MACFI SCIENCE TECHNICAL HIGH SCHOOL

Quezon Blvd., Lamitan City, Basilan

3rd Quarter Examination
SCIENCE 10

Name: __________________________________ Grade and Section: ___________

Directions: Read the following statements carefully. Encircle the letter of the correct answer.

1. Which of these does not correctly contrast sperm with eggs?

SPERM EGG
A. mass produced one each month
B. much smaller much larger
C. moves along the vas deferens interstitial cells
D. arrow shaped round shaped

2. The uterus ________________.

A. is connected to both the oviducts and the vagina
B. is not an endocrine gland
C. contributes to the development of the placenta
D. all of these

3. Pregnancy begins ___________.

A. when an egg is fertilized C. upon successful implantation
B. when ovulation occurs D. during the follicular phase

4. The anterior pituitary stimulates what gland in the human body?

A. thyroid C. adrenal medulla
B. adrenal cortex D. pancreas

5. Which male organ produces millions of tiny sperm cells?

A. testes B. epididymis C. vas deferens D. urethra

6. When muscle of the uterus will push the baby through the cervix and out of the vagina, this process is called
_________.
A. birth B. fertilization C. reproduction D. contraction

7. Which of the following looks like a sac or pouch which encloses the testes?
A. scrotum B. epididymis C. vas deferens D. penis

8. The vas deferens _______________.

A. becomes erect C. is rounded by the prostate gland
B. carries sperm D. all of these

9. A simple goiter is caused by

A. too much salt in the diet
B. too little iodine in the diet
C. too many sweets in the diet
D. a bland diet

10. Which of the following statements is a best example of positive feedback mechanism?
A. you cannot hold your breath for a long time
B. the release of certain growth hormones during puberty
C. evaporation of sweat from the skin has a strong cooling effect
D. it releases heat energy and helps warm the body back to 37 0C

11. Which of the following shows that mutation is harmful among organisms?
A. Livestock such as hogs and poultry can now produce more young.
B. Mutation in plants may result in their inability to make chlorophyll.
C. New varieties of crops were produced that are resistant to pests or diseases.
D. There are fruits and vegetable which were genetically modified to stay unripe longer.
12. Which base pairs are found in DNA?
A. A-C and T-G C. A-T and C-G
B. A-G and T-C D. A-C and G_T

13. What type of bond connects base pairs?

A. Covalent Bond C. Metallic Bond
B. Hydrogen Bond D. Gaseous Bond

14. All of the following are true of RNA except __________.

A. RNA can leave the nucleus
B. RNA contains uracil in place of thiamine
C. RNA is a single strand
D. RNA and DNA have the same 5-C sugar

15. If the sequence of bases along one side of a DNA molecule is AAGCT, the complementary sequence of bases on
the other side of the DNA molecule is _____________.
A. AAGCT B. UUCGA C. GGTAC D. TTCGA

16. The three nitrogenous bases carried by tRNA is called ________________.

A. codon B. anticodon C. code D. genes

17. If a cell has 18 chromosomes, how many chromosomes would each daughter cell have after mitosis?
A. 9 B. 36 C. 18 D. cannot be determined

18. Which of the following genetic syndrome is known as mongolism?

A. Klinefelter’s Syndrome C. Down Syndrome
B. William’s Syndrome D. Turner’s Syndrome

19. When a particular individual has three chromosomes of a particular type, this chromosomal aberration is called
_____________.
A. monosomy B. duplication C. trisomy D. inversion

20. When a particular individual loss some part of their chromosome, this chromosomal aberration is called
_____________.
A. deletion B. inversion C. translocation D. duplication

21. Which of the following syndrome exist when a male carries two or more X and Y-Chromosomes in their genes?
A. Down Syndrome C. Klinefilter’s Syndrome
B. Turner’s Syndrome D. Patau’s Syndrome

22. What will be the result when there is an error in the base pairing of the DNA?
A. The DNA sequence will be changed resulting to non-functional protein.
B. The translation of nucleotide bases in DNA into amino acids becomes faster.
C. The transcription of information from the DNA to mRNA will not be possible.
D. All of the given choices.

23. All, EXCEPT ONE, might cause a mutation to occur. What is the exception?
A. high-energy radiation C. exposure to extreme temperature
B. chemicals reacting with DNA D. over consumption of junk foods

24. Deletion involves the loss of a segment of DNA or chromosome. Which of the following base pairing shows this
chromosomal mutation?
A. C.
141 142 143 144 145 141 142 143 144 145
GCC ATT TTT GGC CCT GCC ATT TTT GGC CCT
GCC ATT TTG GCC TT… GCC ATT TTG CGG CTT
B. D.
141 142 143 144 145 141 142 143 144 145
GCC ATT TTT GGC CCT GCC ATT TTT GGC CCT
CCT GGC TTT ATT GCC GCC TTA TTG CGG CTT
25. A paleontologist conducted relative dating to a fossil. What possible information will he obtain from this
procedure?
A. relative age of the fossil C. time scale
B. half-life D. chemical component
26. The fossil record of animal evolution is incomplete. Which of the following help explain this observation?
I. Some strata have not yet been exposed to reveal their fossil content.
II. Previous breaking, heating, and bending of rocks have altered some fossils beyond recognition.
III. Erosion removed many sedimentary rocks and their fossil content has been destroyed.

A. I, II, and III B. II and III only C. 1 and II only D. II only

27. The picture at the right is a specimen discovered from the Solnhofen limestone in Bavaria, Southern Germany.
This is known as ______
A. fossil C. biological remain
B. artifact D. mineralized rock

28. In what era can the oldest fossils be found?

A. Cenozoic B. Mesozoic C. Paleozoic D. Pre Cambrian

29. How does the Geologic Time Scale help you understand about life in the geologic past?
A. It provides a fossil record of organisms that dominated each period of time.
B. It corresponds to various organisms that evolved geometrically over time.
C. It gives information about the evolution of selected animals.
D. It gives the age of older rock layers on Earth.

30. Which of the following statements is TRUE about morphology and patterns of development?
A. Comparative morphology reveals homologous structures, shared as a result of descent from a
common ancestor.
B. Comparative biochemistry disregards genetic mutations that have accumulated in different
species.
C. Embryological evidences suggests many flaws in the homology and analogy of evolutionary
trends.
D. Embryological evidences reveal inaccuracy in evolutionary developmental patterns.

31. The forelimbs of bat and whale are said to be homologous structures. What does this indicate?
A. Bats and whales have the same ancestor.
B. Bats and whales have different ancestors.
C. The forelimbs of bats and whales are adapted to similar functions.
D. None among the given choices.

32. If two species exhibit similar embryonic development, they

A. belong to different ancestors since embryos become more and more dissimilar.
B. have the similar DNA and amino acid sequences.
C. came from the same parents.
D. are closely related.

For items 33-35, refer to the following choices.

A. Adaptation B. Acquisition C. Reproduction D. Variation

33. The neck of giraffes varies in length such that giraffes with long necks survived when there is shortage of food
and competition.

34. In Galapagos Island, Darwin observed that finch species have different beak structures for different food types.

35. Two organisms from survival populations of the same species may mate together and shift the abundance of a
new breed of organism due to mutation.

36. Which of the following statements best explains the Theory of Natural Selection?
A. Organs that are not used may disappear, while organs that are constantly used may develop.
B. In nature, the organism with desirable characteristics may survive, while those with weaker traits may
not.
C. Organisms develop desirable structures to survive in a given environment.
D. Acquired characteristics of parents can be passed on to off springs.
37. Which of the following statements supports the idea that extinction is necessary?
A. To give way for other organisms to develop
B. To let other organisms evolve and progress
C. To know who is the fittest
D. All of the above.
38. Mammoth were mammals which existed during the ice ages but were considered as extinct in the present times.
What is the possible reason for this?
A. Changes in environmental conditions caused those less fit to be eliminated.
B. New species of organisms was introduced in the environment which preyed these organisms until
extinction.
C. A catastrophic even took place eliminating the whole population of mammoths.
D. All of the above.

39. A person breeds guinea pigs in a cage. After a few generation, the breeder observes that the guinea pigs are
more aggressive towards each other, the young are less healthy and more guinea pigs die. What do you think will
happen to the population of the guinea pigs?
A. The population will remain the same. C. The population will decrease.
B. The population will increase. D. The population is not affected.

40. An ecosystem is said to be stable if

A. the population density of prominent organisms remains the same as years pass by.
B. it is resilient enough to withstand changes that may occur in the environment.
C. it is not affected by calamities brought about by nature or by man.
D. there is an abundant biodiversity of organisms living together.

41. How does species biodiversity benefit an ecosystem?

A. Some plants and animals provide raw materials needed in the production of economic
valuable products.
B. Certain species maintain the chemical quality of natural bodies of water, prevent soil erosion
and floods, cycle materials in the soil, and absorb pollutants.
C. A lot of species provides visual or aesthetic enjoyment like landscapes and parks.
D. All of the above

42. In what aspect species diversity increases the probability of a stable environment?
A. Different species have different roles in the ecosystem making it balance and stable.
B. A rich species biodiversity allows the appearance of new organisms which can sustain the
ecosystem.
C. A strong competition among diverse species allows the survival of the fittest.
D. Interrelationship of organisms maintains a stable environmental condition preventing the
occurrences of natural disasters.

For items 43-48, refer to the given graph on the right.

43. In what year the population of fur seals first reached its carrying capacity?
A. 1915 C. 1935
B. 1925 D. 1945

44. What does the graph show?

A. There is no growth at all in the population of fur seals. Pop
B. Fur seals ‘s population exhibited logistic growth.
ulation Growth of Breeding
C. Fur seals’ population exhibited exponential growth.
D. The population of fur seals undergone both logistic and Male Fur Seals
exponential growth.

45. The population of fur seals eventually reached its carrying capacity. This means that
A. resources became limited causing the growth of population to level off.
B. resources are unlimited causing the population to grow exponentially.
C. the ecosystem sustains the fur seals well causing a stable population.
D. the ecosystem can no longer sustain fur seals and eventually may lead to extinction.
46. What were the possible outcomes as these organisms reached their carrying capacity?
I. There will be competition for food among fur seals.
II. There will be more cases of fur seals contracted with diseases.
III. Emigration takes place as fur seals search for place with enough resources.
IV. Predators of fur seals will increase in population since there are plenty of prey.

A. I and II B. III and IV C. I, II, III and IV D. None among I, II, III and IV

47. Suppose the year 1950, the population of fur seals started to decreases due to density-independent limiting
factor, we can assume that
A. humans started to invade and alter the habitat of fur seals.
B. a natural disaster took place which killed some of the fur seals.
C. there was a drastic change in the temperature of the area where the fur seals live.
D. All of the above.

48. Which of the following causes a decreasing wildlife population in most of the places of our country?
A. loss of limiting factor C. loss of habitat
B. loss of natural disturbances D. loss of carrying capacity

49. All are causes of animal and plant extinction, except __________.
A. overgrazing C. deforestation and glaciation
B. experiment for research D. pollen particulates as air pollution

50. Population A varies slightly from population B. A taxonomist should designate them as separate species is
______________.
A. they are geographically isolated
B. they differ in appearance
C. they do not interbreed when the opportunity arises
D. gene flow has been observed