CAT Previous Years Question Papers PDF

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Participant Name:
Test Center Name:
Test Date: 24/11/2019
Test Time: 9:00 AM - 12:00 PM
Subject: CAT 2019
Section : VARC
Comprehension:
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"Free of the taint of manufacture" – that phrase, in particular, is heavily loaded with the
ideology of what the Victorian socialist William Morris called the "anti-scrape", or an anti-
capitalist conservationism (not conservatism) that solaced itself with the vision of a pre-
industrial golden age. In Britain, folk may often appear a cosy, fossilised form, but when you
look more closely, the idea of folk – who has the right to sing it, dance it, invoke it, collect it,
belong to it or appropriate it for political or cultural ends – has always been contested territory.
...
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In our own time, though, the word "folk" . . . has achieved the rare distinction of occupying
fashionable and unfashionable status simultaneously. Just as the effusive floral prints of the
radical William Morris now cover genteel sofas, so the revolutionary intentions of many folk
historians and revivalists have led to music that is commonly regarded as parochial and
conservative. And yet – as newspaper columns periodically rejoice – folk is hip again,
influencing artists, clothing and furniture designers, celebrated at music festivals, awards
ceremonies and on TV, reissued on countless record labels. Folk is a sonic "shabby chic",
containing elements of the uncanny and eerie, as well as an antique veneer, a whiff of
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Britain's heathen dark ages. The very obscurity and anonymity of folk music's origins open up
space for rampant imaginative fancies. . . .
[Cecil Sharp, who wrote about this subject, believed that] folk songs existed in constant
transformation, a living example of an art form in a perpetual state of renewal. "One man
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sings a song, and then others sing it after him, changing what they do not like" is the most
concise summary of his conclusions on its origins. He compared each rendition of a ballad to
an acorn falling from an oak tree; every subsequent iteration sows the song anew. But there is
tension in newness. In the late 1960s, purists were suspicious of folk songs recast in rock
idioms. Electrification, however, comes in many forms. For the early-20th-century composers
such as Vaughan Williams and Holst, there were thunderbolts of inspiration from oriental
mysticism, angular modernism and the body blow of the first world war, as well as input from
the rediscovered folk tradition itself.
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For the second wave of folk revivalists, such as Ewan MacColl and AL Lloyd, starting in the
40s, the vital spark was communism's dream of a post-revolutionary New Jerusalem. For their
younger successors in the 60s, who thronged the folk clubs set up by the old guard, the lyrical
freedom of Dylan and the unchained melodies of psychedelia created the conditions for folk-
rock's own golden age, a brief Indian summer that lasted from about 1969 to 1971. . . . Four
decades on, even that progressive period has become just one more era ripe for fashionable
emulation and pastiche. The idea of a folk tradition being exclusively confined to oral
transmission has become a much looser, less severely guarded concept. Recorded music
and television, for today's metropolitan generation, are where the equivalent of folk memories
are seeded. . . .
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SubQuestion No : 1
Q.1 All of the following are causes for plurality and diversity within the British folk tradition
EXCEPT:
Ans 1. paradoxically, folk forms are both popular and unpopular.
2. the fluidity of folk forms owing to their history of oral mode of transmission.
3. that British folk forms can be traced to the remote past of the country.
4. that British folk continues to have traces of pagan influence from the dark ages.
Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 4891687991
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Comprehension:
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are seeded. . . .
SubQuestion No : 2
Q.2 At a conference on folk forms, the author of the passage is least likely to agree with
which one of the following views?
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Ans 1. Folk forms, despite their archaic origins, remain intellectually relevant in
contemporary times.
2. Folk forms, in their ability to constantly adapt to the changing world, exhibit an
unusual poise and homogeneity with each change.
3. The power of folk resides in its contradictory ability to influence and be influenced by
the present while remaining rooted in the past.
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4. The plurality and democratising impulse of folk forms emanate from the
improvisation that its practitioners bring to it.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
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Comprehension:
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are seeded. . . .
SubQuestion No : 3
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Q.3 The primary purpose of the reference to William Morris and his floral prints is to show:
Ans 1. that what is once regarded as radical in folk, can later be seen as conformist.
2. that despite its archaic origins, folk continues to remain a popular tradition.
3. the pervasive influence of folk on contemporary art, culture, and fashion.
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4. that what was once derided as genteel is now considered revolutionary.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
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Comprehension:
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...
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are seeded. . . .
SubQuestion No : 4
Q.4 Which of the following statements about folk revivalism of the 1940s and 1960s cannot
be inferred from the passage?
Ans 1. Electrification of music would not have happened without the influence of rock
music.
2. It reinforced Cecil Sharp’s observation about folk’s constant transformation.
3. Even though it led to folk-rock’s golden age, it wasn’t entirely free from critique.
4. Freedom and rebellion were popular themes during the second wave of folk
revivalism.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Comprehension:
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...
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are seeded. . . .
SubQuestion No : 5
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Q.5 The author says that folk “may often appear a cosy, fossilised form” because:
Ans 1. the notion of folk has led to several debates and disagreements.
2. of its nostalgic association with a pre-industrial past.
3. it has been arrogated for various political and cultural purposes.
4. folk is a sonic “shabby chic” with an antique veneer.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Comprehension:
As defined by the geographer Yi-Fu Tuan, topophilia is the affective bond between people and
place. His 1974 book set forth a wide-ranging exploration of how the emotive ties with the
material environment vary greatly from person to person and in intensity, subtlety, and mode
of expression. Factors influencing one’s depth of response to the environment include cultural
background, gender, race, and historical circumstance, and Tuan also argued that there is a
biological and sensory element. Topophilia might not be the strongest of human emotions—
indeed, many people feel utterly indifferent toward the environments that shape their lives—
but when activated it has the power to elevate a place to become the carrier of emotionally
charged events or to be perceived as a symbol.
Aesthetic appreciation is one way in which people respond to the environment. A brilliantly
colored rainbow after gloomy afternoon showers, a busy city street alive with human
interaction—one might experience the beauty of such landscapes that had seemed quite
ordinary only moments before or that are being newly discovered. This is quite the opposite of
a second topophilic bond, namely that of the acquired taste for certain landscapes and places
that one knows well. When a place is home, or when a space has become the locus of
memories or the means of gaining a livelihood, it frequently evokes a deeper set of
attachments than those predicated purely on the visual. A third response to the environment
also depends on the human senses but may be tactile and olfactory, namely a delight in the
feel and smell of air, water, and the earth.
Topophilia—and its very close conceptual twin, sense of place—is an experience that,
however elusive, has inspired recent architects and planners. Most notably, new urbanism
seeks to counter the perceived placelessness of modern suburbs and the decline of central
cities through neo-traditional design motifs. Although motivated by good intentions, such
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attempts to create places rich in meaning are perhaps bound to disappoint. As Tuan noted,
purely aesthetic responses often are suddenly revealed, but their intensity rarely is long-
lasting. Topophilia is difficult to design for and impossible to quantify, and its most articulate
interpreters have been self-reflective philosophers such as Henry David Thoreau, evoking a
marvelously intricate sense of place at Walden Pond, and Tuan, describing his deep affinity
for the desert.
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Topophilia connotes a positive relationship, but it often is useful to explore the darker
affiliations between people and place. Patriotism, literally meaning the love of one’s terra
patria or homeland, has long been cultivated by governing elites for a range of nationalist
projects, including war preparation and ethnic cleansing. Residents of upscale residential
developments have disclosed how important it is to maintain their community’s distinct
identity, often by casting themselves in a superior social position and by reinforcing class and
racial differences. And just as a beloved landscape is suddenly revealed, so too may
landscapes of fear cast a dark shadow over a place that makes one feel a sense of dread or
anxiety—or topophobia.
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SubQuestion No : 6
Q.6 The word “topophobia” in the passage is used:
Ans 1.
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to represent a feeling of dread towards particular spaces and places.

2.
to signify feelings of fear or anxiety towards topophilic people.
3. to signify the fear of studying the complex discipline of topography.
4.
as a metaphor expressing the failure of the homeland to accommodate non-citizens.
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Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Comprehension:
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for the desert.
SubQuestion No : 7
Q.7 Which one of the following best captures the meaning of the statement, “Topophilia is
difficult to design for and impossible to quantify . . .”?
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Ans 1. People’s responses to their environment are usually subjective and so cannot be
rendered in design.
2. Philosopher-architects are uniquely suited to develop topophilic design.
3. The deep anomie of modern urbanisation led to new urbanism’s intricate sense of
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place.
4. Architects have to objectively quantify spaces and hence cannot be topophilic.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
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Comprehension:
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for the desert.
SubQuestion No : 8
Q.8 Which of the following statements, if true, could be seen as not contradicting the
arguments in the passage?
Ans 1. The most important, even fundamental, response to our environment is our tactile
and olfactory response.
2. New Urbanism succeeded in those designs where architects collaborated with their
clients.
3. Patriotism, usually seen as a positive feeling, is presented by the author as a darker
form of topophilia.
4. Generally speaking, in a given culture, the ties of the people to their environment
vary little in significance or intensity.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
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Comprehension:
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for the desert.
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SubQuestion No : 9
Q.9 Which one of the following comes closest in meaning to the author’s understanding of
topophilia?
Ans 1. The French are not overly patriotic, but they will refuse to use English as far as
possible, even when they know it well.
2. The tendency of many cultures to represent their land as “motherland” or
“fatherland” may be seen as an expression of their topophilia
3. Scientists have found that most creatures, including humans, are either born with or
cultivate a strong sense of topography.
4. Nomadic societies are known to have the least affinity for the lands through which
they traverse because they tend to be topophobic.
Question Type : MCQ
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Comprehension:
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for the desert.
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SubQuestion No : 10
Q.10 In the last paragraph, the author uses the example of “Residents of upscale residential
developments” to illustrate the:
Ans
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1. social exclusivism practised by such residents in order to enforce a sense of racial

or class superiority.
2. introduction of nationalist projects by such elites to produce a sense of dread or
topophobia.
3. manner in which environments are designed to minimise the social exclusion of their
clientele.
4. sensitive response to race and class problems in upscale residential developments.
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Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Comprehension:
Contemporary internet shopping conjures a perfect storm of choice anxiety. Research has
consistently held that people who are presented with a few options make better, easier
decisions than those presented with many. . . . Helping consumers figure out what to buy
amid an endless sea of choice online has become a cottage industry unto itself. Many brands
and retailers now wield marketing buzzwords such as curation, differentiation, and discovery
as they attempt to sell an assortment of stuff targeted to their ideal customer. Companies find
such shoppers through the data gold mine of digital advertising, which can catalog people by
gender, income level, personal interests, and more. Since Americans have lost the ability to
sort through the sheer volume of the consumer choices available to them, a ghost now has to
be in the retail machine, whether it’s an algorithm, an influencer, or some snazzy ad tech to
help a product follow you around the internet. Indeed, choice fatigue is one reason so many
people gravitate toward lifestyle influencers on Instagram—the relentlessly chic young moms
and perpetually vacationing 20-somethings—who present an aspirational worldview, and then
recommend the products and services that help achieve it. . . .
For a relatively new class of consumer-products start-ups, there’s another method entirely.
Instead of making sense of a sea of existing stuff, these companies claim to disrupt stuff as
Americans know it. Casper (mattresses), Glossier (makeup), Away (suitcases), and many
others have sprouted up to offer consumers freedom from choice: The companies have a few
aesthetically pleasing and supposedly highly functional options, usually at mid-range prices.
They’re selling nice things, but maybe more importantly, they’re selling a confidence in those
things, and an ability to opt out of the stuff rat race. . . .
One-thousand-dollar mattresses and $300 suitcases might solve choice anxiety for a certain
tier of consumer, but the companies that sell them, along with those that attempt to massage
the larger stuff economy into something navigable, are still just working within a consumer
market that’s broken in systemic ways. The presence of so much stuff in America might be
more valuable if it were more evenly distributed, but stuff’s creators tend to focus their energy
on those who already have plenty. As options have expanded for people with disposable
income, the opportunity to buy even basic things such as fresh food or quality diapers has
contracted for much of America’s lower classes.
For start-ups that promise accessible simplicity, their very structure still might eventually push
them toward overwhelming variety. Most of these companies are based on hundreds of
millions of dollars of venture capital, the investors of which tend to expect a steep growth rate
that can’t be achieved by selling one great mattress or one great sneaker. Casper has
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expanded into bedroom furniture and bed linens. Glossier, after years of marketing itself as
no-makeup makeup that requires little skill to apply, recently launched a full line of glittering
color cosmetics. There may be no way to opt out of stuff by buying into the right thing.
SubQuestion No : 11
Q.11 Which one of the following best sums up the overall purpose of the examples of
Casper and Glossier in the passage?
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Ans 1. They are increasing the purchasing power of poor Americans.
2. They are facilitating a uniform distribution of commodities in the market.
3. They might transform into what they were exceptions to.
4. They are exceptions to a dominant trend in consumer markets.

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Question Type : MCQ
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
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Comprehension:
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SubQuestion No : 12
Q.12 A new food brand plans to launch a series of products in the American market. Which
of the following product plans is most likely to be supported by the author of the
passage?
Ans 1. A range of 25 products priced between $5 and $10.
2. A range of 10 products priced between $5 and $10.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
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Comprehension:
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SubQuestion No : 13
Q.13 Based on the passage, all of the following can be inferred about consumer behaviour
EXCEPT that:
Ans 1. having too many product options can be overwhelming for consumers.
2. consumers are susceptible to marketing images that they see on social media.
3. too many options have made it difficult for consumers to trust products.
4. consumers tend to prefer products by start-ups over those by established

companies.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Comprehension:
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SubQuestion No : 14
Q.14 Which of the following hypothetical statements would add the least depth to the
author’s prediction of the fate of start-ups offering few product options?
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Ans 1. Start-ups with few product options are no exception to the American consumer
market that is deeply divided along class lines.
2. With Casper and Glossier venturing into new product ranges, their regular
customers start losing trust in the companies and their products.
3. An exponential surge in their sales enables start-ups to meet their desired profit
goals without expanding their product catalogue.
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4. With the motive of promoting certain rival companies, the government decides to
double the tax-rates for these start-ups.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
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Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 15
Q.15 All of the following, IF TRUE, would weaken the author’s claims EXCEPT:
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Ans 1. the annual sales growth of companies with fewer product options were higher than
that of companies which curated their products for target consumers.
2. the empowerment felt by purchasers in buying a commodity were directly
proportional to the number of options they could choose from.
3. product options increased market competition, bringing down the prices of
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commodities, which, in turn, increased purchasing power of the poor.
4. the annual sale of companies that hired lifestyle influencers on Instagram for
marketing their products were 40% less than those that did not.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
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Chosen Option : 3
Comprehension:
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Scientists recently discovered that Emperor Penguins—one of Antarctica’s most celebrated

species—employ a particularly unusual technique for surviving the daily chill. As detailed in an
article published today in the journal Biology Letters, the birds minimize heat loss by keeping
the outer surface of their plumage below the temperature of the surrounding air. At the same
time, the penguins’ thick plumage insulates their body and keeps it toasty. . . .
The researchers analyzed thermographic images . . . taken over roughly a month during June
2008. During that period, the average air temperature was 0.32 degrees Fahrenheit. At the
same time, the majority of the plumage covering the penguins’ bodies was even colder: the
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surface of their warmest body part, their feet, was an average 1.76 degrees Fahrenheit, but
the plumage on their heads, chests and backs were -1.84, -7.24 and -9.76 degrees
Fahrenheit respectively. Overall, nearly the entire outer surface of the penguins’ bodies was
below freezing at all times, except for their eyes and beaks. The scientists also used a
computer simulation to determine how much heat was lost or gained from each part of the
body—and discovered that by keeping their outer surface below air temperature, the birds
might paradoxically be able to draw very slight amounts of heat from the air around them. The
key to their trick is the difference between two different types of heat transfer: radiation and
convection.
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The penguins do lose internal body heat to the surrounding air through thermal radiation, just
as our bodies do on a cold day. Because their bodies (but not surface plumage) are warmer
than the surrounding air, heat gradually radiates outward over time, moving from a warmer
material to a colder one. To maintain body temperature while losing heat, penguins, like all
warm-blooded animals, rely on the metabolism of food. The penguins, though, have an
additional strategy. Since their outer plumage is even colder than the air, the simulation
showed that they might gain back a little of this heat through thermal convection—the transfer
of heat via the movement of a fluid (in this case, the air). As the cold Antarctic air cycles
around their bodies, slightly warmer air comes into contact with the plumage and donates
minute amounts of heat back to the penguins, then cycles away at a slightly colder
temperature.
Most of this heat, the researchers note, probably doesn’t make it all the way through the
plumage and back to the penguins’ bodies, but it could make a slight difference. At the very
least, the method by which a penguin’s plumage wicks heat from the bitterly cold air that
surrounds it helps to cancel out some of the heat that’s radiating from its interior. And given
the Emperors’ unusually demanding breeding cycle, every bit of warmth counts. . . . Since
[penguins trek as far as 75 miles to the coast to breed and male penguins] don’t eat anything
during [the incubation period of 64 days], conserving calories by giving up as little heat as
possible is absolutely crucial.
SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16 Which of the following best explains the purpose of the word “paradoxically” as used
by the author?
Ans 1. Heat loss through radiation happens despite the heat gain through convection.
2. Heat gain through radiation happens despite the heat loss through convection.
3. Keeping their body colder helps penguins keep their plumage warmer.
4. Keeping a part of their body colder helps penguins keep their bodies warmer.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Comprehension:
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convection.
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temperature.
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SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17 All of the following, if true, would negate the findings of the study reported in the
passage EXCEPT:
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Ans 1. the average air temperature recorded during the month of June 2008 in the area of
study were –10 degrees Fahrenheit.
2. the temperature of the plumage on the penguins’ heads, chests and backs were
found to be 1.84, 7.24 and 9.76 degrees Fahrenheit respectively.
3. the penguins’ plumage were made of a material that did not allow any heat transfer
through convection or radiation.
4. the average temperature of the feet of penguins in the month of June 2008 were
found to be 2.76 degrees Fahrenheit.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Comprehension:
convection.
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temperature.
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SubQuestion No : 18
Q.18 In the last sentence of paragraph 3, “slightly warmer air” and “at a slightly colder
temperature” refer to ______ AND ______ respectively:
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Ans 1. the cold Antarctic air whose temperature is higher than that of the plumage AND the
fall in temperature of the Antarctic air after it has transmitted some heat to the plumage.
2. the air inside penguins’ bodies kept warm because of metabolism of food AND the
fall in temperature of the body air after it transfers some heat to the plumage.
3. the air trapped in the plumage which is warmer than the Antarctic air AND the fall in
temperature of the trapped plumage air after it radiates out some heat.
4. the cold Antarctic air which becomes warmer because of the heat radiated out from
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penguins’ bodies AND the fall in temperature of the surrounding air after thermal convection.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
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Comprehension:
convection.
temperature.
SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19 Which of the following can be responsible for Emperor Penguins losing body heat?
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Ans 1. Thermal convection.
2. Plumage.
3. Reproduction process.
4. Food metabolism.
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Question Type : MCQ
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Comprehension:
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In the past, credit for telling the tale of Aladdin has often gone to Antoine Galland . . . the first
European translator of . . . Arabian Nights [which] started as a series of translations of an
incomplete manuscript of a medieval Arabic story collection. . . But, though those tales were
of medieval origin, Aladdin may be a more recent invention. Scholars have not found a
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manuscript of the story that predates the version published in 1712 by Galland, who wrote in
his diary that he first heard the tale from a Syrian storyteller from Aleppo named Hanna Diyab
...
Despite the fantastical elements of the story, scholars now think the main character may
actually be based on a real person’s real experiences. . . . Though Galland never credited
Diyab in his published translations of the Arabian Nights stories, Diyab wrote something of his
own: a travelogue penned in the mid-18th century. In it, he recalls telling Galland the story of
Aladdin [and] describes his own hard-knocks upbringing and the way he marveled at the
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extravagance of Versailles. The descriptions he uses were very similar to the descriptions of
the lavish palace that ended up in Galland’s version of the Aladdin story. [Therefore, author
Paulo Lemos] Horta believes that “Aladdin might be the young Arab Maronite from Aleppo,
marveling at the jewels and riches of Versailles.” . . .
For 300 years, scholars thought that the rags-to-riches story of Aladdin might have been
inspired by the plots of French fairy tales that came out around the same time, or that the
story was invented in that 18th century period as a byproduct of French Orientalism, a
fascination with stereotypical exotic Middle Eastern luxuries that was prevalent then. The idea
that Diyab might have based it on his own life — the experiences of a Middle Eastern man
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encountering the French, not vice-versa — flips the script. [According to Horta,] “Diyab was
ideally placed to embody the overlapping world of East and West, blending the storytelling
traditions of his homeland with his youthful observations of the wonder of 18th-century
France.” . . .
To the scholars who study the tale, its narrative drama isn’t the only reason storytellers keep
finding reason to return to Aladdin. It reflects not only “a history of the French and the Middle
East, but also [a story about] Middle Easterners coming to Paris and that speaks to our world
today,” as Horta puts it. “The day Diyab told the story of Aladdin to Galland, there were riots
due to food shortages during the winter and spring of 1708 to 1709, and Diyab was sensitive
to those people in a way that Galland is not. When you read this diary, you see this solidarity
among the Arabs who were in Paris at the time. . . . There is little in the writings of Galland
that would suggest that he was capable of developing a character like Aladdin with sympathy,
but Diyab’s memoir reveals a narrator adept at capturing the distinctive psychology of a young
protagonist, as well as recognizing the kinds of injustices and opportunities that can transform
the path of any youthful adventurer.”
SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20 All of the following serve as evidence for the character of Aladdin being based on
Hanna Diyab EXCEPT:
Ans 1. Diyab’s humble origins and class struggles, as recounted in his travelogue.
2. Diyab’s cosmopolitanism and cross-cultural experience.
3. Diyab’s narration of the original story to Galland.
4. Diyab’s description of the wealth of Versailles in his travelogue.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Comprehension:
...
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France.” . . .
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SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Which of the following is the primary reason for why storytellers are still fascinated by
the story of Aladdin?
Ans 1. The tale of Aladdin documents the history of Europe and Middle East.
2. The archetype of the rags-to-riches story of Aladdin makes it popular even today.
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3. The traveller's experience that inspired the tale of Aladdin resonates even today.
4. The story of Aladdin is evidence of the eighteenth century French Orientalist

attitude.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Comprehension:
...
France.” . . .
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SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 The author of the passage is most likely to agree with which of the following
explanations for the origins of the story of Aladdin?
Ans 1. Galland received the story of Aladdin from Diyab who, in turn, found it in an
incomplete medieval manuscript.
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2. Basing it on his own life experiences, Diyab transmitted the story of Aladdin to
Galland who included it in Arabian Nights.
3. Galland derived the story of Aladdin from Diyab’s travelogue in which he recounts
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his fascination with the wealth of Versailles.

4. The story of Aladdin has its origins in an undiscovered, incomplete manuscript of a
medieval Arabic collection of stories.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
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Chosen Option : 1
Comprehension:
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...
France.” . . .
SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Which of the following does not contribute to the passage’s claim about the authorship
of Aladdin?
Ans 1. The depiction of the affluence of Versailles in Diyab’s travelogue.
2. Galland’s acknowledgment of Diyab in his diary.
3. The narrative sensibility of Diyab’s travelogue.
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4. The story-line of many French fairy tales of the 18th century.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Comprehension:
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...
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France.” . . .
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SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Which of the following, if true, would invalidate the inversion that the phrase “flips the
script” refers to?
Ans 1. The French fairy tales of the eighteenth century did not have rags-to-riches plot lines
like that of the tale of Aladdin.
2. Galland acknowledged in the published translations of Arabian Nights that he heard
the story of Aladdin from Diyab.
3. The description of opulence in Hanna Diyab’s and Antoine Galland’s narratives bore
no resemblance to each other.
4. Diyab’s travelogue described the affluence of the French city of Bordeaux, instead of
Versailles.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.25 The four sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4) given below, when properly sequenced
would yield a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper sequence of the order of
the sentences and key in the sequence of the four numbers as your answer.
1. If you’ve seen a little line of text on websites that says something like "customers
who bought this also enjoyed that” you have experienced this collaborative filtering
firsthand.
2. The problem with these algorithms is that they don’t take into account a host of
nuances and circumstances that might interfere with their accuracy.
3. If you just bought a gardening book for your cousin, you might get a flurry of
links to books about gardening, recommended just for you! – the algorithm has no
way of knowing you hate gardening and only bought the book as a gift.
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4. Collaborative filtering is a mathematical algorithm by which correlations and co-
occurrences of behaviors are tracked and then used to make recommendations.
Case Sensitivity: No
Answer Type: Equal
Possible Answer: 4123
Given 1432
S3
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
R
Q.26 Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put together
to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out.
Choose its number as your answer and key it in.
1. His idea to use sign language was not a completely new idea as Native
Americans used hand gestures to communicate with other tribes.
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2. Ancient Greek philosopher Aristotle, for example, observed that men who are
deaf are incapable of speech.
3. People who were born deaf were denied the right to sign a will as they were
“presumed to understand nothing; because it is not possible that they have been
able to learn to read or write.”
4. Pushback against this prejudice began in the 16th century when Pedro Ponce de
León created a formal sign language for the hearing impaired.
5. For millennia, people with hearing impairments encountered marginalization
because it was believed that language could only be learned by hearing the spoken
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word.
Answer Type: Equal
Possible Answer: 2
Given 54132
Answer :
Question Type : SA
C
Status : Answered
Q.27 Five sentences related to a topic are given below in a jumbled order. Four of them
form a coherent and unified paragraph. Identify the odd sentence that does not go
with the four. Key in the number of the option that you choose.
1. ‘Stat’ signaled something measurable, while ‘matic’ advertised free labour; but
‘tron’, above all, indicated control.
2. It was a totem of high modernism, the intellectual and cultural mode that decreed
no process or phenomenon was too complex to be grasped, managed and
optimized.
3. Like the heraldic shields of ancient knights, these morphemes were painted onto
the names of scientific technologies to proclaim one’s history and achievements to
friends and enemies alike.
4. The historian Robert Proctor at Stanford University calls the suffix ‘-tron’, along
with ‘-matic’ and ‘-stat’, embodied symbols.
5. To gain the suffix was to acquire a proud and optimistic emblem of the electronic
and atomic age.
Answer Type: Equal
Possible Answer: 2
Given 32541
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
1. People with dyslexia have difficulty with print-reading, and people with autism
spectrum disorder have difficulty with mind-reading.
2. An example of a lost cognitive instinct is mind-reading: our capacity to think of
ourselves and others as having beliefs, desires, thoughts and feelings.
3. Mind-reading looks increasingly like literacy, a skill we know for sure is not in our
genes, since scripts have been around for only 5,000-6,000 years.
4. Print-reading, like mind-reading varies across cultures, depends heavily on
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certain parts of the brain, and is subject to developmental disorders.
Answer Type: Equal
Given 41523
Answer :
S3
Q.29 The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
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that best captures the essence of the passage.
Physics is a pure science that seeks to understand the behavior of matter without
regard to whether it will afford any practical benefit. Engineering is the correlative
applied science in which physical theories are put to some specific use, such as
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building a bridge or a nuclear reactor. Engineers obviously rely heavily on the

discoveries of physicists, but an engineer's knowledge of the world is not the same as
the physicist's knowledge. In fact, an engineer's know-how will often depend on
physical theories that, from the point of view of pure physics, are false. There are
some reasons for this. First, theories that are false in the purest and strictest sense
are still sometimes very good approximations to the true ones, and often have the
added virtue of being much easier to work with. Second, sometimes the true theories
apply only under highly idealized conditions which can only be created under
controlled experimental situations. The engineer finds that in the real world, theories
rejected by physicists yield more accurate predictions than the ones that they accept.
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Ans 1. The relationship between pure and applied science is strictly linear, with the pure
science directing applied science, and never the other way round.
2. The unique task of the engineer is to identify, understand, and interpret the design
constraints to produce a successful result.
3. Though engineering draws heavily from pure science, it contributes to knowledge,
by incorporating the constraints and conditions in the real world.
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4. Engineering and physics fundamentally differ on matters like building a bridge or a

nuclear reactor.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
A distinguishing feature of language is our ability to refer to absent things, known as

displaced reference. A speaker can bring distant referents to mind in the absence of
any obvious stimuli. Thoughts, not limited to the here and now, can pop into our heads
for unfathomable reasons. This ability to think about distant things necessarily
precedes the ability to talk about them. Thought precedes meaningful referential
communication. A prerequisite for the emergence of human-like meaningful symbols
is that the mental categories they relate to can be invoked even in the absence of
immediate stimuli.
Ans 1. Thoughts are essential to communication and only humans have the ability to think
about objects not present in their surroundings.
2. Thoughts precede all speech acts and these thoughts pop up in our heads even in
the absence of any stimulus.
3. Displaced reference is particular to humans and thoughts pop into our heads for no
real reason.
4. The ability to think about objects not present in our environment precedes the
development of human communication.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
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Vance Packard’s The Hidden Persuaders alerted the public to the psychoanalytical
techniques used by the advertising industry. Its premise was that advertising agencies
were using depth interviews to identify hidden consumer motivations, which were then
used to entice consumers to buy goods. Critics and reporters often wrongly assumed
that Packard was writing mainly about subliminal advertising. Packard never
mentioned the word subliminal, however, and devoted very little space to discussions
of “subthreshold” effects. Instead, his views largely aligned with the notion that
individuals do not always have access to their conscious thoughts and can be
S3
persuaded by supraliminal messages without their knowledge.
Ans 1. Packard argued that advertising as a ‘hidden persuasion’ understands the hidden
motivations of consumers and works at the subliminal level, on the subconscious level of the
awareness of the people targeted.
2. Packard argued that advertising as a ‘hidden persuasion’ works at the supraliminal
level, wherein the people targeted are aware of being persuaded, after understanding the
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hidden motivations of consumers and works.
3. Packard held that advertising as a ‘hidden persuasion’ builds on peoples’ conscious
thoughts and awareness, by understanding the hidden motivations of consumers and works
at the subliminal level.
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4. Packard held that advertising as a ‘hidden persuasion’ understands the hidden

motivations of consumers and works at the supraliminal level, though the people targeted
have no awareness of being persuaded.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
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Chosen Option : 3
1. Metaphors may map to similar meanings across languages, but their subtle
differences can have a profound effect on our understanding of the world.
2. Latin scholars point out carpe diem is a horticultural metaphor that, particularly
seen in the context of its source, is more accurately translated as “plucking the
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day,” evoking the plucking and gathering of ripening fruits or flowers, enjoying a
moment that is rooted in the sensory experience of nature, unrelated to the force
implied in seizing.
3. The phrase carpe diem, which is often translated as “seize the day and its
accompanying philosophy, has gone on to inspire countless people in how they live
their lives and motivates us to see the world a little differently from the norm
4. It’s an example of one of the more telling ways that we mistranslate metaphors
from one language to another, revealing in the process our hidden assumptions
about what we really value.
Answer Type: Equal
Given 4123
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
1. We’ll all live under mob rule until then, which doesn’t help anyone.
2. Perhaps we need to learn to condense the feedback we receive online so that 100
replies carry the same weight as just one.
3. As we grow more comfortable with social media conversations being part of the
way we interact every day, we are going to have to learn how to deal with legitimate
criticism.
4. A new norm will arise where it is considered unacceptable to reply with the same
point that dozens of others have already.
Answer Type: Equal
Given 1432
Answer :
Question Type : SA
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Status : Answered
Q.34 Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put together
to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out.
Choose its number as your answer and key it in.
1. One argument is that actors that do not fit within a single, well-defined category
S3
may suffer an “illegitimacy discount”.
2. Others believe that complex identities confuse audiences about an organization’s
role or purpose.
3. Some organizations have complex and multidimensional identities that span or
combine categories, while other organizations possess narrow identities.
4. Identity is one of the most important features of organizations, but there exist
opposing views among sociologists about how identity affects organizational
performance.
5. Those who think that complex identities are beneficial point to the strategic
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advantages of ambiguity, and organizations’ potential to differentiate themselves
from competitors.
Answer Type: Equal
EE
Possible Answer: 1
Given 12345
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
AR
Section : DILR
Comprehension:
The figure below shows the street map for a certain region with the street intersections
marked from a through l. A person standing at an intersection can see along straight lines to
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other intersections that are in her line of sight and all other people standing at these
intersections. For example, a person standing at intersection g can see all people standing at
intersections b, c, e, f, h, and k. In particular, the person standing at intersection g can see the
person standing at intersection e irrespective of whether there is a person standing at
intersection f.
Six people U, V, W, X, Y, and Z, are standing at different intersections. No two people are
standing at the same intersection.
The following additional facts are known.
1. X, U, and Z are standing at the three corners of a triangle formed by three street segments.
2. X can see only U and Z.
3. Y can see only U and W.
4. U sees V standing in the next intersection behind Z.
5. W cannot see V or Z.
6. No one among the six is standing at intersection d.
SubQuestion No : 1
Q.1 Who is standing at intersection a?
Ans 1. V
2. Y
3. No one
4. W
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Question Type : MCQ
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
S3
Comprehension:
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intersection f.
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.
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C

SubQuestion No : 2
Q.2 Who can V see?
Ans 1. U, W and Z only
2. U only
3. Z only
4. U and Z only
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Comprehension:
intersection f.
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S3
SubQuestion No : 3
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Q.3 What is the minimum number of street segments that X must cross to reach Y?
Ans 1. 1
2. 4
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3. 2
4. 3
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
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Chosen Option : 3
Comprehension:
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intersection f.
SubQuestion No : 4
Q.4 Should a new person stand at intersection d, who among the six would she see?
Ans 1. U and W only
2. V and X only
3. W and X only
4. U and Z only
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
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Chosen Option : 1
Comprehension:
The Ministry of Home Affairs is analysing crimes committed by foreigners in different states
and union territories (UT) of India. All cases refer to the ones registered against foreigners
in 2016.
S3
The number of cases – classified into three categories: IPC crimes, SLL crimes and other
crimes – for nine states/UTs are shown in the figure below. These nine belong to the top
ten states/UTs in terms of the total number of cases registered. The remaining state
(among top ten) is West Bengal, where all the 520 cases registered were SLL crimes.
R
EE
AR
C
The table below shows the ranks of the ten states/UTs mentioned above among ALL
states/UTs of India in terms of the number of cases registered in each of the three category
of crimes. A state/UT is given rank r for a category of crimes if there are (r‐1) states/UTs
having a larger number of cases registered in that category of crimes. For example, if two
states have the same number of cases in a category, and exactly three other states/UTs
have larger numbers of cases registered in the same category, then both the states are
given rank 4 in that category. Missing ranks in the table are denoted by *.
SubQuestion No : 5
Q.5 What is the rank of Kerala in the ‘IPC crimes’ category?
Answer Type: Equal
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Possible Answer: 5
Given 5
Answer :
Question Type : SA
S3
Status : Answered
Comprehension:
and union territories (UT) of India. All cases refer to the ones registered against foreigners in
2016.
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crimes – for nine states/UTs are shown in the figure below. These nine belong to the top ten
states/UTs in terms of the total number of cases registered. The remaining state (among top
ten) is West Bengal, where all the 520 cases registered were SLL crimes.
EE
AR
C
states/UTs of India in terms of the number of cases registered in each of the three category of
crimes. A state/UT is given rank r for a category of crimes if there are (r‐1) states/UTs having
a larger number of cases registered in that category of crimes. For example, if two states
have the same number of cases in a category, and exactly three other states/UTs have larger
numbers of cases registered in the same category, then both the states are given rank 4 in
that category. Missing ranks in the table are denoted by *.
SubQuestion No : 6
Q.6 In the two states where the highest total number of cases are registered, the ratio of
the total number of cases in IPC crimes to the total number in SLL crimes is closest to
Ans 1. 3:2
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2. 19:20
3. 1:9
4. 11:10
Question Type : MCQ
S3
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Comprehension:
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and union territories (UT) of India. All cases refer to the ones registered against foreigners in
2016.
crimes – for nine states/UTs are shown in the figure below. These nine belong to the top ten
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states/UTs in terms of the total number of cases registered. The remaining state (among top
ten) is West Bengal, where all the 520 cases registered were SLL crimes.
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C
states/UTs of India in terms of the number of cases registered in each of the three category of
crimes. A state/UT is given rank r for a category of crimes if there are (r‐1) states/UTs having
a larger number of cases registered in that category of crimes. For example, if two states
have the same number of cases in a category, and exactly three other states/UTs have larger
numbers of cases registered in the same category, then both the states are given rank 4 in
that category. Missing ranks in the table are denoted by *.
SubQuestion No : 7
Q.7 Which of the following is DEFINITELY true about the ranks of states/UT in the ‘other
crimes’ category?
i) Tamil Nadu: 2
ii) Puducherry: 3
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Ans 1. neither i) , nor ii)
2. only ii)
3. only i)
4. both i) and ii)
S3
Question Type : MCQ
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Comprehension:
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and union territories (UT) of India. All cases refer to the ones registered against foreigners
in 2016.
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crimes – for nine states/UTs are shown in the figure below. These nine belong to the top
ten states/UTs in terms of the total number of cases registered. The remaining state
(among top ten) is West Bengal, where all the 520 cases registered were SLL crimes.
AR
C
states/UTs of India in terms of the number of cases registered in each of the three category
of crimes. A state/UT is given rank r for a category of crimes if there are (r‐1) states/UTs
having a larger number of cases registered in that category of crimes. For example, if two
states have the same number of cases in a category, and exactly three other states/UTs
have larger numbers of cases registered in the same category, then both the states are
given rank 4 in that category. Missing ranks in the table are denoted by *.
SubQuestion No : 8
Q.8 What is the sum of the ranks of Delhi in the three categories of crimes?
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Answer Type: Equal
Possible Answer: 5
Given 8
Answer :
Question Type : SA
S3
Status : Answered
Comprehension:
A supermarket has to place 12 items (coded A to L) in shelves numbered 1 to 16. Five of
these items are types of biscuits, three are types of candies and the rest are types of
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savouries. Only one item can be kept in a shelf. Items are to be placed such that all items of
same type are clustered together with no empty shelf between items of the same type and at
least one empty shelf between two different types of items. At most two empty shelves can
have consecutive numbers.
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1. A and B are to be placed in consecutively numbered shelves in increasing order.

2. I and J are to be placed in consecutively numbered shelves both higher numbered than the
shelves in which A and B are kept.
3. D, E and F are savouries and are to be placed in consecutively numbered shelves in
increasing order after all the biscuits and candies.
4. K is to be placed in shelf number 16.
5. L and J are items of the same type, while H is an item of a different type.
6. C is a candy and is to be placed in a shelf preceded by two empty shelves.
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7. L is to be placed in a shelf preceded by exactly one empty shelf.
SubQuestion No : 9
Q.9 In how many different ways can the items be arranged on the shelves?
Ans 1. 4
2. 8
3. 2
C
4. 1
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 10
Q.10 Which of the following items is not a type of biscuit?
Ans 1. B
2. A
3. G
4. L
Question Type : MCQ
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Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Comprehension:
S3

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SubQuestion No : 11
Q.11 Which of the following can represent the numbers of the empty shelves in a possible
arrangement?
Ans 1. 1,7,11,12
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2. 1,2,6,12
3. 1,2,8,12
4. 1,5,6,12
Question Type : MCQ

C
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Comprehension:

SubQuestion No : 12
Q.12 Which of the following statements is necessarily true?
Ans 1. There are at least four shelves between items B and C.
2. All biscuits are kept before candies.
3. All candies are kept before biscuits.
4. There are two empty shelves between the biscuits and the candies.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
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Comprehension:
A new game show on TV has 100 boxes numbered 1, 2, . . . , 100 in a row, each
containing a mystery prize. The prizes are items of different types, a, b, c, . . . , in
decreasing order of value. The most expensive item is of type a, a diamond ring, and there
is exactly one of these. You are told that the number of items at least doubles as you move
to the next type. For example, there would be at least twice as many items of type b as of
type a, at least twice as many items of type c as of type b and so on. There is no particular
order in which the prizes are placed in the boxes.
S3
SubQuestion No : 13
Q.13 What is the minimum possible number of different types of prizes?
Answer Type: Equal
Possible Answer: 2
R
Given 5
Answer :
Question Type : SA
EE
Status : Answered
Comprehension:
A new game show on TV has 100 boxes numbered 1, 2, . . . , 100 in a row, each
containing a mystery prize. The prizes are items of different types, a, b, c, . . . , in
decreasing order of value. The most expensive item is of type a, a diamond ring, and there
is exactly one of these. You are told that the number of items at least doubles as you move
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to the next type. For example, there would be at least twice as many items of type b as of
type a, at least twice as many items of type c as of type b and so on. There is no particular
order in which the prizes are placed in the boxes.
SubQuestion No : 14
Q.14 What is the maximum possible number of different types of prizes?
Answer Type: Equal
C
Possible Answer: 6
Given 4
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Comprehension:
A new game show on TV has 100 boxes numbered 1, 2, . . . , 100 in a row, each containing a
mystery prize. The prizes are items of different types, a, b, c, . . . , in decreasing order of
value. The most expensive item is of type a, a diamond ring, and there is exactly one of these.
You are told that the number of items at least doubles as you move to the next type. For
example, there would be at least twice as many items of type b as of type a, at least twice as
many items of type c as of type b and so on. There is no particular order in which the prizes
are placed in the boxes.
SubQuestion No : 15
Q.15 Which of the following is not possible?
Ans 1. There are exactly 75 items of type e.
2. There are exactly 45 items of type c.
3. There are exactly 60 items of type d.
4. There are exactly 30 items of type b.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Comprehension:
A new game show on TV has 100 boxes numbered 1, 2, . . . , 100 in a row, each containing a
mystery prize. The prizes are items of different types, a, b, c, . . . , in decreasing order of
value. The most expensive item is of type a, a diamond ring, and there is exactly one of these.
You are told that the number of items at least doubles as you move to the next type. For
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example, there would be at least twice as many items of type b as of type a, at least twice as
many items of type c as of type b and so on. There is no particular order in which the prizes
are placed in the boxes.
SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16 You ask for the type of item in box 45. Instead of being given a direct answer, you are
told that there are 31 items of the same type as box 45 in boxes 1 to 44 and 43 items of
the same type as box 45 in boxes 46 to 100.
S3
What is the maximum possible number of different types of items?
Ans 1. 6
2. 3
3. 5
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4. 4
Question Type : MCQ

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Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Comprehension:
Five vendors are being considered for a service. The evaluation committee evaluated each
vendor on six aspects – Cost, Customer Service, Features, Quality, Reach, and Reliability.
Each of these evaluations are on a scale of 0 (worst) to 100 (perfect). The evaluation scores
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on these aspects are shown in the radar chart. For example, Vendor 1 obtains a score of 52
on Reliability, Vendor 2 obtains a score of 45 on Features and Vendor 3 obtains a score of 90
on Cost.
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SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17 On which aspect is the median score of the five vendors the least?
Ans 1. Customer Service
2. Cost
3. Quality
4. Reliability
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Comprehension:
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on Cost.
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SubQuestion No : 18
AR
Q.18 A vendor's final score is the average of their scores on all six aspects. Which vendor
has the highest final score?
Ans 1. Vendor 1
2. Vendor 2
3. Vendor 4
4. Vendor 3
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Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Comprehension:
on Cost.
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SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19 List of all the vendors who are among the top two scorers on the maximum number of
aspects is:
S3
Ans 1. Vendor 2, Vendor 3 and Vendor 4
2. Vendor 1 and Vendor 5

R
Question Type : MCQ
Status : Answered
EE
Chosen Option : 4
Comprehension:
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on Cost.
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SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20 List of all the vendors who are among the top three vendors on all six aspects is:
Ans 1. None of the Vendors
2. Vendor 1
3. Vendor 3
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Comprehension:
The following table represents addition of two six-digit numbers given in the first and the
second rows, while the sum is given in the third row. In the representation, each of the
digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 has been coded with one letter among A, B, C, D, E, F, G,
H, J, K, with distinct letters representing distinct digits.
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SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Which digit does the letter A represent?
S3
Answer Type: Equal
Possible Answer: 1
Given 1
Answer :
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Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
EE
Comprehension:
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SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Which digit does the letter B represent?
Answer Type: Equal
Possible Answer: 9
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Given 9
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Which among the digits 3, 4, 6 and 7 cannot be represented by the letter D?
Answer Type: Equal
Possible Answer: 7
Given 7
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Comprehension:
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SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Which among the digits 4, 6, 7 and 8 cannot be represented by the letter G?
S3
Answer Type: Equal
Possible Answer: 6
Given 8
Answer :
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Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
EE
Comprehension:
Six players – Tanzi, Umeza, Wangdu, Xyla, Yonita and Zeneca competed in an archery
tournament. The tournament had three compulsory rounds, Rounds 1 to 3. In each round
every player shot an arrow at a target. Hitting the centre of the target (called bull’s eye)
fetched the highest score of 5. The only other possible scores that a player could achieve
were 4, 3, 2 and 1. Every bull’s eye score in the first three rounds gave a player one additional
chance to shoot in the bonus rounds, Rounds 4 to 6. The possible scores in Rounds 4 to 6
were identical to the first three.
AR
A player’s total score in the tournament was the sum of his/her scores in all rounds played by
him/her. The table below presents partial information on points scored by the players after
completion of the tournament. In the table, NP means that the player did not participate in that
round, while a hyphen means that the player participated in that round and the score
information is missing.
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The following facts are also known.
1.Tanzi, Umeza and Yonita had the same total score.

2.Total scores for all players, except one, were in multiples of three.
3.The highest total score was one more than double of the lowest total score.
4.The number of players hitting bull’s eye in Round 2 was double of that in Round 3.
5.Tanzi and Zeneca had the same score in Round 1 but different scores in Round 3.
SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 What was the highest total score?
Ans 1. 24
2. 21
3. 23
4. 25
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Comprehension:
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The following facts are also known. S3

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SubQuestion No : 26
Q.26 What was Zeneca's total score?
Ans 1. 23
2. 24
3. 21
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4. 22
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
C
Comprehension:

SubQuestion No : 27
Q.27 Which of the following statements is true?
Ans 1. Xyla’s score was 23.
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2. Xyla was the highest scorer.
3. Zeneca was the highest scorer.
4. Zeneca’s score was 23.
Question Type : MCQ
S3
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Comprehension:
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EE
AR

C

SubQuestion No : 28
Q.28 What was Tanzi's score in Round 3?
Ans 1. 3
2. 5
3. 4
4. 1
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Comprehension:
Princess, Queen, Rani and Samragni were the four finalists in a dance competition. Ashman,
Badal, Gagan and Dyu were the four music composers who individually assigned items to the
dancers. Each dancer had to individually perform in two dance items assigned by the
different composers. The first items performed by the four dancers were all assigned by
different music composers. No dancer performed her second item before the performance of
the first item by any other dancers. The dancers performed their second items in the same
sequence of their performance of their first items.
i) No composer who assigned item to Princess, assigned any item to Queen.

ii) No composer who assigned item to Rani, assigned any item to Samragni.
iii) The first performance was by Princess; this item was assigned by Badal.
iv) The last performance was by Rani; this item was assigned by Gagan.
v) The items assigned by Ashman were performed consecutively. The number of
performances between items assigned by each of the remaining composers was the same.
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SubQuestion No : 29
Q.29 Which of the following is true?
Ans 1. The second performance was composed by Dyu.
2. The third performance was composed by Ashman.
3. The second performance was composed by Gagan.
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4. The third performance was composed by Dyu.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
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Comprehension:
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SubQuestion No : 30
Q.30 Which of the following is FALSE?
Ans 1. Samragni did not perform in any item composed by Ashman.
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2. Princess did not perform in any item composed by Dyu.
3. Queen did not perform in any item composed by Gagan.
4. Rani did not perform in any item composed by Badal.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Comprehension:

SubQuestion No : 31
Q.31 The sixth performance was composed by:
Ans 1. Badal
2. Ashman
3. Dyu
4. Gagan
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Question Type : MCQ
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
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Comprehension:
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SubQuestion No : 32
Q.32 Which pair of performances were composed by the same composer?
Ans 1. The second and the sixth
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2. The first and the seventh
3. The third and the seventh
4. The first and the sixth
Question Type : MCQ

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Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Section : QA
Q.1
Ans
1.
2.
3. 1
4. 3
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.2 Corners are cut off from an equilateral triangle T to produce a regular hexagon H.
Then, the ratio of the area of H to the area of T is
Ans 1. 2 : 3
2. 3 : 4
3. 4 : 5
4. 5 : 6
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Question Type : MCQ
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.3 Let S be the set of all points (x, y) in the x-y plane such that | x | + | y | ≤ 2 and | x | ≥
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1. Then, the area, in square units, of the region represented by S equals
Answer Type: Equal
Possible Answer: 2
Given 5
Answer :
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Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
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Q.4
Answer Type: Equal
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Given 44
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.5
C
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.6 AB is a diameter of a circle of radius 5 cm. Let P and Q be two points on the circle so
that the length of PB is 6 cm, and the length of AP is twice that of AQ. Then the length,
in cm, of QB is nearest to
Ans 1. 9.1
2. 7.8
3. 9.3
4. 8.5
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Question Type : MCQ
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
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Q.7 Ramesh and Gautam are among 22 students who write an examination. Ramesh
scores 82.5. The average score of the 21 students other than Gautam is 62. The
average score of all the 22 students is one more than the average score of the 21
students other than Ramesh. The score of Gautam is
Ans 1. 49
2. 51
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3. 48
4. 53
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Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.8 One can use three different transports which move at 10, 20, and 30 kmph,
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respectively. To reach from A to B, Amal took each mode of transport 1/3 of his total
journey time, while Bimal took each mode of transport 1/3 of the total distance. The
percentage by which Bimal’s travel time exceeds Amal’s travel time is nearest to
Ans 1. 22
2. 20
3. 19
4. 21
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Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.9 If the rectangular faces of a brick have their diagonals in the ratio 3 : 2√3 : √15, then
the ratio of the length of the shortest edge of the brick to that of its longest edge is
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.10 Two cars travel the same distance starting at 10:00 am and 11:00 am, respectively, on
the same day. They reach their common destination at the same point of time. If the
first car travelled for at least 6 hours, then the highest possible value of the
percentage by which the speed of the second car could exceed that of the first car is
Ans 1. 10
2. 20
3. 30
4. 25
Question Type : MCQ

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Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.11 Amala, Bina, and Gouri invest money in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5 in fixed deposits having
respective annual interest rates in the ratio 6 : 5 : 4. What is their total interest income
(in Rs) after a year, if Bina's interest income exceeds Amala's by Rs 250?
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Ans 1. 6000
2. 7250
3. 6350
4. 7000
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Question Type : MCQ
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
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Q.12 In a race of three horses, the first beat the second by 11 metres and the third by 90
metres. If the second beat the third by 80 metres, what was the length, in metres, of
the racecourse?
Answer Type: Equal
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Given 20
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
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Q.13 Meena scores 40% in an examination and after review, even though her score is
increased by 50%, she fails by 35 marks. If her post-review score is increased by 20%,
she will have 7 marks more than the passing score. The percentage score needed for
passing the examination is
Ans 1. 75
2. 60
3. 80
4. 70
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.14 The wheels of bicycles A and B have radii 30 cm and 40 cm, respectively. While
traveling a certain distance, each wheel of A required 5000 more revolutions than each
wheel of B. If bicycle B traveled this distance in 45 minutes, then its speed, in km per
hour, was
Ans 1. 16π
2. 12π
3. 18π
4. 14π
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Q.15 A chemist mixes two liquids 1 and 2. One litre of liquid 1 weighs 1 kg
and one litre of liquid 2 weighs 800 gm. If half litre of the mixture
weighs 480 gm, then the percentage of liquid 1 in the mixture, in
terms of volume, is
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Ans 1. 75
2. 85
3. 80
4. 70
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Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
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Q.16 Let x and y be positive real numbers such that
log5 (x + y) + log5 (x − y) = 3, and log2 y − log2 x = 1 − log2 3. Then xy equals
Ans 1. 150
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2. 100
3. 250
4. 25
Question Type : MCQ

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Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.17 With rectangular axes of coordinates, the number of paths from

(1,1) to (8,10) via (4,6), where each step from any point (x, y) is
either to (x, y+1) or to (x+1, y), is
C
Answer Type: Equal

Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.18
Answer Type: Equal
Possible Answer: 5
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.19 At their usual efficiency levels, A and B together finish a task in 12 days. If A had
worked half as efficiently as she usually does, and B had worked thrice as efficiently
as he usually does, the task would have been completed in 9 days. How many days
would A take to finish the task if she works alone at her usual efficiency?
Ans 1. 18
2. 36
3. 24
4. 12
Question Type : MCQ

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Chosen Option : --
Q.20 The product of the distinct roots of ∣x2 − x − 6∣ = x + 2 is

Ans 1. -24
2. −16
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3. -8
4. -4
Question Type : MCQ

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Chosen Option : --
Q.21 Let T be the triangle formed by the straight line 3x + 5y - 45 = 0 and the coordinate
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axes. Let the circumcircle of T have radius of length L, measured in the same unit
as the coordinate axes. Then, the integer closest to L is
Answer Type: Equal
Possible Answer: 9
Given 8
Answer :
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Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.22 Three men and eight machines can finish a job in half the time taken by three
machines and eight men to finish the same job. If two machines can finish the job in
13 days, then how many men can finish the job in 13 days?
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Answer Type: Equal
Possible Answer: 13
Given 8
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.23 A person invested a total amount of Rs 15 lakh. A part of it was invested in a fixed
deposit earning 6% annual interest, and the remaining amount was invested in two
other deposits in the ratio 2 : 1, earning annual interest at the rates of 4% and 3%,
respectively. If the total annual interest income is Rs 76000 then the amount (in Rs
lakh) invested in the fixed deposit was
Answer Type: Equal
Possible Answer: 9
Given 25000
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.24 In a class, 60% of the students are girls and the rest are boys. There are 30 more
girls than boys. If 68% of the students, including 30 boys, pass an examination, the
percentage of the girls who do not pass is
Answer Type: Equal
Possible Answer: 20
Given 50
Answer :
Question Type : SA
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Status : Answered
Q.25 The number of the real roots of the equation 2cos (x ( x + 1 ) ) =

2x + 2-x is
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Ans 1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. infinite
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Question Type : MCQ
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
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Q.26 A club has 256 members of whom 144 can play football, 123 can play tennis, and 132
can play cricket. Moreover, 58 members can play both football and tennis, 25 can play
both cricket and tennis, while 63 can play both football and cricket. If every member
can play at least one game, then the number of members who can play only tennis is
Ans 1. 45
2. 32
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3. 38
4. 43
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
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Chosen Option : 2
Q.27 For any positive integer n, let f(n) = n(n + 1) if n is even, and f(n) = n + 3 if n is odd.
If m is a positive integer such that 8f(m + 1) - f(m) = 2, then m equals
Answer Type: Equal
Possible Answer: 10
Given 12
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.28 The product of two positive numbers is 616. If the ratio of the difference of their cubes
to the cube of their difference is 157:3, then the sum of the two numbers is
Ans 1. 58
2. 95
3. 85
4. 50
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.29
Answer Type: Equal
Possible Answer: 3
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Given 5
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
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Q.30 The income of Amala is 20% more than that of Bimala and 20% less than that of
Kamala. If Kamala's income goes down by 4% and Bimala's goes up by 10%, then the
percentage by which Kamala's income would exceed Bimala's is nearest to
Ans 1. 29
2. 28
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3. 32
4. 31
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Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.31 In a circle of radius 11 cm, CD is a diameter and AB is a chord of length 20.5 cm. If AB
and CD intersect at a point E inside the circle and CE has length 7 cm, then the
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difference of the lengths of BE and AE, in cm, is

Ans 1. 1.5
2. 2.5
3. 3.5
4. 0.5
C
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.32 On selling a pen at 5% loss and a book at 15% gain, Karim gains Rs. 7. If he sells the
pen at 5% gain and the book at 10% gain, he gains Rs. 13. What is the cost price of the
book in Rupees?
Ans 1. 85
2. 95
3. 80
4. 100
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.33 If the population of a town is p in the beginning of any year then it becomes 3+2p in
the beginning of the next year. If the population in the beginning of 2019 is 1000, then
the population in the beginning of 2034 will be
Ans 1. (997)214 + 3
2. (997)15 - 3
3. (1003)15 + 6
4. (1003)215 - 3
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
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Q.34
Ans 1. -16
2. -20
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3. -12
4. -24
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
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Chosen Option : 2
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ll/29/2019 https:1/cdn.digialm.com//per/gOl/pu b/7 56/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode11/CATl92/CATl9252D1308/l5746 74.,,
CAT 2019
egistration No: I
articioant Name: -
est Center Name: Jn Target Solunons
Test Date: 24/11/2019
Test Time: 2:30 PM - 5:30 PM
Subject: JAT2019
60
·,•cuon VARC
Comprehension:
British oolOnial policy ••. went through two policy phases. or at least there were two strategies
between which ilS policies actually oscillated, sometimes 10 ilS great aclvamage. Al first, the
new colonial apparatus exercised caution, and occupied India by a mix of military power and
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subUe diplomacy. U,e high grour1d in Uie middle of die circle of circles. This. however, pushed
1.hem into contradictions. For. whatever their sense of the s1rangeness of the country and the
thinness of colonial presence, the 8fitish colonial state represented 1.he great conquering
discourse of Enli ghtenment rationalism. entering India precisely at the moment of its greatest
unchecked arrogance. As inheritors and representatives of this discourse, which carried
every1hing before it, this oo lonial siate oould hardty adopt for IOng 51.,ch a self .<lenying anitude.
ll had restructured everything in Europe-0,e productive system, the political regimes. the
moral and cognitive orders-and would do the same in India, particula,ly as some empirically
inclined theorists of that generation considered the colonies a massive laboratory of utilitarian
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or other theoretical experimems. Consequently, the oolonial siate oould not setde simply for
eminence at the oost of i1s marginality: it began t0 take initiatives ,o introduce the logic of
inodemity into Indian society. But this modernity did not enter a passive society. sometimes..
its initiatives were resisted by pre-existing structural forms. At times. there was
i
a more direct
form of collective resistance. Therefore the map of continuity and discontinu ty 1hat this stat,e
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left behind at the time ol independenoo was ralher oomplex and has 10 be vaced with care.
Most significantly, of course. initiatives for . .. modernity came to assume an external

character. The acceptance of modemity came to be connected. ineradica.bly. with subfection.
This again points to iwo different problems, one theoretical. the other political. Theoretically,
because modernity was externally inuoduood, it is explanatorily unl,elipful to apply the logical
format of the ·transition proooss· to this pattern of change. such a log cal tormat would be
wrong on two counts. First. however subtly, it would imply Lhal what was proposed to be built
was something like European capitalism. (And. in any case. historians have foroofully a,gued
that what it was to replace was not like feudalism, with or without modificatory adjectives.)
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But, more fundamenially. the logical structure of endogenous change does not appty here .
Here transformation agendas attack as an external force. This externality is not something
that can be casually mentioned and forgotten. It is inscribed on every move. every object
every proposal. every legislathl<, act. each line of causality. It comes to be marked on the
epoch i1Sett. This repetitive emphasis on externality should not be seen as a nationalist
initiative I.hat is so well rehearsed in Indian social science. ...
Qujte apart from O"'le cxternality of the entire historical proposal of modernity. some of its
contents were remarkable. ... Economic reforms, or rat.her alterations ... did not foreshadow
lhe construc tion of a classical capitalist economy. with its necessary emphasis on extractive
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and transport sectors. What happened was lhe creation of a degenerate version of capitalism
-what earty dependency theorists called the 'development of underdevelopment'.
SubQuestion No : 1
Q.1 Which of the following observations is a valid conclusion to draw from the author's
statement that "the logical structure of endogenous change does not apply here. Here
transformation agendas attack as an external force"?
Ans X l. Colon sed societies cannot be changed through IOgic: they need to be transformed
i
wilh external force.

X 2.The endogenous log,c of colonralism can only brmg change ,f tt atiacks and
Lrai)sforms exi.ernal forces.
X 3. Indian society 1s not endogamous; ii 1s more accuratety charactcmscd as
aggressively exogamous.
https:1/cdn.digialm .com/lper/gOl/pub/756/touchstone/A ssessmentQPHTMLMode11/CATl92/CATl 92S201308/15746 74 3982964464/... 1/53

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Question Paper Preview
Notations :
Subject Name: CAT 2018

Total Marks: 300
60
Display Marks: Yes
Share Answer Key With Delivery Yes
Engine:
Actual Answer Key: Yes
Calculator: Normal
Magnifying Glass Required?: No
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Ruler Required?: No
Eraser Required?: No
Scratch Pad Required?: No
Rough Sketch/Notepad Required?: No
Protractor Required?: No
Show Watermark on Console?: Yes
Highlighter: No
Auto Save on Console?:
R No
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Section Id : 4891681299
Section Number : 1
Section type : Online
Mandatory or Optional: Mandatory
Number of Questions: 15
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Number of Questions to be attempted: 15

Section Marks: 102
Display Number Panel: Yes
Group All Questions: No
Sub-Section Number: 1
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Sub-Section Id: 4891681403

Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes
Question Id : 4891686684 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Group Comprehension
Questions : No
Question Numbers : (1 to 5)
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Question Number : 1 Question Id : 4891686685 Question Type : MCQ Display Question Number : Yes Single Line Question Option
: No Option Orientation : Vertical
Correct Marks : 3 Wrong Marks : 1
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Question Number : 28 Question Id : 4891686574 Question Type : SA Display Question Number : Yes
Response Type: Numeric

Evaluation Required For SA: Yes
Show Word Count: Yes
Answers Type: Equal
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Section Id : 4891681300
Section Number : 1
60
Section Marks: 96
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Question Id : 4891686544 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : No Group Comprehension
Questions : No
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Section Id : 4891681301
Section Number : 1
Section Marks: 102
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12/29/2019----CAT Solved Paper 2016 Download All Sections with Answer Keys for 2019 Exam- Translation in Hindi, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi,
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CAT Solved Paper 2016 Download all Sections with Answer

Keys for 2019 Exam
CAT 2018 Solved Paper Shift 1 CAT 2017 Solved Paper Shift 2 (Download PDF) CAT 2017 Solved Paper Shift 1 (Download PDF) C 👀 All
Quantitative Ability
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Directions for questions 1 to 7: Answer the questions independently of each other.
Q: 1. The total cost of 2 pencils, 5 erasers, and 7 sharpeners is Rs.30, while 3 pencils and 5
sharpeners cost Rs. 15 more than 6 erasers. By what amount (in Rs.) does the cost of 39 erasers
and 1 sharpener exceed the cost of 6 pencils?
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(1) 20
(2) 30
(3) It does not exceed
(4) Cannot be determined

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Answer: (1)
Q: 2. If the roots of the equation (x + 1) (x + 9) + 8 = 0 are a and b, then the roots of the
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equation (x + a) (x + b) -8 = 0 are
(1) 1 and 9
(2) -4 and -6
(3) 4 and 6
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Answer: (1)
Q: 3. What is the remainder when is divided by 100?
(1) 1
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(2) 61
(3) 41
(4) 21
Answer: (1)
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Q: 4. Balram, the local shoe shop owner, sells four types of footwear – Slippers (S), Canvas
Shoes (C), Leather Shoes (L) and Joggers (J). The following information is known regarding the
cost prices and selling prices of these four types of footwear:
(i) L sells for Rs. 500 less than J, which costs Rs. 300 more than S, Which, in turn, sells for
Rs.200 more than L.
(ii) L costs Rs. 300 less than C, which sells for Rs. 100 more than S, which, in turn, costs Rs. less
than C.
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If it is known that Balram never sells any item at a loss, then which of the following is true
regarding the profit percentages earned by Balram on the items L, S, C and J represented by l, s,
c and j
(1)
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(2)
(3)
(4)
Answer: (3)
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Q: 5 In the figure below, P, Q and R are points on a circle with centre O. The tangent to the circle
at R intersects secant PQ at T. If QTR =25° , find ▭POQ.
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Q 5 Image of Tangent Circle find the POQ

Q 5 Image of Tangent Circle Find the POQ
(1) 110°
(2) 100°
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(3)90°
(4)50°
Answer: (3)
Q: 6. A sequence of 4 digits, when considered as a number in base 10 is four times the number it
represents in base 6. What is the sum of the digits of the sequence?
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(1) 7
(2) 6
(3) 9
(4) 8
Answer: (4)
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Q: 7. Some friends planned to contribute equally to jointly buy a CD player. However, two of
them decided to withdraw at the last minute. As a result, each of the others had to shell out one
rupee more than what they had planned for. If the price (in Rs.) of the CD player is an integer
between 1000 and 1100, find the number of friends who actually contributed?
(1) 21
(2) 23
(3) 44
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(4) 46
Answer: (3)
DIRECTIONS for questions 8 and 9: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
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below.
A robot is designed to move in a peculiar way and it can be set in motion by a microprocessor
program. The program can be initiated by assigning a positive rational value to its variable n.
The program directs the robot to move in the following way. As soon as the program is started,
the robot starts from the point O, moves 2n metres northward and changes its direction by n° to
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the right. It then moves 2n metres forward and again changes its direction by n° to the right and
continues in this manner till it reaches the starting point O, or till it covers a total distance of
100 m, whichever happens first, and then it stop.
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Q: 8. I assigned a value for n and started the program. If the robot finally came back to O and
stopped, what is the total distance that it has covered
(1) 180 m
(2) 360 m
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(3) 720 m
Answer: (3)
Q: 9 For how many value of n in the intervals [1, 60] does the robot cover less than 1000 m,
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before it stops?
(1) 19
(2) 60
(3) 355
(4) Infinite
Answer: (3)
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DIRECTIONS for questions 10 to 20: Answer the questions independently of each other.
Q: 10. If N = 888…up to 100 digits, what is the remainder when N is divided by 625?
(1) 128
(2) 138
(3) 338
(4) 388
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Answer: (2)
Q: 11. If where [x] denotes the

greatest integer less than or equal to x, then
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(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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Answer: (3)
Q: 12 In the figure below, BD = 8 cm and DC = 6 cm. AE : ED = 3 : 4. If AF =12 cm, find AC (in

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cm).
Q 12 Find the AC in cm
Q 12 Find the AC in Cm
(1) 28
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(2) 38
(3) 44
(4) 40
Answer: (4)
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Q: 13. A regular polygon has an even number of sides. If the product of the length of its side and
the distance between two opposite sides is ¼ th of its area, find number of sides it has
(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 20
(4) 16
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Answer: (4)
Q: 14. There are three cities A, B and C, not on the same straight road. Two buses P and Q start
simultaneously from A and B respectively towards C. By the time Q reaches C, P is exactly
halfway to C. Immediately after Q reaches C, it starts travelling towards A and it crosses P at a
point 165 km from A. The ratio of the speeds of P and Q is 3 : 5 Assume that the roads joining A
to C, B to C and B to A are all straight roads. If B is twice as far from A as it is from C and P
would take to cover the distance from A to B, how much time would Q take to cover the distance
from C to A?
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(1)
(2)
(3)
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(4) 4 hours
Answer: (1)
Q: 15. Two positive real numbers, a and b, are expressed as the sum of m positive real numbers
and n positive real numbers respectively as follows:
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If
Where [x] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x, what is the minimum possible
value of m +n?
(1) 6
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(2) 10
(3) 8
(4) 9
Answer: (4)
C
Q: 16. Consider two figures A and D that are defined in the co-ordinate plane. Each figure
represents the graph the graph of a certain function, as defined below:
A:
D: |y| = d
If the area enclosed by A and D is 0, which of the following is a possible value of (a,d)?
(1) (2,1)
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(2) (-2, 1)
(3) (-2, 3)
(4) (2,3)
Answer: (2)
Q: 17. A natural number n is such that 120 n≤240. If HCF of n and 240 is 1, how many values of
n are possible?
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(1) 24
(2) 32
(3) 36
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(4) 40
Answer: (2)
Q: 18. If
(1) 24/90
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(2) 242/900
(3) 245/900
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(4) 200/729
Answer: (4)
Q: 19 If the sum to infinity of the series 2 +(2-d) 2/3+ (2 + d) 4/9 + (2 + 3d) 8/27 + ……▭ is 5/2,
what is the value of d?
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(1) 7/12
(2) -7/12
(3) -5/12
(4) 5/12
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Answer: (2)
Q: 20. The first n natural numbers, 1 to n, have to be arranged in a row from left to right. The n
numbers are arranged such that there are an odd number of numbers between any two even
numbers as well as between any two odd numbers. If the number of ways in which this can be
done is 72, then find the value of n.
(1) 6
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(2) 7
(3) 8
(4) More than 8
Answer: (1)
Logical & Data Interpretation
DIRECTIONS for questions 21 to 23: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
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below.
After facing yet another World Cup debacle, the Board of Cricket Control in India (BCCI) is in
search of a new coach for the team. It shortlisted five persons – Anshuman, Buchanen, John,
Whatmore and Chappel. Each of them is from a different country among Australia, India,
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Japan, Pakistan and Canada, not necessarily in that order. At present, each of them is coaching
the team of a different country among Australia, Bangladesh, china, Wales and Bermuda, not
necessarily in that order. The following details were also observed about their particulars:
(i) For any person, each of his three particulars – his name, the name of the country from which
he is and the name of the country that he is coaching at present, starts with a different letter.
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(ii) Whatmore is coaching Australia and John is from neither Australia nor Pakistan.
(iii) Buchanen is not coaching China and the person who is coaching Bermuda is from Canada.
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(iv) Anshuman is neither from Canada nor from Pakistan and also the person from Pakistan is
coaching Bangladesh.
Q: 21. Whatmore is from which country?
(1) India
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(2) Japan
(3) Canada
Answer: (4)
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Q: 22. Who is the person from Australia?
(1) Buchanen
(2) John
(3) Whatmore
Answer: (1)
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Q: 23. The person from Japan is definitely not coaching
(1) China
(2) Wales
(3) Australia
(4) More than one of the above
Answer: (2)
60
DIRECTIONS for questions 24 to 27: Answer the questions on the basis os the information
given below.
Mr. Suzuki, a car dealer, sold cars of only two brands, A and B, in the previous year. This year,
he introduced a new brand, C. The number of cars of cars of brand A and brand B sold in the
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previous year were in the ratio 3 :2, and the ratio of the number of cars sold in the previous year
to that sold in this year is 2 : 3 for brand A and 2 : 5 for brand B. Further, the number of cars of
brand C sold this year forms 81 % of the total number of cars sold this year.
Q: 24. Find the number of cars of brand C sold this year, given that a total of 24 cars of brand A
were sold in the previous year.
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(1) 324
(2) 648
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(3) 162
(4) 243
Answer: (1)
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Q: 25. What is the percentage increase in the total number of cars sold this year when compared
to the total number of cars sold in the previous year?
(1) 400%
(2) 600%
(3) 900%
C
(4) 1000%
Answer: (3)
Q: 26. In the next year, Mr. Suzuki wants to increase the total sales by 80%, compared to the
total sales this year, by keeping the sales of each of A, B and C at the same level as that in this
year and introducing a new brand D. By what percent will the number of cars of brand D (to be
sold next year) be more than the total number of cars sold last year?
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(1) 400%
(2) 600%
(3) 900%
(4) 700%
Answer: (4)
Q: 27. If total of 380 cars were sold this year, and the sales of C this year were nil, instead of 81%
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of total sales, then how many cars of brand A were sold in the previous year?
(1) 140
(2) 120
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(3) 100
(4) 160
Answer: (2)
DIRECTIONS for questions 28 and 29: The question given below is followed by two statements,
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I and II. Study the information given in the two statements and assess whether the statements
are sufficient to answer the question and choose the appropriate option from among the choices
given below:
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Q: 28. Two of the three cricketers Pavan, Rajan and Tarun are selected to the national team.
Each of these three persons scored a different number of centuries and a different number of
runs. Further, among these three, Tarun scored the highest number of centuries. Who among
Pavan, Rajan and Tarun is not selected to the national team?
I. the person with the higher number of runs between Tarun and Pavan, is the person who
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scored the lesser number of centuries between the two persons selected.
II. The person with the least number of runs between Rajan and Tarun, is the person who
scored the higher number of centuries between the two persons selected.
(1) The question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered
using the other statement alone.
C
(2) The question can be answered by using either statement alone
(3) The question can be answered by using both statements together, but cannot be answered
using either statement alone
(4) the question cannot be answered even by using both statements together.
Answer: (4)
Q: 29. Triangle ABC is right angled at B. What is the value of AB + BC?

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I. Diameter of the circle inscribed in the triangle ABC is 10 cm.
II. Diameter of the circle circumscribing the triangle ABC is 27 cm.
(1) The question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered
using the other statement alone.
(2) The question can be answered by using either statement alone.
(3) the question can be answered by using both statements together, but cannot be answered
using either statement alone.
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(4) The question cannot be answered even by using both statements together.
Answer: (3)
DIRECTIONS for questions 30 and 31: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
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given below.
Each point in the graph below shows the sales and expenses of a company. Each company
belongs to one of the three sectors among manufacturing, automobiles, and software.
Q 30and31 Image of Graph

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Q 30and31 Image of Graph
Q: 30. For how many of the companies, is the profit more than 40% of the sales (Profit = Sales -
Expenses)?
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(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7
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Answer: (3)
Q: 31. For how many software companies are the sales more than Rs.2500 crore but the
expenses less than Rs. 2100 crore?
(1) 2
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(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 6
Answer: (2)
DIRECTIONS for questions 32 to 35: answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.
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A team must be selected from ten probable – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J. Of these, A C, E and
are forwards, B, G and H are point guards and D, F and I are defenders.
Further, the following conditions need to be observed:
The team must have at least one forward, one point guard and one defender.
If the team includes J, it must also include F.
The team must include E or B, but not both.
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If the team includes G, it must also include F.
The team must include exactly one among C, G and I.
C and F cannot be members of the same team
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D and H cannot be members of the same team
The team must include both A and D or neither of them.
There is no restriction on the number of members in the team.
Q: 32. What could be the size of the team that includes G?

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(1) 4
(2) 5
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(3) 6
Answer: (4)
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Q: 33. What would be the size of the largest possible team?
(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
C
(4) 7
Answer: (3)
Q: 34. Who cannot be included in a team of size 6?
(1) A
(2) H
(3) J
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(4) E
Answer: (2)
Q: 35. What can be the size of the team that includes C?
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
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Answer: (2)
DIRECTIONS for question 36 and 37: The question given below is followed by two statements, I
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and II. Study the information given in the two statements and assess whether the statements are
sufficient to answer the question and choose the appropriate option from among the choices
given below:
Q: 36. What percentage of the questions were attempted by Ramya in the exam?
I. 30% of the questions are attempted by both Ramya and Swathi.

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II. The number of questions attempted by Ramya but not by Swathi is (5/8)th of the total
number of questions attempted by Ramya.
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(1) The Question can be answered by using one of the statements alone but not by the other.
(2) The question can be answered by using either statement alone
(3) The question can be answered by using both the statement together, but cannot be answered
by using either statement alone.
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(4) The question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together
Answer: (3)
Q: 37. Each of Ankit and Bhanu belong to one of the tribes between truth tellers i.e., those who
always speak the truth, and liars i.e., those who always lie. Do both of them belong to the same
tribe?
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I. Ankit: I am a liar, only if Bhunu is truth teller.
II. Bhanu: I am a truth teller, only if Ankit is a liar.
(1) The question can be answered by using one of the statements alone but not by the other.
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(4) The question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
Answer: (4)
DIRECTIONS for questions 38 to 40: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.
Pie chart – 1 givens the percentage shares of all the five cement companies –A, B, C, D and E –
in the total quantity of cement sold in country XYZ. Pie Chart -2 givens the percentage shares of
all the eleven states – P through Z – in the total quantity of cement sold in the country.
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Q 38 to 40 Image of Pie Chart 1and 2
Q 38 to 40 Image of Pie Chart 1and 2
The market share of any company in a state is the total quantity of cement sold by the company
in that state as a percentage of the total quantity of cement sold in that state.
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Q: 38. In any state, if no company had more than 50% market share, then in at least how many
states did company A sell cement?
(1) 4
(2) 5
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(3) 6
(4) 3
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Answer: (2)
Q: 39. If in all the states in which company E was present, it had a market share of at least 25%,
in at most how many states did company E sell cement?
(1) 9
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(2) 8
(3) 7
(4) 6
Answer: (3)
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40. The number of companies which had sales in more than two states, is at least
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
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Answer: (1)
DIRECTIONS for question 41: The following question has a set of five sequentially ordered
statements. Each statement can be classified as one of the following.
-Facts, which deal with pieces of information that one has heard, seen or read, and which are
open to discovery or verification (the answer option indicates such a statement with an ‘F’).
-Inferences, which are conclusions drawn about the unknown, on the basis of the known (the
answer option indicates such a statement with an ‘I’).
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-Judgments, which are opinions that imply approval or disapproval of persons, objects,
situations and occurrences in the past, the present or the future (the answer option indicates
such a statement with a ‘J’).
Select the answer option that best describes the set of statements.
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Q: 41. (A) The renewed corporate interest in power is welcome, given the huge investment
backlog in the vexed sector and the routine revenue leakages.
(B) Reportedly, industrial houses like Reliance Industries and the Aditya Birla Group are keen
to foray into power equipment manufacture.
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(C) In tandem, we need proactive policy to wipe out continuing losses of state power utilities,
and regular disclosure of SEB finances.
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(D) Of late, the tendency has been to clamp up on the huge annual losses of power utilizes – the
latest Economic Survey like the previous one is mum on losses, subsidies and plain theft of
power; instead we have some pious intentions to gather ‘baseline data’ and use information
technology application for accounting and auditing power distribution.
(E) We do need to step up IT for meter reading, billing and collections, of course, but in parallel,
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what is essential indeed vital, is improved governance in power delivery and follow through.
(1) JFIFJ
(2) IJFJJ
(3) FJJIF
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(4) JFJIJ
Answer: (4)
DIRECTIONS for questions 42 and 43: In each question, four different ways of presenting an
idea are given. Choose the one that conforms most closely to Standard English usage
Q: 42. (A) The inflexibility of the laws, which prevent them from being adapted for emergencies,
may in certain cases render them
Pernicious and thereby cause the ruin of the state in a time of crisis.
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(B) The inflexibility of the laws, which prevents them from being adapted for emergencies may
in certain cases render them
Pernicious, thereby cause the ruin of the state in a time of crisis.
(C) The inflexibility of the laws, which prevents them from being adapted for emergencies may
Pernicious, and thereby cause the ruin of the state in a time of crisis.
(D) The inflexibility of the laws, which prevents them from being adapted for emergencies may
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Pernicious and thereby causing the ruin of the state in a time of crisis.
(1) A
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(2) B
(3) C
(D) D
Answer: (3)
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Q: 43. (A) Human talents vary considerably, within a fixed framework that is characteristic of
the species, and that permits ample scope for creative work, including the creative work of
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appreciating the achievements of others.
(B) Human talents vary considerably, within a fixed framework that is characteristic of the
species, and which permits ample scope for creative work, including the creative work of
appreciating the achievements of others.
(C) Human talents vary considerably, within a fixed framework that is characteristic of the
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species, and that permits ample scope for creative work, including the creative work of
appreciating achievements of others.
(D) Human talents vary considerably, within a fixed framework that is characteristic of the
species, and which permits ample scope for creative work, including the creative work of
appreciating achievements of others.
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(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
Answer: (1)
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DIRECTIONS for questions 44: In the following question, there are five sentences/paragraphs.
The sentence/paragraph labelled A is in its correct place. The four that follow are labelled B, C,
D and E, and need to be arranged in the logical order to form a coherent paragraph/ passage.
From the given options, choose the most appropriate option.
Q: 44. (A) The driving force of the ‘nuclear renaissance’ is a claim that nuclear power, once up
and running, is a carbon- free energy source. The assertion is that a functioning nuclear reactor
creates no greenhouse gases and thus contributes nothing to global warming or chaotic weather.
(B) The frequently repeated notion that nuclear power is a carbon-free energy source is simply
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untrue.
(C) At every stage of the cycle greenhouse gases are released into the atmosphere from burning
diesel, manufacturing steel and cement and, in the circumpolar regions of the planet, by
disturbance of the tundra, which releases large amounts of methane, a particularly potent
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greenhouse gas.
(D) That part is almost true, but the claim ignores the total environmental impact of nuclear
energy, which includes a long and complicated chain of events known in the industry as the
‘nuclear cycle’ which begins with finding, mining, milling and enriching uranium, then spans
through plant construction and power generation to the reprocessing and eventual storage of
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nuclear waste, all of which creates tons of .
(E) Even the claim that a functioning nuclear power facility is co2 – free challenged by the face
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that operating plant requires an external power source to run, and that electricity is almost
certain to come from a fossil-fuelled plant.
(1) DCEB
(2) EBCD
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(3) DEBC
(4) EDCB
Answer: (1)
DIRECTIONS for questions 45 and 46: Each of the following questions has a paragraph from
which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the one that completes
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the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
Q: 45. Jawaharlal Nehru seemed an unlikely candidate to lead India towards its vision. Under
the cotton Khadi he wore in deference to the dictates of Congress, he remained the
quintessential English gentleman. In a land of mysteries, he was a cool rationalist. The mind
that had exulted in the discovery of science at Cambridge never ceased to be appalled by his
fellow Indians who refused to stir from their homes on days proclaimed inauspicious by their
favourite astrologers. He was a publicly declared agnostic in the most intensely spiritual area in
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the world, and he never ceased to proclaim the horror the word ‘religion’ inspired in him. Nehru
despised India’s priests, her sadhus, her chanting monks and pious ‘skerkhs’.
(1) And yet, the India of those sadhus and the superstition-haunted masses had accepted Nehru.
(2) They had only served, he felt, to impede her progress.
(3) The Mahatma had made it clear that it was on his shoulders that he wished his mantle to fall.
(4) Nehru’s heart told him to follow the Mahatma and his heart, he would later admit, had beed
right.
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Answer: (2)
Q: 46 Birth rates have fallen dramatically – and voluntarily. Coercive birth control, including
paying people not to have babies, was discredited and abandoned decades ago. Nearly two –
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thirds of the couples in poor countries now use birth control, and not because some patriarchal
westerner told them to. In the 1970s, the government of Bangladesh offered people in the
Matlals region low-cost contraceptive supplies and advice. Birth rates promptly fell well below
those of neighbouring regions. So Bangladesh extended the service nationally and its birth rate
plummeted from six children per woman to three.
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(1) The ‘population bomb’ has already gone off.
(2) Given the choice, people want fewer children

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(3) Governments want fewer children since their own life expectancy falls with rising numbers.
(4) Even when birth rates fall, there is a lag which means population keeps growing far decades
until birth and death rates even out.
Answer: (2)
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DIRECTIONS for questions 47 and 48: In each question, there are five sentences. Each sentence
has pairs of words/phrases that are italicized and highlighted. From the italicized and
highlighted word(s)/phrase(s), select the most appropriate word(s)/phrase (s) to from correct
sentences. Then, from the options given, choose the best one.
Q: 47. (i) The municipal councilor (A) / counselor (B) promised to improve civic amenities in
the suburbs.
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(ii) Jean’s adopted (A) / adoptive (B) patents dote on her and cater to her every whim.
(iii) The venal (A) / venial (B) official was caught red – handed accepting bribe.
(iv)We have now shifted our residence farther (A) / further (B) away from the main city.
(v) She claims to be of aristocratic dissent (A) / descent (B).
(1) AAABB
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(2) BBABB
(3) ABBAB
(4) ABAAB
Answer: (4)
Q: 48. (i) While evacuating people from the flood ravaged areas precedence (A) / precedent (B)
was given to women and children.
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(ii) The best was to reach the summit is by trekking up the hill, alternately (A) / alternatively (B)
you can go on horse back
(iii) His impeccable manners perfectly complimented (A) / complemented (B) his polished looks
and fashionable attire.
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(iv) There has been a noticeable (A) / notable (B) improvement in Tarun’s academic
performance lately.
(v) You must be discreet (A) / discrete (B) about your plans
(1) AABAB
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(2) ABBBB
(3) BABAA
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(4) ABBAA
Answer: (4)
DIRECTIONS for questions 49 and 50: In each of the following questions, the word at the top is
used in four different ways, numbered 1 to 4. Choose the option in which the usage of the word
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is INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE.
Q: 49. PULL
(1) Pill aside the curtains and let in some fresh air.
(2) I decided to pull away from the venture due to differences of opinion with my partners.
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(3) Being a charismatic leader that he is, he can certainly pull the crowds.
(4) The municipal corporation has decided to pull down all illegal
Answer: (2)
Q: 50. SHADE
(1) Nina’s bedroom was painted in a soft shade of pink
(2) Abdul is a dubious character who is suspected of being involved in several shady deals.
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(3) The weary traveler rested for a while in the shade of a tree.
(4) The people in the strife torn region have been living in the shade of fear for several years.
Answer: (4)
DIRECTIONS for questions 51 to 54: Read the following passage and answer the questions that
follow it.
Organic food is a two-billion pound industry grown fat on the back of celebrity endorsement
and a well-heeled middle class seduced by claims that it is good for health. Prince Charles is one
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of its most enthusiastic and pro-active promoters. Not content with simply consuming it, he has
his own lucrative line in overpriced organic products including biscuits which taste more like
chalk.
But now questions are being raised about some of the basic assumptions that have contributed
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to the popularity of organic food and the phenomenal growth of this sector in the past decade.
People are asking: is organic food really worth the price which is often three times more than
that of normal food?
This follows new research by a group of British scientists who found that organic food offered no
extra benefit over the ordinary cheaper foodstuff. In a controversial report, experts from the
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London School of Hygiene and Tropical Medicine say there is no evidence that organic food is
more nutritional or healthier than food produced using fertilizers. For example, the expensive
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free-range chicken (sold as a "premium" product) has the same nutritional value as the factory-
farmed chicken; and similarly, there is no difference between organic and non-organic
vegetables or dairy produce.
The research, based on data published over the past 50 years and said to be the most
comprehensive review ever of the relative benefits of organic food, strikes at the very heart of
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what has been portrayed by campaigners as its USP - that it is healthier than conventional food
and therefore worth paying a "bit "extra.
Dr. Alan Dangour, who led the study, was unambiguous in rejecting claims made for organic
food. "Looking at all of the studies published in the last 50 years, we have concluded that there's
no good evidence that consumption of organic food is beneficial to health based on the nutrient
content," he said.
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The report, commissioned by the government's Food Standards Agency and published in the
American Journal of Clinical Nutrition, concluded that "organically and conventionally
produced crops and livestock products are broadly comparable in their nutrient content." A
"small number of differences" were noted but these were "unlikely to be of any public health
relevance."
In a pointed reference to the hype over the supposed benefits of organic food, the FSA said the
research was aimed at helping people make "informed choices" about what they ate. In other
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words, it was concerned that the high-profile campaign for organic food, dressed up as an
ethical issue, was preventing people from making "informed choices" and they were being sold
things on false premises.
"Ensuring people have accurate information is absolutely essential in allowing us all to more
informed choices about the food we eat. This study does not mean that people should not eat
organic food. What it shows is that there is little, if any, nutritional difference between organic
and conventionally produced food and that there is no evidence of additional health benefits
from eating organic food," said Gill Fine, FSA's Director of Consumer Choice and Dietary Health
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In the organic food circles, the report has caused fury with campaigners alleging that it is all
part of a "cancerous conspiracy" to defame the organic food movement. Newspapers have been
full of angry letters denouncing the report as "selective," "misleading" and "limited."
The Soil Association, which campaigns for "planet-friendly organic food and farming," is furious
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that the research crucially ignored the presence of higher pesticide residues in conventional
food. Some have defended organic food arguing that it is not about health alone but also
involves wider environmental and social issues.
However, even those who agree that the report may be "flawed" in some respects believe that it
is an important contribution to the debate on organic food.
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"Yet the report - for all its alleged flaws - is an important one. For a start, it is certainly not the
work of dogmatic and intractably hostile opponents of the causeD In fact, it raises key global
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issuesD After all, if organic food is no more beneficial in terms of nutrition than other, standard
foodstuffs, why should we pay excessive price to eat the stuff? Why devote more land to its
production," asked Robin McKie, Science Editor of The Observer.
There is also a view that the fad for organic food is a bit of a class thing - something to do with
the idea that if something is expensive it is also good. So, a Marks & Spencer cheese sandwich is
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supposed to taste better than a similar sandwich at Subway next door; everything at Harrods is
out of this world; and similarly you don't know what you are missing if organic food is not your
preferred choice. There is said to be a whiff of snobbery about buying into an expensive lifestyle
choice. Will science bring them down to earth?
Q: 51. All of the following are the author’s views on organic food EXCEPT
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(1) It is insipid
(2) It is very costly
(4) It is not more nutritious than conventional food
(4) It is patronized by the rich
Answer: (3)
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Q: 52. Which of the following factors/aspects, related to organic food, has the result of the FSA
study primarily called into question?
(1) The nutritional value
(2) The health benefits
(3) The celebrity endorsement
(4) The presence of pesticides
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Answer: (2)
Q: 53. According to the passage, defenders of organic food are of the opinion that the FSA study
(1) Is not representative and scientific
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(2) Has been promoted by those who have vested interest in conventional food.
(3) Is flawed and has been projected as ethical issue
(4) Is not balanced and has not taken a comprehensive view of the issue
Answer: (4)
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Q: 54. In this passage, the author essentially
(1) Analyses the pros and cons of promoting organic food

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(2) Debunks the findings of a study on organic food
(3) Reports the findings of a research on organic food and checks the veracity of its claim
(4) Discusses the debate, which has followed the findings of a study on organic food.
Answer: (4)
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DIRECTIONS for questions 55 to 57: Read the following passage and answer the questions that
follow it.
Some artists go out in a blaze of glory. Pierre- Auguste Renoir went out in a blaze of kitsch. At
least, that's the received opinion about the work of his final decades: all those pillowy nudes,
sunning their abundant selves in dappled glades; all those peachy girls, strumming guitars and
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idling in bourgeois parlors; all that pink. In the long twilight of his career, the old man found his
way to a kissable classicism that modern eyes can find awfully hard to take.
All the same, the Renoir of this period - the three very productive decades before his death in
1919 at the age of 78 - fascinated some of the chief figures of modernism. Picasso was on board;
his thick -limbed 'neoclassical' women from the 1920 are indebted to Renoir. So was Matisse,
who had one eye on Renoir's Orientalist dress-up fantasies like the Concert, with its flattened
space and overall patterning, when he produced his odalisques. Given that so much of late
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Renoir seems saccharine and semi comical to us, is it still possible to see what made it modern
to them?
Yes and no. To understand the Renoir in the 20th Century you have to remember that before he
became a semi classicist, he was a consummate Impressionist. You need to picture him in 1874,
33 years old, painting side by side with Monet in Argenteuil, teasing out the new possibilities of
sketchy brushwork to capture fleeting light as it fell across people and things in an indisputably
modern world.
But in the decade that followed, Renoir became one of the movement's first apostates.
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Impressionism affected many people in the 19th century in much the way the internet does now.
It both charmed and unnerved them. It brought to painting a novel immediacy, but it also gave
back a world that felt weightless and unstable. What we now call post - Impressionism was the
inevitable by-product of that anxiety. Artists like Seurat and Gauguin searched for an art that
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owed nothing to the stale models of academicism but possessed the substance and authority
that Impressionism had let fall away.
For Renoir, a turning point came during his honeymoon to Rome and Naples in 1881. Face to
face with the firm outlines of Raphael and the musculature of Michelangelo, he lost faith in his
flickering sunbeams. He returned to France determined to find his way to lucid, distinct forms
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in an art that reached for the eternal, not the momentary. By the later years of that decade,
Renoir had lost his taste for the modern world anyway. As for modern women, in 1888 he could
write, "I consider that women who are authors, lawyers and politicians are monsters". ("The
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woman who is an artist," he added graciously, "is merely ridiculous.")
Ah, but the woman who is a goddess - or at least harks back to one - that is different matter. It
would be Renoir's aim to reconfigure the female nude in a way that would convey the spirit of
the classical world without classical trappings. Set in "timeless" outdoor settings, these women
by their weight and scale and serenity alone - along with their often recognizably classical poses
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- would point back to antiquity.
For a time, Renoir worked with figures so strongly outlined that they could have been put down
by Ingres with a jackhammer. By 1892, he had drifted back toward a fluctuating impressionist
brushstroke. Firmly contoured or flickering, his softly scalped women are as full-bodied as Doric
columns. This was one of the qualities that caught Picasso's eye, especially after his first trip to
Italy, in 1917. He would assimilate Renoir along-side his own sources in Iberian sculpture and
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elsewhere to come up with a frankly more powerful, even haunting, amalgam of the antique and
the modern in paintings like Woman in a White Hat.
Renoir was most valuable as a stepping - stone for artists making more potent use of the ideas
he was developing. The heart of the problem is the challenge. Renoir set for himself: to reconcile
classical and Renaissance models with the 18th century French painters he loved. To synthesize
the force and clarity of classicism with the intimacy and charm of the Rococo is a nearly
impossible trick. How do you cross the power of Phidias with the delicacy of Fragonard? The
answer: at your own risk - especially the risk of admitting into your work the weaknesses of the
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Rococo. It's fine line between charming and insipid, and 18th century French painters crossed it
all the time. So did Renoir.
Q: 55. All of the following are true in light of the passage EXCEPT.
(1) Fragonard is an 18th century artist
(2) Picasso combined classicism and modernism in ‘Woman in a white Hat”.
(3) Renoir was a semi – Classicist, who became an Impressionist
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(4) Gauguin suffered from post – Impressionism anxiety
Answer: (3)
Q: 56. We can infer from the passage that the word ‘odalisques’ means
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(1) Pillars
(2) Landscapes
(3) Figures
(4) Women
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Answer: (4)
Q: 57. The passage suggests that

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(1) Renoir was greatly misunderstood in his lifetime
(2) Classicism and modernism don’t go together
(3) Renoir’s later work appealed to modern tastes
(4) Renoir’s artistic appeal waned in the twilight of his career

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Answer: (2)
DIRECTIONS for questions 58 to 60: Read the following passage and answer the questions the
follow it.
Humans have a basic need to perceive themselves as part of a grand scheme, of a natural order
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that has a deeper significance and greater endurance than the petty affairs of daily life. The
incongruous mismatch between the futility of the human condition and the brooding majesty of
the cosmos compels people to seek a transcendent meaning to underpin their fragile existence.
For thousands of years this broader context was provided by tribal mythology and storytelling.
The transporting qualities of those narratives gave human beings a crucial spiritual anchor. All
cultures lay claim to haunting myths of other-worldliness: from the dreaming of the Australian
Aborigines or the Chronicles of Narnia, from the Nirvana of Buddhism to the Christian
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Kingdom of Heaven. Over time, the humble campfire stories morphed into the splendour and
ritual of organized religion and the great works of drama and literature.
Even in our secular age, where many societies have evolved to a post-religious phase, people still
have unfulfilled spiritual yearnings. A project with the scope and profundity of SETI (search for
extraterrestrial intelligence) cannot be divorced from this wider cultural context, for it too offers
us the compelling promise that this could happen any day soon. As writer David Brin has
pointed out, 'contact with advanced alien civilizations may carry much the same transcendental
or hopeful significance as any more traditional notion of "salvation from above". I have argued
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that if we did make contact with an advanced extraterrestrial community, the entities with
which we would be dealing would approach godlike status in our eyes. Certainly they would be
more godlike than humanlike; indeed, their powers would be greater than those attributed to
most gods in human history.'
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So is SETI itself in danger of becoming a latter day religion? Science fiction writer Michael
Crichton thought so. He said: "Faith is defined as the firm belief in something for which there is
no proof," he explained. "The belief that there are other life forms in the universe is a matter of
faith. There is not a single shred of evidence for any other life forms, and in forty years of
searching, none has been discovered." Writer Margaret Wertheim has studied how the concept
of space and its inhabitants has evolved over several centuries. She traces the modern notion of
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aliens to Renaissance writers such as the Roman Catholic Cardinal Nichols of Cusa, who
considered the status of man in the universe in relation to celestial beings such as angels.
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With the arrival of the scientific age, speculations about alien beings passed from theologians to
science fiction writers, but the spiritual dimension remained just below the surface.
Occasionally it is made explicit, as in Olaf Stapledon's Star Maker, David Lindsay's A Voyage to
Arcturus, or Steven Spielberg's Close Encounters of the Third Kind, which is strongly
reminiscent of John Bunyan's A Pilgrim's Progress. These are iconic images that resonate deeply
with the human psyche, and shadow the scientific quest to discover intelligent life beyond Earth
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Q: 58. It can be inferred from the passage that, ‘Close Encounters of the Third Kind’
(1) Is a modern, scientific version of John Bunyan’s Pilgrim’s Progress.
(2) Explores the spiritual unknown in the scientific quest to discover the extraterrestrial
(3) Is the work of a theologian – turned science fictionist

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(4) Speculates on intelligent life in outer space and reflects vivid spiritual overtones
Answer: (4)
Q: 59. Which of the following statements reflects or captures the author’s view on the search for
extraterrestrial intelligence?
(1) It is a vain attempt by man to underpin his fragile existence
(2) It is in danger of becoming a latter day religion

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(3) Were the search to yield positive results, man would accord those creatures super god status
(4) The belief that there are aliens in the universe springs from enormous faith and the pursuit
reflects man’s spiritual urge.
Answer: (3)
Q: 60. Great literary works, according to the passage
(1) Had their origins in the spiritual age
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(2) Evolved from tribal tales
(3) Were a product of the Renaissance
(4) Dwelt on the spiritual
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Answer: (2)
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Discussions & Questions

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Only question paper ( - as...@ on 27-Jul-2019)
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1 Answer
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- Examrace on 30-Jul-2019
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I want the explanation of questions ( - sh...@ on 25-Jul-2019)
1 Answer
Yes, you can find solutions of CAT past year paper from this web-page
https://www.doorsteptutor.com/Exams/CAT/ this web-page has many subjects of CAT you
can the solution of your needed subject
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In your link provided at your site for CAT SOLVED PAPER 2016, question no. 12 related to
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solution for that ( - ra...@ on 05-Jul-2019)
1 Answer
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CAT 2015 based paper
Section 1 Verbal
Reading Comprehension
Language is not a cultural artifact that we learn the way we learn to tell time or how the federal
government works. Instead, it is a distinct piece of the biological makeup of our brains.
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Language is a complex, specialized skill, which develops in the child spontaneously, without
conscious effort or formal instruction, is deployed without awareness of its underlying logic, is
qualitatively the same in every individual, and is distinct from more general abilities to process
information or behave intelligently. For these reasons some cognitive researchers have
described language as a psychological faculty, a mental organ, a neural system, and a
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computational module. But I prefer the ad ittedl uai t te i sti t . It o e s the idea that people k o ho
to talk i o e o less the sense that spiders know how to spin webs. Web-spinning was not
invented by some unsung spider genius and does not depend on having had the right education
or on having an aptitude for architecture or the construction trades. Rather, spiders spin spider
webs because they have spider brains, which give them the urge to spin and the competence to
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succeed. Although there are differences between webs and words, I will encourage you to see
language in this way, for it helps to make sense of the phenomena we will explore.
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Thinking of language as an instinct inverts the popular wisdom, especially as it has been
passed down in the canon of the humanities and social sciences. Language is no more a
cultural invention than is upright posture. It is not a manifestation of a general capacity to use
symbols: a three-year- old, we shall see, is a grammatical genius, but is quite incompetent at
the visual arts, religious iconography, traffic signs, and the other staples of the semiotics
curriculum. Though language is a magnificent ability unique to Homo sapiens among living
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species, it does not call for sequestering the study of humans from the domain of biology, for a
magnificent ability unique to a particular living species is far from unique in the animal kingdom.
Some kinds of bats home in on flying insects using Doppler sonar. Some kinds of migratory
birds navigate thousands of miles by calibrating the positio s of the o stellatio s agai st the ti e of
da a d ea . I atu e s tale t sho , e a e simply a species of primate with our own act, a knack for
communicating information about who did what to whom by modulating the sounds we make
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when we exhale.
Once you begin to look at language not as the ineffable essence of human uniqueness hut as a
biological adaptation to communicate information, it is no longer as tempting to see language as
an insidious shaper of thought, a d, e shall see, it is ot. Mo eo e , seei g la guage as o e of atu e
s engineering marvels — a o ga ith that pe fe tio of st u tu e a d o-adaptation which justly e ites
ou ad i atio , i Da i s o ds - gives us a new respect for your ordinary Joe and the much-maligned
English language (or any language). The complexity of language, from the esea he s poi t of ie ,
is pa t of ou iologi al i th ight; it is ot so ethi g that pa e ts tea h their children or something that
must be elaborated in school — as Os a Wilde said, Edu atio is an admirable thing, but it is well
to remember from time to time that nothing that is worth knowing a e taught. A p es hoole s ta it
k o ledge of g a a is o e sophisti ated tha the thi kest style manual or the most state-of-the-art
computer language system, and the same applies to all healthy human beings, even the
notorious syntax fracturing professional athlete and the, you know, like, inarticulate teenage
skateboarder. Finally, since language is the product of a well engineered biological instinct, we
shall see that it is not the nutty barrel of monkeys that entertainer columnists make it out to be.
1. According to the passage, all of the following stem from popular wisdom on language Except? (1)
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Language is a cultural artifact.
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(2) Language is a cultural invention.
(3) Language is learnt as we grow. (4)
Language is a psychological faculty.
2. Whi h of the follo i g a e used as pa allel easo i g fo the spide s k o ho to spi e s analogy as
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used by the author? (1) A kitten learning to jump over a wall (2) Bees collecting nectar (3) A
donkey carrying a load (4) A horse running a Derby
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3. According to the passage, which of the following is unique to human
beings? (1) Ability to use symbols while communicating with one another.
(2) Ability to communicate with each other through voice modulation. (3)
Ability to communicate information to other members of the species. (4)
Ability to use sound as means of communication.
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4. According to the passage, complexity of language cannot be taught by parents or at school

to children because (1) children instinctively know language. (2) children learn the language on
their own. (3) language is not amenable to teaching. (4) children know language better than
their teachers or parents.
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5. Which of the following best summarizes the passage? (1)

Language is unique to Homo sapiens. (2) Language is neither
learnt nor taught. (3) Language is not a cultural invention or
artifact as it is made out. (4) Language is instinctive ability of
human beings.
6. Wh autho has efe ed to p es hoole s ta it k o ledge of g a a (1) To prove that

Language is unique to Homo sapiens. (2) Used as an analogy for healthy human
beings (3) To prove his point that language is not a cultural invention or artifact as it
is made out. (4) To compare children instinctively know language.
If American policy towards Europe in the postwar years had been a conspicuous success, and
towards Asia a disappointing balance between success and failure, it could be said that the
most conspicuous thing about relations with Latin America was the absence of any policy.
Franklin ‘oose elt, to e su e, had lau hed a Good Neigh ou poli , ut ei g a good eigh ou as, it
seemed, a negative rather than a positive affair, a matter of keeping hands off, of making the
Monroe Doctrine, in form at least, multilateral. All through the postwar years, the states of Latin
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America - - Mexico and Chile were partial exceptions - - were in the throes of major economic
and social crises. Population was growing faster than in any other part of the globe, without a
comparable increase in wealth or productivity; the gap between the poor and the rich was
widening; and as the rich and powerful turned to the military for the preservation of order and
privilege, the poor turned to revolution.
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CAT 2015 based paper R

Deeply involved in other quarters of the globe, the United States paid little attention to the
fortunes or misfortunes of her neighbours to the south, and when she did intervene, it appeared
to be on the side of order and the status quo rather than on the side of reform. So frightened
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was the United “tates of Co u is i Lati A e i a that it p efe ed ilita di tato ship to efo e s ho might
drift too far to the left , a d sustai ed a Batista i Cu a, a T ujillo i the Do i i a ‘epu li , a Peron in
Argentina, and a Jimenez in Venezuela.
In his last two years, President Eisenhower had tried to mend his Latin American fences.
Though rejecting a Brazilian proposal of a Marshall Plan for Latin America, he did take the
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initiative in setting up an Inter-American development Bank with a capital of one billion dollars,
almost half of it supplied by the United States. Other government investments in Latin America
ran to some four million dollars, while private investments exceeded nine billion. Yet though to
most Americans, all this seemed a form of economic aid, many Latin Americans regarded it as
economic imperialism. In September 1960, came a co-operative plan that could not be
regarded as other than enlightened: the Act of Bogota, which authorized a grant of half a billion
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dollars to subsidize not only economic ut so ial a d edu atio al p og ess i Lati A e i a. We a e ot
sai ts , said P eside t Eise ho e he he isited “a tiago de Chile, We k o e ake istakes, ut ou hea t
is i the ight pla e .
But was it? President Kennedy was confronted by the same dilemma that had perplexed his
predecessors. Clearly it was essential to provide a large-scale aid to the countries south of Rio
Grande, but should this aid go to bolster up established regimes and thus help maintain status
quo, or should it be used to speed up social reforms, even at the risk of revolt? As early as
1958, the then Senator Kennedy had asse ted that the o je ti e of ou aid p og a i Lati A e i a
should ot e to purchase allies, but to consolidate a free and democratic Western Hemisphere,
alleviating those conditions which might foster opportunities for communistic infiltration and
uniting our peoples on the asis of o sta tl i easi g li i g sta da ds .
This conviction that raising the standards of living was the best method of checking
Communism now inspired President Kennedy's bold proposal for the creation of the alliance for
progress - - a ten year plan designed to do for Latin America what Marshall Plan had done for
Western Europe. It was to e a pea eful e olutio o a he isphe i s ale, a ast oope ati e effo t, u pa
alleled i magnitude and nobility of purpose, to satisfy the basic needs of the American people
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for homes, o k, la d, health a d s hools. To a hie e this, the U ited “tates pleaded a i itial g a t of
o e billion dollars, with the promise of additional billions for the future.
7. Following World War II, which problem was the United States most concerned with regarding
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Latin America? (a) Economic stability. (b) Political ideology. (c) Religious persecution. (d)
Military dictatorship.
8. A key reason why Latin American rejected the Inter-American development Bank was
that (a) it primarily provided money for social reform subsidies. (b) the moneys provided
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were only for specific performance projects. (c) it constituted an extension of the
Marshall Plan into Latin America (d) it was being used as a means to control the
economic destiny of Latin America.
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9. Which of the following is most closely associated with the concept of a Marshall Plan for Latin
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America?

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(a) The Good Neighbour Policy.

(b) The Alliance for Progress.
(c) The Act of Bogota. (d) The
Monroe Doctrine.
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10. According to the passage, the fundamental change in U.S. foreign policy directed towards
Latin America (a) resulted in a deterioration of U.S. Latin American relations. (b) was
responsible for Peron remaining as a dictator in Peru. (c) recognized that economic aid alone
would prevent social revolutions. (d) provided for increased military and economic aid to
prevent the spread of communism in Latin America.
11. All of the following statements are true, except? (a) Mexico and Chile did not experience the
general social crises that are common to the majority of Latin American countries. (b) President
Eisenhower continued in practice the theory that economic aid was the best defense against
communist incursion into Latin America (c) The Good Neighbour Policy favoured a multilateral
interpretation of the Monroe Doctrine. (d) The traditional U.S. approach in Latin America was to
protect the status quo.
12. Which of the inferences can be drawn if everything said in the passage were assumed to be
true? (a) Rebellions are fuelled by social reforms and avoided by supporting established
authorities or continuing the present state of affairs. (b) The American policy towards Asia can
be called an overall success, though small in magnitude. (c) Kennedy, in 1958, wanted America
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to aid South American countries to acquire more support in their fight against communism. (d)
Eisenhower rejected the Marshall Plan, whereas Kennedy implemented a similar one.
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Last fortnight, news of a significant development was tucked away in the inside pages of
newspapers. The government finally tabled a bill in Parliament seeking to make primary
education a fundamental right. A fortnight earlier, a Delhi-based newspaper had carried a report
about a three- o th i te uptio i the Delhi Go e e t's Edu atio fo All p og a e. The epo t ade fo
distressing reading. It said that literacy centres across the city were closed down, volunteers
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beaten up and enrolment registers burnt. All because the state government had, earlier this
year, made participation in the programme mandatory for teachers in government schools. The
routine denials were issued and there probably was a wee bit of exaggeration in the report. But
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it still is a pointer to the enormity of the task at hand.
That economic development will be inherently unstable unless it is built on a solid base of education,
specially primary education, has been said so often that it is in danger of becoming a platitude. Nor does
India's abysmal record in the field need much reiteration. Nearly 30 million children in the six to ten age
group do not go to school — reason enough to make primary education not only compulsory but a
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fundamental right. But is that the solution? More importantly, will it work? Or will it remain a mere token,
like the laws providing for compulsory primary education? It is now widely known that 14 states and four
Union Territories have this law on their statute books. Believe it or not, the list actually includes Bihar,
Madhya Pradesh (MP) and Rajasthan, where literacy and education levels are www.examrace.com

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miles below the national average. A number of states have not even notified the compulsory
education law.
This is not to belittle the decision to make education a fundamental right. As a statement of
political will, a commitment by the decision-makers, its importance cannot be undervalued.
Once this commitment is clear, a lot of other things like resource allocation will naturally fall into
place. But the task of universalizing elementary education (UEE) is complicated by various
socio-economic and cultural factors which vary from region to region and within regions.
If India's record continues to appall, it is because these intricacies have not been adequately
understood by the planners and administrators. The trouble has been that education policy has
been designed by grizzled mandarins ensconced in Delhi and is totally out of touch with the
ground reality. The key then is to decentralise education planning and implementation. What's
also needed is greater community involvement in the whole process. Only then can school
timings be adjusted for convenience, school children given a curriculum they can relate to and
teachers made accountable.
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For proof, one has only to look at the success of the district primary education programme,
which was launched in 1994. It has met with a fair degree of success in the 122 districts it
covers. Here the village community is involved in all aspects of education — allocating finances
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to supervising teachers to fixing school timings and developing curriculum and textbooks —
through district planning teams. Teachers are also involved in the planning and implementation
process and are given small grants to develop teaching and learning material, vastly improving
motivational levels. The consequent improvement in the quality of education generates
increased demand for education.
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But for this demand to be generated, quality will first have to be improved. In MP, the village
panchayats are responsible for not only constructing and maintaining primary schools but also
managing scholarships, besides organising non-formal education. How well this works in
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practice remains to be seen (though the department claims the schemes are working very well)
but the decision to empower panchayats with such powers is itself a significant development.
Unfortunately, the Panchayat Raj Act has not been notified in many states. After all, delegating
powers to the panchayats is not looked upon too kindly by vested interests.
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More specifically, by politicians, since decentralisation of education administration takes away

from them the power of transfer, which they use to grant favours and build up a support base.
But if the political leadership can push through the bill to make education a fundamental right, it
should also be able to persuade the states to implement the laws on Panchayat Raj. For, UEE
cannot be achieved without decentralisation. Of course, this will have to be accompanied by
proper supervision and adequate training of those involved in the administration of education.
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But the devolution of powers to the local bodies has to come first.
13. None of these problems are plaguing the education system in India
Except a. poverty. b. diverse cultural and socio-economic factors. c. male
chauvinism. d. Celebrating festivals
14. In the context of the passage, the term 'grizzled mandarins' means a. old hags. b. decrepit men.
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c. ineffective old men.
d. None of these
15. One of the reasons contributing to India's poor performance on the education front is that
a. its leaders do not have the conviction required to improve the education system. b. male
members of society do not want their female counterparts to be educated. c. administrators in
charge of education are out of touch with ground realities. d. the country does not have the
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law for implementation of education policies in its statute books.
16. The only way in which the education system can be improved
is by a. decentralising education planning and implementation. b.
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introducing fresh blood in the planning body. c. injecting funds into
the exchequer solely for the purpose. d. educating the people on
the need for primary education.
17. Primary education a. is a fundamental

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right. b. will be made a fundamental right. c.
is only for the privileged sections of society.
d. None of these
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18. Education policy cannot be successfully implemented by any of the following
Except? a. greater community involvement. b. greater community development. c.
greater community awareness. d. Greater community experience
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Directions for questions 31 to 34: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the best answer to each question.
A game of strategy, as currently conceived in game theory, is a situation in which two or more
pla e s ake hoi es a o g a aila le alte ati es o es . The totalit of hoi es dete i es the outcomes of
the game, and it is assumed that the rank order of preferences for the outcomes is diffe e t fo
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diffe e t pla e s. Thus the i te ests of the pla e s a e ge e all i o fli t. Whethe these interests are
diametrically opposed or only partially opposed depends on the type of game. Psychologically,
most interesting situations arise when the interests of the players are partly coincident and
partly opposed, because then one can postulate not only a conflict among the players but also
inner conflicts within the players. Each is torn between a tendency to cooperate, so as to
promote the common interests, and a tendency to compete, so as to enhance his own
individual interests.
I te al o fli ts a e al a s ps hologi all i te esti g. What e aguel all i te esti g psychology is in very great
measure the psychology of inner conflict. Inner conflict is also held to be an important component of
serious literature as distinguished from less serious genres. The classical tragedy, as well as the serious
novel reveals the inner conflict of central figures. The superficial adventure story on the other hand,
depicts only external conflict; that is, the threats to the person with whom the reader (or viewer) identifies
stem in these stories exclusively from external obstacles and from the adversaries who create them. On
the most primitive level this sort of external conflict is psychologically empty. In the fisticuffs between the
protagonists of good and evil, no psychological problems are involved or, at any rate, none are depicted
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in juvenile representations of conflict.
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The detecti e sto , the adult a alogue of a ju e ile ad e tu e tale, has at ti es ee des i ed as a
glorification of intellectualized conflict. However, a great deal of the interest in the plots of these
stories is sustained by withholding the unraveling of a solution to a problem. The effort of
solving the problem is in itself not a conflict if the adversary (the unknown criminal) remains
passive, like Nature, whose secrets the scientist supposedly unravels by deduction. If the
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adversary actively puts obstacles i the dete ti e s path to a d the solutio , the e is ge ui e o fli t.
But the o fli t is psychologically interesting only to the extent that it contains irrational
components such as a ta ti al e o o the i i al s pa t o the dete ti e s i sight i to some
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psychological quirk of the criminal or something of this sort. Conflict conducted in a perfectly
rational manner is psychologically no more interesting than a standard Western.
For example, Tic-tac-toe, played perfectly by both players, is completely devoid of

psychological interest. Chess may be psychologically interesting but only to the extent that it is
played not quite rationally. Played completely rationally, chess would not be different from
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Tic-tac-toe.
In short, a pure conflict of interest (what is called a zero-sum game) although it offers a wealth
of interesting conceptual problems, is not interesting psychologically, except to the extent that
its conduct departs from rational norms.
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19. Find the main idea of the passage? (1) To

explain game of strategy (2) To explain dete ti e
s path (3) To explain juvenile representations of
conflict (4) None of these
20. According to the passage, internal conflicts are psychologically more interesting than
external conflicts because (1) internal conflicts, rather than external conflicts, form an important
component of serious literature as distinguished from less serious genres.
o l ju e iles o e fe adults a tuall e pe ie e e te al o fli t, hile i te al o fli t is more widely
prevalent in society. (3) in situations of internal conflict, individuals experience a dilemma in
resolving their own preferences for different outcomes. (4) there are no threats to the reader (or
viewer) in case of external conflicts.
21. Which, according to the author, would qualify as interesting

psychology?
A statisti ia s dile a o e hoosi g the est ethod to sol e a opti izatio p o le . A hess pla e s p edi
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a e t o e adopti g a defe si e st ateg agai st a agg essi e opponent. A ou tai ee s hoi e of the
est path to Mt. E e est f o the ase a p. A fi a e a age s ua da o e the est a of aisi g o e f o the
a ket.
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22. According to the passage, which of the following options about the application of game theory to a
conflict-of-interest situation is true? (1) Assuming that the rank order of preferences for options is
different for different players. (2) Accepting that the interests of different players are often in conflict. (3)
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Not assuming that the interests are in complete disagreement. (4) All of the above.
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23. The problem solving process of a scientist is different from that of a detective because (1)
scientists study inanimate objects, while detectives deal with living criminals or law offenders.
(2) scientists study known objects, while detectives have to deal with unknown criminals or law
offenders. (3) scientists study phenomena that are not actively altered, while detectives deal
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with phenomena that have been deliberately influenced to mislead.

s ie tists stud ps hologi all i te esti g phe o e a, hile dete ti es deal ith adult analogues of
juvenile adventure tales.
24. How Tic-tac-toe as a game is different from Chess? (1) Games like Tic-tac-toe is played in a
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perfectly rational manner is psychologically no more interesting than chess which is played not
quite rationally. (2) Both games are same when it comes to pure conflict of interest. (3) Both
games are played psychology of inner conflict (4) Tic-tac-toe is a juvenile adventure tale, while
chess at times been described as a glorification of intellectualized conflict.
Section 1
Verbal Verbal
Ability
25. Answer the following question on the basis of this paragraph and mark the correct option in
the given box. Parents usually do not insist that their children learn to walk by a certain age.
Parents feel confident that the children will learn to walk within a reasonable period of time,
when their bodies are ready for such an undertaking. Teachers should adopt the same attitude
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when teaching children in school how to read. If teachers did this, children might learn to read
much more quickly and experience less anxiety while doing so.
Which of the following best describes the Essence or structure of the passage? A. How children
learn one kind of activity is described and then this method is recommended for teaching
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children another kind of activity. B. Two different views of how children should be taught to read
are compared and contrasted. C. A view of how children should be taught is described and then
criticized. D. Contrasting views of parents and teachers on how quickly children actually learn
are described and then analyzed. E. The amount of time it take for children to learn one kind of
activity is described and then used to predict how long it will take them to learn another kind of
activity. Type in the answer here: ____
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26. The sentences given, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each
sentence is labeled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the
given choices to construct a coherent paragraph. Sentence 1 and 6 are fixed starting and
ending of the paragraph. Type the correct order in the given space.
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1. Amount of published information available varies widely by industry. w
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A. Unfortunately for the researcher, many industries do not meet these criteria, and there may
be little published information available. B. Generally, the problem the researcher will face in
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using published data for analysing an economically meaningful industry is that they are too
broad or too arranged to fit the industry. C. However, it is always possible to gain some
important information about an industry from published sources and these sources should be
aggressively pursued. D. Larger the industry, the older it is, and the slower the rate of
technological change, better is the available published information. 6. If a researcher starts a
searching for data with this reality in mind, the uselessness of broad data will be better
recognized and the tendency to give up will be avoided.
Type in the answer here: ____

27. In the following question a paragraph from which the last sentence has been deleted. From
the given options, choose the sentence that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate
way. Type the correct option number in the given space below.
Trade protectionism, disguised as concern for the climate, is raising its head. Citing
competitiveness concerns, powerful industrialized countries are holding out threats of a levy on
imports of energy- intensive products from developing countries that refuse to accept their
demands. The actual source of protectionist sentiment in the OECD countries is, of course,
their current lacklustre economic performance, combined with the challenges posed by the
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rapid economic rise of China and India - in that order.
(1) Climate change is evoked to bring trade protectionism through the back door. (2) OECD
countries are taking refuge in climate change issues to erect trade barriers against these two
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countries. (3) Climate change concerns have come as a convenient stick to beat the rising trade
power of China and India. (4) Defenders of the global economic status quo are posing as
climate change champions.
Toda s li ate ha ge ha pio s a e the pe pet ato s of glo al e o o i i e uit . Type in
the answer here: ____
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28. Answer the following question on the basis of this paragraph and mark the correct option in
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the given box. Whatever their disadvantage with respect to distributing education tax dollars
equally among school districts, in one respect at least, local property taxes are superior to state
taxes as a means of funding public schools. Because local property taxes provide public
schools with a direct source of revenue, these public schools are relatively free from
competition for tax dollars with other government services. School administrators do not have to
compete for a share of the state tax dollars, which are already being spent on health, criminal
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justice, public safety, and transportation. They are not placed in the position of having to argue
that school programs must have priority over other public services financed by state taxes.
Which of the following statements best expresses essence of the passage? A. Education is more
important than other government services, such as criminal justice or public safety. B. The disadvantage
of local property taxes is that they do not equally distribute tax dollars spent on education.
C
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C. School administrators are not accustomed to arguing that their programs must have priority
over other government services. D. Financing education with local property taxes has the
advantage of eliminating competition for funding between schools and other public services. E.
School administrators must be prepared to justify the funds they spend on education programs.
Most people at thei fi st o sultatio take a fu ti e look at the su geo s ha ds i the hope of
reassurance. Prospective patients look for delicacy, sensitivity, steadiness, perhaps
unblemished pallor. On this basis, Henry Perowne loses a number of cases ea h ea . Ge e all ,
60
he k o s it s about to happen before the patient does: the downward glance repeated, the
prepared questions beginning to falter, the overemphatic thanks during the retreat to the door.
(1) Other people do not communicate due to their poor observation.
Othe patie ts do t like hat the see ut a e ig o a t of thei ight to go else he e. But Pe o e
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hi self is ot o e ed. (4) But others will take their place, he thought. (5) These hands
are steady enough, but they are large. Type in the answer here: ____
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given choices to construct a coherent paragraph. Sentence 1 and 6 are fixed starting and
ending of the paragraph. Type the correct order in the given space.
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1. Intensity of competition in an industry is neither a matter of coincidence nor bad luck. A. The
collective strength of these forces determines the ultimate profit potential in the industry where
profit potential is measured in terms of long run returns on invested capital. B. Rather,
competition in an industry is rooted in its underlying economic structure and goes well beyond
the behavior of current competitors. C. Not all industries have the same potential. D. The state
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of competition in an industry depends on five basic competitive forces. 6. They differ

fundamentally in their ultimate profit potential as the collective strength of the forces differs.
31. Answer the following question on the basis of this paragraph and mark the correct option in the given
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box. Shakespeare wrote four types of plays: histories, comedies, tragedies, and tragicomedies. Some s
hola s o te d that “hakespea e s hoi e of th ee of these t pes of d a ati fo s efle ts his various
psychological states. As a young man making a name for himself in London, he wrote o edies. The ,
sadde ed the death of this so , he tu ed to t agedies. Fi all , seaso ed life s joys and sorrows, he
produced tragicomedies. But a look at the theater scene of his day reveals that Shakespeare was not so
much writing out of his heart as into his pocketbook. When comedies were w ww.examrace.com

the vogue, he wrote comedies; when tragedies were the rage, he wrote tragedies; and when
tragicomedies dominated the stage, he produced tragicomedies.
Which of the following statements best expresses essence of the passage? A. E a i e

“hakespea e s life i light of his d a ati o ks B. Contest a theory that attempts to explain why
Shakespeare wrote the kinds of plays he did C. E plai the te s o ed , t aged , a d t agi o ed as
they are used in discussions of “hakespea e s pla s D. Co pa e “hakespea e s pla s ith the o ks
of othe d a atists of his da E. Dis uss hat is k o a out “hakespea e s ps hologi al states Type in
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given choices to construct a coherent paragraph. Type the correct order in the given space.
A. A few months ago I went to Princeton University to see what the young people who are going
to be running our country in a few decades are like. B. I would go to sleep in my hotel room
around midnight each night, and when I awoke, my mailbox would be full of replies—sent at
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1:15 a.m., 2:59 a.m., 3:23 a.m. C.One senior told me that she went to bed around two and woke
up each morning at seven; she could afford that much rest because she had learned to
supplement her full day of work by studying in her sleep. D.Faculty members gave me the
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names of a few dozen articulate students, and I sent them e-mails, inviting them out to lunch or
dinner in small groups. E.As she was falling asleep she would recite a math problem or a paper
topic to herself; she would then sometimes dream about it, and when she woke up, the problem
might be solved.

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Matta he is I dia Je s ost fa ous settle e t. Its p ett st eets of pastel olou ed houses, connected
by first-floor passages and home to the last twelve saree-and-sarong-wearing, whiteskinned
Indian Jews are visited by thousands of tourists each year. Its synagogue, built in 1568, with a
floor of blue-and-white Chinese tiles, a carpet given by Haile Selassie and the frosty Yaheh
selling tickets at the door, stands as an image of religious tolerance. (1) Mattancherry
represents, therefore, the perfect picture of peaceful co-existence.
I dia s Je s ha e al ost e e suffe ed dis i i atio , e ept fo Eu opea olo ize s a d ea h other. (3)
Jews in India were always tolerant. (4) Religious tolerance has always been only a façade and
nothing more. (5) The pretty pastel streets are, thus, very popular with the tourists. Type in the
answer here: ____
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given choices to construct a coherent paragraph. Type the correct order in the given space.
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A.Four days later, Infosist announced its own bid for PepSoftware, a d i ited the fi s oa d to a
discussion. B.Furious that his own plans had been endangered, PepSoftware s oss, Chandan
Shah, called Infosist s offe dia oli al , a d its oss, Laxman, a so iopath . C.In early June,
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PepSoftware said that it would buy J.D.Soft, a smaller rival. D.Moreover, said Mr. Shah, he ould
i agi e o p i e o o i atio of p i e a d othe
o ditio s to e o e d a epti g the offe . E.On June
12th, PepSoftware turned Infosist down. R
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C
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CAT 2015 based paper Section 2 DI LR

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Data Interpretation
Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Purana and Naya are two
brands of kitchen mixer-grinders available in the local market. Purana is an old brand that was
introduced in 1990, while Naya was introduced in 1997. For both these brands, 20% of the
mixer-grinders bought in a particular year are disposed off as junk exactly two years later. It is
known that 10 Purana mixer-grinders were disposed off in 1997. The following figures show the
number of Purana and Naya mixer-grinders in operation from 1995 to 2000, as at the end of the
year.
250
200
150
1. How many Naya mixer-grinders were purchased in 1999? (1) 44 (2) 50 (3) 55 (4) 64
2. How many Naya mixer-grinders were disposed off by the end of 2000? (1) 10 (2) 16 (3) 22
(4) Cannot be determined from the data
3. How many Purana mixer-grinders were disposed off in 2000? (1) 0 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) Cannot be
determined from the data
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4. How many Purana mixer-grinders were purchased in 1999? (1) 20 (2) 23 (3) 50 (4) Cannot
be determined from the data
236 236
222
182
162
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100
120
134
124
Purana
80
50
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Naya
30 00 0
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123456
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Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. A study was conduced to
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ascertain the relative importance that employees in five different countries assigned to five
different traits in their Chief Executive Officers. The traits were compassion (C), decisiveness
(D), negotiation skills (N), public visibility (P), and vision (V). The level of dissimilarity between
two countries is the maximum difference in the ranks allotted by the two countries to any of the
five traits. The following table indicates the rank order of the five traits for each country.
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Rank India China Japan Malaysia Thailand

1CNDVV2PCNDC3NPCPN4VDVCP5
DVPND
5. Which of the following pairs of countries are most

dissimilar? (1) China and Japan (2) India and China (3)
Malaysia and Japan (4) Thailand and Japan
6. Which of the following countries is least dissimilar to
India? (1) China (2) Japan (3) Malaysia (4) Thailand
7. Which amongst the following countries is most dissimilar to

India? (1) China (2) Japan (3) Malaysia (4) Thailand
8. Three of the following four pairs of countries have identical levels of dissimilarity. Which pair
is the odd one out? (1) Malaysia and China (2) China and Thailand (3) Thailand and Japan (4)
Japan and Malaysia
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Answer the questions based on the table given below. The table below gives information about
four different crops, their different quality, categories and the regions where they are cultivated.
Based on the information given in the table answer the questions below.
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Quality Region
Crop 1 Crop 3
edium R6, R7, R8 Low R9, , R11 Low
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Crop 2 Crop 4
R9, R13
9. How many regions produce medium qualities of Crop-1 or Crop-2 and also produce low
quality of Crop-3 or Crop-4? 1. Zero 2. One 3. Two 4. Three
10. Which of the following statements is true? 1. All medium quality Crop-2 producing
regions are also high quality Crop-3 producing regions. 2. All high quality Crop-1 producing
regions are also medium and low Crop-4 producing regions. 3. There are exactly four
Crop-3 producing regions, which also produce Crop-4 but not Crop-2. 4. Some Crop-3
producing regions produce Crop-1, but not high quality Crop-2.
11. How many low quality Crop-1 producing regions are either high quality Crop-4 producing
regions or medium quality Crop-3 producing regions? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Zero
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12. How many high quality Crop-1 producing regions are low quality Crop-3 producing
regions? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Zero
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Answer the following questions based on the information given below: In a sports event, six
teams (A, B, C, D, E and F) are competing against each other. Matches are scheduled in two
stages. Each team plays three matches in stage – I and two matches in Stage – II. No team
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plays against the same team more than once in the event. No ties are permitted in any of the
matches. The observations after the completion of Stage – I and Stage – II are as given below.
Stage-I:
• O e tea o all the th ee at hes.
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• T o tea s lost all the at hes.

• D lost to A ut o agai st C a d F.
• E lost to B ut o agai st C a d F.
• B lost at least o e at h.
• F did ot pla against the top team of Stage-I.
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Stage-II:
• The leade of “tage-I lost the next two matches.
• Of the t o tea s at the otto afte “tage-I, one team won both matches, while the other lost both
matches.
• O e o e tea lost oth at hes i “tage-II.
13. The two teams that defeated the leader of Stage-I

are: (1) F & D (2) E & F (3) B & D (4) E & D (5) F & D
14. The only team(s) that won both matches in Stage-II is

(are): (1) B (2) E & F (3) A, E & F (4) B, E & F (5) B & F
15. The teams that won exactly two matches in the event
are: (1) A, D & F (2) D & E (3) E & F (4) D, E & F (5) D & F
16. The team(s) with the most wins in the event is

(are): (1) A (2) A & C (3) F (4) E (5) B & E
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Section 2 DI LR
Logical Reasoning
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Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below: Two traders, Harshit and
Dhara, were involved in the buying and selling of MCS shares over five trading days. At the
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beginning of the first day, the MCS share was priced at Rs 100, while at the end of the fifth day
it was priced at Rs 110. At the end of each day, the MCS share price either went up by Rs 10,
or else, it came down by Rs 10. Both Harshit and Dhara took buying and selling decisions at the
end of each trading day. The beginning price of MCS share on a given day was the same as
the ending price of the previous day. Harshit and Dhara started with the same number of shares
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and amount of cash, and had enough of both. Below are some additional facts about how
Harshit and Dhara traded over the five trading days. Each day if the price went up, Harshit sold
10 shares of MCS at the closing price. On the other hand, each day if the price went down, he
bought 10 shares at the closing price. 2 If on any day, the closing price was above Rs 110, then
Dhara sold 10 shares of MCS, while if it was below Rs 90, he bought 10 shares, all at the
closing price.
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17. If Harshit sold 10 shares of MCS on three consecutive days, while Dhara sold 10 shares
only once during the five days, what was the price of MCS at the end of day 3? (1) Rs 90 (2) Rs
100 (3) Rs 110 (4) Rs 120 (5) Rs 130
18. If Harshit ended up with Rs 1300 more cash than Dhara at the end of day 5, what was the
price of MCS share at the end of day 4? (1) Rs 90 (2) Rs 100 (3) Rs 110 (4) Rs 120 (5) Not
uniquely determinable
19. If Dhara ended up with 20 more shares than Harshit at the end of day 5, what was the price
of the share at the end of day 3? (1) Rs 90 (2) Rs 100 (3) Rs 110 (4) Rs 120 (5) Rs 130
20. What could have been the maximum possible increase in combined cash balance of Harshit and
Dhara at the end of the fifth day? (1) Rs 3700 (2) Rs 4000 (3) Rs 4700 (4) Rs 5000 (5) Rs 6000
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Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below: Mathematicians are assigned
a number called Zohos number (named after the famous mathematician, Paul Zohos). Only
Paul Zohos himself has an Zohos number of zero. Any mathematician who has written a
research paper with Zohos has an Zohos number of 1. For other mathematicians, the
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calculation of his/ her Zohos number is illustrated below: Suppose that a mathematician X has
co-authored papers with several other mathematicians. From among them, mathematician Y
has the smallest Zohos number. Let the Zohos number of Y be y. Then X has an Zohos number
of y+1 . Hence any mathematician with no co-authorship chain connected to Zohos has an
Zohos number of infinity. In a seven day long mini-conference organized in memory of Paul
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Zohos, a close group of eight mathematicians, call them A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, discussed
some research problems. At the beginning of the conference, A was the only participant who
had an infinite Zohos number. Nobody had an Zohos number less than that of F.
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1 On the third day of the conference F co-authored a paper jointly with A and C. This reduced
the average Zohos number of the group of eight mathematicians to 3. The Zohos numbers of B,
D, E, G and H remained unchanged with the writing of this paper. Further, no other
co-authorship among any three members would have reduced the average Zohos number of
the group of eight to as low as 3. 2 At the end of the third day, five members of this group had
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identical Zohos numbers while the other three had Zohos numbers distinct from each other. 3
On the fifth day, E co-authored a paper with F which reduced the group's average Zohos
number by 0.5. The Zohos numbers of the remaining six were unchanged with the writing of this
paper. 4 No other paper was written during the conference.
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21. How many participants in the conference did not change their Zohos number during the
conference? Type in the answer here: ____
22. The person having the largest Zohos number at the end of the conference must have had
Zohos number (at that time): Type in the answer here: ____
23. How many participants had the same Zohos number at the beginning of the
conference? Type in the answer here: ____
24. The Zohos number of C at the end of the conference
was: Type in the answer here: ____
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Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Coach John sat with the
score cards of Indian players from the 3 games in a one-day cricket tournament where the
same set of players played for India and all the major batsmen got out. John summarized the
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batting performance through a table, one column for each game. In each column, the three
entries communicate the number of runs scored by the three top scores from India. The last row
in the table denotes the percentage of the total score that was scored by the top three Indian
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scorers in that game. No two players score the same number of runs in the same game. John
also calculated two batting indices for each player based on his scores in the tournaments; the
R-index of a batsman is the difference between his highest and lowest scores in the 3 games
while the M-index is the middle number, if his scores are arranged in a non-increasing order.
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Player Pakistan South Africa Australia Yuvraj 40 87 Virender 130 Kaif 28

51 Saurav 75 50 Rahul 49 55 Percentage 90% 70% 80%
25. For how many Indian players is it possible to calculate the exact
M-index? (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) More than 2
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26. Among the players mentioned, who can have the lowest R-index from the
tournament? (1) Only Kaif, Rahul or Yuvraj (2) Only Kaif or Rahul (3) Only Kaif or
Yuvraj (4) Only Kaif
27. How many players among those listed definitely scored less than Yuvraj in the
tournament? (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) More than 2
28. Which of the players had the best M-index from the
tournament? (1) Rahul (2) Saurav (3) Virender (4) Yuvraj
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60
Answer the following questions based on the information given below: For admission to various
affiliated colleges, a university conducts a written test with four different sections, each with a
maximum of 50 marks. The following table gives the aggregate as well as the sectional cut-off
marks fixed by six different colleges affiliated to the university. A student will get admission only
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if he/she gets marks greater than or equal to the cut-off marks in each of the sections and
his/her aggregate marks are at least equal to the aggregate cut-off marks as specified by the
college.
College
Sectional Cut – off Marks A. Quant B. Verbal C. Logic D. DI Aggregate Cut-off Marks
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College 1 42 42 42 176 College 2 45 45 175 College 3 46 171 College 4 43 45 178 College 5
45 43 180 College 6 41 44 176
29. Ramaya got calls from all colleges. What could be the minimum aggregate marks obtained
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by her? Type in the answer here: ____
30. Gauri got calls from two colleges. What could be the minimum marks obtained by him in a
section? Type in the answer here: ____
31. Minakshi did not get a call from even a single college. What could be the maximum
aggregate marks obtained by him? Type in the answer here: ____
32. What is the maximum score required by a Cetking student in Section D so that student clear
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all colleges cut-off? Type in the answer here: ____

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Section 3
Quant
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1. A person who has a certain amount with him goes to market. He can buy 50 oranges or 40
mangoes. He retains 10% of the amount for taxi fares and buys 20 mangoes and of the balance
he purchases oranges. Number of oranges he can purchase is a. 36 b. 40 c. 15 d. 20
2. 2/5 of the voters promise to vote for P and the rest promised to vote for Q. Of these, on the
last day 15% of the voters went back of their promise to vote for P and 25% of voters went back
of their promise to vote for Q, and P lost by 2 votes. Then the total number of voters is Type in
3. A stockist wants to make some profit by selling sugar. He contemplates about various
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methods . Which of the following would maximise his profit? I. Sell sugar at 10% profit. II. Use
900 g of weight instead of 1 kg. III. Mix 10% impurities in sugar and selling sugar at cost price.
IV. Increase the price by 5% and reduce weights by 5%. a. I or III b. II c. II, III and IV d. Profits
are same
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4. For the product n(n + 1)(2n + 1), n ∈ N, which one of the following is not necessarily
true? a. It is even b. Divisible by 3 c. Divisible by the sum of the square of first n natural
numbers d. Never divisible by 237
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5. ABCD is a square of area 4 with diagonals AC and BD, dividing square into 4 congruent
triangles. Figure looks like four non-over lapping triangles. Then the sum of the perimeters of
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the triangles is a. 8 + √ . 8 + √ . + √ d. + √
6. PQRS is a square. SR is a tangent (at point S) to the circle with centre O and TR = OS. Then the ratio
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of area of the circle to the area of the square is
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a. π/ b. 11/7 . /π d. 7/11
7. From a circular sheet of paper with a radius 20 cm, four circles of radius 5 cm each are cut
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out. What is the ratio of the uncut to the cut portion? a.1 : 3 b.4 : 1 c.3 : 1 d.4 : 3
8. A wooden box (open at the top) of thickness 0.5 cm, length 21 cm, width 11 cm and height 6
cm is painted on the inside. The expenses of painting are Rs. 70. What is the rate of painting
per square centimetres? a. Re 0.7 b. Re 0.5 c. Re 0.1 d. Re 0.2
9. The cost of diamond varies directly as the square of its weight. Once, this diamond broke into
four pieces with weights in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 : 4. When the pieces were sold, the merchant got
Rs. 70,000 less. Find the original price of the diamond. Type in the answer here: ____
10. . The figure shows the rectangle ABCD with a semicircle and a circle inscribed inside in it as
shown. What is the ratio of the area of the circle to that of the semicircle? a. (√2 – 1)2 : 1 b. 2(√2
– 1) 2 : 1 c. √2 – 1) 2 : 2 d. None of these
11. In a mile race, Akshay can be given a start of 128 m by Bhairav. If Bhairav can give
Chinmay a start of 4 m in a 100 m dash, then who out of Akshay and Chinmay will win a race of
one and half miles, and what will be the final lead given by the winner to the loser? (One mile is
1,600 m.) a. Akshay, 1/12 mile b. Chinmay, 1/32 mile c. Akshay, 1/24 mile d. Chinmay, 1/16
mile
12. Two liquids A and B are in the ratio 5 : 1 in container 1 and 1 : 3 in container 2. In what ratio
should the contents of the two containers be mixed so as to obtain a mixture of A and B in the
ratio 1 : 1? a.2 : 3 b.4 : 3
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c.3 : 2 d.3 : 4
13. If x2 + y2 = 0.1 and |x – y| = 0.2, then |x| + |y| is equal to a. 0.3 b. 0.4 c. 0.2 d. 0.6
14. ABCD is a rhombus with the diagonals AC and BD intersecting at the origin on the x-y
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plane. The equation of the straight line AD is x + y = 1. What is the equation of BC? a.x + y = –1
b. x – y = –1 c.x + y = 1 d. None of these
15. The set of all positive integers is the union of two disjoint subsets: {f(1), f(2), ..., f(n), ...} and
{g(1), g(2), ..., g(n), ...}, where f(1) < f(2) < ... < f(n) ..., and g(1) < g(2) < ... < g(n) ..., and g(n) =
f(f(n)) + 1 for all . What is the value of g(1)? a. 0 b. 2 c. 1 d. Cannot be determined
16. For all non-negative integers x and y, f(x, y) is defined as below. f(0, y) = y + 1 f(x + 1, 0) =
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f(x, 1) f(x + 1, y + 1) = f(x, f(x + 1, y)). Then what is the value of f(1, 2)? Type in the answer
here: ____
17. In the figure above, AB = BC = CD = DE = EF = FG = GA. Then ∠DAE is approximately a.
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15° b. 20° c. 30° d. 25°
18. A water tank has three taps A, B, and C. A fills four buckets in 24 mins, B fills 8 buckets in 1
hour and C fills 2 buckets in 20 minutes. If all the taps are opened together a full tank is emptied
in 2 hours. If a bucket can hold 5 litres of water, what is the capacity of the tank in litres? Type
in the answer here: ____
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19. Shyam went from Delhi to Shimla via Chandigarh by car. The distance from Delhi to
Chandigarh is 3⁄4 times the distance from Chandigarh to Shimla. The average speed from Delhi
to Chandigarh was half as much again as that from Chandigarh to Shimla. If the average speed
for the entire journey was 49 kmph. What was the average speed from Chandigarh to Shimla?
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(b) 63 kmph (c) 42
kmph (d) None of
these
20. Fourth term of an arithmetic progression is 8. What is the sum of the first 7 terms of the
arithmetic progression? (a) 7 (b) 64 (c) 56 (d) Cannot be determined
21. Two towns A and B are 100 km apart. A school is to be built for 100 students of town B and
30 students of Town A. Expenditure on transport is Rs. 1.20 per km per student. If the total
expenditure on transport by all 130 students is to be as small as possible, then the school
should be built at (a) 33 km from Town A. (b) 33 km from Town B (c) Town A (d) Town B
22. One man can do as much work in one day as a woman can do in 2 days. A child does one
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third the work in a day as a woman. If an estate-owner hires 39 pairs of hands, men, women
and children in the ratio 6 : 5 : 2 and pays them in all Rs. 1113 at the end of the days work.
What must the daily wages of a child be, if the wages are proportional to the amount of work
done? (a) Rs.14 (b) Rs.5 (c) Rs.20 (d) Rs.7
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23. Let un+1 = 2un + 1(n=0,1,2,..) and un = 0. Then u10
nearest to
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24. Let x < 0.50, 0 < y < 1, z > 1. Given a set of numbers, the middle number, when they are
arranged in ascending order, is called the median. So the median of the numbers x, y, and z
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would be (a) less than one (b) between 0 and 1 (c) greater than 1 (d) cannot say
25. The maximum possible value of y = min (1/2 – 3x2/4, 5x2/4) for the range 0 < x
< 1 is (a) 1/3 (b) 1/2 (c) 5/27 (d) 5/16
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26. Let x < 0, 0 < y < 1, z > 1. Which of the following may be
false? (a) (x2 – z2) has to be positive. (b) yz can be less than
one. (c) xy can never be zero. (d) (y2 – z2) is always negative.
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27. A young girl counted in the following way on the fingers of her left hand. She started calling
the thumb 1, the index finger 2, middle finger 3, ring finger 4, little finger 5, then reversed
direction, calling the ring finger 6, middle finger 7, index finger 8, thumb 9, then back to the
index finger for 10, middle finger for 11, and so on. She counted up to 1994. She ended on her.
(a) thumb (b) index finger (c) middle finger (d) ring finger
28. Consider the set S = {1, 2, 3, . . ., 1000}. How many arithmetic progressions can be formed
from the elements of S that start with 1 and end with 1000 and have at least 3 elements? (1) 3
(2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 7
29. The number of solutions of the equation 2x + y = 40 where both x and y are positive
integers and

≤ is: Type in the answer here: ____
30. If logyx = (a . logzy) = (b . logxz) = ab, then which of the following pairs of values for (a, b) is
not possible?
(1) (-2, 1/2) (2) (1, 1) (3) (π, 1/π) (4) (2, 2)
31. When you reverse the digits of the number 13, the number increases by 18. How many
other two digit numbers increase by 18 when their digits are reversed?
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32. Survey was conducted of 100 people to find out whether they had read recent issues of
Golmal, a monthly magazine. The summarized information regarding readership in 3 months is
given below: Only September: 18; September but not August: 23; September and July: 8;
September: 28; July: 48; July and August: 10; None of the three months: 24. What is the
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number of surveyed people who have read exactly two consecutive issues (out of the three)?
(1) 7 (2) 9 (3) 12 (4) 14
33. Amol was asked to calculate the arithmetic mean of 10 positive integers, each of which had
2 digits. By mistake, he interchanged the 2 digits, say a and b, in one of these 10 integers. As a
result, his answer for the arithmetic mean was 1.8 more than what it should have been. Then b
– a equals 1
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34. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower 30 m high, from two points on the level ground
on its opposite sides are 45 degrees and 60 degrees. What is the distance between the two
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points? (1) 30 (2) 51.96
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(3) 47.32
(4) 81.96
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Verbal 1. According to popular wisdom, language is a cultural artifact or cultural invention or it is
part of the leaning process or it is unique to Homo sapiens. But option(4) has been stated as
the viewpoint of the og iti e esea he s as a e see i the li es La guage is a o ple spe ialized......
odule . The autho also ag ees ith the og iti e esea he s ie as he o fi s to the view that language
comes by instinct. He further corroborates this by saying that people know how to talk in the
same manner as spiders know how to spin the web.
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2. “pide s k o ho to spi e s highlights the i he e t ualities of li i g spe ies. This a alog can be
replaced i a si ila a Bees olle ti g e ta hi h is also a pa t of thei i a e t ait. Options(1), (3), (4)
mention traits which are acquired over a period of time by putting in some kind of effort in
order to be adept at them.
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3. 2 Refer to the last sente e of the d pa ag aph of the passage. It states that I atu e s tale t
show, we are simply a species of primate with our own act, a knack for communicating
information a out ho did hat to ho odulati g the sou ds e ake he e e hale . He e, communicating
with each other through voice modulation is the unique quality of human beings as per the
passage.
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4. 1 Refer to the 3rd paragraph of the passage where the author says that the researchers
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believe that the complexity of language is part of our biological birthright. He further illustrates
the
esea he s poi t of ie that it a ot e taught. The autho st e gthe s this ie uoti g Oscar Wilde,
making option(1) as the correct answer option. The rest of the options are not mentioned in
the passage.
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5. 4 Throughout the passage, the author is talking about language as a type of instinct that is
existent is human beings and not any specific attribute or skill that is learnt by them over a
period of time. In the first paragraph, the author lai s But I p efe the ad ittedl uai t te i sti t . “i ila l
i the last pa ag aph of the passage, the autho o ludes sa i g that Fi all , si e language is the
product of a well engineered biological instinct, we shall see that it is not the nutty
a el of o ke s that e te tai e olu ists ake it out to e .
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6. 2. only option 2 is true. (2) Used as an analogy for healthy human

beings.
7. b US was more concerned with 'order' than with reforms of any kind. 8. d Latin Americans
regarded it as economic imperialism. 9. a The Act of Bogota was most closely related to the
Marshall Plan or Latin America. 10. c US preferred dictatorship to the spread of communism
in Latin America. 11. b The President's initiative to present financial economic aid to Latin
America has been presented as an example of his efforts to mend his 'Latin Ameriacn
fences'. Thus he was not acting to continue to keep communism from intruding the country.
12. a The passage states that speeding up social reforms implied a risk of revolt, which could
be avoided by maintaining status quo.
13. b The diverse cultural and socio-economic factors are a major problem affecting the Indian education
system. (a) (c) and (d) are not stated in the passage. 14. d 'Grizzled mandarins' refers to bureaucrats. It
would be unfair to label the mandarins as (a), (b) or (c). 15. c Those in charge of education are totally out
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of touch with the ground reality. This point is given in the fourth paragraph. Hence, it will not be
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necessary to mark (a), (b) or (d) as the answer.
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16. a The author advocates decentralizing education planning and implementation to improve
the education system. This point is given in the fourth paragraph. Hence, it will not be
necessary to mark (b), (c) or (d) as the answer. 17. d None of the given statements can be
related to primary education, on the basis of the passage. 18. a The author advocates greater
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community involvement for successful implementation of education policy. This point is given in
the fourth paragraph. We are not sure about others.
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19. 4. None of the following options fits to be the main idea of the
passage
20. I pa a u e Ea h is to ... a d the fu the i pa a I te al ... These li es i pa as and 3 talk about

external conflict being psychologically empty, and no psychological problems involved
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therein. This makes internal conflicts psychologically interesting.
21. I pa ag aph , efe to li e , Chess a e ps hologi all ..... atio all . A o di g to the author, only
when someone acts irrationally will that act be considered psychologically interesting and out
of the given choices only option (2) qualifies, wherein adopting a defensive strategy against an
aggressive opponent will be irrational. Option (3) is incorrect as the choice that the
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mountaineer would make would depend on external conditions and there would not be any
internal conflicts as such, and the decisions that he would need to make would have to be
rational.
22. 2 In the first paragraph refer to line 4- Thus the i te ests of the pla e s a e ge e all i conflict.
Choi e a also e o e t ut hoi e is o e app op iate as it is stated di e tl i the passage whereas
choice (3) is an inference. Choice (1) is a consequence of applying game theory to a situation,
not one of its pre-requisites, Therefore option 4 is also ruled out.
23. 3 In paragraph 4 lines 3 onwards- The effo t... ge ui e A o di g to this, i ase of the
detective , if the criminal remains passive, there is no conflict, whereas the scientist has to
unravel the se ets of atu e hi h is passi e dedu tio .
24. 1. Its given in the last line of the 3rd paragraph and starting of 4th paragraph. Games like
Tic-tac- toe is played in a perfectly rational manner is psychologically no more interesting than
chess which is played not quite rationally.
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25. This question asks you to choose the statement that best describes the Essence or
structure of the passage. The first two sentences of the passage give you information about
children and walking. In the third sentence, the author asserts that the idea of walking when the
time is right should be applied to the activity of teaching children to read. The fourth sentence
tells what might happen if the idea were applied. Choice A accurately describes the Essence of
the paragraph.
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26. B shows the problem faced by a researcher, D. elaborates why this happens, A continues
with it a d C., usi g ho e e i t odu es the a out of the p o le . BDAC is correct answer.
27. Options 1 and 3 are very generalized statements. Option 2 is a repetition of the idea
presented in the beginning of the paragraph. The para talks about how developed countries
indulge in trade p ote tio is as a o e agai st Chi a a d I dia s e o o i ise , u de the guise of li ate
concern. Option 4 and 5 talk about the same thing but 4 goes along with the subtle suggestive
tone of the pa a hile is o e u t i its a usatio of pe pet ato s of i e uit . Co e t a s e is .
28. The best answer for this question is D. Several pieces of explicitly stated information point
to D as the best answer. The first sentence of the passage states that, in one respect, local
property taxes
a e supe io to state ta es as a a of fi a i g pu li s hools. The se o d se te e states hat this
superiority or advantage is in helping schools to avoid competition for funding. The third and
fourth sentences tell more about this advantage.
29. In the paragraph the author suggests why the doctor loses some of his patients. Option 5
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can be easil eli i ated as the p o ou these has o a te edent in the para. Option 3 & 4 are
farfetched as the a e to do ith the do to s attitude to a ds the p o le , hi h the pa a does ot i di
ate in any way. Option 1 can also be done away with as it suggests those patients who fail to
speak up and not about those who leave his treatment, as indicated in the para. Option 2 fits in
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perfectly as it speaks of those who have no other alternative but to seek his treatment. Correct
answer is 2.
30. The use of o d athe i B. i di ates that it should follo . D. states that the competition
depends on five basic competitive forces, A. continues with the same idea. C. states that
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not all industries have the same potential this is elaborated in 6. Correct answer is BDAC.
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31. This question asks you to identify the essence in writing the whole passage. The author
does not plainly state the essence; the essence must be determined on the basis of the
information in the passage a d ho that i fo atio is o ga ized. The fi st t o se te es lassif
“hakespea e s pla s into fou atego ies a d offe a e pla atio , e do sed so e s hola s. Note that up
to this point in the passage, you know only that the author is concerned about the kinds of plays
Shakespeare wrote and with explaining why he may have written them when he did. The o d
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But in the sixth sentence of the passage informs you that the passage is about to change
direction. The author states that there is evidence to suggest that the first explanation may be
wrong. The ESSENCE of the passage, then, is not simply to describe the kinds of plays
Shakespeare wrote, but rather to
efute the e pla atio att i uted to so e s hola s p o idi g e ide e to suggest it a ot e true. This
purpose is described in choice B.
C
32. ADB is a clear sequence. So is CE. A has a suitable opening with A few months ago. The
invitation and the response follow in DB. She in E has a clear reference to One senior in C.
Correct answer is ADBCE.
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33. The para is a description of the Jewry settlement,. (4) can be eliminated as it brings in a
hint of skepticism. (3) is a mere repetition of an idea already discussed in the para (that of
jews being tolerant). (5) can also be eliminated as it is brings an alien concept – that of Matta
he s popularity with the tourists . Between (1) and (2), we will eliminate (1) as it has a more
conclusive tone, which is not in sync with the descriptive nature of the paragraph. Correct
answer is 2.
34. CA gives the sequence of action. BD follows with reaction. The outcome is in E. CA
outlines the consecutive bids. BD gives Mr. Shah's statements. Moreover in D adds to B.
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Correct answer is CABDE.
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1. 2 In 1999, total number of Naya mixer-grinder = 124 Number of Naya mixer-grinder
disposed = 20% of 30 = 6 Number of mixtures bought 124 = [50 + 24] 50 2. 3 Number of
Naya mixer-grinder disposed in 1999 ⇒ 6 Number of Naya mixer-grinder disposed in 2000 ⇒
10 Total disposed by end of 2000 = 16 3. 4 Initial number of Purana mixer-grinder not
available, hence cannot be determined. 4. 1 20 Purana mixer-grinder were purchased in
1999.
5. 4 Thailand and Japan (Maximum difference of 4 ranks (5 – 1) =

4) 6. 1 China (Maximum difference between 2 parameter is 2) 7. 2
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Japan (Maximum difference of 4) 8. 4 Japan and Malaysia
(Inferring from question 17)
9. 2 Only R9 10. 4 Statement (1) is not satisfied by R9. Statement (2) is not satisfied R2 &
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R3 Statement (3) is incorrect as there are five such region R1, R2, R3, R4 & R11.
Statement (4) is correct. 11. 3 All three R9, R10, R11. 12. R1 and R4 are two common in
crop 1 and crop3
The given basic information can be collated as below: (i) Six teams – A, B, C, D, E, F (ii)
Matches scheduled in two stages – I & II. (ii) No team plays against the same team more than
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once. (iv) No ties permitted. As per the instructions given for stage – I, we can reach the
following conclusions: (a) As B lost at least one match, hence A won all the 3 matches. (b) The
two teams who lost all the matches cannot be A (as explained above), cannot be B (E lost to
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B), cannot be D (D won against C & F). Hence, the two teams must be C and F. (c) F did not
play against the top team (i.e. A). We get the following table for stage – I. (To be read from
rows)
ABCDEFAXWWWBLXWWCLXLLDWXW
ELWXXFLLLX
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As per the instructions given for Stage-II, we can reach the following conclusions. (d) A lost
both its matches against E and F. (e) F won against A, hence is the bottom team (out of C &
F) which won both the matches ⇒ F won against C as well. This also means that C lost both
its matches against B and F. (f) Apart from A and C, one more team lost both the matches in
Stage-II. That team can neither be E (A lost to E), nor B (as C lost to B), nor F (as F won both
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its matches). Hence, the team must be D. We get the following table for Stage-II.
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ABCDEFAXLLBXWWCLXLDLXLEWWX

F W W X 13. 2 E & F defeated A. [Please note that in this question option (1) and
(5) were the same] 14. 4 B, E & F won both the matches in Stage-II. 15. 5 D & F won
exactly two matches in the event. 16. 5 B & E has most wins, 4 each.

17. 3 Day 1 Day 2 Day 3 Day 4 Day 5 Start
price 100 90 100 110 120 End price 90 100 110
120 110 In the above table Harshit sold shares on Day 2, Day 3 and Day 4 whereas Dhara sold
shares on Day 4 only. Therefore at the end of day 3 the price of Share is Rs. 110.
18. 2 Day 1 Day 2 Day 3 Day 4 Day 5 Start price 100 90 100 110 100 End price 90 100 110
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100 100 Let initial amount with Harshit and Dhara is y. Total Money with Harshit = y - 900 +
1000 + 1100 + 1200 - 1100 = y + 1300 Total money with Dhara = y Therefore Harshit ended up
with Rs.1300 more cash than Dhara. Therefore at the end of day 4 the price of Share is Rs.
100.
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19. 1 Day 1 Day 2 Day 3 Day 4 Day 5 Start price 100 90 80 90 100 End price 90 80 90 100 110
Assume initial number of share with Harshit and Dhara is x. In the above table Harshit buy 10
share each on day 1, day 2 and sold 10 share on day 3, day 4 and day 5.
∴ Total shares with Harshit is x - 10. In the above table Dhara buy shares only on day 2. ∴
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Total shares with Dhara is x + 10. ∴ Dhara had 20 shares more then Harshit. Therefore at the
end of day 3 the price of share is Rs. 90.
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20. 4 Day 1 Day 2 Day 3 Day 4 Day 5 Start price 100 110 120 130 120 End price 110 120 130
120 110 Let initial amount with Harshit and Dhara is Y. Harshit sold shares on Day 1, Day 2,
Day 3 whereas buys shares on Day 4 and Day 5. Total Money with Harshit is = Y + 110 × 10 +
120 × 10 + 130 × 10 - 120 × 10 - 110 × 10 = Y + 1300 Total money with Dhara = Y + 1200 Total
money with Dhara = Y + 120 × 10 + 130 × 10 + 120 × 10 = Y + 3700 Total money with Dhara &
Harshit = 2Y + 5000. Therefore maximum possible increase is 5000.
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As only Paul Zohos was having an Zohos number of zero so the minimum Zohos number
among A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H should be 1 or greater than one. At the end of the third day F
coauthored a paper with A and C. F had the minimum Zohos number among the 8 people. So if
F's Zohos number is y, then A and C's Zohos number should change to (y + 1) after third day.
As A and C decreased the average by maximum possible extent, it means C had the
second-height Zohos number among all eight, as A had an Zohos number of infinity. Suppose
Zohos numbers of A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H are y + 1, b, y + 1, c, d, e, y, g, h respectively at the
end of third day. ∴ (y + 1 + b + y + 1 + c + d + e + y + g + h) = 24 = (3 × 8) 3y + 2 + b + d + e +
g + h = 24 When E co-authored with F, the average Zohos number reduced again, it means, E's
Zohos number was not the same with A & C initially. As at the end of third day, 5 people had
same Zohos number, they should be A, C and any 3 out of B, D, G, H. Suppose those 3 people
are B, D, G. Then (3y + 2 + y + + + + + + e + h = + h + e = ... i On the fifth day E co-authored a
paper with F and hence Zohos number of E changed to (y + 1). Also the average decreased by
0.5 that means the total decreased by Hence, e - (y + 1) = 4 ⇒ e – y = 5 Putting the value of e
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in equation (i), we get 6y + h + (5 + y) = 19 7y + h = 14
Only possible value of y = 1 as h cannot be zero. So after 3rd round Zohos number of A, C, E,
F were 2, 2, 6, 1 respectively.
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21. 4 Only A, C, E changed their Zohos number, rest 5 did not change their Zohos number.
22. 2 At the end of conference 6 people including E were having an Zohos number of 2 and
F was having 1 as Zohos number. So 8th person was having an Zohos number of [20 – (2 ×
6 + 1)] = 7 23. 2 As at the end of 3rd round 5 people were having same Zohos number. A
and C changed their Zohos number after coauthoring with F. So, the other 3 would have
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same Zohos number in the beginning. 24. 2 2Player Pakistan South Africa Australia
Yuvraj 40 <49 87 Virender 130 <49 <48 Kaif 28 51 <48 Saurav <22 75 50 Rahul <22 49 55
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Top 3 198 175 192 Total 220 250 240
25. 3
26. 1
27. 2
28. 2
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29. 2 Since Ramaya got calls from all colleges, she has to score marks in each section equal
to at least the maximum of the cut-offs across colleges which means 45, 45, 46 & 45 in section
A, B, C & D respectively. This makes her total to be 181 with which she will clear the overall
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cut-offs of all institutes also.
30. 3 Since we have to minimise the marks in a particular section, we will maximise the marks in other 3
sections. Let us assume that marks obtained in each of the three sections in which we are
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going to maximize the score, is equal to 50. Now, the lowest overall cut-off is 171 & second
lowest is 175. Hence Gauri must have scored at least 175 – (50 + 50 + 50) = 25 marks in the
remaining section. Lets confirm whether he can clear sectional cut-offs also with such a
distribution. On seeing the sectional cut-offs, we conclude what they can be cleared with 50
marks each in section A, B & C and 25 marks in section D, which may enable Charlie to clear
the sectional cut-off of section D for college 1, 2, 3 or 5. Hence answer is 25.
31. 3 Since we have to maximize Minakshi s a ks, let us take the ase alues of a ks i ea h se
tio a d t to edu e that i i u alues to e su e he does t get a all. We oti e that by reducing the
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marks
32. 3 Maximum marks needed by Cetking student to clear all colleges cut-off will be 46
marks as thats the highest cutoff for section D more than any college.
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1. d Let us assume that he has Rs. 100. In this he can buy 50 oranges or 40 mangoes. In other
words, the price of an orange is Rs. 2 and that of a mango is Rs. 2.50. Now if he decides to
keep 10% of his money for taxi fares, he would be left with Rs. 90. Now if he buys 20 mangoes,
he would spend Rs. 50 and will be left with Rs. 40, in which he can buy 20 oranges.
2. a Let there be 100 voters in all. So initially there were 40 of these who promised to vote for
P, while 60 of them promised to vote for Q. On the last day, (15% of 40) = 6 voters shifted their
interest from P to Q and (25% of 60) = 15 voters shifted their interest from Q to P. So finally, P
would end up getting (40 – 6 + 15) = 49 votes and Q would end up getting (60 – 15 + 6) = 51
votes. Hence, margin of victory for Q = (51 – 49) = 2, which matches the data given in the
question. Hence, there were 100 voters in all.
3. b Profit percentage in each case is

(i) 10% (ii) (100 × 100)/ 900 = 100/9%
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(iii) ( 100 - 100 / 1.1 ) / (100/1.1) =
10% (iv) (100 x 100) / 9 = 200/19%
4. d Since n(n + 1) forms two consecutive integers, one of them will be even and hence the
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product will always be even. Also the sum of the squares of first n natural numbers is given by
n(n+1)(2n+1)/6. Hence, our product will always be divisible by this. Also you will find that the
product is always divisible by 3 (you can use any value of n to verify this). However, we can
find that the option (d) is not necessarily true. Only under certain situation does it hold good.
e.g. if n = 118, (2n + 1) = 237 or if n = 236, then (n + 1) = 237 or if n itself is 237, etc.
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5. The sum of the perimeters of the triangles = (Perimetes of the square) + 2 × (Sum of its
diagonals). This is so because the bases of each triangle will be counted once. But since each
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of the other two sides of the triangles is common to two triangles, it will be counted twice.
Since area of the square = 4, its side = a d pe i ete = 8. Also its diago al = √ . “o the e ui ed pe
i ete = 8 + × √ = 8 + √ .
6. a I the gi e figu e, the a ea of the i le = π 2 . To find the area of the circle, we need to find the
length of the side of the square. We know that OR = OT + TR = OT + OS = 2r. So in the
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right-angled triangle ORS, we have OR = 2r, OS = r. So SR2 = OR2 – OS2. But SR2 = Area of
the square = 4r2 – r2 = 3r2. “o the e ui ed atio = π/ .
7. A ea of the o igi al pape = π = π . The total ut po tio a ea = π = π . Therefore, area of the

uncut (shaded) portion = (400 – = π . He e, the e ui ed atio =
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π:π=:.
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8. As it can be seen from the diagram, because of the thickness of the wall, the dimensions of
the inside of the box is as follows: length = (21 – 0.5 – 0.5) = 20 cm, width = (11 – 0.5 – 0.5) =
10 cm and height = (6 – 0.5) = 5.5. Total number of faces to be painted = 4 walls + one base
(as it is open from the top). The dimensions of two of the walls = (10 × 5.5), that of the
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remaining two walls = (20 × 5.5) and that of the base = (20 × 10). So the total area to be
painted = 2 × (10 × 5.5) + 2 × (20 × 5.5) + (20 × 10) = 530 cm2. Since the total expense of
painting this area is Rs. 70, the rate of painting = 70/530 = 0.13 = Re 0.1 per sq. cm.
9. c Let the original weight of the diamond be 10x. Hence, its original price will be k(100x2) . . .
where k is a constant. The weights of the pieces after breaking are x, 2x, 3x and 4x. Therefore,
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their prices will be kx2, 4kx2, 9kx2 and 16kx2. So the total price of the pieces = (1 + 4 + 9 +
16)kx2 = 30kx2. Hence, the difference in the price of the original diamond and its pieces =
100kx2 – 30kx2 = 70kx2 = 70000. Hence, kx2 = 1000 and the original price = 100kx2 = 100 × 1000
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= 100000 = Rs. 1 lakh.
10. Let radius of the semicircle be R and radius of the circle be r. Let P be the centre of
semicircle and Q e the e t e of the i le. D a Q“ pa allel to BC. No , ∆∆ PQ“ ~ PBC ∴= PQ / PB =
QS/ BC ⇒(R+ r) / √ R = (R – r) /R ⇒ R + r = √ R - √ r ⇒ r(1 + √ )= R(√ - 1) ⇒ r = R (√ - 1) / (√ +
1) x (√ - 1) / (√ - 1) ⇒ r = R (√ - 1)2 ‘e ui ed ‘atio = πr2 / πR2 X 2 = π‘2 (√ - 1)4 / π‘2 X 2 =2(√ - 1) 4 :
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11. . d In a mile race, Akshay can be given a start of 128 m by Bhairav. This means that
Bhairav can afford to start after Akshay has travelled 128 m and still complete one mile with
him. In other words, Bhairav can travel one mile, i.e. 1,600 m in the same time as Akshay can
travel (1600 – 128) = 1,472 m. Hence, the ratio of the speeds of Bhairav and Akshay = Ratio of
the distances travelled by them in the same time = 1900/1472 = 25 : 23. Bhairav can give
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Chinmay a start of 4 miles. This means that in the time Bhairav runs 100 m, Chinmay only runs
96 m. So the ratio of the speeds of Bhairav and Chinmay = 100/96 = 25 : 24. Hence, we have B
: A = 25 : 23 and B : C = 25 : 24. So A : B : C = 23 : 25 : 24. This means that in the time
Chinmay covers 24 m, Akshay only covers 23 m. In other words, Chinmay is faster than
Akshay. So if they race for 1 1⁄2 miles = 2,400 m, Chinmay will complete
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the race first and by this time Aksahy would only complete 2,300 m. In other words, Chinmay
would beat Akshay by 100 m = 1/ 16 mile.
12. d We can solve this by alligation. But while we
alligate, we have to be careful that it has to be done
with respect to any one of the two liquids, viz. either A
or B. We can verify that in both cases, we get the same
result. e.g. the proportion of A in the first vessel is 5/6
and that in the second vessel is 1/4, and we finally
require 1⁄2 parts of A. Similarly, the proportion of B in
the first vessel is 1/6 that in the second vessel is 3/4
and finally we want it to be 1/2. With respect to liquid A.
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13. b x2 + y2 = 0.1 Ix – yI2 = x2 + y2 – 2xy
(0.2)2 = 0.1 – 2xy or 2xy = 0.06 or xy =
0.03 No I I + I I = √ 2 + y2 – = √ . + . IxI +
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IyI = 0.40 Hence, x = 0.3, y = 0.1 or vice
versa.
14. The gradient of the line AD is –1. Coordinates of B are (– 1, 0). Equation of line BC is x
+ y = –1.
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15. b g(1) = f[f(1)] + 1 = 2 . Since f(1) has to be 1, else all the integers will not be covered.
f(n) is the set of odd numbers and g(n) is the set of even numbers.
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16. b f(1, 2) = f(0, f(1, 1)); Now f(1, 1) = f[0, f(1, 0)] = f[0, f(0, 1)] = f[0, 2] = 3 Hence, f(1, 2) = f(0,
3) = 4
17. Let ∠EAD = a. Then ∠AFG = a and also ∠ACB = a. Therefore, ∠CBD = 2a e te io a gle
to ∆ABC . Also ∠CDB = 2a (since CB = CD). Further, ∠FGC = 2a e te io a gle to ∆AFG . “i e
GF = EF, ∠FEG = 2a. Now ∠DCE = ∠DEC = b (say). Then ∠DEF = b – 2a. Note that ∠DCB
= 180 – (a + b). Therefore, in ∆DCB, 8 – (a + b) + 2a + 2a = 180 or b = 3a. Further ∠EFD =
∠EDF = γ sa . The ∠EDC = γ – 2a. If CD and EF meet at P, then ∠FPD = 180 – 5a (because
b = 3a . No i ∆PFD, 8 – 5a + γ + a = 180 or γ = a. Therefore, i ∆EFD, a + γ = 8 o a + 6a = 180
or a = 26 or approximately 25.
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18. b Since a bucket holds 5 litres of water, Tap A discharges 20 litres of water in 24 min or 5/6
litres of water in 1 minute. Tap B discharges 40 litres in 1 hours or 2/3 litres in 1 minute. Tap C
discharges 10 litres in 20 min. or 1⁄2 litres in 1 minute If A, B & C are all opened simultaneously,
total discharge = (5/6 + 2/3 + 1⁄2) = 2 litres in 1 minute. So in 2 hours, the discharge would be
240 litres, which should be the capacity of the tank.
19. c It is clear that the ratio of the distances between (Delhi-Chandigarh) :
(Chandigarh-Shimla) = 3 : 4. The ratio of the speeds between (Delhi-Chandigarh) :
(Chandigarh-Shimla) = 3 : 2. Let the distances be 3x & 4x respectively and speeds be 3y and
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2y. So the time taken will be (x/y) and (2x/y) respectively. Since average speed is given as
(Total Distance) / (Total Time) = (7x)/(x/y + 2x/y) = 7y/3 = 49. Hence y = 21. So the average
speed from Chandigarh to Shimla = 2y = 42 kmph.
20. c HINT : Students please note that you need not apply any formula in this case. The middle
term of an AP is always the average of all the terms. Hence, if we multiply the middle term by
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the number of terms, we should get the sum of all the terms of that AP. In our problem, we have
to find the sum of first 7 terms and we have been given the 4th term (which is the middle term).
Hence the required answer is 8 x 7 = 56.
21. d Option Location Expenditure of Town
A students
Expenditure of Town B students
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Total Expenditure
(a) 33 km from
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A
33x1.2x30 = 1188 67x1.2x100 = 8040 1188+8040 = 9228
(b) 33 km from
B
67x1.2x30= 2412 33x1.2x100 = 3960 2412+3960 = 6372
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(c) Town A 0 100x100x1.2 = 12000

12000
12000
(d) Town B 30x100x1.2 = 3600 0 3600
Hence we find that the least expenditure will be incurred if the school is located in town B. HINT
: Students please note that since there are more number of students from Town B, to minimise
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the total expenditure the school should be located as closer to town B as possible. Ganashakti
22. d It is clear that since there are 39 people in the ratio 6 : 5 : 2, there are 18 men, 15 women
and 6 children. Ratio of the work done by a man : woman = 2 : 1. The ratio of the work done by
a woman : child = 3 : 1. Hence the ratio of work done in a day by a man : a woman : a child = 6
: 3 : 1. So the ratio of the work done in a day by 18 men, 15 women and 6 children would be
(18x6) : (15x3) : (6x1) = 108:45:6. Hence the daily wage of Rs.1113 should be divided in this
ratio. That makes it, Rs.756 for
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men, 315 for women and Rs.42 for children. Hence 6 children earn Rs.42 in a day. So the
daily wage of a child should be equal to 42/6 = Rs.7
23. a U0 = 20 – 1 = 0 U

1 =
21 – 1 = 1 U
2 = 22 – 1 = 3
60
U3 = 23 – 1 = 7 and so on.
∴ U10 = 210 – 1 = 1023.
24. b Since there are two numbers which are < 1 (viz. x & y), it is obvious that the median will
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be less than 1. Hence (c) cannot be the answer. Since x < 0.5 and 0 < y < 1, the median will
not be < 0. Hence the answer is (b) between 0 and 1.
25. d Since, 0 < x < 1, so 0 < x2 < 1 or 0 < 5x2 < 5. Similarly, as 0 < x < 1, so 0 < x2 < 1 or 0 <
3x2/4 < 3/4 or 0 > –3x2/4 > –3/4 or 1⁄2 > (1⁄2 –3x2/4) > 1⁄2 - 3⁄4 i.e. 1⁄2 > 5x2 > -1⁄4. So, we can
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see that 5x2 varies between 0 & 5, while 1⁄2 –3x2/4 varies between 1⁄2 & -1/4. Hence there is a
common zone of 0 to 1⁄2 between the two. Let us check for some key values of x. If x = 0, then
(1⁄2 –3x2/4) > 5x2/4. If x = 1, then (1/2–3x2/4) < 5x2/4. Hence between x = 0 & x = 1, there has to
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be some value of x for which (1⁄2 – 3x2/4) = 5x2/4, and this will be the maximum value of the
given expression. Let us check for the same. If (1⁄2 –3x2/4) = 5x2/4, then 2x2 = 1⁄2. Or x2 = 1/4.
For Or x2 = 1/4, the value of 5x2/4 = 5/16 = (1⁄2 – 3x2/4).
26. a Let us evaluate each option. (b) since 0 < y < 1 and z > 1, yz will always be < 1. (c) Since
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both x & y are not equal to 0, xy will never be 0. (d) y is a positive number < 1 and z is a
positive number > 1, hence (y2 – z2) is always negative. Since, (b), (c) and (d) are always true,
the answer has to be (a). And this can be verified. For eg. If x = -2 and z = 3, then (x2 – z2) = 4 –
9 = -5, not a positive number.
27. b If you were to run two of three cycles of how she is counting, you will observe that the
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number that she counts on thumb are 1, 9, 17, 25 and so on. So it forms a pattern such that all
the numbers that are 1 more than the multiples of 8 are counted on thumb. The closest multiple
of 8 near 1994 is 1992. In other words she would count 1993 on thumb. So she would count
1994 on the index finger.
28. 4 Let number of elements in progression be n, then 1000 = 1 +

(n-1) d ⇒ (n-1) d = 999 = 33 x 37 Possible values of d = 3, 37, 9, 111,
27, 333, 999 Hence 7 progressions.
29. + = ≤ ⇒ y = 40 – 2x Values of x and y that satisfy the equation
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X Y 1 38 2 36 3 34 4 32 5 30 6 28 7 26 8 24 9 22 10 20 11 18

12 16 13 14 ∴ alues of , satisf the e uatio su h that
≤
60
30. 4 logyx = (a . logzy) = (b . logxz) = ab a
=
logyx / logzy and similarly b = logyx / logxz a
x
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b = logyx / logzy x logyx / logxz = (logyx)3 ⇒
ab - a3b3 = 0 Or, a x b (1 –a2b2) = 0 Ab = +- 1
Only option (4) does not satisfy. Hence (4).
31. 2 Let the number be 10x + y so when number is reversed the number because 10y + x. So,
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the number increases by 18 Hence (10y + x) - (10x + y) = 9 (y - x) = 18 y - x = 2 So, the
possible pairs of (x, y) is (3, 1) (4, 2) (5, 3) (6, 4), (7, 5) (8, 6) (9, 7) But we want the number
other than 13 so, there are 6 possible numbers are there i.e. 24, 35, 46, 57, 68, 79. So total
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possible numbers are 6.
32. So, total people reading the newspaper in consecutive months i.e. July and August and
August and Sept. is 2 + 7 = 9 people.
33. 2 Arithmetic mean is more by 1.8 means sum is more by 18. So ba – ab = 18 b > a
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because sum has gone up, e.g. 31 – 13 = 18 Hence, b – a = 2
34. Let OT be te tower. Therefore, Height of tower = OT = 30 m Let A and B be

the two points on the level ground on the opposite side of tower OT. Then,
angle of elevation from A = TAO = 45o and angle of elevation from B = TBO =
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60o Distance between AB = AO + OB = x + y (say) Now, in right triangle ATO,

tan 45o = OT/AO = 30/x => x = 30/tan45 = 30 m and in right traingle BTO tan
60o =OT/OB = 30/y => y = 30/tan60 = 30/√3 = 30√ / = 17.32 m
Hence, the required distance = x + y = 30 + 17.32 =

47.32 m
60
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R
EE
AR
C

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3. The narrative sensibility of Diyab’s travelogue.

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building a bridge or a nuclear reactor. Engineers obviously rely heavily on the

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person standing at intersection e irrespective of whether there is a person standing at

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