warm
(d) 1, 2 and 3
equatorial ocean waters is an important fishing zone.
• The Humboldt Current is a highly productive ecosystem.
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
It is the most productive eastern boundary current system.
Explanation-
It accounts for roughly 18-20% of the total worldwide
About Ocean Currents
marine fish catch.
•An ocean current is a continuous, directed movement of
• The Humboldt Current is named after the Prussian
sea water generated by a number of forces acting upon the
naturalist Alexander von Humboldt.
water, including
• The Humboldt has a considerable cooling influence on
a) wind,
the climate of Chile, Peru and Ecuador.
b) the Coriolis effect,
• It is also largely responsible for the aridity of Atacama
c) breaking waves,
Desert in northern Chile and coastal areas of Peru and also
d) cabbeling, and
of the aridity of southern Ecuador.
e) temperature and salinity differences.
• Depth contours, shoreline configurations, and
interactions with other currents influence a current's
direction and strength.

25 | P a g e
 15 JUNE

Q. 1) With reference to Shapes of economic recovery,

Consider the following statements:
1. U-shaped recovery is the most-
optimistic scenario in which the economy
quickly rises after an economic crash.
2. Z-shaped recovery is a scenario in which the economy,
after falling, struggles around a low growth rate for some
time, before rising gradually to usual levels.
Which of the following statements is/are correct
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation :
• Z-shaped recovery ➔ It is the most- optimistic scenario
in which the economy quickly rises after an economic
crash.
• U-shaped recovery ➔ It is a scenario in which the
economy, after falling, struggles around a low growth rate
for some time, before rising gradually to usual levels.

Other Shapes of economic recovery

• V-shaped recovery ➔ A V-shaped rebound would bring
a sharp dip in economic activity matched by an equally
brisk surge back to normality.
• W-shaped recovery ➔ A W-shaped recovery is a
dangerous creature. In this, growth falls and rises, but falls
again before recovering, thus forming a W-like chart. The
double-dip depicted by a W- shaped recovery can be due
to the second wave of the pandemic.
• L-shaped recovery ➔ In this, the economy fails to regain
the level of GDP even after years go by. The shape shows
that there is a permanent loss to the economy’s ability to
produce.
• J-shaped recovery ➔ The J-shaped recovery is a
somewhat unrealistic scenario, in which growth rises
sharply from the lows much higher than the trend-line and
stays there.

Q. 2) Which of the following statement is correct about

Bharat Stage Norms:
1. These are standards instituted by the Government of
India in 2000 to regulate emission of air pollutants from
motor vehicles.
2. The standards and the timeline for implementation of
norms are set by the
Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas

26 | P a g e
Choose the correct code given below
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (b) 1 only
Explanation- Second statement is NOT CORRECT
because The standards and the timeline for
implementation are
set by the Central Pollution Control Board(CPCB) under
the Ministry of
Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
• Recently, The Ministry of Road Transport and
Highways (MoRTH) has issued an order mandating a
coloured strip to identify four-wheeled BSVI vehicle.
• The order mandates a strip of green colour of 1 cm width
on top of the existing sticker carrying details of
registration for BS-VI vehicles of any fuel type i.e. for
petrol or CNG which have a light blue colour sticker and
a diesel vehicle which is of orange colour.
• These stickers will now have a green strip of 1 cm on
top for BS VI, as mandated.
Bharat stage norms
• These are standards instituted by the Government of
India in 2000 to regulate emission of air pollutants from
motor vehicles. They are based on the European(EURO)
emission standards.
• Implementation ➔ The standards and the timeline for
implementation are
set by the Central Pollution Control Board(CPCB) under
the Ministry of
Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
• The BS-VI emission standards, which have been
mandated w.e.f. 1st April,
2020, provide for stricter and cleaner emission norms.
• Benefits of BS-VI Standards ➔ Particulate matter(PM)
→ BS-VI norms brings down the emission of particulate
matter by almost 80% in case of petrol as well as diesel
power plants.
• Sulphur content → Sulphur traces in BS-VI fuel is five
times lower (10 ppm) as compared to sulphur traces in
BS-IV fuel (50 ppm).
• Nitrogen Oxide Content → Nitrogen oxide level for BS-
VI diesel engines and petrol engines will be brought down
by 70% and 25% respectively.
Q.3) Consider the following statements about Styrene
gas:
1. It is a flammable liquid used in the manufacturing of
polystyrene plastics, fiberglass, rubber, and latex.
27 | P a g e
2. This gas is not poisonous but if inhaled in large
amounts it may be fatal.
Which of the above statement is/are correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation-
• Recently there was leakage of Styrene gas from LG
Polymers' plant owned by South Korean electronics giant
LG, located at RRV Puram near Gopalapatnam, about 15
kms from the coast city.
About Styrene Gas
• What is it? ➔ It is a flammable liquid
• Uses ➔ used in the manufacturing of
polystyrene plastics, fiberglass, rubber, and
latex.
• It is also found in vehicle exhaust, cigarette
smoke, and in natural foods like fruits and
vegetables.
• When exposed to styrene ➔ Short-term exposure to the
substance can result in respiratory problems, irritation in
the eyes, irritation in the mucous membrane, and
gastrointestinal issues.
• Long-term exposure could drastically affect the central
nervous system and
lead to other related problems like peripheral neuropathy.
It could also lead to cancer and depression in some cases.
• Symptoms ➔ Symptoms include headache, hearing
loss, fatigue, weakness, difficulty in
concentrating etc.
• "This gas is not poisonous and hence there is nothing to
worry to that extent. If inhaled in large amounts it may be
fatal. Gas by itself gives you irritation and causes
irritation in mucus membrane.
• Water acts as an antidote to styrene and those with
exposure should douse themselves with water and drink a
lot of water.
Q.4) Which of the following is/are true about Sarfaesi
Act:
1. It promotes the setting up of asset reconstruction
companies (ARCs) and asset securitization companies
(SCs).
2. It allows banks and other financial institution to auction
residential or commercial properties to recover loans.
3. The law does not apply to loans below ₹100,000 or
where remaining debt is below 20% of the original
principal.
Select the correct code given below: also its owners.
(a) 1 and 3 only • Services ➔ These banks provide a wide range of regular
(b) 2 only banking and financial services.
(c) 1 and 2 only • Co-operative Banks are broadly classified into Urban
(d) 1, 2 and 3 and Rural co-operative banks based on their region of
operation.
Answer (d) 1, 2 and 3 • Who oversees these banks? ➔
Explanation: - Registered under the States Cooperative Societies Act.
• The Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial - They also come under the regulatory ambit of the
Assets and Enforcement of Security Act of 2002 Reserve Bank of India
(SARFAESI Act) applies to cooperative banks as well, a
• Sificance of Cooperative Banks ➔ It has an extensive
five-judge Constitution bench has ruled.
branch network all over the country, making credit easily
• Banks utilize Sarfaesi Act as an effective tool for bad
available even to rural areas. It accounts for 67 per cent of
loans (Non-Performing Asset) recovery and is effective
total rural credit.
against secured loans.
• It provides support to small and marginal farmers for
• It promotes the setting up of asset reconstruction
buying inputs, storage and marketing assistance.
companies (ARCs) and asset securitization companies
Q.5) With reference to India’s first online waste exchange
(SCs) to deal with NPAs accumulated with the banks and
platform, Consider the following statements:
financial institutions.
1. Its purpose is to ensure safe disposal of toxic
• The Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial
wastes with the help of monitoring, scrutinizing and
Assets and Enforcement of Securities Interest Act, 2002
auditing of the waste.
(also known as the SARFAESI Act) is an Indian law.
2. It will be implemented by Ministry of Environment,
• It allows banks and other financial institution to auction
Forest and Climate Change.
residential or commercial properties (of Defaulter) to
recover loans.
Which of the following statements is/are correct:
• It provides the bank with the power to take over and
(a) 1 only
auction authority of residential or commercial properties,
(b) 2 only
to recover the loan.
(c) Both 1 and 2
• The first asset reconstruction company (ARC) of India,
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
ARCIL, was set up under this act.
• The law does not apply to unsecured loans, loans below
Answer (a) 1 only
₹100,000 or where remaining debt is below 20% of the
Explanation- Second statement is NOT correct because It
original principal.
will be implemented by Andhra Pradesh Environment
• This law allowed the creation of asset reconstruction
Management Corporation(EMC).
companies (ARC) and allowed banks to sell their non-
performing assets to ARC's.
About India’s first online waste exchange platform
• Banks are allowed to take possession of the collateral
• Andhra Pradesh(AP) government has launched
property and sell it without the permission of a court.
country’s first online Waste Exchange Platform for
• Under this act secured creditors (banks or financial
industrial waste.
institutions) have many right for enforcement of security
interest under section 13 of SARFAESI Act, 2002. If • Purpose ➔ To ensure safe disposal of toxic
borrower of financial assistance makes any default in wastes with the help of monitoring, scrutinizing and
repayment of loan or any installment and his account is auditing of the waste.
classified as Non performing Asset by secured • Besides, the platform will also encourage proper
creditor,then secured creditor may require before expiry utilisation of waste and promote 6Rs — reduce, reuse,
of period of limitation by written notice. recycle, refurbish, redesign and re- manufacturing of
waste items.
About Co-operative Banks
Q.6) MARPOL Convention recently seen in news is a:
• What it is? ➔ Co-operative banks are financial entities
(a) Human rights convention
established on a co-operative basis and belonging to their
(b) Marine environmental convention
members.
(c) Cultural and natural heritage convention
• This means that the customers of a co-operative bank are
(d) Arms control convention

28 | P a g e

Answer (d) Marine environmental convention
Explanation-
• The Ministry of Shipping has informed about the steps
taken for prevention and control of pollution arising from
ships in the sea and in the inland waterways under the
MARPOL Convention(Convention for Prevention of
Marine Pollution).
• What is it? ➔ MARPOL is the main international
convention aimed at the prevention of pollution from
ships caused by operational or accidental causes.
• MARPOL is short for International Convention for the
Prevention of Pollution from Ships and 73/78 short for the
years 1973 and 1978) is one of the most important
international marine environmental conventions.
• It was developed by the International Maritime
Organization with an objective to minimize pollution of
the oceans and seas, including dumping, oil and air
pollution.
• Timeline ➔ The Protocol of 1978 was
adopted in response to a number of tanker accidents in
1976–1977.
• The current convention is a combination of 1973
Convention and the 1978 Protocol, which entered into
force on 2 October 1983.
• As of January 2018, 156 states are parties to the
convention, being flag states of 99.42% of the world's
shipping tonnage.
• All ships flagged under countries that are signatories to
MARPOL are subject to its requirements, regardless of
where they sail and member nations are responsible for
vessels registered on their national ship registry.
• India Status ➔ India is a signatory to MARPOL.
• Functions ➔ The Convention includes regulations
aimed at preventing and minimizing pollution from ships
– both accidental pollution and that from routine
operations – and currently includes six technical Annexes.
• It has six annexes (I to VI) and it deals with prevention
of (1) Pollution from ships by Oil, (2) Noxious liquid
substances, (3) Dangerous goods in packaged form, (4)
Sewage, (5) Garbage and (6) Air pollution from ships
respectively.
Q. 7) ‘NSafe’ often seen in news is a:
(a) Face Mask
(b) Hand Sanitizer
(c) Personal Protective Equipment kit
(d) Ventilator
Answer (a) Face Mask
Explanation:
• An IIT Delhi startup ‘Nanosafe Solutions’ has launched
29 | P a g e
an antimicrobial and washable face mask ‘NSafe’, which
is reusable up to 50 launderings, thus greatly cutting down
the cost of use.
• It is a triple-layered product consisting of ➔
1. Inner hydrophilic layer for comfort,
2. Middle layer having antimicrobial activity and
3. Outer most layer having water and oil repellent
behaviour.
• Efficiency ➔ The mask has 99.2% bacterial filtration
efficiency along with breathability and splash resistance.
• It is believed to be the first fabric based antimicrobial
face mask launched in India.
Q.8) Spiders building their webs on plants is an example
of:
(a) Commensalism
(b) Parasitism
(c) Amensalism
(d) Mutualism
Answer (a) Commensalism
Explanation - Commensalism describes a relationship
between two living organisms where one benefits and the
other is not significantly harmed or helped. Hence spiders
building their webs on plants is an example of
Commensalism where spider get benefit but there is no
significant harm on plant.
About Symbiosis
• Symbiosis is any type of a close and long-term
biological interaction between two different biological
organisms, be it mutualistic, commensalistic, or parasitic.
1) Mutualism or interspecies reciprocal altruism is a long-
term relationship between individuals of different species
where both individuals benefit. For example, Coral reefs
are the result of mutualisms between coral organisms and
various types of algae which live inside them.
2) Commensalism describes a relationship between two
living organisms where one benefits and the other is not
significantly harmed or helped.
3) Parasitism is a symbiotic relationship between species,
where one organism, the parasite, lives on or in another
organism, the host, causing it some harm, and is adapted
structurally to this way of life.
4) Amensalism is an asymmetric interaction where one
species is harmed or killed by the other, and one is
unaffected by the other.
Q. 9) In the map given below, Which of the following lake
of North America is being marked with the arrow:
(a) Lake Erie
(b) Lake Ontario
(c) Lake Huron
(d) Lake Michigan
Answer: (a) Lake Erie
Q. 10) Consider the following statements regarding Great
Lakes of North America:
1) These are a series of interconnected saltwater lakes.
2) Lakes Michigan and Huron join at the Straits of
Mackinac.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (a) 2 only
Explanation- First statement is NOT correct because the
Great Lakes are a series of interconnected freshwater
lakes which connect to the Atlantic Ocean through the
Saint Lawrence Seaway.
About Great lakes of North America
• They comprise lake Superior, Huron, Michigan, Erie,
and Ontario in the order of largest to smallest.
• Hydrologically, there are only four lakes, because lakes
Michigan and Huron join at the Straits of Mackinac.
• The lakes form the Great Lakes Waterway.
• The Great Lakes are the largest group of freshwater
lakes on Earth by total area, and second-largest by total
volume, containing 21% of the world's surface fresh water
by volume.
• Due to their sea-like characteristics (rolling waves,
sustained winds, strong currents, great depths, and distant
horizons) the five Great Lakes have also long been
referred to as inland seas.
30 | P a g e
• Lake Superior is the second-largest lake in the world by
area, and the largest freshwater lake by surface area in
North America.
16 JUNE
Q. 1) With reference to Coral Triangle Initiative on Coral
Reefs, Fisheries, and Food Security (CTI-CFF) , Consider
the following statements:
1. It is a multilateral partnership of three countries
working together to sustain extraordinary marine and
coastal resources.
2. The Coral Triangle countries support people-centered
biodiversity conservation, sustainable development,
poverty reduction and equitable benefit sharing.
Which of the following statements is/are correct
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (a) 2 only
Explanation : First statement is NOT correct because
Coral Triangle Initiative is a multilateral partnership of
six countries (Indonesia, Malaysia,Philippines, Papua
New Guinea, Solomon Islands, Timor-Leste).
More to Know
•The Coral Triangle Day 2020 was observed recently.
• The Coral Triangle Day is an annual event started by
Coral Triangle Initiative(CTI) since 2012 in conjunction
with the World Oceans Day on June 8.
• Aim ➔ To celebrate and raise awareness of
the ocean conservation and protection especially of the
Coral Triangle.
• Coral Triangle Initiative(CTI) ➔ It is a multilateral
partnership of six countries (Indonesia, Malaysia,
Philippines, Papua New Guinea, Solomon Islands, Timor-
Leste).
• Coral Triangle ➔ It is a vast ocean expense that
geographically spreads across 6 countries in Asia and the
Pacific: Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Papua New
Guinea, Solomon Islands, and Timor Leste.
• Through the CTI-CFF, the Coral Triangle countries
support people-centered biodiversity conservation,
sustainable development, poverty reduction and equitable
benefit sharing.
• The CTI-CFF seeks to address both poverty reduction
through economic development, food security,
sustainable livelihoods for coastal communities and
biodiversity conservation through the protection of
species, habitats and ecosystems.
Q. 2) Which of the following statement is correct about
Hope Mars Mission:
1. It is the first uncrewed, interplanetary satellite
spearheaded by the Canadian Space Agency.
2. It will be the first probe to provide a complete picture
of the Martian atmosphere and its layers.
Choose the correct code given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
gases into space over the span of one Martian year.
Q.3) Recently the Brown Rock Chat has almost
disappeared from the heart
of the National Capital, visible only on the outskirts. With
reference to this, Consider the following statements about
Brown Rock Chat:
1. It is nearly endemic to India and found mainly in
northern and central India.
2. It is listed as vulnerable as per IUCN Red List of
Threatened Species.
Which of the above statement is/are correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (a) 1 only
Explanation- Second statement is NOT correct because It
is listed as ‘Least Concern’ as per IUCN Red List of
Threatened Species.
About Brown Rock chat
• It is also called as Indian Chat which is a bird
species of the family Muscicapidae.
• Distribution ➔ It is found mainly in northern and central
India.
• It is nearly endemic to India, distributed north of the
Narmada, west to Gujarat and east to Bengal bordered on
the north by the Himalayas.
• It is commonly found in agricultural fields, in buildings,
and suburban areas.
• It is often found on old buildings and rocky areas.
• It is protected under Schedule IV of the Wildlife
Protection Act, 1972.

Answer (b) 2 only

Explanation-
• First statement is NOT CORRECT because The Hope
Mars Mission, also called the Emirates Mars Mission,
spearheaded by the United Arab Emirates Space Agency.
• It is the first planetary science mission led by an Arab- Q.4) Which of the following is/are an indicator of QS
Islamic country. World University rankings :
• It is the first uncrewed, interplanetary satellite of the 1. Academic reputation
UAE. 2. Faculty/student ratio
• It will be the first probe to provide a complete picture of 3. Salary given to Faculty
the Martian atmosphere and its layers when it reaches the Select the correct code given below:
red planet's orbit in 2021. (a) 2 and 3 only
• It will help answer key questions about the global (b) 2 only
Martian atmosphere and the loss of hydrogen and oxygen (c) 1 and 2 only

31 | P a g e
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer (c) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Salary given to faculty is not an indicator in
QS World University rankings
About QS World University rankings
• 17th edition of the QS World University rankings has
been released recently.
• Published by ➔ They are published annually by global
higher education consultancy Quacquarelli Symonds.
• Parameters ➔ It is based on six indicators:
1)academic reputation,
2)employer reputation,
3)citations per faculty,
4) faculty/student ratio,
5)international faculty ratio and
6) international student ratio.
• It rates the worlds top 1000 universities.
• Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT) is ranked
as the world’s best university followed by Stanford
University and Harvard University.
• IIT Bombay is ranked 172nd while IISc is 185th and IIT
Delhi is at 193rd place. A total of 21 Indian higher
education institutions are in the top 1000.
Q. 5) With reference to Central Board of Indirect Taxes
and Customs (CBIC), Consider the following statements:
1. It is the nodal national agency responsible for
administering Central Excise, Service Tax & Narcotics in
India.
2. It is a subsidiary of the Department of Revenue under
the Ministry of Finance.
Which of the following statements is/are correct:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation- Central Board of Indirect Taxes and
Customs launches its flagship programme 'Turant
Customs' at Bengaluru & Chennai.
About Turant customs
• It is a giant leap forward to leverage technology for
faster Customs clearance of imported goods.
• Importers will now get their goods cleared from
Customs after a faceless assessment is done remotely by
the Customs officers located outside the port of import.
• Now, the goods imported at Chennai may be assessed
by the Customs officers located at Bengaluru and vice
32 | P a g e
versa, as assigned by the Customs’ automated system.
• Turant Customs is a mega reform for the ease of doing
business.
• The start of Turant Customs at Bengaluru and Chennai
will be the first phase of the All India roll out which would
get completed by 31st December this year.
• The first phase will cover imports of Mechanical,
Electrical and Electronics machineries at the ports,
airports and ICDs of Bengaluru and Chennai.
• Benefits ➔ Turant Customs will benefit the importers
by eliminating routine interface with the Customs officers
and providing uniformity in assessment across the
country.
Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs
• Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs is a
subsidiary of the Department of Revenue under the
Ministry of Finance.
• It is the nodal national agency responsible for
administering Customs, GST, Central Excise, Service
Tax & Narcotics in India.
• Tasks ➔ It deals with the tasks of formulation of policy
concerning levy and collection of Customs, Central
Excise duties, Central Goods & Services Tax and IGST,
and it also works for the prevention of smuggling and
administration.
•Administrative authority ➔ The Board is the
administrative authority for its subordinate organizations,
including Custom Houses, Central Excise and Central
GST Commissionerates and the Central Revenues
Control Laboratory.
Q.6) Consider the following statements with reference to
ANANYA recently seen in news :
1. It is a Nano-technology based disinfectant
spray to disinfect all types of surfaces.
2. It is developed by Defence Research and Development
Organisation.
Which of the following statements is/are correct:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (a) 1 only
Explanation- Second statement is NOT correct because
ANANYA is developed by a deemed university, Defence
Institute of Advanced Technology (DIAT).
• ANANYA can be used by anyone, from a common man
to a healthcare worker, for individual as well as large scale
use.
• This spray can be used on masks, PPEs, hospital linens,
as well as other likely contaminated surfaces such as
medical instruments, elevator buttons, door knobs,
corridors and rooms.
• It is developed through a Nano-technology based
disinfectant spray to combat COVID-19 by disinfecting
all types of surfaces.
Q. 7) Which of following statements is/are correct about
Asiatic Lions:
1. The first Lion Census was conducted by the Nawab of
Junagadh in 1936.
2. They live in a compact tract of dry deciduous forest and
open grassy scrublands in southwestern part of Saurashtra
region of Gujarat.
Which of the following statements is/are correct:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (c) Both a and b
Explanation:
ASIATIC LION
• According to a recent census, the number of Asiatic
lions have now risen by 29% over five years to an
estimated 674 in the Gir forest region and other revenue
areas of coastal Saurashtra.
• Scientific Name ➔ Panthera Leo Persica.
• Characteristics ➔ Asiatic lions are slightly smaller than
African lions.
• The most striking morphological character is a
longitudinal fold of skin running along belly of Asiatic
Lions.
• Habitat and Distribution ➔ At present Gir National Park
and Wildlife Sanctuary in Gujarat is the only abode of the
Asiatic lion.
• They live in a compact tract of dry deciduous forest and
open grassy scrublands in southwestern part of Saurashtra
region of Gujarat.
• Status ➔ Listed in Schedule I of Wildlife (Protection)
Act 1972, in Appendix I of CITES and as Endangered on
IUCN Red List.
Poonam Avlokan
• The first Lion Census was conducted by the Nawab of
Junagadh in 1936.
• Since 1965, the Forest Department has been regularly
conducting the Lion Census every five years.
• The regular Lion Census is conducted once every five
33 | P a g e
years. The last Census was conducted in 2015.
• The Lion Census usually runs for more than two days,
including a preliminary census and a final census.
• However, the Poonam Avlokan is carried out for 24
hours assessing the number of lions and their locations in
their respective jurisdictions.
• The Forest Department invites NGOs, experts and
wildlife enthusiasts to join the Census for transparency
and augmenting manpower.
• Whereas the Poonam Avlokan exercise is conducted
only by forest staff.
• Thus, the Lion Census experiences larger participation
of the people compared to the Poonam Avalokan exercise.
• The Lion Census is done using the block counting
method — in which census enumerators remain stationed
at water points in a given block and estimate abundance
of lions in that block, based on direct sighting of lions who
need to drink water at least once in 24 hours during the
summer.
• Under Poonam Avlokan exercise, the teams keep
moving in their respective territories and make their
estimates based on inputs provided by lion trackers and
on chance sightings.
Gir National Park
• The Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary is located
in the Junagadh district of Gujarat.
• The Gir Forests is the only natural habitat of Asiatic
lions. It was declared as a sanctuary in 1965 and a national
park in 1975.
• Gir is often linked with "Maldharis" who have survived
through the ages by having a symbiotic relationship with
the lions.
• Maldharis are religious pastoral communities living in
Gir. Their settlements are called "nesses".
Q.8) Babesia recently seen in news is a:
(a) Tiny parasite that infects red blood cells.
(b) Robots to help health workers in conducting a thermal
screening.
(c) A new type of matter discovered inside neutron stars.
(d) Group of viruses affecting nervous system.
Answer (a) Tiny parasite that infects red blood cells.
Explanation -
Babesia
• Babesia is a tiny parasite that infects red blood cells.
• Infection with Babesia is called babesiosis.
• The parasitic infection is usually transmitted by a tick
bite, Babesiosis occurs in both Animals and Humans.
• Babesiosis outbreak was reported in Girforest in 2020,
and around two dozen lions were reported to be killed.
Q. 9) Brook’s Range is a mountain range in far northern
North America is considered as an extension of the:

(a) Andes Mountain

(b) Caucasus Mountains
(c) Blue Ridge Mountains
(d) Rocky Mountains

Answer: (d) Rocky Mountains

Brook’s Range
• Located in Northern Alaska.
• Extends in the east-west direction and is a continuation
of the Rocky.

Sierra Nevada
• The Sierra Nevada Mountain Range runs north-to-south
along the west coast of the United States mostly in the
state of California and some in the state of Nevada.
• The highest point in the Sierra Nevada Mountains is
Mount Whitney at 14,505 feet, which is also the tallest
mountain in the lower 48 United States.
• The largest trees in the world, the giant sequoia trees,
live in the Sierra Nevada. They can grow up to 270 feet
tall and over 25 feet in diameter.
• The Sierra Nevada is also home to Yosemite National
Park and Lake Tahoe.
• The Sierra Nevada Mountains are fault-block
mountains, meaning they were formed along a fault in the
Earth's crust.
Q. 10) What is the correct order of Mountain ranges of
North America from West to East? Rocky Mountains
•The Rocky Mountains form the longest mountain range
(a) Appalachian Mountains, Rocky Mountains, Sierra in North America and the second longest range in the
Nevada world.
(b) Rocky Mountains, Appalachian Mountains, Sierra • They stretch 3,000 miles north-to-south from New
Nevada Mexico, across the United States to Montana, and well
(c) Sierra Nevada, Rocky Mountains, Appalachian into Canada. The highest point of the Rockies is Mount
Mountains Elbert in Colorado which rises 14,440 feet above sea
(d) Sierra Nevada, Appalachian Mountains, Rocky level.
Mountains • The Continental Divide for North America is located
along the Rocky Mountains. It is at this point that water
Answer (c) Sierra Nevada, Rocky Mountains, flows either to the Atlantic Ocean in the east or to the
Appalachian Mountains Pacific Ocean in the west.
Explanation- • The Rockies are known for their distinct seasons with
warm, rainy summers and cold snowy winters.
• Much of the Rocky Mountains is covered with forests of
spruces trees, pines, oaks, junipers, and firs. A wide
variety of wildlife can be found in the Rockies including
bighorn sheep, badgers, grizzly bears, black bears,
coyotes, elk, bighorn sheep, and white-tailed deer.

Appalachian Mountains
• The Appalachian Mountains run for 1,500 miles along

34 | P a g e
the east coast of the United States from northern Alabama one of the world's highest airstrip.
to Maine. • DBO is located only 9 km away from the Line of Actual
• The highest point of the Appalachians is 6,684 feet at Control with China.
Mount Mitchell . • Daulat Beg Oldi lies near the easternmost point of the
• The Appalachians are part of a temperate forest biome Karakoram Range in a cold desert region in the far north
and are mostly covered with a variety of trees including of India, just 8 km south of the Chinese border and 9 km
pine trees, spruce, birch, and maple trees. northwest of the Aksai Chin Line of Actual Control
• Animals that can be found in the Appalachians include between China and India.
squirrels, cottontail rabbits, white-tailed deer, wolves, • Other than Siachen Glacier military bases, it is India's
beavers, black bears, and the red-tailed hawk. northernmost settlement. The nearest civilian town is
• Some of the smaller ranges within the Appalachians Murgo to the south, which has a small population of
include the Great Smoky Mountains, the Blue Ridge Baltis.
Mountains, Green Mountains, White Mountains, • Timeline ➔ The construction of the DSDBO first started
Longfellow Mountains, and the Berkshires. in 2000 and was to be completed by 2012. The road,
which was being monitored by the PMO, was aligned
17 JUNE with the Shyok riverbed that was damaged every summer
during flooding. Later, major portions of the road were
Q. 1) With reference to Daulat Beg Oldie , Consider the realigned, keeping them away from the river to avoid the
following statements: annual damage.
1. It is India’s northernmost corner and known as Sub- • Colonel Chewang Rinchen bridge ➔ In October,
Sector North. defence minister Rajnath Singh inaugurated the 430-m
2. It lies near the easternmost point of the Karakoram Colonel Chewang Rinchen bridge that joins Durbuk to
Range. DBO. India has decided to not stop road construction on
Which of the following statements is/are correct its side of the LAC despite the border confrontations.
(a) 2 only Significance ➔
(b) 1 only • The road will help manage the border and the areas
(c) Both 1 and 2 adjoining Aksai Chin, Chip Chap River and Jiwan Nalla.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 • It will also ensure faster deployment of troops in the
area. Before the laying of the road, the only way to reach
Answer (c) Both 1 and 2 the area was via the ALG, where heavy- lift aircraft, such
Explanation : as the C-130J, can land.
• In the reporting on the LAC stand-off, the Darbuk-
Shyok-Daulat Beg Oldie (DSDBO) road has often
appeared in news.
• Location ➔ The road from Darbuk traverses at an
altitude of 14,000 feet and reaches Shyok, the last Indian
village in the region, between Shyok and Karakoram Pass
(that divides Ladakh from China’s Xinjiang province) lies
DBO, a plateau at an altitude of over 16,000 feet and the
location of an Advanced Landing Ground (ALG) used by
the air force to drop supplies.
• DBO is India’s northernmost corner, which in army
parlance is called Sub- Sector North and building a road
till here has been of vital importance to India.
• Daulat Beg Oldi is a historic campsite and current
military base located in Ladakh, India on an ancient trade
route connecting Ladakh to the Tarim Basin.
• It is named after Sultan Said Khan (Daulat Beg), who
died here on his return journey after the invasion of
Ladakh and Kashmir. The Chip Chap River flows just to
the south of Daulat Beg Oldi from east to west. Daulat
Beg Oldie also has an airstrip at an altitude of 5065 meters

35 | P a g e

Q. 2) Consider the following Pair:
1. Vamsadhara River - Andhra Pradesh &
Water Dispute - Odisha
2. Krishna River Water Dispute - Karnataka & Goa
3. Cauvery River Water Dispute - Karnataka &Tamil
Nadu
Which of the following Pair given below is correctly
matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2,3
Answer (c) 1 and 3 only
Explanation- Second match is NOT correct because
States concerned in Krishna river water dispute is
Karnataka, Maharashtra, Andhra pradesh.
• Goa, Karnataka and Maharashtra are the concerned
states in Mahadayi Water Disputes Tribunal.
• Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal- States concerned:
Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Puducherry and Kerala
• Andhra Pradesh and Odisha CM recently held talks to
iron out all differences with regard to the sharing of
Vamsadhara River waters.
About Vamsadhara River
• Location ➔ River Vamsadhara is an important east-
flowing river between Rushikulya and Godavari, in
Odisha and Andhra Pradesh.
• Origin ➔ The river originates in the border of Thuamul
Rampur in the Kalahandi district and Kalyansinghpur in
Rayagada district of Odisha.
• It is an east-flowing river which originates in Kalahandi
district of Odisha, flows in Odisha, along its boundary
with Andhra Pradesh and finally joins the Bay of Bengal
at Kalingapatnam, Andhra Pradesh.
• It is the main river of north-eastern Andhra region and
the Boddepalli Rajagopala Rao Project was constructed
on it to meet the irrigation needs of the region.
• It runs for a distance of about 254 kilometres, where it
joins the Bay of Bengal at Kalingapatnam, Andhra
Pradesh.
• The total catchment area of the river basin ➔ 10,830
square kilometres.
• The dispute ➔ Andhra Pradesh wants to build the
Neradi bridge across the river which will be possible only
after Odisha’s consent.
• Odisha argues that the flood flow canal would result in
drying up the existing river bed and consequent shifting
of the river affecting the groundwater table.
36 | P a g e
Q.3) Consider the following statements about Black
Panther:
1. It is as shy as a normal leopard and very difficult to
detect.
2. It is mostly found in densely forested areas of Western
India.
Which of the above statement is/are correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (a) 1 only
Explanation- Second statement is NOT correct because
Black panther is mostly found in densely forested areas of
southern India.
•Recently, A black panther was spotted in Goa’s Netravali
Sanctuary.
About Black Panther
• A black panther is the melanistic colour variant of any
Panthera, particularly of the leopard in Asia and Africa,
and the jaguar in the Americas.
• It is as shy as a normal leopard and very difficult to
detect.
• Habitat ➔ It is mostly found in densely forested areas
of southern India.
Areas where black panther has been spotted earlier ➔
○ Periyar Tiger Reserve (Kerala)
○ Bhadra Tiger Reserve, Dandeli-Anshi Tiger Reserve
and Kabini Wildlife Sanctuary (Karnataka)
○ Achanakmar Tiger Reserve (Chhattisgarh)
○ Mhadei Wildlife Sanctuary (Goa)
○ Mudumalai Tiger Reserve (Tamil Nadu)
Netravali Wildlife Sanctuary
•Location ➔ Netravali Wildlife Sanctuary is located in
South Eastern Goa and constitutes one of the vital
corridors of the Western Ghats.
• Bounded By ➔ Cotigao wildlife sanctuary on the
eastern side and Bhagwan Mahaveer Sanctuary
andMollem National Park on the northern side.
•River ➔ Netravali or Neturli is an important tributary of
River Zuari, which originates in the sanctuary.
• Important waterfalls ➔ Savari and Mainapi.
• Forests ➔ mostly consist of moist deciduous vegetation
interspersed with evergreen and semi-evergreen habitat.
• Fauna ➔ Leopard, Giant Squirrel, Mouse Deer, Nilgiri
Wood Pigeon and Ceylon Frogmouth.
Other Protected Areas in Goa ➔
○ Cotigao Wildlife Sanctuary
○ Mhadei Wildlife Sanctuary
○ Bhagwan Mahaveer Sanctuary
○ Bondla Wildlife Sanctuary
○ Mollem National Park
○ Dr Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary
Q.4) Which of the following is/are INCORRECT about
Sundarbans:
1. The Sundarbans is a mangrove area in the delta formed
by the confluence of the Ganges, Brahmaputra and
Meghna Rivers in the Bay of Bengal.
2. It is home to threatened wildlife species such as the
estuarine crocodile, Royal Bengal Tiger, Northern River
Terrapin, Gangetic dolphin, and Fishing Cat.
Select the correct code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
According to the latest estimation of tiger numbers in the
Indian Sunderbans by the West Bengal Forest
Department, the tiger count for the year 2019-20 rose to
96, from 88 in 2018-19.
About Sundarbans
• The Sundarbans is a mangrove area in the delta formed
by the confluence of the Ganges, Brahmaputra and
Meghna Rivers in the Bay of Bengal.
• The Sunderbans Delta is the only mangrove forest in the
world inhabited by tigers.
• It spans from the Hooghly River in India's state of West
Bengal to the Baleswar River in Bangladesh.
• Indian Sundarbans constitute over 60% of the country’s
total mangrove forest area.
◎ Indian Sundarbans has been recognised as UNESCO
World Heritage Site in 1987 and ‘Wetland of
International Importance’ under the Ramsar Convention
in January, 2019.
•Life in these mangrove forests ➔ It is home to rare and
globally threatened species, such as estuarine crocodile ,
Northern River Terrapin, Water monitor lizard, Gangetic
dolphin, olive ridley turtles, Irrawaddy Dolphin, and the
Fishing Cat.
•It comprises closed and open mangrove forests,
agriculturally used land, mudflats and barren land, and is
37 | P a g e
intersected by multiple tidal streams and channels.
•Four protected areas in the Sundarbans are enlisted as
UNESCO World Heritage Sites, viz Sundarbans National
Park, Sundarbans West, Sundarbans South and
Sundarbans East Wildlife Sanctuaries.
• It is home to many rare and globally threatened wildlife
species such as the estuarine crocodile, Royal Bengal
Tiger, Water monitor lizard, Gangetic dolphin, and olive
ridley turtles.
Q. 5) Who among the following was also known as
Gurudev, Kabiguru, and Biswakabi?
(a) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) Bankimchandra Chatterjee
(c) Maithlisharan Gupta
(d) Bhartendu Harishchnadra
Answer (a) Rabindranath Tagore
Explanation- National Gallery of Modern Art will
organise a Virtual Tour titled “Gurudev – Journey of the
Maestro through his visual vocabulary” to commemorate
the 159th birth anniversary of Rabindranath Tagore.
About Rabindranath Tagore
• Rabindranath Tagore also known by his pen name
Bhanu Singha Thakur (Bhonita), and also known by
names such as Gurudev, Kabiguru, and Biswakabi, was a
Bengali poet, writer, music composer, and painter from
the Indian subcontinent.
• He is sometimes referred to as "the Bard of Bengal"
•He was founder of a unique educational institution
Visva-Bharati
• He reshaped Bengali literature and music, as well as
Indian art with Contextual Modernism in the late 19th and
early 20th centuries.
• Tagore was primarily known as a writer, poet,
philosopher and aesthetician, music composer .
Contributions ➔
◎ He wrote the National Anthems of India and
Bangladesh.
◎ He left his imprint on art and played a role in
transforming its practices and ushering into modernism.
Awards ➔
◎ In 1913, he became the first Indian to receive a Nobel
Prize in Literature for his novel ‘Geetanjali’.
◎ Role in the freedom struggle ➔ He denounced British
imperialism, yet he did not fully support or agree with
Gandhi and his Non-cooperation Movement.
◎ In his writings, he also voiced his support of Indian
nationalists.
Q.6) Consider the following statements with reference to
Official Secrets Act, 1923 :
1. It states that one cannot approach, inspect, or even pass
over a prohibited government site or area.
2. A person prosecuted under this Act can be charged with
the crime even if the action was unintentional and not
intended to endanger the security of the state.
3.If the magistrate determines, search warrants may be
issued at any time under this Act.
Which of the following statements is/are correct:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3
Answer (d) 1, 2, 3
Explanation- Under operation named Desert Chase,
Rajasthan Police arrested two
civil defence employees in Jaipur based on Military
Intelligence (MI) inputs that they had been passing on
sensitive information to
Pakistan's spy agency ISI . Both were arrested under
relevant sections of the Official Secrets Act,1923.
• Involved bodies ➔ The operation was jointly carried out
by the Army, UP ATS, and Rajasthan Police, and was
named Operation ‘Desert Chase’.
• Background ➔ The work on the “operation” began in
August 2019, when the MI Lucknow, through its sleuths,
learnt about an espionage agent near Sri Ganganagar who
was passing military information to his handlers in
Pakistan.
Official Secrets Act 1923
• The Official Secrets Act 1923 is India's anti-espionage
act held over from the British colonial period.
• It states clearly that actions which involve helping an
enemy state against India are strongly condemned.
• It also states that one cannot approach, inspect, or even
pass over a prohibited government site or area like an
electrical substation.
• According to this Act, helping the enemy state can be in
the form of communicating a sketch, plan, model of an
official secret, or of official codes or passwords, to the
enemy.
Prosecution and penalties
• Punishments under the Act range from three to life
imprisonment (if intent is to declare war against India -
section 5 )imprisonment.
• A person prosecuted under this Act can be charged with
the crime even if the action was unintentional and not
intended to endanger the security of the state.
38 | P a g e
• The Act only empowers persons in positions of authority
to handle official secrets, and others who handle it in
prohibited areas or outside them are liable for
punishment.
• Under the Act, search warrants may be issued at any
time if the magistrate determines that based on the
evidence there is enough danger to the security of the
state.
• When a company is seen as the offender under this Act,
everyone involved with the management of the company,
including the board of directors, can be liable for
punishment.
• In the case of a newspaper, everyone – including the
editor, publisher and the proprietor — can be imprisoned
for an offense.
Q. 7) Which of following statements is/are correct about
Challenger Deep:
1. It is the deepest known point in the Earth’s oceans.
2. The Challenger Deep is located in the Western Pacific
Ocean at the southern end of the Mariana Trench.
Choose the correct code given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (c) Both a and b
Explanation:
• Kathy Sullivan, known as the first American woman to
walk in space has also become the first woman to reach a
Challenger Deep.
• Location ➔ It is the deepest known point in
the Earth’s oceans with a depth of around
10,984m.
• It is located in the Western Pacific Ocean at
the southern end of the Mariana Trench
near the Mariana Islands group.
• Significance of Deep Ocean Areas ➔
Finding out about the deep ocean areas can potentially
reveal new sources for medical drugs, food, energy
resources and other products.
• It can also help to predict earthquakes and tsunamis and
help us understand how we are affecting and getting
affected by the Earth’s
environment.
Q.8) Recently released, Nature Index 2020 is a database
compiled by?
(a) Nature Research
(b) GreenPeace International
(c) UN Environment Programme
(d) International Union for Conservation of Nature

Answer : Nature Research

• Three of the autonomous institutions of the Department
of Science & Technology, Government of India have
found their place among top 30 Indian Institutions
including universities, IITs, IISERs, and Research
Institutions and Labs as per Nature Index 2020 ratings
based on the research published in the top journals, a
measure of research quality.
• These are the Indian Association for the Cultivation of
Science (IACS), Kolkata at 7th position, Jawaharlal
Nehru Centre for Advanced Scientific Research
(JNCASR), Bangalore at 14th position and S. N. Bose
National Centre for Basic Sciences, Kolkata at 30th
position.
• Keeping out CSIR, which is a cluster of institutions,
Q. 10) Which of the following is largest river system in
IACS is among the top three institutions in quality
the United States?
Chemistry Research in India. JNCASR ranks 4th among
(a) Potomac
academic institutions in life sciences, 10th in Chemistry
(b) Colorado
and Physical Sciences, 10th among Indian academic
(c) Mississippi
institutions, and 469th in global ranking.
(d) Columbia
Nature Index
Answer (c) Mississippi
• The Nature Index is a database of author affiliation
Explanation :
information collated from research articles published in
• Mississippi is the largest river system in the United
an independently selected group of 82 high-quality
States
science journals.
• The Mississippi River is the second-longest river and
• The database is compiled by Nature Research.
chief river of the second-largest drainage system on the
• The Nature Index provides a close to real-time proxy of
North American continent, second only to the Hudson
high-quality research output and collaboration at the
Bay drainage system
institutional, national and regional level.
• With its many tributaries, the Mississippi's watershed
drains all or parts of 32 U.S. states and two Canadian
Q. 9) Which of the following Rivers of North America are
provinces between the Rocky and Appalachian
arranged correctly from North to South:
mountains.
• The Mississippi ranks as the fourth-longest river and
(a) Rio Grande, Mackenzie River, Columbia River,
fifteenth-largest river by discharge in the world.
Colorado River
(b) Colorado River, Columbia River, Mackenzie River,
Rio Grande
(c) Mackenzie River, Columbia River, Colorado River,
Rio Grande
(d) Mackenzie River, Colorado River, Rio Grande,
Columbia River

Answer: (c) Mackenzie River, Columbia River, Colorado

River, Rio Grande

39 | P a g e

18 JUNE
Q. 1) Recently, The first population estimation exercise
of the Indian gaur carried out in the Nilgiris Forest
Division has revealed that more than an estimated 2,000
Indian gaurs inhabit the entire division. With reference to
Indian Gaur, Consider the following statements:
1. It is one of the largest extant bovines found in India and
Native to South and South-East Asia.
2. It is the State animal of Karnataka and have threats of
hunting for consumption.
Which of the following statements is/are correct
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (b) 1 only
Explanation : Second statement is NOT correct because It
is the State animal of Goa.
• The Indian Gaur also called the Indian bison is one of
the largest extant bovines found in India.
• Geographic range ➔ Native to South and South-East
Asia.
• Distribution ➔ In India, the population was estimated to
be 12,000–22,000 in the mid-1990s.
• The Western Ghats and their outflanking hills in
southern India constitute one of the most extensive extant
strongholds of gaur, in particular in the Wayanad –
Nagarhole – Mudumalai – Bandipur complex.
• Conservation Status ➔
○ IUCN Status: Vulnerable
○ Wildlife Protection Act,1972: Schedule I
•Threats ➔ a) Habitat Fragmentation b) Hunting for
consumption and c)
contract diseases transmitted by domestic cattle.
40 | P a g e
Q. 2) Consider the following Pair:
1. Lonar Lake Gujrat
2. Pangong Lake Assam
3. Loktak Lake Manipur
Which of the following Pair given below is correctly
matched?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2,3
Answer (b) 3 only
Explanation- Lonar Lake is in Maharashtra and Pangong
lake is in Ladhakh
•Recently, The colour of water in Maharashtra’s Lonar
Lake, formed after a meteorite hit the Earth some 50,000
years ago, has changed to
glaring.
Why there’s a color change?
• The salinity and algae can be responsible for this change.
• There is no oxygen below one meter of the lake’s water
surface.
• There is an example of a lake in Iran, where water
becomes reddish due to increase in salinity.
• The level of water in the Lonar Lake is currently low as
compared to the few past years and there is no rain to pour
fresh water in it.
• The low level of water may lead to increased salinity and
change in the behaviour of algae because of atmospheric
changes.
About Lonar lake
• Location ➔ Lonar Lake, also known as Lonar crater, is
a notified National Geo-heritage Monument, saline (pH
of 10.5), Soda Lake, located at Lonar in Buldhana district,
Maharashtra.
• Created by ➔ an asteroid collision with earth impact
during the Pleistocene Epoch.
• It is one of the four known, hyper-velocity, impact
craters in basaltic rock anywhere on Earth.
• It sits inside the Deccan Plateau—a massive plain of
volcanic basalt rock created by eruptions some 65 million
years ago.
About Loktak Lake
• Loktak Lake is the largest freshwater lake in Northeast
India and is famous for the phumdis (heterogeneous mass
of vegetation, soil and organic matter at various stages of
decomposition) floating over it.
• The lake is located at Moirang in Manipur.
• The largest of all the phumdis and is situated on the
southeastern shore of the lake.
• Located on this phumdi, Keibul Lamjao National Park
is the only floating national park in the world.
• The park is the last natural refuge of the endangered
Sangai (state animal), brown- antlered deer.
• It is designated as a wetland of international importance
under the Ramsar Convention and It was also listed under
the Montreux Record.
About Pangong Lake
• It is an endorheic lake in the Himalayas situated at a
height of about 4,350 m
• Pangong Lake is located in the Union Territory of
Ladakh.
• It is situated at a height of almost 4,350m and is the
world’s highest saltwater lake.
• Extending to almost 160km, one-third of the Pangong
Lake lies in India and the other two-thirds in China.
• It is not a part of the Indus river basin area and
geographically a separate landlocked river basin.
• During winter the lake freezes completely, despite being
saline water.
Q.3) Which of the following are parameters under
National Institutional Ranking
Framework (NIRF)?
1. Learning and Resources
2. Research and Professional Practices
3. Graduation Outcomes
4. Performance in High school
Which of the above statement is/are correct
(a) 1, 2 , 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1,2,3 and 4
Answer : (b) 1, 2 , 3 only
Explanation- Parameters under National Institutional
Ranking Framework (NIRF)
a) Teaching
b) Learning and Resources
c) Research and Professional Practices
d) Graduation Outcomes
e) Outreach and Inclusivity and
f) Perception.
• The National Institute Ranking Framework (NIRF)
ranking list has been released by the Ministry of Human
Resource Development (MHRD).
41 | P a g e
• Top Institutes in overall category ➔
1) IIT-Madras
2) IISc Bangalore and
3) IIT-Delhi
• Top Universities in India ➔
1) Indian Institute of Science(IISc)
2) Jawaharlal Nehru University and
3) Banaras Hindu University.
• Top engineering institutes in India ➔
1) IIT-Madras
2) IIT-Delhi and
3) IIT- Bombay.
• Top College ➔ Miranda House, Delhi.
• Top Dental College ➔ Maulana Azad Institute of Dental
Sciences, Delhi.
• The Dental category was included for the first time in
NIRF Rankings.
Q.4) Which of the following is/are correct regarding
Sahakar Mitra:
1. It is an initiative by the National Cooperative
Development Corporation (NCDC) for young
professionals.
2. This scheme will help cooperative institutions access
new and innovative ideas.
Select the correct code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
Sahakar Mitra scheme
• Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare has
launched a Scheme on Internship Programme (SIP) i.e.
Sahakar Mitra.
• It is an initiative by the National Cooperative
Development Corporation (NCDC) for young
professionals.
• It is expected to be beneficial for both i.e. cooperatives
as well as for the young professionals.
• Earlier, the government launched 'The Urban Learning
Internship Program (TULIP) Portal' to provide internship
opportunities to thousands of fresh graduates and
engineers of the country under the 'Smart City' projects.
• The Sahakar Mitra scheme will help cooperative
institutions access new and innovative ideas of young
professionals while the interns will gain experience of
working in the field to be self-reliant.
• It will provide the young professionals an opportunity of
practical exposure and learning from the working of
NCDC and cooperatives as a paid intern.
• It would also provide an opportunity to professionals
from academic institutions to develop leadership and
entrepreneurial roles through cooperatives as Farmers
Producers Organizations (FPO).
• In line with the AtmaNirbhar Bharat (Self Reliant India),
it focuses on the importance of Vocal for Local.
• The eligible participants to the scheme are as follows:
1)Professional graduates in disciplines such as
Agriculture and allied areas, IT, etc.
2)Professionals who are pursuing or have completed their
MBA degrees in Agribusiness, Cooperation, Finance,
International Trade, Forestry, Rural Development, Project
Management, etc.
• NCDC has designated funds for the paid internship
program under which each intern will get financial
support over a 4 months internship period.
National Cooperative Development Corporation
• The National Cooperative Development Corporation
(NCDC) was established by an Act of Parliament in 1963
as a statutory Corporation under the Ministry of
Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare.
• NCDC functions through its Head Office at New Delhi
and multiple Regional Offices.
• The objectives of NCDC are planning and promoting
programmes for production, processing, marketing,
storage, export and import of agricultural produce,
foodstuffs, industrial goods, livestock and certain other
notified commodities and services on cooperative
principles.
• The NCDC has the unique distinction of being the sole
statutory organization functioning as an apex financial
and developmental institution exclusively devoted to the
cooperative sector.
Q. 5) Stringency Index sometimes seen in news is
composed and published by:
(a) Cornell University
(b) World Economic Forum
(c) University of Oxford
(d) The Institute of Management Development
Answer (c) University of Oxford
Explanation- Recently, the Stringency Index composed
and published by the University of Oxford has found that
India has enforced one of the strongest lockdown
measures in the World at a 100 score.
About Stringency Index
•What is it? ➔ It is among the metrics being used by the
42 | P a g e
Oxford COVID-19 Government Response Tracker.
• The Tracker involves a team of 100 Oxford
community members who have continuously
updated a database of 17 indicators of
government response.
• Indicators ➔ These indicators examine containment
policies such as school
and workplace closings, public events, public transport,
stay-at-home policies.
• Weightage ➔ The Stringency Index is a number from 0
to 100 that reflects these indicators. A higher index score
indicates a higher level of stringency.
Stringency Index tell us ➔
• It provides a picture of the stage at which any country
enforced its strongest measures.
• Oxford provides an overlay of countries’ death curve
and their stringency score.
• Some countries saw their deaths just begin to flatten as
they reached their highest stringency, such as Italy, Spain,
or France.
• Indian scenario ➔ When compared to other countries
with the similar or higher caseload, India called its strict
lockdown at a much earlier point on its case and death
curves
Q.6) Consider the following statements with reference to
Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) :
1. It is a multilateral financial institution proposed by
China to provide finance to
infrastructure projects in the Asia-Pacific region.
2. The voting shares are based on the basis of contribution
to the bank’s authorized capital.
Which of the following statements is/are correct:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3
Answer (a) 1 only
Explanation- Second Statement is NOT correct because
The voting shares are based on the size of each member
country’s economy (GDP in PPP terms) and not on the
basis of contribution to the bank’s authorized capital.
• Recently, the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
(AIIB) has approved US$ 500 million for ‘Covid-19
Emergency Response and Health Systems Preparedness
Project’ initiated by India.
About Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
• What is it? ➔ The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
(AIIB) is an multilateral financial institution proposed by
China.
• Purpose ➔ The purpose of the multilateral development
bank is to provide finance to infrastructure projects in the
Asia-Pacific region.
• Headquartered ➔ Beijing, China
• Formation ➔ January 2016
• Membership ➔ open to all members of the World Bank
or the Asian Development Bank and is divided into
regional and non-regional members.
• AIIB allows for non-sovereign entities to apply for AIIB
membership, assuming their home country is a member.
Structure
•Voting pattern ➔ The voting shares are based on the size
of each member country’s economy (GDP in PPP terms)
and not on the basis of contribution to the bank’s
authorized capital.
• China, India and Russia are the three largest
shareholders.
• Bank's major decisions will require the support of at
least 75 per cent of the votes.
• China is the largest shareholder with 26.61 % voting
shares in the bank followed by India (7.6%), Russia
(6.01%) and Germany (4.2 %).
Various organs of AIIB
• Board of Governors ➔ One Governor and one Alternate
Governor appointed by each member country.
•Board of Directors ➔ Non-resident Board of Directors is
responsible for the direction of the Bank’s general
operations, exercising all powers delegated to it by the
Board of Governors.
• International Advisory Panel ➔ To support the
President and Senior Management on the Bank’s
strategies and policies as well as on general operational
issues.
• Significance of AIIB ➔ The capital of the bank is $100
billion, equivalent to 2⁄3 of the capital of the Asian
Development Bank and about half that of the World Bank.
Q. 7) Which of following statements is/are correct about
Olive Ridley turtles:
1. The olive ridley is classified as vulnerable according to
the International Union for Conservation of Nature and
Natural Resources (IUCN) and is listed in Appendix I of
CITES.
2. The Olive ridley turtles are the most abundant of all sea
turtles found in the world and they are predominantly
herbivores.
43 | P a g e
Choose the correct code given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (a) 1 only
Explanation: Second statement is NOT correct because
Olive Ridley Turtles are predominantly carnivores.
About Olive ridley turtles
• What is it? ➔ The Olive ridley turtles are the second
smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the
world.
• These turtles are carnivores and get their name from
their olive colored carapace.
• Habitat ➔ They are found in warm waters of the Pacific,
Atlantic and Indian oceans.
• Migration ➔ They migrate thousands of kilometers
between feeding and mating grounds in the course of a
year.
• Arribada (Mass Nesting) ➔ They are best known for
their unique mass nesting called Arribada, where
thousands of females come together on the same beach to
lay eggs.
• They lay their eggs over a period of five to seven days
in conical nests about one and a half feet deep which they
dig with their hind flippers.
◎ Protection Status ➔
• IUCN Red List: Vulnerable
• CITES: Appendix I
• Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I
• Step Taken for Conservation ➔ To reduce accidental
killing in India, the Odisha government has made it
mandatory for trawls to use Turtle Excluder Devices
(TEDs), a net specially designed with an exit cover which
allows the turtles to escape while retaining the catch.
Q.8) Which of the following has launched
the Consortium for Affordable & Rapid Diagnostics
(CARD) to scale up India’s
capacity to make corona virus testing kit?
(a) Indian Council of Medical Research(ICMR)
(b) Department of Science & Technology
(c) Niti Ayog
(d) Council of Scientific and Industrial Research
Answer : (c) Niti Ayog
Project CARD to push local production of testing kits
• Niti Aayog and the Department of Biotechnology have
launched the Consortium for Affordable & Rapid
Diagnostics (CARD) to scale up India’s capacity to make
coronavirus testing kit.
Aim ➔ The plan involves bringing scientists and
laboratories in touch with private firms to
produce millions of testing kits, including
around 10 million rapid antibody tests that
offer quick results.
•Nor'easter - Strong storm with winds from the northeast
on the north eastern coast of the United States and the east
coast of Canada.
• Santa Ana winds -dry downslope winds that affect
coastal Southern California and northern Baja California
• Williwaw -strong, violent wind occurring in the Strait of
Magellan, the Aleutian Islands, and the coastal fjords of
Southeast Alaska

About Rapid Test Some more winds of North America

• What is it? ➔ It is a speedy test conducted to determine •Cordonazo- also referred to as el cordonazo de San
whether there has been any kind of recent viral infection Francisco or the Lash of St Francis -southerly hurricane
in a person’s body. winds along the west coast of Mexico
•Coromuel -south to south-west wind in the La Paz area
• How it works? ➔ When a pathogen enters a human
of the Baja California peninsula and the Gulf of California
body, specific antibodies are released as a response to the
• Norte -strong cold northeasterly wind in Mexico
virus. A rapid test can detect the presence of such
• Papagayo -periodic wind which blows across Nicaragua
antibodies in blood, serum or plasma samples quickly
and Costa Rica
indicating a viral infection.
• Brookings Effect -off-shore wind on the southwestern
Oregon coast, United States; also known as the Chetco
Q. 9) Which of the following wind of North America is
Effect
also known as Snow eater:
• Diablo- hot, dry, offshore wind from the northeast in the
San Francisco bay
(a) Foehn Wind
• The Hawk -cold winter wind in Chicago
(b) Chinook Wind
• Plough Wind -straight line wind which precedes
(c) Zonda Wind
thunderstorms or thunderstorm clusters
(d) Pampero Wind
•Sundowner- strong offshore wind off the California coast
• Washoe Zephyr - seasonal diurnal wind in parts of
Answer: (b) Chinook Wind
western Nevada
Explanation
• Witch of November, or November Witch- strong winds
• Chinook winds are winds in the interior West of North
blowing across the Great Lakes in autumn
America, where the Canadian Prairies and Great Plains
meet various mountain ranges.
• When the warm, dry, fast-moving Chinook winds pass
over snow-covered areas, the snow often vapourizes
before it has a chance to melt, according to the U.S.
Geological Survey. The winds can easily vaporize a foot
of snow within hours. Because of this, chinook winds are
often known as the "snow eaters."
• Winds in USA and Canada move down the west slopes
of the Rockies .
• It is beneficial to ranchers east of the Rockies as it keeps
the grasslands clear of snow during much of the winter.

Q. 10) Which of the following is NOT a local wind in

North America:
(a) Nor'easter Wind
(b) Santa Ana winds
(c) Williwaw Wind 19 JUNE
(d) Berg Wind
Q. 1) With reference to Sal Forest Tortoise, Consider the
Answer (d) Berg Wind following statements:
Explanation : Berg wind is a South African katabatic wind 1. It is a species of tortoise found in Southeast Asia and

44 | P a g e
parts of the Indian Subcontinent, particularly in Northeast
India.
2. It is listed as Critically Endangered in IUCN red list and
Legally protected in Schedule IV of the Indian Wildlife
(Protection) Act, 1972.
Which of the following statements is/are correct
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation : It is in news because over 90% of the
potential distribution of the Sal forest tortoise falls outside
current protected area’s network.
About Sal forest Tortoise
• Scientific name ➔ Indotestudo elongate.
• Common name ➔ Elongated tortoise, Yellow Tortoise
and Sal forest tortoise.
• Distribution ➔ It is a species of tortoise found in
Southeast Asia and parts of the Indian Subcontinent,
particularly Northeast India.
• Physical description ➔ These up to 1 foot-long tortoises
have elongated somewhat narrow carapaces and yellow
heads. Shells are typically a pale tannish-yellow to
caramel color, with blotches of black.
• IUCN Red List Status ➔ Critically Endangered.
• Legally protected ➔ Schedule IV of the Indian Wildlife
(Protection) Act, 1972 as amended up to 2006.
• Population ➔ According to the IUCN the population of
the species may have fallen by about 80% in the last three
generations (90 years).
• Threats ➔ It is heavily hunted for food and collected
both for local use, such as decorative masks, and
international wildlife trade. In china, a mixture, made by
grinding up the tortoise's shell, also serves as an
aphrodisiac.
Q. 2) Consider the following statement:
1. He was associated with the moderate group of Indian
National Congress and became president of INC in 1905
in Banaras session.
2. He was instrumental in the formation of the Minto-
Morley Reforms of 1909.
3. He founded the Ranade Institute of Economics in 1908.
Choose the correct answer from the statements given
above:
(a) Mahadev Govind Ranade
(b) Lala Lajpat Rai
45 | P a g e
(c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(d) Dadabhai Naoroji
Answer (c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Explanation- Recently, PM paid tributes to Gopal Krishna
Gokhale on his birth
anniversary. He was born on 9 May 1866.
•Recently, The colour of water in Maharashtra’s Lonar
Lake, formed after a meteorite hit the Earth some 50,000
years ago, has changed to
glaring.
About Gopal krishna Gokhale
• Ideology ➔ Gokhale worked towards social
empowerment, expansion of education , struggle for
freedom in India for three decades and rejected the use of
reactionary or revolutionary ways.
• Role in INC ➔ associated with the Moderate Group of
Indian National Congress (joined in 1889). He became
president of INC in 1905 in Banaras session.
Role in Colonial Legislatures ➔
• Between 1899 and 1902, he was a member of the
Bombay Legislative Council followed by work at the
Imperial Legislative Council from 1902 till his death
(1915).
◎ He was instrumental in the formation of the Minto-
Morley Reforms of 1909, which eventually became law.
Related Societies and Other Works ➔
• He established the Servants of India Society in 1905 for
the expansion of Indian education.
• He was also associated with the Sarvajanik sabha journal
started by Govind Ranade.
• In 1908, Gokhale founded the Ranade Institute of
Economics.
• He started english weekly newspaper, The Hitavada
(The people's paper).
• Published a daily newspaper entitled Jnanaprakash,
which allowed him to voice his reformist views on politics
and society.
• He contributed articles to the English weekly Mahratta.
• He served as Secretary of the Deccan Education Society.
Mentor to Gandhi ➔
◎ As a liberal nationalist, he is regarded by Mahatma
Gandhi as his political guru.
• Gandhi wrote a book in Gujarati dedicated to the leader
titled ‘Dharmatma Gokhale’.
Q.3) With reference to Sample Registration System
recently seen in news, Consider the following statements:
1. It aims to provide reliable estimates of birth and death
rates for the States and also at all India level.
2. The sample units, villages in rural areas and urban
blocks in urban areas are replaced once in ten years in this
survey.
Which of the above statement is/are correct
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer :(c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation- The Registrar General of India released its
Sample Registration System (SRS) bulletin based on data
collected for 2018.
Key highlights
Birth rate ➔ The national birth rate in 2018 stood at 20
per one thousand of the population. Bihar has the highest
birth rate at 26.2.
◎ Death Rate ➔ The national death rate in 2018 stood at
6.2 per one thousand of the population. Chhattisgarh has
the highest death rate at 8.
Infant mortality rate (IMR) ➔ The national IMR in 2018
stood at 32 per one thousand of the population. The IMR
at an all-India level has declined from 50 to 32 in the last
decade. Madhya Pradesh has an IMR of 48 and Nagaland
4.
Sample Registration System
• Initiated In ➔ the late 1960s.
• Aim ➔ to provide reliable estimates of birth and death
rates for the States and also at All India level.
• Functions ➔ At present, the Sample Registration
System (SRS) provides reliable annual data on fertility
and mortality at the state and national levels for rural and
urban areas separately.
• In this survey, the sample units, villages in rural areas
and urban blocks in urban areas are replaced once in ten
years.
• The data largely reflects past trends as far as the position
of states is concerned with marginal improvements at
national level on health indices.
• Timeline ➔ Initiated on a pilot basis by the Registrar
General of India in a few states in 1964-65, it became
fully operational during 1969-70.
About Registrar General of India
• Formation ➔ 1961
• Parent organization ➔ Ministry of Home Affairs.
• Functions ➔ It arranges, conducts and analyses the
results of the demographic surveys of India including
46 | P a g e
Census of India and Linguistic Survey of India.
• Registrar ➔ The position of Registrar is usually held by
a civil servant holding the rank of Joint Secretary.
Q.4) Which of the following is/are correct regarding
Maharana Pratap:
1. He was the King of Mewar and was the eldest son of
Udai Singh II.
2. He built a new capital known as Chavand near modern
Dungarpur.
Select the correct code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation: Recently birth anniversary of Maharana
Pratap is celebrated , the 13th
Rajpur king of Mewar. Maharana Pratap was born in
1540 and died at the age of 56 in 1597.
About Maharana Pratap
• Description ➔ Rana Pratap Singh also known as
Maharana Pratap was born on May 9th 1540 in
Kumbhalgarh, Rajasthan.
• He was the 13th King of Mewar and was the eldest son
of Udai Singh II.
Battle of Haldighati ➔
• It was fought on 18 June 1576 between the forces
Maharana Pratap; and the Mughal emperor Akbar's
forces, led by Man Singh I of Amber.
• The Mughals were the victors but failed to capture
Pratap, who escaped.
• Resurgence ➔ Mughal pressure on Mewar relaxed after
1579 following rebellions in Bengal and Bihar.
• Taking advantage of the situation, Pratap recovered
Western Mewar including Kumbhalgarh, Udaipur and
Gogunda.
• During this period, he also built a new capital, Chavand,
near modern Dungarpur.
• Chetak ➔ Chetak is the name given in traditional
literature to the horse ridden by Maharana Pratap at the
Battle of Haldighati. However, some Historians debate it.
• Pratap Gaurav Kendra ➔ It is a tourist spot at Tiger Hill
in Udaipur city, Rajasthan. It aims at providing
information about Maharana Pratap and the historical
heritage of the area with the help of modern technology.
Q.5) Naku La Pass, Nathu La Pass and Jelep La Pass
sometimes seen in news is in:
(a) Uttrakhand
(b) Sikkim
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Assam
Answer (b) Sikkim
Explanation- Recently, Indian and Chinese troops
engaged in a temporary and short duration face-off along
the Line of Actual Control (LAC) at Naku La (Sikkim)
and near Pangong Tso Lake (Eastern Ladakh).
About Naku la
• Naku La sector is a pass at a height of more
than 5,000 metres above Mean Sea Level (MSL) in the
state of Sikkim.
• It is located ahead of Muguthang or Cho Lhamu (source
of River Teesta).
• At Muguthang, the road on the Chinese side is
motorable, and on the Indian side, it is a
remote area.
-The other passes located in the state of Sikkim are Nathu
La Pass and Jelep La Pass, Cho-la pass, Dongkia Pass ,
Chiwabhanjang Pass.
Q.6) Consider the following statements with reference to
LUNAR POLAR EXPLORATION (LPE) MISSION :
1. It is a joint lunar mission between Russia and India.
2. The mission aims to put a lander and
rover on Moon’s surface and mission will be launched
after 2023.
Which of the following statements is/are correct:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (b) 2 only
Explanation- First Statement is NOT correct because
Japan and India will launch a joint lunar mission called
the Lunar Polar Exploration (LPE).
• Aim ➔ The mission aims to put a lander and
rover on Moon’s surface.
• Launch year ➔ The mission will be launched
after 2023.
• Japanese space agency JAXA would be building the
overall landing module and the rover, while ISRO would
develop the lander system.
• The mission will be launched from Japan, and the
designated launch vehicle is the H3 rocket, manufactured
47 | P a g e
by Mitsubishi Heavy Industries.
• Significance ➔ Observational data suggests the
existence of water in the polar regions of Moon. The
mission intends to obtain data on the quantity and forms
of water resources present, in order to determine the
feasibility of utilizing such resources for sustainable
space exploration activities in the future.
Q. 7) Which of following statements is/are correct about
Ukai Dam:
1. It is the second-largest reservoir in Gujarat after Sardar
Sarovar Dam which is built on Sabarmati river.
2. It is an earth-cum-masonry dam which was constructed
in 1972.
Choose the correct code given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (b) 2 only
Explanation: First statement is NOT correct because It is
the second-largest reservoir in Gujarat after Sardar
Sarovar Dam which is built on Tapi River.
• Recently, the water level of Ukai Dam has stood at
319.86 feet after 46 years.
About Ukai Dam
• It is the second-largest reservoir in Gujarat after Sardar
Sarovar Dam which is built on Tapi River.
• It is also known as Vallabh Sagar.
• It is an earth-cum-masonry dam which was
constructed in 1972.
Tapi River
• It is one of the three peninsular Rivers in India that flow
in an east to the west itinerary and the other two rivers are
the Mahi River and Narmada River.
• Origin ➔ It originates in the eastern portion of the
Satpura Mountain Ranges in south Madhya Pradesh.
• It pours into the Gulf of Cambay in the Arabian Sea in
the district of Surat in Gujarat.
• Tributaries ➔ Girna River, Purna River, Panzara River,
Bori River, Waghur River and Aner River are the major
tributaries of the river.
Q.8) Recently launched, Aarogya Path aims to provide
real-time availability of critical healthcare supplies for
manufacturers, suppliers and customers. It is National
Healthcare Supply Chain Portal of which of the following
:
(a) Indian Council of Medical Research(ICMR)
(b) Department of Science & Technology
(c) National Accreditation Board for Testing and
Calibration Laboratories
(d) Council of Scientific and Industrial Research

Answer : (d) Council of Scientific and Industrial Research

Aarogya Path
• Aarogya Path is an information platform launched by
union government, it aims to provide real-time
availability of critical healthcare supplies for
manufacturers, suppliers and customers.
• It is a Council of Scientific & Industrial Research
(CSIR) National Healthcare Supply Chain Portal.
• It is an integrated public platform that provides single-
point availability of key healthcare goods such as medical
equipment, drugs, apparel, etc.
• It will set up an information management and
forecasting database platform at national level to capture
demand and supply scenarios for key healthcare needs
items.
• CSIR expects AarogyaPath to become the national
healthcare information platform of choice in the years to
come, filling a critical gap in last-mile delivery of patient
care within India through improved availability and
affordability of healthcare supplies.
• It will also create opportunities for business expansion
due to an expanded network of buyers and visibility of
new requirements for products.

Council of Scientific & Industrial Research

• It was established by the Government of India in
September 1942 as an autonomous body. It comes under
the Ministry of Science & Technology.
• It is known for its cutting edge research and
development knowledge base in diverse science and
technology areas. Q. 10) Consider the following statements with reference
• It has been ranked first in the Nature Ranking Index- to Prairies:
2020. 1. Prairies are part of Great plains in North America
between the mountain ranges of Rocky mountain and
Q. 9) Arrange the following physical feature of North Appalachian mountains.
America from West to East: 2. They are temperate grasslands with nutritious grass
1. Colorado Plateau known for wheat cultivation and animal rearing.
2. Canadian Shield Choose the correct statement from the code given below
3. Great Plains (a) 1 only
Choose the correct code given below (b) 2 only
(a) 1,2,3 (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 3,1,2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 2,1,3
(d) 2,3,1 Answer (c) Both 1 and 2

Answer(b) 1,3,2

48 | P a g e

Explanation :
• The continent has Rocky mountain ranges to western
side and Appalachian mountains to the eastern coast and
In between the ranges there is the Great plains are present
called Prairies “Granaries of the World”.
• Prairies lie in USA and 3 states of Canada.
• They are temperate grasslands with nutritious grass
known for wheat cultivation and animal rearing.
• The Great Plains is a broad expanse of flat land (a plain),
much of it covered in prairie, steppe, and grassland,
located in the United States and Canada.
• The region is known for supporting extensive cattle
ranching and dry farming.
20 JUNE
Q. 1) Consider the following statements Pairs:
Geographical State
Indication
49 | P a g e
1. Sohrai Khovar painting - Uttar Pradesh
2. Telia Rumal - Telangana
3. Arumbavur wood carvings - Tamil Nadu
Which of the following pairs given above is/are correctly
matched:
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer (c) 2 and 3 only
Explanation : Sohrai Khovar painting belongs to
Jharkhand
• Recently, Jharkhand’s Sohrai Khovar painting and
Telangana’s Telia Rumal, Thanjavur Netti works,
Arumbavur wood carvings of Tamil Nadu received the
prestigious GI tag.
About SOHRAI KHOVAR PAINTING
• What is it? ➔ The Sohrai Khovar painting is a
traditional and ritualistic mural art.
• Practiced ➔ It is being practiced by local
tribal women during local harvest and marriage seasons
using local, naturally
available soils of different colors in the area
of Hazaribagh district of Jharkhand.
• Features ➔ Style features a profusion of lines, dots,
animal figures and plants, often representing religious
iconography i.e.visual image and symbols.
• Where is it painted? ➔ It has been painted on the walls
of important public places in Jharkhand, such as the Birsa
Munda Airport in Ranchi.
About Telia Rumal Handloom
◎ What is it? ➔ Telia Rumal cloth involves intricate
handmade work with cotton loom displaying a variety of
designs and motifs in three particular colors such as red,
black and white.
• Features ➔ It is an art of Ikat tradition using natural
vegetable dyes.
• Ikkat is a dyeing technique used to pattern textiles.
• Uniqueness ➔ Telia Rumal can only be created using
the traditional handloom process and not by any other
mechanical means as otherwise, the very quality of the
Rumal would be lost.
• History ➔ The telia fabrics were used by nobles
(Nizam’s dynasty) in Hyderabad. The fabric was exported
to Persian Gulf, Middle East, East Africa, Singapore and
Burma.
Arumbavur wood carvings
• The Arumbavur wood carvings made by the artisans of
Perambalur are mainly made out of wooden logs of
lingam tree, mango, Indian ash tree, neem and rosewood
tree.
• The wood supply comes from the Pachamalai Hills
along the Trichy - Perambalur boundary and the
Thanjavur - Kumbakonam zone.
• The important feature of Arumbavur work is that the
whole object is carved out of a single block of wood due
to the reason that even one mistake can damage the whole
work.
Thanjavur Netti Works
• Thanjavur Netti Works (Thanjavur Pith Work) is crafted
from Netti (pith), a marshy plant known as
Aeschynomene Aspera.
• Being a traditional craft, it has been handed down from
one generation to another.
• Netti Works are visible in the Brihadeeswara Temple,
garlands, idols of Hindu deities, door hangings and
decorative items.
• The pith work industry has been recognised as one of the
significant handwork symbols.
• Netti works are produced in Thanjavur, Kumbakonam
and Pudukkottai.
• Due to their fragile nature, the Pith works are kept inside
a glass box to preserve them well.
Q. 2) Consider the following statement about
CHAMPIONS PORTAL recently seen in news :
1. It is a technology driven Control
Room-Cum-Management Information System.
2. It aims to help consumers register complaints easily and
get redressal within 60 days.
Choose the correct answer from the statements given
above:
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (b) 1 only
Explanation- Second statement is NOT correct because it
aimed at assisting Indian MSMEs march into big league
as National and Global CHAMPIONS.
• Union Ministry of MSME has launched CHAMPIONS
portal www.Champions.gov.in, a Technology driven
Control Room-Cum-
Management Information System.
About CHAMPIONS Portal
50 | P a g e
• What it is? ➔ It is a technology driven Control Room-
Cum-Management Information System which utilises
modern information and communication technology
(ICT) tools.
• Name ➔ The name CHAMPIONS stands here for
Creation and Harmonious Application of Modern
Processes for Increasing the Output and National
Strength.
• Aim ➔ The system utilising modern ICT tools is aimed
at assisting Indian MSMEs march into big league as
National and Global CHAMPIONS.
• Features ➔ The portal is for making the smaller units
big by solving their grievances, encouraging, supporting,
helping and handholding. It is a real one-stop-shop
solution of MSME Ministry.
• Hub & Spoke Model ➔ As part of the system a network
of control rooms is created in a Hub & Spoke Model. The
Hub is situated in New Delhi in the Secretary MSME’s
office. The spokes will be in the States in various
offices and institutions of Ministry.
• The portal is also fully integrated with the Government’s
main grievances portal CPGRAMS and MSME
Ministry’s web based mechanisms.
About Centralized Public Grievance Redress And
Monitoring System (CPGRAMS):
• What is it? ➔ It is an online web-enabled system
developed by National Informatics Centre in association
with Directorate of Public Grievances (DPG) and
Department of Administrative Reforms and Public
Grievances(DARPG).
• Aim ➔ To enable submission of grievances by the
aggrieved citizens to Ministries or departments who
scrutinize and take action for speedy and favorable
redress of these grievances
Q.3) With reference to Malabar flying frog recently seen
in news, Consider the following statements:
1. It is with slender body ,webbed feet and endemic to the
rainforests of western ghats.
2. Its IUCN Conservation status is Least Concern.
Which of the above statement is/are correct
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer :(c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation- Recently, a rare amphibian, Malabar
Gliding Frog (Rhacophorus
malabaricus) was spotted in Pullad, Kerala.
 • Sometimes called rainforests of the sea, shallow coral
About Malabar Gliding Frog reefs form some of Earth's most diverse ecosystems.
• Scientific name ➔ Rhacophorus malabaricus. • They are most commonly found at shallow depths in
• It is aslo known as Malabar flying frog tropical waters, but deep water and cold water coral reefs
• It is endemic to the rain forests of Western exist on smaller scales in other areas.
Ghats. • Coral reefs deliver ecosystem services for tourism,
• Features ➔ It is a green frog with slender body, webbed fisheries and shoreline protection.
feet, unusual body positions, very well camouflaged and Coral reefs are fragile, partly because they are sensitive to
gliding in the air. water conditions.
• They are under threat from excess nutrients (nitrogen
Q.4) Which of the following is/are correct regarding and phosphorus),rising temperatures, oceanic
Coral reefs: acidification, overfishing (e.g., from blast fishing,
1. Corals secrete hard carbonate exoskeletons that support cyanide fishing, spearfishing on scuba), sunscreen use,
and protect the coral. and harmful land-use practices, including runoff and
2. Most reefs grow best in warm, shallow, clear, sunny seeps (e.g., from injection wells and cesspools).
and agitated water.
Select the correct code given below: The distribution of coral reefs in India
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: According to recent study Cyclones
Amphan and Nisarga that unleashed destruction in eastern
and western India have saved the Gulf of Mannar corals
from mass bleaching as windstorms along with two low
pressures have significantly lowered seawater
temperature in summer.
• The Gulf of Mannar (GoM), spread around 21 islands,
suffers significant damage caused by livelihood-linked
human threats and climate change.
• The islands and the reef areas collectively constitute the
Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park (GMMNP).
• Corals in the GoM usually bleach in summer if the water
temperature surpasses 30˚C, but they recover when it
drops in August. Q. 5) Global Nutrition Report 2020 is recently released
by:
About Coral reefs (a) World Health Organisation
• A coral reef is an underwater ecosystem characterized (b) International Food Policy Research Institute
by reef-building corals. (c) Food and Agriculture Organization
• Reefs are formed of colonies of coral polyps held (d) Nutrition International
together by calcium carbonate.
• Most coral reefs are built from stony corals, whose Answer (a) World Health Organisation
polyps cluster in groups. Explanation- The Global Nutrition Report 2020 has
• Coral belongs to the class Anthozoa in the animal released recently which identifies India as having the
phylum Cnidaria, which includes sea anemones and highest rates of inequalities in malnutrition.
jellyfish.
• Unlike sea anemones, corals secrete hard carbonate About Global Nutrition Report
exoskeletons that support and protect the coral. • Released by ➔ World Health Organisation (WHO)
• Most reefs grow best in warm, shallow, clear, sunny and • Timeline ➔ The Global Nutrition Report was conceived
agitated water. following the first Nutrition for Growth Initiative Summit

51 | P a g e
(N4G) in 2013.
• The first report was published in 2014.
• It acts as a report card on the world’s nutrition—
globally, regionally, and country by country—and on
efforts to improve it.
• It is a multi-stakeholder initiative, consisting of a
Stakeholder Group, Independent Expert Group and
Report Secretariat.
Key Takeaways
• India is among the 88 countries that are likely to miss
global nutrition targets by 2025.
• Stunting and wasting among children ➔ 37.9% of
children under 5 years are stunted and 20.8% are wasted
compared to the Asia average of 22.7% and 9.4%
respectively.
• Overweight and Obesity ➔ Rate of overweight and
obesity continues to rise affecting almost a fifth of the
adults at 21.6% of women and 17.8% of men.
• Anaemia ➔ One in two women of reproductive age is
anaemic.
• Underweight children ➔ Between 2000 and 2016, rates
of underweight have decreased from 66.0% to 58.1% for
boys and 54.2% to 50.1% in girls. However, it is still high
compared to the average of 35.6% for boys and 31.8% for
girls in Asia.
Q.6) Consider the following statements with reference to
Regional Maritime Information Fusion Centre (RMIFC) :
1. It is designed to deepen maritime domain
awareness by monitoring maritime activities and
promoting information sharing and exchange.
2. It functions under the aegis of the International
Maritime Organization.
Which of the following statements is/are correct:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (a) 1 only
Explanation- Second Statement is NOT correct because It
functions under the aegis of the Indian Ocean
Commission (IOC) and is based in Madagascar.
• It is in news because India is looking to post Navy
Liaison Officers at the RMIFC in
Madagascar and also at the European maritime
surveillance initiative
in the Strait of Hormuz for improved MDA.
52 | P a g e
Regional Maritime Information Fusion Centre
(RMIFC):
• It functions under the aegis of the Indian
Ocean Commission (IOC) and is based in
Madagascar.
• It is designed to deepen maritime domain
awareness by monitoring maritime activities and
promoting information sharing and exchange.
The European maritime surveillance initiative in the Strait
of Hormuz (EMASOH)
• It is composed of Belgium, Denmark, Netherlands and
French officers and based at the French naval base in Abu
Dhabi.
• The aim is to monitor maritime activity and guarantee
freedom of navigation in the Persian Gulf and the Strait
of Hormuz.
How this will help India? ➔ This will be in the overall
realm of improving linkages of the Navy’s Information
Fusion Centre for Indian Ocean Region (IFC-IOR) in
Gurugram with other IFCs and become the repository for
all maritime data in the IOR.
Indian Ocean Commission(IOC):
• It is an intergovernmental organization that was created
in 1982 at Port Louis, Mauritius and institutionalized in
1984 by the Victoria Agreement in Seychelles.
• Member States ➔ Comoros, Madagascar, Mauritius,
Réunion (an overseas region of France) and Seychelles.
• Observer States ➔ China, Malta, European Union,
International Organisation of La Francophonie(OIF) and
now India.
• Secretariat ➔ located in Mauritius.
• Objectives of IOC ➔ Political and diplomatic
cooperation, Economic and commercial cooperation,
Sustainable development in a globalisation context,
cooperation in the field of agriculture.
Information Fusion Centre – Indian Ocean Region(IFC-
IOR):
•Established ➔ in 2018 at Gurugram, Haryana.
• Aims ➔ to advance Maritime Safety and Security in the
Indian Ocean Region through information sharing with
partner nations and agencies.
• It is jointly administered by the Indian Navy and Indian
Coast Guard.
Q. 7) Which of following statements is/are correct about
Amoebiasis:
1. It is a parasitic infection of the colon with the amoeba
Entamoeba histolytica.
2. The protozoan causing the infection cannot survive Etalin Hydropower Project
high concentrations of oxygen. •Etalin Hydropower Project is based on the river Dibang,
Choose the correct code given below it is also known as Dibang Valley project.
(a) 1 only • Dibang is a tributary of the Brahmaputra river which
(b) 2 only flows through the states of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.
(c) Both 1 and 2 • It envisages construction of two dams over the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 tributaries of Dibang: Dir and Tangon.

Answer (c) Both 1 and 2 Significance ➔

Explanation: A team of researchers from the Jawaharlal
Nehru University (JNU) has
developed new drug molecules against the protozoa that
causes amoebiasis..
About Amoebiasis
• What is it? ➔ It is a parasitic infection of the colon with
the amoeba Entamoeba histolytica.
• According to WHO, Entamoeba histolytica is the third-
leading cause of morbidity and mortality due to parasitic
disease in humans.
• This protozoan is anaerobic or micro-aerophilic in
nature such that it cannot survive high concentrations of
oxygen.
• However, during infection, it faces a high surge of
oxygen inside the human body. The organism synthesizes
large amounts of cysteine to counter oxidative stress.
• Spread of the disease ➔ It spreads through drinking or
eating uncooked food, such as fruit, that may have been
washed in contaminated local water.
• Symptoms ➔
- Pain areas: in the abdomen
- Gastrointestinal: blood in stool, diarrhoea, or flatulence
- Whole body: fatigue, fever, or loss of appetite
- Also common: weight loss
• Treatment ➔ Treatment consists of self care and
antiparasitics.
Q.8) Etalin Hydropower Project sometimes seen in news
is based on the river:
(a) Brahmaputra
(b) Subansiri River
(c) Dibang
(d) Brahmani River
Answer : (c) Dibang
Explanation
• The Forest Advisory Committee, the apex body of the
Environment Ministry, has once again deferred its
decision on a controversial
hydropower project in Arunachal Pradesh.
• The Project is in accordance with the Government’s
push to establish prior user rights on rivers that originate
in China and an effort to fast- track projects in the north-
east.
• It is expected to be one of the biggest hydropower
projects in India in terms of installed capacity.
Concerns ➔
- The Project falls under the “richest bio-geographical
province of the Himalayan zone” and would be located at
the junction of the Palaearctic, Indo-Chinese and Indo-
Malayan bio-geographic regions.
- A total of 18 villages consisting of 285 families are
expected to be affected by the proposed project.
- It would entail felling 2,80,677 trees and threatens the
existence of globally- endangered mammal species.
• According to the decision the 3097 MW Etalin
Hydropower project, in the State’s Dibang Valley, has
been delayed for over six years.
• This is because it required diverting 1165 hectares of
forest in a region of rich biodiversity.
Q. 9) The Mojave or Mohave Desert is situated between
which of the following two deserts given below:
(a) Great Basin Desert and Sonoran Desert
(b) Sonoran Desert and Chihuahuan Desert
(c) Great Basin Desert Chihuahuan Desert
(d) Great Sandy Desert and Sonoran Desert
Answer (a) Great Basin Desert and Sonoran Desert
Explanation :
• The Mojave Desert is bordered by the Great Basin
Desert to its north and the Sonoran Desert to its south and
east.
• The Mojave Desert is an arid rain-shadow desert and the
driest desert in North America.
Great Basin Desert

53 | P a g e
• The Great Basin Desert is part of the Great Basin • With an area of about 362,000 km2 (139,769 sq mi), it
between the Sierra Nevada and the Wasatch Range. is the second largest desert of the Americas and the largest
in North America.

Q. 10) Arrange the following Bay/Gulf from North to

• The desert is a geographical region that largely overlaps
the Great Basin shrub steppe • It is a temperate desert with
hot, dry summers and snowy winters.
• Its boundaries are generally noted by the presence of
Joshua trees, which are native only to the Mojave Desert
and are considered an indicator species, and it is believed
to support an additional 1,750 to 2,000 species of plants.
South:
(a) Baffin Bay, Gulf of Mexico, Hudson Bay
(b) Gulf of Mexico, Hudson Bay, Baffin Bay
(c) Baffin Bay, Hudson Bay, Gulf of Mexico
(d) Hudson Bay, Baffin Bay, Gulf of Mexico
Answer (c) Baffin Bay, Hudson Bay, Gulf of Mexico

Chihuahuan Desert
• The Chihuahuan Desert is a desert and ecoregion
designation covering parts of northern Mexico and the
southwestern United States.

54 | P a g e
22 JUNE
Q. 1) Angiotensin Converting Enzyme 2 (ACE2) often
seen in news is/are found in:
1. Lungs
2. Heart
3. Intestines
4. Blood vessels
5. Hypothalamus
Choose the correct code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2,3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2 ,3 ,4 and 5
Answer (d) 1, 2 ,3 ,4 and 5
Explanation : Recently, several studies revealed that men
are more vulnerable to COVID-19 infection due to higher
concentrations of Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme 2
(ACE2) in their blood than women.
About Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme 2 (ACE2)
• What is it? ➔ Angiotensin Converting Enzyme
2(ACE2) is an enzyme molecule that connects the inside
of our cells to the outside via the cell membrane.
• It is an enzyme attached to the cell membranes of cells
in the lungs, arteries, heart, kidney, and intestines.
• Where is it found? ➔ The enzyme is found in our lungs,
heart, intestines, blood vessels muscles, the cerebral
cortex, striatum, hypothalamus, and brainstem.
• The enzyme essentially acts as a port of entry that allows
the coronavirus to invade our cells and replicate.
• Since men have higher concentrations of ACE2
compared to women, they are more vulnerable to
coronavirus.
Q. 2) Which of following statement is INCORRECT
regarding Indian Pangolin:
1. It is a solitary, shy, slow-moving, nocturnal mammal.
2. The pangolin has no teeth, but has strong stomach
muscles to aid in digestion.
3. IUCN Conservation Status of Indian pangolin is
critically Endangered.
4. It is widely distributed in India, except the arid region,
high Himalayas and the North-East.
Choose the correct answer from the statements given
above:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
55 | P a g e
Answer (c) 3 only
Explanation- Third statement is NOT correct because
IUCN Conservation Status of Indian pangolin is
Endangered.
• China has accorded the pangolin the highest level of
protection and removed the scales of the Pangolin from
its list of approved
traditional medicines.
About Pangolin
• They are scaly anteater mammals of the order Pholidota.
• They have large, protective keratin scales covering their
skin and they are the only known mammals with this
feature.
• Out of the eight species of pangolin, the Indian Pangolin
and the Chinese Pangolin are found in India:
• Indian Pangolin → It is widely distributed in India,
except the arid region, high Himalayas and the North-
East.
• The species is also found in Bangladesh, Pakistan, Nepal
and Sri Lanka.
• Chinese Pangolin → It is found in Himalayan foothills
in Eastern Nepal, Bhutan, Northern India, North-East
Bangladesh, through Southern China and Taiwan.
• IUCN Conservation Status ➔
○ Indian pangolin – Endangered
○ Chinese pangolin – Critically Endangered
•Threats:
a) Hunted for its meat across the northeastern States and
in central India. and
b) Smuggled for scales especially in China as it is
believed that scales possess magic or charms and have
medicinal properties.
More About Indian Pangolin
• The Indian pangolin is listed on CITES Appendix I since
January 2017 and is protected in all range countries.
• The Indian pangolin is a solitary, shy, slow-moving,
nocturnal mammal.
• The pangolin has no teeth, but has strong stomach
muscles to aid in digestion.
• It prefers soft and semi-sandy soil conditions suitable for
digging burrows.
• The Indian pangolin does not climb trees, but it does
value the presence of trees, herbs, and shrubs in its habitat
because it is easier to dig burrows around them.
Q.3) With reference to Global Partnership on Artificial
Intelligence (GPAI) recently seen in news, Consider the
following statements:
1. India is one of its founding member and it will help
India to actively participate in the global development of
Artificial Intelligence.
2. It is an international and multi- stakeholder initiative to
guide the responsible development and use of AI.
Which of the above statement is/are correct
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer :(c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation- India joins Global Partnership on Artificial
Intelligence (GPAI) as a
founding member to support the responsible and human-
centric development and use of AI.
About GPAI
• What is it? ➔ It is an international and multi-
stakeholder initiative to guide the responsible
development and use of AI, grounded in human rights,
inclusion, diversity, innovation, and economic growth.
• This is also a first initiative of its type.
• Secretariat ➔ GPAI will be supported by a Secretariat,
to be hosted by Organization for Economic Cooperation
and Development (OECD) in Paris, as well as by two
Centers of Expertise- one each in Montreal and Paris.
• Founding members ➔ Australia, Canada, France,
Germany, India, Italy, Japan, Mexico, New Zealand, the
Republic of Korea, Singapore, Slovenia, the United
Kingdom, the United States of America, and the European
Union.
• Objectives ➔ In collaboration with partners and
international organizations, GPAI will bring together
leading experts from industry, civil society, governments,
and academia to collaborate to promote responsible
evolution of AI.
Q.4) The traditional art of Talamaddale was streamed live
on social media recently. It is a variant of:
(a) Mudiyettu
(b) Bhand Paather
(c) Yakshagana
(d) Koodiyattam
Answer (c) Yakshagana theatre
Explanation: The traditional art of Talamaddale, a variant
of Yakshagana theatre
was streamed live on social media recently.
About Talamaddale
• Talamaddale is an ancient form of performance dialogue
or debate performance in Southern India in the Karavali
56 | P a g e
and Malnad regions of Karnataka and Kerala.
• It is a derived form of Yakshagana—a classical dance or
musical form of art from the same region.
• How is it different from Yakshagana? ➔
Unlike the Yakshagana performance, in the conventional
‘talamaddale,’ the artists sit across in a place without any
costumes and engage in testing their oratory skills based
on the episode chosen.
• The music is common for both Yakshagana performance
and ‘talamaddale’, the latter has only spoken word
without any dance or costumes.
• Hence it is an art form minus dance, costumes and stage
conventions.
More to know
• Yakshagaana, traditional theatre form of Karnataka, is
based on mythological stories and Puranas.
• The most popular episodes are from the Mahabharata i.e.
Draupadi swayamvar, Subhadra vivah, Abhimanyu vadh,
Karna-Arjun yuddh and from Ramayana i.e.
Rajyabhishek, Lav-Kush yuddh, Baali-Sugreeva yuddh
and Panchavati.
• Gombeyatta puppet theatre closely follows Yakshagana.
• Other important forms of theatre in India:
1) Nautanki (Uttar Pradesh) which often draws on
romantic Persian literature for its themes,
2) Tamasha (Maharashtra),
3) Bhavai (Gujarat),
4) Jatra (West Bengal),
5) Koodiyaattam, one of the oldest traditional theatre
forms of Kerala, is based on Sanskrit theatre traditions,
5) Mudiyettu, traditional folk theatre form of Kerala,
6) Bhaona, Assam,
7) Maach, Madhya Pradesh,
8) Bhand Pather, the traditional theatre form of Kashmir,
etc.
Q. 5) Which of the following has released the annual
rankings of the global Energy Transition Index:
(a) International Energy Agency
(b) Sustainable Energy for All
(c) World Economic Forum
(d) International Gas Union
Answer (c)World Economic Forum
Explanation- The Global Nutrition Report 2020 has
released recently which identifies India as having the
highest rates of inequalities in malnutrition.
About Energy Transition Index
•Recently, the World Economic Forum (WEF) has
released the annual rankings of the global Energy
Transition Index.
• The index benchmarks 115 economies on the current
performance of their energy systems across
1)Economic development and growth, 2)Environmental
sustainability and energy security
3)Access indicators
4)Readiness for transition to secure, sustainable,
affordable and inclusive energy systems.
• According to the recent report Sweden has topped the
Index for the third consecutive year and is followed by
Switzerland and Finland in the top three.
• Only 11 out of 115 countries have made steady
improvements in ETI scores since 2015.
Argentina, China, India and Italy are among the major
countries with consistent annual improvements.
• In China (78th), problems of air pollution have resulted
in policies to control emissions, electrify vehicles and
develop the world’s largest capacity for solar photovoltaic
(SPV) and onshore wind power plants.
• Scores for the US, Canada, Brazil and Australia were
either stagnant or declining.
• India has moved up two positions to rank 74th with
improvements in all three dimensions of the energy
triangle namely:
1)Economic development and growth.
2) Energy access and security.
3) Environmental sustainability.
• For India, gains have come from a government-
mandated renewable energy expansion programme i.e. to
add 275 GW by 2027.
• India has also made significant strides in energy
efficiency through bulk procurement of LED bulbs, smart
meters and programs for labelling of appliances. Similar
measures are being experimented to drive down the costs
of electric vehicles (EVs).
Q.6) The information given below is talking about which
river:
1. It is also known as Ponnani river.
2. Malampuzha dam is the largest among the reservoirs
built across this river.
3. It is referred to as "Peraar" in ancient scripts and
documents.
Choose the correct answer given below:
(a) Periyar River
(b) Nila River
(c) Tungabhadra River
(d) Kabini River
Answer (b) Nila River
Explanation- Recently, a webinar ‘Exploring River Nila’
was organized by Ministry of tourism.
57 | P a g e
About Nila River:
• Bharathappuzha also known as the Nila and ponani
river, is a river in India in the state of Kerala.
• Nila has groomed the culture and life of south Malabar
part of Kerala.
• Kannadipuzha originating from Thrimoorthy Hills of
Anamalais in Tamil Nadu joins with Kalpathipuzha at
Parali in Palakkad District and forms Nila or
Bharathappuzha river.
• It is also referred to as "Peraar" in ancient scripts and
documents.
• River Bharathapuzha is an interstate river and lifeline
water source for a population residing in four
administrative districts, namely Malappuram, Thrissur
and Palakkad districts of Kerala and Coimbatore, and
Tiruppur of Tamil Nadu.
• The Bharathappuzha is extensively dammed and here
are 11 reservoirs along the course of the river.
Malampuzha dam is the largest among the reservoirs built
across Bharathapuzha and its tributaries. Other dams in
the Bharathapuzha basin are Walayar Dam, Mangalam
Dam, Pothundi Dam, Meenkara Dam, Chulliyar Dam,
Thirumoorthy, Aliyar, Upper Aliyar, Chitturpuzha
regulator and Kanjirapuzha Dam
• It flows westward through Palakkad Gap (most
prominent discontinuity in the Western Ghats) and drains
into the Arabian Sea.
• Main Tributaries:
1)Kannadipuzha (Chitturpuzha),
2)Kalpathipuzha (Korapuzha),
3)Gayathripuzha
4)Thuthapuzha
Q. 7) Which of following statements is/are correct about
Ultraviolet Light:
1. UV light from the sun has shorter wavelengths and,
therefore is easily visible to the naked eye.
2. UV-C rays are the most harmful and are completely
absorbed by the Earth’s atmosphere.
3. Exposure to UV-B rays can cause DNA and cellular
damage in living organisms.
Choose the correct code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All are correct
Answer (b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation: First statement is NOT correct because UV
light from the sun has shorter wavelengths than visible
light and, therefore, is not visible to the naked eye.
•It is in news because Scientists are studying the use of
ultraviolet germicidal radiation (UVGI) to detect
Coronavirus in schools, restaurants and other public
places.
• Through this method, ultraviolet (UV) lights would be
able to disinfect contaminated public spaces to stop the
transmission of the virus.
UVGI uses the “destructive properties” of UV light to
target pathogens.
• UVGI replicates UV wavelengths that disinfects
contaminated spaces, air and water.
• UVGI lamps can also be installed in the corners of a
room and alternatively, can be installed in air ducts of
ventilation systems or portable or fixed air cleaners.
About UV rays
• UV light from the sun has shorter wavelengths than
visible light and, therefore, is not visible to the naked eye.
• The full spectrum of UV radiation is sourced from the
sun and can be subdivided into UV-A, UV-B and UV-C
rays.
• In this spectrum, UV-C rays are the most harmful and
are completely absorbed by the Earth’s atmosphere.
• While both UV-A and UV-B rays are harmful, exposure
to UV-B rays can cause DNA and cellular damage in
living organisms.
• Increased exposure to it can cause cells to become
carcinogenic, thereby increasing the risk of getting
cancer.
Benefits of UV rays
• UV light causes the body to produce vitamin D
(specifically, UVB), which is essential for life. The
human body needs some UV radiation to maintain
adequate vitamin D levels; however, excess exposure
produces harmful effects that typically outweigh the
benefits.
• UV rays also treat certain skin conditions. Modern
phototherapy has been used to successfully treat psoriasis,
eczema, jaundice, vitiligo, atopic dermatitis, and localized
scleroderma.
Q.8) Recently, scientists from IIT (Indian School of
Mines) Dhanbad and CSIR-Indian Institute of Chemical
Biology have developed the Z-scan method to monitor the
origin as well as the progression of:
(a) Covid-19
(b) Alzheimer disease
(c) Parkinson's disease
(d) Cancer
Answer : (c)Parkinson's disease
Explanation
• Recently, scientists from IIT (Indian School of Mines)
58 | P a g e
Dhanbad and CSIR-Indian Institute of Chemical Biology
(Kolkata) have developed the Z-scan method to monitor
the origin as well as the progression of Parkinson's disease
in human beings.
• The discovered Z-scan method is expected to help in
monitoring both the early as well as late stages of the
aggregation of ASyn and death of neuronal cells.
Parkinson Disease
• Parkinson’s disease is a chronic, degenerative
neurological disorder that affects the central nervous
system.
• It damages nerve cells in the brain dropping the levels
of dopamine. Dopamine is a chemical that sends
behavioral signals from the brain to the body.
• The disease causes a variety of "motor" symptoms
(symptoms related to movement of the muscles),
including rigidity, delayed movement, poor balance, and
tremors.
• Medication can help control the symptoms of the disease
but it can't be cured.
• It affects the age group from 6 to 60 years.
ASyn
• An aggregation of a protein called Alpha-synuclein
(ASyn) plays a crucial role in the development of
Parkinson’s disease.
• Protein aggregation is a biological phenomenon in
which destabilized proteins aggregate (i.e., accumulate
and clump together) leading to many diseases.
• Alpha-synuclein is a protein found in the human brain,
while smaller amounts are found in the heart, muscle and
other tissues.
• In the brain, alpha-synuclein is found mainly at the tips
of neurons in specialized structures called presynaptic
terminals.
• The release of neurotransmitters relays signals between
neurons and is critical for normal brain function.
• Until now, worldwide studies could not establish any
strong relation between ASyn aggregations and
subsequent death of neuronal cells observed in
Parkinson’s disease.
CSIR-Indian Institute of Chemical Biology
• Indian Institute of Chemical Biology (IICB) was
established in 1935 as the first non-official center in India
for biomedical research and was included within the aegis
of Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) in
1956.
• It is located in Kolkata (West Bengal).
• CSIR-IICB is engaged in research on diseases of
national importance and biological problems of global
interest and also helps to maintain momentum in life
science research. seven South American Country.
• It conducts research in a variety of areas including 1. Bolivia
chemistry, biochemistry, cell biology, molecular biology, 2. Paraguay
neurobiology and immunology which promotes 3. Peru
productive interdisciplinary interaction. 4. Brazil
Choose the correct code given below
Q. 9) Consider the following features of Andes (a) 1 and 2 only
Mountains: (b) 2 and 4 only
1. The Andes Mountains are the highest mountain range (c) 1 and 3 only
outside Asia. (d) 2 and 3 only
2. These are the longest continental mountain range in the Answer (b) 2 and 4 only
world along the eastern edge of South America.
3. The world's highest volcanoes are in the Andes, Explanation : The Andes extend from north to south
including Ojos del Salado on the Chile-Argentina border. through seven South American countries: Venezuela,
Which of the following feature is/are correct: Colombia, Ecuador, Peru, Bolivia, Chile, and Argentina.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All are correct

Answer (c) 1 and 3 only

Explanation : Second statement is NOT correct because
Andes Mountains are the longest continental mountain
range in the world, forming a continuous highland along
the western edge of South America.

About Andes Mountains

• Andes Mountain Range (Fold Mountain) lies in South
American continent which is the second highest mountain
range of the world, after Himalayas.
• These ranges are in turn grouped into three major
divisions based on climate: the Tropical Andes, the Dry
Andes, and the Wet Andes.
• The Andes Mountains are the highest mountain range
outside Asia.
• The highest mountain outside Asia, is Argentina's
Mount Aconcagua which is highest peak in Andes
Mountains
• The peak of Chimborazo in the Ecuadorian Andes is
farther from the Earth's center than any other location on
the Earth's surface, due to the equatorial bulge resulting
from the Earth's rotation.
• The world's highest volcanoes are in the Andes,
including Ojos del Salado on the Chile-Argentina border.
• The Andes are also part of the American Cordillera, a
chain of mountain ranges (cordillera) that consists of an
almost continuous sequence of mountain ranges that form
the western "backbone" of North America, Central
America, South America and Antarctica.

Q. 10) The Andes extend from north to south through

seven South American countries. With reference to this
statement, which of the following is NOT part of the

59 | P a g e
 Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI):
1. The chairman of SEBI is nominated by the Union
Government of India.
2. It can compel certain companies to list their shares in
one or more Securities exchanges.
3. It is a non-statutory body for regulating
securities and commodity market in India.
Choose the correct code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All are correct

Answer (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation : Third Statement is NOT correct because It
is a Statutory Body and given statutory powers through
the SEBI Act, 1992.

About SEBI
• It was first established in 1988 (originally formed in
1992) as a non-statutory body for regulating the securities
market.
• It was given Statutory Powers through the SEBI Act,
1992.
• It was constituted as the regulator of capital markets in
India under a resolution of the Government of India.
• After the amendment of 1999, collective investment
schemes were brought under SEBI except Nidhis, chit
funds and cooperatives.
• The SEBI is managed by its members, which consists of
the following:
1)The chairman is nominated by the Union Government
of India.
2) Two members, i.e., Officers from the Union Finance
Ministry.
3) One member from the Reserve Bank of India.
4) The remaining five members are nominated by the
Union Government of India, out of them at least three
shall be whole-time members.

Powers
• For the discharge of its functions efficiently, SEBI has
been vested with the following powers:
1)to approve by−laws of Securities exchanges.
2) to require the Securities exchange to amend their
by−laws.
3) inspect the books of accounts and call for periodical
returns from recognised Securities exchanges.
4) inspect the books of accounts of financial
intermediaries.
23 JUNE
5) compel certain companies to list their shares in one or
more Securities exchanges.
Q. 1) Which of the following statements is true about
• SEBI has three functions rolled into one body: quasi-

60 | P a g e
legislative, quasi-judicial and quasi-executive.
• It drafts regulations in its legislative capacity, it conducts
investigation and enforcement action in its executive
function and it passes rulings and orders in its judicial
capacity.
• Though this makes it very powerful, there is an appeal
process to create accountability.
• There is a Securities Appellate Tribunal which is a three-
member tribunal
• A second appeal lies directly to the Supreme Court.
Q. 2) Which of following statement is CORRECT
regarding Shanghai Cooperation Organization:
1. It was formed in 2001 and was
preceded by the Shanghai Five mechanism.
2. It has Eight member states with India being one of its
founding member State.
3. The Heads of State Council (HSC) is the supreme
decision-making body in the SCO.
Choose the correct code from the statements given above:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All are correct
Answer (b) 1 and 3 only
Explanation- Second statement is NOT correct because
India is Not founding member state of SCO.
• External Affairs Minister of India S Jaishankar recently
represented India at foreign minister meet. The meet was
attended by foreign ministers through video conferencing.
About SCO
• What is it? ➔ The SCO is a permanent
intergovernmental international organisation.
• It is a Eurasian political, economic, and security alliance
and has been the primary security pillar of the region.
• History ➔ It was formed in 2001. It was preceded by the
Shanghai Five mechanism.
• The Heads of State Council (HSC) ➔ is the supreme
decision-making body in the SCO. It meets once a year
and adopts decisions and guidelines on all important
matters of the organisation.
• The organisation has two permanent bodies ➔
○ the SCO Secretariat based in Beijing.
○ the Executive Committee of the Regional Anti-Terrorist
Structure (RATS) based in Tashkent.
• Membership ➔ It was announced in 2001 by leaders of
China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan, and
Uzbekistan. Then the organisation has expanded its
61 | P a g e
membership to eight countries when India and Pakistan
joined SCO as full members on 9 June 2017 at a summit
in Astana, Kazakhstan.
○ Eight member states ➔ India, Kazakhstan, China,
Kyrgyzstan, Pakistan, Russia, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan.
○ Four observer states ➔ Afghanistan, Belarus, Iran and
Mongolia.
• Language ➔ The SCO’s official languages are Russian
and Chinese.
Q.3) With reference to Pashupatinath Temple, Consider
the following statements:
1. This temple stretches on both sides of the Bagmati
River.
2. Only Hindus are allowed through the gates of the main
temple and was conferred the status of a World Heritage
Site in 1979.
Which of the above statement is/are correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer :(c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation- Recently, a Memorandum of Understanding
(MoU) was signed under Nepal-Bharat Maitri:
Development Partnership, for the construction of a
sanitation facility at the Pashupatinath Temple,
Kathmandu.
• The facility will be constructed under the Nepal- Bharat
Maitri: Development Partnership as a high impact
community development scheme by India.
• Financial Assistance ➔ India has pledged to extend
financial assistance amounting to Rs. 2.33 crore.
• Implemented by ➔ Kathmandu Metropolitan City.
• Norms and Completion ➔ Norms to be laid out by the
Government of Nepal and completion within 15 months.
• Earlier in 2018, Nepal-Bharat Maitri Pashupati
Dharmashala was also inaugurated in Kathmandu, Nepal.
• Significance ➔ This initiative is another milestone in
strengthening cultural ties and people-to-people contacts
between the two countries.
About Pashupatinath Temple
• Dedicated to Lord Shiva, Pashupatinath is one of the
most important religious sites in Asia for devotees of
Shiva.
• It is the largest temple complex in Nepal and stretches
on both sides of the Bagmati River.
• Temples dedicated to several other Hindu and Buddhist
deities surround the temple of Pashupatinath.
• Only Hindus are allowed through the gates of the main
temple.
• It was conferred the status of a World Heritage Site in
1979 by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and
Cultural Organization (UNESCO).
Q.4) The Gaza Strip is a small boot-shaped
territory along the Mediterranean coast between :
(a) Israel and Jordan
(b) Lebanon and Jordan
(c) Syria and Egypt
(d) Egypt and Israel
Answer (d) Egypt and Israel
Explanation: U.S. Secretary of State Mike Pompeo met
Israeli PM Benjamin Netanyahu to discuss plans to annex
parts of the West Bank.
About West Bank
• The West Bank is located to the west of the Jordan River.
• It is a patch of land about one and a half times the size
of Goa, was captured by Jordan after the 1948 Arab-
Israeli War.
• Israel snatched it back during the Six-Day War of 1967
and has occupied it ever since.
• It is a landlocked territory, bordered by Jordan to the east
and Israel to the south, west and north.
• Following the Oslo Accords between the Israeli
government and the Palestine Liberation Organization
(PLO) during the 1990s, part of the West Bank came
under the control of the Palestinian Authority.
• With varying levels of autonomy, the Palestinian
Authority controls close to 40 percent of West Bank
today, while the rest is controlled by Israel.
About Gaza strip
• Location ➔ The Gaza Strip is a small boot-shaped
territory along the Mediterranean coast between Egypt
and Israel.
• A couple of years later in 2007, Hamas, an anti- Israel
military group, took over Gaza Strip. The militia group is
often involved in violent clashes with the Israeli Defence
Forces.
• While Palestine has staked claim to both territories —
West Bank and Gaza Strip — Israel’s objective has been
to keep expanding Jewish settlements in these regions.
Q. 5) Which of the following most appropriatly defines
SAMARTH ERP:
(a) It is a platform to help the students to locate their
examination centre and see the distance between the
current location and examination centre.
62 | P a g e
(b) It is an Open Standard, Open Source
Architecture, Secure, Scalable and Evolutionary Process
Automation Engine for Universities and Higher
Educational Institutions.
(c) It is a platform to give easy access to high value and
technical agricultural equipment at farmer’s doorstep.
(d) A single platform which provides services to all Indian
citizens from Central to Local Government bodies as well
as Private Organizations.
Answer (b) It is an Open Standard, Open Source
Architecture, Secure, Scalable and Evolutionary Process
Automation Engine for Universities and Higher
Educational Institutions.
Explanation- The Global Nutrition Report 2020 has
released recently which identifies India as having the
highest rates of inequalities in malnutrition.
About SAMARTH: e-Governance platform
• Recently, The Ministry of Human Resource
Development (MoHRD) has developed an e-Governance
platform, SAMARTH Enterprises
Resource Planning (ERP), under the National Mission of
Education in Information and Communication
Technology Scheme (NMEICT).
• What is it? ➔ It is an Open Standard, Open Source
Architecture, Secure, Scalable and Evolutionary Process
Automation Engine for Universities and Higher
Educational Institutions.
• Benefits ➔ It will help faculties, students and staff at a
University and Higher Educational Institutions.
• SAMARTH for the first time has been implemented at
National Institute of Technology, Kurukshetra.
• Objectives ➔ The objective of this initiative is to
automate the processes of the Institute.
• This initiative will enhance productivity through better
information management in the institute by seamless
access to information, and its utilization for various
purposes.
National Mission of Education in
Information and Communication Technology Scheme
(NMEICT)
• A Centrally Sponsored Scheme to leverage the potential
of ICT, in teaching and learning process for the benefit of
all the learners in Higher Education Institutions in any
time and mode.
• Launched in ➔ 2009
• Significance ➔ This was expected to be a major
intervention in enhancing the Gross Enrolment Ratio
(GER) in Higher Education by 5 percentage points during
the XI Five Year Plan period.
• What will it provide? ➔ It is providing connectivity,
along with provision for access devices, to institutions,
learners and content generation.
Q.6) Malathion sometimes seen in news is:
(a) An asteroid that circles the sun inside Venus's orbit.
(b) An endemic deep-water species of fish.
(c) A insecticide that is used to kill insects on agricultural
crops.
(d) A newly developed robot to take care of coronavirus
patients.
Answer (c) A pesticide that is used to kill insects on
agricultural crops
Explanation-
• India supplies 25 tonnes of Malathion to Iran to curb
desert locust menace.
• Malathion is an insecticide in the chemical family
known as organophosphates, used to kill insects on
agricultural crops.
• Malathion 96% ULV is used in Desert Locust control in
India.
Q. 7) Which of following statements is/are correct about
United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification:
1. It is the only convention stemming from a direct
recommendation of the conference of Convention on
Biological Diversity.
2. It is the only internationally legally binding framework
set up to address the problem of desertification.
Choose the correct code given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (b) 2 only
Explanation: First statement is NOT correct because It is
the only convention stemming from a direct
recommendation of the
Rio Conference’s Agenda 21.
About United Nations Convention to Combat
Desertification
• It is the sole legally binding international agreement
linking environment and development to sustainable land
management or It is the only internationally legally
binding framework set up to address the problem of
desertification.
• Established ➔ 1994.
• It is the only convention stemming from a direct
63 | P a g e
recommendation of the Rio Conference’s Agenda 21.
• To help publicise the Convention, 2006 was declared
“International Year of Deserts and Desertification”.
• Focus areas ➔ The Convention addresses specifically
the arid, semi-arid and dry sub-humid areas, known as the
drylands, where some of the most vulnerable ecosystems
and peoples can be found.
• Aim ➔ Its 197 Parties aim, through partnerships, to
implement the Convention and achieve the Sustainable
Development Goals. The end goal is to protect land from
over-use and drought, so it can continue to provide food,
water and energy.
• The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate
Change is the nodal Ministry for this Convention.
Q.8) Recently, the first Assessment of Climate Change
over the Indian Region has been published by:
(a) Niti Ayog
(b) Ministry of Earth Sciences
(c) Ministry of Science and Technology
(d) Indian Space Research Organisation
Answer : b) Ministry of Earth Sciences
Explanation
Assessment of Climate Change over the Indian Region
• Recently, the first Assessment of Climate Change over
the Indian Region has been published by the Ministry of
Earth Sciences (MoES).
• It is India’s first-ever national forecast on the impact of
global warming on the subcontinent in the coming
century.
• These projections, based on a climate forecasting model
developed at the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology
(IITM), Pune, will be part of the next report of the
Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC),
expected to be ready in 2022.
• This is a significant step for climate science and policy
in India because existing projections are put in the context
of historical trends in land and ocean temperatures,
monsoon rainfall, floods, droughts and Himalayan
warming and glacier loss.
• The report highlights are a s follows
1) The report indicates a rise in worldwide average
surface air temperatures by 5°C by the end of the century
if human activities keep emitting GHGs at the current
rate.
2) The global average temperature in the last century has
gone up by 1.1°C, according to the latest estimates by the
IPCC.
3) Another significant highlight of the assessment is the
projected variability in the rainfall, especially during the
monsoon season which brings 70% of the rainfall
received by India and is one of the primary drivers of its
rural agrarian economy.
4) Monsoon rainfall could change by an average of 14%
by 2100 that could go as high as 22.5%.
5) It is not mentioned if this change will be an increase or
a decrease but still represents variability.
6) Overall rainfall during the monsoon season has
decreased by 6% between 1950 and 2015.

Q. 9) Which of the following is NOT a country that

contains part of the Amazon River Basin?
(a) Columbia
(b) Peru
(c) Guyana
(d) Chile

Answer (d) Chile

Explanation :
• The Amazon basin is the part of South America drained
by the Amazon River and its tributaries.
• It is located in the countries of Bolivia, Brazil,
Colombia, Ecuador, Guyana, Peru, Suriname and
Venezuela.

24 JUNE

Q. 1) Which of the following statements is true about Atal

Pension Yojana:
1. Any citizen of India between the age group 18-40 years
can join the scheme.
2. The amount of pension will not be given for lifetime to
the spouse on death of
the subscriber.
3. It is administered by Pension Fund Regulatory and
Development Authority through National Pension System
(NPS).
Choose the correct code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
Q. 10) Which of the following is the Northern most river (c) 1 and 3 only
in South America (d) All are correct
(a) Orinoco
(b) Parana Answer (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Sao Francisco River Explanation : Second Statement is NOT correct because
(d) Madeira River The amount of pension is guaranteed for lifetime to the
spouse on death of the subscriber.
Answer (a) Orinoco • The flagship social security scheme of the Government
Explanation : of India - ‘Atal Pension Yojana’ (APY) - has completed

64 | P a g e
five years of implementation and garnered over 2.2 crore
subscribers.
About APY
• Target Segment ➔ The scheme was launched on 9th
May, 2015, with the objective of creating a universal
social security system for all Indians, especially the poor,
the under-privileged and the workers in the
unorganised sector.
• Administered By ➔ Pension Fund Regulatory and
Development Authority through National Pension System
(NPS).
• Eligibility ➔ Any citizen of India can join the APY
scheme. The age of the subscriber should be between 18-
40 years. The contribution levels would vary and would
be low if a subscriber joins early and increases if she joins
late.
• Benefits ➔ It provides a minimum guaranteed pension
ranging from Rs 1000 to Rs 5000 on attaining 60 years of
age.
• The amount of pension is guaranteed for lifetime to the
spouse on death of the subscriber.
• In the event of death of both the subscriber and the
spouse, the entire pension corpus is paid to the nominee.
• Tax Benefits ➔ Contributions to the Atal Pension
Yojana (APY) are eligible for tax benefits similar to the
National Pension System (NPS).
• Analysis ➔ The scheme has been implemented
comprehensively across the country covering all states
and Union Territories with male to female subscription
ratio of 57:43.
• However, only 5% of the eligible population has been
covered under APY till date.
Q. 2) What are the goals of Mission Sagar:
1. Seek a climate of trust and transparency.
2. Respect for international maritime rules and norms by
all countries.
3. Peaceful resolution of maritime issues
Choose the correct code from the statements given above:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All are correct
Answer (d) All are correct
Explanation- As part of India’s outreach amidst the
ongoing COVID-19 pandemic, ships have departed for
Maldives, Mauritius, Seychelles, Madagascar and
Comoros, to provide Food Items, COVID related
Medicines including HCQ Tablets and Medical
Assistance Teams under Mission Sagar.
65 | P a g e
• What is it? ➔ As part of the mission, INS Kesari would
enter the Port of Male in the Republic of Maldives, to
provide them 600 tons of food provisions.
• The deployment is in consonance with the PMs vision
of Security and Growth for All in the Region ‘SAGAR’.
• Significance ➔ This deployment is in line with India’s
role as the first responder in the region and builds on the
excellent relations existing between these countries to
battle the COVID-19 pandemic and its resultant
difficulties.
• The operation is being progressed in close coordination
with the Ministries of Defence and External Affairs, and
other agencies of the govt.
About Sagar Mission(Security and Growth for All in the
Region)
• Background ➔ SAGAR is a term coined by PM Modi
in 2015 during his Mauritius visit with a focus on the blue
economy.
• Priority ➔ It is a maritime initiative which gives priority
to the Indian Ocean region for ensuring peace, stability
and prosperity of India in the Indian Ocean region.
• The goal ➔ is to seek a climate of trust and
transparency; respect for international maritime rules and
norms by all countries; sensitivity to each other`s
interests; peaceful resolution of maritime issues; and
increase in maritime cooperation.
• It is in line with the principles of the Indian Ocean Rim
Association.
About IORA
• IORA is an inter-governmental organisation to
strengthen regional cooperation and sustainable
development within the Indian Ocean Region.
• IORA has identified six priority areas ➔ namely:
(1) maritime security,
(2) trade and investment facilitation,
(3) fisheries management,
(4) disaster risk reduction,
(5) academic and scientific cooperation and
(6) tourism promotion and cultural exchanges.
• Established in ➔ 1997.
• Membership ➔ IORA has 22 Member States and 9
Dialogue Partners.
• Secretariat ➔ Mauritius.
• Structure ➔ IORA’s apex body is the Council of
Foreign Ministers (COM) which meets annually.
Q.3) Consider the following statements:
1. Toda Tribe is a pastoral tribe of the Himalayas in the
north eastern region of India.
2. The traditional Toda dress is a distinctive shawl which
is called putukuli.
Which of the above statement is/are correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (b) 2 only
Explanation- First Statement Is NOT correct because
Toda Tribe is a pastoral tribe of the Nilgiri Hills of
southern India.
• It is in news because Many women and indigenous Toda
artisans from the Nilgiris are
producing thousands of stylish, embroidered masks for
local residents, police, and sanitary workers.
About Toda tribe
• Residence ➔ Toda Tribe is a pastoral tribe of the Nilgiri
Hills of southern India.
• Language ➔ The Toda language is Dravidian but is the
most unusual and different among the languages
belonging to the Dravidian family.
• They live in settlements of from three to seven small
thatched houses.
• Work ➔ They traditionally trade dairy products, as well
as cane and bamboo articles, with the other Nilgiri
peoples.
• Toda Embroidery - In the Toda language it is called
pohor. The traditional Toda dress is a distinctive shawl
which is called putukuli.
•Significance ➔ Considered a grand garment, it is only
worn for special occasions like visits to the temple,
festivals and finally as a shroud.
• Depiction ➔ The embroidery is done by Toda women
and has distinctive red and black (and occasionally blue)
thread work in geometric designs on unbleached white
cotton fabric.
• Recognition ➔ It has got a Geographical Indications
(GI) Tag.
Q.4) World Investment Report is issued by :
(a) UN Conference on Trade and Development
(UNCTAD)
(b) World Economic Forum
(c) World Trade Organization
(d) Organisation for Economic Co-operation and
Development
Answer (a) UN Conference on Trade and Development
(UNCTAD)
66 | P a g e
Explanation: The World Investment Report 2020 has
been released by the UN
Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) .
About World Investment Report
• The World Investment Report has been published
annually since 1991.
• It covers the latest trends in foreign direct investment
around the world.
• India’s Investment Scenario ➔ India was the world’s
9th largest recipient of foreign direct investments (FDI) in
2019 with $51 billion in foreign investment.
• In 2018, India was the world’s 12th largest recipient
with $42 billion foreign investment.
• Global Scenario ➔ Global FDI flows are forecast to
decrease by up to 40% in 2020 from their 2019 value of
$1.54 trillion. This would bring FDI below $1 trillion for
the first time since 2005.
About UNCTAD
• UNCTAD is a permanent intergovernmental body
established by the United Nations General Assembly in
1964.
• It is part of the UN Secretariat.
• It reports to the UN General Assembly and the
Economic and Social Council, but has its own
membership, leadership, and budget.
• It is also a part of the United Nations Development
Group.
• Objectives and roles ➔ It supports developing countries
to access the benefits of a globalized economy more fairly
and effectively. Along with other UN departments and
agencies, it also measures the progress made in the
Sustainable Development Goals, as set out in Agenda
2030.
• Headquartered ➔ Geneva, Switzerland.
•Other Reports ➔
a) The Trade and Development Report
b) Technology and Innovation Report
c) Digital Economy Report among others.
Q. 5) Recently, three Olms have been put on display in
Slovenia’s Postojna Cave, where they hatched in 2016 in
a rare successful breeding. With reference to this,
Consider the following statements :
1. In contrast to most amphibians they are entirely aquatic
and eats, sleeps, and breeds underwater.
2. They are found in large subterranean aquatic karst
systems formed in limestone and dolomite rocks, and may
be found in cave entrances.
Which of the above statement is/are correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation-
About Olms
• The Olms are eyeless (skin covered eyes) pink
salamanders also known as the "baby dragon" and
"human fish" for its pale skin-like colour.
• They feed on detritus and endemic cave vertebrates and
hide in crevices or bottom sediment when disturbed. They
can survive without food for up to 10 years.
• A long-lived species that only matures to a sexual stage
after the age of 12-15 years and reproduces very slowly.
• It can live a century and breeds only once a decade
usually in laboratories throughout Europe or deep in caves
away from people.
• They have a powerful sensory system of smell, taste,
hearing and electro sensitivity.
• Habitat ➔ They are found in large subterranean aquatic
karst systems formed in limestone and dolomite rocks,
and may be found in cave entrances.
• They are an entirely aquatic species and prefer waters
ranging from 5- 15°C.
• Found in Bosnia and Herzegovina, Croatia, Italy,
Slovenia and France.
• Threats ➔ The olm requires clean water, and is therefore
vulnerable to water pollution.
Q.6) Vadhavan Port recently seen in news is proposed in:
(a) Gujarat
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) West bengal
(d) Maharashtra
Answer (d) Maharashtra
Explanation-
• Recently, the Ministry of Environment, Forest and
Climate Change has said that there is no bar on building a
port in the ecologically fragile zone.
• The Ministry said that the ports as an industry are
allowed in the ecologically sensitive Dahanu taluka area,
which includes Vadhavan in Maharashtra’s Palghar
district, where the Centre plans to build an ambitious new
major Vadhavan port estimated to cost Rs 65,544.54
crore.
• Vadhavan will be set up as a corporate port under the
Companies Act.
• It would be developed as a landlord port, with the port
company building the basic port infrastructure, while
67 | P a g e
berths, terminals and associated facilities will be
constructed by private firms in the public-private-
partnership (PPP) mode.
Q. 7) Which of following statements is/are correct about
Dexamethasone:
1. It is a generic steroid widely used in other diseases to
reduce inflammation.
2. It is banned in-competition by the World Anti- Doping
Agency.
Choose the correct code given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
• It is the world’s first coronavirus treatment proven to
reduce the risk of death among severely ill patients.
• According to scientists, the drug has been proven to
reduce the risk of death significantly in COVID-19
patients on ventilation by as much as 35% and patients on
oxygen by 20%.
About Dexamethasone
• Dexamethasone is a generic steroid widely
used in other diseases to reduce inflammation.
• The drug helps stop some of the damage that can happen
when the body’s immune system goes into overdrive as it
tries to fight off coronavirus.
• It is used to treat a range of diseases, including
rheumatism, asthma, allergies, and even to help cancer
patients better handle nausea triggered by chemotherapy.
• The drug -Dexamethasone is banned in-competition by
the World Anti-
Doping Agency (WADA) but its usage is allowed out-of-
competition if athletes have the requisite Therapeutic
usage Exemption (TUE).
About Steroids
• Steroids are a man-made version of chemicals, known
as hormones that are made naturally in the human body.
• Steroids are designed to act like these hormones to
reduce inflammation known as corticosteroids.
• There are also anabolic steroids used by bodybuilders
and athletes.
Q.8) Yanomami , recently seen in news is an indigenous
tribal group native to which of the following regions?
a) Amazon Rainforest
b) Miombo woodlands
c) Sumatra Rainforest • During the summers in the region around Buenos Aires,
d) Andaman & Nicobar Islands the pampero storms are a welcome feature marking the
end of long periods of high humidity and extreme heat.
Answer : a. Amazon Rainforest
Explanation
• Recently, a Yanomami indigenous boy died in Brazil
after contracting Covid-19, raising fears for the Amazon
tribes.
• Brazil is home to an estimated 8,00,000 indigenous
people from more than 300 ethnic groups.
• Guarani, Kaingang, Pataxo Ha Ha Hae Tupinamba,
Yanomami, Tikuna and Akuntsu are popular tribe of
Amazon.
• Yanomami, also called South American Indians, live in
the remote forest of the Orinoco River basin in southern
Venezuela and the northernmost reaches of the Amazon
River basin in northern Brazil.
• They numbered around 27,000 individuals throughout
their range.
• Yanomami live in small, scattered, semi-permanent
villages and speak the Xiriana language.
• They practice hunting and slash-and-burn agriculture.
Q. 10) The Atacama Desert is the driest non-polar desert
in the world. The desert owes its extreme aridity to a
Q. 9) Which of following statements is/are true about
constant temperature inversion due to:
1. It is a burst of cold polar air from the west, southwest
(a) Benguela current
or south in the south of Brazil, Argentina, Uruguay,
(b) Agulhas current
Paraguay and Bolivia.
(c) Humboldt current
2. The pampero storms mark the end of long periods of
(d) Brazil current
high humidity and extreme heat during the summers in the
region around Buenos Aires.
Answer (c)Humboldt current
Choose the correct code given below
Explanation :
(a) 1 only
• The desert owes its extreme aridity to a constant
(b) 2 only
temperature inversion due to the cool north-flowing
(c) Both 1 and 2
Humboldt ocean current and to the presence of the strong
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Pacific anticyclone.
• The Atacama Desert is a desert plateau in South America
Answer (c) Both 1 and 2
on the Pacific coast, west of the Andes Mountains.
Explanation :
• The Atacama Desert is the driest nonpolar desert in the
• The pampero is a burst of cold polar air from the west,
world, as well as the only true desert to receive less
southwest or south on the pampas in the south of Brazil,
precipitation than the polar deserts.
Argentina, Uruguay, Paraguay and Bolivia.
• Most of the desert is composed of stony terrain, salt
• The Pampero is most common at winter in the southern
lakes (salares), sand, and felsic lava that flows towards the
hemisphere (principally between May and August).
Andes.

68 | P a g e

25 JUNE
Q. 1) Which of the following statements is true about
Garib Kalyan Rojgar Abhiyaan:
1. It aims to empower and provide livelihood
opportunities to the returnee migrant workers and rural
citizens.
2. It will be operationalised through the Common Service
69 | P a g e
Centres and Krishi Vigyan Kendras.
3. This campaign will work in mission mode for 125 days
with an outlay of Rs. 50,00000 crore.
Choose the correct code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All are correct
Answer (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation : Third Statement is NOT correct because
This campaign will work in mission mode for 125 days
with an outlay of Rs. 50,000 crore. (50 thousand crore and
not 50 lakh crore)
Garib Kalyan Rojgar Abhiyaan
• Aim ➔ To empower and provide livelihood
opportunities to the returnee migrant workers and rural
citizens.
• Coverage ➔ It will be implemented across 116 districts
in the six States namely Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya
Pradesh, Rajasthan, Jharkhand and Odisha.
• Duration and Outlay ➔ This campaign will work in
mission mode for 125 days with an outlay of Rs. 50,000
crore.
◎ Features ➔ It will involve 25 different types of works
to provide employment to the migrant workers on one
hand and create infrastructure in the rural regions of the
country on the other hand.
• Implementation ➔ It will be operationalised through the
Common Service Centres and Krishi Vigyan Kendras.
• Ministerial Involved ➔ It will be a coordinated effort
between 12 different Ministries/Departments, namely
Rural Development, Panchayati Raj, Road Transport &
Highways, Mines, Drinking Water & Sanitation,
Environment, Railways, Petroleum & Natural Gas, New
& Renewable Energy, Border Roads, Telecom and
Agriculture.
• Background ➔ Common Services Centres are a
strategic cornerstone of the National e-Governance Plan
(NeGP).
• It was approved in May 2006 to introduce e-governance
on a massive scale under the National Common Minimum
Programme.
• Aim ➔ It aims to provide high quality and cost-effective
video, voice and data content and services, in the areas of
e-governance, education, health, telemedicine,
entertainment as well as other private services.
• Features ➔ A highlight of the CSCs is that it offers web-
enabled e- governance services in rural areas, including
application forms, certificates and utility payments such
as electricity, telephone and water bills.
Q. 2) Which of the following is INCORRECT in context
of Krishi Vigyan Kendra(KVK):
(a) The first KVK was established in 1974 at Puducherry.
(b) It is an integral part of the National Agricultural
Research System.
(c) The KVK scheme is financed in the ratio of 60:40
between center and state government.
(d) They produce products like seed,
planting material, bio-agents, and livestock.
Answer (c) The KVK scheme is financed in the ratio of
60:40 between center and state government.
Explanation- Third Statement is NOT correct because
The KVK scheme is 100% financed by the Government
of India.
About Krishi Vigyan Kendra
• It is an integral part of the National Agricultural
Research System (NARS).
• Composition ➔ It consists of scientists, technical staff,
administration support staff and auxiliary staff.
• Established ➔ The first KVK was established in 1974
at Puducherry.
• Functions ➔ KVKs also produce quality technological
products like seed,
planting material, bio-agents, and livestock and make it
available to farmers.
• Funding ➔ The KVK scheme is 100% financed by the
Government of India.
Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding Marsh
Crocodile:
1. It is a saltwater crocodile native to
southern Iran to the Indian subcontinent.
2. It is listed as endangered in the IUCN list of threatened
species.
Which of the above statement is/are correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (b) 2 only
Explanation- First Statement is NOT correct because It is
a freshwater crocodile native to southern Iran to the Indian
subcontinent.
• Second statement is NOT correct because It is listed as
Vulnerable in the IUCN list of threatened species.
About Mugger or Marsh Crocodile:
70 | P a g e
• Habitat ➔ It is a freshwater crocodile native to southern
Iran to the Indian subcontinent.It is extinct in Bhutan and
Myanmar.
• IUCN Status ➔ Vulnerable
• CITES ➔ Appendix I
• Threats ➔ a) Habitat destruction b) Entanglement and
drowning in fishing
equipment and c) Increasing incidents of conflict with
humans.
Estuarine or Saltwater Crocodile:
• It is considered as the Earth’s largest living crocodile
species native to saltwater habitats and brackish wetlands.
• Habitat ➔ It is found throughout the east coast of India,
Southeast Asia and northern Australia.
• IUCN Status ➔ Least Concern
• Threats: a) Illegal hunting b) habitat loss and c)
antipathy toward the species because of its reputation as a
man-eater.
Gharial
• Distribution ➔ It was once found across Bangladesh,
Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal and Pakistan. However,
currently it survives in several severely fragmented
populations in India and Nepal.
• Protected areas ➔ National Chambal Sanctuary and
Katarniaghat Wildlife
Sanctuary.
• IUCN Status ➔ Critically Endangered
• Wild Life (Protection) Act,1972 ➔ Schedule I
• CITES ➔ Appendix I
• Threats ➔ Construction of Dam, barrages, and water
abstraction, entanglement in fishing nets, River bed
cultivation and sand mining.
Q.4) Recent excavations at Kodumanal village have
thrown light on burial rituals and the concept of afterlife
in megalithic culture. With reference to this, Kodumanal
village is located on the northern banks of:
(a) Amaravati River
(b) Shimsha River
(c) Moyar River
(d) Noyyal River
Answer (d) Noyyal River
Explanation:
About Kodumanal Exacavations
• The researchers have identified 250 cairn-circles at the
village in Erode district.
• Earlier excavations revealed that the site served as a
trade-cum-industrial centre from 5th century BCE to 1st
century BCE.
• The rectangular chambered cists, each two metres long
and six metres wide, are made of stone slabs, and the
entire grave is surrounded by boulders that form a circle.
• The grave could be of a village head or the head of the
community as the size of two boulders, each facing east
and west, are bigger than other boulders.
• Believing that the deceased person will get a new life
after death, pots and bowls filled with grains were placed
outside the chambers.
Kodumanal village
• It is a village located in the Erode district in the southern
Indian state of Tamil Nadu.
• The place is an important archaeological site.
• It is located on the northern banks of Noyyal River, a
tributary of the Cauvery.
Megaliths Culture
• Megaliths refer to large stone structures that were
constructed either as burial sites or as commemorative
sites.
• The burial sites are the sites with actual burial remains,
such as dolmenoid cists (box-shaped stone burial
chambers), cairn circles (stone circles with defined
peripheries), and capstones (distinctive mushroom-
shaped burial chambers found mainly in Kerala).
• The megalithic culture lasted from the Neolithic Stone
Age to the early Historical Period (2500 BCE to CE 200)
across the world.
• In India, the majority of the megaliths are of the Iron
Age (1500 BC to 500 BC).
• Megaliths are spread across peninsular India,
concentrated in the states of Maharashtra (mainly in
Vidarbha), Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Andhra
Pradesh and Telangana.
• The chambers containing the mortal remains were
usually made of terracotta.
Q. 5) With reference to Civil Services Board, Consider
the following statements :
1. The board can decide to transfer a civil servant before
completion of his or her fixed tenure.
2. The civil services board is headed by chief secretary of
India.
Which of the above statement is/are correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (a) 1 only
Explanation- Second statement is NOT correct because
The civil services board is headed by chief secretary of a
state.
About Civil services Board
• Background ➔ To insulate the bureaucracy from
political interference and to put an end to frequent
transfers of civil servants by political bosses, the Supreme
Court had in 2013 directed the Centre and the states to set
up a civil services board to consider transfers and postings
of bureaucrats among others.
• As per rules, all states should have a civil services board
to decide on transfers and postings of the bureaucrats.
• Functions ➔
○ The board is mandated to decide on the transfer of a
civil servant before
completion of his or her fixed tenure.
○ The rules mandate the civil services board to submit an
annual report on January 1 to the central government
about the date of the meetings held by them.
Composition ➔
• The civil services board is headed by chief secretary of
a state.
• It has senior most additional chief secretary or chairman,
Board of Revenue, Financial Commissioner or an officer
of equivalent rank and status as member.
• In addition, it will have Principal Secretary or Secretary,
Department of Personnel in the state government as
member secretary.
How do they see the board to be lending officer’s
supremacy over them?
• If any officer is to be transferred before completing his
minimum tenure, the board will record the reasons for the
transfer.
• It will seek views from the concerned officer and then
give a judgement on whether the tenure of the officer is to
be ended mid-way.
• The final authority will be the CM.
Q.6) The Khadi and Village Industries Commission
(KVIC) has rolled out a
unique project to produce Neera. Neera is extracted from
which of the following :
(a) Bamboo plants
(b) Palm Trees
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Jatropha
Answer (b) Palm Trees
Explanation-
• The Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC)

71 | P a g e
has rolled out a unique project to produce Neera and Palm
jaggery which has huge potential to create employment.
Aim ➔ The project that aims at promoting
Neera as a substitute to soft drinks while also
creating self-employment to Adivasis and
traditional trappers was launched at Dahanu in
Palghar district of Maharashtra.
About Neera
• Neera, extracted from palm trees before sunrise, is a
nutrient-rich health drink consumed in many states.
However, due to lack of institutionalized market
technique, the commercial production and large scale
marketing of Neera has not commenced yet.
• There are about 10 crore palm trees across the country
and a wide range of products like candies, milk
chocolates, palm cola, ice-cream and traditional sweets
can be produced from neera if properly marketed.
• India has an abundance of palm fields in states like
Maharashtra, Gujarat, Goa, Daman & Diu, Dadra and
Nagar Haveli, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar that
can make India a leading producer of Neera globally.
Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC)
• It is a statutory body established under Khadi and
Village Industries Commission Act,1956.
• Ministry ➔ It is an apex organisation under the Ministry
of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.
• Functions ➔ seeks to – “plan, promote, facilitate,
organise and assist in the establishment and development
of khadi and village industries in the rural areas in
coordination with other agencies engaged in rural
development wherever necessary.”
in Bihar, the birthplace of Sita, will now have a different
look with traditional Madhubani Paintings adorning their
walls.
About Madhubani Painting
• Madhubani art (or Mithila painting) is a style of Indian
painting, practiced in the Mithila region of the Indian
subcontinent.
• It is characterized by line drawings filled in by bright
colours and contrasts or patterns.
• The themes of these paintings are figures from nature
and mythological events.
• The themes widely painted are of Hindu deities such as
Krishna, Rama, Siva, Durga, Lakshmi, Saraswati, Sun
and Moon, Tulasi plant, court scenes, wedding scenes,
social happenings.
• It has been accorded with the GI (Geographical
Indication) status.
• Used to paint the walls of room, known as KOHBAR
GHAR in which the newly wedded couple meets for the
first time.
• This painting is done with a variety of tools, including
fingers, twigs, brushes, nib-pens, and matchsticks and
using natural dyes and pigments.
• It is characterised by its eye-catching geometrical
patterns.
• Has five distinctive styles – Bharni, Katchni, Tantrik,
Godna and Gobar.
• Bharni, Kachni and Tantrik style were mainly done
Brahman & Kayashth women, who are upper caste

Q. 7) Identify the painting from the description given

below :
1. It is characterized by line drawings filled in by bright
colours and contrasts or patterns.
2. The themes of these paintings are figures from nature
and mythological events.
3. It has been accorded with the Geographical Indication
status.
4. It is used to paint the walls of room, known as
KOHBAR GHAR.
Choose the correct answer given below
(a) Malwa Painting
(b) Kalighat Painting
(c) Madhubani Painting
(d) Phad Painting

Answer (c) Madhubani Painting

Explanation: All government buildings at Punauradhama

72 | P a g e
women in India and Nepal. of the mineral resources of the country.
• Godna & Gobar style is done by the Dalit & Dushadh • The portal has been designed, developed and
communities. implemented by the National Informatics Centre (NIC).
• The portal is also integrated with NGO Darpan Portal of
NITI Aayog.
NGO-DARPAN

• NGO-DARPAN is a platform that provides space for

interface between Non-Government organizations
(NGOs)/Voluntary Organizations (VOs) and key
Government Ministries / Departments / Government
Bodies.
• It is an e-governance application offered by NITI Aayog
to electronically maintain data and transparency regarding
NGOs/VOs in the country.
• The NGO-DARPAN was earlier maintained by
erstwhile Planning Commission, which has been replaced
by the NITI Aayog in 2015.

Q. 9) What is the name of grassland found in Argentina

and Uruguay ?
(a) Prairie
(b) Llanos
(c) Pampas
Q.8) SATYABHAMA Portal aims to: (d) Veld

a) Promote Women Farmers And Entrepreneurs. Answer (c) Pampas

b) Combat the menace of child labour, trafficking and
sexual abuse.
c) Promote research and development in the mining and Explanation :
minerals sector. • In parts of South America, the plains are known as
d) To help MSMEs directly register their cases relating to pampas
delayed payments by Central
Ministries/Departments/CPSEs/State Governments.

Answer : c) Promote research and development in the

mining and minerals sector.
Explanation
SATYABHAMA Portal

• Union Ministry of Mines has launched a portal

"SATYABHAMA (Science and Technology Yojana for
Atmanirbhar Bharat in Mining Advancement)".
• Its aim is to promote research and development in the
mining and minerals sector.
• It has been launched to increase efficiency and
effectiveness of the Science and Technology Programme
Scheme.
• Under the Science and Technology Programme Scheme,
the Ministry of Mines promotes research in applied
geosciences, mineral exploration, mining and allied areas,
mineral processing, optimum utilization and conservation

73 | P a g e
 Answer (c) Brazil

Explanation :
• The Mato Grosso Plateau (Planalto do Mato Grosso) is
a plateau in central Brazil occupying most of the state of
Mato Grosso.
• It contains mostly savanna and woodland.
• It is an ancient erosional plateau
• In the south it gives way to floodplains called the
Pantanal.
• The plateau is home to indigenous peoples, such as the
Xavante.

• These are areas of grasslands and rich soil. Pampas are

found in northern Argentina and Uruguay.
• The main products of the pampas are cattle and wheat
grain.

Q.10) Mato Grosso Plateau is an ancient erosional plateau

and contains mostly savanna and woodland. It is a pleatue
in :
(a) Bolivia
(b) Argentina
(c) Brazil 26 JUNE
(d) Chile
Q. 1) Which of the following statements is true about
Financial Action Task Force:
1. It is an intergovernmental organization founded in 1989
during the BRICS Summit
in Paris.
2. It is located at the Organisation for Economic
Cooperation and Development (OECD) headquarters.
3. It works for combating money laundering and terrorist
financing.
Choose the correct code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All are correct

Answer (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation : First Statement is NOT correct because It is
an inter-governmental body established in 1989 during

74 | P a g e
the G7 Summit
in Paris.
• Indian officials have attended the virtual 32nd plenary
meeting of Eurasian Group on Combating Money
Laundering and Financing of Terrorism (EAG).
About EAG
• What is it? ➔ It is a regional body established in 2004.
• Currently, it is an associate member of the Financial
Action Task Force(FATF).
• Members ➔ It comprises nine countries namely India,
Russia, China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan,
Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan and Belarus.
• Purpose ➔ To ensure cooperation and integration of
EAG member-states
into the international system of anti-money laundering
and combating financing of terrorism in accordance with
the recommendations of FATF.
About Financial Action Task Force:
• It is an inter-governmental body established in 1989
during the G7 Summit in Paris.
• Secretariat ➔ It is located at the Organisation for
Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)
headquarters in Paris.
Objectives ➔
• set standards and promote effective implementation of
legal, regulatory and operational measures for combating
money laundering and terrorist financing and other
related threats to the integrity of the international financial
system.
• Members ➔ It comprises 37 member jurisdictions and
2 regional organisations representing most major
financial centres in all parts of the globe.
• India is one of the members.
◎ The FATF Plenary is the decision making body of the
FATF. It meets three times per year.
Q. 2) Which of the following is INCORRECT in about
Golden Langur
(a) Its diet is herbivorous, consisting of ripe and unripe
fruits.
(b) It is currently listed as endangered in red list of IUCN.
(c) It is an Old World monkey found in a small region of
western ghats.
(d) Chakrashila is India’s first wildlife sanctuary with
golden langur as the primary species.
Answer (c)It is an Old World monkey found in a small
region of western ghats.
Explanation- It is an Old World monkey found in a small
region of western Assam, India and neighboring Bhutan
75 | P a g e
where they live
year-round.
ABOUT GOLDEN LANGUR
•Scientific Name ➔ Trachypithecus geei.
• Its diet is herbivorous, consisting of ripe and unripe
fruits, mature and young leaves, seeds, buds and flowers.
• Habitat ➔ Golden langurs occupy moist evergreen and
tropical deciduous forests as well as some riverine areas
and savannas in Assam and Bhutan.
• Colour ➔ Their hair ranges from dark golden to creamy
buff and their faces are black and hairless except for a
long pale beard. It has been noted that their fur changes
colors according to the seasons.
• Conservation Status ➔
○ Endangered by the IUCN Red List
○ Listed as Appendix I on the CITES website.
• Threats ➔ The main reason for low numbers of golden
langurs is because of their localized habitat and the rapid
loss of this habitat due to
deforestation.
Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding
National Institute of Public Finance and Policy:
1. It is an autonomous body set up jointly by the RBI and
Planning commission .
2. It is registered under the Societies
Registration Act, 1860 and undertakes research, policy
advocacy in areas related to public economics.
Which of the above statement is/are correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (b) 2 only
Explanation- First Statement is NOT correct because
NIPFP is an autonomous body set up jointly by the
Ministry of Finance, the erstwhile Planning Commission,
and several state governments.
• Urjit Patel has been appointed chairman of the National
Institute of Public Finance and Policy (NIPFP). He will
succeed Vijay Laxman
Kelkar.
About NIPFP
• What is it? ➔ NIPFP is an autonomous body set up
jointly by the Ministry of Finance, the erstwhile Planning
Commission, and several state governments.
• It is registered under the Societies Registration Act,
1860.
• Formation ➔ It was founded in 1976.
Functions ➔
○ It undertakes research, policy advocacy and capacity
building in areas related to public economics.
○ One of the major mandates of the institute is to assist
the Central, State and Local governments in formulating
and reforming public policies by providing an analytical
base.
◎ Funding ➔ It receives an annual grant from the
Ministry of Finance and various State governments.
However, it maintains an independent non- government
character.
◎ Location ➔ New Delhi.
• Governing Body ➔
○ It includes the Revenue Secretary, Economic Affairs
Secretary and the Chief Economic Advisor from the
Union Finance Ministry and representatives from NITI
Aayog, RBI and three state governments.
○ It also includes three distinguished economists,
members of sponsoring agencies and other invitees.
○ It is involved in appointing the Chairman and the
Director.
○ The usual tenure of a chairman is four years, which can
be extended.
Q.4) Government of India has signed a $750 million
COVID-19 Active Response and Expenditure Support
Programme with which of the following?
(a) Bank for International Settlements
(b) Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
(c) International Bank for Reconstruction and
Development
(d) African Development Bank
Answer (b) Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
Explanation: Government of India and Asian
Infrastructure Investment Bank(AIIB) has signed a $750
million “COVID-19 Active Response and Expenditure
Support Programme”.
About Program
• Aim ➔ To assist India to strengthen its response to the
adverse impacts of the COVID-19 pandemic on poor and
vulnerable households.
• Programme Beneficiaries ➔ Families below poverty
line, farmers, healthcare workers, women, widows,
people with disabilities, senior citizens, construction
workers and vulnerable groups.
• Funding ➔ It is financed under the COVID-19 Crisis
76 | P a g e
Recovery Facility of the AIIB and co-financed by the
Asian Development Bank(ADB).
• Implementation ➔ It will be executed by the
Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance.
Q. 5) With reference to Horseshoe Crab, Consider the
following statements :
1. Catching and killing of a horseshoe crab is an offence
in India.
2. Horseshoe crabs are marine and brackish
water arthropods.
Which of the above statement is/are correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation- Horseshoe crabs face an uncertain future in
Odisha, their largest
habitat in India, even as the world gets ready to celebrate
the first- ever ‘International Horseshoe Crab Day’ on June
20, 2020.
About Horseshoe Crab
• Horseshoe crabs are marine and brackish water
arthropods. They are not true crabs, which are
crustaceans.
• The crabs are represented by four extant species in the
world. Out of the four, two species are distributed along
the northeast coast of India.
• Only T gigas species of the horseshoe crab is found
along Balasore coast of Odisha.
• Conservation ➔ The crab was included on September 9,
2009, in the Schedule IV of the Wild (Life) Protection
Act, 1972, under which, the catching and killing of a
horseshoe crab is an offence.
◎ Their significance ➔
○ The horseshoe crab is one of the oldest marine living
fossils whose origin date back to 445 million years before
the dinosaurs existed.
○ One of their ecological functions is to lay millions of
eggs on beaches to feed shorebirds, fish and other
wildlife.
◎ Threats ➔ Poachers kill them for their meat that is
popularly believed to have aphrodisiac qualities.
About AIIB
• The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) is a
multilateral development bank with a mission to improve
social and economic outcomes in Asia.
• HQ ➔ Beijing, China.
• It is established by a multrilateral treaty - AIIB Articles
of Agreement.
• India joined AIIB in 2016 as a regional member of the
Bank.
• Members ➔ Further, 14 of the G-20 nations are AIIB
members including France, Germany, Italy and the
United Kingdom.
• China is the largest shareholder in AIIB with a 26.06%
voting power, followed by India with a 7.62% voting
power.
Significance of AIIB ➔
◎ The United Nations has addressed the launch of AIIB
as having potential for “scaling up financing for
sustainable development” for the concern of global
economic governance.
• The capital of the bank is $100 billion,
equivalent to 2⁄3 of the capital of the Asian Development
Bank and about half that of the World Bank.
Q.6) Rule of Law Index is released by:
(a) International Law Commission
(b) International Labour Organization
(c) World Justice Project
(d) Transparency International
Answer (c) World Justice Project
Explanation-
Rule of Law Index
• It is released by the World Justice Project, an
independent organisation.
• It is a quantitative assessment tool designed to offer a
detailed and comprehensive picture of the extent to which
countries adhere to the rule of law in practice.
• The World Justice Project defines the rule of law system
as one in which the following four universal principles are
upheld:
1)The government and its officials and agents are
accountable under the law.
2)The laws are clear, publicized, stable and fair, and
protect fundamental rights, including the security of
persons and property.
3)The process by which the laws are enacted,
administered, and enforced is accessible, efficient, and
fair.
4)Justice is delivered by competent, ethical, and
independent representatives and neutrals who are of
sufficient number, have adequate resources and reflect the
makeup of the communities they serve.
• India has secured 69th rank of 128 countries.
• It measures countries’ rule of law performance across
eight factors:
77 | P a g e
1)Constraints on Government Powers,
2)Absence of Corruption,
3)Open Government,
4)Fundamental Rights,
5)Order and Security,
6)Regulatory Enforcement,
7)Civil Justice,
8)Criminal Justice.
Q. 7) Which of the following is true about Kumbhar
Sashaktikaran Yojana :
1. An initiative of the Ministry of Rural Development for
empowerment of potter community in the remotest of
locations in the country.
2. It provides training for advanced pottery products and
Market linkages and visibility through KVIC exhibitions.
Choose the correct code given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (b) 2 only
Explanation: First statement is NOT correct because It is
an initiative of the Khadi and Village Industries
Commission (KVIC) for empowerment of potter
community in the remotest of locations in the country.
• The program reaches out to the potters in - U.P., M.P.,
Maharashtra, J&K, Haryana, Rajasthan, West Bengal,
Assam, Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Odisha, Telangana and
Bihar.
• It provides the following support -
1)Training for advanced pottery products.
2) Latest, new technology pottery equipment like the
electric Chaak.
3)Market linkages and visibility through KVIC
exhibitions.
About KVIC
• It is a statutory body established by an Act of Parliament
(Khadi and Village Industries Commission Act of 1956).
• In April 1957, it took over the work of former All India
Khadi and Village Industries Board.
• It is an apex organization under the Ministry of MSME,
with regard to khadi and village industries within India.
• It seeks to plan, promote, facilitate, organise and assist
in the establishment and development of khadi and village
industries in the rural areas in coordination with other
agencies engaged in rural development wherever
necessary.
Q.8) Gharial , a fresh-water crocodile, often seen in news
is globally found only in :
a) India and Bangladesh
b) India and Pakistan
c) India and Nepal
d) India and Bhutan

Answer : c) India and Nepal

Explanation : Recently Government of Uttar Pradesh has
released Gharials (Gavialis gangeticus) in the Ghaghara
river for the conservation and protection in natural habitat.
About Gharial
• Scientific name ➔ Gavialis Gangeticu.
• Habitat ➔ They are a fresh-water crocodile.
• They live in deep fast-flowing rivers.
Distribution ➔ Globally Gharial is found only in India
and Nepal.
Q.10) Which of the following city is not part of New
• India: Girwa River, Chambal River, Ken River, Son England region:
River, Mahanadi River, Ramganga River
(a) Boston
• Nepal: Rapti-Narayani River
(b) Worcester
Status ➔ (c) San Francisco
○ Critically Endangered— IUCN Red List (d) New Hampshire
○ Listed under Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection)
Act, 1972. Answer (c) San Francisco
○ Listed on Appendix I of Convention on International • Washington DC is a District of Colombia.
Trade in
Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).
◎ Conservation Efforts ➔ Breeding Centres of Kukrail
Gharial Rehabilitation Centre in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh,
National Chambal Sanctuary (Gharial Eco Park, Madhya
Pradesh).
• Threats ➔ Hunting for skins, trophies and indigenous
medicine, and their eggs collected for consumption,
Decrease of riverine habitat as dams, barrages, irrigation
canals and artificial embankments were built; siltation
and sand-mining changed river courses.

Q.9) Which of the following is called as the coffee port of

the world:
(a) Santos
(b) Sao Polo
(c) Monte Video
(d) Buenos Aires 27 JUNE

Answer (a) Santos Q. 1) Which of the following statements is true about

Damodar River:
1. It is a river flowing only across the Indian states of
Jharkhand and West Bengal.
2. It rises in the Palamu hills of the Chota Nagpur plateau.
Choose the correct code given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

78 | P a g e
Answer (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation : Government of India, West Bengal
Government, the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
(AIIB) and World Bank have signed a loan agreement for
a project titled ‘West Bengal Major Irrigation and Flood
Management Project’.
• Aim ➔ To improve irrigation service delivery,
strengthen flood risk management and improve climate
change resilience in the Damodar Valley Command
Area(DVCA).
• Significance ➔ The project is intended to benefit about
2.7 million farmers from five districts of West Bengal.
About Damodar river
• It is a river flowing across the Indian states of Jharkhand
and West Bengal.
• Origin ➔ It rises in the Palamu hills of the Chota
Nagpur plateau in the state of Jharkhand.
• Main Tributaries ➔ Barakar, Konar, Bokaro, Haharo,
Jamunia, Ghari, Guaia, Khadia and Bhera.
• The river was earlier known as the River of Sorrows as
it used to flood many areas of Districts of West Bengal.
Q. 2) The Baltic countries have opened their borders to
one another,creating a coronavirus “travel bubble” with
an improvised idea to boost travel into their
countries. With reference to this statement, Which of the
following is a Baltic country?
(a) Norway
(b) Armenia
(c) Slovenia
(d) Lithuania
Answer (d) Lithuania
79 | P a g e
Explanation- The Baltic countries of Estonia, Latvia and
Lithuania have opened their borders to one another,
creating a coronavirus “travel bubble” with an improvised
idea to boost travel into their countries.
• Aim & objective ➔ The ‘Baltic travel bubble’ aims to
facilitate the citizens of these three countries to travel
within the region without hassles.
• However, those who are coming from any other than
these three countries would be required to follow self-
isolation guidelines and stay in quarantine for exactly 14
days.
About Baltic Countries
• Location ➔ Baltic countries are located in the
northeastern region of Europe, and comprises Estonia,
Latvia, and Lithuania, on the eastern shores of the Baltic
Sea.
• The Baltic states are bounded on the west and north by
the Baltic Sea, which gives the region its name, on the east
by Russia, on the southeast by Belarus, and on the
southwest by Poland.
• Membership ➔ The region has been part of the
European Union since 2004 and since 2007 has been a
member of the European Schengen Free Travel Area.
• Resources ➔ The Baltic region is not rich in natural
resources but is leaders in cutting technology
developments and start-up hubs.
• India and Baltic countries ➔ share a strong bond based
on historical connect and common linguistic roots.
Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding
Troglomyces twitteri:
1. It is a type of Bacteria that attack insects and millipedes.
2. They live on the outside of host organisms and belongs
to an order called Laboulbeniales.
Which of the above statement is/are correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (b) 2 only
Explanation- First Statement is NOT correct because
Troglomyces twitteri is a type of parasitic fungus.
• It belongs to an order called Laboulbeniales — tiny
fungal parasites that attack insects and millipedes.
• Where does it live? ➔ These fungi live on the outside of
host organisms; in this case, on the reproductive organs of
millipedes.
• History ➔ Laboulbeniales were first discovered in the
middle of the 19th century.
• Foundational work on the Laboulbeniales was
completed by the American mycologist Roland Thaxter
(1858–1932).
Q.4) Vasudhaiva Kutumbhakam' which means the
“World is One Family” is taken from which of the
following?
(a) Maha Upanishad
(b) Aitareya Upanishad
(c) Mundaka Upanishad
(d) Kausitaki Upanishad
Answer (a) Maha Upanishad
Explanation: It is in news recently because With people
globally feeling "very lonely and frustrated" in the
confinement of their homes amid the COVID-19
pandemic, India Council for Cultural Relations, is
contemplating offering classes on the basics of Indian
philosophy as the credo of 'Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam'.
• The Maha Upanishad is a Sanskrit text and is one of the
minor Upanishads of Hinduism.
• The text is classified as a Vaishnava Upanishad.
Q. 5) With reference to Ahom kingdom, Consider the
following statements :
1. It was a kingdom established by Sukapha in
the Brahmaputra Valley, Assam.
2. Control of the kingdom passed into East India
Company hands after the Treaty of Yandabo in 1826.
Which of the above statement is/are correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
80 | P a g e
Answer (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation- Recently, Assam CM ordered the arrest of a
political commentator
who had described Chaolung Sukapha as a “Chinese
invader”.
About Chaolung Sukapha
• Who was Chaolung Sukapha? ➔ Sukapha was a 13th-
century ruler who founded the Ahom kingdom that ruled
Assam for six centuries. Contemporary scholars trace his
roots to Burma.
• He reached Brahmaputra valley in Assam from upper
Burma in the 13th century with around 9,000 followers.
• In 1235, Sukapha and his people settled in Charaideo in
upper Assam after wandering about for years, defeating
those who protested his advance and temporarily staying
at different locations.
• It was in Charaideo (in Assam) that Sukapha established
his first small principality, sowing the seeds of further
expansion of the Ahom kingdom.
About Ahom Kingdom
• The Ahom kingdom was a late medieval kingdom in the
Brahmaputra Valley in Assam. • It is well known for
maintaining its sovereignty for nearly 600 years and
successfully resisting Mughal expansion in Northeast
India.
• It expanded suddenly under Suhungmung in the 16th
century and became multi-ethnic in character, casting a
profound effect on the political and social life of the entire
Brahmaputra valley.
• The kingdom became weaker with the rise of the
Moamoria rebellion, and subsequently fell to repeated
Burmese invasions of Assam. • With the defeat of the
Burmese after the First Anglo-Burmese War and the
Treaty of Yandabo in 1826, control of the kingdom passed
into East India Company hands.
Who are the Ahoms today?
• The founders of the Ahom kingdom had their own
language and followed their own religion.
• Over the centuries, the Ahoms accepted the Hindu
religion and the Assamese language, scholars say.
• The Ahoms embraced the language, religion and rituals
of the communities living here — they did not impose
theirs on those living here.
Why is Sukapha important in Assamese culture?
•Sukapha’s significance — especially in today’s Assam
— lies in his successful efforts towards the assimilation
of different communities and tribes.
• He developed very amicable relationships with the tribal
communities living here — especially the Sutias, the
Morans and the Kacharis.
• Intermarriage also increased assimilation processes. He
is widely referred to as the architect of “Bor Asom” or
“greater Assam”.
Q.6) Consider the following statements regarding Ozone
layer:
1. The ozone layer is mainly found in the lower portion of
the stratosphere.
2. The thickness of the ozone layer is generally thinner
near the equator and thicker near the poles.
Choose the correct code given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
Explanation- It is in news because Largest Ozone Hole
Ever Recorded over North Pole Has Now ‘Healed Itself’
and Closed. This was announced by Scientists who were
tracking the hole at Copernicus’ Atmospheric Monitoring
Service (CAMS).
About ozone layer
• The ozone layer or ozone shield is a region of Earth's
stratosphere that absorbs most of the Sun's ultraviolet
radiation.
• It contains high concentration of ozone (O3) in relation
to other parts of the atmosphere, although still small in
relation to other gases in the stratosphere.
• The ozone layer is mainly found in the lower portion of
the stratosphere, from approximately 15 to 35 kilometers
(9.3 to 21.7 mi) above Earth, although its thickness varies
seasonally and geographically.
• The thickness of the ozone layer varies worldwide and
is generally thinner near the equator and thicker near the
poles.
Q.7) What are the Factors or determinants taken into
consideration for fixing Minimum Support Price:
1. Demand and supply
2. Cost of production
3. Likely implications of MSP on consumers of that
product
4. Terms of trade between agriculture and non-agriculture
Choose the correct code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
81 | P a g e
(d) All are correct
Answer : c) India and Nepal
Explanation : Factors taken into consideration for fixing
MSP include:
1) demand and supply;
2) cost of production;
3) price trends in the market, both domestic and
international;
4) inter-crop price parity;
5) terms of trade between agriculture and non-agriculture;
6) a minimum of 50 percent as the margin over cost of
production; and
7) likely implications of MSP on consumers of that
product.
Minimum Support Price
•The MSP is the rate at which the government buys grains
from farmers.
• Reason behind the idea of MSP is to counter price
volatility of agricultural commodities due to the factors
like variation in their supply, lack of market integration
and information asymmetry.
• The MSP is fixed on the recommendations of the
Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
• The Commission also makes visits to states for on-the-
spot assessment of the various constraints that farmers
face in marketing their produce, or even raising the
productivity levels of their crops.
• Based on all these inputs, the Commission then finalizes
its recommendations, which are then submitted to the
government.
• The government, in turn, circulates the CACP reports to
state governments and concerned Central Ministries for
their comments.
• After receiving the feed-back from them, the Cabinet
Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) of the Union
government takes a final decision on the level of MSPs
and other recommendations made by the CACP.
• The Food Corporation of India (FCI), the nodal central
agency of the Government of India, along with other State
Agencies undertakes procurement of crops.
Crops Covered under MSP
• Government announces minimum support prices
(MSPs) for 22 mandated crops and fair and remunerative
price (FRP) for sugarcane.
• The mandated crops are 14 crops of the kharif season, 6
Rabi crops and two other commercial crops.
• In addition, the MSPs of toria and de-husked coconut are
fixed on the basis of the MSPs of rapeseed/mustard and
copra, respectively.
• The list of crops are as follows:
1)Cereals
2)Pulses
3)Oilseeds
(4)- groundnut, rapeseed/mustard, toria, soya bean,
sunflower seed, sesame, safflower seed and nigerseed.
5)Raw cotton.
(6) - gram, arhar/tur, moong, urad and lentil
7)Raw jute.
8)Copra
9) - paddy, wheat, barley, jowar, bajra, maize and ragi
10)De-husked coconut
11)Sugarcane (Fair and remunerative price)
12)Virginia flu cured (VFC) tobacco

Q.8) Which of the following is not Caribbean country:

(a) Samoa
(b) Cuba
(c) Haiti
(d) Dominica

Answer (a) Samoa 29 JUNE

Q. 1) Which of the following statements is true about

Administration of Museums in India:
1. The National Portal and Digital Repository for Indian
Museums have been launched for digitization of the
collections of the Museums.
2. All Museums are not administered by the Ministry of
Culture.
Choose the correct code given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (c) Both 1 and 2

Q.9) Mona passage is situated between:
(a) Cuba and Haiti
(b) Florida and Cuba
(c) Dominican Republic and Puerto Rico
(d) Bahamas and Dominican Republic
Answer (c) Dominican Republic and Puerto Rico
Explanation : Recently the Ministry of Culture hosted a
webinar on “Revitalizing Museums and Cultural Spaces”
to celebrate the International Museum Day.
• The National e-Governance Division (NeGD) created by
the Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology
(MeitY) provided technical assistance for conducting the
Webinar.
Administration of Museums in India
• In India multiple ministries hold charges of various
Museums, not all Museums are administered by the
Ministry of Culture.
• Some are run without government support by a handful
of people under a Board of Trustees.
• The Budget 2020 proposed the setting up of an Indian
Institute of Heritage and Conservation with the status of a

82 | P a g e
deemed university under the Ministry of Culture.
• The National Portal and Digital Repository for Indian
Museums (under the Ministry of Culture) have been
launched for digitization of the collections of the
Museums.
International Council of Museum
•ICOM is the main and only organization of museums and
museum professionals with global scope, committed to
promotion and protection of natural and cultural heritage,
present and future, tangible and intangible.
• It was created in 1946 and is headquartered in Paris,
France.
• It serves as a network of museum professionals (35,000
members in 137 countries) acting in a wide range of
museum- and heritage-related disciplines.
Q. 2) YUKTI 2.0 recently seen in news is an initiative
launched by the :
(a) Ministry of AYUSH
(b) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
(c) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(d) Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change
Answer (c) Ministry of Human Resource Development
Explanation-
YUKTI 2.0
•The initiative was launched by the Ministry of Human
Resource Development.
• It is to help systematically assimilate technologies
having commercial potential and information related to
incubated startups in higher education institutions.
• It is an extension of ‘YUKTI - Young India combating
COVID with Knowledge, Technology and Innovation
Portal’.
• YUKTI which was launched to identify ideas relevant in
COVID pandemic.
• The Ministry has invited students, faculty members,
startups and other stakeholders of higher education
institutions to register on the YUKTI portal and share
their technologies and innovations.
• Database shared will be showcased to the investor
community such as businessmen, farmers and
industrialists i.e. students will be able to sell their ideas.
• However, preliminary innovations won’t be showcased
on YUKTI 2.0 but only those which have
commercialization potential.
Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding
Pinanga Andamanensis:
1. It is an IUCN critically endangered species of endemic
Mahua tree of the Andaman Islands.
83 | P a g e
2. Its entire population naturally occurs only in a tiny,
evergreen forest pocket in South Andaman’s Mount
Harriet National Park.
Which of the above statement is/are correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (b) 2 only
Explanation- First Statement is NOT correct because it is
a rare palm tree endemic to the South Andaman Island.
• Recently, this endemic palm tree found a
second home at Thiruvananthapuram-based Jawaharlal
Nehru Tropical Botanic Garden and Research Institute
(JNTBGRI).
Pinanga Andamanensis
• Name ➔ The name is derived from ‘Penang’, the
modern-day Malaysian state.
• Status ➔ Pinanga andamanensis is an IUCN
critically endangered species and one of the
least known among the endemic palms of
the Andaman Islands.
• Location ➔ Its entire population of some 600 specimens
naturally occurs only in a tiny, evergreen forest pocket in
South Andaman’s Mount Harriet National Park.
• History ➔ It was originally described by the Italian
botanist Odoardo Beccari in 1934.
• His description was based on an old herbarium specimen
collected by E.H. Man, a late-19th century assistant
superintendent in the Andaman administration.
• After that first identification, it was thought to be extinct
till 1992.
• Uses ➔ Its use are yet to be understood fully. But this
palm holds promise as an avenue tree for gardens,
pavements and homesteads.
• Threats ➔ Natural calamities such as cyclones,
earthquakes and rampaging by wild elephants among
others.
Q.4) The Senkaku Islands are a group
of uninhabited islands in the:
(a) Sea of Japan
(b) East China Sea
(c) Philippine sea
(d) South China Sea
Answer (b) East China Sea
Explanation: It is in news recently because Japan has
approved a plan to change the name of the area covering
the Tokyo-controlled Senkaku Islands — known by
Taiwan and China as the Diaoyus — from “Tonoshiro” to
“Tonoshiro Senkaku”.
About SENKAKU ISLANDS
• Location ➔ The Senkaku Islands are a group of
uninhabited islands in the East China Sea.
◎ They are located east of Mainland China, northeast of
Taiwan, west of Okinawa Island, and north of the
southwestern end of the Ryukyu Islands.
• Names ➔ They are also known as the Diaoyu Islands in
Mainland China, the Diaoyutai Islands in Taiwan and the
Pinnacle Islands by other observers.
• Dispute ➔ The islands are the focus of a territorial
dispute between Japan and China and between Japan and
Taiwan.
• Administration ➔ Japan administers and controls the
Senkaku islands as part of the city of Ishigaki in Okinawa
Prefecture.
84 | P a g e
Q. 5) With reference to Social Protection Response
Programme, Consider the following statements :
1. Its aim is to support India’s efforts at providing social
assistance to the poor and vulnerable households severely
impacted by the COVID- 19 pandemic.
2. It will be implemented by Ministry of Health and
Family Welfare.
Which of the above statement is/are correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (a) 1 only
Explanation- Second statement is NOT correct because It
will be implemented by the Ministry of Finance.
• Recently, The World Bank has announced a $1 billion
assistance under
the proposed Accelerating India’s COVID-19 Social
Protection Response Programme.
Social Protection Response Programme
• Aim ➔ To support India’s efforts at providing social
assistance to the poor and vulnerable households severely
impacted by the COVID- 19 pandemic.
◎ Implementation ➔ It will be implemented by the
Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
• Funding ➔ It will be funded in two phases – an
immediate allocation of $750 million for fiscal year 2020
and a $250 million second tranche that will be made
available for fiscal year 2021:
• The first phase will be implemented through the Pradhan
Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana (PMGKY).
• In the second phase, additional cash and in-kind benefits
based on local needs will be extended through state
governments and portable social protection delivery
systems.
About World Bank
• Background ➔ World Bank is one of five institutions
created at Breton Woods Conference in 1944.
• The World Bank is an international financial institution
that provides loans to developing countries for capital
programs.
• It comprises of two institutions ➔
○ International Bank for Reconstruction and
Development (IBRD)
○ International Development Association (IDA).
• Formation ➔ July 1944.
• Headquarters ➔ Washington DC, United States. (c) Both 1 and 2
• Motto ➔ Working for a World Free of Poverty. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
• Membership ➔ 189 countries (IBRD), 173 countries
Answer (a) 1 only
(IDA)
Explanation: Second statement is NOT correct because
• The World Bank is one of the five components of the
Study material for the differently abled developed on
World Bank Group,
Digitally Accessible Information System (DAISY) and in
which is part of the United Nations system.
sign language on NIOS website/ YouTube.
• World Bank Group also includes three more subsidiary
• Manodarpan initiative - It is being launched to provide
organisations viz.
psychosocial support to students, teachers and families for
○ International Finance Corporation (IFC),
mental health and emotional wellbeing through a website,
○ Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA),
a toll-free helpline, national directory of counselors,
and
interactive chat platform, etc. This initiative will benefit
○ International Centre for Settlement of Investment
all school going children in the country, along with their
Disputes (ICSID)
parents, teachers and the community of stakeholders in
school education.
Q.6) Mount Merapi, recently seen making news, is an
active volcano in:
About some initiatives
(a) Italy
• Union Finance Ministry has announced several
(b) India
initiatives to boost Education Sector.
(c) Indonesia
• A comprehensive initiative called PM e-VIDYA will be
(d) Japan
launched which unifies all efforts related to
digital/online/on-air education.
Answer (c) Indonesia
• This will enable multi-mode access to education, and
Explanation- It is in news because, Mount Merapi, an
includes:
active volcano in Indonesia, erupted twice on 21st June,
1) DIKSHA (one nation-one digital platform) - nation’s
2020.
digital infrastructure for providing quality e-content in
school education for all the states/UTs.
About Mt Merapi
2) TV (one class-one channel) where one dedicated
• Merapi (Mountain of Fire) is the most active of
channel per grade for each of the classes 1 to 12 will
Indonesia’s 130 active volcanoes.
provide access to quality educational material.
• It rises to 2,911 metres and has steep slopes with dense
3)SWAYAM online courses in MOOCS format for
vegetation on its lower sides.
school and higher education.
• It is located near the centre of the island of Java and
4) IITPAL for IITJEE/NEET preparation.
Indonesia’s cultural capital, Yogyakarta.
5) Air through Community radio and CBSE Shiksha Vani
• Mt Merapi’s last significant eruption was in 2010. At
podcast.
that time, more than 300 people were killed and some
6) Study material for the differently abled developed on
2,80,000 residents were forced to evacuate the
Digitally Accessible Information System (DAISY) and in
surrounding areas.
sign language on NIOS website/ YouTube.
7)Manodarpan initiative - It is being launched to provide
Q. 7) Which of following is true about the recently
psychosocial support to students, teachers and families for
launched initiatives by the Union Finance Minister:
mental health and emotional wellbeing through a website,
1. DIKSHA is a one nation-one digital platform for
a toll-free helpline, national directory of counselors,
providing quality e-content in school education for all the
interactive chat platform, etc. This initiative will benefit
states/UTs.
all school going children in the country, along with their
2. DAISY is a platform to provide psychosocial support
parents, teachers and the community of stakeholders in
to students, teachers and families for mental health and
school education.
emotional wellbeing through a website or a toll-free
8)Expanding e-learning in higher education – by
helpline.
liberalizing open, distance and online education
regulatory framework. Top 100 universities will start
Choose the correct code given below
online courses. Also, online component in conventional
(a) 1 only
Universities and ODL programmes will also be raised
(b) 2 only
from present 20% to 40%. This will provide enhanced

85 | P a g e
learning opportunities to nearly 7 crore students across
different colleges and Universities.
9)National Curriculum and Pedagogical Framework - To
promote critical thinking, creative and communication
skills, along with experiential and joyful learning for the
students focusing on learning outcomes.
Q.8) Which of the following statement is INCORRECT
about International Transport Forum:
1. It is an inter- governmental organization within the
OECD system and the only global body with a mandate
for all modes of transport.
2. It acts as a think tank for transport policy issues and
recently India has become its member.
Choose the correct code given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : (b) 2 only
Explanation : Second statement is INCORRECT because
India has been a member of ITF since 2008.
• NITI Aayog in collaboration with International
Transport Forum (ITF) will launch the “Decarbonising
Transport in India”(DTI)
About DTI Project
• What is it? ➔ It is a tailor-made transport emissions
assessment framework for India.
◎ Features ➔ It will provide the government with a
detailed understanding of current and future transport
activity and the related CO2 emissions as a basis for their
decision- making.
• The project is a part of the Decarbonising Transport in
Emerging Economies (DTEE).
DTEE
◎ What is it? ➔ It is an International Transport
Forum(ITF) project in collaboration with Wuppertal
Institute(WI) and supported by the International Climate
Initiative(IKI) of the German Federal Ministry for the
Environment, Nature Conservation and Nuclear
Safety(BMU).
◎ Aim ➔ To help governments of emerging nations to
identify ways to reduce their transport CO2 emissions and
meet their climate goals.
• Participating Countries ➔ Argentina, Azerbaijan, India
and Morocco.
International Transport Forum(ITF)
86 | P a g e
◎ What is it? ➔ It is an inter-governmental organisation
within the OECD (Organisation for Economic Co-
operation and Development) system.
• It is the only global body with a mandate for all modes
of transport.
◎ Functions ➔ It acts as a think tank for transport policy
issues and organises the annual global summit of transport
ministers.
◎ Member Countries ➔ 60 and India has been a member
since 2008.
◎ Headquarters ➔ Paris, France.
◎ The ITF’s motto is “Global dialogue for better
transport”.
About OECD
• What is it? ➔ The Organisation for Economic Co-
operation and Development(OECD) is an
intergovernmental economic organisation with 36
member countries.
• Formation ➔ It was founded in 1961 to stimulate
economic progress and world trade.
◎ Headquarters ➔ Paris, France.
◎ Functions ➔ It works to build better policies for better
lives. Its goal is also to shape policies that foster
prosperity, equality, opportunity and well- being for all.
◎ India is not a member of OECD but has been a key
economic partner.
Q. 9) Mount Elgon is an extinct shield volcano on the
border of :
(a) Libya and Egypt
(b) Ethiopia and Somalia
(c) Tanzania and Malawi
(d) Uganda and Kenya
Answer (d) Uganda and Kenya
Explanation :
• Mount Elgon is an extinct shield volcano on the border
of Uganda and Kenya.
• The mountain's highest point, named "Wagagai", is
located entirely within Uganda.
• Although there is no verifiable evidence of its earliest
volcanic activity, geologists estimate that Mount Elgon is
at least 24 million years old, making it the oldest extinct
volcano in East Africa.
• Mt. Elgon consists of five major peaks:
1)Wagagai in Uganda
2)Sudek on the Kenya/Uganda border
3)Koitobos, a flat-topped basalt column in Kenya
4)Mubiyi in Uganda
5)Masaba in Uganda from the Sahara Desert.
• It stretches around 2,500 km through Morocco, Algeria
and Tunisia.

Q.10) Which of the following is true for Atlas Mountain

range:
1. It separates the Mediterranean and Atlantic coastlines
from the Sahara Desert.
2. The highest peak of the range is Mount Kilimanjaro.
Choose the correct code given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
30 JUNE
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 1) Which of the following statements is true about
Answer (a) 1 only National Commission for Backward Classes:
Explanation: 1. It is a statutory body established in 1993 under Ministry
• Second statement is NOT correct because the range's of Social Justice and Empowerment.
highest peak is Toubkal, which is in southwestern 2. 2. It has the authority to examine complaints and
Morocco. welfare measures regarding socially and educationally
• The Atlas Mountains are a mountain range in the backward classes.
Maghreb.
• It separates the Mediterranean and Atlantic coastlines Choose the correct code given below
(a) 1 only

87 | P a g e
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (b) only 2
Explanation : First statement is NOT correct because It is
a constitutional body established in 1993 under Ministry
of Social Justice and Empowerment.
• Second statement is correct because NCBC has the
authority to examine complaints and welfare measures
regarding socially and educationally backward classes.
• Recently the Union Cabinet has approved a six-month
extension to the Justice G. Rohini commission constituted
to complete the task of sub-categorising 5000- odd castes
in the central OBC list so as to ensure more equitable
distribution of opportunities in central government jobs
and educational institutions.
• The 102nd Constitution Amendment Act, 2018 provided
constitutional status to the National Commission for
Backward Classes (NCBC), which was previously a
statutory body.
• In 2015, the National Commission for Backward Classes
(NCBC) had recommended that OBCs should be
categorized into extremely backward classes, more
backward classes and backward classes.
National Commission for Backward Classes
• It is a constitutional body established in 1993 under
Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
• It was constituted pursuant to the provisions of the
National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993.
• The 102nd Constitution Amendment Act, 2018 provided
constitutional status to the National Commission for
Backward Classes (NCBC), which was previously a
statutory body.
• NCBC has the authority to examine complaints and
welfare measures regarding socially and educationally
backward classes.
• In 2015, the National Commission for Backward Classes
(NCBC) had recommended that OBCs should be
categorized into extremely backward classes, more
backward classes and backward classes.
• Commission shall consist of one chairman and four
Members: a Chairperson who is or has been a judge of the
Supreme Court or of a High Court; a social scientist; two
persons who have special knowledge in matters relating
to backward classes; and a Member-Secretary, who is or
has been an officer of the Central Government in the rank
of a Secretary to the Government of India.
• Their term is of Three years
Q. 2) DISTRESSED ASSETS FUND–SUB-
ORDINATE DEBT FOR MSMEs scheme will be
88 | P a g e
operationalized through:
(a) Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan economic package
(b) Credit Guarantee Fund Trust
(c) Small Industries Development Corporations of India
(SIDBI)
(d) National Small Industries Corporation
Answer (b) Credit Guarantee Fund Trust
Explanation-
• Minister of MSME launched the Credit Guarantee
Scheme for Sub- ordinate Debt (CGSSD) which is also
called “Distressed Assets Fund–Sub-ordinate Debt for
MSMEs”.
• Aim ➔ To extend support to the promoters of the
operational MSMEs which are stressed and have become
NPA as on 30th April, 2020.
◎ Guarantee ➔ It provides a guarantee cover worth Rs.
20,000 crores to the promoters who can take debt from the
banks to further invest in their stressed MSMEs as equity.
• Features of the Scheme ➔
○ Promoter(s) of the MSMEs will be given credit equal to
15% of their stake (equity plus debt) or Rs. 75 lakh
whichever is lower.
○ Promoter(s) in turn will infuse this amount in the
MSME unit as equity and thereby enhance the liquidity
and maintain debt-equity ratio.
○ 90% guarantee coverage for this sub-debt will be given
under the Scheme and 10% would come from the
concerned promoters.
◎ Duration ➔ There will be a moratorium of 7 years on
payment of principal whereas maximum tenure for
repayment will be 10 years.
◎ Implementation ➔ The scheme will be operationalised
through Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for MSEs
(CGTMSE).
Q.3) Consider the following match:
Waterfalls State
1. Athirappally - Karnataka
Waterfalls
2. Hundru - Himachal Pradesh
WaterFalls
3. Sahastradhara - Uttarakhand
WaterFalls
Which of the above pair is/are matched INCORRECTLY:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
Answer (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation- First pair is matched incorrectly because
The famous Athirappally
Waterfalls is located on the Chalakudy River
in Thrissur district of Kerala. Recently , Kerala
government recently gave the go-ahead for the proposed
163-megawatt (MW) Athirappally Hydroelectric Project.
• Second pair is matched incorrectly because Hundru
Waterfalls is on Suvarnrekha river, Ranchi ,Jharkhand.
• Sahastradhara Fall is Located near Dehradun,
Uttarakhand which is formed by liquidification of
limestone rocks.
About Athirappally Waterfalls
• Location ➔ The famous Athirappally Waterfalls is
located on the Chalakudy River in Thrissur district of
Kerala.
• Significance ➔ It is the largest waterfall in Kerala,
which stands tall at 80 feet and is nicknamed “The
Niagara of India”.
◎ Controversy ➔ Controversy about a state-proposed
hydroelectric dam on the Chalakudy River above the
waterfalls began in the 1990s and continued through
2021.
• Issues with the Hydel project ➔
○ A number of families belonging to the Kadar tribal
group are facing displacement here.
○ The falls and its surroundings are part of a crucial
biodiversity-rich region coming under the Ecologically
Sensitive Zone 1 of the Western Ghats.
Q.4) Global Education Monitoring Report 2020 is
published by:
(a) Education International
(b) World Economic Forum
(c) UNESCO
(d) Oxfam
Answer (c) UNESCO
Explanation: UNESCO has released a report titled
“Global Education Monitoring Report 2020”.
About report
◎ Theme ➔ “Inclusion and education: All means all”.
◎ Aim ➔ To monitor progress towards Sustainable
Development Goal 4 (SDG 4) on education as well as
other education-related points in the SDG Agenda.
Key Finding
◎ COVID-19 pandemic has increased inequalities in
education systems across the world.
◎ About 40% of low- and lower-middle-income
89 | P a g e
countries have not supported learners at risk of exclusion
during this crisis.
◎ In April 2020, almost 91% of students around the world
were out of school.
◎ Poor, linguistic minorities and learners with disabilities
were affected more as resources for such persons may not
be available outside schools.
◎ For poor students who depend on school for free meals
or even free sanitary napkins, closures have been a major
blow.
Q. 5) With reference to Animal Husbandry Infrastructure
Development Fund, Consider the following statements :
1. The government will provide 4% interest subvention to
eligible beneficiaries from the Aspirational Districts and
3% for beneficiaries from other Districts.
2. The fund had been proposed as part of the Atmanirbhar
Bharat to facilitate incentivisation of investments in the
establishment of infrastructure
Which of the above statement is/are correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation- Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
has given its nod to set up a Rs.15,000 crore Animal
Husbandry Infrastructure Development Fund.
◎ Aim ➔ To facilitate incentivisation of investments in
the establishment of infrastructure in the animal
husbandry sector.
◎ The fund had been proposed as part of the Atmanirbhar
Bharat.
• Beneficiaries ➔ Farmer Producer Organizations
(FPOs), MSMEs, Section 8 Companies, Private
Companies and individual entrepreneurs with minimum
10% margin money contribution by them.
◎ The balance 90% would be the loan component to be
made available by scheduled banks.
◎ Interest Subventions ➔ The government will provide
4% interest subvention to eligible beneficiaries from the
Aspirational Districts and 3% for beneficiaries from other
Districts.
◎ Duration ➔ There will be a 2 years moratorium period
for repayment of loan with 6 years repayment period
thereafter.
Q.6) Which of the following are the habitat of Fishing
cats:
(a) Mangrove forests
(b) Foothills of the Himalayas
(c) Western Ghats
(d) All of the above
Answer (d) All of the above
Explanation- It is in news because, The Odisha
Government has started a two-year conservation project
for Fishing Cats in Bhitarkanika National Park.
About Fishing Cats
◎ Scientific Name ➔ Prionailurus viverrinus.
◎ Habitat ➔ In India, fishing cats are mainly found in the
mangrove forests of the Sundarbans, on the foothills of
the Himalayas along the Ganga and Brahmaputra river
valleys and in the Western Ghats.
• Description ➔
○ It is twice the size of a house cat.
○ The fishing cat is nocturnal (active at night) and apart
from fish also preys on frogs, crustaceans, snakes, birds,
and scavenges on carcasses
of larger animals.
◎ Protection Status➔
○ IUCN Red List: Vulnerable.
○ CITES: Appendix II
○ Indian Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I
◎ Threats ➔ Habitat Destruction, Shrimp Farming,
Hunting, Ritual Practices,
Poaching, Poisoning.
•Conservation Efforts ➔
○ The Fishing Cat Project, launched in 2010 started
raising awareness about the Cat in West Bengal.
○ In 2012, the West Bengal government officially
declared the Fishing Cat as the State Animal and the
Calcutta Zoo has two big enclosures dedicated to them.
○ In Odisha, many NGOs and wildlife conservation
Societies are involved in Fishing Cat research and
conservation work.
-In India, its presence has been documented in:
•Ranthambhore Tiger Reserve, in Dudhwa and Valmiki
Tiger Reserves, in Sur Sarovar Bird Sanctuary,
• outside protected areas in West Bengal, in Lothian
Island Wildlife Sanctuary in the Sundarbans,
• in Odisha's Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary and coastal
districts outside protected areas,
• in Andhra Pradesh's Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary,
Krishna Wildlife Sanctuary and adjoining reserve forests.
Q. 7) Consider the following statements about Feluda:
90 | P a g e
1. It is a low-cost, paper-strip test which can detect the
new coronavirus within an hour.
2. It is developed at the Council of Scientific & Industrial
Research — Institute of Genomics and Integrative
Biology (CSIR-IGIB).
Choose the correct code given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
What is Feluda?
• It is a low-cost, paper-strip test which can detect the new
coronavirus within an hour.
• Developed by Scientists at the Council of Scientific &
Industrial Research — Institute of Genomics and
Integrative Biology (CSIR-IGIB).
• It is expected to cost around Rs 500 against the RT-PCR
test that costs Rs 4,500 in private labs.
• It uses cutting-edge gene-editing tool Crispr-Cas9
system.
Q.8) Which of the following statement is correct about
Konark Temple:
1. The temple is designed in the shape of a colossal chariot
and is dedicated to the sun God.
2. The temple is believed to be built by the kings from the
Somavamsi dynasty, with later additions from the Ganga
rulers.
Choose the correct code given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : (a) 1 only
Explanation : Second statement is INCORRECT because
Konark was built by King Narasimhadeva I of the Ganga
Dynasty (1238-1264AD) in the 13th century and is
located in Eastern Odisha near the sacred city of Puri.
• Recently, Union government has launched a scheme for
100% solarisation of Konark sun temple and Konark town
in Odisha named as Mission Surya Nagari
About Mision Surya Nagari
• The scheme will meet all energy requirements of Konark
town with solar energy, which is made under PM-vision
to develop the historical Sun temple town of Konark in
Odisha as ‘Surya Nagri’.
• This aims to convey a message of synergy between the
modern use of solar energy and the ancient Sun Temple
and the importance of promoting solar energy.
• It envisages setting up of the 10-MW grid connected
solar project and various solar off-grid applications such
as solar trees, solar drinking water kiosks and off-grid
solar power plants with battery storage.
• It will receive 100% Central Financial assistance (CFA)
support of around Rs. 25 crore through the Ministry of
New and Renewable Energy.
• Odisha Renewable Energy Development Agency will be
the Implementation Agency of the project (and not union
Ministry of Renewable energy or Ministry of culture)

Konark Temple
•Konark was built by King Narasimhadeva I of the Ganga
Dynasty (1238-1264AD) in the 13th century and is
located in Eastern Odisha near the sacred city of Puri.
•The temple is designed in the shape of a colossal chariot.
It is dedicated to the sun God.
• There are two rows of 12 wheels on each side of the
Konark sun temple.
• The seven horses are said to symbolize the seven days
of the week.
• The temple was used as a navigational point by
European sailors. They referred to it as the ‘Black
Pagoda’ due to its dark colour and its magnetic power that
drew ships into the shore and caused shipwrecks.
• It is the culmination of Odisha temple architecture.
• It was declared a UNESCO world heritage site in 1984.

Q. 9) Which African river crosses Equator twice :

(a) Nile River
(b) Congo River Q.10) Arrange the following Rivers in the direction from
(c) Zambezi River West to EAST:
(d) Niger River 1. Senegal River
2. Limpopo River
Answer (b) Congo River 3. Volta River
Explanation : 4. Zambezi River
Choose the correct code given below
• The Congo River, formerly known as the Zaire River (a) 1,4,3,2
during the dictatorship of Mobutu Sese Seko, is the (b) 1,3,4,2
second longest river in Africa, shorter only than the Nile, (c) 4,2,1,3
as well as the second largest river in the world by (d) 3,1,4,2
discharge volume, following only the Amazon.
• It is the only major river to cross the equator twice. Answer (b) 1,3,4,2
Explanation:

91 | P a g e
92 | P a g e