Gs Score: PTTS2020/CARC/500

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1 PTTS2020/CARC/500
Contents
1. POLITY + GOVERNANCE + INDIA YEAR BOOK
! Questions ..........................................................................................................01
! Answer Hints ......................................................................................... 18
2. ECONOMY + ECONOMIC SURVEY+ BUDGET) 63

! Questions ..........................................................................................................63
! Answer Hints ....................................................................................................79
3. ENVIRONMENT + GEOGRAPHY
! Questions ........................................................................................................116
! Answer Hints ..................................................................................................131
4. ART & CULTURE

! Questions ........................................................................................................172
! Answer Hints ..................................................................................................180
5. SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

! Questions ........................................................................................................200
! Answer Hints ..................................................................................................215
6. MISCELLANEOUS
! Questions ........................................................................................................255
! Answer Hints ..................................................................................................263

PTTS2020/CARC/500
GENERAL STUDIES
CURRENT AFFAIRS
(POLITY
+ GOVERNANCE
+ INDIA YEAR BOOK)
1 PTTS2020/CARC/500
1. With reference to the 10th Ministerial Meeting Which of the above statements is/are correct?
of Mekong Ganga Cooperation (MGC). (a) 1 only
Consider the following statements: (b) 1 and 2 only
1. The new MGC Plan of Action envisages (c) 3 only

project-based cooperation in areas like (d) 1, 2 and 3
science & technology, skill development, and
4. Which of the following countries are not
capacity building.
the members of Quadrilateral Coordination
2. It was held in Bangkok, Thailand. Group (QCG)?
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1. USA

2. Russia
(a) 1 only
3. India
(b) 2 only 4. Afghanistan
5. Pakistan
(c) Both 1and 2
6. China
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(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
2. Match the following: (a) 1 and 6 only
List I List II (b) 2 and 3 only
A. Kihoto Hollohan 1. Police reforms Judgment (c) 2 and 5 only
B. K.S. Puttaswamy 2. Tenth Schedule
O (d) 4 and 6 only
Judgment
C. Prakash Singh 3. Constitutinal 5. An Empowered Expert Committee (EEC)
Judgment Validity of recommended considering 15 Public
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Aadhar institutions and 15 Private institutions for
giving status of Institutions of Eminence.
Select the correct answer using the code given Who was the Chairperson of this Committee?
below:
(a) T.S.R. Subramanian
A B C (b) N.K. Singh
(a) 3 1 2 (c) Dr. K Kasturirangan
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(b) 2 3 1 (d) N Gopalaswami

(c) 1 2 3
6. Consider the following statements regarding
(d) 1 3 2 Common Service Centres(CSCs):
1. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Rural
3. The 26th round of negotiations for the Regional Development.
Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) 2. These centers act as the access points for the
have concluded recently. In this context, delivery of various digital services to villages
consider the following statements: in India.
1. RCEP is billed as the world’s biggest trade 3. Common Service Centres Scheme promotes
rural entrepreneurship and the building of
agreement.
sustainable rural livelihoods.
2. It would cover every aspect of economic
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
trade such as goods, services, investment,
economic and technical cooperation, (a) 1 and 2 only
intellectual property rights (IPR), rules of (b) 2 and 3 only
origin, competition and dispute settlement.
(c) 1 only
3. India is not a member of China-proposed
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ASEAN+3.
PTTS2020/CARC/500 2
7. Which of the following countries are the Which of the above statements is/are correct?
members of Mekong Ganga Cooperation?
(a) 1 only
1. India
(b) 2 only
2. China
(c) Both 1and 2
3. Thailand
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Vietnam
5. Myanmar
Select the correct answer using the code given Legal Rights for Nature:
below:
1. Giving legal rights to nature means the law
(a) 2 only can see nature as a legal person.
(b) 1, 3 ,4 and 5 only 2. Legal rights for nature enable nature to go to
(c) 2 and 5 only court to protect its rights.
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Which of the above statement is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
8. Recently, 45 G-7 Summit was held at:
th
(b) 2 only
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(a) Italy (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) Japan (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Germany
(d) France 12. India was recently granted a NATO ally-like
status. In this regard, consider the following
statements:
9. Match the following:
Reports/Indices
A. Female work and
Organizations
1. NITI Aayog
O 1.
2.
The status would result in increased Indo-US
defense cooperation in the Indian Ocean.
Major non-NATO allies (MNNA) are only
labour force
involved in strategic working partnerships
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participation in
with NATO countries.
India Report
B. SDG Gender Index 2. UNDP Which of the above statements is/are correct?
C. Healthy States 3. Equal Measures (a) 1 only

Progressive India 2030 (b) 2 only
Report
(c) Both 1 and 2
D. World Population 4. United Nations
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Prospect Report (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Select the correct answer using the code given
below: 13. Which of the following countries became the
A B C D first country to grant all of its rivers the same
legal status as humans?
(a) 1 2 3 4
(a) Bangladesh
(b) 2 3 1 4
(b) India
(c) 1 3 2 4
(c) Russia
(d) 3 4 1 2
(d) New Zealand

The Supreme Court (Number of Judges) 14. Lok Sabha recently passed the Transgender
Amendment Bill: Persons (Protection of Rights) Bill, 2019. In this
regard, consider the following statements:
1. The Bill fixes the maximum number of judges
in the Supreme Court at 30 judges, including 1. It provides for a National Council for
the Chief Justice of India. Transgender to be chaired by Union Minister
of Social Justice.
2. Originally, the strength of the Supreme Court
was fixed at eight including Chief Justice of 2. It guarantees a right of self-identification to
India. transgenders on lines of NALSA judgment.
3 PTTS2020/CARC/500
3. It provides for reservation in educational Select the correct answer using the code given
institutions and public employment for below:
transgenders.
(a) 1 only
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(b) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 only 18. Consider the following statements about the
Meghdoot App :
15. Consider the following statements about 1. It is launched by Ministry of Earth Sciences
Project SU.RE : and Ministry of Agriculture.
1. It was launched by the Union Textile 2. It will play a critical role in agriculture
Ministery. operation and will advise farmers on how to
take care of their crops.
2. It aims to contribute to the UN Sustainable
Development Goals 2030. 3. It is available in local languages.
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(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

O 19. The Unlawful Activities Prevention Act
16. Recently The State of Food Security and
Nutrition in the World, 2019 was released. (UAPA), 1967 was recently amended with
In this context consider the following the objective of uprooting terrorism from
statements: India. In this regard, consider the following
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statements:
1. It is a biannual report issued by FAO, IFAD,
UNEP, WEP, and WHO. 1. The amendment act expands the scope
of UAPA, 1967 by providing provisions for
2. For the first time, the report comes with designating an individual as terrorist.
estimates of the prevalence of moderate or
severe food insecurity based on the Food 2. The amendment act empowers the National
Investigation Agency (NIA) to conduct raids
Insecurity Experience Scale (FIES).
anywhere without prior permission of relevant
3. The report highlights that hunger is
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state government.
declining.
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1 only
17. Which of the following statements regarding the amendments proposed to the National
Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Investigation Agency (NIA) Act, 2008:
Marriage) Act, 2019 is/are correct?
1. The amendment empowers NIA to probe
1. It makes any pronouncement of talaq in terror attacks targeting Indians/Indian
written or electronic form void and illegal. Interests on foreign soil.
2. It makes declaration of talaq a non cognizable 2. The amendment allows NIA to probe cases of
offense in any circumstance. human trafficking.
3. It entitles Muslim women to seek a subsistence 3. The amendment enables the central
allowance for herself in case a talaq has been government to constitute special courts for
declared on her. NIA’s trials.
PTTS2020/CARC/500 4
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1. The new global standard on Automatic
Exchange of Information (AEOI) reduces the
(a) 1 and 2 only
possibility for tax evasion.
(b) 2 and 3 only 2. Participating jurisdictions that implement
(c) 3 only AEOI send and receive pre-agreed information
each year, without having to send a specific
(d) 1, 2 and 3 request.
3. AEOI will enable the discovery of formerly
21. Indrajit Gupta Committee is related to: undetected tax evasion.
(a) Nexus between crime and politics Which of the above statements are correct?
(b) State funding of elections (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Electoral Disqualifications (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) None of the above (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
22. Which of the following are the features of
PM Formalization of Micro Food Processing 25. Consider the following statements regarding
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Enterprises Scheme? the POSHAN Abhiyaan.
1. Adoption of One District One product 1. It is a multi-ministerial convergence mission
Approach with the vision to ensure attainment of
2. Focus on waste to wealth products and minor malnutrition free India by 2022.
forest produce 2. The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
3. Credit-linked capital subsidy for setting new (MoHFW) is implementing POSHAN
Abhiyaan.
4.
micro food processing units
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Focus on capacity building and research
3. Its objective is to reduce stunting in
identified Districts of India with the highest
malnutrition burden by improving utilization
below: of key Anganwadi Services and improving the
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quality of Anganwadi Services delivery.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Which of the above statement are correct?
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
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23. Consider the following Statements regarding (d) 1, 2 and 3

India’s child well-being index:
1. This Report is released by World Bank. 26. Consider the following statements regarding
Institutions of Eminence (IoE) Scheme.
2. Kerala topped the chart in the child well-
being index. 1. The aim of the scheme is to bring higher
educational institutions selected as IoEs in
3. The index captures the performance of each top 500 of world ranking in the next 10 years
state and union territories. and in top 100 eventually overtime.
Which of the above statements are correct? 2. The IoEs will be free to fix and charge fees
from all the students without restriction.
(a) 1 and 2 only
3. Each Institution selected as IoE will be
(b) 2 and 3 only provided financial assistance up to Rs. 1000
(c) 1 and 3 only Cr over a period of five years.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the above statements are incorrect?

(a) 1 and 2 only
24. India has recently signed Automatic Exchange (b) 2 and 3 only
of Information (AEOI) with Switzerland.
Consider the following statements about (c) 1 and 3 only
Automatic Exchange of Information (AEOI): (d) 1, 2 and 3
5 PTTS2020/CARC/500
27. Consider the following statements regarding Which of the following above statements is/are
Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maan Dhan Yojana correct?
(PM-KMY): (a) 1 only
1. It is a Central Sector Scheme administered
(b) 2 only
by the Department of Finance, Ministry of
Finance. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. The Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) (d) Neither 1 nor 2
is the Pension Fund Manager for the scheme
and responsible for Pension pay out.
31. Consider the following statements about Jan
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Soochna Portal:
(a) 1 only 1. It is the first ever public information portal
launched by the government of Rajasthan.
(b) 2 only
2. It will not require citizens to submit RTI
(c) Both 1 and 2 application for seeking information.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. The portal will prevent anomalies and
corruption in government.
28. NISHTHA, recently seen in news is: Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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(a) A scholarship Scheme for encouraging (a) 1, 2 and 3
economically weaker differently abled
students to pursue technical education at (b) 1 only
Diploma and Degree levels. (c) 2 and 3 only
(b) A capacity building programme for Improving (d) 2 only
Quality of School Education through
Integrated Teacher Training.
O 32. Consider the following statements regarding
(c) A registration portal for new start-ups related National Pension Scheme for Traders and Self
to green projects. Employed Persons,
(d) A mobile application which serves as a single 1. Under this scheme shopkeepers, retail traders
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window for information regarding passenger and self-employed persons are assured a
amenities available at the railway stations. minimum monthly pension of Rs. 3,000/-
month after attaining the age of 60 years.
29. Consider the following statements about 2. The age limit to enrol for this scheme is
Inner Line Permit: between 18-40 years.
1. It is an official travel document granted to 3. The scheme is based on self-declaration as no
Indian citizen to travel in protected area for a documents are required except Aadhaar and
limited period. bank account.
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2. It is issued by the central governments. Which of the above statements are correct?
3. Currently, it is operational in Arunachal (a) 1 and 2 only
Pradesh, Mizoram and Nagaland.
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only 33. According to International Migrant Stock
(d) 1, 2 and 3 released 2019, which of the following
statements are correct?
30. Consider the following statements about 1. India was the leading country of origin of
Meitei community that was in the news international migrants in 2019 with a strong
recently: diaspora.
1. Meiteis are inhabitants of Manipur and 2. The share of women in the total number of
have been protesting for granting them the international migrants has seen a decrease
Scheduled Tribe status. over the past years.
2. Meiteis want strict imposition of ILP in 3. Bangladesh was a top source of migrants to
Manipur to protect their culture and identity. India.
PTTS2020/CARC/500 6
Select the correct answer using the code given (c) 2 and 3 only
below:
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only 37. Section 11 of the Representation of the
People Act, 1951 that was in news recently
(c) 1 and 3 only
deals with:
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) It empowers Election Commission to remove
any disqualification prescribed by statutory
34. Consider the following statements about All rule for reasons to be recorded.
India Survey on Higher Education 2018-19: (b) Electoral rolls to be issued to political parties.
1. Gross Enrolment Ratio for male population is (c) Code of conduct.
26.3% and for females, it is 26.4%.
(d) Funding to contestants.
2. Their are more female teachers in Higher
Educational Institutions (HEIs) in India than
males. 38. Consider the following statements regarding
National Nutrition Survey:
3. UP and Karnataka have more female
enrolment in higher education as compared 1. Comprehensive national nutrition survey was
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to other states. conducted by Ministry of women and child
development (MoWCD) in partnership with
Which of the above statements is/are correct? UNICEF.
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. Clinical development services was the
(b) 1 only monitoring agency for the survey.
(c) 1 and 3 only O (a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only
35. The proposed Higher education Commission (c) Both 1 and 2
of India will replace
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(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. University Grants Commission (UGC)
2. All India Council for Technical Education 39. Consider the following statements regarding
(AICTE) Kanyashree Scheme:
3. Medical Council of India 1. It has received United Nations Public Service
4. Central Advisory Board of Higher Education award.
(CABE) 2. It is a Conditional Cash transfer scheme which
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contributes towards empowerment of girls in

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
the state of West Bengal.
(a) 1 only 3. All girl children within the age of 6 to 20
(b) 2 only in the state of West Bengal are targeted
beneficiaries.
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) 1 only
36. Consider the following statements about (b) 2 only

Quad Grouping: (c) 1 and 2 only
1. Quad Group is a closed group consisting of (d) 2 and 3 only
India, Australia, Japan & USA.
2. Japan pioneered the initiative in 2007 as a 40. Consider the following statements regarding
coalition of maritime democracies. National Blindness and Visual Impairment
3. First Quad talks were held in India. Survey 2019:
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1. According to the survey, cataract is the leading
cause of blindness in people above 50 years.
(a) 1 and 2 only
2. Blindness is more pronounced among
(b) 1 only illiterates as compared to literates.
7 PTTS2020/CARC/500
3. The financial constraint is the most important Which of the above statements are correct?
barrier in accessing treatment.
(a) 1 and 2 only
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 only
44. Ranbir Singh Committee, seen in the news
(d) 1 and 3 only
recently, relates to:
(a) Reform in criminal law
41. Recently SC struck down restructure of various
Tribunals done through Finance Act, 2017. In (b) Improving economic statistics data
this regard consider the following statement (c) Implementation of Clause 6 of the Assam
regarding Tribunals: Accord
1. It is an administrative body established for the (d) Reviewing the existing LPG marketing
purpose of discharging quasi-judicial duties. structure
2. The provisions related to administrative
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tribunals were mentioned under part XIV A of 45. Consider the following statements regarding
the original constitution. the Armed Forces Special Powers Act (AFSPA)
Which of the above statements is/are correct? in India:
1. Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) is responsible
(a) 1 only for the imposition of AFSPA in the Union
(b) 2 only Territories of Jammu and Kashmir (J&K) and
Ladakh after their reorganization.
(c) Both 1 and 2
O 2. Presently it is applicable in the entire state of
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland.
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(a) 1 only
the Right to Information Act (RTI) 2005:
(b) 2 only
1. A non-government organization financed
indirectly by the funds of Government is a (c) Both 1 and 2
public authority under the act. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. While the institution of the Supreme Court falls
under the ambit of the act, the office of Chief 46. Consider the following statements regarding
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Justice of India (CJI) has been exempted. Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojna:
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1. The threshold yield for calculation of
compensation to the farmer is based on
(a) 1 only
an average yield of the crop for the last 2
(b) 2 only cropping seasons.
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. Post-harvest losses up to a period of 30 days

are covered under this scheme.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. For horticulture and commercial crops, the
premium paid by the farmer is 5% of the sum
43. With reference to Fast Track Courts in India, covered.
consider the following statements: 4. Selection of Implementing Agency (IA) in
1. Fast Track Courts were established in India the state is done by the Union Ministry of
on the recommendations of the 11th Finance Agriculture.
Commission in 2000. Which of the above statements are incorrect?
2. These are special kind of courts which (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
have exclusive jurisdiction over a particular
(b) 1 and 3 only
category of law.
(c) 1 and 4 only
3. Retired judges are eligible for selection in fast
track courts. (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
PTTS2020/CARC/500 8
47. Consider the following statements regarding Which of the above statements is/are correct?
the Bharatiya Poshan Krishi Kosh (BPKK): (a) 1 only
1. It was launched by Ministry of Agriculture (b) 2 only
with support from Bill & Melinda Gates
Foundation. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. It aims to reduce malnutrition through a (d) Neither 1 nor 2

multi-sectoral results-based framework.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Pradhan Mantri Kisan SAMPADA Yojana:
(a) 1 only 1. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme.
(b) 2 only 2. It is implemented by Ministry of Agriculture &
Farmers Welfare.
(c) Both 1 and 2
3. It will help in reducing wastage of agricultural
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 produce and doubling of farmers’ income.
48. Consider the following statements regarding (a) 1 only
the Organization of Islamic Cooperation
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(b) 2 only
(OIC):
(c) 1 and 2 only
1. OIC is the second largest inter-governmental
organization representing the collective voice (d) 1, 2 and 3
of Muslim world.
2. United Nations has observer status at OIC. 52. Which of the following statements about
Jansankhya Sthirata Kosh is/are correct?
3. India recently made its maiden appearance at
the foreign ministers’ meeting of OIC.
Which of the above statements are correct?
O 1.
2.
It was set up in 2004-05 with an aim to achieve
population stabilization by 2035.
It has been registered as an autonomous
(a) 1 and 2 only Society established under the Societies
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Registration Act of 1860.
(b) 1 and 3 only
3. Under its Santushti scheme, it has launched a
(c) 2 and 3 only responsible Parenthood Strategy to help push
up the age of marriage of girls and space the
(d) 1, 2 and 3 birth of children.
49. Nilavembu Kudineer, seen in news recently, below:
relates to:
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(a) 1 only
(a) A Siddha medicine providing protection (b) 2 only
against Chikungunya and Dengue.
(c) 1 and 2 only
(b) A fruit bat species responsible for Nipah
(d) 2 and 3 only
outbreak in Kerala.
(c) An invasive plant species threatening Indian 53. Consider the following statements:
rhinos in Assam.
1. The term ‘custodial violence’ has not been
(d) A fibre-yielding, perfectly sustainable defined under any law.
rhizome. 2. Protection from torture is a fundamental right
under A-22 (1) of the constitution.
50. Consider the following statements regarding 3. India has neither signed nor ratified the UN
pricing of essential drugs: Convention against Torture (UNCAT).
1. The government directly regulates prices of Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
medicines that are part of National List of (a) 1 and 2 only
Essential Medicines (NLEM).
(b) 2 only
2. National Pharmaceuticals Pricing Authority
(c) 2 and 3 only
(NPPA) monitors prices of both controlled
and decontrolled drugs. (d) 1 and 3 only
9 PTTS2020/CARC/500
54. Consider the following statements regarding 57. Consider the following statements with regard
the election process in Sri Lanka: to Khadi and Village Industries Commission
1. Sri Lanka operates under a semi-presidential (KVIC):
system. 1. It comes under the administrative control of
2. Both Indian and Sri Lankan Presidents are the Ministry of Textile.
elected for 5 year term. 2. A separate harmonised system code by the
3. Prime Minister recommends the federal commerce and industry ministry has been
cabinet drawn from the Parliament. allocated to KVIC.
4. Unlike India, President of Sri Lanka is both Which of the above statements is/are correct?
head of state and head of government.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(a) 3 and 4 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
58. With reference to Shala Darpan Portal,
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consider the following statements:
55. Based on the recommendations of M M
1. It provides an integrated platform to meet
Punchhi Commission, what is the correct
the educational and administrative needs of
sequence which the Governor should follow
all stakeholders.
to call upon parties to form government?
2. It has been launched by Union Ministry
1. Pre-poll alliance or coalition having majority
of Human Resource Development for
2. Party or combination of parties which Kendriya Vidyalaya Samiti.
commands the widest support in the
O 3. It is a duplex communication system capable
legislative assembly
of sending and receiving effective dialogue
3. Post-electoral coalition with all partners between every stakeholder.
4. Group of parties which had pre-poll alliance
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commanding the largest number Which of the above statements are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given (a) 1 and 2 only
below: (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1-2-4-3 (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2-4-1-3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2-1-4-3
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(d) 2-1-3-4 59. Consider the following statements regarding

Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana:
56. Which of the following statements is/are 1. PMMVY is a maternity benefit programme
correct regarding the Registration of political being implemented in all districts of the
parties? country.
1. Registration of political parties is governed 2. Recently, Haryana was awarded the first
by the provisions of Section 29A of the position in the category of best performer.
Representation of the People Act, 1951.
3. It is only for the first living child of the family
2. An association seeking registration has to
submit an application to the Commission Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
within a period of 6 months following the (a) 1 and 2 only
date of its formation.
(b) 2 only
below: (c) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 only
60. Which of the following statements is/are
(c) Both 1 and 2
correct regarding 8 wonders of SCO (Shanghai
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Cooperation Organisation)?
PTTS2020/CARC/500 10
1. The Wonders of SCO include archaeological 2. India’s composite score improved from 57 in
and historical monuments of SCO region. 2018 to 60 in 2019-20.
2. Statue of Unity in India has been added to 8 Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Wonders of SCO.
(a) 1 only
below: (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 64. Which of the following statements is/are
correct regarding Sansad Adarsh Gram
61. Which of the following statements is/ Yojana?
are correct regarding Swachh Survekshan 1. Under the Yojana, Members of Parliament
League? (MPs) are responsible for developing the
1. Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation socio-economic and physical infrastructure of
released Swachh Survekshan League in New three villages each.
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Delhi.
2. Nominated MPs choose a Gram Panchayat
2. In the category of population between one
from the rural area of the district in which
lakh and 10 lakhs, Jamshedpur occupied the
their name belongs in the electoral roll of the
1st spot.
country.
below: O Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
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(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
62. Government recently proposed changes in
the definition of Non-resident Indians (NRI)
for purpose of taxation. In this context,
Good Governance Index (GGI):
which of the following countries are the
largest contributors of remittances to India in 1. Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs has
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decreasing order? launched the ‘Good Governance Index’.

1. UAE 2. The objectives of GGI are to provide
2. US quantifiable data to compare the state of
3. Saudi Arabia governance in all states and UTs.
4. Qatar Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Select the correct answer using the code given (a) 1 only
below:
(b) 2 only
(a) 2-1-3-4
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1-2-4-3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1-3-2-4
(d) 1-2-3-4
correct regarding Budapest Convention?
Sustainable Development Goals India Index: 1. The convention is the sole legally binding
international multilateral treaty on
1. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has
cybercrime.
released the second edition of the Sustainable
Development Goals (SDG) India Index. 2. India is a signatory to Budapest Convention.
11 PTTS2020/CARC/500
Select the correct answer using the code given Which of the above statements is/are correct?
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
70. Essential Commodities Act (ECA), 1955 was
67. The 3rd version of Bhuvan Panchayat web in news recently. Which of the following
portal was recently launched. Consider the statement(s) is/are incorrect about ECA?
following statements in this regard:
1. ECA was enacted to ensure the easy availability
1. It aims to provide geo-spatial services to of essential commodities to consumers.
aid gram panchayat development planning
process. 2. Government intervention through ECA
can increase price volatility of essential
2. It has been launched by Ministry of Panchayati commodities
Raj.
3. ECA incentivises storage infrastructure
Which of the above statements is/are correct? development
RE
(a) 1 only Select the correct answer using the code given
(b) 2 only below:
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 3 only
68. Iran announced complete withdrawal form
Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA)
O (d) 1, 2 and 3
in wake of killing of General Soleimani. In this

regard, consider the following statements: 71. National Statistical Commission (NSC) Bill
2019 was in news recently. In this context,
1. JCPOA is a deal between Iran and the P5+1
SC
which of the following statement(s) is/are
countries to limit Iran’s nuclear programme.
correct?
2. International Atomic Energy Agency oversees
1. NSC is the apex advisory body on statistical
the implementation of the deal.
matters, but its suggestions are not binding
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? on the government.
(a) 1 only 2. NSC falls under Ministry of Commerce.
(b) 2 only 3. India is not a follower of the UN Statistical
GS
Commission led systems since 1948.

(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 below:
(a) 1 only
69. With reference to various initiatives dealing
with cybercrimes in India, consider the (b) 1 and 2 only
following statements: (c) 2 and 3 only
1. Cyber Safe Women Initiative of Ministry
(d) 1, 2 and 3
of Women and Child Development aims
to spread awareness against atrocities
committed against children and women 72. With reference to the Corruption Perception
through cyberspace. Index, 2019, consider the following
2. Cyber Crime Prevention against Women statements:
and Children Scheme (CCPWC) of Ministry 1. India’s ranking as per CPI-2019 improved
of Home Affairs aims to have an effective compared to the CPI-2018.
mechanism to handle cybercrimes against
women and children. 2. As per the report, corruption is more pervasive
in countries where big money can flow freely
3. CyberDost is a Twitter handle launched into electoral campaigns.
by Ministry of Electronics and Information
Technology to spread awareness about 3. Most of the countries in the world have shown
cybercrimes. little to no change in levels of corruption.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

73. Which of the following statements regarding
“Apiary on Wheels”:
Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-
KISAN) Scheme is/are correct? 1. The initiative is launched by Ministry of Social
Justice and Empowerment.
1. It is a Central Sector Scheme with 100%
2. It aims to address the challenges faced by the
funding from central government.
beekeepers by easy upkeep and migration of
2. Landholding is the sole criteria to avail the Bee Boxes having live Bee colonies.
benefit under the scheme. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
3. There is no distinction between rural and (a) 1 only
RE
urban cultivable land under the scheme.
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
below:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only 77. Consider the following statements regarding
Interim report of 15th finance commission:
(c)
(d)
3 only
1, 2 and 3
O 1. The 15th Finance Commission
recommended maintaining States’ share in
has
the divisible pool of tax collections at the same

74. With reference to ‘International Day of Zero level as granted by 14th Finance Commission.
SC
Tolerance for Female Genital Mutilation’, 2. Vertical Devolution recommends the
consider the following statements: distribution of the net proceeds of taxes of
1. Female genital mutilation (FGM) is recognized the Union between Union and the States.
internationally as a violation of the human Which of the above statements is/are correct?
rights of girls and women. (a) 1 only
2. The practise involves the total removal of
2 only
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(b)
external female genitalia only.
(c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
78. President of Federative Republic of Brazil was
(b) 2 only invited as chief guest for the 71st Republic
Day. Which of the following forums are both
(c) Both 1 and 2
India and Brazil part of?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. G-20
2. IBSA
75. Consider the following statements regarding 3. CELAC
Commonwealth of Nations:
1. Saudi Arabia rejoined it recently. below:
2. It is an inter-governmental organization and (a) 1 only
its outcomes are binding in nature.
(b) 1 and 2 only
3. Its work supports the United Nations
Sustainable Development Goals and the Paris (c) 3 only
Agreement on Climate Change. (d) 1, 2 and 3
79. Recently, the Supreme Court ruled that an 2. It aims to create a National Register on Built
indefinite internet shutdown is unwarranted Heritage and Sites.
and amounting to abuse of power. Which 3. Archeological Survey of India is the nodal
of the following statues concern this
agency to implement the NMMA.
judgment?
1. Code of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 Which of the above statements is/are correct?
2. Indian Telegraph Act, 1885 (a) 1 and 3 only

3. Information Technology Act, 2000 (b) 2 only
below:
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only 83. Consider the following statements:
(c) 2 and 3 only 1. Swadesh Darshan Scheme aims at providing
(d) 1, 2 and 3 improved visitor amenities at select
monuments.
80. The Citizen Amendment Bill, 2019 provides
RE
2. Adarsh Smarak Scheme aims at integrated
differential treatment to illegal migrants on development of theme based circuits.
which of the following basis?
3. Both the schemes were launched by Ministry
1. Country of Origin of Tourism.
2. Religion
3. Date of entry into India
(a) 1 and 2 only
4. Place of residence in India
O (b) 2 and 3 only
below: (c) 3 only
(a) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
SC
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only 84. With reference to Saksham Scholarship
Scheme, consider the following statements:
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. It is a scheme of Ministry of Human
Resource and Development to encourage all
differently abled students to pursue technical
various missions run by Ministry of Culture:
education.
GS
1. National Mission on Manuscripts aims to

establish a digital National Manuscripts 2. It is being implemented by All India Council
Library at Indira Gandhi National Centre for of Technical Education (AICTE).
Arts (IGNCA). Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
2. Archeological Survey of India is the nodal
agency to implement the National Mission (a) 1 only
on Libraries. (b) 2 only
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 85. Consider the following statements regarding
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 SWAYAM initiative:
1. It aims to enable disadvantaged girl students
82. With reference to the National Mission and other students from SC/ST & minorities
on Monuments and Antiquities (NMMA), to transit from school to post-school
consider the following statements: professional education.
1. NMMA is a pan-India programme of Ministry 2. It is an initiative by Central Board of Secondary
of Culture. Education.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 89. With respect to National Livestock
(a) 1 only Mission (NLM), consider the
(b) 2 only following statements:
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. NLM aims to ensure quantitative and
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 qualitative improvement in livestock
production systems and capacity building of
86. Which of the following statements regarding all stakeholders.
Ek Bharat Shrestha Bharat programme is/are 2. As of now only milch animals are covered
correct? under the scheme.
1. It aims to actively enhance interaction 3. The Risk Management and Insurance as a
between people of diverse cultures living in component of Sub-Mission on Livestock
different States and UTs in India.
Development of NLM is implemented in all
2. Ministry of culture is the nodal agency for co- the districts of the Country.
ordination of the programme.
below: (a) 1 only
1 only
RE
(a) (b) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
87. Consider the following statements with O ‘Swachh Paryatan’ mobile app:
respect to Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar
Yojana or Saubhagya scheme: 1. The app facilitates facilitate general public
to communicate their complaints about any
1. Non-poor urban households are excluded
from this scheme. unclean area/garbage piles in and around
tourist destinations.
2. Private sector DISCOMs are not eligible for
SC
financial assistance under this scheme. 2. It has been launched by Ministry of Drinking
3. Powergrid Corporation of India is the nodal Water and Sanitation.
agency for this scheme. 3. Only the Adarsh Smarak Monuments have
Which of the above statements is/are correct? been identified for inclusion in this app.
(a) 1 only Which of the above statements are correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
GS
(c) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
88. Arrange the following in top-down hierarchy
within a Ministry under the Government of
India: 91. Consider the following statements:
1. Department 1. Guidelines to be followed by the State
2. Division Authorities in drawing up the State Plan is laid
3. Wing down by NDMA.
4. Branch 2. Union Home Minister is the ex-officio
5. Section chairman of National Disaster Management
Authority (NDMA).
below: Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(a) 1-2-3-4-5 (a) 1 only
(b) 1-4-5-3-2 (b) 2 only
(c) 1-3-2-4-5 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1-4-3-5-2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
92. Consider the following statements: 95. Consider the following statements regarding
1. National Authority for Chemical Weapons UMANG App:
Convention (NACWC) is a statutory body set 1. It is developed by National e-Governance
up as an office in the Cabinet Secretariat. Division (NeGD) to fast-track mobile
2. India was the first country to secure the governance in India.
distinction of chemical weapon Free State party 2. It provides major services offered by only
under the Chemical Weapons Convention. Central and State Government departments.
3. It is obligatory for the signatory party to 3. Presently, it supports only English language.
declare and verify the plant sites for various
categories of organic chemicals.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 96. Consider the following statements with
RE
reference to Solid Waste Management Rules,
93. With reference to the Commission on 2016:
Agriculture Costs and Prices (CACP), consider 1. Non-recyclable, high calorific value wastes
the following statements: shall be used for co-processing in thermal
1. CACP is mandated to fix the Minimum power plants.
Support Price for major agricultural products 2. The rules encourage construction of sanitary
each year.
O landfills in hilly areas.
2. Cost of production is the only factor that 3. It is mandatory for Special Economic Zones
CACP analyzes while determining Minimum to earmark certain land area for recycling
Support Price. facilities.
SC
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 2 and 3 only
GS
94. Which of the following statements regarding 97. Fly Ash is a proven resource material for many
Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is/are applications of construction industries. In this
correct? context consider the following statements:
1. IIP is used to track the health of the industrial 1. It primarily consists of oxides of silicon and
activity in the economy over a longer period. aluminium.
2. IIP date is used to compile Gross Value Added 2. Ash Track mobile application was launched by
(GVA) of the manufacturing sector in the GDP Ministry of Coal for better management of fly
on a quarterly basis. ash.
3. The 8 core industries comprise more than 3. Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY)
50% weight in the IIP. encourages the use of fly ash for road
construction.
below: Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only
98. Consider the following statements: (c) A Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA)’s answer to
1. Operation Madad was a rescue and relief the Naxal problem.
operation in flood hit Kerala launched by (d) An operation by the Indian Navy to evacuate
Indian Army. Indian citizens from Yemen Island of Socotra.
2. Operation Sahyog was launched by Indian
Navy to assist the victims of earthquake and 100. With reference to PRASAD scheme, consider
tsunami in Indonesia. the following statements:
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1. It is a central sector scheme aiming at
(a) 1 only integrated development of only selected
pilgrimage destinations in a sustainable
(b) 2 only manner.
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. The scheme was launched by Ministry of
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Tourism.
99. Operation Sadbhavana is: (a) 1 only
(a) An army initiative to undertake welfare and
2 only
RE
(b)
development projects in the Northeast.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) Asocial responsibility initiative by the army in
Jammu Kashmir. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

O
SC
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GENERAL STUDIES
CURRENT AFFAIRS
POLITY + GOVERNANCE
+ INDIA YEAR BOOK
Answer Key
Q. 1 (c) Q. 21 (b) Q. 41 (a) Q. 61 (b) Q. 81 (a)
Q. 2 (b) Q. 22 (b) Q. 42 (a) Q. 62 (d) Q. 82 (d)
Q. 3 (d) Q. 23 (b) Q. 43 (d) Q. 63 (b) Q. 83 (d)
Q. 4 (b) Q. 24 (d) Q. 44 (a) Q. 64 (a) Q. 84 (a)
Q. 5 (d) Q. 25 (c) Q. 45 (a) Q. 65 (b) Q. 85 (d)
Q. 6 (b) Q. 26 (b) Q. 46 (a) Q. 66 (a) Q. 86 (a)
Q. 7 (b) Q. 27 (b) Q. 47 (d) Q. 67 (a) Q. 87 (a)
Q. 8 (d) Q. 28 (b) Q. 48 (d) Q. 68 (b) Q. 88 (c)
Q. 9 (b) Q. 29 (c) Q. 49 (a) Q. 69 (b) Q. 89 (b)
Q. 10 (b) Q. 30 (c) Q. 50 (c) Q. 70 (c) Q. 90 (c)
Q. 11 (c) Q. 31 (a) Q. 51 (c) Q. 71 (a) Q. 91 (b)
Q. 12 (c) Q. 32 (d) Q. 52 (b) Q. 72 (c) Q. 92 (d)
Q. 13 (a) Q. 33 (d) Q. 53 (c) Q. 73 (d) Q. 93 (c)
Q. 14 (c) Q. 34 (c) Q. 54 (d) Q. 74 (a) Q. 94 (b)
Q. 15 (c) Q. 35 (d) Q. 55 (c) Q. 75 (c) Q. 95 (a)
Q. 16 (c) Q. 36 (a) Q. 56 (a) Q. 76 (b) Q. 96 (c)
Q. 17 (b) Q. 37 (a) Q. 57 (b) Q. 77 (c) Q. 97 (b)
Q. 18 (d) Q. 38 (b) Q. 58 (c) Q. 78 (b) Q. 98 (d)
Q. 19 (c) Q. 39 (c) Q. 59 (c) Q. 79 (d) Q. 99 (b)
Q. 20 (a) Q. 40 (a) Q. 60 (c) Q. 80 (d) Q. 100 (c)
PTS2020/CAB-01/092020/03
1. Correct Option: (c) not be considered exceptionable
Explanation: In Prakash Singh vs Union of India

and Others, 2006 the Supreme Court
Both statements are correct provided for selection procedure and
Supplementary notes: minimum tenure for Director General of
Police (DGP).
10th Ministerial Meeting of Mekong Ganga
The Director General of Police of the State
Cooperation shall be selected by the State Government
The 10th Mekong-Ganga Cooperation from amongst the three senior most
Ministerial Meeting (10th MGC MM) officers of the Department who have been
was held on 01 August 2019 in Bangkok, empanelled for promotion to that rank by
the Union Public Service Commission on
Thailand.
the basis of their length of service, very
The Ministers adopted the new MGC Plan good record and range of experience for
of Action 2019-2022 that envisages project- heading the police force.
based cooperation in the seven areas of MGC Once he has been selected for the job,
cooperation, namely tourism and culture, he should have a minimum tenure of at
education, public health and traditional least two years irrespective of his date of
RE
medicine, agriculture and allied sectors, superannuation.
transport and communication, MSMEs as In K.S. Puttaswamy Case, Supreme Court
well as three new areas of cooperation, examined the constitutional validity of
i.e. water resources management, science Aadhar.
and technology, skill development and
capacity building.
3. Correct Option: (d)
The Ministers agreed to hold the 11th
MGC Ministerial Meeting on the margins of
ASEAN Foreign Ministers’ Meeting in 2020
in Viet Nam.
O Explanation:
All statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
SC
2. Correct Option: (b) Regional Comprehensive Economic
Partnership (RCEP)
Explanation:
The Regional Comprehensive Economic
Option is correct: Partnership (RCEP) is a so-called mega-
List I List II regional economic agreement being
negotiated since 2012 between the 10
A. Kihoto Hollohan 2. Tenth Schedule
ASEAN (Association of South-East Asian
Judgment Nations) governments and their six FTA
GS
B. K.S. Puttaswamy 3. Constitutional partners: Australia, China, India, Japan, New

Judgment Validity of Zealand and South Korea.
Aadhar RCEP negotiations were formally
C. Prakash Singh 1. Police reforms launched in November 2012 at the
Judgment ASEAN Summit in Cambodia.
Supplementary notes: It is billed as the world’s biggest
trade agreement because the RCEP
Important Judgments countries make up 45% of the world’s
A constitutional challenge to the Tenth population with 33% of its GDP and
Schedule was settled by the apex court atleast 28% of all trade in the world
in Kihoto Hollohan. today.
The court said that The Speakers/ The goal of RCEP is to boost economic growth
Chairmen hold a pivotal position in the and equitable economic development,
scheme of Parliamentary democracy and advance economic cooperation and broaden
are guardians of the rights and privileges and deepen integration in the region.
of the House. RCEP would cover almost every aspect
Vestiture of power to adjudicate questions of economy such as goods, services,
under the Tenth Schedule in them should investment, economic and technical
cooperation, intellectual property rights the commitment of the Government
(IPR), rules of origin, competition and to empower the Higher Educational
dispute settlement. Institutions and to help them become
world-class teaching and research
It is expected to provide market access
institutions.
for India’s goods and services exports
and encourage greater investments and Ten public and ten private institutions are
technology into India. It would also facilitate to be identified to emerge as world-class
India’s MSMEs to effectively integrate into Teaching and Research Institutions. This
the regional value and supply chains. will enhance affordable access to high-
quality education for ordinary Indians.
China is also hinting for a Free Trade
Agreement between ASEAN, China, Japan The UGC has considered the reports of the
and South Korea i.e. ASEAN+3 because it Empowered Expert Committee (EEC)
has taken so long for inking RCEP. appointed by the Government under the
Chairmanship of Shri N Gopalaswami
recommending (15) Public institutions
4. Correct Option: (b) and (15) Private institutions for
Explanation: considering to give status of Institutions
of Eminence.
RE
Statement 2 and 3 are incorrect: Russia and
India are not the members of Quadrilateral The scheme has only provided for (10)
Coordination Group for the Afghan-led Public and (10) Private Institutions, the UGC
peace process. has examined the list of (15) Public and (15)
Private Institutions using transparent and
Supplementary notes: verifiable criteria.
Quadrilateral Coordination Group (QCG) The following were the principles used

O
It is an initiative launched by USA, China, for identifying the Private Institutions
Pakistan, and Afghanistan in 2016 to recommended by the EEC:
discuss the Afghan-led the peace process Since the thrust of the scheme is to
and the reconciliation efforts. prepare institutions for the global
SC
All the member counties of QCG agree that rankings, no existing institution which
friendly, mutually respectful and cooperative has not figured in any of the global/
relations between the member states of national ranks shall be recommended
QCG are necessary to create an enabling for the IoE status.
environment for the peace process in
Afghanistan, which will help ensure the Only after exhausting the above criterion,
security, stability, prosperity, and interests of if any slot remains vacant, consideration
the region. shall be given to ‘yet to be established
GS
(Greenfield)’ proposals.
The QCG called on all Taliban groups to enter
into early talks with the Afghan government
to resolve all differences politically and 6. Correct Option: (b)
in accordance with the will of the Afghan Explanation:
people and the support of the QCG member
countries. Statement 1 is incorrect: It is an initiative of the
Ministry of Electronics and Information
Technology (Meity).
Explanation:
Common Service Centre
Option is correct: N Gopalaswami was the
Chairperson of the Empowered Expert Common Service Centers (CSC) scheme is
Committee. an initiative of the Ministry of Electronics
and Information Technology (Meity),
Supplementary notes: Government of India.
Institutions of Eminence CSCs act as the access points for delivery
Institutions of the Eminence scheme have of various digital services to villages
been launched in order to implement in India. Also, the scheme promotes
rural entrepreneurship and building of
sustainable rural livelihoods. The Group of Seven (G-7) is a forum of the
seven countries with the world’s largest
CSC e-Governance Services India Limited is
developed economies—France, Germany,
a Special Purpose Vehicle (CSC SPV) formed
by the Ministry of Electronics and IT under Italy, Japan, the United States, the United
the Companies Act, 1956 to monitor the Kingdom, and Canada—whose government
implementation of the Common Services leaders meet annually on international
Centers Scheme. economic and monetary issues.
It provides a centralized framework for The group was previously known as the G8
delivery of services to citizens through and counted Russia among its members, but
CSCs, besides ensuring systemic viability Russia has been excluded since annexing
and sustainability of the scheme. the Crimean Peninsula from Ukraine in early
2014.
7. Correct Option: (b)

Explanation:
Explanation:
Option is correct: The Mekong-Ganga
Cooperation (MGC) is an initiative by Option is correctly matched:
RE
six countries – India and five ASEAN Reports/Indices Organizations
countries, namely, Cambodia, Lao PDR,
Myanmar, Thailand, and Vietnam A. Female work and 2.UNDP
labour force
Supplementary notes: participation in
India Report
Mekong Ganga Cooperation
B. SDG Gender Index 3. Equal Measures
The Mekong-Ganga Cooperation (MGC) is 2030
ASEAN countries, namely, Cambodia, Lao

PDR, Myanmar, Thailand and Vietnam for
O
an initiative by six countries – India and five
C. Healthy States,
Progressive
India Report
1. NITI Aayog
cooperation in tourism, culture, education,

SC
as well as transport and communications. D. World Population 4. United Nations
Prospect Report
It was launched in 2000 at Vientiane, Lao
PDR. Supplementary notes:
Both the Ganga and the Mekong are Female work and labour force participation in
civilizational rivers, and the MGC initiative India Report
aims to facilitate closer contacts among
Recently UNDP, in association with IKEA
the people inhabiting these two major
Foundation has brought out a report titled
GS
river basins. The MGC also indicates the

“Female work and labour force participation
cultural and commercial linkages among
in India”.
the member countries of the MGC down
the centuries. The focus of this report has been to understand
the continuing problem of low female labour
force participation in India despite massive
8. Correct Option: (d) investments in employment and skill-building
Explanation: initiatives.
Option is correct: Recently, 45th G-7 Summit SDG Gender Index

was held in France. India is ranked 95th out of a total of 129
Supplementary notes: countries in the first-ever SDG Gender Index,
which measures strides made in achieving
45th G-7 Summit gender commitments against internationally
Recently, India has been invited as a guest set targets.
to attend the 45th Summit of G-7 held The index has been developed by Equal
at Biarritz, France though India is not a Measures 2030, which is a partnership
member of the G-7 grouping. among global and regional organisations
from the civil society and the development
G-7 Grouping
and private sectors. It includes The African
Women’s Development and Communication
Network, Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation, nearly 60,000
International Women’s Health Coalition and
At present, the sanctioned strength of the
Plan International.
apex court is 30, excluding the CJI.
Healthy States, Progressive India Report At present, the Supreme Court is working with
NITI Aayog releases a comprehensive its full sanctioned strength of 31, including the
Health Index report titled, “Healthy States, CJI.
Progressive India”. Originally, the strength of the Supreme
The report ranks states and Union territories Court was fixed at eight (one chief justice
innovatively on their year-on-year incremental and seven other judges). The Parliament
change in health outcomes, as well as, their has increased the number of other judges
overall performance with respect to each progressively to ten in 1956, to thirteen in
other. 1960, to seventeen in 1977 and to twenty-five
in 1986.
The report has been developed by NITI Aayog,
with technical assistance from the World Bank, In February 2009, the centre notified an
and in consultation with the Ministry of Health increase in the number of Supreme Court
and Family Welfare (MoHFW). judges from twenty-six to thirty-one, including
the Chief Justice of India.
RE
World Population Prospect Report
The Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act,
The World Population Prospects report 2019 1956, was last amended in 2009 to increase
is published by the Population Division of the judges’ strength from 25 to 30 (excluding
the UN Department of Economic and Social the CJI).
Affairs.
According to it, the world’s population is 11. Correct Option: (c)
expected to increase by two billion people in
O
the next 30 years, from 7.7 billion currently to Explanation:
9.7 billion in 2050. Both statements are correct.
The new report highlighted that more than Supplementary notes:
half of the projected increase in the global
SC
population up to 2050 will be concentrated in What are legal rights for nature?
just nine countries, led by India and followed Legal rights are not the same as human rights,
by Nigeria, Pakistan, Democratic Republic and so a “legal person” does not necessarily
of the Congo, Ethiopia, Tanzania, Indonesia, have to be a human being. Corporations,
Egypt and the US. for example, are also treated in law as “legal
persons”, as a way to endow companies
with particular legal rights and to treat the
GS
company as legally distinct from its managers

Explanation: and shareholders.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Supreme Court Giving nature legal rights means the law
(Number of Judges) Amendment Bill was can see “nature” as a legal person, thus
signed by President of India, increasing the creating rights that can then be enforced.
number of judges in the Supreme Court from Legal rights focus on the idea of legal
the present 30 to 33, excluding the Chief standing (often described as the ability to
Justice of India. sue and be sued), which enables “nature”
(Court-appointed individual) to go to
court to protect its rights. Legal personhood
Number of Judges of Supreme Court also includes the right to enter and enforce
contracts, and the ability to hold property.
The Supreme Court (Number of Judges)
Amendment Bill was signed by President of Rivers as Legal Persons
India, increasing the number of judges in The extension of legal rights to rivers is
the Supreme Court from the present 30 to ground-breaking and largely unprecedented.
33, excluding the Chief Justice of India.
For instance, the rivers have received their
The move to increase the strength of judges by legal rights in different ways (via legislation
3 or 10 per cent comes against the backdrop or judicial decision), for different purposes
of rising cases in the top court which stand at (environmental protection, religious beliefs,
and indigenous values) and by using different NATO is committed to peaceful resolution
legal forms as the basis for legal rights and of disputes. If diplomatic efforts fail, it has
personhood. the military power to undertake crisis-
management operations.
12. Correct Option: (c)

13. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
Explanation:
Both statements are correct
Option is correct: Bangladesh became the
Supplementary notes: first country to grant all of its rivers the same
legal status as humans.
NATO ally-like Status for India
The U.S. senate passed a legislative provision
(National Defense Authorization Act) that Legal Rights to Rivers
brings India at par with America’s NATO Recently, Bangladesh became the first
allies like Japan, South Korea, and Australia country to grant all of its rivers the same legal
etc. for increasing defense cooperation. status as humans.
The act provides for increased Indo-U.S. In 2017, four rivers have been given the status
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defense cooperation in the Indian Ocean in of legal persons: the Whanganui River in New
areas of humanitarian assistance, counter- Zealand, the Ganges and Yamuna Rivers in
terrorism, counter-piracy, maritime security India, and most recently, the Rio Atrato, in
and advanced technology transfer. Colombia.
Unlike the member nations of NATO, who These developments have fundamentally
have to contribute from their gross national altered the legal status of rivers in law, raising
income to fund the NATO, major Non- O questions about whether the approach can
NATO allies (MNNA) are only involved be transferred and generalised to other rivers
in Strategic working partnerships with around the world.
NATO Countries. India will be under no
obligation to support any of the policy
endeavors of NATO.
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The move will enable India to access lot Explanation:
of military and financial advantages which Statement 2 is incorrect: The bill does not
are otherwise not available to non-NATO provide for a right of self-identification but
members. talks about a certificate of identity to be
obtained from District Magistrate.
Pakistan is one of the major Non-NATO
allies (MNNA) of US. But in 2017, a bill Statement 3 is incorrect: The bill
was introduced in the US Congress seeking just prohibits discrimination against
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withdrawal of the status from Pakistan. Now, transgenders in relation to education and
a new legislation has been introduced in the employment without any provision for
reservation.
Congress to terminate the status of Pakistan.
North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
It is an intergovernmental military and political Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights)
alliance based on North Atlantic Treaty (also Bill, 2019
known as Washington Treaty) signed in 4 Lok Sabha recently passed the Transgender
April 1949. It is also known as North Atlantic Persons (Protection of Rights) Bill, 2019.
Alliance.
The salient features of the bill are:
It consists of 28 independent member
Transgender person is defined as one
countries across North America and Europe. whose gender does not match the gender
It is headquartered in Brussels, Belgium and assigned at birth. It includes trans-men
Headquarters of its Allied Command and trans-women, persons with intersex
Operations in Mons, Belgium. variations, gender-queers, and persons
with socio-cultural identities.
It constitutes a system of collective defense by
which its independent member states agrees The Bill prohibits the discrimination against
for mutual defense in response to any attack a transgender person, including denial of
on any member by any external party. service or unfair treatment in relation to
education, employment, healthcare etc.
Every establishment is required to designate from a brand that is environmentally conscious
a person to be a complaint officer to deal and engages in environmental protection.
with complaints in relation to the Act.
Right to reside and to be included in 16. Correct Option: (c)
a household to a transgender person
is guaranteed. If the immediate family Explanation:
is unable to care for the transgender Statement 1 is incorrect: It is an annual report
person, the person may be placed in a issued by FAO,UNICEF, WFP, and WHO.
rehabilitation centre, on the orders of a
competent court. Statement 3 is incorrect: The report
highlights that after decades of declining,
The government must take steps like hunger is again on the rise
separate HIV surveillance centre, sex
reassignment surgeries, comprehensive Supplementary notes:
medical insurance schemes etc. for State of Food Security and Nutrition in the
transgender persons. World
A transgender gender person may It is issued annually by the Food and
obtain a certificate of identity from the Agriculture Organization of the UN (FAO),
District Magistrate thus indicating the the International Fund for Agricultural
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gender as ‘transgender’. Development (IFAD), UN Children’s Fund
A National Council for Transgender (UNICEF), the World Food Programme (WFP)
and the World Health Organization (WHO)
(NCT) Persons to be chaired by Minister
of Social Justice and Empowerment This year’s report, for the first time comes with
is proposed to advise the central estimates of the prevalence of moderate or
government as well as monitor the severe food insecurity based on the Food
impact of policies, legislation and Insecurity Experience Scale (FIES).
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projects with respect to transgender It provides a perspective on global food
persons. It will also redress the insecurity relevant for all countries of the
grievances of transgender persons. world that is it looks beyond hunger towards
Offences against transgender persons the goal of ensuring access to nutritious and
sufficient food for all.
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include forced or bonded labor, denial
of use of public places, removal from The report highlights that after decades of
household/village and physical/sexual/ declining, hunger is again on the rise.
emotional/verbal abuse.
More than 820 million people in the world are
still hungry today, underscoring the immense
15. Correct Option: (c) challenge of achieving the Zero Hunger target
by 2030.
Explanation:
Global level of the prevalence of
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Both statements are correct undernourishment has remained virtually
unchanged in the last three years, at a level
Supplementary notes: slightly below 11 percent.
Project SU.RE In Asia, despite great progress in the last
Project SU.RE was recently launched by the five years, Southern Asia is the highest sub
region with almost 15% of prevalence of
Union Textile Minister, along with Clothing
undernourishment.
Manufacturers Association of India (CMAI),
United Nations in India, and IMG Reliance. In high-income countries, too, sizeable
portions of the population lack regular access
Project SU.RE is Indian apparel industry’s
to nutritious and sufficient food.
largest commitment to move towards
sustainable fashion. SU.RE stands for Over 2 billion people (26.4 percent of the
‘Sustainable Resolution’ – that contributes to world population) do not have regular access
a clean environment. to safe, nutritious and sufficient food and
these people live in low- and middle- and
It aims to contribute to the UN Sustainable high-income countries.
Development Goals 2030, especially SDG-
12 for responsible consumption and
production. 17. Correct Option: (b)
It will address the needs of an increasingly Explanation:
conscious consumer who would prefer to buy
Statement 2 is incorrect: Declaration of talaq The Ministry of Earth Sciences and Ministry
will be cognizable only if information relating of Agriculture have launched a mobile
to the offence is given by the woman against application MEGHDOOT that will provide
whom talaq has been declared or any person location, crop and livestock-specific
related to her by blood or marriage. weather-based agro advisories to farmers
Supplementary notes: in local languages.
Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on The app would provide information in the
Marriage) Act, 2019 form of images, maps and pictures. It has been
integrated with WhatsApp and Facebook as
It is an act to protect the rights of married well to help farmers share advisories among
Muslim women and to prohibit divorce by
themselves.
pronouncing talaq by their husbands and to
provide for matters connected therewith or It has been developed by experts from the
incidental thereto. India Meteorological Department and Indian
The act makes all declaration of talaq, Institute of Tropical meteorology and the
including in written or electronic form, to Indian Council of Agricultural Research.
be void (i.e. not enforceable in law) and It will provide forecast relating to
illegal.
temperature , rainfall and humidity and
It defines talaq as talaq-e-biddat (practice wind speed and direction, which play
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under Muslim personal laws where critical roles in agricultural operation and
pronouncement of the word ‘talaq’ thrice advisories to the farmers on how to take
in one sitting by a Muslim man to his care of their crops and livestock.
wife results in an instant and irrevocable
divorce) or any other similar form of talaq
pronounced by a Muslim man resulting in 19. Correct Option: (c)
instant and irrevocable divorce. O Explanation:
It makes declaration of talaq a cognizable
offence (i.e. police officer may arrest Both statements are correct
the accused person without a warrant),
attracting up to three years’ imprisonment Supplementary notes:
with a fine.
Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Amendment
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The offence will be cognizable only if Act, 2019
information relating to the offence is given
by the woman against whom talaq has The Unlawful Activities Amendment Act,
been declared or any person related to her 1967 was recently amended reassuring
by blood or marriage. India’s commitment to finish terror from
its soil.
Bail can be granted by the Magistrate only
after hearing the woman against whom the The objective of the new amendments is to
talaq has been pronounces. facilitate speedy investigation and prosecution
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The offence may be compounded (i.e. parties in terror-related offences.

can settle the matter within themselves) by the Salient features of the amendment act are:
Magistrate upon the request of the woman
(against whom talaq has been declared). The amendment seeks to allow the
government to designate an individual
A Muslim woman against whom the talaq has
as terrorist and bring in embargo on
been declared is entitled to:
arms/assets seizures.
Seek subsistence allowance from her
husband for herself and for her dependent Under the law, personal/financial
children as determined by magistrate. information of an individual designated
as terrorist can be shared with various
Seek custody of her minor children in a Western agencies.
manner determined by magistrate.
Under the Act, investigation of cases may be
conducted by officers of the rank of Deputy
18. Correct Option: (d) Superintendent or Assistant Commissioner
Explanation: of Police or above. The amendment
additionally empowers the officers of
All statements are correct the NIA, of the rank of Inspector or
above, to investigate cases.
The Amendment gives powers to DG,
Meghdoot App
NIA to attach properties acquired from amendment act gives NIA officers
proceeds of terrorism. the power to investigate offences
committed outside India subject to
The bill seeks to empower NIA to conduct
international treaties and domestic laws
raids anywhere without the relevant
of other countries.
state government’s prior permission.
The third change relates to the special trials
The act adds another treaty International
courts for the offences that come under
Convention for Suppression of Acts
NIA’s purview. The existing Act allows the
of Nuclear Terrorism (2005) to the
Centre to constitute special courts for
schedule of treaties which already contain
NIA’s trials. The amendment act enables
9 treaties including the Convention for the
the Central government to designate
Suppression of Terrorist Bombings (1997),
session courts as special courts for such
and the Convention against Taking of trials.
Hostages (1979).

Explanation:
Explanation:
Option is correct
Statement 3 is incorrect: Special Courts for
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NIA’s trials could already be set up under Supplementary notes:
NIA Act, 2008. The amendment act enables
the Central government to designate session Indrajit Gupta Committee (1998)
courts as special courts for such trials. Indrajit Gupta was the chairman of the
Supplementary notes: parliamentary committee on state funding
of elections set up in 1998.
NIA (Amendment) Act, 2019
National Investigation Agency (NIA) was
O Following are the recommendations of Indrajit
Gupta Committee:
constituted under National Investigation
State funding should be in kind i.e. no
Agency Act, 2008 in wake of Mumbai terror
financial support is to be given to parties.
attack.
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Part of financial burden of the parties is to
NIA is an investigation agency at the national
be initially borne by the states.
level, to investigate and prosecute offences
affecting the sovereignty, security and integrity Only the recognized political parties should
of India. be given state support.
It also prosecutes offences under Acts Political Parties should compulsory submit
enacted to implement international treaties, their annual accounts to the income tax
agreements, conventions and resolutions. department.
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Three major amendments are proposed to Complete account of the election

the NIA Act, 2008: expenditure should be filed by the parties
to EC
The first change is the type of offences
that the NIA can investigate and The Committee noted that at the time of
prosecute. Under the existing Act, the the report the economic situation of the
NIA can investigate offences under Acts country only suited partial and not full
such as the Atomic Energy Act, 1962, state funding of elections.
and the Unlawful Activities Prevention
Act, 1967.The latest amendments will
enable NIA to additionally investigate
offences related to human trafficking, Explanation:
counterfeit currency, manufacture or
sale of prohibited arms, cyber-terrorism Statement 3 is incorrect: Under the scheme,
and offences under the Explosive existing individual micro food processing
Substances Act, 1908. units desirous of upgrading their units can
avail credit-linked capital subsidy at 35%
The second change pertains to NIA’s of the eligible project cost with a maximum
jurisdiction. Under the Act, for the offences ceiling of Rs.10 lakh per unit. Support would
under its purview, NIA officers have the be provided through credit-linked grants
same power as other police officers and at 35% for the development of common
these extend across the country. The infrastructure including common processing
facility, lab, warehouse, etc. through FPOs/ The India child well-being index is a crucial
SHGs/cooperatives or state-owned agencies report that can be mined both by the
or private enterprise. Government and civil organisations to achieve
the goal of child well-being and we will use
Supplementary notes: this report effectively.
PM Formalization of Micro Food Processing This report provides insights on health,
Enterprises Scheme nutrition, education, and sanitation and child
To provide financial, technical and business protection.
support for up-gradation of existing micro The dimensions of the index include healthy
food processing enterprises, the Ministry individual development, positive relationships
of Food Processing Industries (MoFPI) has and protective contexts.
launched an all India “Centrally Sponsored
PM Formalisation of Micro food processing Focusing on the three key dimensions, 24
Enterprises (PM FME) scheme” to be indicators were selected to develop the
implemented over five years from 2020-21 to computation of the child well-being index.
2024-25 with an outlay of Rs 10,000 crore. The index captures the performance of each
The expenditure under the scheme would be state and union territory on a composite child
shared in 60:40 ratio between Central and well-being score.
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State Governments, in 90:10 ratio with North Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Himachal Pradesh and
Eastern and the Himalayan States, 60:40 ratio Puducherry topped the charts in the child
with UTs with the legislature, and 100% by well-being index.
Centre for other UTs.
Meghalaya, Jharkhand and Madhya Pradesh
Salient features of the scheme are: featured at the bottom.
The Scheme adopts One District One O Among the union territories, Puducherry led
Product (ODODP) approach to reap the the way and Dadra and Nagar Haveli featured
benefit of scale in terms of procurement at the other end.
of inputs, availing common services, and
The report has called for states to look at their
marketing of products.
respective scores on the dimensions of child
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The Scheme also places focus on waste to well-being and to prepare for priority areas of
wealth products, minor forest products, intervention with specific plans of action.
and Aspirational Districts.
The report also emphasised on triggering
Special focus on capacity building policy level changes, seek better budgetary
and research: Academic and research allocations and initiate discussions with all
institutions under MoFPI along with stakeholders which can help in enhancing the
State Level Technical Institutions would quality of life of all children in the country.
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be provided support for training of

units, product development, appropriate
packaging and machinery for micro-units
Existing individual micro food processing Explanation:
units desirous of upgrading their units can All statements are correct
avail credit-linked capital subsidy at 35% of
the eligible project cost with a maximum Supplementary notes:
ceiling of Rs.10 lakh per unit.
Automatic Exchange of Information (AEOI)
The new global standard on Automatic
23. Correct Option: (b) Exchange of Information (AEOI) reduces
Explanation: the possibility for tax evasion.
It provides for the exchange of non-resident
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Report was
financial account information with the tax
released by the non-government organization
authorities in the account holders’ country of
World Vision India and research institute IFMR
residence.
LEAD.
Participating jurisdictions that implement
Supplementary notes: AEOI send and receive pre-agreed
Child well-being index information each year, without having to
send a specific request.
AEOI will enable the discovery of formerly interventions across the Ministries.
undetected tax evasion.
The proposal consists of
It will enable governments to recover tax
mapping of various Schemes contributing
revenue lost to non-compliant taxpayers, and
will further strengthen international efforts towards addressing malnutrition
to increase transparency, cooperation, and introducing a very robust convergence
accountability among financial institutions mechanism
and tax administrations.
ICT based Real Time Monitoring system
Additionally, AEOI will generate secondary
benefits by increasing voluntary disclosures incentivizing States/UTs for meeting the
of concealed assets and by encouraging targets
taxpayers to report all relevant information. incentivizing Anganwadi Workers (AWWs) for
using IT based tools
25. Correct Option: (c) eliminating registers used by AWWs
Explanation: introducing measurement of height of children
at the AnganwadiCentres (AWCs)
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Ministry of
Women and Child Development (MWCD) is Social Audits
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implementing POSHAN Abhiyaan.
Setting-up Nutrition Resource Centres,
Supplementary notes: involving masses through Jan Andolan for
their participation on nutrition through various
POSHAN Abhiyaan
activities, among others.
POSHAN Abhiyaan is a multi-ministerial
convergence mission with the vision to
ensure attainment of malnutrition free 26. Correct Option: (b)
India by 2022.
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Explanation:
The objective of POSHAN Abhiyaan to
Statement 2 is incorrect: IoEs will be free to
reduce stunting in identified Districts of
fix and charge fees from foreign students
India with the highest malnutrition burden
SC
without restriction
by improving utilization of key Anganwadi
Services and improving the quality of Statement 3 is incorrect: Each Public
Anganwadi Services delivery. Institution selected as IoE will be provided
Its aim to ensure holistic development and financial assistance up to Rs. 1000 crore over a
adequate nutrition for pregnant women, period of five years.
mothers and children. Supplementary notes:
The Ministry of Women and Child
Institution of Eminence
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Development (MWCD) is implementing

POSHAN Abhiyaan in 315 Districts in first University Grants Commission (UGC) issued
year, 235 Districts in second year and / notified enabling regulatory architecture in
remaining districts will be covered in the the form of UGC (Declaration of Government
third year. Educational Institutions as Institutions
There are a number of schemes directly/ of Eminence) Guidelines, 2017 and UGC
indirectly affecting the nutritional status of (Institutions of Eminence Deemed to be
children (0-6 year’s age) and pregnant women Universities) Regulations, 2017 to enable
and lactating mothers. In spite of these, 10 public and 10 private Institutions to
level of malnutrition and related problems emerge as World Class Teaching and Research
in the country is high. There is no dearth Institutions. These Institutions shall be called
of schemes but lack of creating synergy as ‘Institutions of Eminence (IoEs)’.
and linking the schemes with each other to The aim of the scheme is to bring higher
achieve common goal. POSHAN Abhiyaan
educational institutions selected as IoEs
through robust convergence mechanism and
in top 500 of world ranking in the next 10
other components would strive to create the
years and in top 100 eventually overtime.
synergy.
The scheme has been launched with an
Feature: objective to provide world class teaching and
The POSHAN Abhiyaan, as an apex body, will monitor, research facilities to Indian students within
supervise, fix targets and guide the nutrition related the country and enhance general level of
education of the country. The PM-KMY is a Central Sector Scheme,
administered by the Department of Agriculture,
The salient features are available in the UGC
Cooperation & Farmers Welfare, Ministry of
Guidelines and the UGC Regulations under Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare.
which greater autonomy viz.
The Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maan-Dhan Yojana
to admit foreign students up to 30% of (PM-KMY) provides for an assured monthly
admitted students; pension of Rs. 3000/- to all land holding Small
to recruit foreign faculty upto 25% of and Marginal Farmers (SMFs), whether male or
faculty strength; female, on their attaining the age of 60 years.
to offer online courses upto 20% of its The amount of the monthly contribution
programmes; ranges between Rs.55 to Rs.200 per month
depending upon the age of entry of the
to enter into academic collaboration with farmers into the Scheme.
top 500 in the world ranking Institutions
The Central Government will also make an
without permission of UGC;
equal contribution of the same amount in the
free to fix and charge fees from foreign pension fund.
students without restriction;
The spouse is also eligible to get a separate
flexibility of course structure in terms of pension of Rs.3000/- upon making separate
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number of credit hours and years to take contributions to the Fund.
a degree; In case of death of the farmer before retirement
Complete flexibility in fixing of curriculum date, the spouse may continue in the scheme
and syllabus, etc. has been provided to by paying the remaining contributions till the
IoEs. remaining age of the deceased farmer.
Under this scheme, IoEs will have freedom to If the farmer dies after the retirement date,
choose their own path to become world class the spouse will receive 50% of the pension as
(EEC), constituted for this purpose.

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institutions. Institutions shall be selected as
IoEs by the Empowered Expert Committee
Family Pension.
After the death of both the farmer and the
spouse, the accumulated corpus shall be
The EEC shall conduct their appraisal based credited back to the Pension Fund.
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on their 15 years strategic vision plan and Eligibility
5 years implementation plan as well as any
other measure of demonstrated commitment All Small and Marginal Farmers (SMFs) in all
to the cause of developing an Institution of States and Union Territories of the country,
who are of the age of 18 years and above and
Eminence.
upto the age of 40 years, and who do not fall
The EEC will make its recommendation after within the purview of the exclusion criteria as
engagement with the Institutions to study mentioned in the guidelines, are eligible to
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their proposals, hear presentations from avail the benefits of this Scheme by joining it.
them and after a thorough scrutiny, rank the Farmers falling within the purview of the
Institutions for their suitability for inclusion in exclusion criteria are not eligible for the
this scheme. benefit.
Each Public Institution selected as IoE will Exclusion criteria
be provided financial assistance up to Rs.
1000 crore over a period of five years. SMFs covered under any other statuary social
security schemes such as National Pension
Scheme (NPS), Employees’ State Insurance
27. Correct Option: (b) Corporation scheme, Employees’ Fund
Organization Scheme etc.
Explanation:
Farmers who have opted for Pradhan Mantri
Statement 1 is incorrect: The PM-KMY is a Shram Yogi Maan Dhan Yojana (PMSYM)
Central Sector Scheme, administered by the administered by the Ministry of Labour &
Department of Agriculture, Cooperation & Employment.
Farmers Welfare, Ministry of Agriculture &
Farmers’ Welfare. Farmers who have opted for Pradhan Mantri
Laghu Vyapari Maan-dhan Yojana (PM-LVM)
Supplementary notes: administered by the Ministry of Labour &
Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maan-Dhan Yojana Employment.
The following categories of beneficiaries of
higher economic status are not eligible for National Resource Persons identified from
benefits under the scheme: National Council of Educational Research
and Training (NCERT), National Institute of
All Institutional Land holders. Educational Planning and Administration
Former and present holders of constitutional (NIEPA), Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan (KVS),
posts Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti (NVS), Central
Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) and
Professionals like Doctors, Engineers, Lawyers, Non-Government Organisations.
Chartered Accountants, and Architects
registered with Professional bodies and The prominent features of this integrated
programme are activity based modules
carrying out profession by undertaking
including educational games and quizzes,
practice.
Social-emotional learning, motivational
interactions, team building, preparation for
28. Correct Option: (b) school based assessment, in-built continuous
feedback mechanism, online monitoring and
Explanation: support system, training need and impact
analysis (Pre and Post training).
Option is correct
Supplementary notes: 29. Correct Option: (c)
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NISHTHA Explanation:
National Mission to improve learning Statement 2 is incorrect: It is issued by
outcomes at the elementary level through respective State Government.
an Integrated Teacher Training Programme
called NISHTHA is launched by The Supplementary notes:
Department of School Education and
ILP
Literacy under the Centrally Sponsored
Scheme of Samagra Shiksha in 2109-20.
O ILP is an official travel document issued by
the Government of India to grant inward
NISHTHA is a capacity building programme travel of an Indian citizen into a protected
for “Improving Quality of School Education area for a limited period. Visitors are not
through Integrated Teacher Training”.
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allowed to purchase property in these
It aims to build competencies among all regions.
the teachers and school principals at the Validity of permit is generally 15-20 days.
elementary stage.
Prior to Manipur’s merger with India, Manipur
NISHTHA is the world’s largest teachers’ had become a state and nearly had the ILP
training programme of its kind. system. However, it was only in 1951 when
the then chief commissioner Himmat Singh
The basic objective of this massive training lifted the rule and allowed unregulated entry
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programme is to motivate and equip teachers of outsiders into the region.

to encourage and foster critical thinking
in students. The initiative is first of its kind According to the 2011 census, the population
wherein standardized training modules are of Manipur is a little over 27 lakh. Of this, only
developed at national level for all States and 17 lakh (1.7 million) are indigenous people
UTs. and 10 lakh (one million) are outsiders.
The ongoing agitation took an ugly turn when
This integrated programme aims to build
villagers torched the houses of MP and MLAs.
the capacities of around 42 lakh participants
covering all teachers and Heads of Schools Currently, the Inner Line Permit is
at the elementary level in all Government operational in Arunachal Pradesh,
schools, faculty members of State Councils of Mizoram and Nagaland. In addition to
Educational Research and Training (SCERTs), these, Meghalaya, Manipur, Andaman and
District Institutes of Education and Training Nicobar Islands and Leh also require Indian
(DIETs) as well as Block Resource Coordinators citizens to have a permit before they enter.
and Cluster Resource Coordinators in all States It has been issued under the Bengal Eastern
and UTs. Frontier Regulation, 1873 and the conditions
Training will be conducted directly by 33120 and restrictions vary from state to state.
Key Resource Persons (KRPs) and State It can be issued for travel purposes solely.
Resource Persons (SRP) identified by the State
and UTs, who will in turn be trained by 120 Visitors are not allowed to purchase property
in these regions. However, there might the true spirit of right to information.
be a different set of rules for long term
The portal will prevent anomalies and
visitors, though they are not valid for central
corruption in government.
government employees and security forces.
A mobile app will be developed and self-
Purpose
service portals will be installed in villages so
To regulate the movement of visitors into that people can access the Jan Soochna Portal
sensitive regions easily and get the information they require.
To strengthen security of the sensitive areas
near to international borders 32. Correct Option: (d)
To protect the cultural ethos of a specific
Explanation:
region
30. Correct Option: (c) Supplementary notes:

Explanation: National Pension Scheme for Traders and Self
Employed Persons
Under this scheme all shopkeepers, retail
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Supplementary notes: traders and self-employed persons are
Mietei Community assured a minimum monthly pension of Rs.
3,000/- month after attaining the age of 60
Mietei community of Manipur who are largely years.
Hindus are believed to be behind the violent
protests. The tribal populations in Manipur All small shopkeepers and self-employed
have no role in protests. persons as well as the retail traders with GST
turnover below Rs. 1.5 crore and age between

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Meiteis demand the Scheduled Tribe status
and the tribals are saying if Meiteis are given
the ST status they will buy all their lands.
18-40 years, can enrol for this scheme. The
scheme would benefit more than 3 crore small
shopkeepers and traders.
The influx of foreign tourists and illegal
The scheme is based on self-declaration as
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immigration from Bangladesh, Nepal and
no documents are required except Aadhaar
Myanmar has contributed to the crisis. This
has created fear among the locals over and bank account. Interested persons
employment and availability of resources. can enrol themselves through more than
Meiteis want strict imposition of ILP in Manipur 3,25,000 Common Service Centres spread
to protect their culture and identity. across the country.
Meiteis abandoned their traditional Sanamahi GSTIN is required only for those with turnover
faith and converted en mass to Hinduism. above Rs. 40 lakhs.
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The Central Government shall give 50 % share

of the monthly contribution and remaining
50% contribution shall be made by the
Explanation: beneficiary. For example if a person with age
of 29 years contributes Rs. 100/- month, then
the Central Government also contributes the
Supplementary notes: equal amount as subsidy into subscriber’s
pension account every month.
Jan Soochna Portal
The beneficiary should not be income tax
Jan Soochna Portal is the first ever public payer and also not a member of EPFO/ESIC/
information portal launched by the NPS (Govt.) /PM-SYM.
government of Rajasthan.
This scheme will target enrolling 25 lakh
Section 4(2) of the Right to Information subscribers in 2019-20 and 2 crore subscribers
(RTI) Act of 2005 requires public authorities by 2023-2024. An estimated 3 crore Vyaparis
to disclose information pro-actively. The Jan in the country are expected to be benefitted
Soochna Portal will not require citizens under the pension scheme.
to submit RTI application for seeking
information.
Aim: To provide information on government 33. Correct Option: (d)
services and authorities to public suo-moto in
Explanation: has been released.
All statements are correct.
Explanation:
International Migrant Stock
Statement 2 is incorrect: More male
India was the leading country of origin of
teachers in Higher Educational Institutions
international migrants in 2019 with a 17.5
million strong Diaspora, according to new (HEIs) in India than females.
estimates released by the United Nations, which Supplementary notes:
said the number of migrants globally reached an
estimated 272 million. India’s Survey on Higher Education
The count of the Indian Diaspora has increased The survey, undertaken as an annual, web-
10% from 15.9 million in 2015, making it the based, pan-India exercise on the status of
largest in the world, according to the UN’s Higher Education since 2010-11, covers all
International Migrant Stock 2019 released on the Higher Educational Institutions in the
Wednesday. country.
The data set was compiled by the UN The survey collects data on several
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Department of Economic and Social Affairs parameters like teachers, student
Division. enrolment, programmes, examination
results, education finance, infrastructure,
It now comprises 6.4% of the total global etc.
migrant population.
The data collected under these parameters
The United Arab Emirates (UAE) was the top come handy for making informed policy
destination of Indian migrants followed by the decisions and conducting research in
US, Saudi Arabia, Pakistan and Oman.
O education development.
Bangladesh was a top source of migrants to The survey is building a sound database,
India, followed by Pakistan, Nepal, Srilanka which is getting updated annually as per
and China. information submitted by the institutions
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Global data Highlights of AISHE Report 2018-19
In 2019, the number of international migrants Total enrolment in higher education has
worldwide was nearly 272 million, up from 221 been estimated to be 37.4 million with 19.2
million in 2010 and 174 million in 2000. million male and 18.2 million female. Female
constitute 48.6% of the total enrolment.
More than half of all international migrants
lived in Europe (82 million) or Northern Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in Higher
America (59 million). education in India is 26.3%, which is calculated
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for 18-23 years of age group. GER for male

Women comprised slightly less than half population is 26.3% and for females, it
of all international migrants. The share of is 26.4%. For Scheduled Castes, it is 23%
women in the total number of international and for Scheduled Tribes, it is 17.2% as
migrants fell from 49.3 % in 2000 to 48% compared to the national GER of 26.3%.
cent in 2019.
UP and Karnataka have more female
In 2019, the percentage of females among all enrolment in higher education and the
international migrants was highest in Northern ratio of male students is higher than females
America (51.8 %) and Europe (51.4 %). on almost every level, except Certificate, Post
Graduate and M.Phil. The female enrolment
Central and Southern Asia (49.4 %), and Eastern
in Karnataka and UP is 50.04% and 50%
and South-Eastern Asia (49.3 %) hosted an
respectively.
almost equal proportion of female and male
migrants. Maharashtra has recorded the second-
highest student enrolment with roughly
Europe hosts the largest number of
54.95% male and 45.05% females.
international migrants, at 82 million; followed
by North America at 59 million; North Africa In Rajasthan, male enrollment number is
and Western Asia host around 49 million higher as compared to the females.
migrants.
UG level student enrolment is 51% males
In News - UN’s International Migrant Stock 2019 and 49% females across India.
The top 6 States having highest student Commission Act, 1956 and establishes the
enrollment are UP, Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Higher Education Commission of India
Rajasthan, Karnataka and West Bengal. (HECI).
However, when it comes to the total number
of institutes, the state-wise ranking is The HECI will maintain academic standards
different with UP (8077) at the top followed in higher education by specifying learning
by Maharashtra (6662), Karnataka (5028), outcomes for courses, specifying eligibility
Rajasthan (3723), Andhra Pradesh (3540) and criteria for Vice Chancellors, and ordering
Tamil Nadu (3443). closure of higher educational institutions
The above mentioned 6 states with the which fail to adhere to minimum standards.
highest student enrolment have roughly Every higher educational institution
54.23% of the total student enrolment in
empowered to award degrees or diplomas
India
will have to apply to the HECI to commence
Remaining 30 States (including UTs) have its first academic operations. The HECI also
only 25.76% of the total student enrolment. has the power to revoke permission on
The survey covers all institutes of higher specified grounds.
education in India, and the institutes are
The Bill sets up an Advisory Council chaired
categorised in 3 broad categories such as
by the Union Minister of Human Resource
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College, University and Stand-alone institutes
(offering Paramedical, Diploma, Hotel Development. The Council will advise
Management and Catering courses). on coordination and determination of
standards in higher education between the
There are a total of 993 Universities, 39931 centre and states.
Colleges and 10725 Stand Alone Institutions
listed on the AISHE web portal and out of
that, 962 Universities, 38179 Colleges and
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9190 Stand Alone Institutions have responded In India, education is included in the
during the survey. 298 Universities are concurrent list which implies that both
affiliating. the centre and states can enact laws on it.
More male teachers in Higher Educational Higher education is regulated by multiple
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Institutions (HEIs) in India than females, authorities. The University Grants
with the lowest gender proportion in Commission (UGC) regulates universities
Bihar. and colleges teaching general subjects. It
4,16,299 is the total number of teachers has the power to determine and maintain
out of which about 57.8 per cent are male standards and disburse grants.
teachers and 42.2 per cent are female The All India Council for Technical
teachers. In Bihar, 78.97 per cent are male Education (AICTE) regulates technical
teachers and 21.03 per cent are females. education such as engineering,
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Jharkhand has 69.8 per cent male teachers management, and architecture.
and 30.2 per cent female teachers. Further, institutions offering courses
UP has 32.3 per cent, female teachers. related to medical, legal, nursing or teacher
education are regulated by 14 professional
At All India level, there are just 73 female councils such as the Medical Council, the
teachers per 100 male teachers. Bar Council, and the Nursing Council.
The several expert bodies such as the
35. Correct Option: (d) National Knowledge Commission (2009),
the Yashpal Committee (2010), and the
Explanation: Committee for Evolution of the New
All statements are correct Education Policy (2016) have suggested
measures to reform higher education to
Supplementary notes: address issues related to access, quality,
funding and governance.
Higher Education Commission
Noting that the current system is
The Draft bill on Higher Education
Commission of India (Repeal of University overregulated but under governed, they
Grants Commission Act, 1956) Bill, 2018 was recommended consolidating all existing
made public to attract public opinion. regulators under an independent
regulator.
The Bill seeks to repeal the University Grants
are believed to be the guiding principles.
In 2011, the Higher Education and
Research Bill, 2011 was introduced in It aims to contain a rising China and its
Parliament which sought to consolidate “predatory” economic and trade policies.
the regulators of all higher education The purpose is also to provide alternative
under a single regulator. However, the Bill debt financing for countries in the Indo-
was withdrawn in 2014. Pacific region.
Key Issues and Analysis Report on stability was recently launched by

four think tanks from the Quad countries at
HECI aims to promote autonomy of higher the Vivekananda International Foundation
educational institutions. However, certain (VIF).
provisions of the Bill do not meet this stated
objective. It may be argued that instead of The report was published by Quadripartite
granting higher educational institutions Commission on Indian Ocean Regional
increased autonomy, the Bill provides HECI Security, which put out a series of 20 policy
with extensive regulatory control. recommendations for stability in the Indian
Ocean Region (IOR).
Currently, institutions offering professional
courses are regulated by 14 professional It recommended that the four countries
councils. Of these, the Bill seeks to bring should work to oppose the establishment
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legal and architecture education within the of permanent Chinese military bases in the
purview of HECI. It is unclear why only these IOR.
two areas are included within the regulatory
ambit of the HECI and not the other fields of 37. Correct Option (a)
professional education.
Explanation:
At present, the UGC has the power to
allocate and disburse grants to universities Option is correct
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and colleges. While the Bill replaces the UGC,

it does not include any provisions regarding Supplementary notes:

disbursal of grants. This raises a question Section 11 of RPA, 1951 and related news
whether HECI will have any role in the disbursal
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of grants to higher educational institutions. Sikkim Chief Minister Prem Singh Tamang
was barred by law from contesting elections
Presently, the Central Advisory Board of for six years in 2016 for graft charges.
Higher Education (CABE) co-ordinates and
advises the centre and states on education He had been sentenced to one year
related matters. The Bill creates an Advisory imprisonment for misappropriation of funds
Council and requires HECI to implement its in the procurement of cows when he was
recommendations. This may restrict HECI from state Animal Husbandry Minister under the
functioning as an independent regulator. Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988. However,
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the section under which he was convicted had

been omitted in an amendment in 2018. He
36. Correct Option: (a) completed the one-year sentence on August
10, 2018.
Explanation:
After completing his one-year prison term in
Statement 3 is incorrect: First Quad talks
2018 his disqualification was sharply reduced
were held in 2015 in Manila, Philippines.
to just a year and a month by the Election
Supplementary notes: Commission of India (ECI) recently.
Quad Grouping EC cited Section 11 of the Representation

of the People Act, 1951 which empowers
Indo-Pacific Quadrilateral also known as Quad it to remove/reduce disqualification
Group is a closed group consisting of India, prescribed by statutory rule for reasons to
Australia, Japan & USA. be recorded.
Japan pioneered the initiative in 2007 as a The EC justified its decision on the ground
coalition of maritime democracies. that Tamang was convicted of an offence
First Official quad talks were held in Manila, committed in 1996-97, when a minimum
punishment of two years was warranted
Philippines in 2017
under the Prevention of Corruption Act,
Securing a rules-based global order, liberal 1988, for attracting the six-year disqualification.
trading system and freedom of navigation Tamang was imprisoned for a year. The EC also
noted that he had already served his sentence, Prevent child marriage. Improved outcomes in
and hence, his case merited a disqualification terms of their health (especially facilitate the
waiver. prevention of infant and maternal mortality).
Contribute towards empowerment of girls in
38. Correct Option: (b) the state. Bring immeasurable benefits for the
larger society as a whole.
Explanation:
Components of Scheme Annual Scholarship
Statement 1 is incorrect: National nutrition of Rs. 500: It is for unmarried girls aged
survey was conducted by the Ministry of 13-18 years enrolled in classes VIII-XII
Health and Family Welfare in partnership with in government recognized regular or
United Nations Children Fund (UNICEF) to equivalent open school or equivalent
measure the level of malnutrition in India. vocational or technical training course.
Supplementary notes: One time Grant of Rs. 25,000: It is for girls
turned 18 at time of application, enrolled
Government Scheme in government recognized regular or open
National nutrition survey was conducted by school and colleges or pursuing vocational or
the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in technical training or sports activity or is inmate
partnership with United Nations Children Fund of Home registered under JJ Act.
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(UNICEF) to measure the level of malnutrition
Progress: So far around 50 lakh girls from
in India.
the state have been benefited by scheme and
CDSA – Clinical Development Services Agency removal of ceiling will help another three lakh
was selected as the monitoring agency for the more girls annually. Since its launch, it has
aforementioned survey. helped to reduce number of school drop out
of girls by nearly 11.5%
The survey covered more than 1,20,000
covering both children and adolescents in rural

over a period of two years (2016-2018)
It aimed to assess the following
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and urban area. The survey was conducted 40. Correct Option (a)
Explanation:
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Micro nutrient deficiencies
Sub clinical inflammation
Overweight or obesity
National Blindness and Visual Impairment
Survey, 2019
Cardio – metabolic risks
Union Health Minister released the National
Blindness and Visual Impairment Survey
39. Correct Option: (c) 2019.
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Explanation: The survey was conducted by the AIIMS,

Delhi and Union Ministry of Health and
Statement 3 is incorrect: All girl children Family Welfare.
within the age of 13 to 18 in the state are
targeted beneficiaries. The survey was conducted between 2015 and
2019.
The survey was conducted in 31 districts of 24
Kanyashree Scheme states and the results were extrapolated for
the entire country.
Kanyashree is a conditional cash transfer
scheme aiming at improving the status and India is the first country to launch National
wellbeing of the girl child by incentivising Program for Control of Blindness in 1976.
schooling of teenage girls and delaying The aim of the program is to reduce the
their marriages until the age of 18. blindness prevalence to 0.3% by 2020.
It received the United Nations Public Key findings of the report
Service Award last year.
Cataract is the leading cause of blindness
It Improve lives and status of the adolescent in people above 50 years, according to the
girls in State. Provide financial help to girls survey.
from disadvantaged families to pursue higher
studies (now it will cover every girl from The prevalence of blindness in India is
state). 1.99%.
Bijnor, Uttar Pradesh has the highest Tribunals function as an effective mechanism
population suffering from blindness. to ameliorate the burden of the judiciary.
Around 3.67% of the districts are blind and The original Constitution did not contain
21.82% suffer visual impairment. provisions with respect to tribunals.
Blindness is more pronounced among The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added a
illiterates as compared to literates. new Part XIV-A to the Constitution.
Around 3.23% illiterates are blind and This part is entitled as ‘Tribunals’ and consists
0.43% literates are blind. of only two Articles—Article 323 A dealing
Blindness is more prevalent in rural with administrative tribunals and Article 323 B
population (2.14%) as compared to dealing with tribunals for other matters.
urban (1.8%) The government of India via Section 184 of the
Approximately 93% of cases of blindness Finance Act 2017 gave the central government
the authority to decide the qualifications,
and 96.2% visual impairment cases in this
terms and other service conditions of tribunal
age group were avoidable.
members.
Causes of blindness Recently, the Supreme Court of India
in November 2019 struck down the
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Aphakia – Absence of lens in the eye
restructuring of various tribunals in the
Untreated non-infectious corneal opacity- country done through the Finance Act,
scarring of cornea 2017.
Cataract related surgical complication was the The court also recommended setting up of
second highest cause for blindness. an independent statutory body “National
The outcomes of cataract surgery are not Tribunals Commission” to oversee the
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good everywhere. Around 40% of cataracts selection process of members, fixing criteria
were done in government facilities. Rest of for appointment, salary, allowances and for
the surgeries took place in private and non – removal of chairpersons and members of
profit facilities. Of these, only 57.8% saw good tribunals.
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visual outcome. Cost was the biggest barrier
in accessing cataract surgeries. 42. Correct Option: (a)
Around 22.1% of blindness was caused because Explanation:
of cost as a barrier. Around 22.1% of blindness
were caused due to lack of awareness Statement 2 is incorrect: As per the
November 2019 judgement of the supreme
Barriers to accessing treatment court, the office of CJI is now covered under
the RTI act.
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Among men, the most important barriers are

financial constraints (31%) and local reasons Supplementary notes:
(21.5%).
Right to Information Act 2005
Among women, local reasons (23.1%) and
financial constraints (21.2%) were the most In a landmark verdict, the Supreme Court in
important barriers. November 2019 held that the office of the
Chief Justice of India is a public authority
and falls within the ambit of the Right to
41. Correct Option: (a) Information Act.
Explanation: According to Section 2(h) of Right To

Information (RTI) Act, 2005 “public authority”
Statement 2 is incorrect: Provisions related means any authority or body or institution of
to tribunals in India were added by the 42nd self-government established or constituted:
constitutional amendment act of 1976.
by or under the Constitution;
Supplementary notes: by any other law made by Parliament;
Tribunals in India by any other law made by the state
‘Tribunal’ is an administrative body legislature;
established for the purpose of discharging by notification issued or order made by
quasi-judicial duties. the appropriate Government,
And includes any: the Ministry of Law and Justice in June 2019,
currently, there are 581 fast track courts in the
body owned, controlled or substantially
country that are functional.
financed;
The government in December 2019 announced
non-Government organization
to set up 1,023 fast track special courts (FTSCs)
substantially financed, directly or
for expeditious trial and disposal of rape cases,
indirectly by funds provided by the
including that of minors under Protection of
appropriate Government
Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act,
As per the bench, the office of the CJI is part 2012.
and parcel of the institution i.e. the Supreme
Court which itself is a public authority, so is
the office of the CJI. 44. Correct Option: (a)
However, the disclosure of personal information Explanation:
of judges is discretionary under Section 8(1)( j) Option is correct
of the RTI Act and his statute has given the
discretion to the Public Information Officer Supplementary notes:
(PIO).
National level committee for Reform in
Criminal Law
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43. Correct Option: (d) Recently, the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA)
Explanation: has constituted a national level committee
under the chairmanship of Ranbir Singh for
All statements are correct reform in criminal law.
Supplementary notes: The Committee seeks to recommend reforms
in the criminal laws in a principled, effective,
Fast Track Courts in India
and efficient manner, to ensure the safety and

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As per the National Judicial Data Grid, more
than 3 crore civil and criminal cases are
pending (as of Feb 2019) in the lower courts

security of every individual, the community,
and the nation on the whole.
The committee would be gathering opinions
across the country. This delayed delivery of
online by consulting with experts and collating
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justice, especially in sexual assault cases leads
material for their report to the government.
to frequent large scale protests, by various
groups demanding stricter punishment and The consultation exercise would start on
speedier trial in such cases. 4th July 2020 and go on for the next three
months.
In this backdrop, the Fast Track Courts (FTCs)
were established in Indian in the year 2000
with an aim to clear the long-pending Sessions 45. Correct Option: (a)
and other lower judicial cases.
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Explanation:
These are special kind of courts which have
exclusive jurisdiction over a particular Statement 2 is incorrect: Only 3 districts of
category of law i.e. case of sexual assault Arunachal Pradesh namely Tirap, Changlang
and children’s cases. and Longding are covered under the AFSPA.
The main objective of fast track courts is to Supplementary notes:

provide speedy justice to a large number of
Armed Forces Special Powers Act (AFSPA)
pending cases in a specified time.
The AFSPA 1958 came into force in the
Judges are appointed on ad hoc basis and
context of increasing violence in the North-
retired judges are eligible for selection.
eastern States decades ago, which the State
A total of 1734 FTCs were approved in 2000 governments found difficult to control.
following the report of the 11th Finance
Commission. Out of this, only 1192 were AFSPA gives armed forces the power to
functional by 2011. maintain public order in “disturbed areas”.
The central government constituted the AFSPA is in force in Jammu & Kashmir since
Justice Verma Commission in 2012 to suggest July 5, 1990.
possible amendments in the criminal law to Earlier, before the State of J&K was bifurcated
ensure speedier disposal of cases relating to and downgraded it was the MHA or the
sexual assault. Governor that was the designated authority
According to a recently released report by for notifying the Armed Forces (Jammu and
Kashmir) Special Powers Act, 1990. The scheme also covers post-harvest losses
up to a period of 14 days.
Cabinet Secretariat in November 2019 notified
rules reasserting the Ministry of Home Affairs The farmer has to pay a premium of 2 per cent
(MHA) as the authority that would decide of the sum insured for all Kharif crops and 1.5
on the imposition of AFSPA in the Union per cent of it for all rabi crops.
Territories of Jammu and Kashmir (J&K)
For horticulture and commercial crops,
and Ladakh.
the premium is 5 per cent of the sum
Other areas where AFSPA is operational covered. The remaining premium is paid by
include entire States of Assam, Nagaland, the government.
Manipur (except Imphal Municipal area), The scheme is implemented by empanelled
three districts namely Tirap, Changlang general insurance companies.
and Longding of Arunachal Pradesh and the
areas falling within the jurisdiction of the eight Selection of Implementing Agency (IA) is
police stations in the districts of Arunachal done by the concerned State Government
Pradesh, bordering the State of Assam. through bidding.
46. Correct Option: (a) 47. Correct Option: (d)
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Explanation: Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Threshold yield is Statement 1 is incorrect: It was launched by
calculated on the basis of the average yield of Ministry of Women and Child Development
the crop for the last seven years. with support from Bill & Melinda Gates
Foundation.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Post harvest losses
are covered for a period of 14 days only. Statement 2 is incorrect: BPKK is a repository
Statement 4 is incorrect: Selection of

O of diverse crops across 128 agro-climatic zones
in India for better nutritional outcomes. The
Implementing Agency (IA) is done by the POSHAN Abhiyan aims to reduce malnutrition
concerned State Government and not the through a multi-sectoral results-based
central government. framework.
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Supplementary notes: Supplementary notes:
Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojna Bharatiya Poshan Krishi Kosh
The scheme was launched by the government Minister of Women and Child Development
of India on 18th February 2016. along with Bill Gates, co-chair of Bill &
It provides a comprehensive insurance cover Melinda Gates Foundation launched the
against the failure of the crop thus helping in Bharatiya Poshan Krishi Kosh (BPKK) in
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stabilising the income of the farmers. New Delhi.
In the event of a crop loss, the farmer will be The BPKK will be a repository of diverse
paid based on the difference between the crops across 128 agro-climatic zones in
threshold yield and actual yield. India for better nutritional outcomes.
The threshold yield is calculated based on On this occasion, eminent agricultural scientist,
average yield for the last seven years and Dr. M. S. Swaminathan, in his address, said that
to make India nutrition secure a five-point
the extent of compensation is set according to
action programme has to be implemented:
the degree of risk for the notified crop.
Ensure calorie rich diet for women,
The scheme is being administered by the
expectant mothers and children
Ministry of Agriculture and is compulsory
for loanee farmers availing Crop Loan /KCC Ensure intake of proteins in the form of
account for notified crops and voluntary for pulses to eradicate protein hunger in
other others. women and children
The scheme ensures farmers against a Eradicate hidden hunger due to deficiency
wide range of external risks — droughts, of micro nutrients like vitamin A, vitamin B,
dry spells, floods, inundation, pests and Iron and Zinc
diseases, landslides, natural fire and lightning,
Ensure clean drinking water supply
hailstorms, cyclones, typhoons, tempests,
hurricanes and tornadoes. Spreading nutrition literacy in every village
particularly in mothers with children less and a couple of other small countries have
than 100 days’ old Observer status. International Organizations
like: United Nations (UN) (1976), Non-
POSHAN Abhiyaan Aligned Movement (NAM) (1977), League of
POSHAN Abhiyaan launched in 2018 is the Arab States (LAS) (1975), African Union (AU)
Prime Minister’s Overarching Scheme for (1977), Economic Cooperation Organization
Holistic Nutrition to reduce malnutrition (ECO) (1995) are also given observer status.
through a multi-sectoral results-based
framework.
The Mission aims at targeted reduction of
stunting, under-nutrition, anemia and low Explanation:
birth weight babies. Option is correct: The Tamil Nadu government
A novel feature of the POSHAN Abhiyaan is its had distributed Nilavembu Kudineer
focus on social and behavioral change among concoction to treat people infected with
parents and for improving linkages between dengue during the outbreak in late 2017.
communities and the health systems towards
paving the way for a mass movement to
promote a transformative change. Nilavembu Kudineer
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Under in vitro conditions, Nilavembu
48. Correct Option: (d) Kudineer (a Siddha medicine) was found
to provide protection against Chikungunya
Explanation: virus while it was effective as a treatment
All statement are correct during acute phase of Dengue infection.
Dengue subtype-2, which is the most prevalent
Supplementary notes: subtype in India, was used for testing the
formulation. There was significant antiviral
Organization of Islamic Cooperation (OIC)

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Fifty years after being disinvited from the
1969 Conference of Islamic Countries in
activity of the formulation at 3% of human
dose onwards. Currently, there is no treatment
for dengue and chikungunya.
Rabat in Morocco at Pakistan’s behest, India
The Tamil Nadu government had distributed
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made its maiden appearance at the foreign
ministers’ meeting of the Organization of Nilavembu Kudineer concoction to treat
Islamic Cooperation (OIC) on March 1, 2019 people infected with dengue during the
as a “guest of honor”. outbreak in late 2017.
This is the first time India has been invited A team of researchers from the International
to the OIC after 1969, when then Industrial Centre for Genetic Engineering and
development minister Fakhruddin Ali Biotechnology (ICGEB), Delhi found that
Ahmed was disinvited on arriving at the Nilavembu Kudineer formulation was
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Morocco, after Pakistan’s President Yahya modulating the host response in the case of
Khan lobbied against Indian participation. both chikungunya and dengue virus but in a
different manner. The mode of action of the
The Organization of Islamic Cooperation concoction is antiviral in the case of dengue
(OIC) is the second largest inter- while immuno-modulatory in chikungunya
governmental organization after the infection.
United Nations with a membership of 57
states spread over four continents. Safety studies showed that Nilavembu
Kudineer concoction was non-toxic starting
The Organization is the collective voice of from 3% (about 1.8 milligram per milliliter)
the Muslim world. It endeavors to safeguard
of human dose. However, the researchers
and protect the interests of the Muslim world
found that andrographis, which is the active
in the spirit of promoting international peace
ingredient of Nilavembu Kudineer, when used
and harmony among various people of the
alone was extremely toxic at 3% of human
world.
dose. Human dose is prepared by mixing 5
The Organization was established upon grams of Nilavembu Kudineer in 240 ml of
a decision of the historical summit which water. It is then boiled and reduced to 30 ml
took place in Rabat, Kingdom of Morocco in and consumed.
1969 following the criminal arson of Al-Aqsa
Mosque in occupied Jerusalem.
The OIC has reserved its membership for
Muslim-majority countries. Russia, Thailand, Explanation:
Both statements are correct Statement 1 is incorrect: It is a Central
Sector Scheme.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The scheme
Pricing of Essential Drugs will be implemented by Ministry of Food
National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority Processing Industries (MoFPI).
(NPPA) was constituted vide Government of Supplementary notes:
India Resolution as an attached office of the
Department of Pharmaceuticals (DoP), Ministry Pradhan Mantri Kisan SAMPADA Yojana
of Chemicals & Fertilizers as an independent (PMKSY)
Regulator for pricing of drugs and to ensure Government of India approved a Central
availability and accessibility of medicines at Sector Scheme – Pradhan Mantri Kisan
affordable prices. SAMPADA Yojana (Scheme for Agro-Marine
Functions and responsibilities: Processing and Development of Agro-
Processing Clusters) with an allocation of Rs.
To implement and enforce the provisions 6,000 crore for the period 2016-20 coterminous
of the Drugs (Prices Control) Order in with the 14th Finance Commission cycle.
accordance with the powers delegated to
it. The scheme will be implemented by
Ministry of Food Processing Industries
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To deal with all legal matters arising out of (MoFPI).
the decisions of the Authority.
It is a comprehensive package which will result
To monitor the availability of drugs, identify in creation of modern infrastructure with
shortages, if any, and to take remedial efficient supply chain management from farm
steps. gate to retail outlet.
To collect/ maintain data on production, It will not only provide a big boost to the
exports and imports, market share growth of food processing sector in the
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of individual companies, profitability country but also help in providing better
of companies etc, for bulk drugs and returns to farmers and is a big step towards
formulations. doubling of farmers income, creating huge
employment opportunities especially in the
To undertake and/ or sponsor relevant rural areas, reducing wastage of agricultural
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studies in respect of pricing of drugs/ produce, increasing the processing level and
pharmaceuticals. enhancing the export of the processed foods.
To recruit/ appoint the officers and other The PMKSY has seven component schemes:
staff members of the Authority, as per
rules and procedures laid down by the Mega Food Parks,
Government. Integrated Cold Chain and Value Addition
To render advice to the Central Government Infrastructure,
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on changes/ revisions in the drug policy. Infrastructure for Agro-Processing

To render assistance to the Central Clusters,
Government in the parliamentary matters Creation of Backward and Forward
relating to the drug pricing. Linkages,
The government directly regulates prices of Creation/Expansion of Food Processing &
medicines that are part of NLEM by capping Preservation Capacities,
their ceiling prices at the simple average of
Food Safety and Quality Assurance
all drugs in a particular segment with market
share of at least 1%. For all other medicines, Infrastructure, and
companies are allowed to hike prices by up to Human Resources and Institutions.
10% in a year.
Set up in 1997, NPPA has been entrusted with 52. Correct Option: (b)
the task of fixation/revision of prices of pharma
products, enforcement of provisions of DPCO Explanation:
and monitoring of prices of controlled and
decontrolled drugs. Statement 1 is incorrect: It was set up in
2004-05 with an aim to achieve population
stabilization by 2045.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Under its Prerna
Explanation: scheme, it has launched a responsible
Parenthood Strategy to help push up the age Custodial Violence
of marriage of girls and space the birth of
The recent death of a father-son duo from Tamil
children.
Nadu, allegedly due to custodial violence, has
Supplementary notes: sparked anger across India.
Jansankhya Sthirata Kosh (JSK) Custodial violence primarily refers to violence

in police custody and judicial custody. Besides
The National Population Stabilization Fund or death, rape and torture are two other forms of
Jansankhya Sthirata Kosh (JSK) was set up in custodial violence. However, the term custodial
2004-05 with a one-time grant of Rs.100 violence has not been defined under any law.
crore to achieve population stabilization
by 2045 at levels consistent with the needs The right to counsel is also a fundamental right
under Article 22(1) of the Indian constitution.
of sustainable economic growth, social
development and environment protection. India does not have anti-torture legislation
and is yet to criminalize custodial violence.
It is an autonomous body under Ministry of
Health and Family Welfare. Although India has signed the United Nations
Convention against Torture (UNCAT) in 1997
The JSK has been registered as an
its ratification remains. UNCAT aims to prevent
autonomous Society established under the
torture and other acts of cruel, inhumane, or
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Societies Registration Act of 1860.
degrading treatment or punishment around
Its accounts can be audited by the CAG. the world.
It has implemented the following schemes:
Prerna Scheme - In order to help
push up the age of marriage of girls Explanation:
and space the birth of children in the
O
interest of health of young mothers and All statements are correct
infants, JSK launched Prerna, a responsible Supplementary notes:
Parenthood Strategy in seven focus states
namely Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Sri Lanka – election process
Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Odisha,
SC
Gotabaya Rajapaksa, Sri Lanka’s former
and Rajasthan. wartime defence chief, has been elected as
Santushti Scheme - This scheme is for the president of Sri Lanka.
highly populated states of India viz Bihar, Sri Lanka’s government operates under a
Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, semi-presidential system, where the
Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh & Odisha. Under president holds widespread executive
this strategy, JSK invites private sector authority but governs in partnership with a
gynecologists and vasectomy surgeons to prime minister he appoints from amongst the
GS
conduct sterilization operations in Public members of Parliament.

Private Partnership mode.
Prime Minister recommends the federal
National Helpline - for information on cabinet drawn from the Parliament.
family planning
Srilanka has unicameral government
The president is both head of state and
53. Correct Option: (c) head of government
Explanation: President is elected for a 5 year term and is
eligible for second term.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Protection from
torture is a fundamental right enshrined The Sri Lankan president is elected using a form
under Article 21 (Right of Life) of the Indian of instant-runoff voting. Voters can rank up to
constitution where rights such as Right to free three candidates, and if no candidate wins a
legal aid, Right against inhuman treatment, majority in the first round of voting, second
Right against custodial harassment, Right of a and third preferences from ballots whose first
prisoner to have necessities of life have been preference candidate has been eliminated are
mentioned. used to determine the winner.
Statement 3 is incorrect: India has signed

the UNCAT in 1997 but has not ratified it. 55. Correct Option: (c)
Supplementary notes: Explanation:
Option is correct: The correct sequence is: Statement 2 is incorrect: An association
seeking registration has to submit an
2. Party or combination of parties which
application to the Commission within a
commands the widest support in the legislative
period of 30 days following the date of its
assembly formation.
1. Pre-poll alliance or coalition having
majority
3. Post-electoral coalition with all partners Registration of Political Parties
Registration of political parties is governed
4. Group of parties which had pre-poll alliance
by the provisions of Section 29A of the
commanding the largest number
Supplementary notes: An association seeking registration under
Governor and his role in case of Hung the above mentioned Section has to submit
Assembly: an application to the Commission within a
period of 30 days following the date of its
On the question of Governor’s role in formation.
appointment of Chief Minister in the case of
a hung assembly, it is necessary to lay down This is as per guidelines prescribed by the
certain clear guidelines to be followed as Election Commission of India in exercise of
the powers conferred by Article 324 of the
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Constitutional conventions. These guidelines
Commission of India and Section 29A of the
recommended by M M Punchhi Commission
are as follows:
The Election Commission of India has launched
The party or combination of parties
a “Political Parties Registration Tracking
which commands the widest support in
Management System (PPRTMS)”.
the Legislative Assembly should be called
upon to form the Government. The salient feature in the PPRTMS is that the

O
If there is a pre-poll alliance or coalition,
applicant, who is applying for a political party
registration from 1st January, 2020 will be able
it should be treated as one political party to track the progress of his/her application
and if such coalition, the leader of such and will get status updates through SMS and
coalition shall be called by the Governor to e-mail
form the Government.
SC
In case no party or pre-poll coalition has a

clear majority, the Governor should select
57. Correct option: (b)
the Chief Minister in the order of preference Explanation:
indicated here.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Khadi and
The group of parties which had Village Industries Commission (KVIC) comes
pre-poll alliance commanding under the administrative control of the MSME
the largest number ministry.
GS
The largest single party staking a Supplementary notes:

claim to form the government with Khadi Gets Separate HS Code
the support of others
Khadi has once again come out of its customary
A post-electoral coalition with all veil, marking its presence in the exclusive HS
partners joining the government code bracket, issued by the central government
to categorize its products in export.
A post-electoral alliance with some
A separate harmonised system code by the
parties joining the government commerce and industry ministry has been
and the remaining including allocated to KVIC.
independents supporting the
In a long awaited move to make export
government from outside
of Khadi, exclusively categorized from the
In the S R Bommai case, a nine-judge Bench general league of textile products, the ministry
had underlined the significance of a floor of commerce and industries has allocated
test when there are claims by two political separate HS code for this signature fabric of
groups. India to boost its exports in the coming years.
Harmonised system (HS) is a six-digit
56. Correct Option: (a) identification code developed by the World
Customs Organization (WCO) and custom
Explanation: officers use this code to clear every commodity
that enters or crosses any international It has been designed from open source
border technology and hence the cost incurred
was very low and updation cost in future
The Khadi and Village Industries Commission
(KVIC) comes under the administrative will remain low.
control of the MSME ministry. The major effect will be an end to end
Earlier, Khadi did not have its exclusive HS info sharing, proper analytical details,
code. As a result, all the data regarding export better transparency in the evaluation of
of this signature fabric used to come as a teachers and students both, 654 bilingual
normal fabric under the textile head. Now, we platform for each school and role-based
will be able to keep a constant eye not only on access to have a better evaluation at
our export figures, but it will also help us in every stage.
planning our export strategies

Explanation:
Explanation:
Statement 2 is incorrect: Best performer:
Statement 2 is incorrect: It has been launched In the category of best performance since
for Navodaya Vidyalas in India. inception of the Scheme to States/ UTs having
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Supplementary notes: a population of more than 1 crore the first
position was awarded to the State of Madhya
Shala Darpan Portal Pradesh, followed by Andhra Pradesh and
Haryana was in the third position.
Recently Union Ministry of Human
Resource Development launched the Supplementary notes:
Shala Darpan Portal of Navodaya
Vidyalaya Samiti (NVS).
O Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana
(PMMVY)
The Navodaya Vidyalayas are co-
educational residential schools The PMMVY is a maternity benefit programme
established by the Navodaya Vidyalaya being implemented in all districts of the
Samiti which is an autonomous country from 01.01.2017.
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organization under the Ministry of Under PMMVY a cash incentive of Rs. 5000
Human Resource to provide quality
is provided directly to the bank/ post office
modern education. account of Pregnant Women and Lactating
It is an end to end e-Governance school Mothers (PW&LM) for the first living child
automation and management system for of the family subject to fulfilling specific
NVS. conditions relating to maternal and child
health.
Shala Darpan provides an integrated
PMMVY is implemented using the platform of
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platform to meet the educational and

administrative needs of all stakeholders- Anganwadi Services Scheme of Umbrella ICDS
students, teachers and parents. under the WCD Ministry in respect of States/
UTs implementing scheme through Women
It is a duplex communication system and Child Development Department/ Social
capable of sending and receiving Welfare Department and through the health
effective dialogue between every system in respect of States/ UTs where the
stakeholder. scheme is implemented by Health and Family
Welfare Department.
The major components include
integrated content management portal PMMVY is implemented through a
which consists of 636 websites of centrally deployed web-based MIS
Navodaya schools across the country. software application and the focal point
of implementation is the Anganwadi
It will contain information relating to Centre (AWC) and ASHA/ANM.
the service record, transfer/posting,
disciplinary action, ACR tracking and the Matru Vandana Saptah (MVS) is a week-long
portal will improve mess management maternity benefit programme which was taken
and hostel conditions. up under PMMVY from December 2-8, 2019 to
intensify the implementation of the scheme;
Apart from this, it will also strengthen create a healthy competition among states/
the budget and finance management UTs and felicitate states/UTs and districts for
system. exemplary performance in implementation of
PMMVY since its inception and during MVS. The Golden Ring of Russia
How the states have performed? Lahore, the Mughals heritage in Pakistan
Best performer: In the category of best
performance since inception of the Scheme 61. Correct Option: (b)
to States/ UTs having a population of more
than 1 crore the first position was awarded Explanation:
to the State of Madhya Pradesh, followed Statement 1 is incorrect: The Ministry of
by Andhra Pradesh and Haryana was in the Housing and Urban Affairs released Swachh
third position. Survekshan League in New Delhi.
In the same category, among States/ UTs
having a population of less than 1 crore
Dadra & Nagar Haveli is in the first position. Swachh Survekshan League
Himachal stood second and Chandigarh is in
the third position. The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
on December 31, 2019, released Swachh
District-level awards for States/ UTs with a Survekshan League in New Delhi.
population of more than 1 crore the first
position went to Indore in Madhya Pradesh. Around 4,372 cities participated in the
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league.
Kurnool in Andhra Pradesh is in the second
position and South Salmara Mankachar in It is a cleanliness survey that helps in
Assam was third. competitive federalism.
Among the districts of States/ UTs having In the category of 10 lakh plus population,
a population of less than 1 crore the first Indore secured first place.
position went to Serchhip in Mizoram, the Indore has remained in first place for the last
second position to Unain Himachal Pradesh
and Puducherry were in the third position.
O three years.
Following Indore, Bhopal and Surat are in
second and third places respectively.
In the category of population between
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Explanation: one lakh and 10 lakhs, Jamshedpur was in
Both statements are correct 1st spot.
Supplementary notes: Indicators
8 Wonders of SCO The focus of the survey was on waste water

treatment, faecal sludge management.
The Statue of Unity that was inaugurated by
PM Modi in October 2018 has been included The survey also focused on implementation of
GS
in 8 wonders of SCO (Shanghai Cooperation ODF+, water plus and ODF++ protocols of the
Organization). The statue was a monumental ministry of housing and urban affairs.
tribute to Sardar Vallabhai Patel. Significance
It is the world’s tallest statue. In one year, since In Competitive Federalism, the relationship
its inauguration, it attracted 2.9 million tourists
between Central and state governments are
and earned 82 crores of rupees.
vertical and between the state governments
What are the Eight Wonders? are horizontal.
The Wonders of SCO include archaeological The ranking of the cities based on cleanliness
and historical monuments of SCO region. helps in promoting competition among them.
It includes: The idea was mooted during economic reforms
in the country in 1990s.
Statue of Unity in India
The states will compete with each other that
Daming Palace in China
will help achieve efficiency in administration
Navruz Palace in Tajikistan also will enhance developmental activities.
Mughals Heritage in Pakistan
Tamgaly Gorge in Kazakhstan 62. Correct Option: (d)
Po-i-Kalan Complex in Uzbekistan Explanation:
Option is correct: UAE>US>Saudi The higher the score of a State/UT, the closer
Arabia>Qatar it is towards achieving the 2030 national
targets.
States /UTs are classified based on the SDG
Contributors of Remittances to India India Index Score as follows:
Change in definition of tax residence: Under Aspirant: 0–49
the changes proposed in budget 2020, an
Indian citizen who is not liable to be taxed in Performer: 50–64
any other country or territory shall be deemed Front Runner: 65–99
to be resident in India.
Achiever: 100
India will have taxation rights: The way the
amendment to the Act is worded suggests National Analysis
that Non-resident Indians (NRIs) working in India’s composite score improved from 57
countries with no income tax liability will in 2018 to 60 in 2019-20 with major success
have to pay the tax in India. in water and sanitation, power and industry.
It will be taxed only when the income However, nutrition and gender equality
is derived from an Indian business or continue to be problem areas for India,
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profession. requiring a more focused approach from the
Objective: Theintent is to plug a gap that government
leaves the India income of an NRI out of the The ranks of 14 states have dropped in the
tax net. index compared to 2018.
All states and union territories except for Delhi
63. Correct Option: (b) O have scored above 65.
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: NITI Aayog has
released the second edition of the Sustainable Explanation:
Development Goals (SDG) India Index
SC
Statement 2 is incorrect: Nominated MPs
Supplementary notes: can choose a Gram Panchayat from the rural
area of any district in the country.
Sustainable Development Goals India Index
• NITI Aayog has released the sec-
ond edition of the Sustainable Develop- Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana
ment Goals (SDG) India Index (SDG In-
The scheme was launched by the Prime
dex 2.0).
Minister of India on 11th October, 2014 on the
GS
• The index documents the progress birth anniversary of Jai Prakash Narayan.
made by India’s States and Union Territories
Under the Yojana, Members of Parliament
towards achieving the 2030 SDG targets.
(MPs) are responsible for developing the
• The Index spans 16 out of 17 SDGs socio-economic and physical infrastructure
which marks an improvement over the 2018 of three villages each by 2019, and a total of
Index, which covered only 13 goals. eight villages each by 2024. The first Adarsh
• The SDG India Index has been de- Gram (Model Village) was to be developed by
veloped in collaboration with the Ministry of 2016, and two more by 2019.
Statistics and Programme Implementation From 2019 to 2024, five more Adarsh Grams
(MoSPI), the United Nations, and the Global must be developed by each MP, one each
Green Growth Institute. year. This implies that a total of 6,433 Adarsh
• The year 2020 will be the 5th anni- Grams, of the 2,65,000 gram panchayats, will
versary of the adoption of SDGs by 193 coun- be created by 2024.
tries at the UN General Assembly. Gram Panchayat: The basic unit for
Methodology Followed development.
A composite score for SDG Index (2019) was Lok Sabha MP: chooses a Gram Panchayat
computed in the range of 0–100 for each from within his/her constituency.
State/UT based on its aggregate performance Rajya Sabha MP: chooses Gram Panchayat
across 16 SDGs. from the rural area of a district of his/her choice
in the State from which he/she is elected. others.
Nominated MPs: choose a Gram Panchayat Various consultation meetings were held with
from the rural area of any district in the the stakeholders, including consultations with
country. sector experts, ministries, states & UTs.
The MPs engages with the community, The ten Governance Sectors are measured on
facilitate the Village Development Plan and total 50 indicators:
mobilise the necessary resources particularly The states and UTs are divided into three
from Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) groups: a). Big States, b). North-East & Hill
and philanthropies. States and c). UTs.
The planning process in each village is a The states and UTs are ranked on all indicators
participatory exercise coordinated by the separately, at the same time composite
District Collector. ranking is also calculated for these states and
UTs under their respective groups based upon
MPs also fill up critical gaps in the plan
these indicators.
using the Member of Parliament Local Area
Development Scheme (MPLADs) funds.
65. Correct Option: (b) Explanation:
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Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect: India is not a
signatory to Budapest Convention.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Ministry of
Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions Supplementary notes:
has launched the ‘Good Governance Index’ Budapest Convention
Supplementary notes: The Council of Europe’s (CoE) Cybercrime
Good Governance Index (GGI)
O Convention is also known as the Budapest
Convention. It was open for signature
in 2001 and came into force in 2004.
The convention is the sole legally
SC
binding international multilateral treaty
on cybercrime. It coordinates cybercrime
investigations between nation-states
and criminalizes certain cybercrime conduct.
It serves as a guideline for any country
developing comprehensive national legislation
against Cybercrime and as a framework for
international cooperation between state
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parties to this treaty.
The Ministry of Personnel, Public The Budapest Convention is supplemented

Grievances & Pensions has launched the by a Protocol on Xenophobia and
‘Good Governance Index’. Racism committed through computer
systems.
The GGI is a uniform tool across States to
assess the Status of Governance and impact India is not a signatory to Budapest
of various interventions taken up by the State Convention.
Government and UTs.
The objectives of GGI are to provide 67. Correct Option: (a)
quantifiable data to compare the state of
governance in all states and UTs, enable Explanation:
states and UTs to formulate and implement
Statement 2 is incorrect: It has been launched
suitable strategies for improving governance
by ISRO.
and shift to result oriented approaches and
administration. Supplementary notes:
Various principles have been kept in mind Bhuvan Panchayat 3.0
while selecting the indicators, i.e. it should be
easy to understand & calculate, citizen-centric For better planning and monitoring of
& result driven, leading to improved results government projects, the Indian Space
and applicable to all states and UTs, among Research Organization (ISRO) launched
the Bhuvan Panchayat web portal’s version powers known as the P5+1 - the US, UK,
3.0. France, China, Russia and Germany.
For the first time, a thematic data base on a Under the accord, Iran agreed to limit its
1:1000 scale for the entire country is available sensitive nuclear activities and allow in
with integrated high resolution satellite data international inspectors in return for the lifting
for planning. of crippling economic sanctions.
In the project that will last for at least two years, Iran’s compliance with the nuclear-related
ISRO will collaborate with the gram panchayat provisions of the JCPOA will be verified by
members and stakeholders to understand the International Atomic Energy Agency
(IAEA) according to certain requirements
their data requirements.
set forth in the agreement.
The third version of the portal will provide
Iran had two facilities - Natanz and Fordo -
database visualization and services for the
where uranium hexafluoride gas was fed
benefit of panchayat members, among into centrifuges to separate out the most
others. fissile isotope, U-235. Under the JCPOA, it
The project is meant to provide geo- was limited to installing no more than 5,060
spatial services to aid gram panchayat of the oldest and least efficient centrifuges
development planning process of the at Natanz until 2026 - 10 years after the
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Ministry of Panchayati Raj. deal’s “implementation day” in January 2016.
No enrichment will be permitted at Fordo
The space-based information support for until 2031, and the underground facility will
decentralized planning programme was be converted into a nuclear, physics and
taken up in 2011 to empower panchayati raj technology centre. In addition, research and
institutions and its stake-holders to enable development must take place only at Natanz
participatory and decentralized planning in and be limited until 2024.
the country.
Taking advantage of information and
communication technology, the Bhuvan
Panchayat web portal was launched for
O Iran’s uranium stockpile was reduced by 98%
to 300kg (660lbs), a figure that must not be
exceeded until 2031. It must also keep the
stockpile’s level of enrichment at 3.67%.
visualization, planning and monitoring of Iran also agreed to remove and disable the
SC

schemes at panchayat levels. original core of Arak reactor and replace it to
reduce weapons grade Plutonium output.
68. Correct option: (b) Iran also agreed not to engage in activities,
including research and development, which
Explanation: could contribute to the development of a
nuclear bomb.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The JCPOA
established the Joint Commission to oversee The JCPOA established the Joint
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the implementation of the deal. IAEA will verify Commission, with the negotiating parties
the nuclear related provisions of the JCPOA. all represented to oversee the deal and also
provides for dispute resolution. If the Joint
Commission cannot resolve a dispute, it
Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA) will be referred to the UN Security Council.
Iran has completely withdrawn from JCPOA
(Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action) nuclear 69. Correct Option: (b)
deal. The announcement came after the US
troops killed General Qassem Soleimani. Explanation:
Earlier the Iranian nuclear issue was at Statement 1 is incorrect: Cyber Safe
crossroads in the wake of the decision by the Women is an initiative of Maharashtra
United States to withdraw from that agreement. Government.
A year after this Iran announced partial
Statement 3 is incorrect: CyberDost twitter
withdrawal from the nuclear deal. Iran warned
it would resume higher uranium enrichment handle was launched by Ministry of Home
in 60 days if the remaining signatories did not Affairs.
make good on promises to shield its oil and Supplementary notes:
banking sectors from sanctions.
Cyber Safe Women Initiative
In 2015, Iran agreed a long-term deal on its
nuclear programme with a group of world Maharashtra Government has launched a
‘Cyber Safe Women’ initiative to educate (ECA) and other “anachronistic legislations”
women about how the web is used by and interventionist government policies,
anti-social elements and child predators to including drug price control, grain procurement
commit various types of crimes. and farm loan waivers.
It aims to create awareness on the cyberspace ECA to control onion prices: In September
in light of the increasing number of cases 2019, the Centre invoked the ECA’S provisions
where women and children are targeted. to impose stock limits on onions after heavy
rains wiped out a quarter of the kharif crop
This initiative was launched in 34 districts and and led to a sustained rise in prices.
90 places across the state, all at once.
How does ECA work: Stock limits ensure that
It will help in educating women about how the onion stocks would be released into the open
web is used by anti-social elements and child market and the supply would go up, ensuring
predators to commit various types of crimes. prices remain affordable.
Cyber Crime Prevention against Women and ECA has unintended consequences: The
Children Scheme (CCPWC) Survey offers examples of stock limits on onion,
sugar and pulses, where ECA intervention
The main objective of Cyber Crime
had little impact, and instead increased
Prevention against Women and Children
volatility in prices following production/
(CCPWC) Scheme is to have an effective
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consumption shocks — the opposite of what
mechanism to handle cybercrimes against it is intended for.
women and children in the country.
Although the restrictions on both retail and
The scheme was launched by Ministry of wholesale traders were meant to prevent
Home Affairs in 2019. hoarding and enhance supply in the market,
The main features of the scheme are: the Survey showed that there was actually
an increase in price volatility and a widening

O
Online cybercrime reporting platform wedge between wholesale and retail
One national level cyber forensic prices.
laboratory Disincentivises storage infrastructure
Training of Police officers, judges & development: With too-frequent stock limits,
SC
prosecutors traders may have no reason to invest in better
storage infrastructure in the long run.
Cybercrime awareness activities
Research & Development 71. Correct Option:
Other Initiatives Dealing with Cyber Crimes
Explanation:
Central Cybercrime Reporting Portal (www.
Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect: NSC falls
cybercrime.gov.in) launched on 20th September
GS
under Ministry of Statistics and Programme

2018 to report complaints pertaining to Child
Pornography (CP)/Child Sexual Abuse Material Implementation (Mospi). India is a follower
(CSAM) or sexually explicit content. of the UN Statistical Commission led systems
since 1948.
Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA)
has launched Twitter account named @ Supplementary notes:
CyberDost. It aims to spread awareness
National Statistical Commission
about cybercrimes and normal precautions
to be taken for prevention. Facing criticism over the credibility and
independence of India’s official statistics,
the government has through the draft
70. Correct Option: National Statistical Commission (NSC)
Explanation: Bill 2019 proposed a statutory ‘National
Statistical Commission’.
Statement 3 is incorrect: ECA actually
disincentivises storage infrastructure The new bill proposes to set up a full- time
development. NSC, a permanent secretariat, dedicated
funds and powers to supervise core
Supplementary notes: statistical products.
Essential Commodities Act NSC Bill 2019 envisages financial autonomy
Findings in the Economic Survey 2019-20 for the commission through an independent
were against Essential Commodities Act ‘National Statistical Fund’, but it would be
bound by directions that the Centre will Its score of 41 out of 100 remains the same.
give time from time.
In democracies like India and Australia,
The fund will include resources received unfair and opaque political financing, undue
by NSC through government grants, fees influence in decision-making and lobbying
and charges. by powerful corporate interest groups, has
History: The draft bill draws on the 2011 report resulted in stagnation or decline in the control
of a committee headed by N.R. Madhava of corruption.
Menon.
The latest CPI report has revealed that a
The Menon committee had first majority of countries are showing little to no
recommended the setting up of an audit improvement in tackling corruption.
and assessment wing under NSC, to be
headed by a “Chief Statistical Auditor”. As per the report, corruption is more
pervasive in countries where big money
The draft bill also retains the regulatory can flow freely into electoral campaigns
powers over core statistics that the
and where governments listen only to
Menon committee had envisaged.
the voices of wealthy or well-connected
India is a follower of the UN Statistical individuals.
Commission led systems since 1948.
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In the Asia Pacific region, the average score
National Statistical Commission is 45, after many consecutive years of an
average score of 44, which “illustrates general
The Government of India through a stagnation” across the region. China has
resolution dated 1st June, 2005 set up the
improved its position from 87 to 80 with a
NSC.
score of 41 out of 100, a two-point jump.
Setting up of the NSC followed Cabinet’s
According to Transparency International, while
decision to accept recommendations
of the Rangarajan Commission, which
O
reviewed the Indian Statistical System in
2001.

often seen as an engine of the global economy,
in terms of political integrity and governance,
the region performs only marginally better
NSC was constituted with effect from than the global average.
SC

12th July 2006 with a mandate to evolve In the last eight years, only 22 countries
policies, priorities and standards in significantly improved their CPI scores,
statistical matters.
including Greece, Guyana and Estonia. In the
NSC has four Members besides a same period, among the 21 countries that saw
Chairperson, each having specialization a significantly fall in their scores are Canada,
and experience in specified statistical Australia and Nicaragua. In the remaining
fields.
137 countries, the levels of corruption
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NSC is the apex advisory body on statistical show little to no change.

matters, but its suggestions are not
binding on the government.
Explanation:
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: India’s rank in CPI-
2019 slipped from 78 to 80 compared to last Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-
year. KISAN)
Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PIV-
KISAN) is a new Central Sector Scheme to
Global Corruption Perception Index provide income support to all landholding
farmers’ families in the country to supplement
India’s ranking in the Corruption their financial needs for procuring various
Perceptions Index (CPI-2019) has slipped inputs related to agriculture and allied
from 78 to 80 compared to the previous activities as well as domestic needs. Under the
year, said Transparency International, Scheme, the entire financial liability towards
while questioning the “unfair and opaque transfer of benefit to targeted beneficiaries
political financing” in the country. will be borne by Government of India.
ln the beginning when the PM-Kisan Scheme medical reasons.
was launched on 24th February, 2019, its
The WHO classifies female genital mutilation
benefits were admissible only to Small &
into 4 major types.
Marginal Farmers’ families, with combined
landholding upto 2 hectare. The Scheme was Type 1: Partial or total removal of the
later on revised w.e.f. 1 .6.2019 and extended clitoral glans (the external and visible part
to all farmer families irrespective of the size of of the clitoris, which is a sensitive part of
their landholdings the female genitals), and/or the prepuce/
Under the PM-KISAN scheme, all landholding clitoral hood (the fold of skin surrounding
farmers’ families shall be provided the the clitoral glans).
financial benefit of Rs.6000 per annum per Type 2: Partial or total removal of the
family payable in three equal installments of clitoral glans and the labia minora (the
Rs.2000/- each, every four months. inner folds of the vulva), with or without
All landholding farmers’ families, which have removal of the labia majora (the outer
cultivable landholding in their names, are folds of skin of the vulva).
eligible to get benefit under the scheme. A
Type 3: Also known as infibulation, this
landholder farmer’s family is defined as “a
is the narrowing of the vaginal opening
family comprising of husband, wife and minor
through the creation of a covering seal by
children who own cultivable land as per the
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land records of the concerned State/UT. cutting and repositioning the labia minora,
or labia majora, sometimes through
Land holding is the sole criteria to avail stitching, with or without removal of the
the benefit under the Scheme. Thus any clitoral prepuce/clitoral hood and glans
person/farmer who is cultivating land but is (Type I FGM).
not having land holding in his/her name (e.g.
tenant farmers) are not eligible to avail the Type 4: This includes all other harmful
benefit of the scheme. procedures to the female genitalia for
O non-medical purposes, e.g. pricking,
There is no distinction between urban and piercing, incising, scraping and cauterizing
rural cultivable land under the scheme. Both
the genital area.
are covered under the scheme, provided that
land situated in urban areas is under actual
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cultivation. 75. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Maldives has
Explanation: rejoined the Commonwealth, bringing the total
Statement 2 is incorrect: The practice involves number of nations in the global organisation
the partial or total removal of external female to 54.
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genitalia. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Commonwealth

Supplementary notes: is a voluntary association of 54 independent
and equal countries.
International Day of Zero Tolerance for Female
Genital Mutilation
Maldives Rejoins Commonwealth
In order to fight Genital Mutilation, the
International Day of Zero Tolerance for Female The Commonwealth is a voluntary association
Genital Mutilation is celebrated on the 6th of of 54 independent and equal countries.
February each year. It is home to 2.4 billion people and includes
The UN first officially commemorated both advanced economies and developing
the International Day of Zero Tolerance for countries. 32 of our members are small states,
Female Genital Mutilation on February 6, including many island nations.
2003. Its member governments have agreed to
Female genital mutilation (FGM) is recognized shared goals like development, democracy
internationally as a violation of the human and peace.
rights of girls and women. The Commonwealth’s roots go back to the
British Empire. But today any country can join
The practice involves the partial or total
the modern Commonwealth.
removal of external female genitalia or other
injuries to the female genital organs for non- Eight governments (United Kingdom,
Australia, India, South Africa, Canada, Sri Aim: To Provide sustainable employment
Lanka, New Zealand and Pakistan) came and income to rural and urban unemployed
together on 28 April 1949 to form the modern youth by conserving the honeybee habitat
Commonwealth. and tapping untapped natural resources.
Since its formation, independent countries
from Africa, the Americas, Asia, Europe and 77. Correct Option: (c)
the Pacific have joined the Commonwealth.
Explanation:
The republic quit the Commonwealth in 2016
after being threatened with suspension over Both statements are correct
its human rights record and lack of progress
on democratic reform. Supplementary notes:
The island nation has been readmitted after Interim report of 15th Finance Commission:
showing evidence of functioning democratic Continuity and Fiscal Follow Through
processes and popular support for being part The 15th Finance Commission has
of the family of nations. recommended maintaining States’ share in
The Maldives, which last joined the the divisible pool of tax collections at the
Commonwealth in 1982, will now be part of same level of 42% for 2020-21.
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the Commonwealth heads of government
To factor in the changed status of the erstwhile
meeting in Kigali, Rwanda, in June.
State of Jammu & Kashmir, the rate at which
The change came into effect just over an hour funds may be shared with the States has been
after the United Kingdom left the European reset at 41%.
Union.
This is after adjusting 1 percentage point for
India became a member of the Commonwealth the needs, including special ones of the two
in 1947, the first with chiefly non-European new Union Territories of J&K and Ladakh.

populations.
India’s new political
the Commonwealth is evident by the
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interest in
An official said that the actual pool of funds
available to States will be equivalent to what
they were receiving from the 42% share
participation of Prime Minister Narendra granted by the 14th Finance Commission, as
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Modi at the 25th Commonwealth Heads of the number of States is now 28 instead of 29.
Government Meeting (CHOGM) in London in
2018, marking the first Indian prime ministerial The one percentage point reduction is what
presence in a Commonwealth Summit after would have been earmarked for J&K as a
nearly a decade. State.
Vertical Devolution: It recommends the
76. Correct Option: (b) distribution of the net proceeds of taxes of
the Union between Union and the States.
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Explanation:
Horizontal Devolution: It allocates among
Statement 1 is incorrect: Union Ministry the States the proceeds of the Vertical
of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises has Devolution.
launched the Apiary on Wheels.
Post Devolution Revenue Deficit Resources
Supplementary notes: To Local Bodies: Article 280 (3) (bb) and
Article 280 (3) of the Constitution mandate
Apiary on Wheels the Commission to recommend measures to
Apiary on Wheels is a unique concept augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to
designed by the Khadi and Village Industries supplement the resources of Panchayats and
Commission (KVIC). Municipalities based on the recommendations
of the respective State Finance Commissions
It aims to address the challenges faced by the
(SFCs). This also includes augmenting the
beekeepers by easy upkeep and migration of
resources of Panchayats and Municipalities.
Bee Boxes having live Bee colonies.
Grants: It has to look at the States, where the
This initiative was launched as a part of the
devolution alone could not cover the assessed
National Honey Mission.
gap. It takes into account the expenditure
The Honey Mission was launched in requirements of the States, the tax devolution
2017 by the Khadi and Village Industries to them and the revenue mobilisation
Commission (KVIC). capacity.
Disaster Management: Allocations for disaster Reasons have to be given for imposing Section
management are also done. 144 and magistrate should balance rights of
individual with state interest when issuing
such orders.
Orders to be put in public domain: The
Explanation: bench ordered the Jammu and Kashmir
administration to put in public domain all
Statement 3 is incorrect: CELAC - Community orders that can then be challenged in a court
of Latin American and Caribbean States, of of law.
which India is not a part.
Constitutionally protected right: The
Supplementary notes: court ruled that right to access internet is
constitutionally protected and internet can be
President of Federative Republic of Brazil was shut down only in exceptional circumstances.
invited as chief guest for the 71st Republic
Day The value of liberty is important and not
negotiable.
As of now both nations are members of
The access to internet being a fundamental
plurilateral fora such as BRICS, IBSA, G-20,
right is a means of getting information.
and are members of multilateral bodies such
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as the United Nations. People have a right to know, as a part of Article
19(1)(a).
In 2015, representatives of the five states of
BRICS, launched their New Development No repetitive use of Section 144: The court
Bank (NDB). This was outlined in the Fortaleza argued against government’s repetitive use of
declaration in 2014. Section 144, holding that there needs to be
an emergency for invocation of the provision,
In 2003, India, Brazil and South Africa set up and mere expression of disagreement cannot
IBSA, an important forum for dialogue among be a ground.
the three emerging countries.
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Violation of telecom rules: An indefinite
BRICS and IBSA are multilateral groupings that suspension of the internet was a violation of
provide these two with a “soft balancing” the country’s telecoms rules.
strategy that resents the dominant views of
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Indefinite suspension is against Temporary
the West. Suspension of Telecom Services (Public
Both have campaigned for a UN Security Emergency or Public Service) Rules, 2017.
Council permanent seat for each other. Principle of proportionality must be adhered
to and must not extend beyond necessary
Brazil played a crucial role in India-Mercosur
duration.
Preferential Trade Agreement (PTA) that
improved India’s access to the large South Slow technological pace: With greater mobility
of technology and artificial intelligence, there
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American market.
has to be a catch up with technology as well.
CELAC, has marked a new phase in international Curbing internet amounts to slowing the pace
relations between India and Latin America. of technological development.
Ultimately both nations are considered Freedom of press: The Right of freedom of
as emerging powers with great power press was seen as a way for people to gain
aspirations. information from the press. Press and people
are intertwined for purpose of information.
79. Correct Option: (d) Right to Information: Any order under Article
144, must be transparent for people to know
Explanation: and with a possibility of a challenge to those
All statements are correct orders.
Supplementary notes: Subject to Judicial review: The judgement

asks larger questions pertaining to the exercise
Supreme Court Ruling of statutory powers such as Section 144.
Impermissible: The Supreme Court ruled that The judgement is not questioning the right of
indefinite internet ban in Jammu & Kashmir is the government but the extent to which the
impermissible. government can shut down internet. It has also
made a shutdown subject to judicial review.
Abuse of power: Repeated use of section 144
of CrPC amounts to ‘abuse of power’. The judgement does not transgress into the
domain of executive. Thus the Bill provides differential treatment to
illegal migrants on the basis of their country
There is a mandamus for court to review
of origin, religion, date of entry into India, and
government’s actions.
place of residence in India.
List of statutes concerning the judgement
Code of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 81. Correct Option: (a)
Indian Penal Code, 1860 Explanation:
Indian Telegraph Act, 1885 Statement 2 is incorrect: Raja Rammohan
Roy Library Foundation is the nodal agency to
Temporary Suspension of Telecom Services, implement the National Mission on Libraries.
(Public Emergency or Public Safety) Rules,
2017 Supplementary notes:
Information Technology Act, 2000 National Mission on Manuscripts (NMM)
Right to Information Act, 2005 The National Mission for Manuscripts (NMM)
was launched by the Ministry of Culture in
the year 2003 with the objectives to survey,
80. Correct option: (d) document, and conserve/preserve, digitize
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Explanation: and publish the Indian Manuscripts.
Option is correct The final objective of the Mission is to

establish a digital National Manuscripts
Supplementary notes: Library at Indira Gandhi National Centre
for the Arts (IGNCA) at which scholars and
Citizenship Amendment Bill, 2019 researchers can view the digital copies of
The Bill amends the Citizenship Act, 1955, and
O the Indian Manuscripts.
seeks to make illegal migrants who are Hindus, National Mission for Manuscripts is first such
Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis and Christians who national level comprehensive initiative in the
came to India from Afghanistan, Bangladesh world which caters to the need of conserving
and Pakistan on or before December 31, 2014, manuscripts and disseminating knowledge
eligible for citizenship.
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contained therein.
The Bill also reduces the period of naturalization National Mission on Libraries
for such group of persons to five years as
compared 11 years for normal persons. Public libraries have a major role to play in
realizing this goal. In order to revamp the
It exempts certain areas in the North-East
Public Library System & Services, and to
from this provision. These are: (i) the tribal
provide digital content based services to the
areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, and
citizens at large, the Ministry of Culture has
Tripura, as included in the Sixth Schedule to
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launched the scheme of National Mission on

the Constitution, and (ii) the states regulated
Libraries (NML).
by the “Inner Line” permit under the Bengal
Eastern Frontier Regulations 1873. Raja Rammohan Roy Library Foundation
has been declared as the nodal agency
These Sixth Schedule tribal areas include Karbi
Anglong (in Assam), Garo Hills (in Meghalaya), for the National Mission on Libraries for
Chakma District (in Mizoram), and Tripura Tribal administrative, logistic, planning and
Areas District. Further, the Inner Line Permit budgeting purposes.
regulates visit of all persons, including Indian The Scheme has the following four
citizens, to Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, and components:
Nagaland.
Creation of National Virtual Library (NVLI)
The Bill also makes amendments to provisions
related to OCI cardholders. A foreigner may Setting up of NML Model Libraries
register as an OCI under the 1955 Act if they Quantitative & Qualitative Survey
are of Indian origin (e.g., former citizen of
India or their descendants) or the spouse of a Capacity Building for library professionals
person of Indian origin. This will entitle them
to benefits such as the right to travel to India,
and to work and study in the country. The Bill 82. Correct Option: (d)
amends the Act to allow cancellation of OCI
Explanation:
registration if the person has violated any law
notified by the central government. All statements are correct
Supplementary notes: Ministry of Tourism in 2015 launched the
Swadesh Darshan Scheme for developing
National Mission on Monuments and critical tourism infrastructure in the country
Antiquities (NMMA) in a sustainable and inclusive manner to make
It was launched in 2007 by Ministry of Culture India into a world class tourist destination.
and Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) is the The focus under the scheme is to develop
nodal agency for NMMA to implement the public facilities like last mile connectivity,
various activities all over the country. Tourist reception Centers, Way side Amenities,
Solid Waste Management, Illumination,
The mission expects to create a National Landscaping, parking etc. where Private Sector
Register on Built Heritage & Sites and a is not willing to invest.
National Register on Antiquities.
This scheme is envisioned to synergize with
The objectives of the mission include: other Government of India schemes like
Swachh Bharat Abhiyan, Skill India, Make
Documentation and creation of suitable
in India etc. with the idea of positioning the
database on built heritage and sites through tourism sector as a major engine for job
published and unpublished secondary creation, driving force for economic growth,
sources for information and dissemination building synergy with various sectors to enable
to planners, researchers, etc. and for better tourism to realize its potential.
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management of such cultural resources.
Under the Swadesh Darshan scheme, 15
Documentation in a uniform format thematic circuits have been identified
developed by NMMA, of all Antiquities for development namely: North-East India
that are available in different formats in the Circuit, Buddhist Circuit, Himalayan Circuit,
form of Registered Antiquities, Catalogued Coastal Circuit, Krishna Circuit, Desert Circuit,
Antiquities with Central as well as State Tribal Circuit, Eco Circuit, Wildlife Circuit, Rural
Governments, Private museums and Circuit, Spiritual Circuit, Ramayana Circuit, Sufi
Circuit, Tirthankar Circuit and Heritage Circuit.
Collections, Universities, etc.
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Promote awareness and sensitize people Adarsh Smarak Yojana
concerning the benefits of preserving It is a scheme of Ministry of Culture
the historical and cultural aspects of built launched in 2014 for providing improved
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heritage, sites and antiquities. visitor amenities, especially for the
physically challenged.
Extend training facility and capacity building
to the concerned State Departments, Local The Archaeological Survey of India has
bodies, NGOs, Universities, Museums, identified 25 monuments for Adarsh
Local communities etc. Smarak Scheme for up-gradation of tourist
related amenities.
Help in developing synergy between
institutions Archaeological Survey of India, The salient features of the scheme are as
under:
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State Departments, concerned Institutions

and NGOs to generate close interaction. To make monument visitor friendly
Publication and Research To upgrade/provide wash rooms, drinking
water, signage and cafeteria and Wi-Fi
facility
To provide Interpretation and audio-video
Explanation: centres
Statement 1 is incorrect: Swadesh Darshan To streamline waste water and garbage
Scheme aims at integrated development of disposal and rain water harvesting system
theme based circuits.
To make monument accessible to differently
Statement 2 is incorrect: Adarsh Smarak abled
Scheme aims at providing improved visitor To implement Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
amenities at select monuments.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Swadesh Darshan is

a scheme of Ministry of Tourism while Adarsh
Smarak is a scheme of Ministry of Culture. Explanation:
Supplementary notes: Statement 1 is incorrect: The scheme targets
only the economically weaker differently abled
Swadesh Darshan Scheme students.
Supplementary notes: 86. Correct Option: (a)
Saksham Scholarship Scheme Explanation:
The Ministry of Human Resource and Statement 2 is incorrect: Ministry of Human
Development launched the Saksham Resource Development is the nodal ministry
Scholarship Scheme in 2014. for co-ordination of the programme.
It is being implemented through All India
Council for Technical Education (AICTE) to
provide encouragement and support to 1000 Ek Bharat Shrestha Bharat
differently abled students to pursue technical
The ‘Ek Bharat Shrestha Bharat’ programme
education in a year. The amount of scholarship
of MHRD, aims to actively enhance interaction
is tuition fee of Rs.30000/- or at actual,
whichever is less and Rs. 2000/- per month for between people of diverse cultures living
l0 months as incidentals. in different States and UTs in India, with
the objective of promoting greater mutual
This scholarship is for those differently understanding amongst them.
abled students whose family income is less
than Rs Six lakhs per annum. As per the programme, each year, every State/
UT would be paired with another State/UT in
The candidates are selected on merit at the India for reciprocal interaction between the
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qualifying examination to pursue technical people.
education from amongst such candidates. The
other criteria is that the candidates should It is envisaged through this exchange, that the
have been admitted to first year of the Degree knowledge of the language, culture, traditions
or Diploma programme in any of the AICTE and practices of different states will lead to
approved institute during the academic an enhanced understanding and bonding
year 2014-15 through centralized admission between one another, thereby strengthening
process of the State/Central Government. the unity and integrity of India.

O The States and UTs are to embark on a mission
to enhance their cultural, academic and
economic ties by entering into a wide range of
Explanation: mutual engagements with the paired States/
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Statement 1 is incorrect: Study Webs of UTs covering the spheres of music, drama,
Active Learning for Young Aspiring Minds cuisine, language, history, tourism and other
(SWAYAM) is a project of MHRD which will forms of exchange between the people.
provide one integrated platform and portal The broad objectives of the initiative are as
for online courses. follows:
Statement 2 is incorrect: It is an initiative
To CELEBRATE the Unity in Diversity of our
of MHRD.
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Nation and to maintain and strengthen the

Supplementary notes: fabric of traditionally existing emotional
bonds between the people of our
Project SWAYAM Country;
Study Webs of Active Learning for Young
To PROMOTE the spirit of national
Aspiring Minds (SWAYAM) is a project of
integration through a deep and structured
MHRD which will provide one integrated
engagement between all Indian States
platform and portal for online courses.
and Union Territories through a year-long
This covers all higher education subjects and planned engagement between States;
skill sector courses.
To SHOWCASE the rich heritage and
The objective is to ensure that the every culture, customs and traditions of either
student in our country has access to the best State for enabling people to understand
quality higher education at the affordable and appreciate the diversity that is India,
cost. thus fostering a sense of common identity
Academicians from hundreds of institutions TO ESTABLISH long-term engagements
throughout the country are involved in and
developing & delivering MOOCs through
SWAYAM in almost all disciplines from senior TO CREATE an environment which promotes
schooling to Post Graduation wherein it is learning between States by sharing best
intended to develop world class content. practices and experiences
87. Correct Option: (a) Structure of Ministries and Departments
Explanation: A typical Ministry consists of one or more

departments each under the charge of a
Statement 2 is incorrect: All DISCOMs Secretary. Usually a Cabinet Minister is in-
including Private Sector DISCOMs, State Power charge of Ministry with a number of Ministers
Departments and RE Cooperative Societies of State and/or Deputy Ministers to assist
shall be eligible for financial assistance under himaccording to the work allotted.
the scheme in line with DDUGJY.
The Minister, the Minister of State, the
Statement 3 is incorrect: Rural Electrification Deputy Minister and the Parliamentary
Corporation (REC) has been designated as its Secretary are the political officers who are
nodal agency for the Saubhagya scheme. in-charge of a ministry.
Supplementary notes: Immediately below the political head, there is
the Secretariat organization of the Department.
Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana–
The function of the Secretariat is to provide
“Saubhagya” to the Minister, mature and expert advice for
Under Saubhagya free electricity connections the formulation of policies and watch over the
to all households (both APL and poor families) execution of these policies when they have
in rural areas and poor families in urban areas been formulated.
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will be provided. The head of the Secretariat organization
Rural Electrification Corporation (REC) has of a department is called the Secretary.
been designated as its nodal agency for the For the convenient transaction of business,
Saubhagya scheme. the Department is further sub-divided into
convenient units as mentioned below:
The scope of the scheme is:
Department – Secretary
Providing last mile connectivity and

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electricity connections to all un-electrified Wing – Additional Secretary/Joint
households in rural areas Secretary
Providing Solar Photovoltaic (SPV) based Division – Deputy Secretary

standalone system for un-electrified
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Branch – Under Secretary
households located in remote and
inaccessible villages/habitations, where Section – Section Officer
grid extension is not feasible or cost- The scheme obviously suggests that the
effective Department is sub-divided into a number
of wings each headedby a joint Secretary/
Providing last mile connectivity and
Additional Secretary. Each Wing is sub-
electricity connections to all remaining
divided into division each headed by a
economically poor un-electrified
DeputySecretary; a division into branches
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households in urban areas; Non-poor each headed by, an Under Secretary and a
urban households are excluded from Branch into sections each headedby a Section
this scheme Officer.
All DISCOMs including Private Sector
DISCOMs, State Power Departments and
RE Cooperative Societies shall be eligible
for financial assistance under the scheme Explanation:
in line with DDUGJY.
Statement 2 is incorrect: All animals are now
The prospective beneficiary households for covered such as indigenous/crossbred milch
free electricity connections under the scheme animals, Pack animals (Horse, Donkey, Mules,
would be identified using SECC 2011 data. Camels, Ponies and Cattle Buffaloes male)
and other livestock (Goat, Sheep, Pigs, Rabbit,
Yak and Mithun instead of only milch animals
88. Correct Option: (c) earlier.
Explanation: Supplementary notes:
Option is correct:The correct order is: National Livestock Mission
Department – Wing – Division – Branch –
Section. National Livestock Mission is an initiative
of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’
Supplementary notes: Welfare. The mission, which commenced from
2014-15, has the objective of sustainable general public to communicate their
development of the livestock sector. complaints about any unclean area/garbage
piles in and around tourist destinations.
NLM provides assistance to improve
availability of quality feed and fodder, risk This project is being implemented by the
mitigation and extension, skill development Ministry of Tourism, Government of India
and training for livestock sector including through DeGS and NIC.
cattle and buffaloes.
This Mobile App is available on Google
One of the reasons for setting up NLM from Search Engine as ‘Swachh Paryatan’.It shall be
scheme-mode to mission-mode is to provide monitored by the Project Monitoring Unit of
the necessary flexibility to all States and UTs in Swachh Bharat Mission in Ministry of Tourism.
undertaking appropriate interventions suited
to their conditions. Taking into account the Initially, 25 Adarsh Smarak Monuments
overall requirement of the livestock sector, such as Red Fort, Taj Mahal, Elephanta
there is a need to augment resources for Caves, Qutub Minar Complex, among
the sector and synergize activities through others, have been identified for inclusion
appropriate convergence, under the umbrella in the app, but it would be scaled up to
of NLM to supplement the efforts of the include more monuments as the campaign
States and UTs to take care of the activities expands.
which cannot be accommodated within other This mobile app enables a citizen to take
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ongoing schemes. photograph of garbage at the monument and
The National livestock Mission is organized upload the same along with his/her remarks.
into the following four sub-Missions: The application then sends an SMS to the ASI
Nodal Officer concerned with the monument
Sub-Mission on Livestock Development upon receipt of which the Nodal Officer gets
Sub-Mission on Pig Development in North- the garbage cleared/removed. The Nodal
eastern Region O Officer thereafter sends confirmation about
the redressal of the complaint through an
Sub-Mission on Fodder and Feed SMS to the complainant.
Development
Sub-Mission on Skill Development,

Technology Transfer and Extension
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The Risk Management and Insurance as a Explanation:
component of Sub-Mission on Livestock Statement 2 is incorrect: NDMA is headed
Development of National Livestock Mission by the Prime Minister.
(NLM) is implemented in all the District of
the Country. Supplementary notes:
All animals are now covered such as Disaster Management Act, 2005
indigenous/crossbred milch animals, Pack
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animals (Horse, Donkey, Mules, Camels, The Disaster Management Act was enacted
Ponies and Cattle Buffaloes male) and other to effectively prevent, mitigate and prepare
livestock (Goat, Sheep, Pigs, Rabbit, Yak for disasters. It came into being on the
and Mithun instead of only milch animals heels of three major disasters in the Indian
earlier. subcontinent: the 1999 super cyclone in
Odisha, the 2001 Bhuj earthquake, and the
NABARD is the subsidy channelizing agency 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami.
under Entrepreneurship Development &
Employment Generation (EDEG) component The Act mandated the creation of the
of National Livestock Mission. National Disaster Management Authority
(headed by Prime Minister), State Disaster
Management Authorities (headed by
90. Correct Option: (c) respective Chief Ministers), and District
Disaster Management Authorities. It laid
Explanation:
down the framework, roles and responsibilities
Statement 2 is incorrect: It has been launched of these bodies to formulate and implement
by Ministry of Tourism. disaster management plans at their levels.
Supplementary notes: The act largely focuses on improving
preparedness, providing immediate relief,
Swachh Paryatan Mobile App
and protecting infrastructure. However,
The Centre has launched a mobile app it neglects a key aspect of disaster
‘Swachh Paryatan’ in order to facilitate management – long-term recovery.
The Act rightly emphasizes the need to move industries.
from responding to disasters to effective
India was the First State Party to secure the
preparedness, which has led to most States
distinction of chemical weapon free state
investing in resilient infrastructure, early
Party by destructing all its stockpile of its
warning systems and evacuation. However,
steps towards recovery and rehabilitation of chemical weapons amongst all State Parties
disaster-affected people are hardly discussed. of the Convention.
NDMA, as the apex body, is mandated to lay India, pursuant to provisions of the Convention
down the policies, plans and guidelines for enacted the Chemical Weapons Convention
Disaster Management to ensure timely and Act, 2000.
effective response to disasters. Towards this, it The National Authority for Chemical
has the following responsibilities:- Weapons Convention (NACWC) [established
Lay down policies on disaster under the Chemical Weapons Convention
management Act, 2000] has been set up as an office
of the Cabinet Secretariat, Government
Approve the National Plan; of India in 1997 to fulfill, on behalf of the
Approve plans prepared by the Ministries Government of India, the obligations under
or Departments of the Government of the Chemical Weapons Convention and to act
India in accordance with the National Plan as the national focal point for effective liaison
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with the Organization for the Prohibition of
Lay down guidelines to be followed by the
Chemical Weapons (OPCW) and other State
State Authorities in drawing up the State
Parties on matters relating to the Convention.
Plan
Coordinate the enforcement and
implementation of the policy and plans for 93. Correct Option: (c)
disaster management Explanation:
Recommend provision of funds for the
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Statement 1 is incorrect: CACP
purpose of mitigation only recommends the MSP while the
Provide such support to other countries Government fixes them based on CACP’s
recommendations.
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affected by major disasters as may be
determined by the Central Government Statement 2 is incorrect: Cost of production
is not the only factor that determines MSP.
92. Correct option: (d) Supplementary notes:
Explanation: Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices
All statements are correct (CACP)
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Supplementary notes: The Commission for Agricultural Costs &

Prices (CACP) is an attached office of the
National Authority for Chemical Weapons Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare,
Convention (NACWC) Government of India. It came into existence in
January 1965.
India is a signatory and party to the
Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC), of the It is mandated to recommend minimum
Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical support prices (MSPs) to incentivize the
Weapons (OPCW) with Head Quarters at The cultivators to adopt modern technology
Hague, Netherlands. and raise productivity and overall grain
production in line with the emerging
The Convention is a universal, non-
demand patterns in the country.
discriminatory, multi-lateral, disarmament
treaty which prohibits the development, MSP for major agricultural products are
production, stockpiling and use of chemical fixed by the government, each year, after
weapons and monitors its elimination in order taking into account the recommendations
to secure chemical weapons free world. India of the Commission.
signed the treaty in 1993.
As of now, CACP recommends MSPs of 23
As per the convention, declaration of plant commodities, which comprise 7 cereals
sites for various categories of organic (paddy, wheat, maize, sorghum, pearl millet,
chemicals & their verification (Inspections) barley and ragi), 5 pulses (gram, tur, moong,
are two important obligations on chemical urad, lentil), 7 oilseeds (groundnut, rapeseed-
mustard, soyabean, sesamum, sunflower, 2004-05 in the year 2017.
safflower, nigerseed), and 4 commercial crops
The data is also used to compile the Gross
(copra, sugarcane, cotton and raw jute). Value Added (GVA) of the manufacturing
While recommending price policy of sector in the Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
various commodities under its mandate, on a quarterly basis.
the Commission keeps in mind the various While the IIP is a monthly indicator, the Annual
Terms of Reference given to CACP in 2009. Survey of Industries (ASI) is the prime source of
Accordingly, it analyzes long-term industrial statistics. The ASI is used
Demand and supply to track the health of the industrial activity
in the economy over a longer period. The
Cost of production index is compiled out of a much larger sample
of industries compared to IIP.
Price trends in the market, both domestic
and international
Inter-crop price parity 95. Correct Option: (a)
Terms of trade between agriculture and Explanation:
non-agriculture Statement 2 is incorrect: UMANG provides
A minimum of 50 percent as the margin major services offered by Central and State
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Government departments, Local bodies
over cost of production
and other utility services from private
Likely implications of MSP on consumers organizations.
of that product
Statement 3 is incorrect: UMANG supports
It may be noted that cost of production is 12 major Indian languages in addition to
an important factor that goes as an input in English.
determination of MSP, but it is certainly not
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the only factor that determines MSP. Supplementary notes:
UMANG App
94. Correct Option: (b) UMANG (Unified Mobile Application for
New-age Governance) is developed by
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Explanation:
National e-Governance Division (NeGD),
Statement 1 is incorrect: Annual Survey of Ministry of Electronics and Information
Industries (ASI) is used to track the health of Technology (MeitY).
the industrial activity in the economy over a
longer period; IIP is monthly indicator. UMANG provides a single platform for
all Indian Citizens to access pan India
Statement 3 is incorrect: The 8 core industries
e-Governance services ranging from Central
comprise about 40% weight in the IIP.
to Local Government bodies and other citizen
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Supplementary notes: centric services. It provides a unified approach

where citizens can install one application to
Index of Industrial Production (IIP)
avail multiple government services.
IIP is an index that tracks manufacturing
UMANG supports 12 major Indian
activity in different sectors of an economy.
languages in addition to English.
Electricity, crude oil, coal, cement, steel,
refinery products, natural gas, and UMANG provides major services offered by
fertilizers are the eight core industries that Central and State Government departments,
comprise about 40 percent of the weight Local bodies and other utility services from
of items included in the Index of Industrial private organizations.
Production.
Mining, manufacturing, and electricity are the 96. Correct Option: (c)
three broad sectors in which IIP constituents
fall. Explanation:
IIP data is compiled and published by CSO Statement 2 is incorrect: The rules
every month. CSO or Central Statistical recommend avoiding construction of landfill
Organization operates under the Ministry of sites in hilly areas.
Statistics and Programme Implementation
(MoSPI). Supplementary notes:
The base year was changed to 2011-12 from Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016
The Rules are applicable beyond Municipal High calorific wastes shall be used for co-
areas and extend to urban agglomerations, processing in cement or thermal power
census towns, notified industrial townships, plants.
areas under the control of Indian Railways, Construction of landfill on the hill shall be
airports, airbase, Port and harbour, defence avoided.
establishments, special economic zones, State
and Central government organizations, places
of pilgrims, religious & historical importance. 97. Correct option: (b)
The source segregation of waste has been Explanation:
mandated to channelize the waste to wealth
Statement 2 is incorrect: Ash Track mobile
by recovery, reuse and recycle. application was launched by Ministry of Power
Responsibilities of Generators have been for better management of fly ash.
introduced to segregate waste in to three
streams, Wet (Biodegradable), Dry (Plastic, Supplementary notes:
Paper, metal, wood, etc.) and domestic Fly Ash
hazardous wastes (diapers, napkins, empty
Fly ash is the finely divided residue that results
containers of cleaning agents, mosquito
from the combustion of pulverized coal and is
repellents, etc.) and handover segregated
transported from the combustion chamber by
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wastes to authorized rag-pickers or waste
exhaust gases
collectors or local bodies.
Fly ash is produced by coal-fired electric and
Integration of waste pickers/ rag pickers and steam generating plants.
waste dealers/ Kabadiwalas in the formal
system should be done by State Governments, Fly ash is collected from the exhaust gases by
and Self Help Group, or any other group to be electrostatic precipitators or bag filters.
formed.
Fly ash consists primarily of oxides of silicon,

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No person should throw, burn, or bury the

aluminum iron and calcium. Magnesium,
solid waste generated by him, on streets, open potassium, sodium, titanium, and sulfur
public spaces outside his premises, or in the are also present to a lesser degree.
drain, or water bodies.
Fly ash can be tan to dark gray, depending
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Generator will have to pay ‘User Fee’ to waste on its chemical and mineral constituents. Tan
collector and for ‘Spot Fine’ for Littering and and light colors are typically associated with
Non-segregation. high lime content. A brownish color is typically
associated with the iron content. A dark gray
The concept of partnership in Swachh Bharat
to black color is typically attributed to high
has been introduced. Bulk and institutional
unburned carbon content. Fly ash color is
generators, market associations, event
usually very consistent for each power plant
organizers and hotels and restaurants have
and coal source.
been made directly responsible for segregation
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and sorting the waste and manage in Ministry of Power launched a Web based
partnership with local bodies. monitoring System and a Fly Ash mobile
application named ASH TRACK. These
The bio-degradable waste should be processed,
platforms will enable better management
treated and disposed of through composting
of the ash produced by thermal power
or bio-methanation within the premises as far
plants by providing an interface between
as possible. The residual waste shall be given
fly ash producers (Thermal Power Plants)
to the waste collectors or agency as directed
and potential ash users such as – road
by the local authority.
contractors, cement plants etc.
The developers of Special Economic Zone,
In order to encourage locally available
industrial estate, industrial park to earmark
materials and use of green technologies for
at least 5% of the total area of the plot or
construction of road under Pradhan Mantri
minimum 5 plots/ sheds for recovery and
Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY), guidelines
recycling facility.
were issued by the Ministry, wherein the
Non-recyclable waste having calorific State Governments are required to propose
value of 1500 Kcal/kg or more shall not minimum 15% of total length of annual
be disposed of on landfills and shall only proposals under New technologies such
be utilized for generating energy either as Cement stabilization, Lime stabilization,
through refuse derived fuel or by giving Cold mix, Waste plastics, Cell filled concrete,
away as feed stock for preparing refuse Paneled cement concrete pavement, Fly
derived fuel. ash etc.
Advantages of Fly Ash are: Action programmes aimed at ‘Wining the
Hearts and Minds” of the people in J&K and
Cement can be replaced by fly ash up to
North Eastern States, as part of a strategy
35%, thus reducing the cost of construction,
for conflict resolution.
making roads, etc.
In Jammu and Kashmir and the North East,
Fly ash bricks are light in weight and offer
the projects are being implemented under
high strength and durability.
Operation SADBHAVANA. Similar activities
Fly ash is a better fill material for road are also being undertaken as part of Operation
embankments and in concrete roads. SAMARITAN in the North East.
Fly ash can be used in reclamation of Operation Sadbhavana was launched by the
wastelands. army in 1998 in rural areas of Jammu & Kashmir
where terrorists and anti-national elements
Abandoned mines can be filled up with fly
had wrought havoc by large scale destruction
ash.
of government property and public assets like
schools, bridges, electricity supply system etc.
98. Correct Option: (d) causing severe hardships to locals.
Explanation: The focus of Operation Sadbhavana has been

on Quality Education, Women and Youth
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Statement 1 is incorrect: Indian Navy Empowerment, Infrastructure Development
launched Operation Madad, a major rescue and Health and Veterinary Care. Educational
and relief operation in flood-hit Kerala. / Motivational Tours outside J&K are
Statement 2 is incorrect: Indian Army also undertaken to expose the rich heritage and
has launched Operation Sahyog to rescue progress of India for the students, youth
people in flood-hit Kerala. and opinion makers. In addition, basic needs
like ‘Water Supply Schemes’, Electrification’
Supplementary notes: and ‘Animal Husbandry’ in far flung areas is
Operation Madad and Operation Sahyog

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Indian Navy has launched Operation Madad,
given priority while planning projects based
on a participative model involving the local
people, their elected representatives and civil
major rescue and relief operation in flood- administration.
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hit Kerala. It was launched to assist the state
administration and undertake disaster relief
operations due to unprecedented flooding 100. Correct Option: (c)
in many parts of Kerala following incessant Explanation:
rainfall and release of excess water from Idukki
and other dams. Both the statements are correct
Indian Army also has launched Operation Supplementary notes:

Sahyog to rescue people in flood-hit
PRASAD Scheme
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Kerala.
Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual
Under Operation Sahyog the army pushed Augmentation Drive (PRASAD) is a central
its men and machinery into disaster relief sector scheme that focuses on identifying and
and rescue operations at Kannur, Kozhikode, developing the pilgrim sites across the country
Wayanad and Idukki after incessant rain and to enrich the religious tourism experience.
landslides hit various northern districts of the
state. It was launched by Ministry of Tourism.
Both operations will support rescue and relief The scheme shall be 100% centrally funded
efforts of civil administration and National for the project components undertaken for
Disaster Relief Force (NDRF). public funding. Efforts will be made to achieve
convergence with other schemes of Central
and State governments and also to leverage
99. Correct Option: (b) the voluntary funding available for Corporate
Social Responsibility (CSR).
Explanation:
It aims at integrated development of
Option is correct pilgrimage destinations in planned, prioritized
Supplementary notes: and sustainable manner to provide complete
religious tourism experience.
Operation Sadbhavana
12 cities namely Amaravati (Andhra Pradesh),
Army has undertaken many Military Civic Gaya (Bihar), Dwarka (Gujarat), Amritsar
(Punjab), Ajmer (Rajasthan), Kanchipuram (Tamil Enhance tourist attractiveness in
Nadu), Velankanni (Tamil Nadu), Puri (Odisha), sustainable manner by developing
Varanasi(Uttar Pradesh), Mathura(Uttar world class infrastructure in the religious
Pradesh), Kedarnath (Uttarakhand) and destinations.
Kamakhya (Assam) have been identified for
Promote local art, culture, handicraft,
development under the scheme.
cuisine, etc. to generate livelihood in
The scheme has the following objectives: identified places.
Harness pilgrimage tourism for its direct
and multiplier effect upon employment
generation and economic development.

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GENERAL STUDIES
CURRENT AFFAIRS
(ECONOMY
+ ECONOMIC SURVEY
+ BUDGET)
1. Which of the following is not correct 5. Consider the following statements regarding
regarding the concept of ‘Place of Effective Pradhan Mantri Rojgar Protsahan Yojana
Management (PoEM)’? (PMRPY):
(a) It aims to determine a foreign company’s 1. Under the scheme, the employer is incentivized
residential status. by the government for increasing the
employee base in the establishment through
(b) It helps to assess if companies are setting up payment of EPF (Employees’ Provident Fund)
shell subsidiaries abroad to evade taxes. contribution.
(c) The shift to POEM signifies a shift from 2. It is implemented by Ministry of Social Justice
an objective criterion for tax residence to and Empowerment.
subjective criteria.
3. Employees with salary greater than 15,000
(d) PoEM guidelines are not applicable in India. per month are eligible under the scheme.
2. Recently, the Reserve Bank of India has set up (a) 1 and 3 only
an Expert Committee to review the current
framework for the Micro, Small and Medium (b) 2 and 3 only
Enterprises. Who is the chairman of the (c) 2 only
committee?
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(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) C. Rangrajan
(b) Bimal Jalan 6. Recently, there has been a controversy over
(c) V. K. Shunglu India’s new GDP series and its estimation
methodology. Which of the following changes
(d) U. K. Sinha have been made in Indian GDP estimation in
recent years?
3. Which of the following are the impacts of
O 1. Change in base year from 2004-05 to 2010-
Circular Economy? 11
1. Fewer Greenhouse Gas Emissions 2. Valuation of GVA at basic prices for GDP
2. Healthy and Resilient Soils estimation.
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3. Employment growth 3. Considering GDP at market prices as headline
GDP instead of GDP at factor cost
4. Increased potential for economic growth
5. Increased volatility in the prices of raw below:
materials
(a) 1 only
below: (b) 1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
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(a) 1, 3 and 5 only (c)
(b) 2, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

7. Match the following:
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
List I List II
4. Which of the following statements regarding A. Restructured loans 1. Loans which

aren’t counted as
Stand-Up India Scheme is/are correct?
dues, but
1. Loans under the scheme are available for recovery efforts
Greenfield projects only. are continued at
2. It is operated by all the branches of Scheduled branch level
Commercial Banks only. B. Doubtful assets 2. Assets converted
Select the correct answer using the code given into equity
below: C. Written-off assets 3. Assets considered
(a) 1 only uncollectible
(b) 2 only D. Loss assets 4. Assets which have
remained in the
(c) Both 1 and 2
substandard
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
category for a upgradation of its mail/express trains
period of 12 months (d) NITI Aayog’s Strategy to build a New India by
Select the correct answer using the code given 2022
below:
A B C D 11. With reference to Banning of Unregulated
Deposits Scheme Act, 2019, consider the
(a) 4 2 1 3
following statements:
(b) 4 2 3 1 1. It provides for a single regulator to oversee
(c) 2 4 3 1 various deposit-taking schemes in India.
(d) 2 4 1 3 2. Fraudulent default in a regulated deposit
scheme is an offense as per the Act.
8. Recently RBI finalized the regulatory sandbox Which of the above statements is/are correct?
framework for innovation in Fin-Tech firms. In (a) 1 only
this context consider the following statements
(b) 2 only
about regulatory sandbox :
1. It allows live testing of new products or (c) Both 1 and 2
services in a controlled or test regulatory
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(d) Neither 1 nor 2
environment.
2. Cryptocurrency or crypto assets services are 12. Consider the following statements
included in the regulatory sandbox. regarding the recently announced National
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Manufacturing Policy:
(a) 1 only 1. It aims to enhance the technological depth
and environmental sustainability of growth in
(b)
(c)
(d)
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
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the manufacturing sector.
At least 30% of the total land area proposed for
the National Investment and Manufacturing
Zones (NIMZs) will be utilized for location of
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manufacturing units.
9. Which of the following are the issues with
3. The Department for Promotion of Industry
Credit Rating Framework in India?
and Internal Trade is the nodal agency for
1. Credit Rating Agencies follow the ‘issuer pays NIMZ.
model’.
2. Credit-rating market in India is monopolistic,
with high barriers to entry. (a) 1 only
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3. Limited information. (b) 1 and 2 only

4. Single regulator (c) 2 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code given (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
below:
(a) 1 and 3 only 13. CAFE Regulations, seen recently in news, is
related with:
(b) 2 and 4 only
(a) Climate mitigation strategies
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) Automobile sector
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) Food processing sector
10. “Utkarsh 2022”, seen in news recently refers (d) Export promotion policy
to:
(a) A roadmap to double farmers’ income by 14. World Economic Outlook is published by:
2022
(a) International Monetary Fund
(b) A medium-term strategy framework of RBI for
(b) World Economic Forum
evolving macro-economic environment in the
country. (c) World Bank
(c) A Railways project to develop rakes as part of (d) None of the above
15. Consider the following statements regarding 1. The 45th World Skills Competition was held at
Direct Tax Code (DTC): New Delhi, India.
1. It is an attempt by the Government of India 2. It is the biggest vocational education and
(GOI) to simplify the direct tax laws in India. skills excellence event in the world which is
organised every two year.
2. It will replace the Income-tax Act, 1961 (ITA)
only. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
20. Consider the following Statements regarding
Open Acreage Licensing Policy (OALP)
16. Global Innovation Index is published by:
1. It gives an option to a company looking
(a) World Economic Forum for exploring hydrocarbons to select the
Human Development Innovation Fund exploration blocks on its own, without
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(b)
waiting for the formal bid round from the
(c) United Nations Conference on Trade and Government.
Development
2. Setting up of National Data Repository is one
(d) World Intellectual Property Organization of the milestones achieved for Open Acreage
Licensing Policy.
17. Which one of the following is a Legacy Dispute Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Resolution scheme which is offered to those
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taxpayers who wish to disclose any previously
(a) 1 only
undisclosed tax liability without any penalty (b) 2 only
or prosecution? (c) Both 1 and 2
Sabka Vishwas Scheme
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(a) (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) KALIA Scheme
(c) PAHAL Scheme 21. PK Mohanty Panel has been recently
constituted by the Reserve Bank of India to:
(d) Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay Shramev Jayate
Yojana (a) To suggest appropriate reserves that RBI
should maintain and dividends it should pay
to the government.
18. Which of the following statements is/
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are correct as per Bimal Jalan Panels’ (b) To examine the existing regulation and
recommendation to review RBI’s Economic guidelines on ownership of private sector
Capital Framework? banks.
1. RBI has to maintain the contingency risk (c) To review the status of digitization of
buffer to handle the financial stability in the payments.
country. (d) To suggest ways to increase the efficiencies of
2. It recommended a review of RBI’s Economic the debt market and aid in the resolution of
Capital Framework in every five years. stressed assets.

below: 22. Which of the following is a feature of gig
economy?
(a) 1 only
(a) An economy whose gross national product
(b) 2 only or gross domestic product to a large extent
(c) Both 1 and 2 comes from natural resources.
(b) An economy that has no trade activity with
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
outside economies.
(c) An economy that is too dependent on
unreliable foreign investment to finance its
the World Skills Competition: growth ambitions.
(d) An economy where flexible jobs are common 27. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
place and companies tend toward hiring correct about Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada
independent contractors and freelancers Yojana (PMKSY)?
instead of full-time employees.
1. It is a comprehensive package which aims to
create modern infrastructure with efficient
23. Consider the following statements about supply chain management from farm gate to
Nirvik Scheme: retail outlet.
1. It is launched to ease the lending process and 2. PMKSY is implemented by Ministry of Food
enhance loan availability for exporters. Processing Industries (MoFPI).
2. It is implemented by Export Credit Guarantee
Select the correct option using the code given
Corporation of India (ECGC)
below:
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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28. Consider the following statements about
24. Consider the following statements about
World Hindu Economic Forum (WHEF):
“Teaser Loan” that was in news recently:
1. It is as an independent international
1. It is a term used for loans that offer low, fixed
organization committed to make Hindu
interest rates in the initial few years, but switch
society prosperous through creation and
to floating rates thereafter. O sharing of surplus wealth.
2. SBI first introduced it in 2009-10.
2. It is a non-profit organization of Hindus in
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Ottawa, Canada.
(a) 1 only 3. 2019 World Hindu Economic Forum was held
2 only in Mumbai.
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(b)
(c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 only
25. Participatory Notes are regulated by which of (c) 1 and 3 only
the following agency?
(d) 1 and 2 only
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(a) Reserve Bank of India

(b) Security and Exchange Board of India 29. To promote use of electric vehicles in India,
government recently announced FAME II
(c) Ministry of Finance
scheme. In reference to FAME II scheme
(d) Both options and (b) consider the following statements
1. FAME II scheme will incentivize the electric
26. Consider the following statements: vehicles in commercial vehicles, for public
transport and two wheelers.
1. The Antyodaya Express is a fully unreserved,
super-fast train service for the common man. 2. Department of heavy industries is the nodal
agency for monitoring and implementation
2. UDAY is an air conditioned double decker of the scheme.
train for yatris.
3. Tejas is the India’s first private train.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3 only
(d) None of the above.
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 30. India slipped to rank 68th in Global
competiveness index (GCI). GCI is published Which of the above statements is/are correct?
annually by: (a) 1 only
(a) World Trade Organization.
(b) 2 only
(b) International Monetary Fund.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) United Nations Conference on Trade and
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Development.
(d) World Economic Forum.
34. With reference to the Global Microscope for
Financial Inclusion report 2019, consider the
31. In the context of recently launched “Food following statements:
Safety Mitra Scheme” consider the following
1. It is released by World Economic Forum along
statements:
with INSEAD.
1. Both “Eat Right Jacket” and “Eat Right Jhola”
2. It measures financial inclusion enabling
initiatives are launched to strengthen the
environment across 55 countries only.
food safety administration.
3. The 2019 report has ranked India among top
2. The Eat Right Jacket is a jacket that has a
nations with the most conducive environment
smart design to hold technological devices.
for financial inclusion.
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3. Eat Right Jhola is using re-usable cloth bag to
replace plastic bags. Which of the above statements are correct?
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

(c)
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(d) 1, 2 and 3
Core Investment Companies in India:
32. With reference to the strategic sale of PSUs in
1. They cannot invest more than 50% of their
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India, consider the following statements:
net assets in the form of equity shares, bonds,
1. The strategic sale involves the sale of majority debt or loans in group companies.
governmental share in the PSU along with
giving up managerial control of the firm. 2. They are not required to submit their statutory
auditor’s certificate (SAC) to RBI in India.
2. It will help in meeting the 3.3% fiscal deficit
target set for the financial year 2019-20. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
3. Department of Investment and Public Asset (a) 1 only
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Management (DIPAM) under the Ministry

of Commerce is the nodal department for (b) 2 only
disinvestment. (c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the above statements are correct? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 and 2 only
Washington Consensus:
(c) 2 and 3 only
1. It is a reform package promoted for crisis-
(d) 1, 2 and 3 wracked developed countries.
2. These neoliberal economic prescriptions
33. Consider the following statements regarding recommended structural reforms in exchange
the recent credit rating released by Moody’s for immediate financial help.
Analytics for India:
1. It lowered back India’s credit rating from Baa2
to Baa3 in 2019. (a) 1 only
2. It predicted a fiscal deficit of 3.7% of GDP as (b) 2 only
against the 3.3% set for the current financial (c) Both 1 and 2
year.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
37. Consider the following statements regarding (c) 1 and 3 only
the recently released report on Clean (d) 1, 2 and 3
Industry:
1. It is prepared by a task force led by FICCI. 41. With reference to the recent WTO ruling
2. It recommended action plan for clean Industry against Indian subsidies, consider the
in Delhi NCR only. following statements:
3. The report recommended usage of gas-based 1. The ruling will affect the Merchandise Exports
thermal power units. from India Scheme (MEIS).
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? 2. The agreement on Special and Differential
Treatment gives developed countries the
(a) 1 only
possibility to treat developing countries more
(b) 1 and 2 only favorably than other WTO Members.
(c) 2 only 3. The agreement on Subsidies and
Countervailing Measures regulates the use of
(d) 3 only subsidies.
38. World Energy Outlook 2019 report spans three
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alternative “futures”. Which of the following (a) 1 only
is not part of this report? (b) 1 and 2 only
(a) Stated Policies Scenario (c) 2 and 3 only
(b) Sustainable Development Scenario
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Current Policies Scenario
Future Programmes Scenario 42. The Union Cabinet recently approved creation
(d)

New Development Bank (NDB) and National
O of an Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) to
provide funding for stalled projects in real
estate sector. In this context, consider the
Investment and Infrastructure Fund’s (NIIF): following statements:
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1. New Development Bank (NDB), was formerly 1. AIF is a privately pooled investment vehicle
known as the BRICS Development Bank. which collects funds from both Indian and
2. Government of India holds majority equity in foreign investors.
NIIF. 2. AIFs are regulated by RBI.
3. Abu Dhabi Investment Authority is the first 3. Venture Capital Funds and Hedge Funds are
institutional investor in NIIF’s Master Fund.
a type of AIFs.
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(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
40. With reference to the Bharat Bond ETF,
consider the following statements: 43. Consider the following statements with
1. It is the first corporate bond ETF in India. regard to Trade Receivables Discounting
System or TReDS:
2. This will increase the participation of retail
investors in bond markets. 1. It is an institutional setup for flow of finance
to micro, small and medium enterprises
3. The bond ETF will be taxed as the lower rates
than debt mutual funds. (MSMEs) through multiple financiers at a
competitive rate.
2. The seller (MSMEs) of receivables are required
(a) 1 and 2 only to give some type of collateral.
(b) 2 and 3 only 3. It will deal with both receivables factoring and
reverse factoring.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
correct regarding National Infrastructure
44. Which of the following statements is/are Pipeline?
correct regarding Bilateral Patent Prosecution
1. It has outlined plans to invest more than Rs.
Highway (PPH) programme?
102 lakh crore on infrastructure projects by
1. It has commenced between the Indian Patent 2024-25.
Office (IPO) and the European Patent Office
2. Centre, States and the private sector will share
(EPO).
the capital expenditure in a 50:30:20 formula.
2. Guidelines of this program are issued under
the Controller General of Patents, Designs & Select the correct answer using the code given
Trade Marks, India (CGPDTM). below:
Select the correct answer using the code given 1 only
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(a)
below: (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 48. Which of the following statements is/are
O correct regarding eBkray?
45. Which of the following statements is /are 1. It is a common e-auction platform to
correct regarding new IT Initiatives launched enable online auction of attached assets
by Finance Ministry? transparently for the improved realization of
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1. ICEDASH is an easy-to-use mobile app for value by banks.
international travelers to file the Customs 2. It is not yet linked on Indian Banks Auctions
declaration in advance. Mortgaged Properties Information (IBAPI)
2. ATITIH is an Ease of Doing Business monitoring portal.
dashboard of the Indian Customs. Select the correct answer using the code given
Select the correct statement using the code given below:
below: 1 only
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(a)
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
46. Which of the following statements is/ correct regarding the report titled World
are correct with regard to Asia - Pacific Economic League Table 2020?
Rural Agricultural and Credit Association
1. It was released by the World Economic
(APRACA)?
Forum.
1. It was launched during the first General
2. According to it, India will overtake Germany
Assembly Meeting in New Delhi, India,in
1977. to become fourth-largest economy in the
world by the year 2026.
2. The General Secretariat of APRACA was
established at the FAO Regional Office for Select the correct answer using the code given
Asia and the Pacific (FAO-RAP) premises in below:
Betong, Thailand. (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
below:
(c) Both 1 and 2 below:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
50. Consider the following statements regarding (c) 3 only
the Northeastern Gas Grid:
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. It is gas pipeline connecting all the
northeastern states except Sikkim.
53. The Global Talent Competitiveness Index
2. The pipeline aims to supply only piped
(GTCI), an annual benchmarking report, is
cooking gas to households.
published by:
3. It is being implemented by GAIL and will be
connected to Pradhan Mantri Urja Ganga (a) Indian School of Business
project. (b) INSEAD
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? (c) World Economic Forum
(a) 2 only (d) World Bank
(b) 1 and 2 only
54. With reference to Long-term Capital
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(c) 3 only
Gains (LTCG) Tax, consider the following
(d) 1, 2 and 3 statements:
1. Long-term capital gains are often given more
51. Government is conducting Asset Monetisation favorable tax treatment than short-term
Programmes in order to increase its resources. gains.
Which of the following statements are correct 2. LTCG Tax is applicable to inherited properties
in this context? which are held for more than a year.
1. Asset Monetisation programmes of the
O
government are carried out through Union
Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
(a) 1 only
2. Setting up infrastructure investment trusts 2 only
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(b)
(InvITs) is part of Asset Monetisation.
(c) Both 1 and 2
3. Capital restructuring of Central Public Sector
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Enterprise (CPSEs) is an example of Asset
Monetisation.
55. Baba Kalyani Committee was set up to:
below: (a) Draft a new model Police Act
1 and 2 only Recommend amendments to the Criminal
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(a) (b)
Law
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) Study the existing SEZ policy of India
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Review domestic production profile of oil and
(d) 1, 2 and 3
gas
52. Banking Regulation Act, 1949 was recently

56. Recently released India Human Development
amended to empower RBI to have greater
Survey (IHDS) suggests that consumption
control over cooperative banks. In this
spending has grown between 2011-12 and
context, which of the following statement(s)
2017. Which of the following statements are
is/are correct? correct about IHDS findings?
1. The amendments will apply to urban co-
1. IHDS findings are contrary to NSS findings.
operative banks and not rural cooperative
banks. 2. IHDS was organised by National Council of
Applied Economic Research (NCAER).
2. Section 35A of the Banking Regulation Act
deals with cooperative banks. 3. IHDS provides an assessment of changes in
living standards.
3. Rural cooperatives are more in number as
compared to urban cooperative banks. Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
60. According to the recent data on Start Ups
57. Krishnapuram Onions were in news recently. released in Economic Survey, consider the
Which of the following statements is/are
correct about Krishnapuram Onions? 1. India ranked first in the number of new firms
created across the globe.
1. They are not used domestically due to their
size and pungency. 2. Birth of new firms is homogenous across
Indian districts and across sectors.
2. They are export quality onions.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
3. They are produced in the state of Karnataka.
(a) 1 only
below: (b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
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(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
61. Which of the following statement is/are
(d) 1, 2 and 3 correct:
1. Liberalization of the Indian economy enabled
58. Recently, government launched a new the forces of creative destruction.
scheme called Remission of Duties and Taxes
on Export Product (RoDTEP). Which of the
O 2. SENSEX has grown at an accelerating pace
post market reforms introduced in 90s.
following statements are correct regarding Select the correct answer using the code given
this new scheme? below:
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1. RoDTEP will replace Merchandise Exports (a) 1 only
From India Scheme (MEIS).
(b) 2 only
2. RoDTEP is inconsistent with WTO
requirements. (c) Both 1 and 2
3. RoDTEP will have a fully automated route for (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Input Tax Credit (ITC).
Select the correct answer using the code given 62. Consider the following statements:
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below: 1. The share of financials and information

technology sectors in the total market
(a) 1 and 2 only
capitalization has increased over the last two
(b) 1 and 3 only decades.
(c) 2 and 3 only 2. Herfindahl Index is used to analyse degree of
competition within the two sectors.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the following statement is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
59. Recently, RBI introduced long-term repo
operations (LTRO). Which of the following (b) 2 only
statements is correct regarding LTRO? (c) Both 1 and 2
1. LTRO will be at the policy repo rate. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. LTROs will be conducted on CBS (E-KUBER)
platform. 63. Which of the following statement is/are
3. LTRO can boost credit growth. correct about Dutch Disease in economics?
Select the correct answer using the code given (a) It’s a phenomenon wherein countries that
below: are rich in natural resources witness uneven
growth across sectors.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) It can affect the exchange rate of the currency forever, to highlight which issue in the Indian
of resource rich country. economy:
(c) Coal Mines sector in India suffered from this (a) Impact of climate change on the market
disease from 1993 to 2011.
(b) Excessive government interventions in the
(d) All of the above market
(c) Low female labour participation in the
64. The recent economic survey suggests market
promoting pro-business policies to unleash (d) Wastage of demographic dividend.
the power of competitive markets to generate
wealth and to wean away pro-crony policies.
68. Consider the following statements :
In this context, consider the following
statements: 1. India’s lacklustre export performance is
caused by a very high diversification in its
1. Pro crony policies promote preferential export basket.
treatment to some incumbent firms making
2. India’s participation in Global Value Chains
resource allocation efficient in the economy.
(GVCs) has been low compared to the major
2. Pro-business policies maximize the citizen’s exporting nations in East and Southeast Asia.
welfare.
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(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Neither 1 nor 2
(d)
65. With reference to Essential Commodities Act,

1955, consider the following statements:
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which of the following countries has shown
the percentage increase in imports higher
than that of exports?
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1. It is applicable only to agricultural commodities
such as Onions and Pulses. (a) Korea, Japan and Sri Lanka
2. It gives the central government the power to (b) USA, China and Russia
fix price limits, and regulate stock limits, of (c) Sri Lanka, Nepal and Bhutan
essential goods.
(d) Indonesia and Bhutan
3. On average, the conviction rate under the Act
is abysmally low at 2-4 percent.
70. In which of the following parameters of
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Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? Ease of Doing Business Index, India’s rank is
(a) 1 and 2 only trailing?
(b) 2 and 3 only 1. Protecting Minority Interest
2. Registering Property
(c) 3 only
3. Enforcing Contract
(d) 1 and 3 only
4. Paying Taxes
66. The term “Maximum Allowable Post- Select the correct answer using code given below:
manufacturing Expenses” (MAPE) , frequently (a) 1 and 2 only
seen in the news, is used in which context? (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(a) Agro-process industries (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) Pharmaceutical Policy (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) Automobile industries
(d) Data Centres. 71. Which of the following is the correct order of
percentage share of freight transportation in
India?
67. The economy survey used the term
‘Deadweight Loss’- income that is lost (a) Railway > Road > Waterways > Air
(b) Road > Rail > Air > Waterway terms of a previous credit agreement.
(c) Waterways > Rail > Road >Air 2. NBFCs typically borrow money from banks
or sell commercial papers to mutual funds to
(d) Road > Railway > Waterway > Air raise money.
72. Which of the following is a sub-index of the below:
World Bank’s ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’?
(a) 1 only
1. Getting Electricity
(b) 2 only
2. Percentage of International Tourist
(c) Both 1 and 2
3. Protecting Minority investor
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Use of Technology
5. Starting Business
76. Economic survey of 2019-2020 has
Select the correct answer using code given below. mentioned about “Difference-in-Difference
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only Methodology” for Privatization and Wealth
Creation, with reference to this methodology
(b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only which of the following statements is/are
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(c) 1, 3 and 5 only correct?
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 1. This methodology is used to assess the impact

of strategic disinvestment/privatization on
performance of select CPSEs before and after
73. Consider the following statements with privatization.
reference to Non Banking Financial Companies 2. It is a statistical technique used to estimate the
(NBFC): effect of a specific intervention or treatment
1. NBFCs have a banking license.
O (such as a passage of law, enactment of policy,
or large-scale program implementation).
2. NBFCs cannot issue cheques drawn on it.
3. This methodology is used in order to lend
3. Deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance
professionalism and autonomy to the
and Credit Guarantee Corporation is not
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disinvestment programme which, in turn,
available to depositors of NBFC. would improve the economic performance of
Select the correct answer using the code given the CPSEs.
below: 4. To decide on the proposals of Core Group of
(a) 1 only Disinvestment (CGD) with regard the timing,
price, terms & conditions of sale, and any
(b) 2 and 3 only other related issue to the transaction.
1 and 2 only Select the correct answer using the code given
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(c)
below :
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only
74. Which of the following statement is correct (b) 1 and 2 only
about Shadow Banking? (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(a) When a Central bank opens up another (d) 3 and 4 only
subsidiary it is called as its Shadow Bank.
(b) Shadow bank is mainly concerned with 77. With reference to Different Approaches
underground parallel economy. for Disinvestment, consider the following
(c) NBFCs are considered as an important statement:
segment of the shadow banking system in 1. In Disinvestment through Majority stake
India. sale, the Government will retain majority
(d) None of the above. shareholding, i.e., at least 51 per cent and
management control of the Public Sector
Undertakings.
75. According to Economic Survey, which of the
2. In Disinvestment through Minority stake
following statements is/are correct?
sale, the Government will retain Minority
1. A refinance occurs when there is a revision shareholding, i.e. less than 51 percent.
in the interest rate, payment schedule, and
3. In complete privatisation, 100% control of the
company is passed on to a buyer. 1. To improve on-farm water use efficiency to
reduce wastage of water.
2. To promote sustainable water conservation
(a) 1 only practices through reusing treated municipal
(b) 1 and 2 only waste water.
(c) 3 only Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only
78. Difference-in-difference (DID) model is a type (c) Both 1 and 2
of __________ :
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) A statistical and econometric model
(b) An Environment Impact Assessment model 82. Which of the following statements about
Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY)
(c) A cost-benefit analysis approach
is/are correct?
(d) A Banking stress analysis model 1. It ensures flow of credit to the agricultural
sector.
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79. Investment catalyses the economy into 2. It encourages farmers to adopt innovative
a virtuous cycle. Which of the following and modern agricultural practices.
statements is/are correct in this regard? 3. It will make use of remote sensing to reduce
1. Investment increases labour productivity number of crop cutting experiments
2. Investment improves productive capacity of Select the correct answer using the code given
capital below:
3. Investment generates employment 1 and 2 only
below:
O
(a)
(b)
(c)
2 only
2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(d) All of the above
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(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only 83. The vision of ‘Zero Hunger’ is provided
under which of the following Sustainable
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Development Goals (SDG) ?
(a) Goal 2
80. Consider the following statements with
reference to Price Deficiency Payment (b) Goal 3
Scheme (PDPS) launched under Pradhan
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(c) Goal 4
Mantri Annadata Aay Sanrakshan Abhiyan
(PM-AASHA): (d) Goal 5
1. Oilseeds are not covered under its Price
Deficiency Payment sub Scheme (PDPS). 84. International Development Association (IDA)
2. Direct payment of the difference between is called the ‘soft’ window of the World Bank
the MSP and the selling price is made to pre- (WB) because __________ :
registered farmers selling his produce in the (a) it lends for software and IT development.
notified market yard through a transparent
auction process (b) taking loans from it is very easy
Select the correct answer using the code given (c) its loans are interest free
below: (d) All of the above.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 85. Which of the following statements is/correct
(c) Both 1 and 2 regarding the Balance of Payments?
1. The current account records exports and
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
imports in goods and services and transfer
payments.
81. Consider the following objectives to Pradhan 2. Total foreign trade (exports + imports) as a
Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY):
proportion of GDP is a common measure of 2030.
the degree of openness of an economy. 2. Increase its forest cover and additional
Select the correct answer using the code given carbon sink equivalent to 2.5 to 3 billion tons
below. of carbon dioxide by 2030.
(a) 1 only Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
86. Which of the following statements are correct
in this regard?
1. Repo rate is the rate at which the central bank the National Adaptation Fund on Climate
of a country lends money to commercial banks Change (NAFCC):
in exchange of commercial banks selling their
securities to the central bank. 1. The projects related to adaptation in sectors
such as agriculture, animal husbandry, water,
2. A decrease in repo rate disincentivises banks forestry, tourism, etc. are eligible for funding
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to borrow from the central bank. under NAFCC.
3. An increase in repo rate reduces the money 2. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
supply in the economy. Development (NABARD) is the National
Select the correct answer using the code give Implementing Entity (NIE) for this scheme.
below: Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(b) 1 and 2 only
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(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
SC
90. As per the India State of the Forest Report,
correct regarding monetary aggregates and
2019, consider the following statements:
Money supply in the economy?
1. The tropical dry deciduous forest is high in
1. Narrow money is the most liquid part of the
Arunachal Pradesh.
money supply because demand deposits can
be withdrawn anytime during the banking 2. Tropical Littoral and swamp forests are high in
hours. Uttar Pradesh.
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2. Money supply is the product of Money 3. Tropical Evergreen forest is high in Kerala
multiplier and Reserve money. followed by Karnataka.
3. Reserve money is also called High Powered Which of the above statements are correct?
Money. (a) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code give (b) 1 and 3 only
below:
(c) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only 91. Shannon-Weiner Index is related to which of
(d) 1, 2 and 3 the following?
(a) It is used to measure visibility in smog in
88. With reference to India’s commitment under polluted regions
Nationally Determined Contribution of the (b) It is used for measuring species richness and
Paris Agreement, consider the following abundance.
statements:
(c) It is used to measure the rate of biomass
1. To reduce its emission intensity of GDP by 33 transfer in the food chain.
to 35 percent below 2015 levels by the year
(d) None of the above 1. Integrated FarmingSystem aims to help
farmers in rainfed areas to counter the
vagaries of monsoon and unseasonal rain.
92. With reference Female Participation in Labour
Market, consider the following statements: 2. ‘One District One Product Scheme’ aims to
aid states for cluster wise development of
1. Female labour force participation rate (LFPR) horticulture.
for productive age-group (15-59 years) as per
usual status shows a declining trend between Which of the above statements is/are correct?
2011-12 and 2017-18. (a) 1 only
2. The ratio of female to male labour force (b) 2 only
decreased between 2011-12 and 2017-18.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 96. Which of the following statements is/are
(c) Both 1 and 2 correct regarding Technical Textiles?
1. Technical Textiles are those textiles which are
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
used in sectors such as aerospace, shipping
and sports.
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93. Consider the following statements regarding 2. India has recently announced National
reforms in agriculture sector conceived Technical Textiles Mission for supporting
by Budget to achieve ambitious target of production of technical textile.
doubling the farmer’s income:
1. It has earmarked 100 water stressed districts below:
to address the problems of water scarcity.
(a) 1 only
2. The budget has sought to check use of
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chemical fertilizer by substituting them with
organic manures.
(b)
(c)
2 only
Both 1 and 2
3. Village Storage scheme as conceived by (d) Neither 1 nor 2
budget will maintain a repository of land
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which has been lying unclaimed in a village.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? “Arth Ganga” Plan and NIRVIK scheme as
(a) 1 and 3 only announced in budget
(b) 2 only 1. ‘Arth Ganga’ plan aims to promote sand
mining and fishing in the Ganga river for
(c) 2 and 3 only sustainable economic development of the
area.
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(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. NIRVIK scheme aims to help small exporters
94. In context of ‘Kisan Rail’ and ‘Krishi Udan’ in export credit disbursement.
Scheme, consider the following statements: Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. Kisan Rail envisages transporting livestock (a) 1 only
from one place to another through Indian
Railways. (b) 2 only
2. Krishi Udan will provide subsidized air tickets (c) Both 1 and 2
to farmers for travelling once in a year.
(d) Neither 1 or 2
(a) 1 only 98. Consider the following statements regarding
(b) 2 only Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee
Corporation (DICGC):
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. It is an organization which insures deposits in
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 a bank against bank failure.
2. Depositors are now entitled to receive a
95. Consider the following statements regarding maximum insurance amount of 5 lakh per
‘Integrated Farming System’ and ‘One District individual.
One Product Scheme’
3. The government has set up Deposit Insurance
and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) Which of the above statements is/arecorrect?
under SEBI. (a) 1 only
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only macroeconomic targets set by Budget 2020:
1. The government has set a fiscal deficit target
99. Consider the following statements regarding at 3.5% of GDP in the current financial year.
Vivad Se Vishwas Scheme and Sabka Vishwas 2. GDP growth rate has been forecasted at 7%
Scheme related to taxation system: of GDP for 2020-21 by the government.
1. Vivad Se VishwasScheme is related to indirect Which of the above statements is/are correct?
taxes while Sabka Vishwas Scheme related to (a) 1 only
direct taxes.
(b) 2 only
2. Under Vivad Se Vishwas Scheme, a taxpayer
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(c) Both 1 and 2
will get complete waiver of interest and
penalty if he pays duesin a fixed time. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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GENERAL STUDIES
CURRENT AFFAIRS
ECONOMY + ECONOMIC SURVEY +
BUDGET
Answer Key
Q. 1 (d) Q. 21 (b) Q. 41 (d) Q. 61 (c) Q. 81 (c)
Q. 2 (d) Q. 22 (d) Q. 42 (b) Q. 62 (c) Q. 82 (d)
Q. 3 (c) Q. 23 (c) Q. 43 (c) Q. 63 (d) Q. 83 (a)
Q. 4 (c) Q. 24 (c) Q. 44 (b) Q. 64 (b) Q. 84 (c)
Q. 5 (b) Q. 25 (b) Q. 45 (d) Q. 65 (a) Q. 85 (c)
Q. 6 (c) Q. 26 (d) Q. 46 (a) Q. 66 (b) Q. 86 (c)
Q. 7 (d) Q. 27 (c) Q. 47 (a) Q. 67 (b) Q. 87 (d)
Q. 8 (a) Q. 28 (c) Q. 48 (a) Q. 68 (b) Q. 88 (b)
Q. 9 (a) Q. 29 (c) Q. 49 (b) Q. 69 (a) Q. 89 (c)
Q. 10 (b) Q. 30 (d) Q. 50 (d) Q. 70 (c) Q. 90 (a)
Q. 11 (b) Q. 31 (d) Q. 51 (c) Q. 71 (d) Q. 91 (b)
Q. 12 (d) Q. 32 (a) Q. 52 (b) Q. 72 (c) Q. 92 (a)
Q. 13 (b) Q. 33 (b) Q. 53 (b) Q. 73 (b) Q. 93 (c)
Q. 14 (a) Q. 34 (b) Q. 54 (a) Q. 74 (c) Q. 94 (d)
Q. 15 (a) Q. 35 (b) Q. 55 (c) Q. 75 (c) Q. 95 (c)
Q. 16 (d) Q. 36 (b) Q. 56 (d) Q. 76 (b) Q. 96 (c)
Q. 17 (a) Q. 37 (a) Q. 57 (a) Q. 77 (c) Q. 97 (b)
Q. 18 (c) Q. 38 (d) Q. 58 (b) Q. 78 (a) Q. 98 (d)
Q. 19 (b) Q. 39 (b) Q. 59 (d) Q. 79 (d) Q. 99 (b)
Q. 20 (c) Q. 40 (a) Q. 60 (d) Q. 80 (b) Q. 100 (a)
1. Correct Option: (d) Change in the definition of MSMEs from
current investment-based to turnover-based
Explanation: definition, as it would be more transparent,
Option is incorrect: PoEM guidelines became progressive, easier to implement. It will also
applicable in India from FY16-17. remove the bias towards manufacturing
enterprises in the existing definition.
Strengthening the procurement mechanism by
Place of Effective Management (PoEM) promotion of the Government e-Market (GEM)
Portal and improving its payment system.
A PoEM is aimed at ensuring that sufficient
economic activity takes place in a particular State Financial Corporations (SFC) is set up to
country and determining a foreign promote Small Scale Industries and they can
company’s residential status. be given more operational freedom by the
State legislations.
It also helps to assess if companies are
setting up shell subsidiaries abroad to Khadi and Village Industries Commission
evade taxes. (KVIC)- should be corporatized with a focus
on promotional work.
In other words, it has been defined to mean a
place where key management and commercial Due to the lack of sophistication on the part of
decisions that are necessary for the conduct MSMEs, Insolvency code/ delegated legislation
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of the business of an entity as a whole are, in should provide for out-of-court assistance to
substance made. MSMEs such as mediation, financial education,
or the appointment of a trustee.
PoEM guidelines in India became applicable
from FY16-17. The performance of Clusters needs to be
improved by bringing synergy and coordination
The Central Board of Direct Taxes issued its
within a large number of support schemes.
final guidelines in January 2017.

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The shift to PoEM signifies a shift from
Involving local intermediaries such as
business membership organizations in
an objective criterion for tax residence to
developing linkages with other stakeholders
subjective criteria.
such as training, educational and research
institutions.
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2. Correct Option: (d) Market Support for MSMEs can be enhanced
Explanation: by developing networks of development
service providers that can provide customized
Option is correct: U.K. Sinha committee solutions to MSMEs that are struggling with
has been set up by RBI to review the current the capability and resource constraints.
framework for the MSME sector.
Improving access to technology through
Supplementary notes: a technology Mission for converging the
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efforts for the technology up-gradation of the

Expert Committee on Micro, Small and
MSMEs. Apart from it, more Industry-specific
Medium Enterprises (MSME) Technology Centres can be opened.
The Reserve Bank has set up an eight- Set up a National Council for MSMEs under
member expert committee under the the Chairmanship of the Prime Minister, in
leadership of the former chairman of SEBI, order to facilitate coherent policy outlook and
UK Sinha to review the current framework unity of monitoring.
for the MSME sector.
The committee has suggested long-term
solutions for the economic and financial 3. Correct Option: (c)
sustainability of the micro, small and medium Explanation:
enterprises.
Statement 5 is incorrect: Circular economy
Key Recommendations of the Committee will lead to less volatility in the prices of raw
The Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises materials.
Development (MSMED) Act, 2006 may be Supplementary notes:
reimagined as a comprehensive and holistic
MSME Code having a provision for sunset on Benefits of a Circular Economy
the plethora of complex laws scattered all over Fewer Greenhouse Gas Emissions:
the legislative framework.
When it comes to reducing greenhouse gases,
a circular economy can be helpful because it Both statements are correct
uses renewable energy that in the long run is
less polluting than fossil fuels. Supplementary notes:
A central part of the solution to climate change Stand-Up India Scheme

thus lies in the so-called “circular economy” - The Stand-Up India scheme aims at promoting
a regenerative system in which resource input entrepreneurship among women and
and waste, emission, and energy leakage are scheduled castes and tribes.
minimized by slowing, closing, and narrowing
energy and material loops. The objective of the scheme is to facilitate
bank loans between Rs 10 lakh and Rs 1
A circular economy development path could Crore to at least one Scheduled Caste (SC)
halve carbon dioxide emissions by 2030, or Scheduled Tribe (ST) borrower and at
relative to today’s levels. least one woman borrower per bank branch
Fewer Negative Externalities: for setting up a Greenfield enterprise.
Following the circular economy’s principles, This enterprise may be in manufacturing,

negative externalities such as land use, soil, services or the trading sector.
water and air pollution are better managed, as SC/ST and/or woman entrepreneurs above 18
well as the emission of toxic substances and years of age are eligible for loans under the
climate change. scheme.
Healthy and Resilient Soils – Environmental Loans under the scheme are available for
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Benefits: only green field project. Green field signifies,
The principles of the circular economy on in this context, the first time venture of the
the farming system ensure that important beneficiary in the manufacturing or services
nutrients are returned to the soil through or trading sector.
anaerobic processes or composting, which The scheme is operated by all the branches
softens the exploitation of land and natural of Scheduled Commercial Banks in India.
ecosystems. O It was in news recently as the Union Budget
In this way, as “waste” is returned to the soil, 2019-2020 has extended Stand-Up India
besides having fewer residues to deal with, Scheme up to 2025.
the soil gets healthier and more resilient
Increased Potential for Economic Growth: 5. Correct Option: (b)
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The increase in revenues from new circular Explanation:
activities, together with a cheaper production
by getting products and materials more Statement 2 is incorrect: PMRPY is
functional and easily disassembled and implemented by Ministry of Labor and
reused, has the power to increase GDP. Employment.
Employment Growth: Statement 3 is incorrect: Employees with

monthly wage up to 15,000 per month are
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According to the ‘World Economic Forum’, the eligible under the scheme.
development of a circular economy model can
bring greater local employment in entry-level Supplementary notes:
and semi-skilled jobs. New job will be created
Pradhan Mantri Rojgar Protsahan Yojana
through increases in:
(PMRPY)
Recycling and repairing practices,
The Pradhan Mantri Rojgar Protsahan
An increase in new businesses due to Yojana (PMRPY) Scheme has been designed
innovation processes and new business to incentivize employers for generation of
models, new employment, where Government of
India will be paying the full employer’s
An increase in consumption and spending
contribution towards EPF (Employees’
by lower prices.
Provident Fund) & EPS (Employees’ Pension
Volatility Reduction and Safeguarded Supplies: Scheme) both.
The increase in the usage of recycled inputs This scheme has a dual benefit, where, on the
would leave companies less dependent on one hand, the employer is incentivized for
the volatility of the price of raw materials. increasing the employment base of workers in
the establishment, and on the other hand, a
large number of workers will find jobs in such
4. Correct Option: (c) establishments.
Explanation:
A direct benefit is that these workers will
List I List II
have access to social security benefits of the
organized sector. A. Restructured 2. Assets converted into eq-
It is being implemented by Ministry of loans uity
labor and Employment. B. Doubtful assets 4. Assets which have re-
The beneficiaries of the scheme include: mained in the substandard
category for a period of 12
All Establishments registered with EPFO months
(Employees’ Provident Fund Organization)
C. Written-off as- 1. Loans which aren’t
Establishments should have LIN (Labor sets counted as dues, but recov-
Identification Number) allotted to them ery efforts are continued at
under Shram Suvidha Portal branch level
Employee should have a valid Aadhar
D. Loss assets 3. Assets considered uncol-
linked UAN (Universal Account Number)
lectible
and wages up to 15,000 per month.
6. Correct Option: (c) Stressed Assets
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Explanation: It comprises of NPAs, restructured loans and
written off assets.
Statement 1 is incorrect: In 2015, base year
for the calculation of GDP has been changed Restructured Loans: Assets/loans which
from 2004-05 to 2011-12. have been restructured by giving a longer
duration for repayment, lowering interest or
Supplementary notes: by converting them to equity, providing
Changes made in Indian GDP Calculation additional financing, or some combination
O of these measures.
In 2015, the Central Statistics Office introduced
a revised methodology for the calculation of Written off Assets: Assets/loans which
GDP of the country. aren’t counted as dues, but recovery
efforts are continued at branch level –
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In place of GDP at factor cost, gross value done by banks to clean up their balance
added (GVA) at basic prices will be used books.
now.
Non-performing asset (NPA)
Headline GDP is now GDP at market prices
as per the new GDP series. Earlier, it was It is a loan or advance for which the principal
GDP at factor cost. or interest payment remained overdue for a
period of 90 days or more.
Incorporation of MCA21 (e-governance
initiative of Ministry of Company Affairs) In case of Agriculture/Farm Loans, the NPA
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database: Ensuring comprehensive coverage varies for short duration crop (interest not
of corporate sector in mining, manufacturing paid for 2 crop seasons) and long duration
& services. crops (interest not paid for 1 Crop season).
Inclusion of financial sector and regulatory Banks are required to classify NPAs further
bodies resulted into the broader coverage. into Substandard, Doubtful & Loss assets.
Earlier estimates primarily covered commercial Substandard assets: Assets which have
banks and NBFCs. remained NPA for a period less than or
Adopted Effective Labour Input (ELI) Method: equal to 12 months.
Earlier, it was assumed that all categories of Doubtful assets: Assets which have
workers contribute equally. New method remained in the substandard category
addresses differential labour productivity issue for a period of 12 months
by assigning weights to different categories of
workers based on their productivity. Loss assets: It is considered uncollectible
and of such little value that its continuance
as a bankable asset is not warranted,
7. Correct Option: (d) although there may be some salvage or
recovery value.
Explanation:
Option is correctly matched:
8. Correct Option:
Explanation: obligation of Rs 91,000 crore. The credit rating
agencies ignored the rising debt levels at
Statement 2 is incorrect: Cryptocurrency or
IL&FS, and continued rating it AAA, indicating
crypto assets services, trading, investing
the highest level of creditworthiness.
or settling in crypto-assets and initial coin
offerings are out of the regulatory sandbox. Issuer pays model: Currently, the credit
rating agencies follow the ‘issuer pays
Supplementary notes: model’, under which the entity issuing
Regulatory sandbox the financial instrument pays the agency
upfront to rate the underlying securities.
A regulatory sandbox allows live testing of However, the Committee observed that such a
new products or services in a controlled/ payment arrangement may lead to a ‘conflict
test regulatory environment for which of interest’ and could result in compromising
regulators may permit certain regulatory the quality of analysis or the objectivity of the
relaxations for the limited purpose of the ratings assigned by the agencies.
testing.
Multiple regulators: In India, the Securities
RBI said the objective of the sandbox was and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) primarily
to foster responsible innovation in financial regulates credit rating agencies and their
services, promote efficiency and bring benefits functioning. However, certain other regulatory
to consumers. agencies, such as the Reserve Bank of India
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The proposed FinTech solution should highlight (RBI), Insurance Regulatory and Development
an existing gap in the financial ecosystem and Authority, and Pension Fund Regulatory and
the proposal should demonstrate how it would Development Authority also regulate certain
address the problem, and bring benefits to aspects of credit rating agencies under their
consumers or the industry and/or perform the respective sectoral jurisdiction.
same work more efficiently. Less competition: Credit-rating market in
RBI will launch the sandbox for entities that India is oligopolistic, with high barriers

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meet the criteria of the minimum net worth of
Rs. 25 lakh as per their latest audited balance
sheet.
to entry. Lack of competition in the market
enables CRAs to have longer, well- established
relationships with the issuers which can
hamper their independence.
The entity should either be a company
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incorporated and registered in the country or Poor Rating Quality: Often ratings are
banks licensed to operate in India. provided on limited information. For e.g.
If the issuer decides not to answer some
While money transfer services, digital determinant questions, the rating may be
know-your-customer, financial inclusion, principally based on public information. Many
and cybersecurity products are included, rating agencies don’t have enough manpower
cryptocurrency, credit registry and credit which often leads to poor quality.
information have been left out.
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Explanation:
Explanation:
Option is correct: “Utkarsh 2022” refers
Statement 2 is incorrect: Credit-rating market to a medium term strategy framework of
in India is oligopolistic, with high barriers to Reserve Bank of India for evolving macro-
entry. economic environment in the country.
Statement 4 is incorrect: There are multiple
regulators which also regulate certain aspects
of credit rating agencies under their respective Utkarsh 2022
sectoral jurisdiction.
It is the Reserve Bank of India’s medium-
Supplementary notes: term strategy framework, in line with the
evolving macroeconomic environment,
Issues with Credit Rating Framework in India to achieve excellence in the performance of
In the Indian context, the credibility of credit RBI’s mandates and strengthening the trust of
rating has come into question in the crisis citizens and other institutions.
involving the Infrastructure Leasing and A formal strategic management framework
Financial Services Limited (IL&FS), a major was launched in April 2015 to rearticulate
infrastructure development and finance the core purpose, values and vision statement
company of systemic importance, with a debt
of the Reserve Bank of India so as to delineate All deposit-taking schemes are required to be
its strategic objectives in contemporary registered with the relevant regulator.
terms, to provide a framework and backdrop
The Bill provides for the appointment of
within and against which its policies would be
one or more government officers, not below
formulated.
the rank of Secretary to the state or central
The strategic framework contains, the Bank’s government, as the Competent Authority who
Mission, Core Purpose, Values and Vision will have the powers of a civil court.
Statements, reiterating the Bank’s commitment It provides for the central government to
to the Nation. designate an authority to create an online
The medium-term Vision Statements set central database for information on deposit
out the following: takers. All deposit takers will be required
to inform the database authority about
Excellence in performance of statutory and their business. The Competent Authority
other function will be required to share all information on
Strengthening trust of citizens and other unregulated deposits with the authority.
Institutions in the RBI There are three different types of offences—
Enhancing relevance and significance in running of unregulated deposit schemes,
national and global roles fraudulent default in regulated deposit
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schemes, and wrongful inducement in case
Transparent, accountable and ethics-driven of unregulated deposit schemes, according
internal governance to the bill.
Best-in-class and environment friendly
digital as well as physical infrastructure 12. Correct Option: (d)
Innovative, dynamic and skilled human
Explanation:
resources
O All statements are correct
The vision statements are mutually reinforcing
and will guide the RBI during the medium-term Supplementary notes:
period (2019-22) through various strategies.
National Manufacturing Policy
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The Government of India has announced
11. Correct Option: (b) a National Manufacturing Policy with
Explanation: the objective of enhancing the share of
manufacturing in GDP to 25% within a decade
Statement 1 is incorrect: Nine regulators and creating 100 million jobs.
mentioned in Schedule 1 of the act oversee
At least 30% of the total land area proposed
and regulate various deposit-taking schemes.
for the NIMZ will be utilized for location of
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Supplementary notes: manufacturing units.
Banning of Unregulated Deposits Scheme The major objectives of the National

Act, 2019 Manufacturing Policy are to increase the
sectoral share of manufacturing in GOP to
It provides for a mechanism to ban unregulated at least 25% by 2022; to increase the rate
deposit schemes and protect the interests of of job creation so as to create 100 million
depositors. additional jobs by 2022; and to enhance global
The act defines a deposit as an amount of competitiveness, domestic value addition,
money received through an advance, a loan, technological depth and environmental
or in any other form, with a promise to be sustainability of growth.
returned with or without interest. Such The policy envisages specific interventions
deposit may be returned either in cash or as broadly in the areas of industrial infrastructure
a service, and the time of return may or may development; improvement of the business
not be specified. environment through rationalization and
A deposit-taking scheme is defined as simplification of business regulations;
development of appropriate technologies
unregulated if it is taken for a business purpose
especially green technologies for sustainable
and is not registered with the regulators (like
development and skill development of the
RBI for NBFCs, SEBI for mutual funds, central
younger population.
and state governments for chit funds) listed
in the Bill. Industrial infrastructure development is
envisaged through the creation of large They aim at lowering fuel consumption (or
integrated industrial townships called National improving fuel efficiency) of vehicles by
Investment and Manufacturing Zones (NIMZs) lowering carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions,
with state-of-the-art infrastructure. thus serving the twin purposes of reducing
dependence on oil for fuel and controlling
The NIMZs are envisaged as integrated industrial
pollution.
townships with state of the art infrastructure;
land use on the basis of zoning; clean and Corporate Average refers to sales-volume
energy efficient technology; necessary social weighted average for every auto manufacturer.
infrastructure; skill development facilities The norms are applicable for petrol, diesel,
etc. to provide a productive environment for LPG and CNG passenger vehicles.
persons transitioning from the primary to the
CAFE regulations in India came into force from
secondary and tertiary sectors. April 1, 2017. Under this, average corporate
The policy is based on the principle of industrial CO2 emission must be less than 130 gm
growth in partnership with the States. per km till 2022 and below 113 gm per km
thereafter.
The Central Government will create the
enabling policy frame work, provide incentives CAFE norms require cars to be 30% or more
for infrastructure development on a Public fuel efficient from 2022 and 10% or more
Private Partnership (PPP) basis through between 2017 and 2021.
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appropriate financing instruments.
The State Government will constitute a 14. Correct Option: (a)
Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) to discharge the
functions specified in the policy. Explanation:
The Department for Promotion of Industry Option is correct
and Internal Trade (former DIPP) is the Supplementary notes:
nodal agency for NIMZ.

government will provide:
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For the internal infrastructure in a NIMZ, the
World Economic Outlook
International Monetary Fund (IMF) in its
update to World Economic Outlook in July
Viability Gap Funding (VGF): The total
has predicted a sluggish global growth.
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Viability Gap Funding under this scheme
shall not exceed twenty percent of the Global growth is forecast at 3.2 percent
total project cost. in 2019, picking up to 3.5 percent in
2020
Long term soft loans from multilateral
financial institutions: Soft loans from Consistent with subdued growth in final
multilateral institutions will be explored demand, core inflation across advanced
for funding infrastructure development in economies has softened below target
NIMZ.
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Emerging and developing Asia is expected

External Commercial Borrowings will be to grow at 6.2 percent in 2019–20.
allowed
In China, the negative effects of escalating
tariffs and weakening external demand have
13. Correct Option: (b) added pressure to an economy already in the
midst of a structural slowdown and needed
Explanation: regulatory strengthening to rein in high
dependence on debt.
Option is correct: CAFÉ Regulations are
related with automobile sector. India’s economy is set to grow at 7.0 percent
in 2019, picking up to 7.2 percent in 2020. The
downward revision of 0.3 percentage point for
Corporate Average Fuel Efficiency/Economy both years reflects a weaker-than-expected
Regulations (CAFE Regulations) outlook for domestic demand.
While the government is looking to advance However, India will still be the fastest growing
the 2030 deadline for Indian manufacturers to economy of the world (among the major
switch over to electric vehicles in segments such economies) much ahead of China.
as bikes and three-wheelers, manufacturers are Reserve Bank of India (RBI), the Economic
opposing it. They instead want government to Survey and the Asian Development Bank have
curb the vehicular pollution through stricter also cut their growth outlook for India to 7%.
CAFE Regulations.
15. Correct Option: (a) exports.
Explanation: India’s Strengths India’s Weaknesses

(Ranking in 2019) (Ranking in 2019)
Statement 2 is incorrect: It will replace the
Income-tax Act, 1961 (ITA), and other direct ICT services exports Environmental Perform-
tax legislations like the Wealth Tax Act, 1957. (1) ance (125)
Supplementary notes: Domestic market scale Ecological Sustainability
(in $PPP) (3) (117)
Direct Tax Code
Growth rate of GDP/ Education (110)
The Direct Taxes Code (DTC) is an attempt
worker (in $PPP) (4)
by the Government of India (GOI) to
simplify the direct tax laws in India. Ease of protecting mi- Tertiary Inbound Mobil-
DTC will revise, consolidate and simplify the nority investors (6) ity (107)
structure of direct tax laws in India into a Graduates in science ICT use (106)
single legislation. and engineering (7)
The DTC, when implemented will replace
the Income-tax Act, 1961 (ITA), and other Global rankings Country
direct tax legislations like the Wealth Tax 1 Switzerland
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Act, 1957. 2 Sweden
3 USA
16. Correct Option: (d) 4 Netherlands
Explanation: 5 UK
Option is correct 52 India
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Global Innovation Index (GII)
Explanation:
India improved its ranking in Global
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Innovation Index, 2019 by five notches to Option is correct: Sabka Vishwas Scheme is a
52nd position in a survey of innovative Legacy Dispute Resolution scheme is offered
capacity among 129 countries by the World to those taxpayers who wish to disclose any
Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO). previously undisclosed tax liability without any
penalty or prosecution.
India also outperformed on innovation
relative to its GDP per capita for nine Supplementary notes:
consecutive years, only matched by three
other countries (Vietnam, Republic of Sabka Vishwas Scheme
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Moldova and Kenya). The scheme targets those taxpayers who want
India improved its ranking in 4/7 pillars of GII, to close their pending disputes related to
such as knowledge and technology outputs Service Tax and Excise Tax (now subsumed
(up 11 spots to 32nd), market sophistication under Goods and Services Tax).
(up 3 spots to 33rd), human capital and The two main components of the Scheme
research (up 3 spots to 53rd), institutions are dispute resolution and amnesty.
(up 3 spots to 77th). By contrast, in business
sophistication (65th), infrastructure (79th), The dispute resolution component is
creative outputs (78th), it lost one, two and aimed at liquidating the legacy cases of
three spots respectively. Central Excise and Service Tax that are
subsumed in GST and are pending in
According to WIPO India’s improvement litigation at various forums.
in the year 2019 is largely due to its relative
performance and less so to new GII data or The amnesty component of the Scheme
methods. offers an opportunity to the taxpayers to
pay the outstanding tax and be free of
India is consistently among the top in any other consequence under the law. The
the world in innovation drivers such as most attractive aspect of the Scheme is that
ICT services exports, Graduates in science & it provides substantial relief in the tax dues
engineering, the quality of universities, Gross for all categories of cases as well as full
capital formation—a measure of economy- waiver of interest, fine, penalty, In all these
wide investments—and creative goods
cases, there would be no other liability Russia.
of interest, fine or penalty. There is also a
complete amnesty from prosecution. Supplementary notes:
The Scheme is especially tailored to free the WorldSkills Competition
large number of small taxpayers of their The 45th WorldSkills Competition was held
pending disputes with the tax administration. at the KAZAN EXPO International Exhibition
Centre in Kazan, Russia.
18. Correct Option: (c) It is a flagship event of the WorldSkills
International, organised every two years.
Explanation:
It is the biggest vocational education and
Both statements are correct skills excellence event in the world that
Supplementary notes: truly reflects global industry.
RBI Economic Capital Framework The aims of the competition

include demonstrating the advantages of
Recently, the Reserve Bank of India learning a vocational skill, and encouraging
(RBI) accepted the recommendations ‘parity of esteem’ between vocational and
of Bimal Jalan panel; set up to review the academic qualifications.
RBI’s Economic Capital Framework.
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Following these recommendations, RBI decided 20. Correct Option: (c)
to transfer Rs 1.76 lakh crore in dividend and
surplus reserves to the government. Explanation:
The objective of the economic capital Both statements are correct
framework is to build harmony between
the central bank’s need for autonomy andO Supplementary notes:
the Government’s objectives of the Open Acreage Licensing Policy (OALP)
development.
The Bimal Jalan-led panel gives an option to a company looking
recommended holistic risk capital for exploring hydrocarbons to select the
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frameworks to assess the adequacy of RBI exploration blocks on its own, without
reserves. Some recommendations of the waiting for the formal bid round from the
committee are: Government.
RBI to maintain the Contingency Risk Under Open Acreage Licensing Policy (OALP),
Buffer (CRB), which is the country’s a bidder intending to explore hydrocarbons
fund to handle financial stability within like oil and gas, coal bed methane, gas hydrate
the range of 5.5% to 6.5% of the RBI’s etc., may apply to the Government seeking
balance sheet. exploration of any new block (not already
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It recommended a review of the RBI’s covered by exploration).

Economic Capital Framework (ECF) every The Government will examine the Expression
five years. of Interest and justification. If it is suitable for
The RBI’s accounting year of July-June can award, Govt. will call for competitive bids after
be brought in sync with the fiscal year of obtaining necessary environmental and other
April-March from the financial year 2020- clearances.
21. OALP was introduced vide a Cabinet decision
The report has also removed the interim of the Government as part of the new fiscal
payout structure in general circumstances. regime in exploration sector called HELP or
Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing Policy,
All the recommendations of the panel so as to enable a faster survey and coverage
have been accepted by the RBI. of the available geographical area which has
potential for oil and gas discovery.
19. Correct Option: (b) What distinguishes OALP from New Exploration
and Licensing Policy (NELP) is that under OALP,
Explanation: oil and gas acreages will be available round
Statement 1 is incorrect: The 45th WorldSkills the year instead of cyclic bidding rounds as in
Competition were held at the KAZAN EXPO NELP. Potential investors need not have to wait
International Exhibition Centre in Kazan, for the bidding rounds to claim acreages.
Setting up of National Data Repository 22. Correct Option: (d)
is one of the milestones achieved for
Open Acreage Licensing Policy. To make Explanation:
India a favorable destination globally for Option is correct: A gig economy is a free
Exploration of Crude Oil and Natural Gas, market system in which temporary positions
the Government plans to move to the OALP are common and organizations contract
regime soon. with independent workers for short-term
It is well acknowledged that there is a need for engagements
a faster vehicle of awarding blocks in order to
bring more area under exploration.
As India has vast unexplored sedimentary Gig Economy
basins, a strategy which facilitates a time In a gig economy, temporary, flexible jobs are
bound full coverage has become a necessity. commonplace and companies tend toward
Moreover, even the OALP pre-supposes hiring independent contractors and freelancers
offering of data to the interested companies instead of full-time employees.
for them to submit their bids/ interest. Hence,
availability of data is no longer an option, but A gig economy undermines the traditional
a pre-condition. economy of full-time workers who rarely
change positions and instead focus on a
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lifetime career.
21. Correct Option: (b) The gig economy can benefit workers,
Explanation: businesses, and consumers by making work
more adaptable to the needs of the moment
Option is correct: The Reserve Bank of India and demand for flexible lifestyles.
(RBI) recently constituted an internal working
group to review the existing guidelines on At the same time, the gig economy can have
downsides due to the erosion of traditional
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ownership and corporate structure of private
economic relationships between workers,
sector banks. The group will be headed by RBI
executive director PK Mohanty. businesses, and clients.
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The RBI constituted an internal working group
to review bank licensing norms, guidelines on Explanation:
promoter ownership and corporate structure
for private sector banks.
The move comes weeks after private sector Supplementary notes:
lender Kotak Mahindra Bank’s legal battle NIRVIK
against the central bank ended with the latter
allowing more time to dilute the lender’s Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India
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promoter’s stake. (ECGC) has introduced ‘NIRVIK’ scheme to
ease the lending process and enhance loan
The committee will submit its report by availability for exporters.
September, 30.
Insurance cover guaranteed will cover up to
The five-member panel includes RBI board 90 percent of the principal and interest.
members Dr P K Mohanty and Prof Sachin
Chaturvedi, executive directors Lily Vadera and The increased cover will ensure that foreign
S C Murmu, and RBI’s Chief General Manager and rupee export credit interest rates are
Shrimohan Yadav. below 4 percent and 8 percent respectively
for the exporters.
The committee will review licensing guidelines
and regulations relating to ownership The insurance cover will include both pre and
and control in private banks and suggest post-shipment credit.
appropriate norms shedding light on excessive The gems, jeweller and diamond (GJD)
concentration of ownership and control. sector borrowers with limit of over Rs
Importantly, the committee will look into 80 crore will have a higher premium rate in
promoter shareholding norms at the initial comparison to the non-GJD sector borrowers
licensing stage and later, along with the of this category due to the higher loss ratio.
timelines for stake dilution. For accounts with limits below Rs 80 crore, the
premium rates will be moderated to 0.60 per
annum and for those exceeding Rs 80 crore,
the rates will be 0.72 per annum for the same P-notes are issued by registered foreign portfolio
enhanced cover. investors (FPIs) to overseas investors who wish
It mandates inspection of bank documents and to be a part of the Indian stock market without
records by ECGC officials for losses exceeding registering themselves directly after going
Rs. 10 crore as against the present Rs 1 crore. through a due diligence process.
The banks shall pay a premium to ECGC Who issues P-Notes and what is the process?
monthly on the principal and interest as the Participatory notes are issued by brokers and
cover is offered for both outstanding. FIIs registered with SEBI. The investment is
The Export Credit Guarantee Corporation made on behalf of these foreign investors
of India (ECGC) is a fully government- by the already registered brokers in India.
owned company that was established in For example, Indian-based brokerages
1957 to promote exports by providing buy India-based securities and then issue
credit insurance services. participatory notes to foreign investors. Any
The ECGC provides Export Credit Insurance to dividends or capital gains collected from the
Banks (ECIB) to protect the banks from losses underlying securities go back to the investors.
on account of export credit at the Pre and The brokers that issue these notes or trades
Post-Shipment stage given to exporters due in Indian securities have to mandatorily
to the risks of insolvency or protracted default
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report their PN issuance status to SEBI for
of the exporter borrower. each quarter. These notes allow foreign high
networth individuals, hedge funds and other
24. Correct Option: (c) investors to put money in Indian markets
without being registered with SEBI, thus
Explanation: making their participation easy and smooth.
Both statements are correct O Advantages of participatory notes
Supplementary notes: Anonymity: Any entity investing in
participatory notes is not required to register
Teaser Loans with SEBI, whereas all FIIs have to compulsorily
Teaser Loans is a term used for loans that get registered. It enables large hedge funds to
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offer low, fixed interest rates in the initial carry out their operations without disclosing
few years, but switch to floating rates their identity.
thereafter. Ease of trading: Trading through participatory
SBI first introduced teaser loan in 2009-10. notes is easy because they are like contract
notes transferable by endorsement and
The RBI is not likely to allow the return of teaser delivery.
home loans, following the introduction of the
external benchmark-linked loan pricing. Tax saving: Some of the entities route their
investment through participatory notes to take
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SBI had tried to bring back teaser loans several advantage of the tax laws of certain preferred
times in the past. However, the RBI does not countries.
seem to be in its favour.
P-Notes also aid in saving time and costs
The RBI felt banks could use the low interest associated with direct registrations.
rates to lure customers into taking these loans
and then move to a higher market rate later. Disadvantages of P-Notes
In 2011, the central bank had increased the
Because of the anonymous nature of the
provisioning on these loans to discourage
instrument, the investors could be beyond the
banks from offering them.
reach of Indian regulators.
P-Notes are being used in money laundering
25. Correct Option: (b) with wealthy Indians, like the promoters of
Explanation: companies, using it to bring back unaccounted
funds and to manipulate their stock prices.
Option is correct: Participatory Notes are
regulated by Security and Exchange Board
of India (SEBI). 26. Correct Option: (d)
Participatory Motes (P- Notes) All statements are correct
Supplementary notes: produce, increasing the processing level and
enhancing the export of the processed foods.
Tejas Express
Objectives of PMKSY:
The Tejas Express is India’s first semi-high
speed fully air-conditioned train Introduced Creation of modern infrastructure for food
by Indian Railways. It features modern on- processing mega food parks/ clusters and
board facilities with automatic doors. individual units.
The first Tejas train was started between To create effective backward and forward
Lucknow to Delhi. linkages - linking farmers, processors and
markets.
Antyodaya Express is a completely unreserved
train designed by Indian Railways. The word To create robust supply chain infrastructure
‘Antyodaya’ refers to uplifting of the weakest for perishables.
section of the society. These are supposed to
The following schemes will be implemented under
be overnight fully unreserved trains.
PM Kisan SAMPADA Yojana:
Indian Railways introduced the first Antyodaya
Mega Food Parks
Express between Ernakulam and Howrah.
Integrated Cold Chain and Value Addition
UDAY Express or Utkrisht Double Decker
Infrastructure
Air Conditioned Yatri Express are completely
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Double-Decker AC chair car trains designed Creation/ Expansion of Food Processing/
by Indian Railways. Preservation Capacities (Unit Scheme)
The first UDAY Express train started service Infrastructure for Agro-processing Clusters
between Coimbatore and Bangalore in the
Creation of Backward and Forward Linkages
month of June 2018
Food Safety and Quality Assurance
These all categories of trains were
Infrastructure
announced in the budget 2016-2017.
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Human Resources and Institutions

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Explanation:
Explanation:
Statement 2 is incorrect: WHEF is a non-
Supplementary notes: profit organization headquartered in Delhi,
PMKSY India.
A Central Sector Scheme - SAMPADA (Scheme Supplementary notes:

for Agro-Marine Processing and Development
World Hindu Economic Forum
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of Agro-Processing Clusters) was approved by

the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs WHEF is a non-profit organization
(CCEA) in 2017. headquartered in Delhi, India.
This umbrella scheme has now been renamed It was founded by Swami Vigyananand in
as the “Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada 2010.
Yojana (PMKSY)” to be implemented by
It is as an independent international
Ministry of Food Processing Industries
organization committed to make Hindu
(MoFPI).
society prosperous through creation and
PM Kisan SAMPADA Yojana is a comprehensive sharing of surplus wealth.
package which aims to create modern
The forum brings together eminent Hindu
infrastructure with efficient supply chain
intellectuals and businesses for the
management from farm gate to retail
purposes of collaboration.
outlet.
The organization holds an annual
It will not only provide a big boost to the
international conference and several
growth of food processing sector in the
regional conferences in different parts of
country but also help in providing better
the world.
returns to farmers and is a big step towards
doubling of farmers income, creating huge World Hindu Economic Forum has earlier been
employment opportunities especially in the organised in London, Chicago, Losa Angeles,
rural areas, reducing wastage of agricultural Hong Kong, and Nairobi.
2019 World Hindu Economic Forum held Good health and primary education
from 27-29 September in Mumbai.
Higher education and training
Dharmasya Moolam Arthah (Economy is
Efficient goods markets
the strength) is the philosophy of WHEF.
(Kautilian Arthashastra) Efficient labor markets
Developed financial markets
29. Correct Option: (c) Ability to harness existing technology
Explanation: Market size—both domestic and
Both statements are correct international
Production of new and different goods
using the most sophisticated production
FAME 2 Scheme processes
The outlay of Rs. 10,000 crore has been made Innovation
for three years till 2022 for FAME 2 scheme.
The government will offer the incentives 31. Correct Option: (d)
for electric buses, three-wheelers and four-
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wheelers to be used for commercial purposes. Explanation:
Plug-in hybrid vehicles and those with a All statements are correct
sizeable lithium-ion battery and electric motor
will also be included in the scheme and fiscal Supplementary notes:
support offered depending on the size of the
Safety Mitra Scheme
battery.
‘Eat Right Jacket’, and ‘Eat Right Jhola’
The centre will invest in setting up charging
were launched to strengthen food safety

sector units and private players.
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stations, with the active participation of public
FAME 2 will offer incentives to manufacturers,

administration and scale up the ‘Eat Right
India’ movement.
Eat Right Jacket’ has a smart design to hold
who invest in developing electric vehicles and
tech devices like tablets/smart phone, a QR
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its components, including lithium-ion batteries
code and RFID tag for identification and
and electric motors.
tracking.
Eat Right Jhola is a reusable cloth bag that is
30. Correct Option: (d) expected to replace plastic bags for shopping
Explanation: purpose in various retail chains.
Option is correct: Global Competitiveness

Index (GCI) is published by World economic 32. Correct Option: (a)
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forum.
Explanation:
Supplementary notes: Statement 3 is incorrect: DIPAM comes
Global Competitiveness Report under the Ministry of Finance.
The Global Competitiveness Report (GCR) Supplementary notes:

is a yearly report published by the World
Strategic Sale of Public Sector Undertakings
Economic Forum.
(PSUs)
The report “assesses the ability of countries
The government has set a target of raising Rs
to provide high levels of prosperity to
1.05 lakh crore from disinvestment in state-
their citizens”. This in turn depends on
run companies in the current fiscal year.
how productively a country uses available
resources. In this context, recently Indian government
approved strategic stake sale in five PSUs,
The report measures twelve pillars of
including fuel retailer Bharat Petroleum Corp
competitiveness. These are:
(BPCL) and Shipping Corporation of India,
Institutions power companies Tehri Hydro Development
Corp of India and North Eastern Electric Power
Appropriate infrastructure
Corporation (Neepco) and logistics firm
Stable macroeconomic framework ‘Concor’.
This planned strategic sale will together who have assigned the lowest investment
account for 85% of the disinvestment grade to India with a stable outlook.
revenue that will help in meeting the fiscal
Moody’s forecast predicted a 6.6 per cent of
deficit target of 3.3% set for the FY 2019-
GDP growth for the current fiscal year.
20.
The agency projected a fiscal deficit of 3.7
A strategic sale by a government is one
per cent of GDP in the current financial
where the management control is ceded
year, compared to the budgeted target of
to the buyer.
3.3 per cent.
It involves more selling more than 50%
India’s ratings were upgraded to Baa2 from
share of the government in any entity.
Baa3 in 2017 citing progress on ‘economic and
PSEs for strategic disinvestment are selected institutional reforms’.
based on certain criteria.
Rating agencies are ultra-sensitive to fiscal
They may be incurring losses. deficit overruns but the positive factor here
is that India’s borrowings are almost wholly
Or it may be operationally difficult for the
domestic.
government to continue with the PSE.
External debt to GDP is just 20% but the ratings
The cabinet committee on economic affairs,
do have an impact on investor sentiment.
chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi also
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accorded ‘in-principle’ approval for enabling
the reduction of the government’s paid-up 34. Correct Option: (b)
share capital below 51% in select state-run
firms while retaining management control on Explanation:
case to case basis. Statement 1 is incorrect: It is released by the
The Centre had announced its intention to Economic Intelligence Unit (EIU).
go below 51% in state-run companies in the
2019-20 budget.
O Supplementary notes:
For this purpose, the Department of Global Microscope Report 2019

Investment and Public Asset Management, The Global Microscope for Financial Inclusion
DIPAM under the Ministry of Finance has is a benchmarking index that assesses the
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been made the nodal department for enabling environment for financial access in
disinvestment. 55 countries.
DIPAM and NITI Aayog will now jointly identify The report is released by Economist
PSUs for strategic disinvestment. Intelligence Unit (EIU), a British research and
analysis division of The Economist Group.
33. Correct Option: (b) It measures financial inclusion via 4 parameters

i.e. in terms of allowing non-banks to issue
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Explanation: e-money, proportionate customer due

Statement 1 is incorrect: It has not lowered diligence and effective consumer protection.
India’s rating but has changed its outlook from The 2019 report has placed India among
stable to negative. the top nations with the most conducive
environment for financial inclusion.
According to it the overall environment for
Moody’s Credit Rating for India financial inclusion has improved globally with
Moody’s Investor Service, which is a leading India, Colombia, Peru, Uruguay and Mexico
provider of credit ratings, research, and risk have the most favourable conditions for
analysis has changed its outlook for India’s inclusive finance.
sovereign rating(Baa2) from stable to Only four countries - Colombia, India, Jamaica
negative, saying that the domestic economic and Uruguay - scored perfectly across all four
downturn could be structural. parameters.
The agency’s action does not amount to
a rating downgrade but comes as a caution
against policy inaction. 35. Correct Option: (b)
Moody’s credit rating of Baa2, the second- Explanation:
lowest investment grade score, is better than Statement 1 is incorrect: They have at least
those of other agencies, such as S&P and Fitch, 90% of their net assets as investment in the
form of equity shares, preference shares, Monetary Fund, the World Bank, and the U.S.
bonds, debentures, debt or loans in group Treasury to developing countries that faced
companies. economic crises.
Supplementary notes: It recommended structural reforms that
increased the role of market forces in
Core Investment Companies exchange for immediate financial help.
Core investment companies are non- The term was coined by British economist
banking financial companies (NBFCs) John Williamson in 1989.
holding not less than 90% of their net assets
in the form of investment in equity shares, While some said that the Washington
preference shares, bonds, debentures, debt Consensus was used to impose harsh
or loans in group companies. conditions that were unhelpful for economic
recovery, others have argued that although
Further investments in equity shares in group not perfect, it was favourable to long-term
companies constitute not less than 60 per cent economic growth in developing economies.
of its net assets.
With an objective to strengthen core

investment companies (CIC), a working
group formed by the Reserve Bank of India Explanation:
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recommended measures such as including
periodical inspection of the companies and Statement 1 is incorrect: It is prepared by
formation of board-level committees. a Task Force led by both NITI Aayog and the
Confederation of Indian Industry (CII).
The working group recommended capital
contribution by core investment companies Supplementary notes:
(CIC) in a step-down CIC, over and above 10 Action Plan for Clean Industries
per cent, should be deducted from its adjusted

net worth.
Currently, CICs are not required to submit
off-site returns or statutory auditors’
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Industry prepared by a Task Force led by
both NITI Aayog and the Confederation of
Indian Industry (CII).
certificate (SAC).
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The report identifies sources of Industrial
Off-site returns or statutory auditors’ certificate Pollution in Delhi NCR and recommend
are submitted to RBI by NBFCs where the action plan for clean Industry.
auditor certifies that the company continues
to operate as an NBFC. The Task Force considers three key air
pollutants in Delhi NCR: road/soil dust, fly ash
The committee recommended that off-site and secondary particles.
returns may be designed by RBI and prescribed
for CICs on the lines of other NBFCs. The report recommended two different sets
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of strategies for tackling these two broad

Experts have been seeking a review of CIC categories of sources.
guidelines ever since defaults by Infrastructure
Leasing and Financial Services Ltd (IL&FS), a Prevention and Control of Fugitive PM
large systemically important core investment Emissions:
company.
Mandatory contractual obligations
In August 2019, there were 63 CICs registered for clean construction need to
with RBI. be specified for individuals/
organisations under the mechanism
36. Correct Option: (b) of ‘building permits/approvals’
by local bodies/authorities and
Explanation: ‘environmental clearances’ by
Statement 1 is incorrect: It is a reform package Ministry of Environment Forest and
promoted for crisis-wracked developing Climate Change.
countries.
Linking of green incentives to clean
Supplementary notes: construction practices: Currently
there are multiple incentives which
Washington Consensus
are conferred to projects which are
This was a set of neoliberal economic provisionally rated to be green by
prescriptions made by the International buildings rating systems such as
GRIHA, IGBC, LEEDS etc. The outlook spans three alternative
“futures”:
Strengthened building code and
building byelaws for ambient air Stated Policies Scenario (STEPS): This
quality: It is recommended that scenario provides a detailed sense of the
direction in which today’s policy ambitions
unified building code is adopted at
would take the energy sector.
national level for addressing various
aspects of building and promoting Sustainable Development Scenario
adherence to code across all (SDS): This scenario charts a path fully
commercial and urban residential aligned with the Paris Agreement by
holding the rise in global temperatures to
buildings.
“well below 2°C and pursuing efforts to
Mitigation of Energy- related limit to 1.5°C”, and meets objectives related
Emissions: to universal energy access and cleaner air.
Prioritizing Clean Fuels and Current Policies Scenario: The Current
Technologies: It is required in NCR Policies Scenario is a baseline picture of
region and other dense urban areas how global energy markets would evolve
if governments make no changes to their
suffering from severely degraded
existing policies and measures.
air quality.
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The report recommended usage of:
Gas-based thermal power units
Explanation:
Coal- based thermal power units with
advanced emission controls for SOx, NOx Statement 2 is incorrect: The government
and PM. of India holds 49% equity in NIIF and the rest
held by foreign and domestic investors.

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Incentives for biomass co-firing in existing
coal power units. Supplementary notes:
Leapfrogging to advanced (up to 50%) New Development Bank (NDB):
biomass co-firing in coal power plants in
The New Development Bank was formed
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North West region.
to support infrastructure and sustainable
Emission norms for all Diesel Generators: development efforts in BRICS and other
Adoption of best available technology and underserved, emerging economies for faster
emission standards strict in-use emission development through innovation and cutting-
norms for all diesel generators along with edge technology.
minimum performance requirements for
New Development Bank (NDB), earlier
retrofit devices.
known as the BRICS Development Bank,
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has committed $100 million to India’s National

38. Correct Option: (d) Investment and Infrastructure Fund’s (NIIF)
Fund of Funds.
Explanation:
National Investment and Infrastructure Fund’s
Option is correct (NIIF)
Supplementary notes: NIIF is a professional fund manager, anchored
World Energy Outlook 2019 by the Government of India along with
participation from institutional investors such
The International Energy Agency (IEA) has as ADIA and leading Indian private financial
released World Energy Outlook for the year institutions. They are a collaborative investment
2019. platform focused on Indian infrastructure with
The world’s CO2 emissions are set to continue best-in-class governance and a strong team
rising for decades unless there is greater with Indian and international experience in
ambition on climate change, despite the infrastructure investing.
“profound shifts” already underway in the NIIF is a quasi-sovereign wealth fund, in
global energy system. which the government of India holds 49%
But a plateau for coal, along with rising equity with the rest held by foreign and
demand for oil and gas, would mean global domestic investors, is mandated to invest in
emissions continue to rise throughout the infrastructure and related sectors that could
outlook period to 2040. help fuel economic growth in the country.
Its Fund of Funds is mandated to invest as an 41. Correct Option: (d)
anchor investor in third party fund managers.
It can also selectively form joint ventures with Explanation:
fund managers. All statements are correct
In 2017, Abu Dhabi’s sovereign wealth
fund—Abu Dhabi Investment Authority—
committed to invest $1 billion, becoming WTO Ruling against Indian Subsidies
the first institutional investor in NIIF’s
India suffered a setback at the World Trade
Master Fund and a shareholder in NIIF Ltd, its
Organization (WTO) in a dispute against
investment management firm.
the US that had challenged its key export
subsidy schemes including the one for special
40. Correct option: (a) economic zones.
Explanation: The WTO has ruled that these export

subsidy programmes violated provisions of
Statement 3 is incorrect: The bond ETF will the trade body’s norms.
be taxed at the same rate like debt mutual
funds. The dispute panel rejected India’s claim that it
was exempted from the prohibition on export
Supplementary notes: subsidies under the special and differential
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treatment provisions of the WTO’s Agreement
Bharat Bond ETF
on Subsidies & Countervailing Measures
In a move aimed at strengthening the (SCM).
corporate bond market and reducing the
This ruling will affect the schemes like –
cost of borrowing, the Cabinet Committee on
Merchandise Exports from India Scheme
Economic Affairs, chaired by Prime Minister
(MEIS), Export Oriented Units Scheme and
Narendra Modi, approved the creation of
sector specific schemes, including Electronics
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Bharat Bond Exchange Traded Fund (ETF). This
will be India’s first corporate bond issued
by state-run companies to be traded on stock
market.
Hardware Technology Parks Scheme and Bio-
Technology Parks Scheme; Export Promotion
Capital Goods Scheme; and Duty-Free Imports
for Exporters Scheme.
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A basket of bonds issued by public-sector
While the panel has recommended withdrawal
companies or any government organisation,
of the export-contingent subsidies within 90-
Bharat Bond ETF will be tradable on the stock
180 days, dated from the formal adoption of
exchange. Announcing the development,
the ruling, India is likely to appeal the ruling in
Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman said
the Appellate Body.
the unit size of these bonds, of Rs 1,000, will
allow small investors to put their money with Special and Differential Treatment
a fixed maturity date. As of now, the bond will
These are special provisions which give
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have two maturity series — three years and 10

years, with each series having a separate index developing countries special rights and
of the same maturity series. which give developed countries the
possibility to treat developing countries
The move will help public-sector companies more favorably than other WTO Members.
raise funds through debt instruments and
further develop domestic capital markets, These special provisions include, for example,
boosting alternative sources of funding for longer time periods for implementing
firms, even as a series of corporate defaults Agreements and commitments or measures to
keep banks and shadow lenders wary. This increase trading opportunities for developing
will also increase the participation of retail countries.
investors who are currently not participating in Subsidies & Countervailing Measures (SCM)
bond markets due to liquidity and accessibility
constraints. The Agreement on Subsidies and
Countervailing Measures (“SCM
The bond ETF will be taxed at the same rate Agreement”) addresses two separate but
like debt mutual funds (20 per cent with closely related topics: multilateral disciplines
indexation benefits, if held for more than three regulating the provision of subsidies, and
years), leading to an after-tax yield of around the use of countervailing measures to offset
6.3 per cent and 7 per cent for three years and injury caused by subsidized imports.
10 years, respectively.
Multilateral disciplines are the rules
regarding whether or not a subsidy
may be provided by a Member. They AIFs which employ diverse or complex trading
are enforced through invocation of the strategies and may employ leverage including
WTO dispute settlement mechanism. through investment in listed or unlisted
derivatives are Category-III AIFs and includes
Countervailing duties are a unilateral
hedge funds, PIPE Funds, etc.
instrument, which may be applied by a
Member after an investigation by that
Member and a determination that the 43. Correct Option:
criteria set forth in the SCM Agreement
are satisfied. Statement 2 is incorrect: The seller (MSMEs)
of receivables are not required to give any
collateral, and will have no recourse to them
42. Correct Option: (b) in case of defaults,
Statement 2 is incorrect: AIFs are regulated TReDS (Trade Receivables Discounting
by SEBI. System)
Supplementary notes: TReDS (Trade Receivables Discounting System)
is an institutional setup for flow of finance to
Alternate Investment Fund (AIF) micro, small and medium enterprises (MSMEs)
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The Union Cabinet has recently approved through multiple financiers at a competitive
the creation of an Alternative Investment rate.
Fund (AIF) of Rs. 25,000 crore to provide Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDs),
last-mile funding for stalled affordable and an electronic platform for facilitating financing
middle-income housing projects across the of trade receivables from corporate and
country. other buyers through multiple financiers, a
All affordable and middle-income housing significant part of working capital requirement

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projects that are net worth positive and are of an MSME arises due to long receivables
registered with the Real Estate Regulatory realization cycles. It has been set up to
Authority (RERA) and that have not been implement corrective and supportive policies
deemed liquidation-worthy will be eligible. for the sector,
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The funds will be set up as Category-II This platform will deal with both receivables
Alternative Investment Fund registered with factoring and reverse factoring so that
the Securities and Exchange Board of India and higher transaction volumes come into the
will be managed by SBICAP Ventures Limited. system and facilitate better pricing.
About AIFs The concept of TReDS to facilitate the financing

of trade receivables of MSMEs was introduced
As per SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in 2014.
Regulations, 2012, Alternative Investment
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Fund or AIF means any fund established or Accordingly, the RBI, in 2017, issued licence
incorporated in India which is a privately to three players: Receivables Exchange of
pooled investment vehicle which collects India Ltd (RXIL), a joint venture between Small
funds from sophisticated investors, Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)
whether Indian or foreign, for investing it and National Stock Exchange of India Limited
in accordance with a defined investment (NSE); Invoicemart, promoted by A Treds Ltd
policy for the benefit of its investors. (a joint venture of Axis Bank and mjunction
services); and M1Xchange, promoted by Mynd
Category I AIFs are those which invest in start- Solutions Private Limited.
up or early stage ventures or social ventures or
SMEs or infrastructure or other sectors or areas One of the distinguishing features of TReDS
which the government or regulators consider is that the seller (MSMEs) of receivables
as socially or economically desirable and shall are not required to give any collateral, and
include venture capital funds, SME Funds, will have no recourse to them in case of
social venture funds, infrastructure funds defaults.
AIFs which do not fall in Category I and III and

which do not undertake leverage or borrowing 44. Correct option: (b)
other than to meet day-to-day operational
requirements are Category-II AIFs and these Explanation:
include real estate funds, private equity funds Statement 1 is incorrect: A Bilateral Patent
(PE funds), funds for distressed assets etc. Prosecution Highway (PPH) pilot program
has commenced between the Indian Patent Explanation:
Office (IPO) and the Japan Patent Office
Statement 1 is incorrect: ATITHI is an easy-
(JPO). to-use mobile app for international travelers
Supplementary notes: to file the Customs declaration in advance.
Patent Prosecution Highway (PPH) Pilot Statement 2 is incorrect: ICEDASH is an Ease

Program of Doing Business monitoring dashboard of
the Indian Customs.
The Patent Prosecution Highway (PPH) is a
set of initiatives for providing accelerated Supplementary notes:
patent prosecution procedures by sharing ICEDASH and ATITHI
information between some patent offices. It
also permits each participating patent office to Union Minister of Finance and Corporate
benefit from the work previously done by the Affairs, Smt Nirmala Sitharaman today
other patent office, with the goal of reducing unveiled two new IT initiatives – ICEDASH
examination workload and improving patent and ATITHI – for improved monitoring and
quality pace of Customs clearance of imported
goods and facilitating arriving international
A Bilateral Patent Prosecution Highway passengers by electronic filing of Customs
(PPH) pilot program has commenced baggage and currency declarations.
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between the Indian Patent Office (IPO) and
the Japan Patent Office (JPO). ICEDASH is an Ease of Doing Business
(EoDB) monitoring dashboard of the
Guidelines of this program are issued Indian Customs helping public see the daily
under the Controller General of Patents, Customs clearance times of import cargo at
Designs & Trade Marks, India (CGPDTM) various ports and airports. With ICEDASH,
with patent offices of various other interest Indian Customs has taken a lead globally
countries or regions. O to provide an effective tool that helps the
PPH will initially commence between Japan businesses compare clearance times across
Patent Office (JPO) and Indian Patent Office ports and plan their logistics accordingly.
on pilot basis for a period of three years. This dashboard has been developed by CBIC
in collaboration with NIC. ICEDASH can be
The Government of India aligned by the accessed through the Central Board of Indirect
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Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion Taxes and Customs (CBIC) website.
(DIPP) that deals with intellectual property
matters, has signed an agreement with the ATITHI : Easy to use mobile app for
Japanese Patent Office (JPO) to start a Patent international travelers to file the Customs
Prosecution Highway (PPH) declaration in advance. Passengers can use
this app to file declaration of dutiable items
The PPH is to allow a patent applicant to and currency with the Indian Customs even
demand fast-tracking of his patent application, before boarding the flight to India. ATITHI is
further showing that his product or process
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available on both, iOS and Android.

has already been granted a patent in Japan.
ICEDASH and ATITHI would be key drivers
Under this pilot programme, Indian Patent for further improvement especially as they
Office may receive patent applications in certain reduce interface and increase transparency of
specified technical fields only, like electrical, Customs functioning.
electronics, computer science, information
technology, physics, civil, mechanical, textiles, ATITHI would create a tech savvy image of
automobiles and metallurgy. India Customs and would encourage tourism
and business travel to India
Japan Patent Office may receive applications
in all fields of technology. Patent Prosecution ATITHI app will facilitate hassle free and
Highway will lead to benefits like reduction faster clearance by Customs at the airports
in disposal time and pendency of patent and enhance the experience of international
applications, consistency in quality of granted tourists and other visitors at the airports.
patents and an opportunity for Indian
inventors including MSMEs and Start-ups of
India to get accelerated examination of their 46. Correct Option: (a)
patent applications in Japan. Statement 2 is incorrect: The General
Secretariat of APRACA was established at the
FAO Regional Office for Asia and the Pacific
45. Correct Option: (d) (FAO-RAP) premises in Bangkok, Thailand.
Supplementary notes: class educational institutes.
Asia - Pacific Rural Agricultural and Credit NIP will enable a forward outlook on
Association (APRACA) infrastructure projects which will create jobs,
improve ease of living, and provide equitable
6th World Congress on Rural and Agriculture access to infrastructure for all, thereby making
Finance jointly organised by NABARD and growth more inclusive.
APRACA in Delhi.
NIP includes economic and social infrastructure
Under the auspices of Food and Agriculture projects.
Organization (FAO), rural finance and
agricultural credit institutions in the During the fiscals 2020 to 2025, sectors such as
region formally launched APRACA during Energy (24%), Roads (19%), Urban (16%), and
its first General Assembly Meeting in New Railways (13%) amount to around 70% of the
Delhi, India, on October 14, 1977, held projected capital expenditure in infrastructure
in conjunction with the third FAO Asian in India.
Conference on Agricultural Credit and It has outlined plans to invest more than
Cooperatives (October 10-14, 1977 in New Rs. 102 lakh crore on infrastructure projects
Delhi). by 2024-25, with the Centre, States and
APRACA is the organization on rural and the private sector to share the capital
agricultural finance that helps promote expenditure in a 39:39:22 formula.
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productivity, inclusive growth, self-reliance,
and welfare of the rural poor in the Asia-
Pacific region.
The General Secretariat of APRACA was Explanation:
established at the FAO Regional Office for Statement 2 is incorrect: It is now linked on
Asia and the Pacific (FAO-RAP) premises in Indian Banks Auctions Mortgaged Properties
Bangkok, Thailand.
O Information (IBAPI) portal
A total of 37 institutions from 16 countries Supplementary notes:
joined the APRACA as founding members –
these are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Fiji, Iran, eBkray
India, Indonesia, Japan, Republic of Korea,
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Ministry of finance has launched eBkray,
Laos, Malaysia, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, the an common e-auction platform to
Philippines, Western Samoa and Thailand. enable online auction of attached assets
As of 30 April 2019, a total of 86 institutions transparently and cleanly for the improved
in 24 countries in the Asia-Pacific Region are realization of value by banks.
affiliated with the APRACA as its members. The e-auction platform is now linked
on Indian Banks Auctions Mortgaged
47. Correct Option: (a) Properties Information (IBAPI) portal and
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guidelines have been made available.

Explanation:
About eBkray platform
Statement 2 is incorrect: Centre, States
and the private sector will share the capital Objective of Portal: To enhance user
expenditure in a 39:39:22 formula. experience through seamless access to
information by search based on type and
Supplementary notes: location of property put up for e-auction by
banks in India.
National Infrastructure Pipeline
It will provide navigational links to all Public
Recently, the Government has released a report
Sector Banks (PSBs) e-auction sites, property
of the task force on National Infrastructure
search feature and will present single-window
Pipeline for 2019-2025.
access to information on properties up for
Earlier, the Prime Minister in his Independence e-auction, comparison of similar properties,
Day speech 2019 had highlighted that Rs. 100 as well as contains videos and photographs of
lakh crore would be invested on infrastructure uploaded properties.
over the next 5 years.
The platform will help buyer to easily navigate
The emphasis would be on ease of living: safe to bank e-auction site after a notified property
drinking water, access to clean and affordable is selected. It also helps user to search property
energy, healthcare for all, modern railway using State-wise, District-wise and bank-wise
stations, airports, bus terminals and world- details.
49. Correct Option: (b) states of the North-Eastern region -- Arunachal
Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya,
Explanation: Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim and Tripura.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The report titled Statement 2 is incorrect: The pipeline will
‘World Economic League Table 2020’ was enable the supply of piped cooking gas to
released by the Centre for Economics and households and CNG to automobiles, besides
Business Research (CEBR). fuel to industry.
Supplementary notes: Statement 3 is incorrect: The North-
East pipeline grid is to be implemented by
World Economic League Table 2020 Indradhanush Gas Grid, a joint venture of 5
The report titled ‘World Economic League CPSEs.
Table 2020’ was released by the Centre for
Economics and Business Research (CEBR).
India will overtake Germany to become North East Gas Grid
fourth-largest economy in the world by the The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
year 2026. India is all set to overtake Japan to (CCEA) recently approved a Rs. 5,559 crore
become the third-largest economy by 2034. viability gap funding for the proposed
India is also set to become a 5 trillion dollar northeast gas grid, which is only the second
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economy by 2026, 2 years later than the instance of the government directly funding
government’s target of 2024. a gas pipeline. (In 2016, the government
provided a capital grant of Rs. 5,176 crore,
India has decisively overtaken both France or 40% of the project cost of the 2,655-
and the UK to become the world’s fifth-largest km Jagdishpur-Haldia and Bokaro-Dhamra
economy in 2019. (JHBDPL) gas pipeline project, which GAIL is
Today, India is the fifth largest economy
O currently executing).
in the World after US (20.49 trillion USD), The North-East pipeline grid is to be
China (13.41 trillion USD), Japan (4.97 trillion implemented by Indradhanush Gas Grid,
USD) and Germany (4 trillion USD). In 2019, a joint venture of state-owned GAIL India,
India had successfully overtaken France and Indian Oil Corp (IOC), Oil and Natural
Germany to reach rank 5. Gas Corp (ONGC), Oil India Ltd (OIL) and
SC
The CEBR report said that India will achieve Numaligarh Refinery Ltd (NRL).
its 5 trillion USD target by 2026. The report The 1,656-km gas pipeline grid will be
titled “World Economic League Table” obtains developed in the eight states of the North-
most of the data from IMF’s World Economic Eastern region -- Arunachal Pradesh, Assam,
Outlook report. Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland,
Sikkim and Tripura.
CEBR
The pipeline will enable the supply of piped
GS

The CEBR provides independent economic
cooking gas to households and CNG to
forecasting to 100s of public and private
automobiles, besides fuel to industry.
organizations. It was founded in 1960s as
Bureau of Business Research. The centre The pipeline grid would ensure reliability and
is currently working on economic policy uninterrupted natural gas supplies to the
research, local forecasting, national, state consumers which otherwise gets severely
level data analysis. It releases publications on affected due to various reasons in this part of
transportation, energy and public finance. the country.
The headquarters of the organization is Availability of natural gas across the region is
located in Munice, Indiana. It is to be noted expected to boost industrial growth without
that in 2011, the organization predicted India impacting the environment and would offer
to become fifth largest economy in the world better quality of life to the people in general
by 2020 which India has already achieved in due to use of cleaner and green fuel.
2019!
GAIL is also laying a 750-km line from
Barauni to Guwahati as part of the Rs.
50. Correct Option: (d) 12,940 crore JHBDPL project, which is also
known as the Pradhan Mantri Urja Ganga’
Explanation: project. This is proposed to be connected to
Statement 1 is incorrect: The 1,656-km gas the North-East via the Indradhanush grid.
pipeline grid will be developed in the eight
51. Correct Option: Setting up infrastructure investment trusts
(InvITs)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Asset Monetisation 52. Correct Option:
Programmes of the government are carried
out through Department of Investment and Explanation:
Public Asset Management (DIPAM) under
Statement 2 is incorrect: Section 56 of the
Ministry of Finance.
Banking Regulation Act deals with cooperative
Supplementary notes: banks.
Asset Monetisation Programmes Supplementary notes:

It Budget 2020, government proposed to use Banking Revolution Act, 1949
tax sops to nudge overseas investors towards
Union cabinet cleared changes in Banking
its upcoming asset monetization schemes.
Regulation Act to give RBI wider powers.
It Budget 2020, government proposed to
Ambit: The amendments will apply to all
use tax sops to nudge overseas investors
urban co-operative banks and multi-state
towards its upcoming asset monetization
cooperative banks.
schemes.
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They will not be applicable to rural
The Department of Investment and Public
cooperatives.
Asset Management (DIPAM) is working
on restructuring and asset monetisation Current regulations: Cooperative banks are
of public sector enterprises for better currently under dual control of Registrar of
management and competitiveness in the Cooperative Societies and RBI.
present world.
The role of registrar of cooperative
Cabinet has approved procedure and societies includes incorporation,

mechanism for Asset Monetization of
O registration, management, audit,
Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs)/ supersession of board and liquidation.
Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs)/other
RBI is responsible for regulatory
Government Organizations and Immovable
functions such maintaining cash reserve
SC
Enemy Properties.
and capital adequacy, among others.
Objective: The objective of the asset
New changes: The administrative role will
monetization programme of the Government
continue to be done by the Registrar of
of India is to unlock the value of investment
Cooperative Societies.
made in public assets which have not
yielded appropriate or potential returns so Rural cooperatives are under state-policies:
far. RBI has considerable control over urban
cooperative bank but has a limited control
GS
Procedure and Guidelines: Guidelines for

over the rural cooperative banks which are
asset monetisation programme include
guided by state-level policies.
principles and mechanism for capital
restructuring of CPSEs regarding payment Assets of rural cooperatives are higher:
of dividend, issue of bonus shares, and As per RBI’s Trends and Progress in Banking
buyback of shares by CPSEs. Report, as of March-end 2018, rural co-
operative banks accounted for 64.7 per cent
Asset Monetization is a way of getting more
of the total assets of cooperatives.
cash on the balance sheet and reducing the
debt-to-capital ratios that are crucial to rating Rural cooperatives are also more in
agencies. number as compared to urban cooperative
banks.
Sale proceeds (for example, disinvestment
proceeds) can be used to acquire additional Section 56:In 1965, the Act was amended to
operations, stabilize costs, or revitalize existing include cooperative banks under its purview
properties etc. by adding the Section 56. Cooperative banks,
which operate only in one state, are formed
Means of raising capital from the public
and run by the state government.
market
Section 35A:Section 35A of the Banking
Privatizing operating infrastructure assets.
Regulation Act, 1949 vests power in the RBI to
Toll-operate-transfer agreements with give directions to banks and can take action,
private investors “to prevent the affairs of any banking company
PTTS2020/CARC/500 100
being conducted in a manner detrimental to Statement 2 is incorrect: Capital gains are not
the interests of the depositors or in a manner applicable to an inherited property as there is
prejudicial to the interests of the banking no sale but only a transfer of ownership.
company”.
Long Term Capital Gains Tax (LTCG Tax)
Any profit or gain that arises from the sale of
Explanation: a ‘capital asset’ is a capital gain. This gain or
Option is correct: The Global Talent profit comes under the category of ‘income’.
Competitiveness Index (GTCI) is an annual Hence, the capital gain tax will be required to
benchmarking report that measures the ability be paid for that amount in the year in which
of countries to compete for talent. The report the transfer of the capital asset takes place.
is published by INSEAD, the Business School This is called the capital gains tax, which can
for the World, in partnership with the Adecco be either short-term or long-term.
Group and Tata Communications.
Long-term Capital Gains Tax is a levy on the
Supplementary notes: profits from the sale of assets held for more
Global Talent Competitiveness Index than a year whereas Short-term Capital Gains
Tax applies to assets held for a year or less and
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Launched for the first time in 2013, the Global is taxed as ordinary income.
Talent Competitiveness Index (GTCI) is an
annual benchmarking report that measures Capital gains are not applicable to an
the ability of countries to compete for talent. inherited property as there is no sale but
only a transfer of ownership.
It provides a wealth of data and analysis
that helps decision-makers develop talent In India, such a tax existed until October
strategies, overcome talent mismatches 2004 when it was replaced by the Securities
Transaction Tax (STT) which was levied on all

marketplace.
O
and become more competitive in the global
2020 GTCI report focuses on Global Talent in

trades made on the stock exchanges.
Long-term capital gains are often given
more favorable tax treatment than short-
the Age of Artificial Intelligence.
term gains.
SC
The index includes 70 variables and covers
132 countries. Government has re-introduced long-term
capital gains tax of 10 percent if the gains
The six metrics used to decide a country’s rank exceed Rs 100,000 without allowing the
are - enable, attract, grow, retain, vocational benefit of indexation. However, all gains till
skills and global knowledge skills. 31st January 2018 will be grandfathered and
This year, Switzerland topped the list of 132 short term capital gains remains unchanged
countries, followed by the US and Singapore. at 15 percent.
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Top 10 league table: Other countries in the Budget 2020-2021 chose to retain long-term
top 10 include Sweden at the 4th position, capital gains tax on equity mutual funds.
Denmark (5th), the Netherlands (6th), Finland
(7th), Luxembourg (8th), Norway (9th) and 55. Correct Option: (c)
Australia (10th).
Explanation:
In the BRICS grouping, China was ranked 42nd,
Russia (48th), South Africa (70th) and Brazil at Option is correct
80th position.
India has secured 72nd place in the index
while last year the country was ranked at 80th Baba Kalyani Committee
position. The Baba Kalyani committee was constituted
The report said the gap between high income, by the Ministry of Commerce & Industry to
talent-rich nations and the rest of the world is study the existing SEZ policy of India.
widening. More than half of the population in The objectives of the committee were to evaluate
the developing world lack basic digital skills. the SEZ policy and make it WTO compatible,
suggest measures for maximizing utilization of
vacant land in SEZs, suggest changes in the SEZ
policy based on international experience and
Explanation: merge the SEZ policy with other Government
101 PTTS2020/CARC/500
schemes like coastal economic zones, Delhi- Assessment of living standards: IHDS
Mumbai industrial corridor, national industrial provides an independent assessment of
manufacturing zones and food and textiles changes in living standards for a panel of
parks. 4828 households across Rajasthan, Bihar and
Uttarakhand.
Key recommendations are:
Per capita incomes grew: Per capita incomes
Framework shift from export growth to
grew by 3.5% per annum between 2011-12
broad-based Employment and Economic
and 2017.
Growth (Employment and Economic
Enclaves-3Es) The same households experienced per capita
income growth of 7.2% per annum between
Formulation of separate rules and
2004-5 and 2011-12.
procedures for manufacturing and service
SEZs Per capita consumption expenditure grew:
Per capita consumption expenditure grew by
Shift from supply driven to demand
2.7% per annum over the same period.
driven approach for 3Es development to
improve efficiency of investment-based on The same households experienced and per
certain industries, current level of existing capita consumption growth of 4% per annum
inventory in the region between 2004-5 and 2011-12.
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Promote integrated industrial and urban Increase in ownership of vehicles: There is
development- walk to work zones, States a consistent increase in ownership of vehicles
and center to coordinate on the frame work over the two time-periods.
development to bring linkages between all
While ownership of cars and motorcycles rose
initiatives
11 percentage points to 22 percent between
Enhance competitiveness by enabling 2004-05 and 2011-12, the same figure went
ecosystem development by funding high up 10 percentage points between 2011-12
O
speed multi modal connectivity, business and 2017
services and utility infrastructure.
Certain sectors such as electronics are 57. Correct Option: (a)
showing high domestic demand and need
SC
to have a plan for import substitution. Explanation:
Statement 3 is incorrect: Krishnapuram
56. Correct Option (d) onions are a variety of export quality onions
from Andhra Pradesh.
Explanation:
Krishnapuram Onions
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Krishnapuram onions are a variety of export

India Human Development Survey (IHDS) quality onions from Andhra Pradesh.
NSS report: Leaked portions National Sample The variety, not too popular in the domestic
Survey (NSS) on consumption expenditure market and is mainly grown for exports.
suggested that consumption declined in real
Krishnapuram onions are not used in kitchen
terms between 2011-12 and 2017-18.
due to their size and pungency.
The results were held back by the National
These onions are imported by Thailand,
Statistical Office (NSO).
Hong Kong, Malaysia, Sri Lanka and
NSO claims that there were serious data Singapore.
quality issues with the 2017-18 survey.
Last year government had banned export
IHDS report: A study by researchers from the of onions, when prices of onions in the
National Council of Applied Economic Research domestic shot up.
(NCAER) and the University of Maryland show
The blanket banon export of onions affected
findings contrary to NSS.
Krishnapuramtoo, hitting a number of farmers
Consumption spending has grown between in Andhra Pradesh who did not find too many
2011-12 and 2017. takers for it in the local market.
Yet, the pace of growth is significantly lower (in They are also called Krishnapuram Rose
real per capita terms) compared to the growth Onions.
between 2004-05 and 2011-12.
PTTS2020/CARC/500 102
58. Correct Option (b) in the new scheme include:
Explanation: Easier priority-sector lending norms for

exports
Statement 2 is incorrect: RoDTEP is consistent
with WTO requirements. Greater insurance cover under ECGC
Lower premium for MSMEs to avail of such
cover
Remission of Duties and Taxes on Export
Product (RoDTEP)
Remission of Duties and Taxes on Export
Product (RoDTEP): RoDTEP is a Rs 50,000- Explanation:
crore exports programme which is supposed All statements are correct
to replace Merchandise Exports From India
Scheme (MEIS). Supplementary notes:
Operation delayed: The operation of RoDTEP LTROs
was recently delayed. MEIS would remain in
The central bank will conduct long-term repos
force till March 31, 2020.
operations (LTROs) of one- and three-year
MEIS was introduced in the Foreign Trade tenors for up to a total amount of Rs. 1 lakh
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Policy (FTP) 2015-20 w.e.f. 1st April 2015. crore at the policy repo rate.
Objective: Its objective was to offset LTROs conducted under this scheme will be in
infrastructural inefficiencies and associated addition to the existing Liquidity Adjustment
costs involved in exporting goods which are Facility (LAF) and Marginal Standing Facility
manufactured in India, including products (MSF) operations.
manufactured by the MSME Sector. O Objective: This is a direct incentive by RBIto
MEIS was WTO-incompatible: World Trade boost credit growth, even as the monetary
Organization (WTO) panel had determined policy committee (MPC) earlier kept benchmark
that India’s export subsidies are inconsistent rates unchanged because of uncertainty in the
with WTO requirements. inflation outlook.
SC
Reimburse input taxes and duties: RoDTEP Credit lending in the economy is at low
is expected to adequately incentivize levels. India’s credit growth slowed to 7.1% in
exporters by reducing duties paid on exports 2019.
and will initiate the refund of various taxes to
External Benchmark System: Earlier, the
exporters.
central bank mandated all banks to link their
WTO compliant: The new scheme is supposed floating rate loans to an external benchmark
to reimburse all taxes and duties paid on instead of the marginal cost-based lending
inputs consumed in exports in sync with the rate (MCLR).
GS
WTO norms.
LTROs will be conducted on CBS (E-KUBER)
The MEIS, exporters have persistently platform.
complained, doesn’t offset all the taxes, so
RBI’s action is reminiscent of the European
the new scheme will be beneficial to them
Central Bank’s (ECB’s) unequivocal promise
when it’s implemented.
of funds to the banking system in 2011.
Automatic refund-route: The new scheme
will have a fully automated route for Input Tax
Measures used by RBI:
Credit (ITC) in the GST to help increase exports Cash reserve ratio (CRR) norms were also
in India. eased for new retail loans to improve credit
flow.
Avoid double taxation: ITC is provided to set
off tax paid on the purchase of raw materials, Revised the liquidity management
consumables, goods or services that were used framework, and finalized weighted average
in the manufacturing of goods or services. call rate (WACR) as the single operating
This helps in avoiding double taxation and the target.
cascading effect of taxes
RBI also abolished the daily variable rate
Attempt to reverse export fall: It is expected reverse repo and replaced it with a daily
to adequately incentivize exporters by reducing fixed-rate reverse repo.
duties paid on exports and will initiate the
An Accommodative Monetary policy during
refund of various taxes to exporters. Measures
2019-20: As on end January 2020, Monetary
103 PTTS2020/CARC/500
Policy Committee (MPC) cut the repo rate by 61. Correct Option: (c)
110 basis points in four consecutive meetings.
In its 5th meeting, MPC kept the repo rate Explanation:
unchanged. Both statements are correct:
A repo rate cut means that RBI will lend money
to commercial banks at a lower rate.
A lower repo rate will reduce cost of borrowing
Liberalisation of Indian Economy and its
for commercial banks. outcomes
This incentivises commercial banks to lend The liberalization of the Indian economy
money to businesses at a lower interest rate. in 1991 unleashed competitive markets. It
enabled the forces of creative destruction,
At a lower rate of interest, businesses will generating benefits that we still witness
borrow more, and more liquidity is injected today.
into the economy.
Using the lens of Indian equity markets as
captured in the S&P BSE Sensex, we can clearly
60. Correct option: (d) see an increase in market dynamism in the
pro-business India of the post-liberalization
Explanation: period.
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Statement 1 is incorrect: India ranked third in After the market reforms of 1991, SENSEX
number of new firms created. has not only grown, but has grown at an
Statement 2 is incorrect: Birth of new firms accelerating pace.
is very heterogeneous across Indian districts Whereas crossing the first incremental 5000
and across sectors. points took over 13 years and was achieved
Supplementary notes: in 1999, the time taken to achieve each
incremental milestone has substantially
Entrepreneurship and Wealth Creation at the
O reduced over the years.
Grassroots (Economic Survey)
Broadly, the growth of the SENSEX can be
The “Startup India” campaign of the Government divided into three phases after 1999.
of India recognizes entrepreneurship as
SC
Phase I from 1999 to 2007 saw acceleration in
an increasingly important strategy to fuel
the growth of the Sensex, with each successive
productivity growth and wealth creation in
5000-point mark taking lesser and lesser time
India.
to achieve.
India ranks third in number of new firms
Phase II from 2007 to 2014 saw a slowdown in
created.
the index’s growth. This phase coincides with
Data shows that new firm creation has gone the global slowdown in 2008 among other
up dramatically in India since 2014. unfavorable events.
GS
New firm creation in services is significantly Phase III began in 2014 and saw a revival
higher than that in manufacturing, in response to structural reforms and
infrastructure or agriculture. improvement in global liquidity. Strikingly, in
this phase, the Sensex jumped from the 30,000
Entrepreneurship at the bottom of the
mark to the 40,000 mark in just two years.
administrative pyramid – a district – has a
significant impact on wealth creation at the Figure shows : Sensex- Incremental months
grass root level. taken to cross each 5000-point milestone
Birth of new firms is very heterogeneous
across Indian districts and across sectors.
Literacy and education in the district foster
local entrepreneurship significantly.
The eastern part of India has the lowest literacy
rate of about 59.6 per cent according to the
census of 2011. This is also the region in which
new firm formation is the lowest.
The level of local education and the quality of
physical infrastructure in the district influence
new firm creation significantly.
PTTS2020/CARC/500 104
62. Correct Option: (c) It refers to the phenomenon wherein
countries that are rich in natural resources
Explanation: witness uneven growth across sectors.
Both statements are correct: According to the thesis, when resource-rich
countries export their resources to the rest
of the world, it causes the exchange rate of
Economy after 1991. their currency to appreciate significantly;
this, in turn, affects other sectors in the
After liberalization in the Indian economy
country by discouraging their exports
there has been rise of new sectors such as
while encouraging the import of cheaper
Financials and Information Technology.
alternatives.
Virtually non-existent in the Sensex of
the early 1990s, the share of these sectors The term was coined by The Economist in 1977
in the total market capitalization has to describe the decline of the manufacturing
increased over the years, so much so that industry in the Netherlands. The idea, however,
these sectors dominate the Sensex today. was first proposed by economists Peter Neary
and Max Corden in a paper published in
However more concentration or a reversal in
1982.
creative destruction in the economy is not a
cause of concern. The rising share in market Economy Survey explains in its chapter “Pro-
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capitalization has been accomplished by a business vs. Pro crony “that how political
rise in number of companies rather than a connection used in gaining the allocation of
rise in size of incumbents, suggesting greater resources affects the economy. It gives the
competition within these sectors. example of coal mines allocation.
Using the Herfindahl Index to analyse
degree of competition within the two sectors 64. Correct Option: (b)
reveals an overall decline in concentration
O
in both sectors. However, the IT sector has Explanation:
recently begun to show a slight increasing Statement 1 is incorrect: Pro crony policies
trend in the Herfindahl index, indicating promote preferential treatment to some
that there is room to increase competition incumbent firms making resource allocation
in the sector. inefficient in the economy.
SC
Three key insights emerge from the analysis Supplementary notes:
above. First, we can expect today’s dominant
firms to remain dominant for only one- Economic Survey 2019-20
fifth of the time that their preliberalization
The Economic Survey 2019-20 says India’s
counterparts did. Second, sectors once
aspiration to become a $5 trillion economy
considered mainstays of the Indian economy
depends critically on promoting “pro-
are being displaced by new sectors bringing
business” policy that unleashes the power of
GS
with them new technologies and products. The

competitive markets to generate wealth, on
competitive advantage of entrenched firms is
the one hand, and weaning away from “pro-
being rapidly challenged by new, smaller and
crony” policy that favour specific private
more agile firms; every five years, roughly
interests, especially powerful incumbents, on
one in three firms in the Indian economy can
the other hand.
expect to be challenged in a massive way by
the forces of creative destruction. Pro-crony policy supports incumbent firms
but does not necessarily foster competitive
Finally, the difference between the sizes of the
markets. On the other hand, policy that
largest and smallest firms is rapidly shrinking,
fosters competitive markets (hereafter pro-
and consequently monopoly power in the
business policy) creates a level playing field
economy is declining and making way for more
for businesses to compete. It unleashes the
competitive markets. Consumers benefit from
powerful forces of creative destruction, which
an increased variety of goods and services,
create wealth.
lower prices and incessant improvement in
the quality of existing products. Benefits of Pro-business policies
Firms compete on a level playing field
63. Correct Option: (d) Resource allocation in the economy is
Explanation: efficient
Dutch Disease in economics Citizens’ welfare is maximized
105 PTTS2020/CARC/500
Disadvantage of Pro-crony policies controlled by the DPCO
Some incumbent firms may receive preferential Fertilizers- the Fertiliser Control Order
treatment prescribes restrictions on transfer and
stock of fertilizers apart from prices
Resource allocation in the economy may not
be efficient Onion and Potato
Citizens’ welfare may not be maximized Seeds of food crops, fruits and vegetables,
cattle fodder, Jute seeds, and Cotton
seeds
As per the reports received from the State
Explanation: Governments/ UT Administrations, the
Statement 1 is incorrect: It is also applicable conviction rate under the Act is abysmally low
to non-agricultural commodities such as at 2-4 percent on an average.
prices of essential drugs, Petroleum, and its
products, etc. 66. Correct Option: (b)
Statement 2 is incorrect: The state
Explanation:
governments have the power to implement
the provisions under the Act. Option is correct
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Essential Commodities Act, 1955 Maximum Allowable Post-manufacturing
Expenses (MAPE)
Essential Commodities Act (ECA), 1955 was
enacted to control the production, supply The MRP of a drug is calculated using a
and distribution of, and trade and commerce formula prescribed in the DPCO.
in, certain goods considered as essential
commodities.
O Drugs Prices Control Order (DPCO) is an
order issued under Sec. 3 of the Essential
The Act itself does not lay out Rules and Commodities Act (ECA), 1955 that seeks
Regulations but allows the States to issue to regulate the prices of pharmaceutical
Control Orders related to dealer licensing, drugs.
SC
regulate stock limits, restrict movement of
The formula contains a variable element. ‘MAPE’
goods and requirements of compulsory
(Maximum Allowable Post-manufacturing
purchases under the system of levy.
Expenses) which is the sum total of all costs
The Act also provides for action to confiscate incurred by a manufacturer up to retailing
the stock seized; to suspend/ cancel and includes trade margin and margin for the
licences, if any and impose punishments like manufacturer.
imprisonment. The Act also gives the power
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to fix price limits, and selling the particular

commodities above the limit will attract 67. Correct Option: (b)
penalties. Explanation:
Most of the powers under the Act have been Option is correct
delegated by the Central Government to the
State Governments with the direction that Supplementary notes:
they shall exercise these powers.
The government can affect markets either
Food and civil supply authorities in States through direct participation (as a market maker
execute the Provisions of the Act. or as a buyer or supplier of goods and services)
or through indirect participation in private
The major commodity groups included in
markets (for example, through regulation,
the Act are:
taxation, subsidy or other influence).
Petroleum and its products, including petrol,
Government intervention affects the dynamic
diesel, kerosene, Naphtha, solvents,etc
interaction of supply and demand in markets
Foodstuff, including edible oil and seeds, and thereby determination of ‘equilibrium’
vanaspati, pulses, sugarcane, and its market prices.
products like sugar, rice paddy
When the price is too high, there is an
Raw Jute and jute textiles excessive amount of the product for sale
compared to what people want. When the
Drugs- prices of essential drugs are still
price is too low, it causes consumers to
PTTS2020/CARC/500 106
want more of the product than producers This is the mercantilist way of evaluating the
have available. gains from trade. Basic trade theory teaches
us that a country’s gains from free trade arise
In both cases, serious welfare loss results
from the fact that it leads to a more efficient
because not enough of the good is sold.
allocation of a country’s resources.
The wasted chance to create both producer
and consumer welfare from such sales Manufactured products from India has clearly
leads to ‘deadweight loss’ - income that benefitted from eight out of the fourteen
is lost forever. trade agreements considered here. These are:
MERCOSUR, ASEAN, Nepal, Singapore, Chile,
There is a case for Government intervention
Bhutan, Afghanistan and Japan.
when markets do not function properly,
excessive intervention, especially when markets Four of the agreements (SAFTA, BIMSTEC,
can do the job of enhancing citizens’ welfare Thailand and Sri Lanka) had no effect on
perfectly well, stifles economic freedom. exports of manufactured products while the
bilateral agreements with Korea and Japan
exerted a negative effect.
68. Correct option: (b)
Turning to overall merchandise exports, only
Explanation: four trade agreements (MERCOSUR, Nepal,
Statement 1 is incorrect: India’s lacklustre Singapore, and Chile) show a positive impact.
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export performance caused by a lack of The agreements that exerted a positive effect
diversification in its export basket. on India’s imports include Japan, Korea and
Chile for manufactured products and Japan,
Korea, Chile, Singapore and Sri Lanka for
India’s lacklustre export performance caused overall merchandise imports.
by a lack of diversification in its export
The exceptions are the bilateral agreements
basket.
with Korea, Japan and Sri Lanka, where the

O
Overall, high diversification combined with low
specialization implies that India is spreading
its exports thinly over many products and
percentage increase in imports are higher
than that of exports.
partners, leading to its lacklustre performance

SC
compared to China.
If India wants to become a major exporter, Explanation:
it should specialize more in the areas of its
Ease of Doing Business Index
comparative advantage and achieve significant
quantity expansion. The Ease of Doing Business (EoDB) index is a
ranking system established by the World Bank
India’s participation in GVCs has been low
Group.
compared to the major exporting nations in
East and Southeast Asia. Among the chosen 190 countries, India ranked
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63rd in Doing Business 2020: World Bank
In contrast, China’s export composition shows
Report.
a strong bias towards traditional labour-
intensive industries and labour-intensive In 2014, the Government of India launched
stages of production processes within capital- an ambitious program of regulatory
intensive industries. reforms aimed at making it easier to do
business in India. The program represents a
great deal of effort to create a more business-
69. Correct option: (a) friendly environment.
Explanation: India’s ranking on construction permit
parameter has improved from 184 in 2014 to
52 in 2018. India’s ranking on getting electricity
Free Trade Agreements by India. parameter has improved from 137 in 2014
to 24 in 2018. India ranks 7th in Protecting
An apprehension is that most of the FTAs that
Minority Investors and 22nd in Getting Credit
India had signed in the past had not worked
in “India’s favour.” India continues to trail in parameters such
as
The agreements led to worsening of India’s
trade deficit with the partner countries with Ease of Starting Business (Rank 136),
which the agreements have been signed. Registering Property (Rank 154),
107 PTTS2020/CARC/500
Paying Taxes (Rank 115), and The research presents data for 190economies
and aggregates information from 10 areas of
Enforcing Contracts (Rank 163)
business regulation:
Starting a Business
Dealing with Construction Permits
Explanation:
Getting Electricity
Option is correct: Road > Railway > Waterway
> Air Registering Property
Getting Credit
Protecting Minority Investors
Transportation in India
Paying Taxes
The coordinated system of transport plays
an important role in the sustained economic Trading across Borders
growth of a country. The transport system in Enforcing Contracts
India comprises a number of distinct modes
and services, notably railways, roads, road Resolving Insolvency
transport, ports, inland water transport, Rankings and weights on each of the mentioned
coastal shipping, airports, and airlines.
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parameters are used to develop an overall
Railways and roads are the dominant means EoDB ranking. A high EoDB ranking means the
of transport carrying more than 95% of total regulatory environment is more conducive for
traffic generated in the country. Although starting and operating businesses.
other modes such as coastal shipping and
inland water transport would play a greater
role, the railways and roads would continue 73. Correct option:
to dominate the transport landscape in the
foreseeable future.
O Explanation:
Non-banking financial companies (NBFCs)
Globally, transportation by ports is the most are financial institutions that offer various
favoured followed by railways and then roads, banking services but do not have a banking
whereas in India it is the opposite. license.
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They are primarily responsible for making
investments, but do not have the authority to
accept deposits.
NBFCs cannot form part of the payment and
settlement system. This means that cannot
issue cheques drawn on itself.
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Deposit insurance facility of Deposit

Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation
is not available to depositors of NBFCs,
unlike in case of banks.

72. Correct Option: (c) Explanation:
Shadow Banking comprises a set of
Explanation:
activities, markets, contracts and institutions
Option is correct: that operate partially (or fully) outside the
traditional commercial banking sector and are
Supplementary notes: either lightly regulated or not regulated at all.
Ease of Doing Business Index A shadow banking system can be composed
of a single entity that intermediates between
The Ease of Doing Business (EoDB) index is a end-suppliers and end-users of funds, or
ranking system established by the World Bank it could involve multiple entities forming a
Group. In the EODB index, ‘higher rankings’ chain.
(a lower numerical value) indicate better,
usually simpler, regulations for businesses and NBFCs are considered as an important
stronger protections of property rights. segment of the shadow banking system in
PTTS2020/CARC/500 108
India. Different Approaches to Disinvestment
Minority Disinvestment: A minority
75. Correct Option: disinvestment is one such that, at the end of
it, the government retains a majority stake in
Explanation: the company, typically greater than 51%, thus
ensuring management control.
Refinance
Majority Disinvestment: A majority
A refinance occurs when an individual or
disinvestment, retains a minority stake in the
business revises the interest rate, payment
company i.e., it sells off a majority stake.
schedule, and terms of a previous credit
agreement. Complete Privatisation: Complete
privatisation is a form of majority disinvestment
NBFCs are facing a liquidity crunch (refinance
wherein 100% control of the company is
trouble). In other words, they don’t have money
passed on to buyer.
to lend or are facing enormous difficulties in
raising funds.
NBFCs typically borrow money from banks 78. Correct option: (a)
or sell commercial papers to mutual funds to
Explanation:
raise money. When NBFCs don’t have money
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to lend, that reduces the credit flow to the Supplementary notes:
economy, hits economic growth and causes
many borrowers to default on loans. Difference-in-difference (DID) model
The economic survey uses DID model, which
is an econometric technique that attempts
76. Correct Option: (b) to mimic an experimental research design
Explanation: by studying the differential effect of a quasi-
experiment such as a GDP methodology

O
To assess the impact of strategic disinvestment/
privatization on performance of select CPSEs
before and after privatization, 11 CPSEs
are studied, that had undergone strategic
change.

disinvestment from 1999-2000 to 2003-04 for
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which data is available both before and after Explanation:
privatization. Investment catalyses the Economy into a
To enable careful comparison using a Virtuous Cycle
difference-in-difference methodology, The Economic Survey of 2018-19 laid out
these CPSEs have been compared with their the role of investment, especially private
peers in the same industry group. investment in :
Difference-in-differences (DiD) is a statistical
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Driving demand
technique used to estimate the effect of a
specific intervention or treatment (such as Creating capacity
a passage of law, enactment of policy, or Increasing labour productivity
large-scale program implementation).
Introducing new technology
The technique compares the changes in
outcomes over time between a population Allowing creative destruction
that is affected by the specific intervention Generating employment.
(the treatment group) and a population that is
not (the control group).
DiD is typically used to mitigate the possibility
of any extraneous factors affecting the Explanation:
estimated impact of an intervention. This is
accomplished by differencing the estimated Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay Sanrakshan
impact of the treatment on the outcome in the Abhiyan (PM-AASHA)
treatment group as compared to the control PM-AASHA, launched in 2018, covers three
group. sub-scheme i.e. Price Support Scheme (PSS),
Price Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS)
77. Correct option: (c) and pilot of Private Procurement & Stockist
Scheme (PPSS).
Explanation:
109 PTTS2020/CARC/500
Under PSS, physical procurement of pulses, Smart phones will be used to capture and
oilseeds and Copra is done by Central upload data of crop cutting to reduce delays
Nodal Agencies with proactive role of State in claim payment to farmers.
governments.
PDPS covers all oilseeds for which MSP is 83. Correct Option: (a)
notified. Under this, direct payment of the
difference between the MSP and the selling/ Explanation:
modal price is made to pre-registered farmers
SUSTAINABLE DEVELOPMENT GOAL (SDG)
selling his produce in the notified market yard
through a transparent auction process. The 17 sustainable development goals (SDGs)
to transform our world:
81. Correct Option: (c) GOAL 1: No Poverty
Explanation: GOAL 2: Zero Hunger

GOAL 3: Good Health and Well-being
Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana
(PMKSY) GOAL 4: Quality Education
PMKSY was implemented in the year 2015- GOAL 5: Gender Equality
16.
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GOAL 6: Clean Water and Sanitation
It focuses on enhancing water use efficiency
GOAL 7: Affordable and Clean Energy
through expansion of cultivable area under
assured irrigation, improve on-farm water use GOAL 8: Decent Work and Economic
efficiency to reduce wastage of water, enhance Growth
the adoption of precision-irrigation.
GOAL 9: Industry, Innovation and
It also aims to improve on-farm water use Infrastructure
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efficiency to reduce wastage of water, enhance
GOAL 10: Reduced Inequality
the adoption of precision-irrigation and other
water saving technologies (More crop per GOAL 11: Sustainable Cities and
drop). Communities
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To enhance recharge of aquifers and GOAL 12: Responsible Consumption and
introduce sustainable water conservation Production
practices by exploring the feasibility of reusing
GOAL 13: Climate Action
treated municipal waste water for peri-
urban agriculture and attract greater private GOAL 14: Life below Water
investment in precision irrigation system.
GOAL 15: Life on Land
GOAL 16: Peace and Justice Strong
82. Correct Option: (d) Institutions
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Explanation: GOAL 17: Partnerships to achieve the Goal

Objectives of Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima
Yojana (PMFBY) 84. Correct option: (c)
To provide insurance coverage and financial Explanation:
support to the farmers in the event of failure
of any of the notified crop as a result of natural Its loans are interest free (only administrative
calamities, pests & diseases. cost is charged).
To stabilise the income of farmers to ensure Further, the repayment period is very long like
their continuance in farming. 35-40 years and the repayment starts after 10
years of taking loans.
To encourage farmers to adopt innovative and
modern agricultural practices. This way, it helps the developing countries
to focus on development without worrying
To ensure flow of credit to the agriculture about paying back of loan quickly.
sector.
Farmers will get claim against full sum insured

85. Correct option: (c)
without any reduction.
Remote sensing will be used to reduce number Explanation:
of crop cutting experiments In Balance of Payment, the current account
PTTS2020/CARC/500 110
records exports and imports in goods and money supply in the economy and thus helps
services and transfer payments. The first two in arresting inflation.
items BoP record exports and imports of goods.
The third item gives the trade balance which
is obtained by subtracting imports of goods 87. Correct option: (d)
from the exports of goods. When exports Explanation:
exceed imports, there is a trade surplus and
when imports exceed exports there is a trade Supplementary notes:
deficit.
Monetary aggregates:
Trade in services denoted as invisible trade
Narrow Money (M1) = Currency with the
(because they are not seen to cross national
public + Demand Deposits of public in Banks
borders) includes both factor income (net
income from compensation of employees and Narrow money is the most liquid part
net investment income, the latter equals, the of the money supply because demand
interest, profits and dividends on our assets deposits can be withdrawn anytime during
abroad minus the income foreigners earn on the banking hours.
assets they own in India) and net non-factor
M2 = M1 + Post Office Savings
income (shipping, banking, insurance, tourism,
software services, etc.). Broad Money (M3) = Narrow money + Time
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deposits of public in Banks
86. Correct option: (c) M4 = M3 + Post Office Savings
Explanation: Reserve Money (M0) = Currency in circulation

+ Bankers’ deposits with the RBI + ‘Other’
Supplementary notes: deposits with the RBI + Cash reserves of banks
Repo rate: Repo rate is the rate at which the
O with themselves
central bank of a country lends money to Reserve Money is all the Cash in the
commercial banks in exchange of commercial economy.
banks selling their securities to the central
bank. It’s also called High Powered Money.
M2 and M4 are relatively irrelevant indicators,
SC
RBI lends money to commercial banks in
the event of any shortfall of funds. due to less prominence of Post Office
Savings.
A lower repo rate will reduce cost of
borrowing for commercial banks. Factors affecting Money supply:
A low cost of borrowing will incentivise Monetary Base: Monetary Base depends
commercial banks to lend money to on Reserve Money. Money supply moves
investors/businesses at a lower interest in the same direction as Reserve Money.
rate.
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Money Multiplier (m): Measured as a

At a lower rate of interest, businesses ratio of M3/M0.
will borrow more. Money supply is the product of Money
More money will be injected in the system, multiplier and Reserve money.
and businesses will undertake more
investment activity. 88. Correct Option: (b)
Higher investment will generate
Explanation:
higher economic activity and higher
employment. Statement 1 is incorrect: In its NDC, India
has promised to reduce its emission intensity
This will increase GDP of the economy.
of GDP by 33 to 35 percent below 2005 levels
Repo rate as a measure to control inflation: by the year 2030.
A reduced repo rate will increase money supply
in the economy, increase demand, and if not
matched by adequate supply, it will increase India’s Nationally Determined Contribution
inflation.
India submitted its Nationally Determined
Alternatively, in the event of inflation, Contribution (NDC) under the Paris Agreement
central banks increase repo rate as this acts on a “best effort basis” keeping in mind the
as a disincentive for banks to borrow from developmental imperatives of the country.
the central bank.This ultimately reduces the
111 PTTS2020/CARC/500
In its NDC, India promised to: high in UP
Reduce its emission intensity of GDP by Tropical thorn forests are seen widely in
33 to 35 percent below 2005 levels by Andhra Pradesh.
the year 2030;
40 percent of cumulative electric power 91. Correct Option: (b)
installed capacity would be from non-fossil
fuel sources by 2030 and Explanation:
Increase its forest cover and additional Shannon-Weiner Index
carbon sink equivalent to 2.5 to 3 billion
India is one of the 17 megadiverse countries
tons of carbon dioxide by 2030.
in the world. This is evident in the Shannon-
The Paris Agreement is to be implemented Weiner Index for Diversity which is used for
in the post-2020 period in line with measuring species richness and abundance.
the guidelines adopted under the Paris The index also compares the diversity of
Agreement Work Programme. species among various habitats. India State
of the Forest Report 2019 assessed Shannon-
Weiner Index for 16 bio-diverse areas.
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Explanation: 92. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
Female Participation in Labour Market
National Adaptation Fund on Climate According to NSO-EUS and PLFS estimates,
Change female labour force participation rate (LFPR)
It is a Central Sector Scheme which was set up for productive age-group (15-59 years) as per

O
in the year 2015-16. The overall aim of NAFCC usual status (ps+ss) shows a declining trend.
is to support concrete adaptation activities Female labour force participation declined by
that mitigate the adverse effects of climate 7.8 percentage points from 33.1 per cent in
change. The activities under this scheme are 2011-12 to 25.3 per cent in 2017-18.
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implemented in a project mode. The ratio of female to male labour force
The projects related to adaptation in sectors also remained constant between 2011-12
such as agriculture, animal husbandry, and 2017-18.
water, forestry, tourism, etc. are eligible for As per PLFS, female WPR for the productive
funding under NAFCC. age group (15-59 ages) stood at 23.8 per
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural cent (25.5 per cent in rural areas and 19.8 per
Development (NABARD) is the National cent in urban areas) in 2017-18 as compared
to 32.3 per cent in 2011-12.
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Implementing Entity (NIE).

Based on the activity status - principal (ps)
90. Correct Option: (a) and subsidiary (ss)- indicates that participation
of females, especially in rural areas, who were
Explanation: engaged in subsidiary activities has drastically
declined (from 25 per cent in 2004-05 to 5.7
India State of the Forest Report 2019 per cent in 2017-18) as compared to females
It assessed the Shannon-Weiner Index for engaged as per principal status.
16 bio-diverse areas.
The Index shows that: 93. Correct Option: (c)
Tropical Evergreen forest is high in Explanation:
Karnataka followed by Kerala.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The budget has
Tropical moist deciduous forests cover is suggested for sustainable use of all types of
high in Arunachal Pradesh, Karnataka, and fertilizers rather than substitution of chemical
Maharashtra. fertilizers with organic manures.
Tropical dry deciduous forest is high in Statement 3 is incorrect: Village Storage
Arunachal Pradesh and semi-evergreen scheme as conceived by budget 2020 is
forests are high in Karnataka. essentially a storehouse where farmers will be
Tropical Littoral and swamp forests are able to store their agricultural products.
PTTS2020/CARC/500 112
Supplementary notes: Chain and “Kisan Rail”to provide better storage
and transportation facilities for perishable
Agricultural reforms suggested by Budget agricultural goods.
Adoption of Model Laws: These laws have Proposal of refrigerated coaches in Express
already been enforced and to be adopted by and Freight trains to transport perishable
state governments: agricultural products has been conceived
Model Agricultural Land Leasing Act, 2016 by the budget.
Model Agricultural Produce and Livestock As part of these efforts, the Indian Railways will
Marketing (Promotion and Facilitation) Act, set up a Kisan Rail service via the PPP model.
2017; and
Krishi Udaan Scheme
Model Agricultural Produce and Livestock
This will be launched by Ministry of Civil
Contract Farming and Services (Promotion
Aviation on international and national routes
and Facilitation) Act, 2018.
to transport agricultural products specially
Water Security:It aims to address the water fish, meat and dairy products across globe.
stress issue in hundred water stressed
districts.
Solar Pumps under KUSUM Scheme: It aims
RE
to incentivize 20 lakh farmers for setting up Explanation:
stand-alone solar pumps and further to help Both statements are correct
another 15 lakh farmers solarize their grid-
connected pump sets under KUSUM Scheme. Supplementary notes:
Sustainable use of fertilizers:The budget “One Product One District” Scheme
has sought to use all kinds of fertilizers
including the traditional organic and other “One product one district” Scheme in
horticulture sector will be supported by

‘balanced approach’.
Development of forward-linkages:
O
innovative fertilizers sustainably with a
central government by providing incentives
to those states which supports cluster-wise
production of horticulture products.
Proposal of geo-tagging of all warehouses This will promote adoption of a crop from that
SC

which are present in the country. district and provide farmers logistics, seeds
Proposal of setting up of warehouses in and other forward and backward linkages
accordance with norms set by Warehouse along with marketing.
Development and Regulatory Authority Promotion of ‘Integrated Farming System’
(WDRA) at block/taluk level with Viability
Gap Funding by the central government. Promotion of ‘Integrated Farming System’
in rainfed areas to counter the vagaries of
Village Storage schemeto be run by Self- monsoon or unseasonal rain.
GS
help Groups (SHGs) in order to store the

agricultural products and provide farmers This methodology of farming will include
a good holding capacity and reduce their Multitier cropping, beekeeping, solar pumps,
logistics cost. solar energy production in non-cropping
season. Zero-Budget Natural Farming will be
promoted in this area to reduce the on-farm
94. Correct Option: (d) expenditure by farmers.
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:Kisan Rail envisages
transporting agricultural products not livestock Explanation:
from one place to another.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Krishi Udan will
provide facility for agricultural products to be Supplementary notes:
transported by farmers at domestically as well
Technical Textile
as internationally.
Government has recently announced
Supplementary notes: National Technical Textiles Mission for
National Cold Supply Chain and “Kisan Rail” supporting production of technical textile
in Budget, 2020.
Government will setup National Cold Supply
113 PTTS2020/CARC/500
A technical textile is a textile product Deposit Insurance
manufactured for non-aesthetic purposes,
Amid failure of many banks in the country,
where function is the primary criterion.
the latest being Punjab and Maharashtra
Technical textiles include textiles for Cooperative Bank, the role of DICGC has
automotive applications, medical textiles become important.
(e.g., implants), geotextiles (reinforcement
Government in budget has announced
of embankments), agro-textiles (textiles for
increment of the insured amount from 1
crop protection), and protective clothing
lakh to 5 lakhs.
(e.g., heat and radiation protection for fire
fighter clothing, molten metal protection for Deposit insurance is providing insurance
welders, stab protection and bulletproof vests, protection to the depositor’s money by
and spacesuits). receiving a premium. The government
has set up Deposit Insurance and Credit
Technical textile materials are most widely used
Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) under RBI
in filter clothing, furniture, hygiene medicals
to protect depositors if a bank fails.
and construction material.
Every insured bank pays premium amounting
to 0.001% of its deposits to DICGC every year.
97. Correct Option: (b) When a bank is liquidated, depositors are
entitled to receive an insurance amount of 1
RE
Explanation:
lakh per individual from the Deposit Insurance
Statement 1 is incorrect: Arth Ganga plan is and Credit Guarantee Corporation of India
further extension of NamamiGange Mission (DICGC) which has now been revised to Rs. 5
which envisages for sustainable development lakh per individuals.
of Gangetic river bank by promoting economic
activities. The RBI on directing that a bank be liquidated,
appoints an official liquidator to oversee the
Supplementary notes: winding up process. Under the DICGC Act, the
O liquidator is supposed to hand over a list of all
‘Arth Ganga’ Plan
the insured depositors (with their dues) to the
Arth Ganga plan is further extension of DICGC within three months of taking charge.
NamamiGange Mission which envisages
The DICGC is supposed to pay these dues
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for sustainable development of Gangetic
within two months of receiving this list.
riverbank by promoting economic
activities.
This includes multi disciplinary development 99. Correct Option: (b)
activities such as multimodal terminals, inland Explanation:
ports etc.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Vivad Se Vishwas
NIRVIK scheme Scheme is related to direct taxes while Sabka
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Ministry of Commerce & Industry through Vishwas Scheme is related to indirect taxes.
Export Credit Guarantee Corporation (ECGC) Supplementary notes:
has introduced a new Export Credit Insurance
Scheme (ECIS) called NIRVIK to enhance loan Vivad Se Vishwas Scheme
availability and ease the lending process. The budget has proposed ‘Vivad Se Vishwas’
NIRVIK (Niryat Rin Vikas Yojana)aims scheme,which will cover disputes related to
toachieve higher export credit disbursement Direct Taxes.
to small exporters. Under this scheme, a taxpayer would be
This includes higher insurance coverage, required to pay only the amount of the
reduction in premium for small exporters and disputed taxes and will get complete waiver
simplified procedure for claim settlements. of interest and penalty provided he pays by
31stMarch 2020.
98. Correct Option: (d) Sabka Vishwas Scheme
Explanation: The Sabka Vishwas Scheme, 2019 is a

scheme proposed in the Union Budget,
Statement 3 is incorrect: The government 2019, and introduced to resolve all
has set up Deposit Insurance and Credit disputes relating to the erstwhile Service
Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) under RBI. Tax and Central Excise Acts, which are now
subsumed under GST, as well as 26 other
PTTS2020/CARC/500 114
Indirect Tax enactments. Supplementary notes:
The scheme will be for taxpayers who wish to Fiscal Deficit and GDP growth Projections
close their pending disputes, with a substantial
relief provided by the government. Central Government in Budget 2020
The scheme was notified by the CBIC to come proposed reducing fiscal deficit by 30 basis
into force on the 1st of September, 2019, and points to 3.5% of GDP in 2020-21.
was operational until the 31st of December,
2019. Budget has assumed a nominal GDP growth
of 10% for 2020-21. The Economic Survey
Taxpayers were able pay the outstanding
had said the economy would grow at
tax amounts due and be free from any
other consequences under the Law and got 6-6.5% in 2020-21 from the estimated 5%
substantial relief in the form of full waivers in the financial year ending 31 March.
of interest, penalties and fines. There
was complete amnesty from prosecution Last year, the government’s fiscal deficit
proceedings. touched 132.4% of the full-year target at
December-end mainly due to slower pace of
100. Correct Option: (a) revenue collections.
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Explanation: The rise in public infrastructure spending and
tax exemptions for sovereign wealth funds
Statement 2 is incorrect: GDP growth rate has
are also credit positive for infrastructure
been forecasted at 6-6.5% of GDP for 2020-
21 by the government while International companies, as public capital outlays on
Monetary Fund predicted it at 4.8%. highways and railways will increase modestly.
O
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115 PTTS2020/CARC/500
GENERAL STUDIES
CURRENT AFFAIRS
(ENVIRONMENT
+ GEOGRAPHY)
PTTS2020/CARC/500 116
1. Consider the following statements regarding 1. Currently, there is no installed ocean energy
Composite Water Management Index: capacity in India.
1. It has been launched by the Ministry of Jal 2. The potential location for tidal energy in India
Shakti. is Khambat and Kutch region.
2. The majority of Indian states are demonstrating Which of the above statements is/are correct?
progress on the water index.
(a) 1 only
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 5. What is Jeevamrutha?
(a) A new anti-malerial drug.
2. With reference to 4th cycle of All India
Tiger Estimation, consider the following (b) A mixture used in Zero Budget Natural
statements: Farming.
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1. All India Tiger Estimation is done every 4 years (c) New Government scheme for livestock.
by National Tiger Conservation Authority
(NTCA).
2. Karnataka has the maximum number of tigers
in India. 6. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly
matched?
3. M-STRIPES Application for digital estimation
of tiger population is developed by Wildlife River Linking Project Benefited States
Institute of India (WII).
O 1. Ken-Betwa Madhya Pradesh
only
(a) 1 and 3 only 2. Koshi-Mechi Bihar
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(b) 2 only 3. Par-Tapi-Narmada Maharashtra only
(c) 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only
3. Which of the following statements regarding (b) 2 only
Great Indian Bustard is/are correct?
2 and 3 only
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(c)
1. It is listed as endangered in the IUCN Red
List. (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. It is a flagship species of grassland

ecosystem. 7. Which of the following statements regarding
the Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation Project is/are
3. Project Godawan was launched by Gujarat to
correct?
conserve the Great Indian Bustard.
1. It will be world’s largest multi-stage,
multipurpose lift irrigation.
below:
2. It is being built across the Godavari River in
(a) 1 and 2 only
Nasik district of Maharashtra.
(b) 2 only 3. The advantage of lift irrigation is the minimal
(c) 2 and 3 only land acquisition and low-water losses.
(d) 1 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
4. Recently, Ocean Energy has been declared (a) 1 only

as Renewable Energy by Ministry of New & (b) 1 and 3 only
Renewable Energy. In this context, consider
(c) 2 and 3 only
the following statements:
117 PTTS2020/CARC/500
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Arunachal Pradesh
2. West Bengal
8. Consider the following statements regarding 3. Sikkim
Zero Budget Natural Farming:
4. Kerala
1. It is a method of chemical-free agriculture
based on traditional Indian practices. Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
2. It encourages intensive irrigation and deep
ploughing of the fields. (a) 2-4-1-3
Which of the above statement is/are correct? (b) 4-2-1-3
(a) 1 only (c) 4-2-3-1
(b) 2 only (d) 2-4-3-1
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 12. Washington Convention is related to:
(a) Climate Change
9. Consider the following statements regarding (b) Wildlife Protection
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Ozone pollution:
(c) Nuclear Disarmament
1. Ozone is a secondary pollutant which gets
directly emitted from vehicles, industry or (d) Global Financial System
power plants.
2. Ozone can reduce photosynthesis and slow 13. The Union Environment Ministry has
the plant growth. selected 12 beaches in India for a ‘Blue Flag’
3. Gothenburg Protocol aims to abate certification. In this context consider the
O
Acidification, Eutrophication and Ground- following statements regarding Blue Flag
level Ozone. Certification :
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? 1. It is run by international, non-governmental,
non-profit organization Foundation for
SC
(a) 1 only Environmental Education.
(b) 2 only 2. If approved, beaches are given the qualification
(c) 2 and 3 only for a year and must apply annually to continue
meriting the right to fly the flag at their
(d) 1 and 3 only locations.
3. Greece has the highest nunber of beaches
10. With reference to Earth Overshoot Day, under Blue Flag certification.
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1. It is the date when humanity’s demand for
ecological resources in a given year exceeds (a) 1 and 2 only
what Earth can regenerate in that year.
(b) 1 and 3 only
2. It is calculated by Global Footprint Network.
(c) 2 and 3 only
3. A country’s overshoot day is the date on
which Earth Overshoot Day would fall if all (d) 1 only
of humanity consumed like the people in this
country. 14. Which of the following statements is/are
Which of the above statements is/are correct? correct regarding CITES?
(a) 1 only 1. It is an international agreement between the
governments to ensure that international
(b) 1 and 3 only trade in the specimen of wild animals and
(c) 2 only plants does not threaten their survival.
2. CITES is legally binding but not self-
(d) 1, 2 and 3
executing.
11. Arrange the following states in increasing Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
order of the number of orchid species
recorded: (a) 1 only
PTTS2020/CARC/500 118
(b) 2 only scheme for particulate pollution?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) Maharashtra
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Gujarat
(c) Kerala
15. Recently, Gogabeel, an ox-bow lake in
Bihar, has been declared as the state’s first (d) Madhya Pradesh
‘Community Reserve’. This lake is formed due
to the meandering of which of the following
19. The world’s southernmost city is:
rivers?
1. Mahananda (a) Ushuaia of Argentina
2. Kankhar (b) Dover of Tasmania
3. Ganga (c) Invercargill of New Zealand
Select the correct answer using the code given (d) Puerto Williams of Chile
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only correct regarding the Arogyapacha Plant?
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(b)
(c) 1 and 3 only 1. Arogyapacha is a medicinal plant endemic to
(d) 1, 2 and 3 the Nilgiri hills.
2. It is known for its traditional use by the Kani
16. Which of the following statement is correct tribal community to combat fatigue.
regarding ‘Anti-Smog guns’, recently seen in
news?
(a)
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It sprays frozen carbon dioxide into the air
through high-pressure propellers to curb
dust pollution.
below:
(a)
(b)
1 only
2 only
It sprays nebulised water droplets into the
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(b)
(c) Both 1 and 2
air through high-pressure propellers to curb
dust pollution. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) This anti-smog gun works perfectly on-air
pollution by removing and settling down dust 21. Consider the following statements regarding
particles within minutes the Sargasso Sea:
(d) Both and are correct 1. The growth of Sargasso seaweed algae belt is
GS
declining in Sargasso Sea.

2. It lies within the Northern Atlantic Subtropical
correct regarding Koshi-Mechi River Linking
Gyre defined only by the ocean currents.
Project?
1. It is the country’s first river interlinking Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
project. (a) 1 only
2. Mechi is an important tributary of Mahanadi
(b) 2 only
River
(c) Both 1 and 2
Select the correcr answer using the code given
below: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Orchids:
(c) Both 1and 2
1. Trade-in wild orchids is banned globally.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Terrestrial orchids are found in the temperate
and alpine region.
18. Which among the following states has Which of the above statement is/are correct?
launched world’s first emissions trading
(a) 1 only
119 PTTS2020/CARC/500
(b) 2 only (b) Size of hurricane
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Height of rainfall
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) To estimate the loss during forest fires
23. Consider the following statements regarding 28. “Cryodrakon Boreas” that was seen recently
‘Diego Tortoise’, seen in news recently: in news is related to:
1. It is endemic to the Pacific coast of North (a) It was the largest flying animal which was a
America. plane-sized reptile
2. It is listed as Critically Endangered. (b) It is a commet which is approaching earth at
a very fast rate
(c) It is an rainbow like reflection seen in southern
(a) 1 only
hemisphere
(b) 2 only (d) It is an mammal that lives deep in the ocean
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 29. Consider the following statements regarding
Bonn Challenge
RE
24. Amrabad Tiger Reserve, recently in news, is 1. It is a new commitment to the deforested and
located in: degraded land for their restoration.
2. It is an implementation vehicle for national
(a) Andhra Pradesh
priorities such as food and water security
(b) Telangana while contributing to the achievements of
international climate change commitments.
Karnataka
(c)
O Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(d) Maharashtra
(a) 1 only
25. Consider the following Statements regarding (b) 2 only

SC
International Fund for Animal Welfare (c) Both 1 and 2
(IFAW):
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. It is a global non-profit organisation helping
animals and people thrive together.
30. With reference to Coalition for Disaster
2. It is involved in rescuing rehabilitating and Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI), consider the
protecting animals natural habitat. following statements:
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1. It is a platform proposed by France for
GS
generating and exchanging knowledge

(a) 1 only
related to disaster-related activities.
(b) 2 only 2. It will involve providing financial support to
(c) Both 1 and 2 developing as well as island nations.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. It is in line with the UN Agenda 2030 principle

of focusing on the most vulnerable regions
and populations for support.
26. Who is the ex-officio chairman of The National
Board for Wildlife (NBWL)?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(a) Union Minister of Ministry of Environment,
Forest and Climate Change (b) 2 only
(b) Prime Minister (c) 3 only
(c) Secretary to Environment Ministry (d) 2 and 3 only
(d) Chief Secretary

Basel Ban Amendment:
27. Saffir-Simpson scale is used to measure which
1. It provides for the prohibition of all
one of the following?
transboundary movements of hazardous
(a) Intensity of earthquake wastes from all developed nations to
PTTS2020/CARC/500 120
developing countries. tropics.
2. India has ratified the Basel ban amendment. 2. It is like a conveyor belt which is driven by
Which of the above statements is/are correct? differences in temperature, salt content and
the water density.
(a) 1 only
3. Warming of Indian Ocean will lead to higher
(b) 2 only salinity in the waters of the tropical portion of
(c) Both 1 and 2 the Atlantic Ocean.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
uyghur community that was seen recently in
news (c) 2 and 3 only
1. The Uyghurs are Turkic-speaking Muslims (d) 1, 2 and 3
from the Central Asian region
2. The largest population lives in China’s
autonomous Xinjiang region
Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) is/are
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correct?
(a) 1 only 1. It is an organization committed to improving
(b) 2 only air quality and protecting the climate by
reducing super pollutants.
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. Its activities are financed through a multi-
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
donor Trust Fund which is administered
through UN Environment.
33. Consider the following statements about Jan
Soochna Portal:
1.
O
It is the first ever public information portal
3. India joined the Climate and Clean Air
Coalition (CCAC) and became 65th country in
the partnership.
launched by the government of Rajasthan.
SC
2. It will not require citizens to submit RTI below:
application for seeking information.
(a) 1 only
3. The portal will prevent anomalies and
corruption in government. (b) 2 only
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (c) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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(b) 1 only
37. “Crimea” is situated between which of the
(c) 2 and 3 only following sea(s)?
(d) 2 only (a) Black sea and Sea of Azov
(b) Sea of Azov and Caspian Sea
34. The theme of World Ozone Day 2019 is:
(c) Black sea only
(a) 32 years and healing
(d) Black sea and Mediterranean Sea
(b) Keep Cool and Carry On
(c) Caring for all life under the sun 38. Which of the following countries fall in Golden
(d) Ozone and climate: Restored by a World Triangle?
United (a) Laos, Thailand and Myanmar
(b) Pakistan, Afghanistan and Iran
(c) India, Bangladesh and Nepal
Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation
(AMOC): (d) Kazakhstan, Uzbekistan and Kyrgystan
1. It is a large system of ocean currents that carry
cold water from the North Atlantic towards 39. Match List I with List II and select the correct
answer from the codes given below the lists:
121 PTTS2020/CARC/500
List I (State Birds) List II (States) harvesting of such plants can also be
economical for farmers.
A. House Sparrow 1. Bihar
B. Sarus Crane 2. Uttar Pradesh
(a) 1 only
C. Great Indian 3. Jharkhand
Bustard (b) 2 only
D. Asian Koel 4. Rajasthan (c) Both 1 and 2
Codes: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
A B C D
43. Consider the following pairs:
(a) 1 2 4 3
Reservoir/Dam River
(b) 1 2 3 4
1. Khadakwasla Mutha river
(c) 2 3 4 1
2. Tilaiya Sone river
(d) 3 2 1 4
3. Bansagar Barakar river
40. Consider the following statements regarding Which of the pair(s) given above is/are correctly
matched?
RE
Global Oceans:
1. The horizontally stratified ocean supplies 99% (a) 1 only
of the Earth’s biologically-habitable space. (b) 2 only
2. Seawater has a heat capacity four times larger (c) 2 and 3 only
than air.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. The average depth of the global ocean is
about 3700 m.
O 44. Consider the following statements regarding
Ratapani Tiger Reserve:
(a) 1 and 3 only
1. This tiger reserve is located in the state of
2 and 3 only
SC
(b)
Uttar Pradesh.
(c) 3 only
2. Rare migratory birds from Tibet, Nepal, Russia
(d) 1, 2 and 3 and Siberia visit this reserve.
3. The reserve mainly comprises of a teak
41. Consider the following statements: forest.
1. Ministry of Environment and forest has
launched a mobile application “Ganga Data
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Collector” under the “Biodiversity and Ganga (a) 1 and 2 only

Conservation” project.
(b) 1 and 3 only
2. Ganga basin covers Madhya Pradesh,
Rajasthan, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh along (c) 2 and 3 only
with other states.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only “Goldschmidtite” which was seen recently in
(c) Both 1 and 2 news:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. It is a new mineral discovered inside a diamond

unearthed from a mine in South Africa.
42. Consider the following statements about bio- 2. It has high concentrations of niobium,
fencing: potassium and the rare earth elements
1. It is planting of trees or shrubs on farm or field lanthanum and cerium.
boundaries that provide protection against Select the correct option using the code given
cattle and wildlife.
below:
2. This method is environment-friendly and
(a) 1 only
PTTS2020/CARC/500 122
(b) 2 only below:
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2
46. The ‘Special Report on the Ocean and (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Cryosphere in a Changing Climate’ in 2019
was published by: 50. Consider the following statements:
(a) Intergovernmental panel on Climate Change 1. India’s first e-waste clinic would be set up in
(IPCC). Lucknow.
2. The clinic is being conceived in compliance
(b) United Nations Framework Convention on with the Solid Waste Management Rules,
Climate Change (UNFCCC). 2016.
(c) United Nations Environmental Programme Which of the statements given above is/are
(UNEP). incorrect?
(d) World Meteorological Organization (WMO). (a) 1 only
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(b) 2 only
47. Match List I with List-II and select the correct (c) Both 1 and 2
answer from the code given below the lists:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
List I List II
(Organizations) (Headquarters)
51. Consider the following statements about C40
A. TRAFFIC 1. Seoul
cities:
B.
C.
IUCN
Global Green
Growth Institute
2.
3.
Cambridge
Oakland
O 1. It is a network of the world’s megacities
committed to addressing climate change.
2. C40 cities are involved in actions that reduces
D. 350.org 4. Gland
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global green house gas emission.
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 1 1 4
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 4 3 2
(d) 2 4 1 3 (c) Both 1 and 2
GS
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

48. Extinction Rebellion, recently seen in news is:
(a) An international movement that uses non- 52. Which of the following statements are correct
violent civil disobedience in an attempt to regarding Asiatic Lion Conservation Project?
halt mass extinction.
1. This project will focus on conservation efforts
(b) An international movement started with the of Asiatic Lions in the Gir Range only.
cooperation from UNDP to reduce worldwide
corruption. 2. This project envisages involvement of
communities for disease control and
(c) A global movement to end abuses of human
rights. veterinary care for conservation efforts.
(d) A global movement started by World Select the correct answer using the code given
Economic Forum for poverty alleviation. below:
(a) 1 only
49. Which of the following statement regarding
Emperor Penguins is/are incorrect? (b) 2 only
1. It is one of the Antarctica’s endemic species. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. It is endangered as per IUCN. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Choose the correct answer using the code given
123 PTTS2020/CARC/500
53. Consider the following statements regarding 56. Consider the following statements regarding
Hard ground swamp deer (Barasingha): Brown to Green Report 2019:
1. It is the state animal of Uttar Pradesh. 1. It has been published by the United Nations
Framework Convention on Climate Change.
2. It has been listed vulnerable in the International
Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red 2. The report presents a comprehensive review
of G20 countries’ climate performance.
List of Threatened Species.
Which of the above statements is/are Correct?
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
correct? (a) 1 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
57. Recently around 17,000 migratory birds died
in Sambhar Lake. In this context, consider the
54. Match the following: following statements:
RE
Energy Storage Category 1. The deaths of these birds have been due to
System botulism.
2. Botulism is a serious bacterial neuromuscular
A. Compressed Air 1. Electrical Storage
illness that occurs only in birds.
Energy Storage
3. Sambhar Lake is India’s largest inland saltwater
B. Superconducting 2. Chemical Storage lake.
Magnetic Energy
Storage
O
C. Chilled Water 3. Mechanical Storage (a) 1 and 2 only
Storage (b) 2 and 3 only
D. Power-to-Gas 4. Thermal Storage 1 and 3 only
SC
(c)
Storage
(d) 1, 2 and 3
below:
A B C D National Clean Air Programme:
(a) 3 1 4 2 1. It is a first ever national framework for
air quality management with time bound
1 3 2 4 reduction targets.
GS
(b)
(c) 2 4 3 1 2. It is being implemented in all the cities.
(d) 4 2 1 3 Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
55. Consider the following statements: (b) 2 only
1. Guru Ghasidas National Park is Chhattisgarh’s
(c) Both 1 and 2
first ‘tiger reserve’.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The National Tiger Conservation Authority
(NTCA) approves declaration of a Tiger
reserve in India. 59. Which of the following resolution piloted by
India were adopted by UNEA?
1. Resolution on Single-use Plastics.
(a) 1 only
2. Resolution on Sustainable Nitrogen
(b) 2 only Management.
(c) Both 1 and 2 Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
PTTS2020/CARC/500 124
(c) Both 1 and 2
63. Consider the following statements:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Ecological Fiscal Transfers (ETFs) distributes a
share of intergovernmental fiscal transfers to
ecological indicators.
India Cooling Action Plan (ICAP):
2. As per the 14th Finance Commission, 7.5% of
1. This document addresses cooling requirement
total centre-state disbursement is to be set
across sectors and lists out actions which can
aside for ETFs.
help reduce the cooling demand.
3. ETFs did not increase spending on forests by
2. India is the second country in world to
states in India.
develop such a document.
3. Its goals include reduction of cooling demand Which of the above statements are correct?
across sectors by 20% to 25 % by year 2037- (a) 1 and 2 only
38.
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
RE
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only 64. Consider the following statements regarding
(d) None of the above Pamba-Achankovil-Vaippar river link project:
1. It is a part of river linking projects of the
61. Which of the following are the features National Water Development Agency.
of Hazardous Waste (Management & 2. It involves diversion of water from Pamba
Transboundary Movement) Rules, 2016?
1.
O
Solid plastic waste has been prohibited from
import into the country including in Special
and Achankovil rivers of Kerala to the Vaippar
basin in Tamil Nadu.
Economic Zones (SEZ) and by Export Oriented
SC
(a) 1 only
Units (EOU).
2. Exporters of silk waste have now been given (b) 2 only
exemption from requiring permission from (c) Both 1 and 2
the Ministry of Environment, Forest and
Climate Change. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

below:
65. With reference to ‘National Chambal Sanctuary’
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(a) 1 only
1. The sanctuary is located on the Chambal
(b) 2 only River near the tri-point of Rajasthan, Madhya
Pradesh and Gujarat.
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. It is home to Gharial.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Gharial is a critically endangered species.
62. Consider the following statements regarding Which of the statement given above are correct?
UN Convention to Combat Desertification: (a) 1 and 2 only
Conference of Parties (UNCCD COP-14):
(b) 2 and 3 only
1. It was hosted by China.
(c) 1 and 3 only
2. The theme of the conference was ‘Restore
land, Sustain future’. (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only
Olive Ridley Turtles:
(b) 2 only 1. They are the smallest and most abundant of
(c) Both 1 and 2 all sea turtles found in the world.
2. This species is recognized as Vulnerable by
125 PTTS2020/CARC/500
the IUCN Red list. (d) 2 and 3 only
70. The Emissions Gap Report, 2019 was released
(a) 1 only
recently. Consider the following statements
(b) 2 only in this regard:
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. It is a flagship publication of UNEP released
annually.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. As per this report, India is the second largest
emitter of GHGs but is on track to achieve its
67. Consider the following statements: self-declared climate-targets.
1. Article 28 of the Paris Agreement allows 3. Transport sector is the largest emitter of GHGs
countries to leave the Paris Agreement and as per this report.
lays down the process for leaving.
2. A country can only give a notice for leaving
at least one year after the Paris Agreement (a) 1 only
came into force. (b) 1 and 2 only
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? (c) 2 and 3 only
RE
(a) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
the ‘Black Redstart (Phoenicurus ochruros)’:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. The species is found in Asia and Africa only.
2. It is listed as Vulnerable under IUCN Red List.
68. Which of the following statements about Feni
O 3. The bird sticks to Evergreen forest in India.
River is/are correct?
1. It is a trans-boundary river which originates in
correct?
Bangladesh and enters India before flowing
SC
into Bay of Bengal. (a) 1 only
2. Muhuri River is its right bank tributary. (b) 2 only
below: (d) None of the above
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 72. Consider the following statements with
GS
respect to the Wasteland Atlas-2019:

(c) Both 1 and 2
1. This is the 5th edition of Wasteland Atlas
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 released by Department of Land Resources.
2. It provides for both state and district wise
69. With reference to the recently published distribution of wastelands in the country.
Global Migration Report, consider the 3. As per this report, there has been an increase
following statements: in wasteland area as compared to 2008-09
1. The report is published by International levels.
Organization for Migration (IOM). Which of the above statements are correct?
2. As per the report, India is the largest country (a) 1 and 2 only
of origin of international migrants.
(b) 2 and 3 only
3. China is the leading recipient of remittances
followed by India. (c) 1 and 3 only
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only
73. With reference to the Green Climate Fund
(b) 1 and 2 only (GCF), consider the following statements:
(c) 3 only 1. It supports climate change adaptation and
PTTS2020/CARC/500 126
mitigation projects in developed countries. (a) Chhattisgarh
2. It is the only stand-alone multilateral (b) Jharkhand
financing entity whose sole mandate is to
serve UNFCCC. (c) Bihar
3. NABARD is the first entity from India to be (d) Andhra Pradesh
accredited as Direct Access Entity to GCF.
Which of the above statements are correct? 77. Match the following:
(a) 1 and 2 only List I List II
(b) 1 and 3 only 1. Palmyra (a) Lebanon
(c) 2 and 3 only 2. Mosul (b) Iraq
(d) 1, 2 and 3 3. Beirut (c) Syria
4. Sena (d) Yemen
74. Consider the following statements regarding Select the correct answer using the codes given
the e-flow norms for river Ganga: below:
1. The e-flows are the acceptable flow regimes (a) 1-c,2-b,3-a,4-d
that are required to maintain a river in the
RE
desired environmental state. (b) 1-b,2-a,3-d,4-c
2. These norms are applicable for the entire (c) 1-a,2-d,3-c,4-b
stretch of river Ganga in India.
(d) 1-d,2-a,3-c,4-b
3. The compliance of minimum environmental
flow is applicable to all existing, under-
construction and future projects on river 78. Which of the following statements is/are
Ganga.
O correct regarding Danakil Depression?
4. National Mission for Clean Ganga is 1. Mount Ayalu is situated at the northern end
responsible for supervision, monitoring, of the Danakil Depression.
regulation of flows.
2. The Danakil Depression is the northern part
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? of the Afar Triangle.
SC
(a) 1 and 2 only 3. It has resulted from the divergence of three
tectonic plates in the Horn of Africa.
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 only
below:
(d) 3 and 4 only
(a) 1 only
75. Which of the following statements is/are (b) 1 and 2 only

GS
correct with regard to Sujalam Sufalam Jal (c) 2 and 3 only

Sanchay Abhiyan?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Maharashtra has launched the second edition
of the water conservation scheme Sujalam
Sufalam Jal Sanchay Abhiyan. 79. With reference to Fall Armyworm, consider
the following statements:
2. The scheme involves cleaning and desilting of
riverfronts. 1. It is an insect indigenous to the tropical and
subtropical region of America.
below: 2. It feeds on the roots of the important
cultivated crops and grasses.
(a) 1 only
3. Maize, Rice and Sugarcane are major crops
(b) 2 only affected by this worm.
(c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the above statements are correct?
(b) 2 and 3 only
76. The existence of ‘Magadha Burrowing Frog’
has been confirmed in which of the following (c) 1 and 3 only
states of India? (d) 1, 2 and 3
127 PTTS2020/CARC/500
80. Consider the following statements regarding 2. They differ from ordinary grasshoppers in their
Drake Passage: ability to change behaviour and form swarms
that can migrate over large distances.
1. The Passage is located between Cape Horn
at the tip of South America and the Antarctic Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Peninsula.
(a) 1 only
2. Last year, an all-woman Indian Navy team on
Indian Naval Sailing Vessel (INSV) Tarini had (b) 2 only
failed to cross the Passage. (c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 84. In a positive development, India has added
10 more wetlands to sites protected by the
(c) Both 1 and 2 Ramsar Convention. With reference to the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 above statement, consider the following
statements:
81. Consider the following statements regarding 1. The Ramsar Convention is an international
annular solar eclipse: treaty for the conservation and wise use of
RE
wetlands.
1. In this type of eclipse, the moon looks like a
“dark disk on top of a larger sun-colored disk” 2. In India, 42 sites have been recognised under
forming a “ring of fire”. the international treaty.
2. It happens when the moon is closest to the 3. Keoladeo National Park is indexed in the
Earth. Montreux Record.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 4. The convention entered into force in India in
O 1996.
(a) 1 only
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
(b) 2 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
SC
(b) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 2 and 4 only
82. Consider the following statements: (d) None of these

1. National Disaster Management Authority is
the Apex Body for Disaster Management in 85. Chinese Paddlefish has been recently declared
India. extinct. In this context consider the following
statements:
GS
2. The National Institute of Disaster Management

(NIDM) is under the Ministry of Home 1. It was one of the largest freshwater fish.
Affairs.
2. IUCN classifies it as Critically Endangered.
3. The Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk
Reduction 2015-2030 is a global agreement
to reduce and prevent disaster risks across (a) 1 only
the globe.
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only 86. Consider the following statements regarding
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Asia Pacific Drosophila Research Conference
(APDRC):
1. It is a biennial conference that promotes
interaction of Drosophila researchers.
Locust Invasion in Gujarat:
2. Drosophila is the most widely used organism
1. The locusts in Gujarat have migrated all the
for biological research as its genome is
way from Sudan and Eritrea.
entirely sequenced.
PTTS2020/CARC/500 128
3. India recently organized the conference for 90. Consider the following statements:
the first time. 1. India recently organized the first International
Which of the above statements are correct? Symposium on Marine Ecosystems.
2. Marine Biological Association of India aims to
(a) 1 and 2 only promote research on marine sciences in the
(b) 1 and 3 only Asia-Pacific region.
(c) 2 and 3 only Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only
87. Consider the following statements: (c) Both 1 and 2
1. Extraocular vision is the ability to see without (d) Neither 1 nor 2
eyes.
2. The Red Brittle Star is the only species known 91. The Supreme Court recently directed Delhi
to have this ability. government to install smog towers in India.
Consider the following statements in this
Which of the above statements is/are correct? regard:
(a) 1 only 1. These smog towers will only focus on reducing
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the particulate matter load in the air.
(b) 2 only
2. Smog towers are large-scale air-purifiers
(c) Both 1 and 2 consisting of carbon nanofibres used as a
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 major component in the filters.
88. With reference to India Climate Report, 2019 (a) 1 only
1. The report has been published by Indian
Institute of Tropical Metrology.
O (b)
(c)
(d)
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
2. As per the report, the country witnessed
SC
excess rainfall during both northeast and
southwest monsoon. 92. ‘International Maritime Organization (IMO)
recently notified new rules for ships in the
Which of the above statement is/are correct? Arctic region. In this regard, consider the
(a) 1 only following statements:
1. IMO has banned ships from using fuels with
(b) 2 only sulphur content above 0.5 percent.
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. Very low sulphur fuel oil (VLSFO) with 0.5%
sulphur content contributes to highly polluting
GS
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

black carbon emissions in the environment.
3. IMO measures cover all aspects of international
89. Consider the following statements regarding shipping.
Miyawaki method, seen in news recently:
1. It is Japanese method of afforestation which
(a) 2 only
can turn backyards into mini-forests.
(b) 1 and 3 only
2. In this method, the saplings need minimum
maintenance and are free of chemicals and (c) 3 only
fertilizers. (d) None of the above
3. The forests grown with method match an old-
growth forest’s complex ecosystem. 93. Which of the following are the advantages
Which of the above statements are correct? of Polycrack technology for waste-to-energy
conversion?
(a) 1 and 2 only
1. It can be fed with all types of plastic
(b) 1 and 3 only 2. No need for pre-segregation of wastes
(c) 2 and 3 only 3. High moisture tolerance and no need to dry
wastes
(d) 1, 2 and 3
4. No affect on the air quality of surrounding
area
129 PTTS2020/CARC/500
Select the correct answer using the code given 2. The Secretariat is located in the United Nations
below: Office for the Coordination of Humanitarian
Affairs (OCHA).
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(a) 1 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) Both 1 and 2
94. Which of the following island nations form (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the “Vanilla Islands” grouping?
1. Madagascar 98. Consider the following statements:
2. Maldives 1. Bajra is the principal crop in the Cauvery
Delta.
3. Mauritius
2. The river Cauvery is the fourth largest river
4. Chagos Archipelago of the southern region and flows from North
5. Kerguelen Islands West to the south-east.
6. Mayotte 3. Tamil Nadu is heavily dependent on monsoon
rains and thereby is prone to droughts when
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the monsoons fail.
below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 3 and 6 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 4, 5 and 6 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
2, 3 and 5 only
(d)
O (d) 1, 2 and 3
95. With reference to Disaster Management Act
of 2005, consider the following statements: 99. Consider the following statements regarding
Kawal Tiger Reserve:
1. The Act mandated the creation of the National
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and state Disaster Management Authority 1. It is located in Andhra Pradesh.
only. 2. It is covered with evergreen forest.
2. The main drawback of the present policy is it 3. The reserve is a catchment area for the rivers
neglects long-term recovery. Godavari and Kadam.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Which of the above statement(s) are correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
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(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
96. ‘Mount Merapi’ which was seen recently in 100. Which of the following countries are part
news is located in which of the following of the South Asia Corporative Environment
country? Programme (SACEP)?
(a) Indonesia 1. India
(b) Mexico 2. Pakistan
(c) Ethiopia 3. Bangladesh

4. Maldives
(d) Ecuador
below:
the International Search and Rescue Advisory (a) 1 and 4 only
Group (INSARAG): (b) 2 and 3 only
1. It is a network of disaster-prone and disaster- (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
responding countries and organizations
dedicated to urban search and rescue. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
PTTS2020/CARC/500 130
GENERAL STUDIES
CURRENT AFFAIRS
ENVIRONMENT
+ GEOGRAPHY
Answer Key
Q. 1 (b) Q. 21 (a) Q. 41 (b) Q. 61 (c) Q. 81 (a)

Q. 2 (a) Q. 22 (c) Q. 42 (c) Q. 62 (b) Q. 82 (d)
Q. 3 (b) Q. 23 (b) Q. 43 (a) Q. 63 (d) Q. 83 (c)
Q. 4 (c) Q. 24 (b) Q. 44 (c) Q. 64 (d) Q. 84 (c)
Q. 5 (b) Q. 25 (c) Q. 45 (c) Q. 65 (b) Q. 85 (c)
Q. 6 (b) Q. 26 (b) Q. 46 (a) Q. 66 (c) Q. 86 (d)
Q. 7 (b) Q. 27 (b) Q. 47 (d) Q. 67 (b) Q. 87 (a)
Q. 8 (a) Q. 28 (a) Q. 48 (a) Q. 68 (b) Q. 88 (b)
Q. 9 (a) Q. 29 (b) Q. 49 (b) Q. 69 (c) Q. 89 (a)
Q. 10 (d) Q. 30 (c) Q. 50 (a) Q. 70 (c) Q. 90 (b)
Q. 11 (c) Q. 31 (d) Q. 51 (c) Q. 71 (d) Q. 91 (c)
Q. 12 (b) Q. 32 (c) Q. 52 (c) Q. 72 (a) Q. 92 (d)
Q. 13 (a) Q. 33 (a) Q. 53 (b) Q. 73 (c) Q. 93 (d)
Q. 14 (c) Q. 34 (a) Q. 54 (a) Q. 74 (b) Q. 94 (b)
Q. 15 (d) Q. 35 (c) Q. 55 (b) Q. 75 (b) Q. 95 (b)
Q. 16 (d) Q. 36 (d) Q. 56 (c) Q. 76 (b) Q. 96 (a)
Q. 17 (d) Q. 37 (a) Q. 57 (c) Q. 77 (a) Q. 97 (c)
Q. 18 (b) Q. 38 (a) Q. 58 (a) Q. 78 (c) Q. 98 (b)
Q. 19 (d) Q. 39 (a) Q. 59 (c) Q. 79 (c) Q. 99 (c)
Q. 20 (b) Q. 40 (b) Q. 60 (b) Q. 80 (a) Q. 100 (d)
131 PTTS2020/CARC/500
1. Correct Option: (b) where it is most required: apart from Haryana,
Goa, and Telangana none of the other low-
Explanation: performing states from FY 15-16 have
Statement 1 is incorrect: It has been launched advanced beyond the 50-point mark in the
by Niti Aayog. last three years.
Supplementary notes: The low-performing states bear the largest

burden of national population and economic
Composite Water Management Index (WMI) production: The 16 low-performing states
NITI Aayog first launched and conceptualized collectively account for ~48% of the
the Composite Water Management Index in population, ~40% of agricultural produce, and
2018 as a tool to instill a sense of cooperative ~35% of economic output for India.
and competitive federalism among the states.
It is an attempt to create a pan-India set of
metrics that measured different dimensions
of water management and use across the Explanation:
lifecycle of water.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Madhya Pradesh has
The report provided actionable guidance to the highest number of tigers (526), closely
States on where they were doing well absolutely followed by Karnataka at 524 with Uttarakhand
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and relatively and what they needed to focus at number 3 with 442 tigers.
on to secure their water future.
The CWMI is an important tool to assess and
improve the performance of States/ Union 4th cycle of All India Tiger Estimation
Territories’ inefficient management of water
The fourth cycle of All India Tiger
resources.
Estimation - 2018, shows the count of
This has been done through a first of its kind tigers in India has risen to 2967 in 2018.

O
water data collection exercise in partnership (All India Tiger Estimation is done every
with Ministry of Jal Shakti, Ministry of 4 years by National Tiger Conservation
Rural Development and all the States/ Authority (NTCA) and the Wildlife Institute
Union Territories. The index provides useful of India in collaboration with States’ Forest
SC
information for the States and also for the department in 18 tiger reign states with 50
concerned Central Ministries/Departments tiger reserves).
enabling them to formulate and implement
suitable strategies for better management of The 33% rise in tiger numbers is the highest
water resources. ever recorded between cycles which stood at
21% from 2006 to 2010 and 30% from 2010
Key Findings and 2014.
States and Union Territories (UTs) have been The rise in tiger numbers was in conformity
GS
scored on the Index which comprises nine with the average annual growth rate of tigers
themes, and a total of 28 indicators across since, 2006.
themes, and have been divided into three
categories: non-Himalayan states, North- Madhya Pradesh has the highest number of
Eastern and Himalayan states, and Union tigers at 526, closely followed by Karnataka
Territories (UTs). at 524 with Uttarakhand at number 3 with
442 tigers.
A majority of Indian states are demonstrating
progress on the Water Index : 80% of the All the states witnessed a positive trend
states (19 out of 24)have shown improvement except Chhattisgarh and Mizoram which saw
in their water management scores over the last a decline in tiger numbers.
three years. 13 non-Himalayan states and 6
Viewed at the landscape level, all 5 landscapes
North-Eastern and Himalayan states improved
showed an increase with the Central Indian
their water management scores between FY
landscape recording the highest increment.
15-16 and FY 17-18.
During the 4th cycle of estimation, data
High-performing states continue to lead on
was collected using an Android based
the Index: High-performing states retained
their top spots in Index rankings, and the application- M-STRIPES (Monitoring
ranks of other states largely remained the system for Tigers’ Intensive Protection and
same as well. Ecological Status); developed by Wildlife
Institute of India and analyzed on the
Improvement is also insufficient in states applications’ desktop module.
PTTS2020/CARC/500 132
Along with this, 4th cycle of the Management include habitat loss and alteration as a
Effectiveness Evaluation of Tiger Reserves result of widespread agricultural expansion
(MEETR) with Pench Tiger Reserve, and mechanized farming, infrastructural
Madhya Pradesh scoring the highest and development such as irrigation, roads, electric
Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve, Tamil Nadu poles, as well as mining and industrialization.
showed the highest increment in management
since the last cycle for which the latter was
awarded. 4. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
3. Correct Option: (b) Both statements are correct
Statement 1 is incorrect: It is listed as Ocean Energy
Critically Endangered in IUCN Red List.
The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
Statement 3 is incorrect: Project Godawan was has declared Ocean Energy as renewable
launched by Rajasthan to conserve the Great energy.
Indian Bustard.
The energy produced using various forms
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of ocean energy such as tidal, wave, ocean
thermal energy conversion among others
Great Indian Bustard
shall be considered as renewable energy and
Great Indian Bustard is a bustard found in shall be eligible for meeting the non-solar
Indian-Subcontinent. Renewable Purchase Obligations (RPO).
Historically, it was distributed through Western According to MNRE, as of date there is no
India spanning 11 states as well as parts of installed ocean energy capacity in India.
Pakistan.

north-west and the Deccan plateau of the
O
Its stronghold was once the Thar Desert in
peninsula but today its population is confined

According to MNRE, the total identified
potential of tidal energy is about 12,455
MW, with potential locations identified
at Khambat & Kutch regions, and large
mostly to Rajasthan and Gujarat with small
SC
backwaters, where barrage technology
numbers in Maharashtra, Karnataka and could be used.
Andhra Pradesh.
The total theoretical potential of wave energy
They generally favor flat open landscapes in India along the country’s coast is estimated
with minimal visual obstruction and to be about 40,000 MW – these are preliminary
disturbance, therefore adapt well in estimates.
grasslands. (Considered flagship grassland
species representing the health of grassland This energy is however less intensive than what
is available in more northern and southern
GS
ecology)
latitudes.
It is listed in Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife
(Protection) Act, 1972, in the CMS Convention Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC) has
and in Appendix I of CITES, as Critically a theoretical potential of 180,000 MW in India
Endangered on the IUCN Red List and the subject to suitable technological evolution.
National Wildlife Action Plan (2002-2016). It Technology: Although currently under-
has also been identified as one of the species utilized, Ocean energy is mostly exploited
for the recovery programme under the by just a few technologies: Wave, Tidal,
Integrated Development of Wildlife Habitats Current Energy and Ocean Thermal Energy.
of the Ministry of Environment and Forests,
Government of India.
It is also the state bird of Rajasthan which
has started “Project Godawan” for its Explanation:
conservation.
Option is correct: Jeevamrutha is a mixture of
The biggest threat to this species is hunting, fresh desi cow dung and aged desi cow urine,
which is still prevalent in Pakistan. This is jaggery, pulse flour, water and soil. It is used in
followed by occasional poaching outside Zero budget natural farming (ZBNF).
Protected Areas, collisions with high tension
electric wires, fast moving vehicles and Supplementary notes:
free-ranging dogs in villages. Other threats
133 PTTS2020/CARC/500
Zero Budget Natural Farming
Mahanadi (Manib- Odisha, Andhra
Zero budget natural farming (ZBNF) is a hadra) - Godavari Maharash- Pradesh&
method of chemical-free agriculture drawing (Dowlaiswaram) tra, AP, Odisha
from traditional Indian practices. link Karnataka,
Chattisgarh&
It was originally promoted by Maharashtrian Telangana
agriculturist and Padma Shri recipient Subhash
Odisha, Telangana
Palekar, who developed it in the mid-1990s
Godavari (Incham- Maharash- and Andhra
as an alternative to the Green Revolution’s palli) - Krishna tra, AP, Pradesh
methods driven by chemical fertilizers and (Pulichintala) link Karnataka,
pesticides and intensive irrigation. Chattisgarh&
Telangana
It promotes the application of jeevamrutha
— a mixture of fresh desi cow dung and
aged desi cow urine, jaggery, pulse flour, 7. Correct Option: (b)
water and soil — on farmland.
Explanation:
It is a fermented microbial culture that adds
Statement 2 is incorrect: It is being built
nutrients to the soil, and acts as a catalytic agent
across the Godavari River in Kaleshwaram,
to promote the activity of microorganisms and
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Bhoopalpally, Telangana, India.
earthworms in the soil.
It also promotes soil aeration, minimal
watering, intercropping, bunds and topsoil Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation (KLIP) Project
mulching and discourages intensive irrigation It will be world’s largest multi-stage,
and deep ploughing. multipurpose lift irrigation (Earlier the
A similar mixture, called bijamrita, is used to Colorado lift scheme in America and the Great
treat seeds, while concoctions using neem
O Manmade River in Egypt were the largest).
leaves and pulp, tobacco and green chillis are It is being built across the Godavari River
prepared for insect and pest management. in Kaleshwaram, Bhoopalpally, Telangana,
India.
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6. Correct Option: (b) Lift irrigation
Explanation: Lift irrigation is a method of irrigation in

which water instead of being transported by
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Ken-Betwa - natural flow (as in gravity-fed canal systems)
Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh requires external energy through animal, fuel
based or electric power using pumps or other
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Par-Tapi-
mechanical means.
Narmada – Maharashtra, and Gujarat
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The advantage of lift irrigation is the

Supplementary notes: minimal land acquisition problem and low-
water losses.
River- Linking Projects
Project States Con- States Ben-
cerned efitted 8. Correct Option: (a)
Ken-Betwa Link Uttar Pradesh Uttar Explanation:
& Madhya Pradesh & Statement 2 is incorrect: It discourages
Pradesh Madhya intensive irrigation and deep ploughing.
Pradesh
Kosi-Mechi Link Bihar, West Bihar
Bengal & Zero Budget Natural Farming
Nepal
Zero budget natural farming (ZBNF) is a
Par-Tapi-Narma- Maharashtra Maharas- method of chemical-free agriculture based
da link & Gujarat htra & on traditional Indian practices.
Gujarat
It was originally promoted by Maharashtrian
agriculturist and Padma Shri recipient Subhash
Palekar, who developed it in the mid-1990s
as an alternative to the Green Revolution’s
methods driven by chemical fertilizers and
PTTS2020/CARC/500 134
pesticides and intensive irrigation. Explanation:
It promotes the application of jeevamrutha All statements are correct
— a mixture of fresh desi cow dung and aged
desi cow urine, jaggery, pulse flour, water and Supplementary notes:
soil — on farmland. Earth Overshoot Day
This is a fermented microbial culture that adds It marks the date when humanity’s
nutrients to the soil, and acts as a catalytic agent demand for ecological resources and
to promote the activity of microorganisms and services in a given year exceeds what Earth
earthworms in the soil. can regenerate in that year. This deficit is
maintained by liquidating stocks of ecological
It also promotes soil aeration, minimal watering,
resources and accumulating waste, primarily
intercropping, bunds and topsoil mulching
carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
and discourages intensive irrigation and
deep ploughing. It is hosted and calculated by Global
Footprint Network, an international research
A similar mixture, called bijamrita, is used to organization that provides decision-makers
treat seeds, while concoctions using neem with a menu of tools to help the human
leaves and pulp, tobacco and green chillis are economy operate within Earth’s ecological
prepared for insect and pest management. limits.
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(Planet’s Biocapacity / Humanity’s Ecologi-
9. Correct Option: (a) cal Footprint) x 365 = Earth Overshoot Day;
Explanation: Planet’s Bio-Capacity = amount of Ecological Re-
sources earth is able to generate that year
Statement 1 is incorrect: Ozone is a secondary
pollutant and is not directly emitted from Human Ecological Footprint = humanity’s demand
any source. for that year
The concept of Earth Overshoot Day was
Ozone pollution
Ozone is not directly emitted from any
O
first conceived by Andrew Simms of the UK
think tank New Economics Foundation, which
partnered with Global Footprint Network in
2006 to launch the first global Earth Overshoot
source. It is a secondary pollutant which Day campaign.
SC
gets formed when emissions from vehicles,
industry or power plants — nitrogen oxide At that time, Earth Overshoot Day fell in
and volatile organic compounds — react in October.
the air under the influence of sunlight and WWF (World Wide Fund for Nature), the
temperature. world’s largest conservation organization,
Recently, Delhi recorded an ozone pollution has participated in Earth Overshoot Day
which is 1.22 times higher than the eight-hour since 2007.
average standard for ozone exposure that is This year the Earth Overshoot Day fell on July
GS

100 ug/cu m. 29. This means that by July 29th, we used up
It causes irritation to skin and has negative all the regenerative resources of 2019 and
impact on the respiratory system leading to from July 30 we started to consume more
higher rates of pulmonary disease. resources than the planet can regenerate
in a year.
When sufficient ozone enters the leaves of a
A country’s overshoot day is the date on
sensitive plant, it can reduce photosynthesis
which Earth Overshoot Day would fall if all
and slow the plant growth.
of humanity consumed like the people in
Ground level ozone can damage ecosystems this country.
and contribute to degradation of forests and
their important services. Example: provision
of clean air and groundwater, timber for 11. Correct Option: (c)
construction and energy, protection against Explanation:
natural hazards and of biodiversity.
Option is correct: The correct order is
Gothenburg Protocol aims to Abate
Acidification, Eutrophication and Ground- 4. Kerala
level Ozone and is part of the Convention on 2. West Bengal
Long-Range Transboundary Air Pollution.
3. Sikkim
1. Arunachal Pradesh
135 PTTS2020/CARC/500
Supplementary notes: It was signed on March 3, 1973 (Hence world
wildlife day is celebrated on March 3).
Orchids of India
It is administered by the United Nations
The Botanical Survey of India has come up Environment Programme (UNEP).
with the first comprehensive census of orchids
of India putting the total number of orchid Secretariat — Geneva (Switzerland).
species or taxa to 1,256. CITES is legally binding on state parties to the
It is a Pictorial Guide, a publication detailing convention, which is obliged to adopt their
all the species of India by the Ministry of own domestic legislation to implement its
Environment, Forest and Climate Change. goals.
The 1,256 species or taxa of orchids belong It is also known as Washington Convention
to 155 genera and 388 species are endemic
It classifies plants and animals according to
to India.
three categories, or appendices, based on
State-wise distribution of orchid species points how threatened. They are:
out that the Himalayas, North-East parts of the
Appendix I: It lists species that are in danger
country and Western Ghats are the hot-spots
of extinction. It prohibits commercial trade
of the beautiful plant species.
of these plants and animals except in
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State-wise distribution extraordinary situations for scientific or
educational reasons.
The highest number of orchid species
is recorded from Arunachal Pradesh Appendix II species: They are those that
with 612 species followed by Sikkim are not threatened with extinction but that
560 species and West Bengal; Darjeeling might suffer a serious decline in number
Himalayas have also high species if the trade is not restricted. Their trade is
concentration, with 479 species. regulated by permit.

O
While north-east India rank at the top in Appendix III species: They are protected
species concentration, the Western Ghats in at least one country that is a CITES
have high endemism of orchids. member states and that has petitioned
others for help in controlling international
There are 388 species of orchids, which
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trade in that species.
are endemic to India of which about one-
third (128) endemic species are found in
Western Ghats. 13. Correct Option:
Kerala has 111 of these endemic species Explanation:
while Tamil Nadu has 92 of them. Among
the 10 bio geographic zones of India, the Statement 3 is incorrect: Spain has
Himalayan zone is the richest in terms of highest number of beaches under Blue Flag
GS
orchid species followed by Northeast, certification.

Western Ghats, Deccan plateau and
Andaman & Nicobar Islands.
Blue Flag Programme
12. Correct Option: The Blue Flag Programme for beaches and
marinas is run by the international, non-
Explanation: governmental, non-profit organisation
Option is correct: Washington Convention is FEE (the Foundation for Environmental
related to Wildlife Protection. Education).
Supplementary notes: It started in France in 1985 and has been

implemented in Europe since 1987, and in
Convention on International Trade in areas outside Europe since 2001, when South
Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Africa joined.
Flora (CITES)
Japan and South Korea are the only countries
It is an international agreement to regulate in South and southeastern Asia to have Blue
worldwide commercial trade in wild animal Flag beaches.
and plant species. It also restricts trade in
items made from plants and animals, such as Spain tops the list with 566 such beaches;
food, clothing, medicine, and souvenirs Greece and France follow with 515 and 395,
respectively.
PTTS2020/CARC/500 136
Criteria 15. Correct Option: (d)
There are nearly 33 criteria that must be met Explanation:
to qualify for a Blue Flag certification, such as
the water meeting certain quality standards, All statements are correct
having waste disposal facilities, being Supplementary notes:
disabled- friendly, have first aid equipment,
and no access to pets in the main areas of the Gogabeel
beach. Some criteria are voluntary and some Gogabeel, an ox-bow lake in Bihar’s Katihar
compulsory. district, has been declared as the state’s first
If approved, beaches are given the ‘Community Reserve’.
qualification for a year and must apply The water body was notified as a 57 hectare
annually to continue meriting the right to Community Reserve and a 30-hectare
fly the flag at their locations. ‘Conservation Reserve’ by the department
of environment, forest and climate change,
Bihar.
It is formed from the flow of the rivers
Explanation: Mahananda and Kankhar in the north and
Both statements are correct the Ganga in the south and east. It is the
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fifteenth Protected Area (PA) in Bihar.
It was initially notified as a ‘Closed Area’ by
CITES (Convention on International Trade in the state government in the year 1990 for five
Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora) years.
CITES (the Convention on International This status was extended in 1995, up to

Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna 2000. After the amendment of the Wild Life
and Flora) is an international agreement (Protection) Act, 1972, in 2002, the provision
that international trade in specimens of

O
between governments. Its aim is to ensure
wild animals and plants does not threaten

of ‘Closed Area’ was omitted and this site
disappeared from the list of the Bihar
government’s PAs, having no legal status.
their survival. In 2004, Gogabeel, including the neighboring
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Baghar Beel and Baldia Chaur, were given the
National laws for implementing CITES is critical
status of an IBA (Important Bird Area of India)
to ensure that trade in protected species is
by the Indian Bird Conservation Network
legal, sustainable and traceable.
(IBCN).
The legislation empowers government officials
to act, regulates human behaviour and
articulates policy in relation to conservation 16. Correct Option: (d)
and trade in wildlife. Explanation:
GS
Although CITES is legally binding on States Option is correct

it is generally not self-executing. This
means that it cannot be fully implemented Supplementary notes:
until specific domestic measures have been Anti-smog guns
adopted for that purpose.
Recently Anti-smog guns installed at 14 large
It is therefore absolutely essential that CITES project sites in Delhi.
Parties have legislation in place allowing them
to implement and enforce all aspects of the It sprays nebulised water droplets into the air
Convention. through high-pressure propellers to curb dust
pollution.
Only through adequate legislation and its
enforcement, CITES can really work, both at This anti-smog gun works perfectly on-air
the borders and within countries Adequate pollution. It visibly removes and settles down
national legislation is key to effective wildlife dust particles within minutes.
trade controls by the State agencies charged This machine can shower water sprays up to
with implementing and enforcing the 100 metres.
Convention.
The machine can be controlled by a remote.
It is also a vital prerequisite for ensuring that But it requires a water tanker attached to it all
a State Party complies with the provisions of the time as a thousand-litre tanker is utilized
the Convention. completely in two hours of a continuous run
137 PTTS2020/CARC/500
17. Correct Option: (d) is now the world’s southernmost city.

Statement 1 is incorrect: It is the country’s Puerto Williams
second major river interlinking project. Puerto Williams has been upgraded to the
Statement 2 is incorrect: Mechi is an category of “city” by Chilean authorities,
important tributary of Mahananda River making it the world’s southernmost city.
Earlier Ushuaia, in Argentina was the
southernmost city.
Koshi-Mechi River Linking Project
The Centre has approved a project worth 20. Correct Option: (b)
Rs 4,900-crore Kosi- Mechi river interlining
project, providing a major lease of life to Explanation:
Bihar’s Seemanchal region. Statement 1 is incorrect: It is a highly potent
medicinal plant endemic to the Agasthya
It is the country’s second major river
hills.
interlinking project after Ken-Betwa of
Madhya Pradesh. Supplementary notes:
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This project is unique in many ways. It will Arogyapacha Plant
not only relieve large swathes of north Bihar
from the menace of recurring floods but also It is a highly potent medicinal plant endemic
provide irrigation for over 2.14 lakh hectares to the Agasthya hills.
of command areas spread across the districts This ‘miracle plant’ is known for its
of Araria, Kishanganj, Purnia and Katihar in traditional use by the Kani tribal community
North Bihar. to combat fatigue.

O
This interlinking project envisages diversion Studies have proved its varied spectrum of
of part of surplus water of Kosi river through pharmacological properties such as anti-
existing Hanuman Nagar barrage to the oxidant, aphrodisiac, anti-microbial, anti-
Mahananda basin. inflammatory, immunomodulatory, anti-
SC
Mechi is an important tributary of tumour, anti-ulcer, anti-hyperlipidemic,
Mahananda River. Its basin however remains hepatoprotective and anti-diabetic.
mostly deficient in providing adequate water
for irrigation 21. Correct Option:
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Sargasso seaweed
GS
Explanation: algae belt is increasingly growing in Sargosso

Sea.
Option is correct: Gujarat has launched
world’s first emissions trading scheme for Supplementary notes:
particulate pollution.
Sargasso Sea
Recently, it was found that Sargasso seaweed
Emissions Trading System algae belt is increasingly growing in
Sargosso Sea.
Recently, Gujarat has launched the world’s
first emissions trading scheme for particulate Seaweed can be a boon for marine wildlife,
pollution in Surat city on World Environment providing habitat for creatures including fish
Day 2019. and birds. At the same time, thick mats can
block sunlight, while if large mats die and sink
Under the programme, the government sets a
it can prove deadly for marine life, including
cap on emissions and allows industries to buy
coral.
and sell permits to stay below the cap.
The Sargasso Sea lies within the Northern
Atlantic Subtropical Gyre. While all other
19. Correct Option: (d) seas in the world are defined at least in part by
land boundaries, the Sargasso Sea is defined
Explanation:
only by ocean currents.
Option is correct: Puerto Williams of Chile
PTTS2020/CARC/500 138
The Sargasso Sea is a spawning site for unique shape and ornamentation, orchids
threatened and endangered eels, as well as have complex floral structure that facilitates
white marlin, porbeagle shark, and dolphinfish. biotic cross-pollination and makes them
Humpback whales annually migrate through evolutionarily superior to the other plant
the Sargasso Sea. groups.
The entire orchid family is listed under appendix
22. Correct Option: (c) II of CITES (Convention on International Trade
in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and
Explanation: Flora) and hence any trade of wild orchid is
Both statements are correct: banned globally.
Supplementary notes: Some of the orchids like Dendrobium ,

Phalaenopsis, Oncidium and Cymbidium are
Orchids of India quite popular in floriculture trade and have a
demand both within and outside country
The Botanical Survey of India has come up
with the first comprehensive census of orchids
of India putting the total number of orchid 23. Correct Option: (b)
species or taxa to 1,256.
Traditional Solution:
Orchids of India: It is a pictorial Guide, a
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publication detailing all the species of India. It Statement 1 is incorrect: It is endemic
was unveiled by the Ministry of Environment, to Espanola Island (off the coast of South
Forest and Climate Change. America).
The 1,256 species or taxa of orchids belong Supplementary notes:
to 155 genera and 388 species are endemic
to India. Diego Tortoise
Three life forms A breeding program for the Galápagos’

life forms:
O
Orchids can be broadly categorised into three

Española tortoises has ended after more than
40 years. Española Island is now home to a
stable population of 2,000 Española tortoises,
Epiphytic (plants growing on another recovered from only 12 females and three
SC
plants including those growing on rock males in 1976.
boulders and often termed lithophyte), Genetic testing of the young tortoises living
Terrestrial (plants growing on land and on Española Island, which has been done
climbers) regularly since the 1990s, revealed that Diego
fathered about 40 percent of them. Another
Mycoheterotrophic (plants which derive
tortoise, called E5, is responsible for the other
nutrients from mycorrhizal fungi that are
60 percent. The third male, E3, has produced
attached to the roots of a vascular plant).
very few offspring.
GS
The epiphytic orchids are abundant up to 1800

A member of the Chelonoidis hoodensis, or
m above the sea level and their occurrence
the giant tortoise species, Diego has spent
decreases with the increase in altitude.
much of his long life — he is 100 years old —
Terrestrial orchids grow directly on soil in saving his kind. His phenomenal sex drive
.They are found in large numbers in ensured he produced enough progeny to
temperate and alpine region whereas secure the future of his species.
mycoheterotrophic orchids, mostly
associated with ectomycorrhizal fungi, are Tortoises on the Galápagos Islands served as
found in temperate regions, or are found an excellent source of food for seafarers in the
growing with parasites in tropical regions. 1800s. They could survive inside ships for up
to a year, and so a large number were picked
About 60% of all orchids found in the country, up from the islands. Not all were eaten — they
which is 757 species, are epiphytic, 447 are would be cast off a ship when it needed to
terrestrial and 43 are mycoheterotrophic. lose ballast.
Considering the importance of orchids Feral goats on the islands posed another
in floriculture, the publication, which has danger, competing for food, destroying the
photographs of 60% of all species, is the first tortoises’ habitat.
authentic inventory and will be useful for
researchers, growers, nature lovers and people Chelonoidis Hoodensis
with different backgrounds.
Chelonoidis hoodensis or Espanola Giant
Marked by extremely beautiful flowers with Tortoise is a diurnal and terrestrial tortoise that
139 PTTS2020/CARC/500
inhabits deciduous forests, dry shrublands, The International Fund for Animal Welfare
and dry grasslands. is a global non-profit helping animals and
people thrive together.
They appear to be heat-sensitive year-round,
becoming inactive during the middle of the Experts and everyday people, working across
day and seeking shade to cool off. They feed seas, oceans and in more than 40 countries
on cacti, grass, flowers, and fruits. around the world.
They are endemic to Española Island in It rescue, rehabilitate and release animals,
Galápagos, Ecuador and are listed as and restore and protect their natural
Critically Endangered by IUCN. habitats.
Partner with local communities, governments,
24. Correct Option: (b) non-governmental organizations and
businesses.
Explanation:
Option is correct: Amrabad Tiger Reserve is 26. Correct Option: (b)
located in Telangana.
Explanation:
Option is correct: PM is the ex-officio head
RE
Amrabad Tiger Reserve of the NWBL.
Recently, Centre granted “in-principle”
clearance for uranium exploration in Amrabad
Tiger Reserve in Telangana. National Board for Wildlife
It is India’s second-largest tiger reserve, next National board for wildlife recently gave its
only to its sibling, the original Nagarjunasagar approval to Gulmarg defence project.
Srisailam Tiger Reserve.
O The proposed project in J&K includes
The area proposed for mining falls under the installation of air defence and weaponry along
Amrabad and Nudigal Reserved Forests of the with helipad construction. “Only radar system
‘core area’ of the tiger reserve. It has a good would be set up in the sanctuary area and all
diversity of forests and wildlife. other basic infrastructure will be outside the
SC
The area lies along a patch where the wildlife area”.
Nallavagu and Dindi rivers merge, forming a The National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) has
major tributary and catchment of the Krishna given its nod for an air defence and weaponry
river. The forest here is pristine. Some of the project in Jammu and Kashmir in which 1.18
areas have been given as pattas under the hectares of Gulmarg Wildlife Sanctuary land
Forest Rights Act. will be used. The project will also cover 12.35
The rich diversity of wildlife includes tiger, hectares of forest land outside Gulmarg
GS

leopard, dhole, wolf, Indian fox, jackal, honey Sanctuary.
badger, nilgai, sambar, chowsingha and sloth The proposal, recommended by the then
bear. There is also the endemic yellow-throated State Chief Wildlife Warden with 17 riders/
bulbul and the star tortoise. conditions, was cleared at a July 18 meeting of
The exploration will expose and pollute the standing committee of NBWL. The meeting
surface water, ground water and leech the was chaired by Minister for Environment,
minerals and dangerous chemicals into the Forest and Climate.
Nagarjunasagar dam. The roads will fragment
and degrade the dry forests, which may never 27. Correct Option: (b)
recover after such a massive exercise.
Explanation:
25. Correct Option: (c) Option is correct: The size of Hurricane
is mainly measured by the Saffir-Simpson
Explanation: scale.
Both statements are correct Supplementary notes:
Supplementary notes: Hurricane
International Fund for Animal Welfare A hurricane is a large rotating storm with high
(IFAW) speeds of wind that gust at least 74 mph that
PTTS2020/CARC/500 140
forms over warm waters in tropical areas. is essentially waiting for another external force
before it starts moving quickly again.
Hurricanes have three main parts, the calm
eye in the center, the eyewall where the winds
and rains are the strongest, and the rain bands 28. Correct Option: (a)
which spin out from the center and give the
storm its size Explanation:
In the southern hemisphere, hurricanes rotate Option is correct: It was the largest flying
in a clockwise direction, and in the northern animal which was a plane-sized reptile.
hemisphere they rotate in an anti-clockwise Supplementary notes:
direction. This is due to what’s called the
Coriolis Force, produced by the Earth’s Cryodrakon Boreas
rotation.
New species of pterosaur, the plane-sized
How are hurricanes formed? reptiles that lorded over primeval skies above
T-rex, Triceratops and other dinosaurs of the
Hurricanes begin as tropical disturbances in late Cretaceous.
warm ocean waters with surface temperatures
of at least 80 degrees Fahrenheit (26.5 degrees With a wingspan of 10 m and weighing 250 kg,
Celsius). Those low-pressure systems are fed Cryodrakon boreas rivals another pterosaur as
the largest flying animal of all time
RE
by energy from warm seas.
A storm with wind speeds of 38 miles (61 Its remains were first discovered more than 30
km) an hour or less is classified as a tropical years ago in Alberta, Canada, yet elicited scant
depression. It becomes a tropical storm—and excitement because of the misclassification.
is given a name, according to conventions Like other winged reptiles living at the same
determined by the World Meteorological time, about 77 million years ago, C. boreas
Organization—when its sustained wind speeds
O was carnivorous and probably fed on lizards,
top 39 miles (63 km) an hour. small mammals and even baby dinosaurs.
Hurricanes are enormous heat engines that Despite their large size and wide distribution
deliver energy on a staggering scale. They across North and South America, Asia,
draw heat from warm, moist ocean air and Africa and Europe only fragmentary remains
release it through condensation of water
SC
have been unearthed, making the new find
vapor in thunderstorms. especially important.
Hurricanes spin around a low-pressure center
known as the eye. Sinking air makes this 20- to 29. Correct Option: (b)
40-mile-wide (32- to 64-kilometer-wide) area
notoriously calm. But the eye is surrounded by Explanation:
a circular “eye wall” that contains the storm’s
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Bonn Challenge
strongest winds and rain.
is not a new global commitment but rather a
GS
Hurricane Dorian practical means of realizing many existing

international commitments, including the CBD
Dorian is estimated to be the second-most- Aichi Target 15.
powerful hurricane ever recorded in the
Atlantic Ocean and ties the record for the most- Supplementary notes:
powerful storm to make landfall, according to
the National Weather Service Bonn Challenge
The storm is not currently expected to make The Bonn Challenge is a global effort to bring
landfall in the US; it should instead stay 150 million hectares of the world’s deforested
uncomfortably close offshore. and degraded land into restoration by 2020,
and 350 million hectares by 2030.
The storm could bring several inches of rain or
more for parts of Florida and the Southeast. It was launched in 2011 by the Government
of Germany and IUCN, and later endorsed
The deadliest aspect of a hurricane tends to be and extended by the New York Declaration on
storm surge (flooding caused by seawater Forests at the 2014 UN Climate Summit.
pushed onshore by the hurricane’s winds).
Bonn Challenge is the forest landscape
Reason behind downgrading of Category restoration (FLR) approach, which aims to
of Dorian: Dorian has slowed down because restore ecological integrity at the same time
a high pressure ridge that was steering the as improving human well-being through
storm westward has weakened. Now, the storm multifunctional landscapes.
141 PTTS2020/CARC/500
The Bonn Challenge is not a new global 31. Correct Option: (d)
commitment but rather a practical means
of realizing many existing international Explanation:
commitments, including the CBD Aichi Statement 1 is incorrect: The “Ban
Target 15, the UNFCCC REDD+ goal, and Amendment” provides for the prohibition
the Rio+20 land degradation neutrality by Parties listed in Annex VII (members of
goal. OECD, EU, Liechtenstein) of all transboundary
movements of hazardous wastes including
electronic wastes and obsolete ships which
30. Correct Option: (c) are destined for final disposal operations from
OECD to non-OECD States.
Explanation:
Statement 2 is incorrect: India has not ratified
Statement 1 is incorrect: It has been
the Basel ban amendment.
proposed by India at the UN Climate Action
Summit 2019. Supplementary notes:
Statement 2 is incorrect: There is no Basel Convention
such mechanism of financial aid. It is only a
The Basel Convention on the Control of
knowledge-based platform.
Transboundary Movements of Hazardous
RE
Supplementary notes: Wastes and their Disposal was adopted
on 22 March 1989 by the Conference of
Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure Plenipotentiaries in Basel, Switzerland, in
(CDRI) response to a public outcry following the
discovery, in the 1980s, in Africa and other
Recently Prime Minister of India announced parts of the developing world of deposits of
a global Coalition for Disaster Resilient toxic wastes imported from abroad.
O
Infrastructure (CDRI), at the UN Climate Action
It does not address the movement of
Summit 2019.
radioactive waste.
Established as a platform for generating and
To implement and restrict the trade of
exchanging knowledge, CDRI will conduct
hazardous waste between more developed
SC
country-specific and global activities.
countries and less developed countries an
CDRI will provide member countries organization is formed which is known as
technical support and capacity development, Basel Action Network (BAN).
research and knowledge management, and
The provisions of the Convention center
advocacy and partnerships to facilitate and
around the following principal aims
encourage investment in disaster-resilient
infrastructure systems. The reduction of hazardous waste generation
and the promotion of environmentally sound
GS
CDRI will uphold the UN Agenda 2030 management of hazardous wastes, wherever
principle of leaving no one, no place, and the place of disposal.
no ecosystem behind, focusing on the
most vulnerable regions and populations, The restriction of transboundary movements of
while enabling inclusive and deliberative hazardous wastes except where it is perceived
to be in accordance with the principles of
processes that recognize national and local
environmentally sound management.
efforts as primal.
A regulatory system applying to cases where
CDRI envisions enabling a measurable
transboundary movements are permissible.
reduction in infrastructure losses from
disasters, including extreme climate events. The Basel Convention BAN Amendment
It thus aims to enable the achievement of The Ban Amendment was originally adopted
objectives of expanding universal access to as a decision of the second meeting of the
basic services and enabling prosperity as Conference of the Parties in March 1994.
enshrined in the Sustainable Development According to amendment, it was agreed that
Goals, while also working at the intersection such “Annex VII Parties” prohibit and phase out
of the Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk all transboundary movements of hazardous
Reduction and the Paris Climate Agreement. wastes destined for recovery or recycling
operations from OECD to non-OECD States by
31 December 1997.
PTTS2020/CARC/500 142
At COP-3 in 1995, Parties adopted the same Aim: To provide information on government
as a further amendment to the Convention services and authorities to public suo-moto in
known as the “Ban Amendment”. the true spirit of right to information.
The Ban Amendment had been stalled for all The portal will prevent anomalies and
these years till now due to uncertainty over corruption in government.
how to interpret the Convention.
A mobile app will be developed and self-
Ratification status of other major countries service portals will be installed in villages so
that people can access the Jan Soochna Portal
According to BAN the United States, the
easily and get the information they require.
world’s most wasteful country per-capita, has
not ratified the Basel Convention, nor the Ban
Amendment 34. Correct Option: (a)
Other developed countries like Canada, Japan, Explanation:
Australia, and New Zealand, likewise, have
e-waste export problems and they too have Option is correct: The theme for the World
so far refused to ratify the Ban Amendment. Ozone Day 2019: 32 Years and Healing
South Korea, Russia, India, Brazil, and Mexico Supplementary notes:
are yet to ratify the ban.
RE
Ozone Day
The theme for this year celebrates over
three decades of remarkable international
Explanation: cooperation to protect the ozone layer and
the climate under the Montreal Protocol.
The Montreal Protocol has led to the phase-out
Supplementary notes: of 99 per cent of ozone-depleting chemicals in
Uyghur Community

O
The Uyghurs are Turkic-speaking Muslims
refrigerators, air-conditioners and many other
products.
The latest Scientific Assessment of Ozone
from the Central Asian region.
Depletion shows that, parts of the ozone layer
SC
The largest population lives in China’s have recovered at a rate of 1-3% per decade
autonomous Xinjiang region, in the since 2000.
country’s north-west.
At projected rates, Northern Hemisphere and
The Uyghurs are one of a number of persecuted mid-latitude ozone will heal completely by the
Muslim minorities in Xinjiang, including the 2030s.
Kazakhs, Uzbeks, Tajiks, Kyrgyz and Hui.
Many Uyghur communities also live in countries
GS
neighbouring China, such as Uzbekistan,

Kyrgyzstan and Kazakhstan, Australia. Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Atlantic
33. Correct Option: (a) Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC) is
a large system of ocean currents that carry
Explanation:
warm water from the tropics northwards
All statements are correct into the North Atlantic.
Jan Soochna Portal About Atlantic Meridional Overturning
Jan Soochna Portal is the first ever public Circulation (AMOC):
information portal launched by the The Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation
government of Rajasthan. (AMOC) is a large system of ocean currents
Section 4(2) of the Right to Information that carry warm water from the tropics
(RTI) Act of 2005 requires public authorities northwards into the North Atlantic.
to disclose information pro-actively. The Jan AMOC ensures the oceans are continually
Soochna Portal will not require citizens mixed, and heat and energy are distributed
to submit RTI application for seeking around Earth.
information.
143 PTTS2020/CARC/500
higher salinity in the waters of the tropical
portion of the Atlantic because there won’t be
as much rainwater to dilute it.
This saltier water in the Atlantic, as it comes
north via AMOC, will get cold much quicker
than usual and sink faster.

Explanation:
Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC):
How does the AMOC work?
The Climate and Clean Air Coalition is a
The AMOC is a large system of ocean currents, voluntary partnership of governments,
like a conveyor belt, driven by differences intergovernmental organizations, businesses,
in temperature, salt content and the water’s scientific institutions and civil society
RE
density. organizations committed to improving air
As warm water flows northwards it cools and quality and protecting the climate through
actions to reduce short-lived climate
some evaporation occurs, which increases the
pollutants.
amount of salt. Low temperature and a high
salt content make the water denser, and this Its global network currently includes over
dense water sinks deep into the ocean. 120 state and non-state partners, and
hundreds of local actors carrying out activities
The cold, dense water slowly spreads
O across economic sectors.
southwards, several kilometres below the
surface. Eventually, it gets pulled back to What are short-lived climate pollutants?
the surface and warms in a process called Short-lived climate pollutants are those
“upwelling” and the circulation is complete. pollutants which are short lived in
SC
atmosphere.
Effect of climate change on the AMOC:
They are also known as Super Pollutants.
Climate models suggest that the AMOC will
weaken over the 21st Century as greenhouse Methane, black carbon and
gases increase. This is because as the hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are some
atmosphere warms, the surface ocean beneath examples of short lived pollutants.
it retains more of its heat. They are many times more powerful than
GS
All these changes make the ocean water lighter carbon dioxide at warming the planet.
and so reduce the sinking in the ‘conveyor But because they are short-lived in the
belt’, leading to a weaker AMOC. So the AMOC atmosphere, preventing emissions can rapidly
is very likely to weaken, but it’s considered reduce the rate of warming.
very unlikely that large, rapid changes in the
Approach of CCAC to reduce short-lived
AMOC, as seen in past times, will happen in
climate pollutants:
the 21st Century.
The Coalition’s partners and initiative participants
A weaker AMOC will bring less warm water
work in cooperation with key short-lived climate
northwards, and this will partly offset the pollutant emitters and other stakeholders from
warming effect of the greenhouse gases over around the world to encourage, enable and catalyse
Western Europe. action to reduce emissions. To achieve real and
The role of Indian Ocean: ambitious reductions, the Coalition focuses on four
key strategies:
As the Indian Ocean warms faster and faster, it
Enable transformative action by providing
generates additional precipitation. This draws
knowledge, resources, and technical and
more air from other parts of the world to the institutional capacity to act and supporting
Indian Ocean, including the Atlantic. the sharing of information, experience, and
With so much precipitation in the Indian expertise.
Ocean, there will be less precipitation in the Mobilize support for action to put short-lived
Atlantic Ocean. Less precipitation will lead to
PTTS2020/CARC/500 144
climate pollutants on the policy map through Supplementary notes:
advocacy at all levels of government and in
the private sector and civil society. Crimea
Increase the availability of and access to The Crimean peninsula is connected on the
financial resources to support the successful northwest to the mainland by the “Perekop
implementation of scalable, transformational Isthmus”, a 5-mile- (8-km-) wide strip of land
action. that has been the site of numerous battles for
the control of Crimea.
Enhance scientific knowledge to help
decision-makers scale up action and promote Between Crimea and the mainland to the
the multiple benefits of action on short-lived north lies Svyash (“Putrid Sea”), a network
climate pollutants. of shallow inlets that is separated from the Sea
of Azov by the Arabat Spit, a 70-mile- (113-
Funding of CCAC: km-) long sandbar along the eastern shore of
The Coalition’s activities are financed through Crimea.
a multi-donor The Climate and Clean Air The Crimean Peninsula was annexed by the
Trust Fund, established in 2012, which is Russian Federation in 2014 and since then
administered through UN Environment. While has been administered as two Russian federal
governments are the core of the Coalition’s
subjects - the Republic of Crimea and the
funding, contributions from the private sector
federal city of Sevastopol.
RE
and global community are encouraged.
Goal of CCAC:
The Coalition’s goal is to reduce short-
lived climate pollutants beyond
the recommendations made by the
Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
(IPCC) in its special report Global Warming of
1.5°C.
O
Benefits of increasing action on short-lived
climate pollutants:
SC
It can avoid an estimated 2.4 million premature
deaths from outdoor air pollution annually by
2030/.
It can prevent as much as 52 million tonnes
of crop losses per year, and slow the increase
in global warming by as much as 0.6°C by
2050.
It can also prevent the climate tipping points
GS

that can exacerbate long-term climate impacts Explanation:
and make adapting to climate change harder, Option is correct: Golden triangle comprises
especially for the poor and most vulnerable. of Laos, Thailand and Myanmar.
India and CCAC: Supplementary notes:
India formally joined the Climate & Clean Air
Golden Triangle
Coalition (CCAC), becoming the 65th country
to join the partnership. The Golden Triangle is located in Southeast
Asia comprising of three contiguous countries
India plans to work with Climate Clean and
Coalition countries on best practices and of Laos, Thailand and Myanmar from East to
experiences for the effective implementation West.
of India’s National Clean Air Programme Myanmar is the largest country; Laos is
(NCAP). the only landlocked country not only of the
Golden Triangle but also of that of the entire
Southeast Asia and Thailand has the largest
37. Correct Option: (a) coastline in the region.
Explanation: The Golden Triangle is the world’s second
Option is correct: Crimea is situated between largest illicit opium producing region with
Black sea and Sea of Azov. a potential production of 5,020 metric tons
out of which, Myanmar itself has 30,900 metric
145 PTTS2020/CARC/500
tons followed by 10,000 metric tons in Laos About Global Oceans:
and Thailand having the least production
The ocean contains about 97% of the
of 128 metric tons in 2005 (UNODC, INCSR,
Earth’s water, supplies 99% of the Earth’s
2006). Laos is more that of trans-shipment
biologically-habitable space, and provides
country. Thailand and Myanmar are money
roughly half of the primary production on
laundering countries.
Earth.
The average depth of the global ocean is
about 3700 m, with a maximum depth of
more than 10,000 m.
The ocean is vertically stratified with less
dense water sitting above more dense layers,
determined by the seawater temperature,
salinity and pressure. The surface of the ocean
is in direct contact with the atmosphere,
except for sea ice covered regions.
Sunlight penetrates the water column
and supports primary production (by
phytoplankton) down to 50 to 200 m depth
RE
The Golden Crescent is located in Southwest
Asia and consists of three contiguous (epipelagic zone).
countries of Pakistan, Afghanistan and Iran Atmospheric-driven mixing occurs from the
from East to West. sea surface and into the mesopelagic zone
Iran is the largest country, Afghanistan (200 to 1000 m). The distinction between the
the only land locked country and Pakistan Upper Ocean and Deep Ocean depends on
shares the maximum land boundaries in the processes being considered.
this region.
O The ocean is a fundamental climate regulator
on seasonal to millennial time scales. Seawater
This is the world’s leading illicit opium
has a heat capacity four times larger than
producing region with the potential
air and holds vast quantities of dissolved
production of 5,020 metric tons, out of which
carbon.
SC
Afghanistan alone has 4,950 metric tons of
illicit opium production, followed by Pakistan Heat, water, and biogeochemically relevant
with meager 70 metric tons in 2005 (UNODC, gases (e.g., oxygen (O2) and carbon dioxide
INCSR, 2006). (CO2)) exchange at the air-sea interface, and
ocean currents and mixing caused by winds,
Iran is not an opium producing country
tides, wave dynamics, density differences, and
in this region but is more that of a trans-
turbulence redistribute these throughout the
shipment country.
global ocean.
GS
39. Correct Option: (a) 41. Correct Option: (b)

Explanation:
Explanation:
State bird of Bihar is House Sparrow.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Dehradun
State bird of Uttar Pradesh is Sarus Crane. based Wildlife Institute of India (WII) has
launched a mobile application “Ganga Data
State bird of Jharkhand is Asian Koel.
Collector” under the “Biodiversity and Ganga
State bird of Rajasthan is the Great Indian Conservation” project initiated by the National
Bustard. Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) of Union
Ministry of Jal Shakti.
40. Correct Option: (b) Supplementary notes:

Explanation: Ganga data collector app
Statement 1 is incorrect: The ocean is The app will provide field researchers with a
vertically stratified with less dense water complete data entry solution to monitor the
sitting above more dense layers aquatic population in the river.
Supplementary notes: Dehradun based Wildlife Institute of India

(WII) has launched a mobile application
PTTS2020/CARC/500 146
“Ganga Data Collector” under the “Biodiversity was constructed across the Barakar River at
and Ganga Conservation” project initiated by Tilaiya in Koderma district in Jharkhand. It
the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) was the first of the four multi-purpose dams
of Union Ministry of Jal Shakti. included in the first phase of the Damodar
Valley Corporation.
The Ganga basin covers 11 states including
Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Bansagar Dam
Pradesh, Rajasthan, Haryana, Himachal is a multipurpose river Valley Project on Sone
Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Bihar, River situated in the Ganges Basin in the state
West Bengal and Delhi. of Madhya Pradesh.
In the first phase, training will be given to Supplementary notes:
volunteers and staff in five Ganga states
including Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Khadakwasla Dam
Jharkhand and West Bengal where Ganga
Khadakwasla Dam was built on the Mutha
stretches over 2,200-km. In the second phase,
River. The dam created a reservoir known as
training will be given to the staff of the other
Khadakwasla Lake which is the main source of
six states of the Ganga basin.
water for Pune and its suburbs in the state of
Maharashtra.
RE
Tilaiya dam was constructed across the
Explanation: Barakar River at Tilaiya in Koderma district in
Jharkhand. It was the first of the four multi-
purpose dams included in the first phase of
Supplementary notes: the Damodar Valley Corporation.
Bio-fences Bansagar Dam is a multipurpose river Valley

Project on Sone River situated in the Ganges

O
Bio-fences/Live fences are lines of trees or
shrubs planted on farm or field boundaries
that provide protection against cattle and
wildlife, act as windbreaks, enrich the

Basin in the state of Madhya Pradesh.
Other major Dams and Reservoirs in India:
soil, provide bee forage, provide shade,

SC
and control dust. Hence it is environment
friendly and economical for farmers.
They are less expensive and more useful than
fences made of wood, barbed wire, or stone
masonry. Various species have been tested to
discover their suitability for use as biofencing
plants.
GS
The Uttarakhand government is planning to us

this unique and cost-effective method to keep
wild animals away from residential areas.
Plants like lemongrass, agave, rambans, and
certain species of chilly including some other
plant rare species have been identified as
effective to keep wild animals away.
The government is planning to grow these
plants in the areas where wild animals enter
residential areas near forests.
Wild animals like leopards and bears, along
with elephants and wild boars are a major
threat to human life, livestock and crops in
such areas the forest officials informed.
43. Correct Option: (a) 44. Correct Option: (c)

Explanation:
Explanation:
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Tilaiya dam
147 PTTS2020/CARC/500
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Ratapani Tiger The mineral has been named goldschmidtite,
Reserve, located in the Raisen district of after Victor Moritz Goldschmidt, the
Madhya Pradesh, in Vindhya Range. Norwegian scientist acknowledged as the
founder of modern geochemistry.
Goldschmidtite has an unusual chemical
Ratapani Tiger Reserve signature for a mineral from Earth’s mantle
Recently it is declared the Tiger State of India, While the mantle is dominated by elements
Madhya Pradesh is inching closer to getting such as magnesium and iron, goldschmidtite
its seventh tiger reserve — the Ratapani Tiger has high concentrations of niobium, potassium
Reserve. and the rare earth elements lanthanum and
cerium.
Established in the year 1976, the Ratapani
Wildlife Sanctuary boasts a forest area of
around 688 sq km – mainly comprising a 46. Correct Option: (a)
beautiful teak forest. Explanation:
The Ratapani Tiger Reserve, located in the Option is correct
Raisen district of Madhya Pradesh, in Vindhya
Range. Supplementary notes:
RE
Other tree species found here include bijasal, Special Report on Ocean and Cryosphere in a
saj, tendu and khair. Changing Climate
Although the tiger holds the position of top The IPCC approved and accepted this report
predator in the park, leopards, striped hyenas, at its 51st session held in September.
jackals, Indian foxes and wild dogs also inhabit Created in 1988 by the World Meteorological
its forested tracts. Organization (WMO) and the United Nations

O
Members of the deer family such as chausingha,
Environment Programme (UNEP)
chinkara, and barasingha are spotted often, Headquarter: Geneva
and you can also expect to see herds of nilgai, Objective: To provide governments at
the largest Indian antelope. all levels with scientific information that
SC
Around 150 species of birds can be spotted they can use to develop climate policies.
here. Birders can expect to spot the Indian IPCC reports are also a key input into
international climate change negotiations.
robin, white spotted fantail fly-catcher,
crimson breasted barbet and the State Bird IPCC Reports
of MP – paradise flycatcher, amongst other
species. Reports Year
First 1990
Many rare migratory birds from Tibet,
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Nepal, Russia and Siberia also visit this Second 1995
sanctuary and are a great attraction. Third 2001
Dahod Dam, Ratapani Dam and Barna Dam are Fourth 2007
large water bodies inside the park and home to Fifth 2013
aquatic avifauna such as ducks, geese, cranes,
storks and snipes. Among reptiles, pythons
and crocodiles are also seen here. 47. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
45. Correct Option: (c) Wildlife Trade Monitoring Network (TRAFFIC),
Explanation: a joint program of the World Wide Fund
for Nature (WWF) and IUCN, is a non-
Both statements are correct governmental organization working globally
on trade in wild animals and plants in the
Supplementary notes: context of both biodiversity conservation and
Goldschmidt sustainable development. Its headquarters is
located in Cambridge, United Kingdom.
A new, curious mineral has been discovered
inside a diamond unearthed from a mine in International Union for Conservation of
Nature is an international organization
South Africa.
PTTS2020/CARC/500 148
(NGO), headquartered in Gland, 49. Correct Option: (b)
Switzerland, working in the field of nature
conservation and sustainable use of natural Explanation:
resources. It is involved in data gathering and Statement 2 is incorrect: It is listed as ‘near
analysis, research, field projects, advocacy, threatened’ in the Red List of International
lobbying, and education. The organization is Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
best known for compiling and publishing the Supplementary notes:
IUCN Red List.
Emperor Penguins
Global Green Growth Institute is a treaty-based
international organization headquartered Emperor penguins are the tallest and heaviest
in Seoul, South Korea, aiming to promote of all living penguin species and are endemic
to Antarctica.
green growth, a growth paradigm that is
characterized by a balance of economic The only penguin species that breeds during
growth and environmental sustainability. the Antarctic winter, emperor penguins trek
50–120 km (31–75 mi) over the ice to breeding
org is an international environmental colonies which can contain up to several
organization addressing the climate crisis. thousand individuals.
Its goal is to end the use of fossil fuels and It is listed as ‘near threatened’ in the Red List
transition to renewable energy by building a
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of International Union for Conservation of
global, grassroots movement. The 350 in the Nature (IUCN).
name stands for 350 ppm (parts per million)
of carbon dioxide which has reached 415 ppm Recent demands:
as of 2019. It’s headquartered in Oakland, Experts have demanded that the IUCN status
California. of species should be changed to ‘vulnerable’
from ‘near threatened’.
The experts also advocated that the emperor
Explanation:
O

penguin should be listed by the Antarctic
Treaty as a Specially Protected Species.
The 1959 treaty sets aside Antarctica as a
Option is correct
scientific preserve, establishes freedom of
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Supplementary notes: scientific investigation, and bans military
activity on the continent.
About Extinction Rebellion
Extinction Rebellion is an international 50. Correct Option: (a)
movement that uses non-violent civil
disobedience in an attempt to halt mass Explanation:
extinction and minimise the risk of social Statement 1 is incorrect: It would be setup
in Bhopal.
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collapse.
It is a movement made up of people from Supplementary notes:
all walks of life. It started in response to the
e-Waste Clinic
IPCC report that we only have 12 years to
stop catastrophic climate change and our The Bhopal Municipal Corporation (BMC) and
understanding that we have entered the 6th the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
have signed a MOU to set up the country’s
mass extinction event.
first e-waste clinic in Bhopal.
It started small and was launched in the UK on
The clinic is being conceived in compliance
October 31st 2018, it has grown very quickly with the Solid Waste Management Rules,
and there are now about 130 Extinction 2016.
Rebellion groups across the UK and across the
This would enable segregation, processing
world.
and disposal of waste from both household
The majority of people who work for Extinction and commercial units.
Rebellion are volunteers; a small percentage is Electronic waste will be collected door-to-door
receiving living expenses. or could be deposited directly at the clinic in
exchange for a fee. Door-to-door collection
Decisions are made based on a model of
will happen in two ways. Either separate carts
organising called a “self-organising system” for the collection of e-waste will be designed,
in which people do what they can accord the or separate bins will be attached to existing
skills and time they can offer. ones meant for solid and wet waste.
149 PTTS2020/CARC/500
A three-month pilot project, the clinic, if The Chair is the elected leader of the
successful, would be replicated elsewhere in organisation.
the country.
The Chairmanship is a rotating position, which
has been held to date by the following C40
51. Correct Option: (c) City Mayors:
Explanation: Paris Mayor Anne Hidalgo (2016-present)
Both statements are correct Rio de Janeiro Mayor Eduardo Paes (2013-
2016)
New York Mayor Michael R. Bloomberg
C40 (2010-2013)
C40 is a network of the world’s megacities Toronto Mayor David Miller (2008-2010)
committed to addressing climate change. London Mayor Ken Livingstone (2005-
C40 supports cities to collaborate effectively, 2008)
share knowledge and drive meaningful,
measurable and sustainable action on climate
change. 52. Correct Option: (c)
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Around the world, C40 Cities connects 94 of Explanation:
the world’s greatest cities to take bold climate
action, leading the way towards a healthier Both statements are correct
and more sustainable future. Supplementary notes:
C40 cities are taking actions that reduces Asiatic Lion Conservation Project
global greenhouse gas emissions - together
C40 member cities combined community Asiatic Lion Conservation Project has been
emissions represent 2.4 Gt of CO2.
O launched by the Union Ministry of Environment,
Forests and Climate Change(MoEFCC).
The chair
The Asiatic Lion, endemic to Gir landscape of
Gujarat, is one of the 21 critically endangered
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species identified by the Ministry for taking up
recovery programmes.
The project envisages scientific management
with the involvement of communities in
coordination with multi-sectoral agencies
for disease control and veterinary care for
overall conservation of Asiatic lion.
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Modern Information and Communication

Technology (ICT) is proposed in the
conservation, protection and development
efforts of the Greater Gir Region.
Additional ICT will include the following:
GPS Based Tracking like Surveillance
Tracking Animal Tracking and Vehicle
Tracking
Automated Sensor Grid like Magnetic
Sensors, Movement Sensors, and Infra-red
heat sensors
Night vision capability enhancement
GIS-based real-time monitoring, analysis
and report generation.
This project has “Species Conservation over a
large landscape” approach.
Large Landscape Conservation:
PTTS2020/CARC/500 150
Large landscape conservation is According to a recent survey, the population
an approach to conservation and of Hard ground swamp deer (Barasingha) has
management that focuses on actions that increased to 800 in the Kanha National park
are taken across large areas, such as entire and Tiger Reserve.
watersheds. Large landscape conservation
generally involves many forest divisions,
government agencies, and conservation 54. Correct Option: (a)
organizations.
Explanation:
As Asiatic Lions are found only in the
Gir Landscape, this project will focus Option is correct:
on conservation efforts of Asiatic Lions Energy Storage Category
over whole Gir Range. System
A. Compressed Air 3. Mechanical Storage
53. Correct Option: (b) Energy Storage
Explanation: B. Superconducting 1. Electrical Storage

Magnetic Energy
Statement 1 is incorrect: Hard ground swamp Storage
deer is the state animal of Madhya Pradesh
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(NOT Uttar Pradesh). C. Chilled Water 4. Thermal Storage
Storage
D. Power-to-Gas 2. Chemical Storage
Near-extinct hard ground swamp deer see Storage
revival in Kanha
Barasingha is one of the rarest species of deer
family spread across central and northern
O Classification of Energy Storage Systems
India only in small congregations. The deer is Mechanical Storage includes Pumped Hydro
native to India and Nepal. Storage (PHS), Compressed Air Energy
Barasingha is also known as swamp deer. It is Storage (CAES) and Flywheels
the state animal of Madhya Pradesh.
Electrochemical Storage includes various
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It has been listed vulnerable in the IUCN battery technologies that use different
(International Union for Conservation of chemical compounds to store electricity. For
Nature) Red List of Threatened Species. e.g. lead acid batteries, Lithium Batteries etc.
The Indian Barasingha or Swamp Deer is an Thermal Energy Storage includes ice-based
endangered species of deer and can be seen storage systems, hot and chilled water
in protected sanctuaries in India. storage, molten salt storage and rock storage
The Barasingha is a medium-sized deer. It can technologies. In these systems excess thermal
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grow to a height of 130 cm and weigh up to energy is collected for later use.
180 Kg. Electrical Storage: Super capacitors and
It has been listed vulnerable in the IUCN Superconducting Magnetic Energy Storage
(International Union for Conservation of (SMES) systems store electricity in electric
Nature) Red List of Threatened Species. and electromagnetic fields with minimal loss
of energy.
A number of deer species like the hangul of
Kashmir, the barasingha of Madhya Pradesh, Chemical Storage typically utilizes electrolysis
the brow-antlered deer of Manipur, and of water to produce hydrogen as a storage
antelope-like the Himalayan tahr - all adorn medium that can subsequently be converted to
the list of endangered species. energy in various modes, including electricity
(via fuel cells or engines), as well as heat and
The Kanha tiger reserve, spread over Mandla
transportation fuel (power–to-gas).
and Balaghat districts, is the only place in the
world where the species exists.
It is located on the Maikal range of the Satpura 55. Correct Option: (b)
hills and is spread over Mandla and Balaghat
Explanation:
districts of Madhya Pradesh.
Statement 1 is incorrect: It is Chhattisgarh’s
It is a first tiger reserve in India to officially
fourth ‘tiger reserve’.
introduce a mascot, Bhoorsingh the
Barasingha. Supplementary notes:
151 PTTS2020/CARC/500
Guru Ghasidas National Park economies, including India, are rising.
Chhattisgarh state is set to have Guru None of the G20 countries have plans that
Ghasidas National Park in Kotiya district will help them achieve the target. Many of
as its fourth ‘tiger reserve’. The National the current 2030 climate targets under the
Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) Paris Agreement (Nationally Determined
had approved to declare Guru Ghasidas Contributions or NDCs) are too weak, with
National Park as a tiger reserve in 2014. about half of the G20 countries projected to
meet or overachieve their inadequate NDCs.
Emphasis was laid on increasing number
of tigers in Chhattisgarh and their safety Energy-related carbon dioxide emissions in
measures like radio collaring system for G20 countries shot up by 1.8 per cent in 2018
tiger safety as well as resettlement of more due to rising energy demand.
cheetahs from Barnavapara Sanctuary to Guru
Ghasi Das National Park and Udanti-Sitanadi Energy supply is not getting cleaner: despite
Tiger Reserve. a more than five per cent rise in G20 total
renewable energy supply in 2018, the share of
Drafting of action plans for conservation of fossil fuels in the G20 energy mix remains at
wild buffalo (wild animal of Chhattisgarh), hill
82 per cent.
myna (state bird of Chhattisgarh) and vultures.
At least 5 species of vultures are found in While renewables now account for 25.5 per
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Achanakmar tiger reserve, Guru Ghasidas cent of power generation, this is not sufficient
National Park and Mainpat in Surguja. to outweigh the growth of emissions from
The decision was also taken to develop water fossil fuel sources.
sources for wild animals in the state’s forests, Low-carbon fuels need to increase roughly 10
construction of large ponds in the forest times by 2050 to keep global warming below
villages and plantation of fruits and vegetables 1.5 degrees Celsius.
especially Narwali vegetables, plantation
of bamboo and banana so that these wild
O G20 emissions in the building sector grew
animals won’t have to wander here and there more than in any other sector in 2018 (4.1 per
for food and fodder. cent). Retrofitting existing buildings challenges
all G20 and especially OECD countries. New
Tiger Reserve in Chhattisgarh: At
buildings have to be near zero-energy by
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present there are three tiger reserves
2020-25 to keep global warming below 1.5
in state: Achanakmar Tiger Reserve in
degrees.
Bilaspur, Udanti-Sitanadi Tiger Reserve in
Gariaband and Indravati Tiger Reserve in India specific observations:
Bijapur district.
Among the G20 countries, India has the
most ambitious NDC. However, it still needs
56. Correct Option: (c) real action now to prepare the different sectors
for stringent emission reductions.
GS
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The 2019 Brown In the power, India is currently investing most
to Green Report has been published by in renewable energy, while Brazil and Germany
the Climate Transparency Partnership, an are the only G20 countries with long-term
international research collaboration. renewable energy strategies.
Supplementary notes: India and China are among the G20 countries
with the most progressive energy efficiency
Brown to Green Report 2019 policies.
The 2019 Brown to Green Report has been
published by the Climate Transparency 57. Correct Option: (c)
Partnership, an international research
collaboration. Explanation:
The report is the most comprehensive review Statement 2 is incorrect: Botulism is a serious
of G20 countries’ climate performance, bacterial neuromuscular illness that can affect
mapping achievements and drawbacks in their both humans and animals.
efforts to reduce emissions, adapt to climate
impacts and green the financial system. Supplementary notes:
Findings of the Report: Migratory Birds Die in Sambhar Lake
Carbon emissions from the world’s 20 biggest Nearly 17,000 migratory birds have died so
PTTS2020/CARC/500 152
far at the country’s largest inland saltwater concentration by between 2017 and 2024.
lake near Jaipur due to botulism, a serious
Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
and fatal illness that affects the nerves.
will execute this nation-wide programme
In November 2019, thousands of birds, in consonance with the section 162 of the
including Northern Shoveler, Ruddy Shelduck, Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution)
Plovers, Avocets, were found were found dead Act, 1986.
in the 5-7km area around Sambhar lake.
The programme has been launched with
Initially, it was suspected that the birds died due an initial budget of Rs. 300 crore for the
to avian flu but the report from a laboratory in
first two years.
Bhopal has ruled this out. The birds died due
to infection spread after feeding on maggots- The plan includes 102 non-attainment
infested carcasses. This causes paralysis in cities, across 23 states and Union
birds. The symptoms indicate that the cause territories, which were identified by
of death was botulism Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
Avian Botulism on the basis of their ambient air quality
data between 2011 and 2015.
Avian botulism is a serious neuromuscular
illness of birds caused by a toxin that is Non-attainment cities are those which
produced by the bacterium Clostridium have been consistently showing poorer
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botulinum. air quality than the National Ambient
Air Quality Standards. These include
Avian botulism has been recognized as a
Delhi, Varanasi, Bhopal, Kolkata, Noida,
major cause of mortality in wild-birds since
the 1900s. Muzaffarpur, and Mumbai.
Botulinum is a natural toxin produced by bacteria As part of the programme, the Centre also
known as Clostridium botulin. It produces the
O plans to scale up the air quality monitoring
toxin when it starts reproducing. network across India. At least 4,000
monitors are needed across the country,
The bacteria is commonly found in the soil,
instead of the existing 101 real-time air
river, and sea water. There are around eight
quality (AQ) monitors, according to an
types — A, B, C1, C2, D, E, F, and G — of
analysis.
SC
botulinum toxin and they are distinguishable
when diagnosed. But all types of toxins attack The plan proposes a three-tier system,
the neurons, which leads to muscle paralysis. including real-time physical data collection,
Botulinum affects both humans and data archiving, and an action trigger
animals but the type of the toxin varies system in all 102 cities, besides extensive
— botulinum C in birds and A, B and E in plantation plans, research on clean-
humans. technologies, landscaping of major arterial
roads, and stringent industrial standards.
GS
58. Correct Option: (a) It also proposes state-level plans of

e-mobility in the two-wheeler sector, rapid
Explanation: augmentation of charging infrastructure,
Statement 2 is incorrect: It aims for 20-30% stringent implementation of BS-VI norms,
reduction in Particulate Matter concentration boosting public transportation system, and
in 102 non-attainment cities across 23 States adoption of third-party audits for polluting
and UT’s by 2024. industries.
Supplementary notes: The national plan has proposed setting
National Clean Air Programme up an apex committee under environment
minister, a steering committee under-
National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) secretary (environment) and a monitoring
is the first ever effort in the country to committee under a joint secretary. There
frame a national framework for air quality would be project monitoring committees
management with a time-bound reduction
at the state-level with scientists and trained
target.
personnel.
Important Features of National Clean Air
Programme (NCAP):
Achieve a national-level target of 20-
30% reduction of PM2.5 and PM10 Explanation:
153 PTTS2020/CARC/500
Both statements are incorrect and global levels, including consideration of
the case to establish an intergovernmental
Supplementary notes: coordination mechanism on nitrogen
The United Nations Environment Assembly policies, based primarily on existing networks
(UNEA) has adopted 2 resolutions piloted by and platforms and consider the case for
India on single-use plastics and sustainable developing an integrated nitrogen policy,
nitrogen management. The resolutions were which could enhance the gravity of common
passed at the fourth session of the United cause between multiple policy domains.
Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA) which
was held in Nairobi. The theme of the fourth
session of UNEA was Innovative Solutions for 60. Correct Option: (b)
environmental challenges and sustainable Explanation:
production and consumption.
Statement 2 is incorrect: India is the
Resolution on Single-use Plastics first country in world to develop such a
The resolution on Single-use Plastics rings document.
the alarm about plastic waste since only nine
per cent of the nine billion tonnes of plastics
ever produced have been recycled and that India Cooling Action Plan(ICAP)
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most of it end in landfills, dumps and the
India is the first country in world to develop
environment.
such a document, which addresses cooling
The resolution notes the important role of key requirement across sectors and lists out
sectors such as plastics producers, retailers actions which can help reduce the cooling
and the consumer goods industry, as well as demand.
importers, packaging firms, transport firms,
and recyclers to contribute to the reduction of The overarching goal is to provide sustainable
cooling and thermal comfort for all while
O
plastic waste, arising from their products and
securing environmental and socio-economic
activities, as well as to provide information on
the impacts arising from their products and benefits for the society.
encourages innovative approaches such as Objectives of the ICAP:
the use of extended producer responsibility
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schemes, deposit refund schemes and other Assessment of cooling requirements across
initiatives. sectors in next 20 years and the associated
refrigerant demand and energy use.
The resolution also welcomes the global
efforts to raise awareness about the negative Map the technologies available to cater
impacts of plastic pollution and in that regard the cooling requirement including passive
appreciating the 2018 World Environment interventions, refrigerant-based technologies
Day held under the theme “beating plastic and alternative technologies such as not-in-
pollution” with India as its global host. kind technologies.
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Resolution on Sustainable Nitrogen Suggest interventions in each sector to

Management provide for sustainable cooling and thermal
comfort for all.
The resolution recognises the multiple
pollution threats resulting from anthropogenic Focus on skilling of RAC service technicians.
reactive nitrogen, with adverse effects on the Develop an R&D innovation ecosystem
terrestrial, freshwater and marine environments, for indigenous development of alternative
contributing to air pollution and greenhouse technologies.
gas emissions, while acknowledging the
benefits of nitrogen. Goals of the ICAP:
The resolution notes the initiatives like the Reduction of cooling demand across sectors
Global Partnership on Nutrient Management by 20% to 25 % by year 2037-38.
(GPNM), International Nitrogen Management
Reduction of refrigerant demand by 25% to
System as a science support system for policy
30% by year 2037-38.
development across the nitrogen cycle and
the initiatives taken by South Asia Cooperative Reduction of cooling energy requirements by
Environment Programme (SACEP). 25% to 40% by year 2037-38.
The resolution calls for options to facilitate Training and certification of 100,000 servicing
better coordination of policies across the sector technicians by the year 2022-23, in
global nitrogen cycle at the national, regional synergy with Skill India Mission.
PTTS2020/CARC/500 154
Recognize “cooling and related areas” as a 62. Correct Option: (b)
thrust area of research under the national S&T
Programme. Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: UNCCD COP - 14 was
61. Correct Option: (c) hosted by India.
Both statements are correct UN Convention to Combat Desertification:

Conference of Parties (UNCCD COP-14).
Held in Greater Noida, this was the first
Hazardous Waste (Management& time that India hosted an edition of the
Transboundary Movement) Rules, 2016 UNCCD COP.
The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate The theme of the Conference was ‘Restore
Change has amended the Hazardous and land, Sustain future’.
Other Wastes (Management & Transboundary
Movement) Rules, 2016 in order to strengthen India being the global host for COP 14 has
the implementation of environmentally sound taken over the COP Presidency from China for
management of hazardous waste in the the next two years till 2021.
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country. India is among the select few countries to have
The amendment has been done keeping into hosted the COP of all three Rio conventions
consideration the “Ease of Doing Business” on climate change, biodiversity and land.
and boosting “Make in India” initiative by Important Points to be remembered:
simplifying the procedures under the Rules,
while at the same time upholding the principles Delhi Declaration: Commitment for a range of
of sustainable development and ensuring
O issues, including gender and health, ecosystem
minimal impact on the environment. restoration, taking action on climate change,
private sector engagement, Peace Forest
Hazardous and Other Wastes (Management
Initiative and recovery of five million hectares
& Transboundary Movement) Amendment
of degraded land in India.
Rules, 2019 has the following features:
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The country parties have agreed to make
Solid plastic waste has been prohibited
the Sustainable Development Goal target of
from import into the country including
achieving land degradation neutrality by 2030,
in Special Economic Zones (SEZ) and by
a national target for action.
Export Oriented Units (EOU).
Peace Forest Initiative: It is an initiative of
Exporters of silk waste have now
South Korea to use ecological restoration as a
been given exemption from requiring
permission from the Ministry of peace-building process. It aims at addressing
the issue of land degradation in conflict-torn
GS
Environment, Forest and Climate

Change. border areas and would go a long way in
alleviating tensions and building trust between
Electrical and electronic assemblies communities living there and between enemy
and components manufactured in and countries in particular.
exported from India, if found defective
can now be imported back into the Drought Toolbox: It is launched as a one-
country, within a year of export, without stop-shop for all actions on drought. It is a
obtaining permission from the Ministry of sort of knowledge bank which contains tools
Environment, Forest and Climate Change. that strengthen the ability of countries to
anticipate and prepare for drought effectively
Industries which do not require consent and mitigate their impacts as well as tools that
under Water (Prevention and Control of enable communities to anticipate and find
Pollution) Act 1974 and Air (Prevention the land management tools that help them to
and Control of Pollution) Act 1981, are now build resilience to drought.
exempted from requiring authorization
also under the Hazardous and Other International coalition for action on Sand and
Wastes (Management & Transboundary Dust storms (SDS): The coalition will develop
Movement) Rules, 2016, provided that an SDS source base map with the goal of
hazardous and other wastes generated improving monitoring and response to these
by such industries are handed over to the storms. SDS affects approximately 77% of
authorized actual users, waste collectors or UNCCD country Parties or approximately 151
disposal facilities. countries.
155 PTTS2020/CARC/500
Initiative of Sustainability, Stability and Security ecological indicators such as protected areas
(3S): Launched by 14 African countries to or watershed management areas. These
address migration driven by land degradation. conservation areas thus become a source of
It aims at restoring land and creating green income for the receiving governments.
jobs for migrants and vulnerable groups.
Today, EFTs are often seen as an instrument
Cooperation From Youth: The global Youth that incentivizes decentralized conservation
Caucus on Desertification and Land convened efforts.
its first official gathering in conjunction with
the UNCCD COP14 to bring together youth
advocates from different parts of the world, 64. Correct Option: (d)
to build their capacity, share knowledge, build
networks and to engage them meaningfully in Explanation:
the UNCCD processes. Both statements are correct
River Interlinking Project
Explanation:
The National River Linking Project (NRLP)
All statements are correct formally known as the National Perspective
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Supplementary notes: Plan, envisages the transfer of water from
water ‘surplus’ basins where there are flooding
Ecological Fiscal Transfers to water ‘deficit’ basins where there is drought/
Center for Global Development analyzed state scarcity, through inter-basin water transfer
budgets to examine whether ecological fiscal projects.
transfers (EFTs) have impacted state forestry Pamba-Achankovil-Vaippar river link project
expenditures in a recent study. was envisaged in 1995 for producing 500

O
EFTs is meant to reward states that protected MW of power for Kerala and irrigating 91,400
their forests. Within the total centre-state hectares of land at Virudhunagar, Tirunelveli
disbursement, 7.5% was set aside to be and Thoothukudi districts in Tamil Nadu.
divided among states based on the area The river link proposal is listed among the
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of forests within states (by 14th Finance river linking projects of the National Water
Commission).
Development Agency.
Consequently, states that preserved forests
It involves diversion of 634 Mm3 of water
stood to gain in terms of greater disbursement
from the Pamba and Achankovil rivers in
from the centre.
Kerala to the Vaippar basin in Tamil Nadu.
Based on available state budget data of 25
Indian states which accounted for 90% of Kerala government has opposed the move
India’s forest cover (as of 2013), they find citing a deficit of usable water for its own use.
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that forestry budgets increased by 19%

in the three years EFTs were introduced. 65. Correct Option: (b)
However, the authors do not attribute
the increase in forestry budgets to EFTs Explanation:
because forest spending as a share in total
state spending actually decreased by 16% Only statement 1 is incorrect: National
post EFT. Chambal Sanctuary is located on the Chambal
River near the tri-point of Rajasthan, Madhya
EFTs did not increase forest budgets either Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.
because states did not expect them to be
a criterion in future tax devolutions or the Supplementary notes:
funding was not significant enough.
National Chambal Sanctuary
For EFTs to work as a mechanism to restore
forests and mitigate climate change, it needs The National Chambal Sanctuary was
to be retained in the next devolution formula established in 1979. It is located on the
by the 15th Finance Commission with the base Chambal River near the tripoint of Rajasthan,
year for forest cover measurement updated to Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.
2019 (from 2013 currently).
Chambal Sanctuary is a division of one large
Ecological Fiscal Transfers (EFTs) distributes region jointly managed by the governments
a share of intergovernmental fiscal transfers of Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and
and revenue sharing schemes according to Rajasthan.
PTTS2020/CARC/500 156
It spreads across Sheopur, Morena and Bhind These turtles spend their entire lives in the
districts of Madhya Pradesh. ocean, and migrate thousands of kilometres
between feeding and mating grounds in the
It is also known as the Chambal Gharial
course of a year.
Sanctuary for the rich population of Gharials
found here. It is home to Gharial (critically
endangered), Gangetic river dolphin 67. Correct Option: (b)
(Endangered) and red-crowned roofed turtle
(critically endangered). Explanation:
It is an area notified by the Ministry of Statement 2 is incorrect: A country can only
Environment, Forests and Climate Change give a notice for leaving at least three years
(MoEFCC), around Protected Areas, National after the Paris Agreement came into force.
Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries.
Notifications declaring areas as ESZ are
issued under the Environment (Protection) Paris Agreement
Act 1986. The Paris Agreement of 2016 is a historic
The main aim behind ESZs is to regulate international accord that brings almost 200
certain activities to minimise the negative countries together in setting a common target
to reduce global greenhouse emissions in an
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impacts of such activities on the fragile
ecosystem surrounding the protected effort to fight climate change.
areas. The pact seeks to keep global temperature rise
to below 2 degrees Celsius from pre-industrial
66. Correct Option: (c) levels, and to try and limit the temperature
increase even further to 1.5 degrees Celsius.
Explanation:
To this end, each country has pledged to
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implement targeted action plans that will limit
their greenhouse gas emissions.
The Agreement asks rich and developed
Olive Ridley Turtles
countries to provide financial and technological
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The Odisha forest department banned fishing support to the developing world in its quest
between November 2019-May 2020, in the to fight and adapt to climate change.
state’s Gahiramatha Marine Sanctuary to
United States initiated the process of leaving the
protect Olive Ridley turtles.
Paris Agreement, notifying the United Nations
Gahiramatha, located in Odisha, is known as of its withdrawal from the landmark climate
the world’s largest Olive Ridley rookery. deal. The withdrawal will take effect one year
These animals come in lakhs in the waters from delivery of the notification.
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surrounding the sanctuary in November for After it leaves, the US will be the only
mating. The females lay eggs in March. country left out of the global protocol.
Trawlers and boatmen have been directed not Syria and Nicaragua, the last remaining
to fish within 20 kilometres of the coastline. countries who were earlier holding out,
also became signatories in 2017.
The Olive Ridley Turtles are the smallest
and most abundant of all sea turtles found Article 28 of the Paris Agreement allows
in the world, inhabiting warm waters of the countries to leave the Paris Agreement and
Pacific, Atlantic and Indian oceans. lays down the process for leaving.
These turtles, along with their cousin, Kemps A country can only give a notice for
Ridley turtle, are best known for their unique leaving at least three years after the Paris
mass nesting called Arribada, where thousands Agreement came into force. This happened
of females come together on the same beach on November 4, 2016.
to lay eggs. Therefore, the US was eligible to move a notice
The species is recognized as Vulnerable for leaving on November 4 2019, which it did.
by the IUCN Red list and is placed under The withdrawal is not immediate, however. It
Appendix 1 of CITES.
takes effect one year after the submission of
They are carnivores, and feed mainly on the notice. It means the United States will be
jellyfish, shrimp, snails, crabs, molluscs and a out of Paris Agreement only on November 4
variety of fish and their eggs. 2020.
157 PTTS2020/CARC/500
68. Correct Option: (b) Key highlights of the report are:
Explanation: Of the 272 million international

migrants worldwide i.e. 3.5% of the
Statement 1 is incorrect: It is a trans- global population, India accounts for
boundary river which originates the highest share (with 17.5 million of
in South Tripura district and flows them being Indians). India is followed
through Sabroom town and then enters by Mexico (11.8 million) and China (10.7
Bangladesh. million).
Supplementary notes: Roughly two-thirds of international
migrants are labour migrants i.e. nearly
Feni River 2/3rd of the migrants migrate in search of
On 6 November 2019, the Union Cabinet work.
approved a Memorandum of Understanding India is the leading recipient of
(MoU) between India and Bangladesh on remittances. International remittances
the withdrawal of 1.82 cusecs (cubic feet in 2018 (as per the 2020 report) reached
per second) of water from the Feni River by $689 billion, out of which India received
India for a drinking water supply scheme for $78.6 million from the 17.5 million living
Sabroom town in Tripura. abroad. India is currently followed by
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Feni is a river in south-eastern Bangladesh. China ($67.4 billion) and Mexico ($35.7
billion).
It is a trans-boundary river which originates
in South Tripura district and flows Remittances received by India have
through Sabroom town and then enters consistently increased between the 2005
Bangladesh. and 2020 reports.
The river is navigable by small boats as far as The top destination for international

O
Ramgarh in India, about 80 kilometres (50 mi) migrants is the USA followed by Germany,
upstream. Saudi Arabia, Russian Federation and the
UK.
There has been no water-sharing agreement
between the countries on the Feni previously. The top migration corridors for Indians
SC
are the United Arab Emirates, the US and
Muhuri River, also called Little Feni, Saudi Arabia.
from Noakhali District joins it near its mouth
- right bank tributary. The highest numbers of migrants entering
India come from Bangladesh.
Oceania is the region with the highest
proportion of international migrants and
Explanation: the UAE is the country with the highest
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proportion of international migrants. More

Statement 3 is incorrect: India is the leading than half of all international migrants (141
recipient of remittances followed by China. million) live in Europe and North America.
Global Migration Report, 2020
The Global Migration Report 2020 was Explanation:
recently released by the UN-affiliated Statement 2 is incorrect: India is the fourth
International Organization for Migration largest emitter of GHGs but is on track to
(IOM). achieve its self-declared climate-targets.
Established in 1951, IOM is the leading inter- Statement 3 is incorrect: Energy sector is
governmental organization in the field of the largest emitter of GHGs as per the 2019
migration ensuring the orderly and humane report.
management of migration, to promote
international cooperation on migration issues, Supplementary notes:
to assist in the search for practical solutions
Emissions Gap Report, 2019
to migration problems and to provide
humanitarian assistance to migrants in need, Recently the United Nations Environment
including refugees and internally displaced Programme (UNEP) released the 10th edition
people. of Emissions Gap Report, 2019. (The report
PTTS2020/CARC/500 158
is being published annually since 2011). The black redstart (Phoenicurus ochruros) is
a small passerine bird in the redstart genus
It provides the latest assessment of scientific
Phoenicurus.
studies on current and estimated future
greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions and compares It is found almost throughout Europe, Asia
these with the emission levels permissible for and in the portions of Africa and breed in the
the world to progress on a least-cost pathway high altitude areas of Kashmir, Ladakh, Tibet
to achieve the goals of the Paris Agreement. and the Central Himalayan Range.
This difference between “where we are likely In India, the bird sticks to areas near wetlands,
to be and where we need to be” has become open cultivation, scrubs, gardens and
known as the ‘emissions gap’. orchards.
Key findings of the report are: Listed as Least Concerned under IUCN Red
India is the fourth largest emitter of List.
greenhouse gases. It however adds
that India is among a small group of
countries that are on track to achieve
their self-declared climate targets under Explanation:
the Paris Agreement with their current
Statement 3 is incorrect: There has been a
policies in place.
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reduction of 0.84 Mha (0.26%) of different
The top four emitters (China, USA, EU and wasteland categories in the country during
India) contribute to over 55 per cent of 2008-09 to 2015-16.
the total emissions over the last decade,
excluding emissions from land-use change
such as deforestation. Wasteland Atlas, 2019
Unless global greenhouse gas emissions Recently the 5th edition of Wasteland

O
fall by 7.6 per cent each year, the world will
fail to meet the 1.5°C temperature goal of
the Paris Agreement.

Atlas was released by the Department
of Land Resources in collaboration with
National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC),
The largest share of emission comes Department of Space.
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from the energy sector and its fossil fuel The previous 4 editions were released in 2000,
emissions. Industry produces the next 2005, 2010 & 2011.
largest footprint, followed by forestry,
This Wastelands Atlas-2019 provides
transport, agriculture and buildings.
district and state wise distribution of
Dramatic strengthening of the NDCs is different categories of wastelands area
needed in 2020. Countries must increase including mapping of about 12.08 Mha
their NDC ambitions threefold to achieve hitherto unmapped area of Jammu & Kashmir.
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the well below 2°C goal and more than The changes in wastelands between 2008-
fivefold to achieve the 1.5°C goal. 09 and 2015-16 have been presented in the
Atlas.
71. Correct Option: (d) The effort has resulted in estimating the
spatial extent of wastelands for entire
Explanation: country to the tune of 55.76 Mha (16.96
% of geographical area of the Country
Statement 1 is incorrect: It is found almost
i.e. 328.72 Mha) for the year 2015-16 as
throughout Europe, Asia and in the portions
compared to 56.60 Mha (17.21%) in the
of Africa and breed in the high altitude areas
year 2008-09. There is a net conversion of
of Kashmir, Ladakh, Tibet and the Central
0.84 Mha (0.26%) of different wasteland
Himalayan Range.
categories in the country during 2008-09
Statement 2 is incorrect: Listed as Least to 2015-16.
Concerned under IUCN Red List.
A reduction in wasteland area was observed
Statement 3 is incorrect: In India, the bird in the categories of land with dense scrub,
sticks to areas near wetlands, open cultivation, waterlogged and marshy land, sandy areas,
scrubs, gardens and orchards. degraded pastures / grazing land and gullied
and / or ravinous land.
The wastelands have undergone positive
Black Redstart change in the states of Rajasthan (0.48 Mha),
159 PTTS2020/CARC/500
Bihar (0.11 Mha), Uttar Pradesh (0.10 Mha), public sector entities are NABARD and Small
Andhra Pradesh (0.08 Mha), Mizoram (0.057 Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI).
Mha), Madhya Pradesh (0.039 Mha), Jammu & The private sector entities nominated are YES
Kashmir (0.038 Mha) and West Bengal (0.032 Bank, IDFC Bank and IL&FS Environmental
Mha). Services. So far, NABARD and SIDBI have been
accredited by the GCF.
Majority of wastelands have been changed into
categories of ‘croplands’ (0.64 Mha), ‘forest-
dense / open’ (0.28 Mha), ‘forest plantation’ 74. Correct Option: (b)
(0.029 Mha), ‘plantation’ (0.057 Mha) and
‘industrial area’ (0.035 Mha) etc. Explanation:
Statement 2 is incorrect: The minimum
73. Correct Option: (c) e-flow norms will apply to the upper Ganga
River Basin - starting from originating
Explanation: glaciers and through respective confluences
of its head tributaries which meet at
Statement 1 is incorrect: It supports climate
Devaprayag up to Haridwar - and the main
change adaptation and mitigation projects in
stem of the river Ganga up to Unnao district
developing countries.
of Uttar Pradesh.
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Statement 4 is incorrect: Central Water
Green Climate Fund (GCF) Commission (CWC) is responsible for
supervision, monitoring, regulation of
GCF was set up by the 194 countries who flows.
are parties to the United Nations Framework
Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) in Supplementary notes:
2010, as part of the Convention’s financial
E-Flow Norms for River Ganga
mechanism. It aims to deliver equal amounts
of funding to mitigation and adaptation,
O In order to restore and maintain continuous
while being guided by the Convention’s flow of river Ganga, the Centre has notified
principles and provisions. minimum environmental flow (e-flow) for
the river that has to be maintained at various
GCF helps developing countries limit
locations.
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or reduce their greenhouse gas (GHG)
emissions and adapt to climate change. It The e-flows are the acceptable flow regimes
seeks to promote a paradigm shift to low- that are required to maintain a river in the
emission and climate-resilient development desired environmental state.
taking into account the needs of nations that
Uninterrupted flow of water in any river is
are particularly vulnerable to climate change
important to keep it clean through its natural
impacts.
ecological functions and processes.
The Green Climate Fund is the only stand-
Any dam or structure meant for diversion of
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alone multilateral financing entity whose
river flows for the purpose of irrigation, hydro-
sole mandate is to serve UNFCCC.
power and domestic or industrial use will now
GCF’s activities are aligned with the priorities have to maintain the minimum flow under the
of developing countries through the principle notification.
of country ownership, and the Fund has
The compliance of minimum environmental
established a direct access modality so that
flow is applicable to all existing, under-
national and sub-national organizations can
construction and future projects.
receive funding directly, rather than only via
international intermediaries. All existing projects, which currently do not meet
The Fund’s investments can be in the form of the norms, will have to comply with it within
grants, loans, equity or guarantees. three years. However mini and micro projects,
which do not alter the flow characteristics of
NABARD is the first entity from India to be the river or stream significantly, are, exempted
accredited as Direct Access Entity (DAE). The from these environmental flow norms.
signing of AMA between GCF and NABARD is
The minimum e-flow norms will apply to
an essential first step for accessing the GCF
the upper Ganga River Basin - starting from
resources to help safeguard the lives, property
originating glaciers and through respective
and livelihoods of millions of people against
confluences of its head tributaries which
climate change impact.
meet at Devaprayag up to Haridwar - and
India has nominated a total of five direct access the main stem of the river Ganga up to
entities for accreditation by the GCF. The Unnao district of Uttar Pradesh.
PTTS2020/CARC/500 160
The flow conditions in these river reaches will The frog was first discovered in 2015.
be monitored at hourly intervals from time to
Its existence was verified and confirmed
time. The Central Water Commission (CWC)
recently and published in the journal Records
will be the designated authority and the
custodian of the data. It will be responsible of the Zoological Survey of India.
for supervision, monitoring, regulation The frog is endemic to agricultural areas in
of flows. The CWC will also take emergent Nawadih and Joungi village of Jharkhand’s
decisions about the water storage norms in Koderma district.
case of any emergency.
It has been named as Spahaerotheca Magadha
The notification also stipulates that the and will be known by the common name of
central and concerned State authorities will ‘Magadha Burrowing Frog’.
implement demand side management plans
to reduce water withdrawal from the Ganga The discovery points to the fact that new
by adopting good and scientific practices species of frogs can still be found even in
such as efficient method of irrigation, reuse the ‘Central Indian Landscape’ other than the
and recycle of water including monitoring and Western Ghats and the Northeast, where most
regulation of groundwater withdrawals for discoveries are currently taking place.
various purposes.
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Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The government of
Gujarat has launched the second edition of the Option is correct
water conservation scheme Sujalam Sufalam Supplementary notes:
Jal Sanchay Abhiyan.
Palmyra is an ancient Semitic city in present-
Supplementary notes: O day Homs Governorate, Syria. Archaeological
Sujalam Sufalam Jal Sanchay Abhiyan finds date back to the Neolithic period, and
documents first mention the city in the early
The scheme aims to deepen water bodies in second millennium BC
the state before monsoon to increase storage
of rainwater to be used during times of Mosul is a major city in northern Iraq. Located
SC

scarcity. approximately 400 km (250 mi) north of
Baghdad, Mosul stands on the west bank of
It involves cleaning and desilting of riverfronts, the Tigris, opposite the ancient Assyrian city
sprucing up of Irrigation canals. of Nineveh on the east bank
The government of Gujarat has launched the Beirut is the capital and largest city of
second edition of the water conservation
Lebanon
scheme Sujalam Sufalam Jal Sanchay
Abhiyan. Sujalam Sufalam Jal Sanchay Sena , is an abandoned ancient town in Yemen
GS

Abhiyan located in the remote eastern Hadramaut
valley.This village is distinct from the capital of
The scheme involves cleaning and desilting
Yemen
of riverfronts. Sprucing up of Irrigation
canals.
The state government has increased its financial 78. Correct Option:
contribution for the scheme to 60 per cent,
Explanation:
which meant private groups getting involved
would have to give only the remaining 40 per Statement 1 is incorrect: Mount Ayalu is
cent. Danakil Depression (Map Based) situated at the southern end of the Danakil
Depression
76. Correct Option: (b) Supplementary notes:
Explanation: The Danakil Depression is the northern

part of the Afar Triangle or Afar Depression
Option is correct: A new species of burrowing in Ethiopia
frog has been confirmed in Jharkhand’s
Chhota Nagpur Plateau. A geological depression that has resulted
from the divergence of three tectonic
Supplementary notes: plates in the Horn of Africa.
Magadha Burrowing Frog The Danakil Depression lies at the triple
161 PTTS2020/CARC/500
junction of three tectonic plates and has a economically important cultivated crops and
complex geological history. It has developed grasses.
as a result of Africa and Asia moving apart,
It primarily affects maize but can cause
causing rifting and volcanic activity. Erosion,
damage to other crops such as rice,
inundation by the sea, the rising and falling
sorghum and sugarcane, vegetable crops
of the ground have all played their part in the
and cotton.
formation of this depression. Sedimentary
rocks such as sandstone and limestone are It migrated to Africa in 2016 and India in June
unconformably overlain by basalt which 2018.
resulted from extensive lava flows It has also spread to neighbouring countries
The Danakil Depression is the hottest place like Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, Southern parts of
on Earth in terms of year-round average China, Vietnam, Cambodia and Bangladesh.
temperatures. It is also one of the lowest The spread of FAW through the Indian
places on the planet (100 m below sea level), subcontinent has been particularly fast.
and without rain for most of the year. Here,
the Awash River dries up in a chain of salt In 2019, the pest has spread as far as Mizoram
lakes such as Lake Afrera, never reaching the in the northeast, Uttar Pradesh in the north,
Indian Ocean. Gujarat in the west, Chhattisgarh in central
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India, and several states in the south.
Mount Ayalu is the westernmost and older
of the two volcanoes at the southern end Four major organisations — USAID,
of the Danakil Depression. The other active International Crops Research Institute for
volcano, Erta Ale, is one of several crater lakes Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRSAT), International Maize
of lava bubbling from the Earth’s mantle. and Wheat Improvement Centre (CIMMYT)
Additionally, the area contains the Dallol and Consultative Group on International
sulfur springs, or hot springs. These wet Agriculture Research (CGIAR) — have joined
O
environments at the Danakil Depression are hands to prepare a strategy to address the
being investigated to help understand how issue.
life might arise on other planets and moons.
Many microorganisms living here are 80. Correct Option: (a)
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extremophilic microbes of a major interest
Explanation:
to astrobiologists. Nonetheless, in October
2019, scientists reported that terrestrial Statement 2 is incorrect: Last year, an all-
lifeforms, including extreme forms of archaea woman Indian Navy team on Indian Naval
microorganisms, were not found to exist in the Sailing Vessel (INSV) Tarini had successfully
very hot, acidic and salty conditions present in crossed Passage.
some parts of the Danakil Depression.
GS
Hot springs:Among the geological points

of interest to tourists are the hydrothermal Drake Passage
system of Dallol and the Yellow Lake. In a first, six rowers from four countries crossed
the Drake Passage, in just under two weeks
setting up a new Guinness World Records
79. Correct Option: (c) (GWR).
Explanation: Last year, an all-woman Indian Navy team
Statement 2 is incorrect: It feeds on leaves on Indian Naval Sailing Vessel (INSV) Tarini
and stems of cultivated crops and grasses. had also successfully crossed Passage.
Supplementary notes: The Passage is located between Cape

Horn at the tip of South America and the
Fall Armyworm (FAW) Antarctic Peninsula.
It is an insect indigenous to the tropical It is named after Sir Francis Drake, who was the
and subtropical region of the Americas, first Englishman to circumnavigate the globe.
has been spreading across the globe harming It has an average depth of about 11,000
crops. feet, with deeper regions going up to over
This lepidopteran pest feeds in large 15,600 feet near the northern and southern
boundaries.
numbers on leaves and stems of more than
80 plant species causing major damage to The Drake Passage is considered one of the
PTTS2020/CARC/500 162
roughest waterways in the world because According to NASA, people standing in the
here, layers of cold seawater from the south umbra see a total eclipse and those standing
and warm seawater from the north collide to in the penumbra see a partial eclipse.
form powerful eddies.
One of the reasons that NASA studies solar
This eddies when combined with strong winds eclipses is to study the top layer of the sun
and storms can be treacherous for those called the corona.
attempting to navigate it.
During an annular eclipse, NASA uses ground
It is also the narrowest stretch in the Southern and space instruments to view this top layer
Ocean and spans approximately 800 km when the sun’s glare is blocked by the moon.
between the southern tip of South America
and the northern tip of the West Antarctic
Peninsula. 82. Correct Option: (d)
The waters of the passage are highly turbulent, Explanation:
unpredictable, and frequented by icebergs All statements are correct
and sea ice.
81. Correct Option: (a) Conference on Disability-Inclusive Disaster
Risk Reduction
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Explanation:
The National Institute of Disaster Management
Statement 2 is incorrect: It happens when (NIDM), organized “National Conference on
the moon is farthest from the Earth, which is Disability-inclusive Disaster Risk Reduction:
why it seems smaller. Pathways for Inclusion and Action for
Supplementary notes: Resilience”.
The one-day conference was organized
Annular Solar Eclipse
in collaboration with the Department of
An eclipse happens when the moon while
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orbiting the Earth comes in between the sun
and the Earth, due to which the moon blocks
Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities
(DEPwD), Ministry of Social Justice and
Empowerment (MoSJE).
the sun’s light from reaching the Earth, causing
It was organised as a run up to National
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an eclipse of the sun or a solar eclipse.
Platform for Disaster Risk Reduction (NPDRR)
There are three types of eclipses: one is a total in May 2020.
solar eclipse, which is visible only from a small
The event was focused to bring together the
area on Earth.
stakeholders from Disaster Risk Reduction
According to NASA, people who are able to (DRR) and disability inclusion to deliberate
view the total solar eclipse are in the centre on actions and strategies for mainstreaming
of the moon’s shadow as and when it hits the disability-inclusion in DRR process.
Earth.
GS
A total solar eclipse happens when the sun, 83. Correct Option: (c)
moon and Earth are in a direct line.
Explanation:
The second type of a solar eclipse is a partial
solar, in which the shadow of the moon Both statements are correct
appears on a small part of the sun.
The third kind is an Annular Solar Eclipse,
which happens when the moon is farthest Locust Invasion in Gujarat
from the Earth, which is why it seems The migratory insect - locust has swarmed the
smaller. northern parts of Gujarat, causing significant
In this type of an eclipse, the moon does damage to agriculture.
not block the sun completely, but looks like The locusts, known as tiddis locally, destroyed
a “dark disk on top of a larger sun-colored
standing crops of castor, cumin, jatropha,
disk” forming a “ring of fire”.
cotton, and potato, and fodder grass in around
Furthermore, during a solar eclipse the moon 20 talukas.
casts two shadows on the Earth, the first one
is called the umbra, which gets smaller as it Gujarat has not witnessed such an invasion of
reaches the Earth. locusts since 1993-94.
The second one is called the penumbra, which The locusts emerged in February 2019 from
gets larger as it reaches the Earth. Sudan and Eritrea in Africa’s Red Sea Coast
163 PTTS2020/CARC/500
and travelled through Saudi Arabia and of 37 sites in the country have been recognised
Iran to enter Pakistan, where they invaded under the international treaty.
the Sindh province and from there they Statement 4 is incorrect: India became a
moved into Rajasthan and Gujarat, where signatory to the Ramsar Convention on 1
south western monsoon had prolonged February 1982.
this time.
The UN Food and Agriculture Organisation
(FAO) had issued an alert of a massive locust Ramsar Convention
attack in South Asia covering Pakistan and
The Ramsar Convention is an international
India.
treaty for the conservation and wise use of
The Locust Warning Organization (LWO) in wetlands.
Jodhpur also noticed the swarms and predicted It is named after the Iranian city of Ramsar, on
their trajectory across the international the Caspian Sea, where the treaty was signed
border. on 2 February 1971.
Locust Known officially as ‘the Convention on
Wetlands of International Importance
A locust is a large, mainly tropical grasshopper
especially as Waterfowl Habitat’ (or, more
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with strong powers of flight. They differ
recently, just ‘the Convention on Wetlands’), it
from ordinary grasshoppers in their ability
came into force in 1975.
to change behaviour (gregarize) and
form swarms that can migrate over large The aim of the Ramsar list is to develop and
distances. maintain an international network of wetlands
which are important for the conservation of
Locusts are generally seen during the months global biological diversity and for sustaining
of June and July as the insects are active from human life through the maintenance of
summer to the rainy season.
O their ecosystem components, processes and
Locusts have a high capacity to multiply, form benefits.
groups, migrate over relatively large distances The convention entered into force in India
(they can fly up to 150 km per day). They can on 1 February 1982.
SC
rapidly reproduce and increase some 20-fold
Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites
in three months.
on the Ramsar list, which are facing immediate
Threat to Vegetation: Locust adults can eat challenges.
their own weight every day, i.e. about two The listed sites are threatened by changes that
grams of fresh vegetation per day. A very affect their ecosystem components, processes,
small swarm eats as much in one day as about benefits and services which characterise the
35,000 people, posing a devastating threat to said wetland at a given point in time.
GS
crops and food security.

In India, a total of 37 sites have been
FAO provides information on the general recognised under the international treaty.
locust situation to the global community and Wetlands declared as Ramsar sites are
gives timely warnings and forecasts to those protected under strict guidelines.
countries in danger of invasion.
India’s two wetlands find a place in the
Locust Warning Organisation (LWO), Montreux Record. They are:
Directorate of Plant Protection Quarantine Keoladeo National Park, in Rajasthan, was
and Storage, Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers designated a Ramsar site in 1981 and listed
Welfare, is responsible for monitoring, survey in the Montreux Record in 1990.
and control of Desert Locust in Scheduled
Desert Areas mainly in the States of Rajasthan Loktak Lake in Manipur was declared a
and Gujarat. Ramsar site in 1990 and indexed in the
Montreux Record in 1993.

Explanation:
Explanation:
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Ramsar
Convention is an international treaty for the
conservation and wise use of wetlands. A total Supplementary notes:
PTTS2020/CARC/500 164
Chinese Paddlefish organisms in biological research across
the world for the last 100 years. Several
Recently, the Chinese paddlefish (Psephurus
discoveries in biology have been made using
gladius) has been declared extinct by Chinese
this. Its genome is entirely sequenced and
scientists.
there is enormous information available about
It was one of the world’s largest freshwater its biochemistry, physiology and behavior.
fish which grew as long as 7 metres.
Its ancestral home was the Yangtze River. 87. Correct Option: (a)
It was once common in the Yangtze, before
Explanation:
overfishing and habitat fragmentation —
including dam building — caused its population Statement 2 is incorrect: The red brittle star
to dwindle from the 1970s onwards. Between becomes only the second creature, after
1981 and 2003, there were just around 210 a sea urchin species, known to have this
sightings of the fish. The researchers estimate ability.
that it became functionally extinct by 1993,
and extinct sometime between 2005 – 2010. Supplementary notes:
Functionally extinct”, which means the species Extraocular Vision

continues to exist but it has too few members The ability to see without eyes is known as
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to enable to reproduce meaningfully enough extraocular vision.
to ensure survival.
For the first time, researchers have shown that
IUCN has classified it as Critically a species of brittle stars, which are relatives of
Endangered (based on the last assessment starfish, can see even though it does not have
in 2009). eyes.
Yangtze River The red brittle star (Ophiocoma wendtii),
which lives in the coral reefs of the

O
It is the longest river in Asia, the third-
longest river in the world and the longest
river to flow entirely in one country.
Caribbean Sea, becomes only the second
creature, after a sea urchin species, known
to have this ability (barring freak cases in
It rises in the northern part of the Tibetan other species).
Plateau and flows in a generally easterly
SC
direction to the East China Sea. In sea urchins and brittle stars, researchers
suspect that extraocular vision is facilitated
by the photoreceptor cells found on their
86. Correct Option: (d) bodies.
Explanation: The researchers suggest that a brittle star sees
with the help of light-sensing cells that cover
its entire body. These light-sensing cells give
GS
Supplementary notes: the brittle star visual stimuli, allowing it to

recognize coarse structures such as rocks, the
Asia Pacific Drosophila Research Conference research suggests.
The Asia Pacific Drosophila Research Another peculiar feature of the red brittle
Conferences (APDRC) are biennial events
star is its signature colour change. While the
that aim to promote the interaction of
creature is deep red during the day, it changes
Drosophila Researchers in the Asia-Pacific
its colour to beige at night.
region with their peers in the rest of the
world. The researchers think that there may be a link
between their extraocular vision and colour
The fifth edition of the Asia Pacific Drosophila
changing abilities since the responses they
Research Conference (APDRC5) is being held
saw in the creatures tested during the day,
at Pune.
disappeared in those that were tested at
The conference is being organized in the night.
country for the first time by the Indian
Institute of Science Education and Research
(IISER). 88. Correct Option: (b)
The last four editions of this conference took Explanation:
place in Taipei, Seoul, Beijing and Osaka.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The report has
Drosophila (or fruit fly) is one of the been published by Indian Metrological
most widely-used and preferred model Department.
165 PTTS2020/CARC/500
Supplementary notes: erosion, assumes significance with the Rebuild
Kerala initiative on.
India Climate Report, 2019
It is named after the Japanese botanist and
Recently, India Meteorological Department plant ecologist Akira Miyawaki. By promoting
(IMD) has released India Climate Report natural vegetation on land destroyed by natural
2019. calamities and man-induced mistakes along
Key findings of the report are: the coastline of Japan, Miyawaki managed to
raise mini-forests.
The India climate report 2019 confirms that
the extreme weather events have become As a side benefit, these forests serve as a
par for the course in the country. This is natural bulwark against soil erosion and
what climate scientists have been claiming Tsunami.
for more than half a decade. In contrast to conventional planting
techniques, this method allows for planting
It notes that excessive heat, cold and
more number of trees in small spaces.
rainfall killed 1,562 people in 2019.
The trees grow faster too and are free of
In 2019, the mean temperature was 0.36 chemicals and fertilizers. The advantage of
above normal while the country also Miyawaki method is that the saplings need
recorded excess rainfall during both the minimum maintenance.
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southwest and northeast monsoons. However environmentalists have questioned
The year 2019 was the seventh warmest the efficacy of the method that accelerates
recorded in the country since 1901. the growth of trees and claims to match a
However, this was substantially lower than forest’s complex ecosystem. Such forests
the highest warming observed over India also lack some qualities of natural forests,
during 2016. such as medicinal properties and the ability
to bring rain.
Intense dry spells were interspersed with

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floods in several parts of the country. Miyawaki method’s increasing usage is being
justified to cut trees. It has reached a level
During 2019, 8 cyclonic storms formed over where people say even if we cut trees or
the Indian seas. Arabian Sea contributed 5 forests somewhere, we’ll replace them by this
out of these 8 cyclones against the normal
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method. Old-growth forests are millions of
of 1 per year, which equals the previous years old and can never be replaced and they
record of 1902 for the highest frequency can regenerate only if they are not disturbed
of cyclones over the Arabian Sea. This too much.
year also witnessed development of more
intense cyclones over the Arabian Sea.
89. Correct Option: (a) Explanation:
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Statement 1 is incorrect: India recently

Explanation: organized the third International Symposium
Statement 3 is incorrect: Forests grown using on Marine Ecosystems.
this method do not match a forest’s complex
ecosystem. Such forests also lack some
qualities of natural forests, such as medicinal Global Meet on Marine Ecosystems
properties and the ability to bring rain.
Eminent marine scientists, oceanographers,
Supplementary notes: fishery researchers and marine
biotechnologists assembled in Kochi to
Miyawaki Method attend the third International Symposium
Kerala has decided to use the Japanese on Marine Ecosystems – challenges and
Miyawaki method of afforestation. opportunities from January 7 to 10.
It has revolutionized the concept of urban Organized by the Marine Biological

afforestation by turning backyards into Association of India, MECOS-3 set a platform
for discussion on a wide range of topics,
mini-forests.
including impact of climate change on marine
Earlier, Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Telangana ecosystems and unusual warming of the
and some other states adopted this method. Arabian Sea.
The replication of the model across Kerala, The four-day meet held at the Central
which has suffered floods, landslides and soil Marine Fisheries Research Institute assumes
PTTS2020/CARC/500 166
significance in the backdrop of recent trend Centre and the Delhi government to draw
of continuous cyclonic storms and other up a comprehensive plan in 10 days to install
phenomena in the Arabian Sea. During a special ‘smog towers’ across the capital to deal with
session on climate crisis, experts discussed air pollution.
blue carbon habitats, ocean acidification,
sea surface temperature, ocean warming, A ‘smog tower’ being planned for Delhi
extreme events, climate smart technologies, as an experiment would create a “clean air
carbon foot print and impact, mitigation and zone” around it. An estimate made by project
vulnerability of the climate change. experts of the tower’s impact on air quality
shows it would reduce 50% of the particulate
The meet also focused on sustainable
development goal -14 (life under water) of matter load in an area 1 km in the direction of
the UN, development of small-scale fisheries, the wind, as well as 200 metres each along the
recent development in aquaculture, eco- sides of the tower and against the direction of
labeling and green fishing technologies. the wind.
The first MECOS was organized in 2009 and The filters being installed in it would use
MECOS-2 in 2013. carbon nanofibres as a major component
and the project will only focus on reducing
Marine Biological Association of India
particulate matter load at present.
(MBAI)
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The project is being headed by the Indian
The Marine Biological Association of India
was established in the year 1958 to serve the Institute of Technology (IIT) Bombay in
cause of promotion of research on marine collaboration with IIT-Delhi and the University
sciences in the Asia-Pacific region. Enshrined of Minnesota. The Central Pollution Control
in the articles of the association is the primary Board is also involved with the project.
cause to create among its members an active Smog towers are structures designed to
interest in the field of marine biology and
work as large-scale air purifiers. They are
out this objective by:

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allied marine sciences. The association carries
Organizing lectures, symposia and seminars

on specific subjects
usually fitted with multiple layers of air filters,
which clean the air of pollutants as it passes
through them. China, which has been battling
air pollution for a few years, has two smog
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Offering requisite information to research towers — in its capital Beijing and in a northern
workers and students undertaking research city called Xi’an. The latter is dubbed as the
in marine biological sciences world largest smog tower and has reportedly
brought down PM 2.5 by 19% in an area of
Publishing the Journal of the Marine
around 6 sq. km in the tower’s vicinity.
Biological Association of India (JMBAI)
Publishing occasional Memoirs,
Monographs and Bibliographies on topics 92. Correct Option: (d)
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of current interest in marine biology

Explanation:
Instituting fellowships and studentships
to research workers at various recognized All statements are correct
institutions Supplementary notes:
Sponsoring and aiding expeditions in
UN New Rules for Ships in the Arctic
Indian Seas
Institution of prizes in recognition of The International Maritime Organization
outstanding contributions towards (IMO), the shipping agency of the United
advancement of marine biological Nations, recently issued new rules aiming to
sciences reduce sulphur emissions, due to which ships
are opting for newer blends of fuels.
91. Correct Option: (c) The IMO has banned ships from using fuels
with sulphur content above 0.5 per cent,
Explanation: compared with 3.5 per cent previously.
Both statements are correct Sulphur oxides (SOx), which are formed after
combustion in engines, are known to cause
respiratory symptoms and lung disease, while
Smog Tower in Delhi also leading to acid rain.
The Supreme Court recently directed the The new limits are monitored and enforced
167 PTTS2020/CARC/500
by national authorities of countries that are to-energy plant running.
members of the International Convention
This will be done using a patented technology
for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships developed by Indian Railways’ Bhubaneswar-
(MARPOL) Annex VI. located Carriage Repair Workshop, called
Under the new policy, only ships fitted with Polycrack.
sulphur-cleaning devices, known as scrubbers, The world’s first such process, Polycrack
are allowed to continue burning high-sulphur converts multiple feedstock into hydrocarbon
fuel. liquid fuels, gas, carbon and water.
Alternatively, they can opt for cleaner fuels, This will be the third such facility in India. The
such as marine gasoil (MGO) and very low- same technology is being used for waste-
sulfur fuel oil (VLSFO). to-energy plants at New Delhi and Infosys,
Bengaluru.
Of the two cleaner fuels, ship owners were
expected to opt for MGO, which is made Polycrack can be fed with all types of
exclusively from distillates, and has low plastic; petroleum sludge; un-segregated
sulphur content. municipal solid waste with moisture up to 50
per cent; electronic waste, automobile fluff,
However, many are reportedly choosing organic waste including bamboo, garden
VLSFO, which has better calorific properties waste; jatropa fruit and palm bunch.
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and other technical advantages. There are
Polycrack’s strength includes not requiring
complaints against VLSFO as well, as testing
pre-segregation of waste, allowing waste
companies have claimed that high sediment
as collected to be directly used. With a high
formation due to the fuel’s use could damage moisture tolerance, drying of waste is not
vessel engines. required.
VLSFO with 0.5 per cent sulphur content Waste is processed within 24 hours. The
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can contain a large percentage of aromatic working environment is dust free as the
compounds, thus contribute to highly polluting unit is enclosed and the air quality of the
black carbon emissions in the environment surrounding area is not hit. Also, the area
International Maritime Organization required for installing the plant is less when
compared with the conventional method of
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As a specialized agency of the United Nations,
processing, and all constituents are converted
IMO is the global standard-setting authority
into energy.
for the safety, security and environmental
performance of international shipping. Its
main role is to create a regulatory framework 94. Correct Option: (b)
for the shipping industry that is fair and
effective, universally adopted and universally
Explanation:
implemented. Option is correct
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IMO measures cover all aspects of Supplementary notes:

international shipping – including ship
Vanilla Islands
design, construction, equipment, manning,
operation and disposal – to ensure that this Vanilla Islands is a grouping of six island
vital sector for remains safe, environmentally nations in south-west Indian Ocean
sound, energy efficient and secure. who joined hands in 2010 to integrate
their efforts to boost tourism. Mayotte,
Comoros, Mauritius, Seychelles, Reunion
93. Correct Option: (d) and Madagascar are its members.
Explanation: The term ‘Vanilla’ is used because these
countries are known for their export of the
All statements are correct flavoring substance Vanilla.
Supplementary notes: Importance of Vanilla Islands for India:
Polycrack Technology As India, China as well as other countries
eye the resources of Africa, the islands
By January 2020, pretty much all kind of waste situated on important sea lines of
generated at Bhubaneswar’s railway station, communication (SLOC) have become
carriage and coaching depot will be converted strategically important. This importance
into light diesel oil that can be used in furnaces is further increased by China trying to
and gas that can be used to keep the waste- increase its footprint in the Indian Ocean
PTTS2020/CARC/500 168
region. National Disaster Management Authority,
Important European countries like France, State Disaster Management Authorities and
Britain and US maintain presence in the District Disaster Management Authorities.
Indian Ocean through the territories in this It laid down the framework, roles and
region. responsibilities of these bodies to formulate
India also finds a convergence of goals in and implement disaster management plans at
the islands’ insistence on global measures their levels.
to arrest climate change and developing
Blue Economy grounded in the sustainable The focus of the act is preparedness, that is:
use of the resources of the ocean. Most States invested in resilient infrastructure,
The islands have presence of Indian early warning systems and evacuation.
diaspora, giving it a certain leverage, and
This translated into
shared history of a colonial past with
India. timely warnings
Recently, India sent an amphibious relief shelters and
warship, INS Airavat, to Madagascar in
the Indian Ocean Region (IOR) to help in massive evacuation exercises
rescue efforts after the island nation was
All these steps have reduced casualties.
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hit by a cyclone. As part of Operation
Vanilla, the Navy delivered clothing, food NDRF and SDRF have helped in providing
and medicines, and also provided diving and immediate relief in the aftermath of disasters.
communication assistance for evacuation.
The move follows an appeal by Madagascar Long-term recovery
President for international help to deal with an
Once the hazardous situation is passed, the
unprecedented situation caused by floods.
O important aspect is how to ensure recovery.
We are seeing disasters from the narrow prism
of providing food, water and medicines.
Explanation:
At the most, some states are looking at
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Act mandated providing shelter.
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the creation of the National Disaster
Management Authority, State Disaster These interventions are crucial, but long-term
Management Authorities and District Disaster recovery needs much more.
Management Authorities.
What is urgently needed?
Supplementary notes
Recovery measures should address inherent
Proposal to Amend the Disaster Management vulnerabilities pertaining to livelihoods,
Act of 2005 education, water, sanitation, health, and
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ecology of the disaster-affected communities.

The present Act largely focuses on:
Improving preparedness Intangible losses such as psychosocial needs
of the communities should be given equal
Providing immediate relief emphasis.
Protecting infrastructure Long-term recovery needs to be thought
The main drawback of the present policy is it of alongside development in an integrated
neglects long-term recovery. comprehensive manner by combining health,
skill building and livelihood diversification
A brief about disaster management act, 2005
schemes.
It was enacted to effectively prevent, mitigate
(reducing the severity) and prepare for This would ensure that communities have, at
disasters. the very least, recovered to a new normal before
the next disaster strikes. This understanding is
It came into being on the heels of three major crucial to the lawmakers looking to amend the
disasters. Act.
1999 - Super cyclone in Odisha
2001 - Bhuj earthquake 96. Correct Option: (a)
2004 - Indian Ocean tsunami. Explanation:
The Act mandated the creation of the Option is correct
169 PTTS2020/CARC/500
Supplementary notes: coordination in the aftermath of earthquakes
and collapsed structure disasters.
Indonesia’s Mount Merapi Erupts
The Secretariat is located in the United Nations
Mt Merapi, located near Yogyakarta, is one of Office for the Coordination of Humanitarian
the most active volcanoes on earth and has
Affairs (OCHA).
erupted regularly since 1548.
It is one of some 500 volcanoes in Indonesia,
from which at least 129 are active in the volcanic 98. Correct Option: (b)
arc spread along the Asia-Pacific islands called Explanation:
the Ring of Fire– a section of fault lines and
volcanoes stretching from the western coast Statement 1 is incorrect: In the Cauvery Delta
of South America, Alaska through Japan and rice (NOT Bajra) is the principal crop; it is either
Southeast Asia. single or double-cropped. A third crop rise is
also grown during summer in some parts.
The name Merapi could be loosely translated
as “Mountain of Fire” from the Javanese Supplementary notes:
combined words “Meru,” meaning “mountain,”
and “api,” meaning “fire.”
“Cauvery Delta and Protected Special
Agriculture Zone”
Merapi is the youngest and southernmost of a
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volcanic chain extending north and northwest, The Cauvery Delta lies at the bottom of the
to the Mount Ungaran volcano. Cauvery river basin. The river Cauvery is the
fourth largest river of the southern region and
Tectonically, Merapi is situated at the flows from North West to the south-east.
subduction zone where the Indo-Australian
Plate is sliding beneath the Eurasian Plate. Cauvery Delta zone consists of four districts
of Nagapattinam, Thanjavur and Thrivarur
Mount Merapi is a stratovolcano – a tall, and parts of the district Trichy, Cuddalore and
conical volcano composed of one layer of
O
hardened lava, tephra (fragmented material
Puddubbottai in Tamil Nadu.
produced by a volcanic eruption) and volcanic Cauvery Delta zone has a total geographical
ash. land area of 1.45 million Ha which is equivalent
11% of the area of Tamil Nadu state.
These volcanoes are characterized by a steep
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profile and periodic, explosive eruptions. In the Cauvery Delta rice is the principal crop;
it is either single or double-cropped. A third
crop rise is also grown during summer in
97. Correct Option: (c) some parts.
Explanation: Because of plentiful rainfall during North-
East monsoon and good irrigation facilities
rice is the most suitable from September to
December.
GS
International Search and Rescue Advisory The landholdings in the delta are quite
Group (INSARAG) small with more than 75% are one ha or
less. Population growth has progressively
The National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) diminished the size of landholdings.
has organized the second BIMSTEC Disaster
Management Exercise as per the International Tamil Nadu is heavily dependent on monsoon
Search & Rescue Advisory Group (INSARAG) rains and thereby is prone to droughts when
guidelines for familiarization & exercise the monsoons fail.
purposes. The climate of the state ranges from dry sub-
The International Search and Rescue humid to semi-arid. The state has three distinct
Advisory Group (INSARAG) was established periods of rainfall
in 1991. The south-west monsoon from June to
It is a network of disaster-prone and disaster- September, with strong southwest winds
responding countries and organizations North-East monsoon from October to
dedicated to urban search and rescue (USAR) December, with dominant northeast winds
and operational field coordination.
The dry season from January to May
It aims to establish standards and classification
for international USAR teams as well as a The normal annual rainfall of the state is about
methodology for international response 945 mm of which 48% is through the North-
PTTS2020/CARC/500 170
East monsoon, and 32% through the South- It was declared as a Tiger Reserve in 2012.
West monsoon. The reserve is a catchment area for the rivers
Since the state is entirely dependent on rains Godavari and Kadam.
for recharging its water resources, monsoon It is a dry deciduous teak forest mixed with
failures lead to acute water scarcity and severe bamboo, terminalia, Pterocarpus and cassias
drought.
constitute the predominant flora of the
region.
99. Correct Option: (c) The reserve has several species of animals
Explanation: including Cheetal, Sambar, Barking Deer,
Nilgai, Sloth Bear, Indian Bison, Panther and
Statement 1 is incorrect: Kawal Tiger Reserve
Tiger.
is located in Adilabad district in Telangana
state.
Statement 2 is incorrect: It is a dry deciduous 100. Correct Option: (d)
teak forest mixed with bamboo, terminalia,
Explanation:
Pterocarpus and cassias constitute the
predominant flora of the region. South Asia Co-operative Environment
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Programme (SACEP) is an inter-governmental
organization established in 1982 by the
Kawal Tiger Reserve government of South Asia to promote
and support protection, management and
The man-animal conflict in the Kawal Tiger
Reserve (KTR) is on the decline as there was no enhancement of the Environment in the
incident of wild animals straying into human region.
habitations for water in 2019. SACEP member countries are Afghanistan,

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Kawal Tiger Reserve is located in Adilabad
district in Telangana state.

Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives,
Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.
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171 PTTS2020/CARC/500
GENERAL STUDIES
CURRENT AFFAIRS
ART & CULTURE
PTTS2020/CARC/500 172
1. The Archeological Survey of India has been (c) Both 1 and 2
restoring the Markandeshwar group of
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
temples for the past 2 years. In this regard,
consider the following statements regarding
Markandeshwar group of temples: 5. Consider the following statements regarding
1. The Markandeshwar temple group is also Jnanpith Award:
called Khajuraho of Vidarbha. 1. It is awarded to Indian citizens writing only in
2. The temples belong to Nagara style of Indian languages included in 8th Schedule of
architecture of North India. the Constitution of India.
3. Gopuram is an essential feature of these 2. Recently, Amitav Ghosh has been conferred
temples. with 54th Jnanpith Award for his outstanding
contribution to the Hindi literature.
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
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(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Which of the following is not a cultural festival
of Jammu and Kashmir? 6. Consider the following statements regarding
(a) Mela Kheerbhawani Sant Ravidas:
(b) Gang-Ngai 1. He was a famous saint of the Bhakti
Movement.
(c) Singhey Khababs Sindhu Festival
3.
(d) Chamliyal Mela
Consider the following pairs:

O 2.
3.
He is considered as a spiritual Guru of the
Meera Bai.
He spread the message that “God created
man and not man created God”.
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Stupa States Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. Chaukhandi Stupa - Uttar
(a) 1 and 3 only
Pradesh
2. Dhamekh Stupa - Bihar (b) 2 only
3. Bharhut Stupa - Madhya (c) 2 and 3 only

Pradesh (d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
GS

(b) 2 and 3 only
Pandit Deendayal Upadhayaya:
1. He started the monthly “Rashtra Dharma”
(c) 1 and 2 only
meant for spreading the ideology of Hindutva
(d) 1 and 3 only nationalism.
2. He wrote a Hindi drama on Chandragupta
4. Jaipur recently got inducted into the UNESCO’s Maurya and a biography of Shankaracharya.
World Heritage Site list. What are the possible 3. He was elected for Lok Sabha from Uttar
benefits of World Heritage Site Status? Pradesh.
1. UNESCO can provide funds for restoration,
preservation and training if required.
2. Sites become protected under the Geneva (a) 1, 2 and 3
Convention against destruction or misuse (b) 1 and 2 only
during wartime.
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
173 PTTS2020/CARC/500
ancient town of Mahabalipuram: 12. Excavation by Archaeological Survey of India
1. Mahabalipuram was the second capital of the in Gottiprolu indicates it as a trade center of
Pallavas. the early historic period. Gottiprolu lies in
2. The town was also known as Mamallapuram, which of the following states?
a name given due to the great king Narsimha (a) Andhra Pradesh
Varman II.
(b) Telangana
(c) Tamil Nadu
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (d) Karnataka
(c) Both 1 and 2

13. Suranga Bawadi was recently inducted in the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
World Monument Watch list. In this context,
9. In the context of ancient India, Kaniyan
1. Suranga Bawadi is a part of the Karez system
Pungundranar was
of supplying water through subterranean
(a) An influential Tamil philosopher from the tunnels.
Sangam age.
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2. Suranga Bawadi was built by Ibrahim Adil
(b) A painter in the court of Chandragupta II. Shah–II of Bijapur sultanate.
(c) One of the ruler of the Lichhavi’s of Vaishali. 3. Worlds Monument Watch is a biennial
(d) A famous physician in the court of Pallava selection of at-risk cultural heritage sites by
king Narsimha Varman I. UNESCO.
O 1 only
Bathukamma Festival: (a)
1. It is a vibrant festival of Karnataka. (b) 1 and 2 only
2. Bathukamma is a beautiful flower stack, (c) 2 and 3 only
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arranged with different unique seasonal
flowers most of them with medicinal values, (d) 1, 2 and 3
in seven concentric layers in the shape of
temple gopuram. 14. With reference to the Karez system, consider
Which of the above statements is/are correct? the following statements:
(a) 1 only 1. It is water harnessing technology in which
(b) 2 only groundwater is brought to the surface by a
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tunnel.
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. It originated in Iran and was widely used
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 during the medieval period.
(a) 1 only
1. Guru Nanak was born in Talwandi and founded
the Dera Baba Nanak in Kartarpur. (b) 2 only
2. Guru Gobind Singh authenticated the final (c) Both 1 and 2
compilation Guru Granth Sahib in early 18th
century. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Guru Nanak emphasized the worship of one

God.
15. Which among the following folk musical
instruments do not belong to the
Which of the above statements is/are correct? membranophone category?
(a) 1 only (a) Ghumot
(b) 2 only (b) Sambal
(c) 1 and 2 only (c) Algoza
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Tamak
PTTS2020/CARC/500 174
16. Which of the following statements regarding enter during the movement.
Guru Nanak is/are correct? Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
1. He was born in Sultanpur Lodhi in 1469 AD.
(a) 1 only
2. He compiled Adi Granth which later came to
be known as Guru Granth Sahib. (b) 1 and 2 only
3. He introduced the institution of Langar that is (c) 3 only

a free community kitchen at Kartarpur. (d) 1, 2 and 3
4. He practiced a nirguna form of Bhakti.
Select the correct answer using the code given 20. Which of the following statements is/
below: are correct with regard to the Kodava
community?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
1. They are land-owning agriculturists with
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only martial customs.
(c) 2 and 4 only 2. The Kodavas are considered a patrilineal
ethno-lingual tribe of Kerela.
(d) 3 and 4 only
3. Kodavus are the only people in India permitted
to carry firearms without a license.
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the Dakshina Bharat Hindi Prachar Sabha, Select the correct answer using the code given
seen in news recently: below:
1. It was set up in 1918 by Madan Mohan (a) 1 only

Malaviya. (b) 1 and 3 only
2. Its sole aim was to propagate Hindi in the (c) 2 and 3 only
southern states.
3. Mahatma Gandhi was its first President.
O (d) 1, 2 and 3

(a) 1 only correct UNESCO Creative Cities Network
SC
(UCCN)?
(b) 1 and 2 only
1. UNESCO has designated Mumbai as a member
(c) 3 only of UNESCO Creative Cities Network.
(d) 2 and 3 only 2. It recognized creativity as a major factor in
their urban development, social inclusion and
18. Consider the following statements regarding cultural vibrancy.
the Pushkaram Festival: Select the correct answer using the code given
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1. It is a festival of rivers that pertains to the 12 below:

important rivers in India.
(a) 1 only
2. In 2019, it was celebrated on the river
Tamiraparani of Tamil Nadu. (b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 22. “Sarajevo Haggadah” a valuable manuscript
written on parchment was originated in which
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 country?
(a) Spain
19. Consider the following statements with
regard to Pathalgadi movement: (b) Portugal
1. Khond tribal community was associated with (c) Germany
this movement.
(d) France
2. The movement originated in Assam.
3. Tribals raised huge stone plaques at village
outskirts with warnings to outsiders not to 23. Which of the following statements is/are
correct regarding Bhima Koregaon Battle?
175 PTTS2020/CARC/500
1. The Battle took place when the forces of (c) 3 only
Maratha ruler Peshwa Baji Rao II fought with
those of the French Army.
2. It is named so for being situated on the bank
of River Bhima. 27. Which of the following statements regarding
Nankana Sahib is/are correct?
1. Gurdwara Janam Asthan in Nankana Sahib
below:
is associated with the Gurdwara Reform
(a) 1 only Movement of 1920s.
(b) 2 only 2. Besides Gurdwara Janam Asthan, there is also
a Gurdwara in memory of Guru Arjan and
(c) Both 1 and 2
Guru Hargobind.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
below:
Pt. Madan Mohan Malaviya: (a) 1 only
1. He founded the Banaras Hindu University (b) 2 only

(BHU) in 1916.
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(c) Both 1 and 2
2. He is also remembered for his role in ending
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
the Indian indenture system.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 28. Consider the following statements regarding
(a) 1 only Indian History Congress (IHC):
(b) 2 only 1. It is the largest association of professional
(c) Both 1 and 2
O historians in South Asia.
2. It was founded in 1910 by Vishwanath
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Kashinath Rajwade.
3. It aims to promote secular and scientific
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25. Yuelu Proclamation of UNESCO, seen in news writing of history.
recently, relates to:
(a) Raising awareness on intangible cultural
heritage and encouraging people to protect (a) 1 and 2 only
them. (b) 1 and 3 only
(b) Promotion of linguistic diversity to improve (c) 2 only
social diversity.
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(d) 3 only
(c) Building peace and eradicating poverty
through education.
(d) Science for a sustainable future. Lala Lajpat Rai:
1. He founded the Indian Home Rule League of
26. Archeological Survey of India will carry out America in New York.
scientific conservation of Bibi Ka Maqbara.
2. He never presided over any session of the
Indian National Congress.
regard:
3. His death is celebrated as Martyr’s Day in
1. Bibi Ka Maqbara was commissioned by Punjab.
Aurangzeb in memory of his wife Dilras Banu
Begum. 4. He proposed partition of India into a Muslim
India and non-Muslim India.
2. It is also known as the ‘Taj of the Deccan’.
3. It is entirely made up of marble like Taj
Mahal. (a) 1 and 4 only
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
PTTS2020/CARC/500 176
30. Which of the following statements regarding (b) 1 and 2 only
the Vakataka Dynasty is/are correct? (c) 3 only
1. Vakatakas were the contemporaries of Gupta (d) 1, 2 and 3
who ruled over Central India.
2. The Vakataka rulers followed the Shaiva 34. Match the following:
sect of Hinduism while the Guptas were
Vaishnavites. Paintings State
Select the correct answer using the code given A. Paitkar 1. Bihar
below: B. Pattachittra 2. Jharkhand
(a) 1 only C. Madhubani 3. Odisha
(b) 2 only Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(c) Both 1 and 2
A B C
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 3 2 1
31. Kumbhabishegam (consecration) ceremony (b) 2 1 3
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at the Sri Brahadeeswarar Temple is been (c) 2 3 1
witnessed in which state of India? (d) 1 3 2
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Kerala 35. Yakshagana is a traditional theatre form of-
(c) Andhra Pradesh (a) Karnataka

(b) Kerala
Karnataka
(d)

iconic archaeological sites mentioned in the
O (c)
(d)
Andhra Pradesh
Tamil Nadu
Budget:
SC
1. Hastinapur finds mention in the Mahabharata ‘India Culture Portal’ is/are correct?
and the Puranas.
1. It is the first government authorized portal
2. Dholavira site is in Gujarat. where knowledge and cultural resources of
3. In Rakhigarhi grave consisted of more than various organizations are available in public
one skeletal remains and of individuals of the domain on a single platform.
opposite sex together.
2. It is a part of National Virtual library of India
Which of the above statements are correct? project.
GS
(a) 1 and 2 only Select the correct answer using the code given
(b) 2 and 3 only below:
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2
33. Art forms an integral part of the Constitution (d) Neither 1 nor 2
of India. Which of the following statements
is/are correct regarding it?
37. Chapchar Kut is an annual harvest festival
1. Illustrations in the constitution include only
that transcends gender and age boundaries,
one female lead- Rani Laxmi Bai.
is celebrated in which of the following Indian
2. The constitution was calligraphed by Nand State?
Lal Bose.
(a) Nagaland
3. Prem Bihari Raizada worked on the borders
of each page. (b) Meghalaya
Select the correct answer using the code given (c) Sikkim
below:
(d) Mizoram
(a) 1 only
177 PTTS2020/CARC/500
38. Attukal Pongala festival is celebrated in which (d) Neither 1 nor 2
of the following states ?
(a) Kerala 43. Which of the following statements
(b) Tamilnadu is correct about Pulikali?
(c) Karnataka (a) Pulikali is a kind of theatre art.
(d) Andhra Pradesh (b) It is a performed by men adorning the

costume of Lion.
39. With reference to National Maritime Heritage (c) It is predominantly performed in Tamilnadu.
Complex (NMHC) consider the following (d) It is performed on the occasion of Onam.
statements:
1. The Complex will be developed at Andhra
Pradesh.
Gond Paintings:
2. It is a cooperation between the USA and India
for its development. 1. Gond art encompasses life as the central
theme of art.
2. It is practised by “Santhal” tribe of Central
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(a) 1 only India.
(b) 2 only Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
40. Recently, Herath Festival was seen in news. It is
O
one of the biggest festivals of _______________: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Asur tribe.

(b) Kashmiri Pandits Doul Utsav:
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(c) Gond Tribe 1. It is celebrated by the people of Assam.
(d) Nagas 2. Holigeets of Barpeta is one of its remarkable
feature.
41. Bagru printing is one of the traditional Which of the above statements is/are correct?
techniques of printing, belong to which of (a) 1 only
the following states?
(b) 2 only
GS
(a) Rajasthan
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Bihar 46. Which of the following statements
is correct about Belum Caves?
42. Consider the following statements regarding (a) Belum Caves are the largest cave system open
the Saraswati Samman Award: to the public in the Indian subcontinent.
1. It is awarded for outstanding prose or poetry (b) It is located in Andhra Pradesh.
literary works in any of the 22 languages listed
in Schedule VI of the Constitution of India. (c) It is known for its stalactite and stalagmite
formations
2. The inaugural award was given to Harivanshrai
‘Bachchan’. (d) All of the above

(a) 1 only correct about Tagore Award for Cultural
(b) 2 only Harmony?
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. It is awarded biannually for outstanding
contribution towards promoting values of
PTTS2020/CARC/500 178
Cultural Harmony. 1. Gottriprolu is situated near the river
2. It is awarded to individuals only. Swarnamukhi in Tamilnadu’s Chidambaram
District.
2. The remains of a huge settlement surrounded
below:
by a massive brick enclosure have been
(a) 1 only found.
(b) 2 only 3. One life-size Vishnu sculpture has also been
unearthed at this site.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
48. The Char Dhams included in the “Char Dham (b) 2 and 3 only
Pilgrimage Project” are:
(c) 1 and 3 only
1. Rameshwaram
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Gangotri
3. Badrinath
50. Recently the Ministry of Culture launched the
4. Somnath
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Indian Culture web portal. It is available in
Select the correct answer using the code given which of the following languages?
below: 1. English
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. Hindi
(b) 2 and 3 only 3. Urdu
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code given
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
49. Recently, a team of Archaeological Survey

O below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
of India (ASI) carried out an excavation at
SC
(c) 2 and 3 only
Gottriprolu. In this context, consider the
following statements: (d) 1 and 3 only

GS
179 PTTS2020/CARC/500
GENERAL STUDIES
CURRENT AFFAIRS
ART & CULTURE
Answer Key
Q. 1 (d) Q. 11 (d) Q. 21 (c) Q. 31 (a) Q. 41 (a)
Q. 2 (b) Q. 12 (a) Q. 22 (a) Q. 32 (d) Q. 42 (b)
Q. 3 (d) Q. 13 (c) Q. 23 (b) Q. 33 (a) Q. 43 (d)
Q. 4 (c) Q. 14 (c) Q. 24 (c) Q. 34 (c) Q. 44 (a)
Q. 5 (c) Q. 15 (c) Q. 25 (b) Q. 35 (a) Q. 45 (c)
Q. 6 (d) Q. 16 (d) Q. 26 (a) Q. 36 (c) Q. 46 (d)
Q. 7 (b) Q. 17 (a) Q. 27 (c) Q. 37 (d) Q. 47 (d)
Q. 8 (a) Q. 18 (a) Q. 28 (b) Q. 38 (a) Q. 48 (b)
Q. 9 (a) Q. 19 (b) Q. 29 (a) Q. 39 (d) Q. 49 (b)
Q. 10 (b) Q. 20 (b) Q. 30 (c) Q. 40 (b) Q. 50 (b)
PTTS2020/CARC/500 180
PTS2020/CAB-01/092020/02
1. Correct Option: (d) district.
Explanation: Gang-Ngai
Statement 3 is incorrect: Gopuram (a high Gang-Ngai also is known as “Chakaan Gaan-
entrance gateway) is an essential feature Ngai” is a festival of the Zeliangrong people
of Dravidian style of temple architecture. of Assam, Manipur, and Nagaland.
Markandeswar group of temples belongs to
Nagara style of temples. This festival is also described as a new year
festival as it marks the end of the year and
Supplementary notes: the beginning of the new year.
Markandeshwar Group of Temples It is a
Singhe Khababs Sindhu Festival
group of ancient temples that is variously
known as the ‘mini Khajuraho’ or ‘Khajuraho It is a tourist’s promotional festival - Ladakh
of Vidarbha’. Singhey Khababs Sindhu Festivals was
Archeological Survey of India (ASI) for celebrated on the bank of Indus River at
the past 2 years has been restoring these Leh, Jammu, and Kashmir.
temples which sustained damage from
lightening twice in the last century. Chamliyal Mela
It was built between the 9th and 12th centuries, It is celebrated at Chamliyal border shrine
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the Markandeshwar group of temples may along the International Border in the state
have had up to 24 temples but only the ruins of Jammu and Kashmir.
of 18 can be seen today.
The fair takes place at the shrine of Baba
The group gets its name from the main Dalip Singh Manhas, a saint popularly known
temple dedicated to Lord Shiva called as Baba Chamliyal, in Samba district.
Markandeshwar Temple which is located on
banks on river Wainganga in Gadchiroli district

of Maharashtra.
temples architecture of North India.

O
The temples belong to the Nagara style of Explanation:
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Dhamekh
The temples belong to Shaiva, Vaishnava and stupa is in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh.
SC
Shakta faith.
Most of the temple have simple plan with
Ardhmandapa, Mandapa, Antarala and Chaukhandi Stupa
Garbh Grih.
Chaukhandi Stupa has been declared a
monument of national importance by the
2. Correct Option: (b) Archeological Survey of India (ASI).
Explanation: It is an ancient Buddhist site in Sarnath
GS

Option is correct: Gang-Ngai is a (Uttar Pradesh), with a lofty brick structure
cultural festival of Assam, Manipur, and crowned with an octagonal tower.
Nagaland. This stupa is said to be built by Emperor
Supplementary notes: Ashoka.
Mela Kheerbhawani The octagonal tower on top is a Mughal
monument built-in 1588 to commemorate
The Kheer Bhawani Mela starting on Zeasht Humanyu’s visit to this place.
Ashtami is one of the biggest religious
functions of the displaced Kashmiri Pundit Dhamekh Stupa
who fled their homes for their lives in the
It is the place where Lord Buddha preached
1990s.
the first sermon to his five disciples after
It is held at the famous Ragnya Devi temple attaining enlightenment.
in Jammu and Kashmir’s Ganderbal
district. It is said to have been built in the year 500
CE while the construction was ordered by
During this, Kashmiri Pandits visit five other Emperor Ashoka in the 3rd Century BC.
temples of Tulmulla in Ganderbal district,
Tikker in Kupwara, Laktipora Aishmuqam in It is situated in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh.
Anantnag and Mata Tripursundri Devsar and Bharhut Stupa
Mata Kheerbhawani Manzgam in Kulgam
181 PTTS2020/CARC/500
It is located in the Satna district of Madhya benefits.
Pradesh.
UNESCO can provide funds for restoration,
It is known for its famous relics from preservation and training if required.
a Buddhist stupa.
Promotes close ties with the United
Nations system and prestige and support it
4. Correct Option: (c) provides.
Explanation: Sites become protected under the Geneva
Convention against destruction or misuse
Both statements are correct during wartime
World Heritage Status 5. Correct Option: (c)
The Walled City of Jaipur, known for its iconic Explanation:
architectural legacy and vibrant culture got
inducted into the UNESCO World Heritage Statement 1 is incorrect: It can only
Site list. be conferred upon an Indian citizen (no
posthumous conferral) writing in Indian
The historic walled city of Jaipur capital of languages included in 8th Schedule of the
Rajasthan was founded in 1727 AD under
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Constitution of India and English.
the patronage of Swai Jai Singh II.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Author Amitav
The city was proposed to be nominated for Ghosh was felicitated with the 54th Jnanpith
its value of being an exemplary development Award for his “outstanding contribution to the
in town planning and architecture that enrichment of Indian Literature in English”.
demonstrates an amalgamation and
important exchange of ideas in the late Supplementary notes:
medieval period.
O Jnanpith Award
Historic City of Ahmadabad was 1 Indian
st
The Jnanpith award is the highest literary
city to get World Heritage Status in 2017. award in India instituted in 1961.
Maharashtra has the maximum number (5) It can only be conferred upon an Indian citizen
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of World Heritage Sites in India followed by (no posthumous conferral) writing in Indian
Rajasthan and Tamil Nadu (4 sites in each languages included in 8th Schedule of the
of them). Constitution of India and English.
World Heritage Sites are designated as English language was added to the list of
having ‘outstanding universal value’ under languages for consideration after the 49th
the Convention concerning the Protection Jnanpith Award.
of World Cultural and Natural Heritage
Author Amitav Ghosh was felicitated with
(World Heritage Convention).
GS
the 54th Jnanpith Award for his “outstanding

There are three types of sites: contribution to the enrichment of Indian
Literature in English”.
Cultural heritage sites include
hundreds of historic buildings and town He is known for various works like Shadow
sites, important archaeological sites, Lines, The Glass Palace, The Hungry Tide, and
and works of monumental sculpture Ibis Trilogy — Sea of Poppies, River of Smoke,
or painting. and Flood of Fire.
Natural Heritage sites are those that He is the first English language writer to get
furnish examples of Earth’s record of the honour.
life or the evolutionary process or those
that contain rare and unique natural
phenomenon.
Mixed heritage sites contain elements Explanation:
of both natural and cultural significance All statements are correct
Benefits of world heritage sites status Supplementary notes:
Brings international attention to the need Sant Ravidas—the mystic Guru of Bhakti
for the preservation and conservation of movement
the sites.
Guru Ravidas was a famous saint of the
Brings tourism to the site ensuring economic
PTTS2020/CARC/500 182
Bhakti Movement and was born in 1377 Supplementary notes:
C.E. at Mandhuadhe which is located in Uttar
Deendayal’s personal life:
Pradesh, India.
Deendayal Upadhyaya was born in a
He was one of the most famous and leading
village near the Farah town in Mathura
star of the nirgunasampradaya means
district called Chandrabhan, which
santparampara and lead the North Indian later went on to be named after him as
Bhakti movement. “Deendayal Dham”.
He has given variety of spiritual and social His father’s name was Bhagwati Prasad, an
messages through his great writings of poetry astrologer, and his mother Rampyari was a
to his lovers, followers, community people, religious woman.
and society people to reform their mind and
show their boundless love towards God. Both his parents died when he was only
eight years old and he was then brought up
He was the vision of people as a messiah in by his maternal uncle and aunt who took
order to complete the social and spiritual care of him and his education as well.
needs. He was the spiritually rich person
worshipped by the people. Deendayal and the Bharatiya Jana Sangh:
Guru Ravidas was also known as Raidas, After meeting the RSS founder KB
RE
Hedgewar in 1942, he joined RSS as a full-
Rohidas or Ruhidas.
time worker, called Pracharak.
Sant Guru Ravidasji is considered as a
In 1951, Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
spiritual Guru of the Meera Bai
founded the Bharatiya Jana Sangh.
She was very impressed by the teachings of
Deendayal was seconded to the party by
Guru RavidassJi and became the great follower
the RSS, bestowed with the responsibility
of him.
of moulding it into a genuine member of

O
Meera Bai has written some lines in the respect
of his Guru “Guru Milyaa Ravidasji”
He was sent by the God on the earth when

the ‘Sangh Parivar’.
Then, he was appointed as General
Secretary of the party’s Uttar Pradesh
required him to save the real Dharma as at branch, and later as the all-India General
SC
that time social and religious patterns were Secretary.
distressing because of the lots of man-made He remained the general secretary for 15
discriminations over social beliefs, caste, long years and also contested for Lok
colour and etc. Sabha from Uttar Pradesh, but did not
He bravely faced all the discriminations and get elected as he failed to gain enough
answered people about the real definition of political traction.
beliefs and castes. Upadhyaya’s ideology for India:
GS
He taught people that one is not known by his Upadhyaya devised the political
caste, religion or believes for God, he known philosophy of Integral Humanism, which
only for his great actions (or karma). He also advocates the simultaneous and integrated
worked against the system of untouchability program of the body, mind and intellect
in the society by the higher caste people for and soul of each human being.
lower caste people.
This philosophy of his is a synthesis of the
He spread a message that “God created man material and the spiritual; the individual
and not man created God” means everyone and the collective.
is created by the God and has equal rights
For India, he visualised a decentralised
on this earth.
polity and self-reliant economy with
the village being the core basis which
7. Correct Option: (b) thought of India as an independent nation
which cannot rely upon western concepts
Explanation: like individualism, democracy, socialism,
communism or capitalism.
Statement 3 is incorrect: He contested for
Lok Sabha from Uttar Pradesh, but did not get Deendayal was of the view that India is in
elected as he failed to gain enough political urgent need of a ‘fresh breeze’ to get rid of
traction. the post-independence westernisation.
He felt Indian intellect had been suffocated,
183 PTTS2020/CARC/500
and Indian polity was no more rooted in and his achievements.
the traditions of our ancient culture.
During the reign of the Pallava dynasty,
Deendayal, just like all strong leaders, between the 3rd century CE and 7th century
believed in the concept of Swaraj (Self CE, it became an important centre of art,
Governance). architecture and literature.
Deendayal’s death: A mystery Mahabalipuram was already a thriving sea
port on the Bay of Bengal before this time. A
A pool of doubt surrounds the mysterious
significant amount of coins and other artefacts
death of this political leader.
excavated from this region also indicate a pre-
Travelling in a train to Patna, a year after he existing trade relation with the Romans even
was elected in 1967 as the president of the before it became a part of the Pallava Empire.
Jana Sangh, he was allegedly murdered.
Art & Architectural Masterpieces at
10 minutes after the train’s arrival at Mamallapuram:
Mughal sarai station, his body was found
near it clutching a five-rupee note in his Shore Temple: The Shore Temple (built in
hand. 700–728 AD) is so named because it overlooks
the shore of the Bay of Bengal. It is a structural
Hence, the problematic case has been temple, built with blocks of granite, dating
looked into by several judges and has seen from the 8th century AD. It was built during
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demands made by several MPs, politicians the reign of Narasimhavarman II. It is a
and family members to be reopened. remnant of a larger complex of temples and
Deendayal Upadhyayas Literary work: civil structures much of which lie under the
depth of the sea now.
Samrat Chandragupta (1946)
Descent of the Ganges: It is alternatively
Jagatguru Shankaracharya (1947) known as Arjuna’s Penance. Descent of the
Akhand Bharat Kyon? (1952) Ganges is a gigantic open air bas-relief

Bharatiya Arthniti: Vikas Ki Disha (1958)
O sculpted out of pink granite. The dramatic
relief sculpture narrates the tales from Indian
The Two Plans: Promises, Performances, Prospects epics such as the Mahabharata.
(1958) Pancha Ratha: Pancha Ratha (five chariots)
SC
Rashtra Jivan Ki Samasyayen (1960) is an architectural ode to Mahabharata’s five
Pandava brothers Yudhistir, Bhima, Arjuna,
Devaluation: A Great Fall (1966) Nakula, Sahadeva, and their wife Draupadi.
Political Diary (1968) Thematically and structurally, each ratha is
significantly different from the other ones, but
Rashtra Chintan all of them were carved out of a long stone or
Integral Humanism monolith
Rashtra Jivan Ki Disha
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8. Correct Option: (a) Explanation:
Explanation: Option is correct
Statement 2 is incorrect: It was during the Supplementary notes:
reign of King Narasimha Varman I (630
- 668AD), the name Mahabalipuram was About Kaniyan Pungundranar:
changed to Mamallapuram. Kaniyan Poongunranar, also Poongundranar
Supplementary notes: or Pungundranar was an influential Tamil
philosopher from the Sangam age.
Mamallapuram
His name Kaniyan implies that he was an
Mahabalipuram was the second capital astronomer as it is a Tamil word referring
of the Pallavas who ruled Kanchipuram. mathematics.
Formerly, mahabalipuram was known and
He was born and brought up in Mahibalanpatti,
called as Mamallapuram.
a village panchayat in the Thiruppatur taluk of
King Narasimha Varman I was a great and Sivaganga district in the state of Tamil Nadu.
valiant warrior. He was given the title Mamalla
He composed two poems in Purananuru
which means ‘the great wrestler’ so the
and Natrinai.
name was converted from Mahabalipuram
to Mamallapuram considering the great king His famous Tamil quote “Yaadhum Oore
PTTS2020/CARC/500 184
Yaavarum Kelir” meaning “To us all towns called Lena (known later as Guru Angad) as
are one, all men our kin” is at present his successor.
depicted in the United Nations Organisation
Guru Angad compiled the work of Guru
and also quoted by Prime Minister Narendra
Nanak and added to it his own script known
Modi in United Nations General Assembly
as Gurmukhi.
address.
The next three Gurus also wrote under Nanak’s
Abdul Kalam was the first one to quote this
name, and their work was compiled by Guru
famous quote in European Union Historical
Arjan in 1604.
Speech.
Works of Shaikh Farid, Sant Kabir, Bhagat
Namdev, and Guru Tegh Bahadur were also
10. Correct Option: (b) added to these compilations.
Explanation: Finally, in 1706, Guru Gobind Singh
Statement 1 is incorrect: Bathukamma is a authenticated the compilation and created
colourful and vibrant festival of Telangana the Guru Granth Sahib.
and celebrated by women, with flowers that Guru Nanak’s followers increased in the
grow exclusively in each region. This festival is sixteenth century as people from all castes
a symbol of Telangana’s cultural identity. and occupations joined the community.
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Supplementary notes: By the seventeenth century, the town of
Ramdaspur developed around a Gurudwara
Bathukamma
called the Harmandar Sahib and became a
Bathukamma is a colourful and vibrant festival self-governing society.
of Telangana and celebrated by women, with
The Mughal Emperor Jehangir saw them as a
flowers that grow exclusively in each region.
potential threat, and in 1606 he ordered the
This festival is a symbol of Telangana’s cultural
execution of Guru Arjan.

identity.
O
The festival begins a week before the grand
‘Saddula Batukamma’ (the grand finale of
By the seventeenth century, Guru Gobind
Singh organised the Khalsa Movement, and
the community of Sikhs became a political
the Batukamma festival) which falls two days
organisation called the Khalsa Panth.
SC
before Dussehra.
Bathukamma is a beautiful flower stack, Guru Nanak’s Teachings:
arranged with different unique seasonal Guru Nanak emphasised the worship of one
flowers most of them with medicinal values, in God and insisted that caste, creed, and gender
seven concentric layers in the shape of temple were irrelevant to attaining salvation.
gopuram.
According to him, pursuit of an active life
Batukamma celebrates the inherent would liberate humans, and he also used the
GS
relationship between earth, water and the terms nam, dan, and isnan to mean right
human beings. worship, welfare, and purity of conduct.
His ideas today are called nam-japna, kirt-
11. Correct Option: (d) karna, and vand-chhakna, which mean right
belief and worship, honest living, and helping
Explanation: others.
Thus, Guru Nanak’s idea of equality had social
Supplementary notes: and political implications.
Guru Nanak
Guru Nanak was born in Talwandi but he
travelled for years before he founded the Dera Explanation:
Baba Nanak in Kartarpur.
Option is correct: The site of Gottiprolu lies
Irrespective of their creed or caste, his followers on the right bank of a distributary of river
ate together in a common kitchen known Swarnamukhi, about 17 km east of Naidupet
as langar. And the sacred place/temple he in Andhra Pradesh.
created for worship and meditation was called
dharmasal (now known as Gurudwara). Supplementary notes:
Before he died in 1539, he appointed a follower Gottiprolu
185 PTTS2020/CARC/500
The 1st phase of excavation by a team of the Adil Shahi era in Vijayapura or Bijapur
Archaeological Survey of India’s Excavation (Karnataka), is now set to get funding for
Branch – VI, Bangalore at Gottiprolu near restoration.
Naidupeta in Nellore (now renamed as Sri
Potti Sri Ramulu) district, Andhra Pradesh According to historians, the Adil Shahis built
has discovered the remains of a huge the magnificent underground system to supply
settlement surrounded by a massive brick water to the city, which had a population of
enclosure. nearly 12 lakh then.
The site of Gottiprolu lies on the right bank Though the Karez system was built in
of a distributary of river Swarnamukhi, the 16th century by Ali Adil Shah–I, his
about 17 km east of Naidupet and 80 km successor, Ibrahim Adil Shah–II, brought in
from Tirupati and Nellore. several changes by adding more structures
Among many other antiquities unearthed to strengthen it.
are one life-size Vishnu sculpture and a wide A New York-based non-governmental
variety of pottery of the early centuries of the organization has included it in the World
current era. Monument Watch list for 2020 along with 24
Detailed topographical study and drone images other monuments from across the world.
have helped in identifying an early historic
The monument has been selected under
settlement surrounded by a fortification and
the ‘Ancient Water System of the Deccan
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the possibility of a moat encircling it.
Plateau’ by the World Monuments Fund [the
The fortification is very much clear on the NGO], which monitors restoration of ancient
eastern and southern sides of the mound while monuments across the globe.
its other arm seems to have been leveled as a
result of modern settlements. Karez System is a water harnessing
technology that originated in Iran/Persia.
The excavation unearthed brick-built structures The Karez technology basically taps into the
in elliptical, circular and rectangular shapes. The
groundwater sources (or natural springs)
O
size of bricks (43 to 48 cm) can be compared
and transports it through an underground
to those in the Satavahana/Ikshvaku period
structures in the Krishna valley, according to tunnel to the settlement, ending in surface
the ASI. This means the site may date back to canal and/or pools in the village for various
the 2nd century to 1st century BCE, it said. uses like drinking, washing, ablution, watering
SC
livestock, and also further used for irrigating
Another interesting find is the small rectangular fields, orchards and gardens.
brick tank exposed near the inner lining of the
curved brick structure. World Monuments Fund
The excavation also unearthed a series of World Monuments Fund is a private
broken terracotta pipes that fit into each other, nonprofit organization founded in 1965
pointing towards a form of drainage. by individuals concerned about the
These settlements could have been an accelerating destruction of important
GS
important trade center as indicated by artistic treasures throughout the world.

the presence of imitated amphorae wares World Monuments Fund works in collaboration
that were mostly used to transport liquid
with the local stakeholders, including the
commodities.
district administration, the Archaeological
Survey of India, and local explorers of ancient
13. Correct Option: (c) monuments, in highlighting the need for the
restoration of ancient monuments.
Explanation:
The World Monuments Watch is a global
Statement 2 is incorrect: Suranga Bawadi was program launched in 1995 on the occasion
built by Ali Adil Shah–I of Bijapur sultanate. of the 30th anniversary of World Monuments
Statement 3 is incorrect: World Monument Fund, which aims to identify imperiled cultural
Watch is a biennial selection of at-risk cultural heritage sites and direct financial and technical
heritage sites by the World Monuments Fund, support for their preservation.
a private nonprofit organization.
The World Monuments Watch is a biennial
Supplementary notes: selection of at-risk cultural heritage sites
that combine great historical significance
Suranga Bawadi with contemporary social impact.
Suranga Bawadi, an integral part of the
ancient Karez system of supplying water 14. Correct Option: (c)
through subterranean tunnels built during
PTTS2020/CARC/500 186
Explanation: Algoza: It is a double flute and is a
popular folk instrument of northwest
India, especially Punjab.
Supplementary notes: Tangmuri: It is a folk instrument of Khasi
Karez System hill people of Meghalaya.
Karez System is a water harnessing Titti: It is like bagpiper, made of goatskin.
technology that originated in Iran/Persia. It is made in south India especially Kerala
and Andhra Pradesh.
The Karez technology basically taps into the
groundwater sources (or natural springs) Mashak: An important folk instrument
and transports it through an underground of the Garhwal region in Uttarakhand. in
tunnel to the settlement, ending in surface Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.
canal and/or pools in the village for various
Gogona: It is made up of bamboo, used in
uses like drinking, washing, ablution, watering
the Bihu festival in Assam.
livestock, and also further used for irrigating
fields, orchards and gardens. Membranophones
Recently Suranga Bawadi, an integral part of Ghumot: It is like a drum and is played
the ancient Karez system of supplying water during the Ganesh festival in Goa. It was
through subterranean tunnels built during in news recently as it will be notified as
RE
the Adil Shahi era in Vijayapura or Bijapur a heritage instrument of Goa.
(Karnataka), was included it in the World
Monument Watch list for 2020 along with 24 Idakka: It is like Damru and is from Kerala.
other monuments from across the world. Udukai: It is an hour-glass shaped
instrument like damru from Tamil Nadu.
15. Correct Option: (c) Sambal: It is like a drum. It is played
with sticks in the Konkan region of
Explanation:
Option is correct: Algoza belongs to the
aerophone category; a double flute that
O
is a popular folk instrument of northwest

Maharashtra.
Tamak: It is an important instrument of
the Santhal tribe and is a two-headed
drum. It is beaten with drum sticks.
India, especially Punjab.
SC
Diggi: It is a folk drum from Ghariya village
Supplementary notes: of Uttar Pradesh.
Folk Musical Instruments Idiophones
Chordophones Chimpta: evolved from fire tongs, used in
Tumbi: It is played during Bhangra in Punjab.
Punjab.
Gharha: These are earthen pots, used in
Ektara or Tun Tuna: It is a one-stringed folk music of Punjab
GS

instrument played by wandering monks.
Andelu: It is used in Burra-Katha. It is a pair
Dotara: two-stringed instrument used by of hollow metal rings
Bauls
Chikara: bowed instrument used in 16. Correct Option: (d)
Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh and Madhya
Pradesh. Explanation:
Dilruba or Esraj: accompanying instrument Statement 1 is incorrect: He was born in
used in Punjab and during Rabindra a village, Talwandi Rai Bhoe, near Lahore
sangeet in eastern India. which was renamed later as Nankana Sahib.
Onavillu: Kerala. Made of bamboo. Sultanpur Lodhi is the land where he attained
enlightenment.
Sarinda: Important tribal instrument and
is used by Santhals in Eastern India and Statement 2 is incorrect: Adi Granth was
also used in Rajasthan and Assam. It is like compiled by Guru Arjan (5th Guru) in which
Sarangi. Guru Nanak’s compositions were included.
Aerophones Supplementary notes:

Pungi or Been: It is used by snake charmers. Guru Nanak Dev Ji
It is made up of dried bottle gourd and two
Guru Nanak (1469-1539), whose 550th
bamboo sticks.
birth anniversary was celebrated recently,
187 PTTS2020/CARC/500
is the greatest thinker, philosopher, poet, Supplementary notes:
traveler, political rebel, social leveler, mass
communicator and spiritual master the land of Dakshina Bharat Hindi Prachar Sabha
Punjab has produced. He was born in a village, “Dakshina Bharat Hindi Prachar Sabha” was
Talwandi Rai Bhoe, near Lahore which was established in the year 1918 by Mahatma
renamed later as Nankana Sahib. The room Gandhi with the sole aim of propagating
in which he was born constitutes the inner Hindi in southern states. The first Pracharak
sanctum of the Gurdwara Nankana Sahib. was none other than Devadoss Gandhi son of
Mahatma Gandhi.
In his youth, he used the medium of music,
poetry, song and speech to preach the love “Hindi Prachar” was a movement that
of God and to attack the politically oppressive emerged as part of Freedom Movement and
policies of the Mughal regime and the socially the leaders who led the nation to “FREE INDIA”
oppressive practices of casteism of the felt the necessity of making a single Indian
orthodox Brahmanical Hindu religion. He also Language the National Language and through
attacked the wealthy and spoke in favor of an that language unifies the people and thereby
equitable social status for women. intensify National Integration.
He moved to the town of Sultanpur Lodhi 1927 saw the emergence of Dakshina Bharat
- the land where Sri Guru Nanak Dev Ji Hindi Prachar Sabha as an independent
attained enlightenment, where he took the organization and Mahatma Gandhi was its
RE
job of an accountant in charge of the stores of President till he breathed his last.
the local Governor. It was declared by Parliament as an Institution
He used the language of the masses, Punjabi, of National Importance by an act in 1964.
to preach his ideas. The President of India, Shri Ram Nath Kovind
He transcended the limitations of geographical recently, unveiled a statue of Mahatma Gandhi
space and historical time in delivering a at the Dakshina Bharat Hindi Prachar Sabha in
message that had universal relevance. The Chennai.
O
fact that in his own lifetime, communities of
his followers had emerged in what are today 18. Correct Option: (a)
India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Afghanistan,
Nepal, Tibet and Sri Lanka — and even in Iraq Explanation:
SC
and Iran — illustrates that his message had
Statement 2 is incorrect: In 2019, it was
transcended the geographical boundaries of
celebrated on the river Brahmaputra river of
Punjab.
Assam.
His written compositions were included
in the Adi Granth compiled by Guru Arjan Supplementary notes:
(1563-1606), the fifth Sikh guru. This came Brahmaputra Pushkaram Festival
to be known as Guru Granth Sahib after
the additions made by the 10th guru Guru The Assam government is
GS
Gobind Singh (1666-1708). celebrating Brahmaputra Pushkaram- a 12-

day mega river festival in November 2019.
In the last phase of his life that Guru Nanak Earlier, the Brahmaputra Pushkaram festival
spent at Kartarpur Sahib, he provided was held in 2007.
a practical demonstration of building a
community based on strong egalitarian In 2018, the Pushkaram festival
values of cooperative agricultural work and was celebrated on the banks of
innovative social institutions of langar the Tamiraparani in Tirunelveli district,
(collective cooking and sharing of food), Tamil Nadu.
pangat (partaking food without distinctions of It will be the second biggest river
high and low) and sangat (collective decision festival ever to be celebrated in the state of
making). Assam after Namami Brahmaputra.
Guru Nanak and Sikhism were influenced Pushkaram festival is a festival of rivers
by the nirguni (formless God) tradition of that pertains to the 12 important rivers in
Bhakti movement in medieval India. India. It occurs once in 12 years for each
river.
Explanation: 19. Correct option:
Statement 1 is incorrect: It was set up in Explanation:
1918 by Mahatma Gandhi. Statement 1 is incorrect: Pathalgadi
PTTS2020/CARC/500 188
movement was associated with the Munda from obtaining licence for firearms such
tribal community. as pistols, revolvers and double-barrelled
shotguns.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Pathalgadi
movement originated in Jharkhand. The Kodavas worship weapons during the
‘Kailpodh’ festival and the decision has been
Supplementary notes: taken considering the cultural and religious
Pathalgadi Movement sensitivities of the community that belongs to
the Coorg region of the state.
The state government of Jharkhand tried
The exemption has been given for a tenure of
to amend the Chotanagpur Tenancy Act,
10 years, till 2029.
1908 and Santhal Parganas Tenancy Act,
1876 to facilitate easier land acquisition The central government has provided the
norms which added to the problem for exemption in the Rules issued under the Arms
tribal community. However,They were also Act
withdrawn later on.
The Kodavas are the only community in the
These decisions gave rise to the Pathalgarhi country who are exempted from obtaining
incidents in the tribal belt demanding arm licenses
implementation of the FRA and provisions of They are land-owning agriculturists with
the Panchayats (Extension of Scheduled Areas) martial customs. They practice family
RE
Act (PESA), 1996. exogamy and caste endogamy
Pathalgadi, having its origin in a resistance
movement by tribals during British rule, is
a practice of raising huge stone plaques at
21. Correct option: (c)
village outskirts with warnings to outsiders Explanation:
not to enter and declaring the gram
sabha,or village council, the only sovereign
O Both statements are correct
authority. Supplementary notes:
Pathalgadi movement has associated with The UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN)
the Munda tribal community.
UNESCO has designated Mumbai as a
They had started Pathalgadi by engraving
SC
member of UNESCO Creative Cities Network
these PESA provisions in all the villages of (UCCN) in the field of FILM and Hyderabad
Jharkhand to increase awareness among the in the field of GASTRONOMY.
tribal people about their rights.
The UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN)
In Munda tribal custom, placement of a huge is a project of UNESCO launched in 2004 to
stone marks the death of a person. promote cooperation among cities which
recognized creativity as a major factor in their
The Pathalgadi movement draws on this
urban development.
tradition of honouring the community’s
GS
ancestors As of 2017, there are 180 cities from 72

countries in the network.
20. Correct Option: The network aims to foster mutual

international cooperation with and between
Explanation: member cities committed to invest in
creativity as a driver for sustainable urban
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Kodavas are
development, social inclusion and cultural
considered a patrilineal ethno-lingual tribe
vibrancy.
from the region of Kodagu, (in Karnataka state
of southern India) The Network recognizes the following creative
fields:
The overall situation and activities within the
Kodava Community Network is reported in the UCCN Membership
The Kodavas are considered a patrilineal Monitoring Reports, each for a 4-year period
ethno-lingual tribe from the region of for a particular city.
Kodagu, (in Karnataka state of southern
The Network recognizes the concept of
India
creative tourism, defined as travel associated
The Centre has decided to continue a British- with creative experience and participation
era rule of exempting the Kodavas of Coorg, a
well-known martial community in Karnataka,
189 PTTS2020/CARC/500
22. Correct Option: (a) Supplementary notes:
Explanation: Bhima Koregaon Battle

Option is correct Mahar and other backward classes from
Maharashtra and other parts of the country
Supplementary notes: organised at Bhima Koregaon every year
Sarajevo Haggadah on January 1 to commemorate 200 years of
courage, valour and sacrifice of their ancestors
Originating in Northern Spain in the second with courage and sacrifice.
half of the 14th century, the “Sarajevo
Haggadah” is a valuable manuscript written It is a place which has been mediated by
on parchment, with superb illuminations. competing narratives of Dalit assertion
against Brahminical oppression, and Indian
Its origin and journey to Sarajevo, where it ‘nationalism’ standing up to the colonial army
has been housed by the National Museum of of the East India Company during the battle
Bosnia and Herzegovina since the end of the of Bhima Koregaon on January 1, 1818. The
19th century, are still shrouded in mystery.
battle has come to be seen as a “symbol of
The Sarajevo Haggadah consists of 142 leaves Dalit pride”. Hence, it has been celebrated by
of extraordinarily thin, bleached calfskin the Dalit over the years.
vellum.
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Anglo-Maratha War
The Sarajevo Haggadah is divided into three
parts: The Battle took place when the forces of
Maratha ruler Peshwa Baji Rao II fought
The first part consists of 34 pages with a with those of the British East India Company
total of 69 illuminated miniatures depicting in which the majority of soldiers belong to
Biblical events from the Creation to slavery Mahar at Bhima Koregaon, named so for
in Egypt to the succession of Joshua after being situated on the bank of River Bhima.
the death of Moses.
O
The second part consists of 50 pages

with the text that is read out loud during
Passover, written in medieval Sephardic Explanation:
SC
script.
The third part contains poetry by the most
prominent Jewish poets of the Middle Ages. Supplementary notes:
The Sarajevo Haggadah was made in Barcelona Pt. Madan Mohan Malaviya
around the year 1350.
The Prime Minister of India paid tribute to Pt.
It left Spain in 1492 after the Expulsion of the Madan Mohan Malaviya on his 158th birth
Jews, and surfaced again in Italy in the 17th anniversary (25th December, 2019).
GS
century.
Born on 25th December 1861, in Allahabad
The pigments on the pages are made from (now Prayagraj) in Uttar Pradesh, Malviya
lapis lazuli, azurite, and malachite. played a key role in the Indian independence
The illuminations are decorated using gold, struggle against British rule and founded the
silver, and copper leaf. Banaras Hindu University (BHU) in 1916.
The names of the artist and the scribe are He is also remembered for his role in ending
unknown. the Indian indenture system, especially in
the Caribbean.
The illuminations in the Sarajevo Haggadah
show both Christian and Islamic influences. Indentured labour was a system of bonded
labour that was instituted following the
abolition of slavery in 1833.
Indentured labour were recruited to work on
Explanation: sugar, cotton and tea plantations, and rail
construction projects in British colonies in
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Battle took West Indies, Africa and South East Asia.
place when the forces of Maratha ruler Peshwa
He popularized the term ‘Satyamev Jayate’.
Baji Rao II fought with those of the British
However, the phrase originally belongs to
East India Company the Mundaka Upanishad. The term now is the
PTTS2020/CARC/500 190
national motto of India. Tulu.
He was given the title of ‘Mahamana’ by Tulu is a Dravidian language whose speakers
Rabindranath Tagore and the second President are concentrated in the region of Tulu Nadu,
of India, Dr. S. Radhakrishnan gave him the which comprises the districts of Dakshina
status of a ‘Karmayogi’. Kannada and Udupi in Karnataka and the
Devnagri was introduced in the British-Indian northern part of Kasaragod district of Kerala.
courts because of Malviya’s efforts with the Kasaragod district is called ‘Sapta Bhasha
British government. This is still considered as
Samgama Bhumi (the confluence of seven
one of his greatest achievements.
languages)’, and Tulu is among the seven.
Madan Mohan Malviya was expelled from the
Brahmin community for expressing his views The Yuelu Proclamation, made by the
on caste discrimination and Brahmanical UNESCO at Changsha, The People’s Republic
patriarchy. He worked immensely for Hindu- of China, in 2018, says: “The protection and
Muslim unity. He is known to have given promotion of linguistic diversity helps to
famous speeches on communal harmony. improve social inclusion and partnerships,
helps to reduce the gender and social
He helped establish the Hindu Mahasabha
inequality between different native speakers,
(“Great Society of Hindus”) in 1906, which
brought diverse local Hindu nationalist guarantee the rights for native speakers of
movements together. endangered, minority, indigenous languages,
RE
as well as non-official languages and dialects
Malaviya’s consciousness toward the public to receive education, enhance the social
led to the launch of his own Hindi-language inclusion level and social decision-making
weekly, the Abhyudaya (1907); the Leader of ability by encouraging them to participate in a
Allahabad, an English-language daily (1909);
series of actions to promote cultural diversity,
and the Hindi monthly the Maryada (1910).
He also served as the chairman of the board endangered language protection, and the
of Hindustan times and facilitated the launch
O protection of intangible cultural heritage...”
of its Hindi edition. India has a lot to learn from the Yuelu
He died on 12th November, 1946, at the age Proclamation. Placing of all the deserving
of 84. languages on equal footing will promote
social inclusion and national solidarity.
In 2014, he was posthumously conferred with
SC

It will reduce the inequalities within the
Bharat Ratna, the country’s highest civilian
country to a great extent.
award.
25. Correct Option: (b) 26. Correct Option: (a)

Option is correct Statement 3 is incorrect: While the
monument in Agra is made entirely out of pure
GS
Supplementary notes: white marble, the mausoleum in Aurangabad

Tulu Language is encased with marble only up to the dado
level. Above this, it is covered with a fine
There has been growing demand to plaster polished to give a marble-like finish.
include Tulu in the Eighth Schedule of the
Constitution. At present, Tulu is not an official Supplementary notes:
language in India or any other country.
Bibi Ka Maqbara
According to Census-2011, there are more
than 18 lakh native speakers of Tulu in India. Archeological Survey of India will carry out
The Tulu-speaking people are larger in number scientific conservation of monument.
than speakers of Manipuri and Sanskrit, which
The marble domes of Bibi Ka Maqbara, the
have the Eighth Schedule status.
famous 17th century Mughal-era monument
If included in the Eighth Schedule, Tulu would in the city, are set to get a new shine.
get recognition from the Sahitya Akademi.
Tulu books would be translated into other Its domes and minarets, which are built in
recognized Indian languages. Members of marble, as well as the marble screens inside,
Parliament and MLAs could speak in Tulu in would undergo scientific conservation.
Parliament and State Assemblies, respectively. The structure, known as the ‘Taj of the
Candidates could write all-India competitive
Deccan’ because of its striking resemblance
examinations like the Civil Services exam in
to the Taj Mahal, was commissioned by
191 PTTS2020/CARC/500
Emperor Aurangzeb in 1660 in the memory by Maharaja Ranjit Singh, after he visited
of his wife Dilras Banu Begum. Nankana Sahib in 1818-19 while returning
from the Battle of Multan.
While the monument in Agra is made
entirely out of pure white marble, the During British rule, the Gurdwara Janam
mausoleum in Aurangabad is encased Asthan was the site of a violent episode
with marble only up to the dado level. when in 1921, over 130 Akali Sikhs were
killed after they were attacked by the
Above this, it is covered with a fine plaster
Mahant of the shrine.
polished to give a marble-like finish. Only
the onion dome was built with marble. The The incident is regarded as one of the
walls of the Maqbara are also a little dusky by key milestones in the Gurdwara Reform
contrast, which gives the mausoleum a duller Movement, which led to the passing of the
appearance compared to the Taj. Sikh Gurdwara Act in 1925 that ended the
Mahant control of Gurdwaras.

Explanation:
Explanation:
Statement 2 is incorrect: It was founded in
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Supplementary notes: 1935 when the Bharata Itihasa Samshodhaka
Mandala (BISM) organized an All India
Nankana Sahib Congress to celebrate its silver jubilee.
Tension mounted in Nankana Sahib in Pakistan Supplementary notes:
and there was outrage in India after a mob,
Indian History Congress
led by the family of a Muslim man who had
married a Sikh teenage girl, hurled stones at Recently, the 80th session of the Indian History
O
Gurdwara Janam Asthan, the birthplace of

Congress (IHC) was held at Kannur, Kerala.
Guru Nanak Dev, and threatened to convert it It called upon political and administrative
into a mosque. authorities to pursue the constitutional duty
of promoting composite culture, which is vital
SC
Nankana Sahib is a city of 80,000 in
Pakistan’s Punjab province, where Gurdwara to promoting the territorial unity of India.
Janam Asthan (also called Nankana Sahib The inception of the Indian History Congress
Gurdwara) is located. (IHC) can be traced to the efforts of scholars
working on India’s ancient past as well as
The shrine is built over the site where modern history, in a bid to counter the
Guru Nanak, the founder of Sikhism, was colonial claims, while also drawing from
believed to be born in 1469. Western analytical methods. The Bharata
GS
It is 75 km to the west of Lahore, and is the Itihasa Samshodhaka Mandala (BISM) was
one such effort that owed its origins to the
capital of Nankana Sahib District.
stalwart Vishwanath Kashinath Rajwade.
The city was previously known as Talwandi, and He founded this institution in 1910 in Pune
was founded by Rai Bhoi, a wealthy landlord. with the support of K C Mehendale.
Rai Bhoi’s grandson, Rai Bular Bhatti, renamed The BISM organized an All India Congress
the town ‘Nankana Sahib’ in honor of the Guru. in 1935 to celebrate its silver jubilee. The
‘Sahib’ is an Arabic-origin epithet of respect. Indian History Congress (IHC) was thus
born with about 50 delegates.
Besides Gurdwara Janam Asthan, Nankana
Sahib has several important shrines, including Indian History Congress (IHC) is the largest
Gurdwara Patti Sahib, Gurdwara Bal Leela, association of professional historians in
South Asia. It has about 35000 members
Gurdwara Mal Ji Sahib, Gurdwara Kiara Sahib,
of which over 2000 delegates participate in
Gurdwara Tambu Sahib — all dedicated to
its session every year. It has been holding
stages in the life of the first Guru.
its sessions very regularly from its inception
There is also a Gurdwara in memory of Guru and publishing its proceedings every year
Arjan (5th Guru) and Guru Hargobind (6th since 1935. Its main objective is to promote
Guru). Guru Hargobind is believed to have secular and scientific writing of history.
paid homage to the town in 1621-22.
The Janam Asthan shrine was constructed 29. Correct Option: (a)
PTTS2020/CARC/500 192
Explanation: injured. He died on November 17, 1928,
due to his serious injuries and his death is
Statement 2 is incorrect: In 1920, after his celebrated as Martyrs’ Day in Odisha.
return from America, Lajpat Rai was invited
to preside over the special session of the
Congress in Calcutta. 30. Correct Option: (c)
Statement 3 is incorrect: His death is Explanation:
celebrated as Martyr’s Day in Odisha.
Lala Lajpat Rai
Vakataka Dynasty
Lala Lajpat Rai was a prominent nationalist
Recent archaeological excavations at
leader who played an important role in India’s
Nagardhan in Ramtek taluka, near Nagpur,
struggle for freedom. His fierce brand of have provided concrete evidence on the life,
patriotism and potent vocalism against the religious affiliations and trade practices of the
British rule earned him the title of ‘Punjab Vakataka dynasty that ruled parts of Central
Kesari’ or the Lion of the Punjab. and South India between the third and fifth
He also initiated the foundation of Punjab centuries.
National Bank. Vakatakas were the Shaivite rulers of Central
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Lala Lajpat Rai was a voracious reader and India between the third and fifth centuries.
everything he read left a great imprint on All that was known about the dynasty, believed
to hail from the Vidarbha region, was largely
his mind. He was deeply impressed by the
through some literature and copperplates.
ideals of patriotism and nationalism outlined
by Italian revolutionary leader Giuseppe It is the first time clay sealings have been
Mazzini. Inspired by Mazzini, Lalaji became excavated from Nagardhan. The oval-
indoctrinated into the revolutionary way of shaped sealing belongs to the period when
O
attaining freedom. He, together with other
prominent leaders like Bipin Chandra Pal,
Aurobindo Ghosh from Bengal, and Bal
Gangadhar Tilak from Maharashtra, began to
Prabhavatigupta was the queen of the Vakataka
dynasty. It bears her name in the Brahmi script,
along with the depiction of a conch.
The presence of the conch, scholars say, is
see the negative aspects of moderate politics
SC
a sign of the Vaishnava affiliation that the
advocated by many leaders of the Indian Guptas held.
National Congress.
The Vakataka rulers were known to have
He went to Britain in 1914 and then to the forged several matrimonial alliances with
USA in 1917. In October 1917, he founded other dynasties of their times. One of the
the Indian Home Rule League of America in key alliances was with Prabhavatigupta of
New York. He stayed in the USA from 1917 the mighty Gupta dynasty, which was then
to 1920. ruling north India. After marrying Vakataka
king Rudrasena II, Prabhavatigupta enjoyed
GS
In 1920, after his return from America, the position of Chief Queen.
Lajpat Rai was invited to preside over the
special session of the Congress in Calcutta.
He was the first President of All India Trade
Union Congress (AITUC) which led the trade Explanation:
union movement.
Option is correct
He was initially not in favor of the policy of
non-cooperation (he was against the boycott Supplementary notes:
of schools) but later he supported the
movement. In fact he protested against its Kumbhabishegam row: How the old Aryan-
withdrawal in 1922. Dravidian tussle played out in an iconic Tamil
Nadu temple
His proposal for “a clear partition of India
into a Muslim India and non-Muslim India” This enormously significant event was held
on December14, 1924, in The Tribune, met after 23 years.
with major controversy.
The judgment delivered the struggle for
In 1928, the British government set up a supremacy between the Sanskrit and Tamil
commission and no Indian was named in the traditions that lies at the heart of several
list. Lala Lajpat Rai led the silent march in cultural battles in the state — and which
protests and in return, British police declared also played out in the kumbhabishegam
a lathi charge, where Rai was assaulted and ceremony.
193 PTTS2020/CARC/500
The consecration ceremony that culminated It is one among the five known townships
with the maha poornahuthi or the main puja of the Harappan civilisation in the Indian
The Sri Brahadeeswarar Temple (also spelt subcontinent.
Brihadisvara, and called Peruvudaiyar Koyil, Between 2013 and 2016, excavations were
which translates simply to ‘Big Temple’) is carried out at the cemetery in Rakhigarhi
the most famous of the many temples in by a team of Indian and South Korean
Thanjavur. researchers led by Vasant Shinde of Deccan
The temple, one of the world’s largest and College, Pune.
grandest, was built between 1003 AD and In one of their excavations, the skeletal
1010 AD by the great Chola emperor Raja Raja
remains of a couple were discovered.
I (c. 985-1014 AD).
Interestingly, of the 62 graves discovered
Holy water brought from the yaga salai — the
in Rakhigarhi, only this particular grave
site of the yajna in the temple compound —
was poured on the gold-plated kalasam that consisted of more than one skeletal
tops the 216-foot vimanam over the sanctum remains and of individuals of the opposite
sanctorum. sex together.
The other idols at the temple too, were Hastinapur

sanctified with holy water from the yaga salai. Excavations at Hastinapur, in Meerut
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Kumbha-abhishekam is a purification district of Uttar Pradesh.
ceremony to sanctify the temple structures
Hastinapur finds mention in the
and the Deities.
Mahabharata and the Puranas.
Kumbha (kalasa) is a pot and the abhishekam
One of the most significant discoveries
-generally means ‘bathing’ (Sanskrit root
word-Shic- to sprinkle – , abhi -all around-). made at this site was of the “new ceramic
industry”, which was named the Painted

O
When the two words are combined, it ‘means Grey Ware, which as per the report
ceremonial pouring of sanctified materials.’ represented the relics of the early Indo-
In temple worship, sixty-four worship Aryans.
procedures are recommended by Agama The Painted Grey Ware would be associated
Sastras.
SC
with the early settlers on these sites, viz.
Of these sixty-four, five upacharas (paadyam, The Pauravas, Panchalas, etc., who formed
gandham, pushpam, dhoopam, deepam) are a part of the early Aryan stock in India.
of paramount importance.
Such an association may also explain the
These five are then followed by naivedyam, synchronism between the appearance of
which is distributed to devotees as prasadam. the Painted Grey Ware in the Ghaggar-
Among the five upachara, paadyam, or offer Sutlej valleys and the probable date of the
arrival of the Aryans in that area.”
GS
of water is most important.

This is the reason why during the Kumbha- Sivasagar
abhishekam, water contained in pots is first In Sivasagar, excavations at the Karenghar
sanctified with Vedic prayers (Theertha kalasa (Talatalghar) complex between 2000
Pooja), after which it used for abhishekam for and 2003 led to the discovery of buried
the deities and other structures. structures in the north-western and north-
eastern side of the complex.
32. Correct Option: (d) Among the structural remains found at the
site were ceramic assemblages including
Explanation: vases, vessels, dishes, and bowls, etc.
All statements are correct Terracotta smoking pipes were also found.
Another excavation site in Sivasagar district
Supplementary notes
is the Garhgaon Raja’s palace.
The Five ‘Iconic’ Archaeological Sites A burnt-brick wall running in north-south
mentioned in the Budget orientation was found, along with the
Rakhigarhi remains of two huge circular wooden
posts.
Rakhigarhi in Haryana’s Hissar district is
Dholavira
one of the most prominent and largest
sites of the Harappan civilisation. Dholavira in Gujarat is located in the
PTTS2020/CARC/500 194
Khadir island of the Rann of Kutch, and like The constitution was written in both Hindi and
Rakhigarhi is one of the sites where the English languages.
remains of the Harappan civilisation have
been found. Bose’s illustrations: Bose harnessed a variety
of Indian art traditions, including myths and
Dholavira is unique because remains of a actual history. Illustrations include:
complete water system have been found
here. Land of forest, desert, sea and mountain start
with the seal of a Harappan bull.
The people who lived there for an
estimated 1,200 years during the The forested hermitages of the rishis.
Harappan civilisation are noted for their
water conservation system using rainwater Ram, Sita and Lakshman.
harvesting techniques in an otherwise The great dilemma of what is righteous action
parched landscape. is typified Arjun and Krishna.
Adichnallur
Division of the relics of Buddha from the life
Adichnallur lies in the Thoothukudi district of Ashok.
of Tamil Nadu.
Only one female heroine- Rani Lakshmibai of
The urn-burial site was first brought to Jhansi.
light during a “haphazard excavation” by a
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German archaeologist in 1876. Many styles of Indian art: the wall paintings
of Ajanta, Bagh and the book illustrations of
Following this, an Englishman Alexander
Rajasthan, the Mughal, Deccani and Pahari
Rae excavated the site between 1889 and
1905. traditions, the sculptures of Konark, Bharhut,
Amaravati, Mahabalipuram and the Chola
Over the years, the site has gained attention south.
because of three important findings: the
discovery of an ancient Tamil-Brahmi
O
script on the inside of an urn containing a
full human skeleton, a fragment of broken
earthenware, and the remains of living
quarters.
Explanation:
Option is correctly matched:
SC
Paintings State
A. Paitkar 2. Jharkhand
Explanation:
B. Pattachittra 3. Odisha
Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect: The
constitution was calligraphed by Prem Bihari C. Madhubani 1. Bihar
Raizada. Nand Lal Bose worked on the borders
of each page. Supplementary notes:
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Madhubani Paintings
Mithila painting is practiced in the
Art in the Constitution Northern and Eastern Bihar region in India
Calligraphy: The original copy of the and in Nepal. Twigs, nibs, matchsticks, and
Constitution was carved out of his own hands fingers are used for painting. Natural dyes and
pigments are used as paints. It is characterized
by the then-famous Caligrapher (calligrapher)
by geometrical patterns such as line drawing
Prem Bihari Narayan Raizada.
filled with bright colors. The painting is done
Raizada wrote the constitution in italic style, in on freshly plastered or mud walls. Godna,
which he did not make a single error. Kohbar, Tantrik, Bharni, and Katchni are the
distinctive styles of Madhubani painting.
Raizada did not take a single penny to write
the constitution. Pattachitra
He only requested to write his name on every Pattachitra style of painting is one of the
page, and his grandfather’s name (from whom oldest and most popular art forms of
Odisha. Pattachitra – literally translates to
he had inherited his calligraphy skills) on the
picture on a cloth. It is traditionally practiced in
last page. His request was accepted.
the state of Odisha. The paintings encompass
Several students of Santiniketan worked on Hindu mythology, religious stories, folklore
the borders that frame each page. Among and the figures of deities. Natural paints and
them were Nand Lal Bose and his disciples. a cloth canvas are used for creating simple
195 PTTS2020/CARC/500
themes. Supplementary notes:
Paitkar Paintings Indian culture portal is the first government
authorized portal where knowledge and
Amadubi situated in the Eastern part of
cultural resources of various organizations of
Jharkhand is also called the village of
Ministry of Culture are now available in public
Paitkar. ‘Paitkar’ is the traditional painting of
domain on a single platform.
this village, an art form which is present in the
village from ancient times. It is a part of National Virtual Library of India
Project.
The Paitkar paintings are also popularly known
as the scroll paintings of Jharkhand. This The Indian Culture portal was envisioned by
painting form is popular in West Bengal, Bihar, the Ministry of Culture and was developed by
Odisha and other adjacent states of India. a team from the Indian Institute of Technology
The tribal artists in Jharkhand have fostered (IIT), Bombay while the curation of the data
this art of scroll painting that has long been has been done by Indira Gandhi National
used in storytelling performances and in Open University (IGNOU).
socio-religious customs. The content available on the portal comprises
The paintings that belong to this form have a mainly of rare books, e-books, manuscripts,
common subject of what happens to human artefacts from museum, virtual galleries,
life after death. archives, photo archives, gazetteers, Indian
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National Bibliography, videos, images, cuisine,
The historical lineage of the Paitkar painting UNESCO, Musical Instruments of India among
can be traced to the culture associated with others.
the state of West Bengal, but now the art is
practiced only in Amadubi village. One of the unique features of the portal is the
stories, based on original archival documents
Paitkar painting may be considered as the
narrated in an interesting, easy to read and
variable of Pata painting. Pata painting or
understand format.
Patachitra was term used for long scroll
O
painting. This scroll painting has a vertical The portal also contains write-ups and beautiful
format. pictures on cuisines, festivals, paintings, folk art
and classical art from different states of India.
Pata painting is one of the earliest folk
paintings of India. Rich information about rare books, manuscripts
SC
and research papers on our cultural heritage is
also available on this portal.
35. Correct Option: (a) The content on the portal is available in
Explanation: English and Hindi language in an interactive,
user-friendly interface. As envisioned by the
Yakshagana Ministry, the portal also will be available in
Yakshagana is a traditional theatre form of other regional languages in future.
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Karnataka. The larger aim of the Indian Culture portal is

It is a temple art form that depicts mythological to create awareness among the citizens about
stories and Puranas. the diverse heritage of our country.
It is performed with massive headgears,

elaborate facial make-up and vibrant costumes 37. Correct Option: (d)
and ornaments.
Explanation:
Usually recited in Kannada, it is also performed
in Malayalam as well as Tulu (the dialect of Chapchar Kut Festival
south Karnataka).
Chapchar Kut Festival is being celebrated in
It is performed with percussion instruments the State of Mizoram.
like chenda, maddalam, jagatta or chengila
(cymbals) and chakratala or elathalam (small Chapchar Kut is an annual harvest festival
cymbals). of the Mizo Community which marks the
beginning of Spring Season.
36. Correct Option: (c) It is celebrated during March every year where
they cut bamboo trees and are left to dry so
Explanation: that they can be burnt for jhum Cultivation.
Both statements are correct During the festival,traditional bamboo dances
such as Cheraw are also performed.
PTTS2020/CARC/500 196
38. Correct Option: (a) the occasion of the Herath festival.
The word Herath comes from the Sanskrit
Explanation:
word Hararatri or the Night or Hara (another
Attukal Pongala name of Lord Shiva).
Annual 10-day Attukal Pongala It is one of the biggest festivals of Kashmiri

Pandits.
festival was held at Attukal Temple in
Thiruvananthapuram (Kerala) in February The festival is marked by a night of praying
2019. followed by a day of feasting.
Pongala (meaning- ‘to boil over’) is the ritual

in which women prepare sweet payasam (a 41. Correct Option: (a)
pudding made from rice, jaggery, coconut, Explanation:
and plantains) and offer it to the Goddess.
Bagru Printing
The Goddess is fondly referred to as
‘Attukalamma’. Union Textiles Minister recently inaugurated
the ‘Titanwala Museum’ in Bagru that
Attukal temple is also popularly known as showcases the Chhipa community’s hand-
women’s Sabarimala - where only women block printing.
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are allowed to take part in the rituals. Bagru printing is one of the traditional
It was listed in the Guinness World Records in techniques of hand block printing with
natural colour followed by the chippas of a
2009 for being the largest religious gathering
remote place of Rajasthan.
of women on a single day
The process starts from preparing the cloth
to finished printed fabrics through their
39. Correct Option: (d) O indigenous methods.
Explanation: Motifs having some specialty are transferred

onto light colored background with wooden
Statement 1 is incorrect: A world-class blocks following two styles direct and resist
National Maritime Heritage Complex will be style.
developed at Lothal, Gujarat.
SC
Indigo, pomegranate, harda are used to obtain
Statement 2 is incorrect: The MoU between the natural colors.
India and Portugal on National Maritime Although this technique is facing problems
Heritage Complex, Lothal will pay the way for against the threat of globalization, this exotic
cooperation between the two countries for art of creation is required to be encouraged
showcasing common Maritime Heritage. in the present context of environmental
consciousness.
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National Maritime Heritage Complex 42. Correct Option: (b)

(NMHC)
Explanation:
A world-class National Maritime Heritage
Complex will be developed at Lothal, Gujarat. Statement 1 is incorrect: 22 Languages listed
in Schedule VIII.
The MoU between India and Portugal on
National Maritime Heritage Complex, Lothal Supplementary notes:
will pay the way for cooperation between
the two countries for showcasing common Saraswati Samman
Maritime Heritage. Siva Reddy was awarded the latest edition of
NMHC will consolidate all diverse and rich Saraswati Samman for his collection Pakkaki
artifacts from ancient to modern times. Ottigilite. K Siva Reddy is a Telugu poet.
It will provide access to the public and make The Saraswati Samman is an annual award
them aware of India’s rich Maritime Heritage for outstanding prose or poetry literary
works in any of the 22 languages of India
listed in Schedule VIII of the Constitution
40. Correct Option: (b) of India.
Explanation: The Saraswati Samman was instituted in 1991
by the K. K. Birla Foundation.
Herath Festival
The Prime Minister has greeted the people on It consists of Rs 15 lakh, a citation and a
197 PTTS2020/CARC/500
plaque. Barpetians are overwhelmed with festivity and
joy.
Candidates are selected from literary works
published in the previous ten years by a panel It is a festival of color and happiness.
that included scholars and former award
Doul festival is a great source of happiness
winners.
among the people of Barpeta.
The inaugural award was given to
During this festival, the people of Barpeta
Harivanshrai ‘Bachchan’ for his four volume
forget their sorrows and agonies and
autobiography.
celebrate this festival with traditional gaiety
and enthusiasm.
43. Correct Option: (d) Doul utsava is also called ‘holi’ or ‘rang’.
Explanation: In the month of “phagun” and “Chot” the
Option is correct: It is performed on the spring comes, the world is filled with the
occasion of Onam. green leaves of the trees, the flowers bloom,
birds sing sweet songs, the gentle wind blows
Pulikali with fragrance and everything of this world
changed into a different one.
Pulikali (puli means leopard and kali means
play) is a dance performed by men adorning And it this sweet moment when Doul Utsava
the costume of leopard. It is performed in of Barpeta celebrated.
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different parts of Kerala during the festival Holigeets of Barpeta are remarkably popular
of Onam. Yet, the one that is performed in which enthralls the heart of every Assamese.
Thrissur district is quite old. From children
to elderly people take part in Pulikali. The These holigeets are the exquisite
performer will be wearing masks of leopard compositions in praise of Lord Krishna.
face and body painted in black and yellow.
People from different places visit Barpeta Xatra
Leopard faces are also drawn on bellies.
with a view to seeing this doul utsava.
The group comprises predominantly male

O
leopards with few female and child leopards.
Since wearing masks, there is no significance 46. Correct Option: (d)
for facial expressions. Men with potbellies
shake it and dance, which is real fun to watch.
Explanation:
Belum Caves
SC
44. Correct Option: (a) Belum Caves are the largest cave system
open to the public in the Indian subcontinent
Explanation and is a protected monument.
Statement 2 is incorrect: It is practised by It is known for its stalactite and stalagmite
“Gond” tribe of Central India. formations.
Supplementary notes: It is located in Andhra Pradesh.
GS
Gond Art They have remained unnoticed as opposed to

the Borra Caves in the Araku Valley.
Gond art encompasses life as the central
theme of art. Belum Caves festival is expected to be held
in December.
It is practised by “Gond” tribe of Central
India. It will be the first tourism festival to be held in
the district after a gap of five years.
The art form celebrates life i.e, hills, streams,
animals, birds etc. The name ‘Kandanavolu Sambaralu’ has been
proposed for the festival, ‘Kandanavolu’ being
The tribes, traditionally painted on the mud the original name of Kurnool.
walls of their house.
This is the largest cave system in the Indian
sub-continent that is open to the public.
However, minor caves around the State are
Explanation: more popular than Belum Caves due to better
publicity.
Doul Utsav
Doul festival is colorfully celebrated by the

people of Assam 47. Correct Option: (d)
Especially it is the tremendous occasion for Explanation:
the people of Barpeta. Tagore Award for Cultural Harmony
During the “Doul Utsava,” the hearts of
PTTS2020/CARC/500 198
The President of India presented the and Kedar Nath at an estimated cost of
Tagore Award for Cultural Harmony to Shri Rs.12,000 crores.
Rajkumar Singhajit Singh; Chhayanaut (a
cultural organization of Bangladesh); and This highway will be called Char Dham
Shri Ram Sutar Vanji for the years 2014, Mahamarg(Char Dham Highway) and
2015 & 2016 respectively on 18.02.2019. construction project will be called Char Dham
Mahamarg Vikas Pariyojana(Char Dham
Tagore Award for Cultural Harmony was Highway Development Project).
instituted by the Government of India from
2012 recognizing the contributions made by
Gurudev Rabindranath Tagore to humanity at 49. Correct Option: (b)
large with his works and ideas, as part of the
Commemoration of his 150thBirth Anniversary Explanation:
in 2012, for promoting values of Cultural Statement 1 is incorrect: Its located near
Harmony. Nellore in Andhra Pradesh
It is awarded annually and carries an amount
of Rs. One Crore (convertible to foreign
currency), a citation in a Scroll, a Plaque as Gottiprolu
well as an exquisite traditional handicraft /
handloom item. The 1st phase of excavation by a team of
Archaeological Survey of India’s Excavation
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The Award may be divided between two Branch – VI, Bangalore at Gottiprolu near
persons / institutions who are considered by Naidupeta in Nellore (now renamed as Sri
the Jury to be equally deserving of recognition Potti Sri Ramulu) district, Andhra Pradesh
in a given year. has discovered the remains of a huge
The Jury comprises of Prime Minister settlement surrounded by a massive brick
(chairman), Chief Justice of India, Leader of enclosure.
Opposition in Lok Sabha and two eminent
O Among many other antiquities unearthed
persons.
are one life-size Vishnu sculpture and a wide
This annual award is given to individuals, variety of pottery of the early centuries of
associations, institutions or organizations the current era.
for their outstanding contribution towards
The site of Gottiprolu lies on the right bank
promoting values of Cultural Harmony.
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of a distributary of river Swarnamukhi about
The Award is open to all persons regardless seventeen kilometers east of Naidupet and
of nationality, race, language, caste, creed or eighty kilometers from Tirupati and Nellore.
gender.
Normally, contributions made during ten 50. Correct Option: (b)
years immediately preceding the nomination
are considered. Older contributions may also Explanation
be considered if their significance has become
GS
apparent only recently. The content on the portal is currently available

in English and Hindi, with a vision to expand
A written work, in order to be eligible for it in other regional languages in future.
consideration, should have been published
during the last ten years. Supplementary notes:
Work by a person since deceased cannot be Indian Culture Web Portal
the subject of an award. If, however, his death
The Ministry of Culture (MoC) recently
occurred subsequent to a proposal having
launched the Indian Culture web portal.
been submitted to the Jury in the manner
stipulated in the Code of Procedure, then a It is the first government authorized portal
Posthumous Award may be made. where knowledge and cultural resources of
various organizations of MoC are now available
in public domain on a single platform.
This project is a part of the Prime
Explanation: Minister’s Digital India initiative to showcase
Char Dham Pilgrimage Project information about the rich tangible and
intangible cultural heritage of India both at
Char Dham Pilgrimage project involves home and abroad.
developing and widening 900-km of
national highways connecting and thereby The content on the portal is currently available
improving access to the Char Dham (four in English and Hindi, with a vision to expand
shrines) — Yamunotri, Gangotri, Badrinath, it in other regional languages in future.
199 PTTS2020/CARC/500
GENERAL STUDIES
CURRENT AFFAIRS
SCIENCE &
TECHNOLOGY
PTTS2020/CARC/500 200
1. Consider the following statements regarding (b) Tuberculosis
Food Fortification:
(c) AIDS
1. It is an addition of one or more micronutrients
to food and aims to replace the current (d) Zika virus
balanced diet to address malnutrition.
2. Food Safety and Standards (Fortification of 5. Consider the following pairs:
Foods) Regulations, 2018 has prescribed 1. Dragon fly mission - NASA’s mission
standards for fortification of food products to Saturn
in India.
2. Cassini Mission - First spacecraft
to orbit Saturn
(a) 1 only
3. Raavana-1 - Sri Lanka’s first
(b) 2 only satellite
(c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the above-given pairs is/are correctly
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 matched?
(a) 2 only
Which of the following statements regarding
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2. (b) 1 and 3 only
DNA Technology (Uses and Application)
Regulation Bill, 2019 is/are correct? (c) 2 and 3 only
1. The bill aims at strengthening the justice (d) 1, 2 and 3

delivery system of the country.
2. The bill provides for the establishment of a 6. Consider the following statements regarding
DNA Regulatory Board chaired by the Union Varunastra:
3.
Minister of Science & Technology.
O
The bill provides for consent-based collection
of DNA for DNA Profiling in all categories of
1. It is an indigenously-built heavyweight anti-
submarine nuclear torpedo.
cases. 2. It has been developed by the Naval Science

SC
and Technology Laboratory (NTSL).
below: Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(b) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2

3 only Neither 1 nor 2
GS
(d) (d)
3. Consider the following statements regarding 7. ISRO plans to send humans to space as part
the Sheath Blight disease: of Gaganyaan Mission by 2022. In this regard,
1. It is a bacterial disease affecting the yield of consider the following statements:
rice crop. 1. India will become the 3rd country after
2. Plants are more vulnerable to sheath blight Russia and USA to launch human spaceflight
during the winter season. mission.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? 2. ISRO has signed a Memorandum of
Understanding (MoU) with NASA for a short
(a) 1 only
visit to International Space Station as a
(b) 2 only training mission.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
4. Proton therapy, as seen recently in news, is
(c) Both 1 and 2
used in the treatment of:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Cancer
201 PTTS2020/CARC/500
8. Consider the following statements about the (a) India’s first space warfare exercise.
Chandipur Virus :
(b) Exercise to intercept a satellite in outer space
1. The virus spreads mainly through the based on indigenous technology.
bite of sand flies, and sometimes through
mosquitoes. (c) DRDO’s exercise to clean space debris created
by Anti-Satellite Missile Test.
2. The virus is discovered in 2019 for the first
time. (d) First UN-crewed experimental flight for Indian
Human Spaceflight Programme.
(a) 1 only 13. Chandrayaan-2 is India’s mission to explore
(b) 2 only the lunar surface. In this context, consider the
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. It is a completely indigenous mission.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. It will be the first mission to the far side of
the moon.
9. Strum Ataka, seen recently in news, is a:
3. If successful, India will become the second
(a) Zika virus vaccine country to soft-land on moon.
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(b) Military exercise between India and Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Mongolia
(a) 1 only
(c) Anti-Submarine electric torpedo
(b) 1 and 2 only
(d) Anti-tank missile
(c) 2 and 3 only
10. Consider the following statements regarding (d) 1, 2 and 3
Antimicrobial Resistance:
O
1. According to WHO, it is a global public health 14. Consider the following statements about the
threat. term “Eugenics” :
2. Madhya Pradesh and Kerala are the only 1. It is the science of improving the human
SC
states in India that have developed an action species.
plan to manage antimicrobial resistance.
2. It encourages healthy, superior people to
Which of the above statements is/are correct? reproduce and discouraged the reproduction
(a) 1 only of the mentally challenged or anyone who fell
outside the social norm.
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
GS
(a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 only
11. Consider the following statements about (c) Both 1 and 2

Anti-Satellite (ASAT) missile: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. It is a part of Mission Shakti which is a
joint program of the Defence Research and 15. What is TEMPLATES recently seen in news?
Development Organisation (DRDO) and the
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). (a) A programme to investigate how new stars
2. For a country to have such a capability, it must are born.
be a member of Non-Proliferation Treaty. (b) NASA’s mission to study the Trojan asteroids
Which of the above statements is/are correct? of Jupiter
(a) 1 only (c) A study to observe and understand the

Universe.
(b) 2 only
(d) A programme to study the effect of solar
(c) Both 1 and 2 flares on the communication system
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
16. Vikram and Pragyan, seen in the news recently
12. IndSpaceEx, seen in news recently refers to: are:
PTTS2020/CARC/500 202
(a) Long Range Inter-Continental Ballistic Missiles projects in deep ocean.
(ICBMs) developed by DRDO.
(b) It is a pilot project of the Ministry of Earth
(b) Lander and Rover of ISRO’s Chandrayaan-2 Sciences’ for deep ocean mining for rare
mission. minerals.
(c) Indigenously built Light Combat Aircrafts by (c) It is a Ministry of Home project to strengthen
HAL. the maritime security.
(d) Altitude long-endurance Unmanned Aerial (d) It is a project under Ministry of defence
Vehicles (UAVs) by DRDO. to develop indigenous nuclear powered
submarine.
correct regarding Ramanujan Machine? 21. With which of the following companies/
1. It is an algorithm that performs an organizations, The Ministry of Electronics and
unconventional function. Information Technology (MeitY) has signed
2. It is developed by scientists from Israel a statement of intent to roll-out ‘Build for
Institution of Technology. Digital India’ programme?
Select the correct answer using the code given (a) Facebook
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below:
(b) Microsoft
(a) 1 only
(c) Google
(b) 2 only
(d) Powerhouse Cooper
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 22. Consider the following statements about
combatants to Tuberculosis:
Hydrothermal Carbonisation Technology:
O 1. Rapid molecular, sputum, and culture-based
methods are only 50% accurate in the early
detection of Tuberculosis in patients.
1. It can convert wet municipal solid waste to
SC
biofuel, soil amendment, and absorbents. 2. National Strategic Plan set a target of TB
2. This technology can be used to generate elimination by 2025
energy from solid waste with low moisture 3. The Health Ministry has signed a
content. Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with
Which of the above statement is/are correct? Wadhwani Institute for Artificial Intelligence
(AI) to explore the application of Artificial
(a) 1 only Intelligence technology in its fight against
tuberculosis (TB).
GS
(b) 2 only
(b) 1 only
19. Cytokine storm refers to: (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) Capacity to cause more infections in a (d) 2 and 3 only
disproportionately large number of people.
(b) A condition whereinthere is not enough 23. Consider the following statements about
oxygen available to the blood. National Electronics Policy (NEP), 2019:
(c) A severe immune reaction triggered by the 1. It aims at making India as a global hub for
body to fight an infection. Electronics System Design and Manufacturing
(d) An immune system disorder caused by (ESDM).
COVID-19. 2. It promote domestic manufacturing in the
entire value-chain of ESDM, including core
components and materials.
20. Which of the following statements is correct
regarding Samudrayaan Project? 3. Modified Special Incentive Package Scheme
(M-SIPS) was launched under this policy in
(a) It is an ocean project of ISRO to carry various 2019
203 PTTS2020/CARC/500
(b) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
24. Consider the following statements regarding 28. Consider the following statements regarding
Project Miniature Sun: African Swine Fever (ASF):
1. It is India’s indigenously designed and 1. It is haemorrhagic viral disease of pigs.
developed plasma based fusion reactor. 2. It is related to classical swine fever (CSF).
2. It aims to harness fusion energy by mimicking 3. It severely impacts human health and could
the sun and other stars. be lethal.
(b) 2 only 2 and 3 only
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(b)
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None of the above
25. Consider the following statements regarding 29. Consider the following pairs:
“K2-18b”
Vector Disease
1. It is a potentially ‘habitable’ planet
O 1. Anopheles Japanese
2. It is the only planet orbiting a star outside the Mosquito encephalitis
Solar System that is known to have both water
2. Sandflies Kala Azar
and temperatures that can support life.
3. Aedes mosquito Rift Valley fever
SC
3. It is eight times the mass of Jupiter.
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
matched?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
1, 2 and 3
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(d)
26. EX TSENTR is recently seen in news, it is: 30. Consider the following statements regarding
(a) An asteroid which might strike the Earth Hog technology in Railways:
surface in recent future. 1. The new technology is expected to transform
(b) Part of the annual exercises of the Russian the way air conditioners (ACs) run and power
Armed Forces’ annual training cycle. is supplied in the railway coaches.
(c) A military exercise between India and 2. It will ensure sustainable use of resources.
Thailand. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(d) A vaccine to prevent Malaria in tropical (a) 1 only
countries.
(b) 2 only
27. Consider the following statements regarding (c) Both 1 and 2

eSIM technology (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. eSIM technology supports multiple accounts
and switching between them is super easy. 31. Consider the following statements about Pre-
2. It will make devices smaller. natal diagnosis tests:
3. It could be extremely helpful for wearable 1. Dual Marker and Triple Marker Tests look
devices. at the level of certain hormones which are
PTTS2020/CARC/500 204
‘markers’ associated with Down’s Syndrome. every cell in the human body.
2. The use of Amniocentesis for sex 2. This vitamin is only found in animal meat and
determination is prohibited by law but its to a lesser extent in milk products
use for determination of disability in foetus
3. India lacks a nation-wide data on B12
is allowed.
deficiency
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3

NASA’s Lunar Reconnaissance Orbiter (LRO)
“MOSAIC Mission”:
mission:
1. The mission is launched by NASA.
1. This Exploration Mission was focused on
supporting the extension of human presence 2. Objective of the mission is to find rare earth
RE
in the solar system. minerals beneath Earth’s surface.
2. It created the first cosmic ray albedo proton Which of the above statements is/are correct?
map of the Moon.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c)
(d)
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
O (d) Neither 1 nor 2
37. Sagittarius A* recently seen in news is:

A black hole at the center of the Milky Way.
SC
(a)
(b) An exoplanet revolving around star Aplha
Exercise Countries Centauri.
1. Dharma Guardian India-Japan
(c) A newly discovered asteroid in the Kupier
2. Shinyuu Maitri India-China belt.
3. Cope India India-USA (d) None of the above.
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
GS
matched? 38. Consider the following statements regarding

(a) 1 only UMMID initiative:
(b) 1 and 3 only 1. It is started by The Department of
Biotechnology (DBT).
(c) 2 and 3 only
2. It aims to create awareness about genetic
(d) 1, 2 and 3 disorders amongst clinicians to establish
molecular diagnostic in hospitals.
34. The military exercise Maitree-2019 was held Which of the above statements is/are correct?
between which countries:
(a) 1 only
(a) India and Vietnam
(b) 2 only
(b) India and Maldives
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) India and Thailand
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) India and Australia
39. “INS Nilgiri” recently seen in news is a:

“vitamin B12”: (a) Stealth frigate
1. It is fat soluble and helps in the metabolism of (b) Nuclear powered submarine
205 PTTS2020/CARC/500
(c) Aircraft Carrier (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) Anti-piracy ship
43. With reference to the Geochemical Baseline
Atlas of India, consider the following
statements:
Elephant Endotheliotropic Herpesvirus:
1. It is the first such atlas developed by National
1. EEHV is as a type of herpes virus that can
Centre for Earth Sciences Studies.
cause hemorrhagic disease in young Asian
elephants. 2. The atlas will serve as a reference to assess
the chemical compositional changes on
2. The disease is usually fatal, with a short course Earth’s surface.
of 28-35 hours.
3. There is no cure for herpes viruses in
animals. (a) 1 only
Which of the above statements are correct? (b) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
RE
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 NASA’s Artemis mission:
1. The mission aims to land astronauts including
41. Which of the following are anti-drone woman astronaut on Mars by 2030.
technology/technologies?
2. Astronauts will be sent aboard the Orion
1. Drone Gun spacecraft using the new Space Launch
2. Advanced Test High Energy Asset (ATHENA)
O System (SLS) rocket.
3. Rafale UAV Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
4. Sky wall 100 (a) 1 only
SC
Select the correct answer using the code given (b) 2 only
below:
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 45. Recently, India successfully test-fired a Quick
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Reaction Surface-to-Air Missile (QRSAM).
In this regard, consider the following
GS
statements:
42. The Nobel Prize in Chemistry for 2019 was
awarded for work on lithium-ion batteries. 1. QRSAM is a short range surface-to-air missile
Which of the following statements are correct system having capability to engage multiple
about lithium-ion batteries? targets.
1. They are made from lead-acid and are used to 2. It aims to protect moving armoured columns
start gasoline and diesel-powered vehicles. from aerial attacks.
2. Lithium extraction causes environmental 3. It is an all-weather and all-terrain missile
damage. using liquid-fuel propellant.
3. Lithium-ion batteries are lightweight and Which of the above statements is/are correct?
require little maintenance.
(a) 1 only
4. Lithium-ion technology can help create a
fossil fuel-free society. (b) 1 and 2 only
below: (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only 46. Indian tri-services commando unit has been
set up recently. Which of the following Special
(c) 1 and 3 only
Forces are part of it?
PTTS2020/CARC/500 206
1. Army’s Parachute Regiment (d) None of the above
2. Navy’s MARCOS
3. Air Force’s Garud Commando Force 51. Consider the following statements regarding
PSLV-C47:
below: 1. It has launched Cartosat-3 into Sun
Synchronous orbit.
(a) 1 and 2 only
2. It is the 21st flight of PSLV in ‘XL’
(b) 2 and 3 only configuration.
(c) 1 and 3 only 3. It is fitted with 6 solid strap-on motors.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
47. Which of the following country will deliver
(b) 2 and 3 only
the Akula class submarine to the Indian Navy
by 2025? (c) 1 and 3 only
(a) UK (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) France
RE
52. Wooden Breast Syndrome was recently seen
(c) Russia
in news. Consider the following statements
(d) Germany regarding it:
1. It is a metabolic disorder characterized by
48. Consider the following statements, regarding abnormal sugar accumulation in the breast
recently detected interstellar ‘helium muscle tissue.
hydride’? 2. An enzyme called lipoprotein lipase is behind
1.
2.
NASA.
O
It was detected by the hubble telescope of
It was detected in a planetary nebula near the

the syndrome.
constellation Cygnus. (a) 1 only

SC
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) 2 only
correct? (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 53. “Hera mission” launched by ESA is related to:
Solar Winds Analysis
GS
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a)

(b) Jupiter Probe
49. Project 3S is related to which of the following (c) Asteroid Deflection
sector?
(d) Space Observation
(a) Health
(b) Satellites 54. Consider the following statements regarding
(c) Artificial Intelligence Vigyan Samagam:
1. It is a multi-project exhibition organized by
(d) Solar energy
DRDO in collaboration with ISRO.
2. It aims to celebrate India’s participation as
50. Which of the following statements is incorrect
one of the core contributors in international
regarding Voyager 2?
collaborative mega-science projects.
(a) It has become the second human-made 3. The exhibition will be organised in four
object in history to exit the Heliosphere. cities in India including Mumbai, Bengaluru,
(b) It is the only spacecraft to have visited all four Kolkata, and Delhi.
gas giant planets — Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Which of the above statements are correct?
and Neptune.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) It is NASA’s longest running mission.
207 PTTS2020/CARC/500
Bacteriophage:
(c) 1 and 3 only
1. It a type of virus that infects bacteria.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Lysis is the process by which bacteriophages
assemble and burst out of bacterium to
55. Which of the following statement is /are increase their spread.
correct with regard to FASTag?
3. Transduction is the process by which
1. FASTag is an electronic toll collection system an infected bacterium produces virus
in India. components.
2. FASTag is a device which works on Radio Which of the above statements are correct?
Frequency Identification (RFID) technology.
(a) 1 and 2 only
3. This device can be used for lifetime and
transferred to another vehicle. (b) 2 and 3 only
below:
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only
1 and 2 only 59. Consider the following statements regarding
RE
(b)
recently launched RISAT-2BR1 satellite of
(c) 1 and 3 only
India:
(d) 2 and 3 only
1. It is radar imaging earth observation satellite.
2. It was placed in a low earth orbit by GSLV
launch vehicle.
the recently discovered StrandHogg bug:
3. The launch also accompanied commercial
1.
O
It is known to target Windows and Ubuntu
satellites of USA, Japan, Italy and Israel.
operating systems.
2. It allows real-time malware applications to Which of the above statements are correct?
pose as genuine applications and access user (a) 1 and 2 only
data.
SC
(b) 2 and 3 only
3. There is no effective detection method against
StrandHogg on the devices. (c) 1 and 3 only
Which of the above statements are correct? (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite
GS
(c) 1 and 3 only System:

(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Its primary area of service extends 15,000km
from the boundary of India.
57. Consider the followings statements regarding 2. Standard Positioning Service provided by it is
Secretagogin protein: available to all users.
1. It helps in managing the Estrogen levels in 3. The satellite constellation has four satellites
the body. placed in geostationary orbit and three in
2. It has the potential to cure neurodegenerative geosynchronous orbit.
disorders like dementia and Alzheimers. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
3. It is known to lower lipid accumulation in liver (a) 1 only
cells.
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 BRUIE robot:
1. It an underwater exploration robot developed
PTTS2020/CARC/500 208
by NASA. (a) 1 and 3 only
2. It is planned to be used to explore moons of (b) 2 only
the solar system like Europa of Jupiter.
(c) 3 only
3. It is being tested at Casey research station in
Antarctica which is controlled by the USA. (d) 1 and 2 only

65. Which of the following are the advantages
(a) 1 and 2 only of Polycrack technology for waste-to-energy
(b) 2 and 3 only conversion?
(c) 1 and 3 only 1. It can be fed with all types of plastic
(d) 1, 2 and 3 2. No need for pre-segregation of wastes
3. High moisture tolerance and no need to dry
62. Which of the following statements is/are wastes
correct regarding Aditya-L1? 4. No affect on the air quality of surrounding
1. The mission aims to put 1,500-kg heavy class area
Aditya-L1 satellite into halo orbit around Select the correct answer using the code given
Lagrangian point L1. below:
RE
2. It is a flagship programme of NASA.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
below:
(c) 2 and 4 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c)
(d)
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
O 66. With reference to Indian Science Congress
(ISC), consider the following statements:
1. ISC is India’s largest annual gathering of
63. Consider the following statements regarding scientific luminaries from countries across the
SC
Avangard missile system: world.
1. It is Russia’s new intercontinental subsonic 2. A Farmers Science Congress was organized as
missile system. part of ISC for the first time in 2020.
2. It’s manoeuvring capability makes it difficult 3. The theme for ISC-2020 was ‘Future India –
to predict its trajectory and gives it the ability Science and Technology’.
to protect itself from the air and ballistic
missile defences. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1 only
GS
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a)

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
67. NASA recently discovered an Earth-sized
64. Consider the following statements: planet orbiting a star in its ‘Goldilocks
Zone’. In this context, consider the following
1. Centralized Access Control System (CACS)
statements:
project aims to share information in smart
cities’ complex ecosystem and combine it 1. Goldilocks Zone refers to the habitable zone
with contextual data that is analyzed in real- around a star where the temperature is just
time. right for liquid water to exist.
2. e-BCAS project aims to achieve a paperless 2. Location of a planet in Goldilocks Zone is a
office under e-governance initiative of Indian guarantee of existence of life on that planet.
government.
3. CACS and e-BCAS are projects launched by
Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. (a) 1 only
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? (b) 2 only
209 PTTS2020/CARC/500
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Project NETRA are correct? 71. Maser Monitoring Organisation (M2O),
1. It is an early warning system to detect debris recently seen in news is related to-
and other hazards to Indian satellites. (a) To observe accretion burst event in the stars
2. The project launched by ISRO will enhance (b) To observe the most distant stars and galaxies
India’s capability in Space Situational as well as the planets in the solar system
Awareness (SSA).
(c) To observe early noctilucent ice clouds over
3. The project will cover Low Earth Orbits (LEO) Antarctica.
only.
(d) To study how galaxies, stars and planets
Select the correct answer using the code given formed and changed.
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only 72. ‘Dhanush’, seen in news recently is a:
RE
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) Short Range Surface to Air Missile system
to protect vulnerable areas and vulnerable
(c) 1 and 3 only points from air attacks.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) First indigenously built long range artillery
gun.
69. Consider the following statements: (c) High-speed Expendable Aerial Target (HEAT)
that offers a realistic threat scenario for
1.
O
Gravitational waves are generated due to the
practice of weapon systems.
confluence of gravitational force of Earth and
Moon. (d) Third generation fire and forget class anti-
tank guided missile (ATGM) system.
2. LIGO India will be used for the detection of
SC
gravitational waves.
3. Gravitational waves were first predicted by
Spitzer Space Telescope:
Albert Einstein.
1. It was one of NASA’s four Great Observatories
Which of the statements given above is/are which observed the universe in visible light.
correct?
2. It is known for the discovery of 7 Earth-sized
(a) 1 and 2 only rocky exoplanets.
GS
(b) 2 only Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(c) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2
70. The production of Geranium has got boost (d) Neither 1 nor 2
under the Aroma mission. In this regard,
consider the following statements: 74. Consider the following statements regarding
1. Geranium is a plant originally from South Coronavirus:
Africa that is used in manufacturing essential 1. Coronaviruses are a large family of zoonotic
oils. viruses causing respiratory problems.
2. The plant is only cultivated in the North- 2. The 2019 novel coronavirus (nCoV) is the same
Eastern regions of India. virus that caused SARS outbreak in 2003.
3. The Aroma Mission was launched by Indian 3. nCoV is more easily transmitted but is less
Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR). dangerous than SARS.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 4. Asymptomatic transmission is not possible
for both SARS as well as nCoV.
(a) 1 only
PTTS2020/CARC/500 210
(a) 1 and 3 only Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(b) 2 and 4 only (a) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Neglected tropical diseases (NTDs) are 79. Consider the following statements regarding
a diverse group of non-communicable Classical Swine Fever:
diseases. 1. It is also known as hog cholera.
2. NTDs are only caused by viruses and 2. It is a contagious bacterial disease.
bacteria.
3. The first World Neglected Tropical
Diseases Day was celebrated on 30 January (a) 1 only
2020. (b) 2 only
RE
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
National Mission on Quantum Technologies
(d) 1, 2 and 3 & Applications (NM-QTA):
1. The move will be implemented by the
76. Consider the following statements: Department of Science & Technology (DST).
1.
O
Biorock is formed by electro accumulation
of minerals dissolved in seawater on steel
structures that are connected to a power
2. Quantum entanglement is the theory that
sub-atomic particles exist in multiple states
simultaneously.
source. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
SC
2. Biorock is a mineral accretion technology that (a) 1 only
can be used to restore coral reefs.
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 only
Both 1 and 2
GS
(c) 81. Consider the following statements:

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Traditional Surrogacy is the process where
egg used is of a surrogate mother, thus she
becomes the biological mother of a child.
77. The world record of Longest Spaceflight by
a Woman is recently been obtained by which 2. In Gestational Surrogacy surrogate mother’s
country? eggs are not used.
3. Altruistic Surrogacy includes surrogacy in
(a) Russia
which payment exceeding basic medical
(b) Canada expenses and insurance covers are paid.
(c) USA Which of the above statements are correct?
(d) Europe (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
78. With reference to Polio disease, consider the
following statements: (c) 1 and 3 only
1. The virus spreads from person to person. (d) 1, 2 and 3

2. IPV is created from a weakened form of
poliovirus. 82. Consider the following statements regarding
3. OPV is made from inactive poliovirus. bio fortification:
211 PTTS2020/CARC/500
1. Bio fortification is the process of increasing Codes:
nutritional value of food crops by increasing
(a) 1 only
the density of vitamins and minerals in a crop
through either conventional plant breeding; (b) 2 only
agronomic practices or biotechnology. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. Madhuban Gajar is a bio-fortified crop which
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
contains high α-carotene and zinc content.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are 86. In a significant victory for India’s defence
correct? sector, the country has bagged a deal to
(a) 1 only supply ‘Swathi radars’ to Armenia.
(b) 2 only With reference to this deal, consider the
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. Swathi is a weapon locating radar which
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 provides fast, automatic and accurate location
of enemy weapons.
83. With reference to Kala Azar consider the 2. It is developed by the Defence Research and
following statements: Development Organisation (DRDO).
RE
1. Kala-azar is also known as visceral 3. It would be operational in LoC in Jammu &
leishmaniasis (VL). Kashmir from 2022.
2. It is spread to humans through bites from Which of the statements given above are correct?
female Aedes aegypti mosquito.
(a) 1 and 2 only
Which of the above statement(s) are correct?
(b) 2 and 3 only
1 only
(a)
O (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2 87. What is snow blindness?
SC
(d)
(a) Inflammation of cornea
84. Consider the following statements regarding (b) Inflammation of retina
“Raider-X” which was seen recently in news:
(c) Inflammation of eyeball
1. It is a bomb detection device.
(d) Inflammation of sclera
2. It has been developed by Bhabha Atomic
Research Centre.
88. What is JOIDES Resolution?
GS
3. Device that can spot explosives from 200

meters away. (a) An environmental protection treaty
Which of the above statement(s) are correct? (b) A commercial agreement between India and
Jordan
(a) 1 only
(c) A research vessel that drills into the ocean
(b) 2 and 3 only floor to collect and study core samples
(c) 3 only (d) A UN nuclear cooperation treaty
(d) 1, 2 and 3
89. “siRNAs” term seen recently in news is related
85. Which of the following statement(s) is/ to which of the following?
are incorrect about Regulation of Artificial (a) It is a new technique found to develop
Intelligence? pesticide alternative to protect plants form
1. Sundar Pichai advocated for the regulation viral infection.
of Artificial Intelligence keeping in mind (b) It is a new missile system developed by
both the harm and societal benefits that the DRDO.
technology could bring in.
(c) It is a new asteroid recently discovered by
2. NITI Aayog noted the stringent regulation NASA.
around AI as a major weakness for India.
(d) It is an invasive species recently found in India
PTTS2020/CARC/500 212
which is damaging the crops of south India. (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
90. What is indelible ink that was in news
recently?
94. With reference to the ‘The International
(a) Ink used in high end printers Energy Agency (IEA)’, consider the following
(b) Ink produced from the soot and smoke statements:
1. It is a Paris based autonomous
(c) Ink used in elections to prevent double
intergovernmental organization established
counting
under the framework of UN.
(d) Ink used in painting 2. It works for the promotion of alternate
energy sources.
91. Recently researchers at IIT Madras developed Which of the statements given above is/
materials with optoelectronic properties. are incorrect?
regard: (a) 1 only
1. Optoelectronics is the study of electronic (b) 2 only
devices that source, detect and control light. (c) Both 1 and 2
RE
2. Optoelectronic materials find application in
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
optical fibre communication.
95. International Rice Research Institute (IRRI)
(a) 1 only has recently developed a biofortified crop
(b) 2 only - ‘Golden Rice’. In this regard, consider the
Both 1 and 2
(c)
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
O 1. Biofortification improves the nutritional
quality of food crops through agronomic
practices.
92. Consider the following statements regarding 2. Golden Rice is the first purposefully created
MANAV Human Atlas: bio-fortified food to address zinc deficiency.
SC
1. It aims at creating a database network of all 3. IRRI is an intergovernmental organization
tissues in the human body from the available dedicated to reduce poverty and hunger
scientific literature. through rice science.
2. It is funded by the Department of Science and Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Technology.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
GS
(a) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 96. Consider the following statements regarding
Compressed Bio-Gas:
93. Russia will deliver the Akula Class Submarine 1. It is exactly similar to the commercially
to the Indian Navy by 2025 for a period of 10 available natural gas in its composition.
years. How will induction of this submarine 2. SATAT Initiative has been launched to set
into Indian Navy benefit India? up Compressed Bio-Gas (CBG) production
1. It uses a nuclear reactor for propulsion, which plants.
makes its detection impossible. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
2. It will help India in training Arihant and (a) 1 only
Arihant-class cruise on SSN submarines.
(b) 2 only
below: (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
213 PTTS2020/CARC/500
97. Consider the following statements regarding 1. It is a zoonotic virus with no human-to-human
the gravitational lensing: transmission.
1. It is a natural phenomenon that magnifies
2. It was first recognized during an outbreak
light around galaxies.
among pig farmers in Uganda.
2. It is based on Einstein’s theory of general
relativity 3. Pigs act as a natural host of Nipah virus.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
98. Recently, ‘K-12 Education Transformation
Framework’ has been launched in India. In this
context, consider the following statements: 100. Consider the following statements:
1. India is the first country in which this model 1. OSIRIS-REx is a planetary science mission for
RE
has been launched. NASA’s New Frontiers Program.
2. This program has been launched by Google.
2. OSIRIS-REx is the first ever mission to collect
a sample from an asteroid and bring it to
(a) 1 only Earth.
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
O
(a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 only
SC
99. Nipah virus outbreak was reported in Kerala (c) Both 1 and 2
recently. Consider the following statements
regarding Nipah virus: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

GS
PTTS2020/CARC/500 214
GENERAL STUDIES
CURRENT AFFAIRS
SCIENCE
& TECHNOLOGY
Answer Key
Q. 1 (b) Q. 21 (c) Q. 41 (c) Q. 61 (a) Q. 81 (a)

Q. 2 (a) Q. 22 (c) Q. 42 (d) Q. 62 (a) Q. 82 (a)
Q. 3 (c) Q. 23 (b) Q. 43 (b) Q. 63 (b) Q. 83 (a)
Q. 4 (a) Q. 24 (b) Q. 44 (a) Q. 64 (a) Q. 84 (a)
Q. 5 (c) Q. 25 (b) Q. 45 (b) Q. 65 (d) Q. 85 (b)
Q. 6 (a) Q. 26 (b) Q. 46 (d) Q. 66 (b) Q. 86 (a)
Q. 7 (d) Q. 27 (d) Q. 47 (c) Q. 67 (a) Q. 87 (a)
Q. 8 (a) Q. 28 (a) Q. 48 (b) Q. 68 (d) Q. 88 (c)
Q. 9 (d) Q. 29 (d) Q. 49 (a) Q. 69 (c) Q. 89 (a)
Q. 10 (c) Q. 30 (c) Q. 50 (d) Q. 70 (a) Q. 90 (c)
Q. 11 (a) Q. 31 (c) Q. 51 (d) Q. 71 (a) Q. 91 (c)
Q. 12 (a) Q. 32 (c) Q. 52 (b) Q. 72 (b) Q. 92 (a)
Q. 13 (a) Q. 33 (b) Q. 53 (c) Q. 73 (b) Q. 93 (c)
Q. 14 (c) Q. 34 (c) Q. 54 (b) Q. 74 (a) Q. 94 (a)
Q. 15 (a) Q. 35 (c) Q. 55 (b) Q. 75 (c) Q. 95 (a)
Q. 16 (b) Q. 36 (d) Q. 56 (b) Q. 76 (c) Q. 96 (c)
Q. 17 (c) Q. 37 (a) Q. 57 (b) Q. 77 (c) Q. 97 (c)
Q. 18 (a) Q. 38 (c) Q. 58 (a) Q. 78 (b) Q. 98 (c)
Q. 19 (c) Q. 39 (a) Q. 59 (c) Q. 79 (a) Q. 99 (d)
Q. 20 (b) Q. 40 (d) Q. 60 (c) Q. 80 (a) Q. 100 (a)
215 PTTS2020/CARC/500
1. Correct Option: (b) the justice delivery system of the country.
Explanation: By providing for the mandatory accreditation

and regulation of DNA laboratories, the
Statement 1 is incorrect: Food fortification Bill seeks to ensure that with the proposed
is a “complementary strategy” and not a expanded use of this technology in this
replacement of a balanced & diversified country, there is also the assurance that the
diet to address malnutrition. DNA test results are reliable, and furthermore
Supplementary notes: that the data remain protected from misuse
or abuse in terms of the privacy rights of our
Food Fortification citizens.
Food fortification is the deliberate addition Establishment of the National and Regional
of one or more micronutrients to food so as DNA Data Banks, as envisaged in the Bill, will
to correct or prevent a deficiency and provide assist in forensic investigations
a health benefit.
Under the bill, DNA testing is allowed only
These nutrients may or may not have in respect of matters listed in the schedule
been originally present in the food before to the bill. These include offences under the
processing. Indian Penal Code, 1860, and for civil matters
such as paternity suits.
Food fortification is a “complementary
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strategy” and not a replacement of a Consent based collection of DNA for DNA
balanced & diversified diet to address Profiling in certain cases.
malnutrition.
The Bill provides for the establishment of
Department of Food and Public Distribution a National DNA Data Bank and Regional
under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs DNA Data Banks, for every state, or two or
recently approved a centrally-sponsored pilot more states. DNA laboratories are required
scheme on fortification of rice and its dispersal to share DNA data prepared by them with the
O
through the Public Distribution System (PDS). National and Regional DNA Data Banks
Food Safety and Standards (Fortification The Bill provides for the establishment
of Foods) Regulations, 2018 has prescribed of a DNA Regulatory Board, which will
standards for fortification of various food supervise the DNA Data Banks and DNA
SC
products such as all fortified foods must laboratories. The Secretary of Department
not fall below the minimum level of micro- of Biotechnology, will be the ex officio
nutrients. Chairperson of the Board.
The Bill specifies penalties for various
2. Correct Option: (a) offences like for disclosure of DNA information
or using DNA sample without authorization.
Explanation:
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Statement 2 is incorrect: The bill provides 3. Correct Option: (c)

for the establishment of a DNA Regulatory
Board chaired by Secretary to Department Explanation:
of Biotechnology.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Sheath blight is a
Statement 3 is incorrect: The bill provides fungal disease.
for consent based collection of DNA for
Statement 2 is incorrect: Plants are more
DNA Profiling in certain categories of cases
vulnerable to sheath blight during the rainy
like where imprisonment is up to 7 years.
season.
DNA Technology (Uses and Application)
Sheath Blight
Regulation Bill, 2019
Sheath blight is a fungal disease caused by
The bill is for the regulation of use and
Rhizoctonia solani.
application of DNA technology for the purpose
of establishing identity of missing persons, It can cause up to 60 per cent reduction in rice
victims, offenders, under trials and unknown yield.
deceased persons.
Infected leaves senesce or dry out and die
The primary intended purpose is to expand more rapidly. As a result, the leaf area of the
the application of DNA-based forensic canopy can significantly be reduced by the
technologies to support and strengthen disease.
PTTS2020/CARC/500 216
Sheath blight occurs in areas with high It is collaboration among NASA, ESA and the
temperature (28−32°C), high levels of nitrogen Italian space agency.
fertilizer, and relative humidity of crop canopy
It was the first spacecraft to orbit Saturn.
from 85–100%.
Plants are more vulnerable to sheath blight Raavana-1
during the rainy season. Sri Lanka’s first satellite ‘Raavana-1’,
designed and developed by two local
engineers, was successfully launched into orbit
4. Correct Option: (a) this week from the International Space Station
Explanation: (ISS) along with two other BIRDS 3 satellites
from Japan and Nepal.
Option is correct: Proton therapy is used in
the treatment of cancer. It is a Cue satellite (type of Nano satellite),
deployed using the Japanese Aerospace and
Supplementary notes: Exploration owned Kibo experiment module.
Proton therapy
Proton therapy, or proton radiotherapy, is a 6. Correct Option: (a)
type of particle therapy that uses a beam of Explanation:
protons rather than x-rays to treat diseased
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tissue, most often in the treatment of Statement 1 is incorrect: Varunastra is
cancer. an indigenously-built heavyweight anti-
submarine electric torpedo.
It is considered as one of the most advanced
forms of external beam radiation therapy for Supplementary notes:
cancer treatment in the world. It is also known
as Proton Beam Therapy and offers high levels Varunastra
of precision as compared to other treatment It is an indigenously-built heavyweight

options.
other types of external beam radiotherapy

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The chief advantage of proton therapy over

anti-submarine electric torpedo.
It has been successfully inducted in the navy,
making India one of the eight countries to
is that as a charged particle the dose is have the capability to design and build such
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deposited over a narrow range of depth, a system.
and there is minimal entry, exit, or scattered
radiation dose. It can be fired from the Rajput class destroyers,
Delhi class and all future Anti-Submarine
Vice President of India inaugurated India’s Warfare (ASW) ships capable of firing
first proton therapy center in Chennai for the heavyweight torpedoes.
treatment of Cancer. It is South Asia’s first such
center. With this India becomes 16th country The weapon has been developed by the
Naval Science and Technology Laboratory
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in the world to offer the therapy.

(NTSL), a premier laboratory of DRDO
and Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL) is the
5. Correct Option: (c) manufacturer of this weapon system.
Explanation: India also intends to sell the heavyweight

torpedo to friendly nations.
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: NASA has
planned a Dragon Fly Mission to Titan, the
largest moon of Saturn planet. 7. Correct Option: (d)
Dragon fly mission Statement 1 is incorrect: India will become
4th country after Russia, USA and China to
NASA has planned a Dragon Fly Mission to launch human spaceflight mission.
Titan, the largest moon of Saturn planet.
Statement 2 is incorrect: ISRO and Russian
It will be the first time that NASA will fly a federal space agency (ROSCOSMOS) have
multi-rotor vehicle for science on another signed a memorandum of Understanding
planet, powered by nuclear-power. (MoU) for a short visit to International
Cassini Mission Space Station as a training mission.
Cassini Mission was launched to study Saturn Supplementary notes:

and its system of rings and moons.
217 PTTS2020/CARC/500
Gaganyaan Mission cause inflammation of the brain, progress
rapidly from an influenza-like illness to coma
Gaganyaan Mission will demonstrate Indian
and death.
Human Spaceflight capability to low earth
orbit for a mission duration ranging from The Chandipura Vesiculovirus (CHPV), first
one orbital period to a maximum of seven discovered by two virologists of the Pune-
days. based National Institute of Virology (NIV) in
GSLV Mk-lll will be used to carry the orbital 1965, predominantly infects children. The
module which will have necessary provisions majority of infected patients are children aged
for sustaining a 3-member crew for the below 14.
duration of the mission. The last cases reported in Gujarat were in 2014
ISRO has demonstrated a number of when four children aged between five and 14
technologies that are required for this succumbed to the virus. In 2010, 29 suspected
programme like Space Capsule Recovery cases were reported of which 17 children
Experiment (SRE-2007), Crew module succumbed to the virus, all from Kheda,
Atmospheric Reentry Experiment (CARE-2014) Panchmahals, and Vadodara in the state.
and Pad Abort Test (2018).
Causes
The programme will make India the fourth
The virus spreads mainly through
nation in the world to launch a Human
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Spaceflight Mission. So far, only the USA, the bite of sand flies, and sometimes
Russia and China have launched human through mosquitoes. Animal studies show
spaceflight missions. that the virus affects neurons and causes
neurodegeneration. Sandflies, which are found
Two unmanned flights and one manned flight in mud and in cracks of sand houses, mostly
will be undertaken as part of Gaganyaan breed during monsoon and pre-monsoon
Programme. months which is when the cases are generally
ISRO and Russian federal space agency
O reported.
(ROSCOSMOS) have signed a memorandum The likely vector (or carrier) of the virus is
of Understanding (MoU) to work together the female phlebotomine sandfly. The virus
for India’s 1st manned space mission.
was detected in sandflies in Senegal, Nigeria
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ROSCOSMOS has also offered ride to Indian as well as in India. In 2003, Chandipura virus
astronaut short visit to International Space was responsible for an outbreak in southern
Station on board Soyuz spacecraft for short India in which 329 children developed acute
training mission. encephalitis and 183 died.
Recently, a Gaganyaan National Advisory Symptoms
Council has been created with members
from different institutions and industries The symptoms include sudden high fever
like Secretaries of Department of Space, accompanied by headache, convulsions
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Department of Science and Technology, and vomiting, sometimes leading to

Department of Defense Research and unconsciousness. Based on the symptoms,
Development, Department of Scientific and doctors recommend a blood test. The samples
Industrial Research, Principal Scientific Advisor are sent to NIV Pune, which confirms the
to PM, Senior Officials from Armed Forces, presence or absence of the Chandipura virus.
Indian Coast Guard etc. It takes between 10 and 15 days to get the
test results.
8. Correct Option: Treatment

Explanation: There is no specific medicine for its treatment.
However, with timely detection, hospitalization
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Chandipura virus and symptomatic treatment is given to the
(CHPV), first discovered by two virologists of
patient, which could help save lives.
the Pune-based National Institute of Virology
(NIV) in 1965, predominantly infects children.
Chandipura virus Explanation:
Chandipura virus named after the town in Option is correct: Strum Ataka is an anti-
Maharashtra where the discovery was made tank missile.
and isolated, Chandipura virus is known to Supplementary notes:
PTTS2020/CARC/500 218
Strum Ataka Anti-tank Missile the Defence Research and Development
Organisation (DRDO) and the Indian Space
India has signed Rs 200 crore deal to acquire
Research Organisation (ISRO).
‘Strum Ataka’ anti-tank missile from Russia
for its fleet of Mi-35 attack choppers (exported As part of the mission, an anti-satellite (A-SAT)
from Russia). weapon was launched and targeted an Indian
satellite which had been decommissioned.
The deal was signed under the emergency
Mission Shakti was carried out from DRDO’s
clauses through which the missiles would be
testing range in Odisha’s Balasore.
supplied within 3 months of contract signing.
For a country to have such a capability,
membership of NPT (Non-Proliferation Treaty)
10. Correct Option: (c) is not mandatory.
Explanation: Significance:
Both statements are correct India is only the 4th country to
Supplementary notes: acquire such a specialized and modern
capability, and the entire effort is indigenous.
Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) Till now, only the US, Russia and China had the
capability to hit a live target in space.
AMR is a global public health threat,
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according to the World Health Organization Communication satellites, earth observation
(WHO). satellites, experimental satellites, navigation
satellites, along with satellites meant for
According to WHO, AMR is “the ability of
scientific research and exploration, academic
a microorganism (like bacteria, viruses, and
studies and other small satellites. India’s
some parasites) to stop an antimicrobial (such
space program is a critical backbone of India’s
as antibiotics, antivirals and antimalarial)
security, economic and social infrastructure.
from working against it. As a result, standard
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treatments become ineffective, infections The test was done to verify that India has the
persist and may spread to others.” capability to safeguard our space assets.
One of the sources of antibiotic resistance It is the Government of India’s responsibility to
development is the presence of antibiotics defend the country’s interests in outer space.
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in the environment, which generates foci of
resistant bacteria through bacterial exposure
to antibiotics. 12. Correct Option: (a)
Misuse of antibiotics in humans, animals, and Explanation:
aquaculture contributes to AMR. Option is correct: IndSpaceEx refers to India’s
Poor management of waste from farms, first space warfare exercise.
factories, healthcare settings and households
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also adds to the problem.

If there is no timely containment, AMR is likely IndSpaceEx
to cause nearly 10 million deaths by 2050 and The country’s armed forces, along with
result in significant global economic losses. Defense Research and Development
Recently, Madhya Pradesh has become Organization (DRDO) and other
the second state after Kerala to develop stakeholders conducted IndSpaceEx- India’s
an action plan to manage antimicrobial 1st ever space warfare exercise on July .
resistance (AMR). The tri-Service integrated defense staff
under the Ministry of Defense will conduct
IndSpaceEx in the backdrop of China’s
11. Correct Option: continuing efforts to enhance its space and
Explanation: counter-space capabilities.
Statement 2 is incorrect: For a country to The exercise would access threats in space
have such a capability, membership of NPT is from a military perspective and India’s current
not mandatory. capability in space.
Supplementary notes: IndSpaceEx will take stock of the military space

assets of the United States, Russia and China,
Mission Shakti and deliberate over how to plug the gap.
Mission Shakti is a joint program of The exercise took place five months after the
219 PTTS2020/CARC/500
successful testing of an anti-satellite (A-Sat) that are cold traps and contain a fossil
interceptor missile that destroyed a low-earth record of early solar system.
orbit satellite.
The mission attempted to soft-land the lander
One of the motives of this space warfare - Vikram and rover – Pragyan in a high plain
exercise is to draft a joint space doctrine for between two craters at an altitude of about
future battles in outer space 70°S
Vikram Lander is named after Dr. Vikram
13. Correct Option: (a) Sarabhai and is designed to function for
1 lunar day (i.e. 14 earth days). It has the
Explanation: capability to communicate with Indian Deep
Statement 2 is incorrect: Chandrayaan-2 will Space Network (IDSN) near Bangalore as well
be the first mission to explore the Moon’s as with the orbiter and rover.
South Polar Region. Pragyan (‘wisdom’ in Sanskrit) Rover is
Statement 3 is incorrect: If successful, India a 6-wheeled robotic vehicle that can
will become only the fourth country to make communicate only with the lander and
a soft landing on the lunar surface, after the leverages solar energy for its functioning.
former Soviet Union, the US and China.
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Chandrayaan-2 Explanation:
Chandrayaan-2 is a completely indigenous Both statements are correct
lunar mission to the Moon’s South Polar Supplementary notes:
Region.
Eugenics
It will be launched from the second launch pad
at Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota
O Eugenics is the science of improving the
using GSLV Mk-III. If successful, India will human species by selectively mating people
become only the fourth country to make a with specific desirable hereditary traits.
soft landing on the lunar surface, after the
It aims to reduce human suffering by
former Soviet Union, the US and China.
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“breeding out” disease, disabilities and so-
Chandrayaan 2 attempts to foster a new age called undesirable characteristics from the
of discovery, increase our understanding of human population.
space, stimulate the advantage of technology,
Eugenics encouraged people of so-called
promote global alliances and inspire a future
healthy, superior stock to reproduce and
generation of explorers and scientists.
discouraged reproduction of the mentally
The mission will help us gain a better challenged or anyone who fell outside the
understanding of origin and evolution of the social norm.
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moon by conducting detailed topographic

Modern eugenics, more often called human
studies, comprehensive mineralogical analyses
genetic engineering, has come a long way
and a host of other experiments on the lunar
scientifi cally and ethically and offers hope for
surface.
treating many devastating genetic illnesses.
The objectives of the mission are: Even so, it remains controversial.
Extensive mapping of the lunar surface While eugenic principles have been practiced
to study variations in lunar surface as early as ancient Greece, the contemporary
composition which is essential to trace history of eugenics began in the early 20th
back the origin and evolution of earth century, when a popular eugenics movement
emerged in the United Kingdom,
Further studies on the extent of water
molecule distribution (discovered by A major criticism of eugenics policies is that,
Chandrayaan-1) on/below the surface and regardless of whether negative or positive
in the tenuous lunar exosphere to address policies are used, they are susceptible to abuse
the origin of water on the moon because the genetic selection criteria are
determined by whichever group has political
Exploring the lunar South Pole because: (i)
power at the time.
it remains in shadow and is much larger
than the North Pole (ii) there is a possibility Negative eugenics in particular is criticized
of the presence of water in the permanently by many as a violation of basic human rights,
shadowed areas around it (iii) it has craters which include the right to reproduce.
PTTS2020/CARC/500 220
Another criticism is that eugenics policies Vikram Lander is named after Dr. Vikram
eventually lead to a loss of genetic diversity, Sarabhai and is designed to function for
thereby resulting in inbreeding depression 1 lunar day (i.e. 14 earth days). It has the
due to a loss of genetic variation. capability to communicate with Indian
Deep Space Network (IDSN) near Bangalore
as well as with the orbiter and rover.
Pragyan (‘wisdom’ in Sanskrit) Rover is a
Explanation: 6-wheeled robotic vehicle can communicate
Option is correct: TEMPLATES is a NASA’s only with the lander and leverages solar
programme to investigate how new stars are energy for its functioning.
born.
Supplementary notes: 17. Correct Option: (c)
Gravitational Lensing Explanation:
NASA is planning to investigate how new Both statements are correct
stars are born by using James Webb Space Supplementary notes:
Telescope. For this, they will take the help of
a natural phenomenon called “gravitational Ramanujan Machine
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lensing”.
Scientists from Technion — Israel Institute
The programme is called Targeting Extremely of Technology have developed a concept
Magnified Panchromatic Lensed Arcs and have named it Ramanujan Machine,
and Their Extended Star Formation, or after the Indian mathematician.
TEMPLATES.
It is not really a machine but an algorithm,
The phenomenon of Gravitational Lensing and performs a very unconventional
occurs when a huge amount of matter, such function.
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as a massive galaxy or cluster of galaxies,
creates a gravitational field that distorts and
magnifies the light from objects behind it, but
With most computer programs, humans input
a problem and expect the algorithm to work
out a solution.
in the same line of sight
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With the Ramanujan Machine, it works the
The large celestial objects will magnify the
other way round. Feed in a constant, for
light from distant galaxies that are at or near
example well-known pi, and the algorithm will
the peak of star formation. These celestial
come up with a equation involving an infinite
object act as natural, cosmic telescopes; they
series whose value, it will propose, is exactly
are called gravitational lenses.
pi.
Why named after Ramanujan?
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The algorithm reflects the way Srinivasa

Explanation: Ramanujan worked during his brief life
Option is correct (1887-1920). With very little formal training,
he engaged with the most celebrated
Supplementary notes: mathematicians of the time, particularly
during his stay in England (1914-19), where
Chandrayaan-2
he eventually became a Fellow of the Royal
Chandrayaan-2 is a completely indigenous Society and earned a research degree from
lunar mission that will boldly go where no Cambridge.
country has ever gone- the Moon’s South
Throughout his life, Ramanujan came up with
Polar Region.
novel equations and identities —including
The mission will help us gain a better equations leading to the value of pi —
understanding of origin and evolution of and it was usually left to formally trained
moon by conducting detailed topographic mathematicians to prove these.
studies, comprehensive mineralogical analyses
In 1987, two Canadian brothers proved all 17
and a host of other experiments on the lunar
of Ramanujan’s series for 1/pi; two years earlier,
surface.
an American mathematician and programmer
The aim of the mission is to attempt soft had used one of these formulas to calculate
landing of the lander - Vikram and rover – pi up to over 17 million digits, which was a
Pragyan in a high plain between two craters world record at the time (Deka Baruah, Berndt
at altitude of about 70°S
221 PTTS2020/CARC/500
& Chan). Experts say it is not the virus that kills; rather,
the cytokine storm.

Explanation:
Explanation:
Statement 2 is incorrect: This technology can
be used to can generate energy from solid Option is correct: The ‘Samudrayaan’ is a
waste with high moisture content. pilot project of the Ministry of Earth Sciences’
for deep ocean mining for rare minerals.
Hydrothermal Carbonisation Technology
Samudrayaan
A research team at IIT Kharagpur has developed
a technology which can generate energy from The ‘Samudrayaan’ is a pilot project of the
solid waste with high moisture content. Ministry of Earth Sciences for deep ocean
mining for rare minerals.
The new technology - Hydro Thermal
Carbonization (HTC) - can convert wet The project proposes to send a submersible
municipal solid waste to biofuel, soil vehicle with three persons to a depth of about
amendment and absorbents. 6000 metres to carry out deep underwater
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studies.
The moisture in the waste is used to the
advantage of the process which uses water The indigenously developed vehicle is capable
for the reaction. The biofuel generated as the of crawling on the sea bed at a depth of six
recovered output can help curb air pollution. kilometre for 72 hours.
The technology can be used by the civic bodies Similar to ISRO’s plan to carry persons
to effectively manage solid waste. on a space mission, NIOT has undertaken

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Once the organic waste is entered into the
Samudrayaan. The ¹ 200 croreproject proposes
to carry three persons in a submersible vehicle
process, the outputs generated are all usable.
to a depth of 6000 metres under sea for
All outputs can be used for one purpose or various studies.
the other, including the water which can be
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The success of the ‘’Samudrayaan’’ will help
converted to biogas or methane.
India join the league of developed nations in
exploration of minerals from oceans.
19. Correct Option: (c) India has been allocated a site of 75,000 sq
Explanation: km in the Central Indian Ocean Basin by the
International Sea Bed Authority for exploration
Option is correct of polymetallic nodules from seabed.
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Supplementary notes: The estimated resource of polymetallic nodules

is about 380 million tonnes, containing 4.7
Cytokine Storm million tonnes of nickel, 4.29 million tonnes of
An immune reaction triggered by the body to copper and 0.55 million tonnes of cobalt and
fight an infection is known as a cytokine storm 92.59 million tonnes of manganese.
when it turns severe. The body releases too
many cytokines, proteins that are involved
in immunomodulation, into the blood too
quickly. While normally they regulate immune Explanation:
responses, in this case they cause harm and
can even cause death. Option is correct: The Ministry of Electronics
and Information Technology (MeitY) and
A violent cytokine storm has been noticed in Google have signed a statement of intent to
several individuals who are critical with COVID roll-out ‘Build for Digital India’ programme.
infection. These cytokines dilate blood vessels,
increase the temperature and heartbeat, Supplementary notes:
besides throwing bloodclots in the system,
Build for Digital India Programme
and suppressing oxygen utilization. If the
cytokine flow is high and continues without The Ministry of Electronics and Information
cessation, the body’s own immune response Technology (MeitY) and Google have signed a
will lead to hypoxia, insufficient oxygen to the statement of intent to roll-out ‘Build for Digital
body, multi-organ failure and death. India’ programme.
PTTS2020/CARC/500 222
About: die (2016).
The programme will give engineering students National Strategic Plan (NSP) for 2017-
a platform to develop technology-based 2025 has been set up in line with other health
solutions to address key social problems. sector strategies and global efforts, such as
the draft National Health Policy 2015, World
As part of the programme, engineering
Health Organization’s (WHO) End TB Strategy
students across the country will be invited to
and the Sustainable Development Goals
apply and join in a learning journey that will
(SDGs) of the United Nations (UN) for TB
help them transform their bright ideas into
elimination by 2025.
real-world solutions.
The Health Ministry has signed a Memorandum
Applicants will take part in online and offline
of Understanding (MoU) with Wadhwani
learning opportunities on key technologies
Institute for Artificial Intelligence (AI) to
such as machine learning, cloud and android.
explore the application of Artificial Intelligence
These will be offered through Google’s technology in its fight against tuberculosis
Developer Student Club network and other (TB) in 2019.
Google Developer networks.
Revised National TB Programme (RNTCP)
Google will also offer mentorship sessions in aims at adoption of AI technologies for
product design, strategy and technology to building easy TB combats. RNTCP is the state-
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the most promising products and prototypes. run tuberculosis (TB) control initiative of
the Government of India.
22. Correct Option: (c) As per the National Strategic Plan 2012–17,
the program has a vision of achieving a “TB
Explanation: free India”, and aims to achieve Universal
Access to TB control services.
As part of the collaboration, Wadhwani AI
Tuberculosis

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Rapid molecular tests: This tests is used to
detect influenza viral RNA or nucleic acids in

would support the National TB programme
by helping it become AI-ready which includes
developing, piloting, and deploying AI-based
respiratory specimens with high sensitivity solutions. It would support the programme in
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and high specificity. Notably, the detection vulnerability and hot-spot mapping, modeling
of influenza viral RNA or nucleic acids by novel methods of screening and diagnostics.
molecular assays does not necessarily indicate India plans to end TB by 2025, five years
detection of viable virus or on-going influenza ahead of the Global Sustainable Development
viral replication. targets. Meanwhile, World Health Organization
Sputum smear microscopy: This technique (WHO) stated that countries aiming to reduce
requires the examination of sputum samples their TB burden by 2035.
using a microscope to determine the presence Most of the tests used for early detection of
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of bacteria. In the current case definitions TB are not promising. For example, sputum
recommended by WHO, one positive result testing is only 50% accurate and frequently
is required for a diagnosis of smear-positive misses the disease in its early stages.
pulmonary TB. Molecular testing – while highly accurate –
Culture-based methods: A culture test is too expensive for population screening in
involves studying bacteria by growing the most regions. AI is very helpful in detection of
bacteria on different substances. This is to find TB with accuracy and precision.
out if particular bacteria are present. In the MDR-TB is resistant to anti-TB drugs like
case of the TB culture test the test is to see isoniazid and rifampicin
if the TB bacteria Mycobacterium tuberculosis,
are present.
Tuberculosis (TB) is an infectious disease usually
caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis Explanation:
(MTB) Bacteria. Tuberculosis generally affects
the lungs, but can also affect other parts of Statement 3 is incorrect: M-SIPS was
the body. launched in 2012 under NEP, 2012 and ended
in 2018.
India is the country with the highest burden
of TB According to the World Health Supplementary notes:
Organization (WHO) India has close to 27
National Electronics Policy (NEP)
lakh TB cases every year and 4.23 lakh cases
223 PTTS2020/CARC/500
National Electronics Policy (NEP) is launched It is worth mentioning here that the mega
in 2019 and replaced the earlier National project is undertaken by USA, Russia, South
Electronics Policy, 2012. It aims at making Korea, China, Japan, European Union and
India a global hub for Electronics System India.
Design and Manufacturing (ESDM) by
creating an enabling environment for the India’s Contribution
industry to compete globally. It promotes India has also provided a Cryostat, the world’s
domestic manufacturing in the entire value- largest refrigerator, weighing around 3800
chain of ESDM, including core components tons and made with stainless steel. It is built
and materials to increase the domestic value by Larsen & Toubro
addition and reduce dependence on import
of electronic goods by focusing on scale, skill It will cover the entire structure and keep
and technology. the magnetic components at a very low
temperature (less than -200OC) for maintaining
NEP 2019 primarily targets increasing the the superconductivity of magnets.
electronic goods exports. The rising trend
has been seen in electronics exports amid
slowdown in Indian economy. The total value 25. Correct Option: (b)
of production of electronic goods has
Explanation:
increased from $31.2 billion in FY15 to
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$65.5 billion in FY19. Electronics exports Statement 3 is incorrect: It is eight times the
are led by mobile phones. India has become mass of Earth and not Jupiter.
the 2nd largest producer of mobile phones,
replacing Vietnam. India started to become Supplementary notes:
an alternate production destination because K2-18b
of: 1). Pull Factors include potential domestic
demand and government policies to boost K2-18b an exoplanet that orbits around a
electronic exports. 2). Push Factors include small red dwarf star K2-18, nearly 110 light-
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trade tensions between the US and China. This years away in the constellation Leo.
is expected that the positive trend in India’s K2-18b was first discovered in 2015 by Nasa’s
electronic exports to continue. now retired Kepler space telescope.
Modified Special Incentive Package Scheme It was found orbiting within the red dwarf star’s
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(M-SIPS): M-SIPS was launched in 2012 under habitable zone, making it an ideal candidate
NEP, 2012 and ended in 2018. to have liquid surface water.
Having a mass that is eight times greater than
24. Correct Option: (b) Earth’s, K2-18b is also known as Super-Earth
exoplanets with masses between those of
Explanation: Earth and Neptune.
Statement 1 is incorrect: India is a major The Kepler satellite mission discovered nearly
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part of this project but it is not indigenously two-third of all known exoplanets. While the
designed and developed in India. mission indicated that five to 20 per cent of
Supplementary notes: these are located in the habitable zone of their
stars.
Project Miniature Sun
Water vapour has been detected on K2-18b
Nick named as ‘miniature sun’, International a potentially ‘habitable’ planet by Nasa and
Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER) the European space agency’s Hubble Space
is the largest plasma based fusion reactor ever Telescope.
built.
K2-18b could be the only exoplanet known
It is the costliest technological project of the to have both water and temperatures in its
21st century with an estimated construction atmosphere to sustain liquid water on a rocky
cost of $25 Billion. surface
The project site is located in Cadarache, The new finding offers an ‘unprecedented
Southern France. opportunity’ to gain insight into the
The term ‘Thermonuclear’ indicates the composition and climate of habitable-zone
nuclear fusion reaction. planets.
ITER will be two times the size of the largest K2-18b is not ‘Earth 2.0’ as it is significantly
fusion reactor present and the chamber heavier and has a different atmospheric
volume will be 10 times the present one. composition.
PTTS2020/CARC/500 224
This study contributes to our understanding terrorism thereby ensuring military security in
of habitable worlds beyond our Solar System the strategic central Asian region.
and marks a new era in exoplanet research.
The TSENTR-2019 strategic measures will focus
What Is an Exoplanet? on evaluating the level of troop preparedness,
the acquisition of the required skills and raising
All of the planets in our solar system orbit around the level of interoperability and demonstrate
the Sun. Planets that orbit around other stars are the readiness of the participating armies.
called exoplanets.
Exoplanets are very hard to see directly with

telescopes. They are hidden by the bright glare
of the stars they orbit. Explanation:
There are many methods of detecting exoplanets. All statements are correct
Transit photometry and Doppler spectroscopy
have found the most, but these methods suffer Supplementary notes:
from a clear observational bias favoring the eSIM
detection of planets near the star; thus, 85%
of the exoplanets detected are inside the tidal An eSIM is exactly what it sounds like an
locking zone. electronic, or embedded, SIM. Instead of a
physical card, SIM technology is built right
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One way to search for exoplanets is to look for into your phone. It’s a small chip that’s used to
“wobbly” stars. A star that has planets doesn’t authenticate our identity with our carrier.
orbit perfectly around its center. From far away,
this off-center orbit makes the star look like its One of the advantages of eSIM technology is
wobbling. that it makes it much easier to switch carriers.
Instead of having to order a new SIM and wait
The most massive planet listed on the NASA around for it to arrive, you can switch to a new
Exoplanet Archive is HR 2562 b, about 30 times carrier straight from your phone.
the mass of Jupiter.

O eSIM technology supports multiple
accounts and switching between them is
super easy.
SC
Explanation: It will help make devices smaller.
Option is correct: Exercise TSENTR2019 is part It could be extremely helpful for wearables
of the annual series of large scale exercises devices.
that form part of the Russian Armed Forces’
annual training cycle.
Explanation:
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EXTSENTR Statement 2 is incorrect: Although signs of

Russia holds this major military exercise every ASF and classical swine fever (CSF) may be
year at one of its four military Commands i.e similar, the ASF virus is not related to the CSF
Vostok (East), Zapad (West), TSENTR (Centre) virus.
and Kavkas (South).The series of exercise
Statement 3 is incorrect: ASF is not a risk to
rotates through the four main Russian
human health as it is relatively harmless.
operational strategic commands.
These annual exercises have slowly begun Supplementary notes:
taking an international character, with Belarus What is African swine fever?
participating in ZAPAD-2017 and China and
Mongolia participating in VOSTOK-2018. Historically, outbreaks have been reported in
Africa and parts of Europe, South America,
This year’s Exercise TSENTR 2019 will be and the Caribbean. More recently (since 2007)
conducted by Central Military Commission the disease has been reported in multiple
of Russia. Apart from host Russia, military countries across Africa, Asia and Europe, in
contingents from China, India, Kazakhstan, both domestic and wild pigs.
Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Pakistan and Uzbekistan
will also take part in this mega event. African swine fever (ASF) is a highly
contagious haemorrhagic viral disease
The exercise aims at evolving drills of the (severe illness, sometimes associated with
participating armies and practicing them in bleeding), of domestic and wild pigs.
the fight against the scourge of international
225 PTTS2020/CARC/500
It is caused by a large DNA virus of the Meaning of Vector-borne diseases:
Asfarviridae family, which also infects ticks of
Vector-borne diseases are human illnesses
the genus Ornithodoros.
caused by parasites, viruses and bacteria that
Transmission and spread: are transmitted by vectors.
The epidemiology of ASF is complex and varies The major vector-borne diseases, together,
depending on the environment, types of pig account for around 17% of all infectious
production systems, the presence/absence of diseases. The burden of these diseases is
competent tick vectors, human behaviour, and highest in tropical and subtropical areas and
the presence/absence of wild pigs. they disproportionately affect the poorest
populations.
Direct contact with infected domestic or wild
pigs: This transboundary animal disease (TAD) Since 2014, major outbreaks of dengue,
can be spread by live or dead pigs, domestic malaria, chikungunya, yellow fever and Zika
or wild, and pork products. have afflicted populations, claimed lives
and overwhelmed health systems in many
Indirect contact, through ingestion of countries.
contaminated material (e.g. food waste,
feed, or garbage). Contaminated fomites, Main vectors and diseases they transmit:
or biological vectors (soft ticks of the genus
Ornithodoros) where present. Vector Disease
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Prevention and control: Chikungunya
Currently there is no approved vaccine for Dengue fever
ASF. Lymphatic filariasis
Aedes mos-
United Nations Food and Agriculture quit Rift Valley fever
Organization (FAO) reported that ASF has
caused the deaths of more than 3.7 million Yellow fever
O
pigs across a vast swathe of Asia, primarily

Zika
in its east and south-east, where pork is the
primary meat staple. Malaria
Although signs of ASF and classical swine Lymphatic filariasis
SC

fever (CSF) may be similar, the ASF virus is
Anopheles Culex mosquito
unrelated to the CSF virus.
mosquit Japanese encephalitis
ASF is not a risk to human health as it is
relatively harmless. Lymphatic filariasis
West Nile fever
29. Correct Option: (d) Leishmaniasis
GS
Explanation: (Kala-Azar)
Sandflies
All pairs are correctly matched Sandfly fever (phelebotomus
fever)
Crimean-Congo
Meaning of Vectors haemorrhagic fever
Vectors are living organisms that can transmit Lyme disease
infectious diseases between humans or from Ticks
Relapsing fever (borreliosis)
animals to humans.
Tick-borne encephalitis
Many of these vectors are bloodsucking
insects, which ingest disease-producing Tularaemia
microorganisms during a blood meal from an
infected host (human or animal) and later inject Triatomine Chagas disease (American
it into a new host during their subsequent bugs trypanosomiasis)
blood meal. Sleeping sickness (African
Tsetse flies
Mosquitoes are the best known disease vector. trypanosomiasis)
Others include ticks, flies, sandflies, fleas, Plague (transmitted by fleas
triatomine bugs and some freshwater aquatic from rats to humans)
snails. Fleas
Rickettsiosis
PTTS2020/CARC/500 226
Explanation:
Onchocerciasis (river
Black flies
blindness) Both statements are correct
Typhus and louse-borne Supplementary notes:
Lice
relapsing fever
About LRO:
Lunar Reconnaissance Orbiter (LRO) is a robotic
30. Correct Option: (c) mission that set out to map the moon’s surface
Explanation: and, after a year of exploration, was extended
with a unique set of science objectives.
LRO entered lunar orbit on June 23, 2009
Supplementary notes: and after spacecraft commissioning, the
Exploration Mission began on September 15,
HOG Technology 2009.
The new technology is expected to transform The Exploration Mission completed on
the way air conditioners (ACs) run and power September 15, 2010 when responsibility
is supplied in the railway coaches for LRO was transferred to NASA’s Science
In HOG technology, power is fed from the Mission Directorate for a two-year Science
RE
electric locomotive to the train to cater for the Mission with a new set of science goals. The
Hotel Load of the train. LRO mission has been extended to continue
lunar science and exploration.
It will reduce the power consumption to a
drastic level thus opening the door towards Focus of the exploration Mission:
sustainable use of resources.
The Exploration Mission was focused
on supporting the extension of human
31. Correct Option: (c) presence in the solar system.
Explanation:
Both statement are correct
O LRO continues to help identify sites close to
potential resources with high scientific value,
favourable terrain and the environment
necessary for safe future robotic and human
SC
Supplementary notes: lunar missions.
Various Prenatal Diagnosis Tests LRO observations have enabled numerous
Dual Marker and Triple Marker Tests: These ground-breaking discoveries, creating a
tests look at the level of certain hormones new picture of the moon as a dynamic and
which are ‘markers’ associated with Down’s complex body. These developments have set
Syndrome. up a scientific framework through which to
challenge and improve our understanding of
Ultrasound Tests: They are used extensively, processes throughout the solar system.
GS
four-five times in the pregnancy. Here we look

for markers for certain abnormalities. In the Some of the LRO exploration and science
case of Down’s Syndrome, for example, certain results:
physical characteristics suggest that the foetus
In polar shadowed regions found the coldest
has this condition. With an ultrasound at 18-
spots measured (below 30 K) in the solar
19 weeks we can pick up lots of information
system.
on structural problems.
Discovered significant subsurface hydrogen
Invasive Tests: These test the amniotic
deposits in regions cold enough for water ice
fluid, chorionic villus tissue or foetal blood.
to survive, as well as in additional hydrogen
Sometimes we even do a skin biopsy of the
deposits in warmer areas where surface water
baby. The other tests will give you a probable
ice is not thermally stable.
diagnosis – each one has its own proportion
of false positives and false negatives. But when New (<5 years old) impact craters and are
we test the tissue, we are actually looking at found to be widespread across the lunar
the genes, chromosomes, DNA, and this gives surface, with a surprising abundance of related
us a confirmatory result for certain genetic surface changes.
diseases. Amniocentesis is an example of
Developed an improved catalogue of lunar
invasive test.
craters larger than 20 km in diameter, thus
providing constraints on the ancient impactor
32. Correct Option: (c) population that affected the inner solar
227 PTTS2020/CARC/500
system.
Ex Lamitya Indo-Seychelles
8. Army Exercise
First radar measurements of the lunar far VII Joint Training
side. Disaster
Characterized relatively young volcanic Management
9. SAADMEx SAARC
Exercise by
complexes, such as Ina, and revealed first NDRF
direct evidence of the presence of highly silicic
volcanic rocks on the Moon. 10.
Exercise IAF's annual Indian Air
Livewire exercise Force
Measured galactic cosmic ray interactions with
the Moon during a period with the largest HAND-IN-
11. India & China Army exercise
HAND
cosmic ray intensities observed during the
space age. India & Sri
12. SLINEX Naval Exercise
Lanka
Created the first cosmic ray albedo proton
map of the Moon. 13. Indra India & Russia Army exercise
India & Bang-

14. SAMPRITI Army exercise
ladesh
Explanation:
RE
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: It is the first
bilateral exercise between Japan Air Self- Explanation:
Defence Force (JASDF) and the Indian Air
Option is correct: MAITREE-2019 was held
Force.
between India and Thailand.
Bilateral Exercises
MAITREE Exercise

O
“Dharma Guardian”: It is the first bilateral
Exercise MAITREE is the annual bilateral joint
exercise between the Japan Ground Self-
exercise between Indian Army (IA) and Royal
Defense Force (JGSDF) and the Indian Army
Thailand Army (RTA).
in the area of counter-terrorism.
SC
The aim of exercise is joint training of troops
‘SHINYUU MAITRI 18’: It is the first bilateral
in counter terrorism operations in both jungle
exercise between Japan Air Self-Defence Force
terrain and urban scenario.
(JASDF) and the Indian Air Force.
Exercise MAITREE-2019 has been the face of
“Cope India”: It is the India-U.S. bilateral
long standing bilateral ties between India and
exercise.
Thailand since 2006.
Other exercises: The 14 days exercise was conducted under
GS
the framework of United Nations mandate.

S. Name of Participating Nature of
No. exercise country exercise Both contingents will share their valuable
experiences in the conduct of counter
YUDH India & United terrorism operations in form of lectures, drills,
1. Army exercise
ABHYAS States
demonstrations and skill-at-arms with an aim
India & Mal- to refine tactics, techniques and procedures.
2. KUVERIN Army exercise
dives
3. AUSINDEX
India & Aus-
Naval exercise 35. Correct Option: (c)
tralia
Explanation:
MITRA India & Sri
4. Army exercise
SHAKTHI Lanka Statements 1 is incorrect: Vitamin B12 is
Malabar Na- India & US & water soluble.
5. Naval Exercise
val Exercise Japan
Border Security
Force (BSF) Vitamin B12
Sundarban India and Bang-
6. and Border
Maitri ladesh A water-soluble vitamin, B12 is the most
Guard Bangla-
desh (BDB) critical element in the metabolism of every
cell in the human body. Deficiency can cause
7. Suryakiran India and Nepal Army exercise anemia, weakness of limbs and dementia.
Pregnant women who lack this vitamin can
PTTS2020/CARC/500 228
give birth to brain-damaged babies, which Institute, Helmholtz Centre for Polar and
can lead to autism. Marine Research (AWI), will be supported
and resupplied by the icebreakers Akademik
India doesn’t have nation-wide data on
Fedorov and Admiral Makarov (Russia), Oden
B12 deficiency. But there is wide acceptance
(Sweden) and Xue Long II (China).
among the medical fraternity that a large
number of people as many as those suffering The `results of MOSAiC mission will contribute
from vitamin D deficiency have this problem. to enhance understanding of the regional
and global consequences of Arctic climate
About 47 per cent people in northern India are
change.
vitamin B12 deficient. Thus, being an endemic
problem It will be helpful in understanding the reasons
behind the sea-ice loss and improve weather
This vitamin is only found in animal meat and
and climate predictions.
to a lesser extent in milk products.
For India, this debate has greater relevance
as about 30 per cent of the population is 37. Correct Option: (a)
vegetarian, according to an assessment of Explanation:
the National Sample Survey Office in 2014.
An Indian eats roughly 4 kg of meat per year, Option is correct: Sagittarius A* is one of very
as compared to the global average of 43 few black holes in the universe where we can
RE
kg, according to the Food and Agriculture actually witness the flow of matter nearby.
Organization.
But there is another layer to the curious case
of B12 deficiency in India. Even the non- Sagittarius A
vegetarian population is facing this deficiency. Sagittarius A is a bright and very compact
Most non-vegetarian Indians largely consume astronomical radio source at the center
chicken, which has very little amount of vitamin of the Milky Way, near the border of the

B12 as compared to mutton or sea food
The government should also think about
O
fortification as a possible panacea. The easiest

constellations Sagittarius and Scorpius.
It is likely the location of a supermassive black
hole, similar to those generally accepted to
solution is to inject the vitamin; a one course be at the centers of most if not all spiral and
SC
injection can suffice for a year. elliptical galaxies.
Astronomers have used NASA’s Chandra
36. Correct Option: (d) X-ray Observatory to take a major step in
understanding why material around Sgr A* is
Explanation: extraordinarily faint in X-rays.
Statement 1 is incorrect: It is a polar Sgr A* is one of very few black holes in the
expedition initiated by German research universe where we can actually witness the
GS
icebreaker Polarstern. flow of matter nearby.

Statement 2 is incorrect: It is a one-year-long
expedition into the Central Arctic to study its
climate.
Explanation:
Mosaic Mission
The Multidisciplinary drifting Observatory for
the Study of Arctic Climate expedition is a UMMID
one-year-long expedition into the Central
Arctic, planned to take place from 2019 to The Department of Biotechnology (DBT) has
2020. started the UMMID (Unique Methods of
Management and treatment of Inherited
For the first time a modern research icebreaker Disorders) Initiative which is designed on the
will operate in the direct vicinity of the North concept of ‘Prevention is better than Cure’.
Pole year round, including the nearly half year
long polar night during winter. UMMID aims to create awareness about
genetic disorders amongst clinicians to
During its one-year-long journey, the central establish molecular diagnostic in hospitals.
expedition ship, the research icebreaker
Polarstern from Germany’s Alfred Wegener Goals of UMMID initiative:
229 PTTS2020/CARC/500
To establish NIDAN (National Inherited Project 17A frigates are a design derivative
Diseases Administration) Kendras to provide of the Shivalik class stealth frigates with
counselling, prenatal testing and diagnosis, much more advanced stealth features and
management, and multidisciplinary care in indigenous weapons and sensors.
Government Hospitals wherein the influx of
The P17A frigates incorporate new design
patients is more.
concepts for improved survivability, sea keeping,
To produce skilled clinicians in Human and stealth and ship manoeuvrability.
Genetics.
To undertake screening of pregnant women 40. Correct Option: (d)
and new born babies for inherited genetic
diseases in hospitals at aspirational districts. Explanation:
Why need UMMID? All statements are correct
The contribution of genetic disorders to infant Supplementary notes:

and childhood mortality and morbidity is
EEHV
increasing.
Elephant endotheliotropic herpesviruses
In India’s urban areas, congenital malformations
(EEHV) or Elephantid betaherpesvirus 1
and genetic disorders are the third most
(ElHV-1) is a type of herpesvirus, which
RE
common cause of mortality in new-borns.
can cause a highly fatal hemorrhagic
With a very large population and high birth
disease when transmitted to young Asian
rate, and consanguineous marriage favoured
elephants.
in many communities, prevalence of genetic
disorders is high in India. The four deaths in Nandan Kanan Zoo are the
first reported cases of EEHV-related deaths in
The congenital and hereditary genetic diseases
an Indian zoo
are becoming a significant health burden in
O
India, and there was the need for adequate Most elephants carry just as most humans
and effective genetic testing and counselling carry a cold virus. When EEHV is triggered,
services. the elephant dies of massive internal
bleeding and symptoms which are hardly
Though there are excellent medical genetics
visible.
SC
centres in India providing state-of-the-art
patient care services to families with genetic Some elephants show symptoms such as
disorders, the number of such centres is reduced appetite, nasal discharge and swollen
small. glands
Hence establishment of patient care services There is no true cure for herpesviruses
for genetic disorders is the need of the time. in animals or in humans, because herpes
viruses go latent.
Therefore the Department of Biotechnology
GS
has initiated the UMMID program to establish EEHV is lethal for young elephants between the
many genetic diagnostic centres in different ages of one and 12. If a young elephant dies
parts of the country. before reproducing, it affects the population
of the species as a whole in the concerned
To achieve this, a combined program of training
geography.
doctors in genetic diagnostics and providing
funding to establish genetic diagnostic In India, the CZA will set up a national
laboratories and to create awareness about committee of scientists from Guwahati, Kerala,
genetic disorders amongst doctors and lay IVRI and Nandan Kanan to develop protocols
persons, has been meticulously planned. for the country lest an EEHV outbreak occurs
elsewhere in the future.

Explanation:
Explanation:
Option is correct
Statement 3 is incorrect: Rafale UAV is not
Supplementary notes: an anti-drone technology.
INS Nilgiri Supplementary notes:
INS Nilgiri is the first ship of Project 17A
Various Anti-Drone Technologies
frigates
Drone Gun: A drone gun is capable of
PTTS2020/CARC/500 230
jamming the radio, global positioning Lithium ion batteries using cobalt oxide can
system (GPS) and mobile signal between boost the lithium battery’s potential to four
the drone and the pilot and forces the drone volts.
to ground in good time before it could wreak
any damage Benefits and uses of Lithium ion battery:
Sky Fence: It uses a range of signal disruptors The advantage of lithium-ion batteries is that
to jam the flight path and prevent them from they are not based upon chemical reactions
entering their target, a sensitive installation or that break down the electrodes, but upon
event venue. lithium ions flowing back and forth between
the anode and cathode.
ATHENA: It is an acronym for Advanced Test
High Energy Asset, is another weapon under They are lightweight, rechargeable,
analysis as it works by firing a high energy powerful batteries, now used in everything
laser beam on a rogue drone resulting in from mobile phones to laptops and long-
its complete destruction in the air. However, range electric vehicles.
this is a very costly technology and is being Battery technology helps replace carbon-
currently tested by the US army. emitting sources because it allows power
Drone Catcher: It swiftly approaches an companies to store excess solar and wind
enemy drone and grabs it by throwing a power when the sun does not shine nor the
wind blow, making possible a fossil fuel-free
RE
net around. Such a tool is required when a
rogue drone is needed to be captured safely society and combating the effects of climate
to extract incriminating evidence from it. change.
Skywall 100: It is the ground version of the They are also capable of being miniaturized and
‘drone catcher’ and it works by bringing used in devices like implanted pacemakers.
down an UAV using a parachute that is hurled They can be scaled up to power a car or a
through a net from 100 meters distance. O home.
This battery technology helps replace carbon-
42. Correct Option: (d) emitting sources because it allows power
companies to store excess solar and wind
Explanation: power when the sun does not shine nor the
SC
Statement 1 is incorrect: Lithium-ion battery wind blow, making possible a fossil fuel-free
uses petroleum coke layered with lithium ions society and combating the effects of climate
and not lead-acid. Lead-acid batteries are still change.
used to start gasoline- and diesel-powered Mechanics of Lithium ion battery:
vehicles today.
Lithium-ion Battery
GS
The first rechargeable battery came about in

1859. These were made from lead-acid, and
are still used to start gasoline- and diesel-
powered vehicles today.
Dr. Stanley Whittingham discovered an
extremely energy-rich material, which he used Lithium-ion batteries are powered by flows
to create an innovative cathode in a lithium of lithium ions crossing from one material to
battery. This battery was made from titanium another.
disulphide.
When the battery is in use, positively-charged
The battery’s anode was partially made from lithium ions pass from an anode to a cathode,
metallic lithium, which has a strong drive to releasing a stream of electrons along the way
release electrons. It resulted in a battery that that form an electric current.
had great potential, just over two volts.
When the battery is being recharged, lithium
The big advantage of this technology was that ions flow in the opposite direction, resetting
lithium-ion stored about 10 times as much the battery to do it all over again.
energy as lead-acid or 5 times as much as
nickel-cadmium
Issues:
More than half of lithium is gathered using
Lithium-ion batteries were also extremely
brine extraction from deep inside the earth,
lightweight and required little maintenance.
231 PTTS2020/CARC/500
and the rest is still mined traditionally from NGRI has the mandate to conduct research for
rock. public-good science to enable government
agencies, public and private sector
Lithium extraction has caused environmental
stakeholders to make informed decisions
damage to areas around lithium processing
about use of geo-resources sustainably and
operations.
improve preparedness and resilience to
natural hazard.
Explanation: 44. Correct Option: (a)
Statement 1 is incorrect: It is the first such Explanation:
atlas developed by CSIR-National Geophysical
Statement 1 is incorrect: Artemis mission
Research Institute (NGRI).
aims to land American astronauts, including
Supplementary notes: the first woman and the next man on the
Moon by 2024.
Geochemical Baseline Atlas of India
For the first time, ‘Geochemical Baseline
Atlas of India’ developed by CSIR- NASA’s Artemis Mission
National Geophysical Research Institute
RE
NASA is committed to landing American
(NGRI) for use by policy makers to assess
astronauts, including the first woman and
environmental damage was released.
the next man, on the Moon by 2024.
The atlas consisting 45 maps of metals,
Through the agency’s Artemis lunar exploration
oxides and elements present in top and
program, NASA will use innovative new
bottom soils across India will serve as a
technologies and systems to explore more of
reference against which future generations
the Moon than ever before.
of the country would be able to assess the
O
chemical compositional changes on Earth’s NASA will collaborate with commercial and
surface. international partners to establish sustainable
missions by 2028. And then will use the
These maps help in finding out future
learnings on and around the Moon to take the
contamination caused by industries or other
SC
next giant leap – sending astronauts to Mars.
bodies which cause pollution.
Artemis is named after the twin sister of Apollo
The maps have been prepared for 22 metals.
who is also the Goddess of the Moon and the
With a glance at it, one can get to know regions
hunt.
with high and low concentrations of a metal.
For instance, tanneries release chromium. By NASA’s powerful new rocket, the Space
going through the map of chromium, policy Launch System (SLS), will send astronauts
makers will get to know regions with high aboard the Orion spacecraft a quarter
GS
concentration of it. Policy makers should not million miles from Earth to lunar orbit.
allow tanneries in those regions. Astronauts will dock Orion at the Gateway
where they will live and work around the
The atlas will be given to International Union
Moon. The crew will take expeditions from the
of Global Sciences (IUGS), which is preparing
Gateway to the surface of the Moon in a new
global maps.
human landing system before returning to the
IUGS is a non-governmental scientific orbital outpost. Crew will ultimately return to
organization of 121 member nations Earth aboard Orion.
which promotes and encourages the study
While Mars remains NASA’s horizon goal,
of geological problems, and facilitates
it has set sights first on exploring the entire
international and interdisciplinary cooperation
surface of the Moon with human and robotic
in the earth sciences. India is a member.
explorers. It will send astronauts to new
National Geophysical Research Institute locations, starting with the lunar South Pole.
At the Moon, astronauts will:
It is a constituent research laboratory of the
Council of Scientific and Industrial Research Find and use water and other critical
(CSIR) was established in 1961 with the mission resources needed for long-term
to carry out research in multidisciplinary areas exploration
of the highly complex structure and processes Investigate the Moon’s mysteries and learn
of the Earth system and its extensively more about our home planet and the
interlinked subsystems. universe
PTTS2020/CARC/500 232
Learn how to live and operate on the the first chief of the Armed Forces Special
surface of another celestial body where Operations Division.
astronauts are just three days from home
The tri-services formation will have Special
Prove the technologies we need before Forces commandos from Army’s Parachute
sending astronauts on missions to Mars, Regiment, Navy’s MARCOS and Air Force’s
which can take up to three years roundtrip Garud Commando Force.
The division will boost India’s capability
45. Correct Option: (b) to conduct frequent surgical strikes like
tactical operations and secret missions. It
Explanation: will reportedly carry out secretive missions
Statement 3 is incorrect: It is an all-weather both within and outside the country. The
and all-terrain missile using solid-fuel focus of this tri-service special force will be to
propellant. conduct anti-terror missions targeting terror
infrastructure.
Quick Reaction Surface-to-Air Missile 47. Correct Option: (c)
(QRSAM)
Explanation:
India recently successfully test-fired a Quick
RE

Reaction Surface-to-Air Missile (QRSAM) with Option is correct: Russia will deliver the
30-kilometre range from a test range off the Akula class submarine to the Indian Navy by
Odisha coast. 2025 for a period of 10 years.
The missile successfully engaged its target Supplementary notes:

during the flight test and met all the desired
Akula Class Submarine
parameters.
India signed $ 3.3 billion deal with Russia for
Developed by the Defense Research and
Development Organization (DRDO), the
O
missile has a strike range of 25 km to 30
km.

leasing an Akula-class submarine, which will
customized as per the requirements of India.
The Akula-II submarine will replace INS Chakra
for the Indian Navy, which was taken on a 10-
SC
It uses solid-fuel propellant and has the
year lease from Russia for $2.5 billion in 2011
capability of engaging multiple targets.
and the lease is expiring in 2022.
The all-weather and all-terrain missile,
The Indian Navy already has two Akula class
which can be mounted on a truck and stored in
submarines from Russia on lease –the first had
a canister, is equipped with electronic counter
come in 1998 for a three-year period; followed
measures against jamming by aircraft radars.
by a second INS Chakra was taken on lease in
Quick Reaction Surface to Air Missile System 2012 for a period of 10 years, which is expiring
GS
(QRSAM) is a Short Range Surface to Air in 2022 as was reported by Financial Express
Missile system designed to protect moving Online earlier.
armoured columns from aerial attacks.
With this submarine, India will be able to
The entire weapon system is configured on expand not only its strike capability, but will
highly mobile platforms and is capable of also be able to expand its presence in the
providing air defense on the move. Indian Ocean.
QRSAM Weapon Systems is being inducted These marines have the capability to remain
into the Indian Army (IA). underwater – for an extended period of
time which helps in making its detection
impossible.
Explanation: 48. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
Supplementary notes: Statement 1 is incorrect: Helium hydride
Indian Tri-services Commando Unit — a combination of helium and hydrogen —
was detected roughly 3,000 light-years from
In a major step towards setting up of an elite Earth by NASAs Stratospheric Observatory for
Indian tri-services commando unit, Major Infrared Astronomy (SOFIA).
General AK Dhingra has been appointed as
233 PTTS2020/CARC/500
Supplementary notes: solar system as they are not out of the sun’s
gravitational field yet
Helium hydride — a combination of helium
and hydrogen — was detected roughly 3,000 Voyager 2 was launched in 1977, 16 days
light-years from Earth by NASAs Stratospheric before Voyager 1, and both have travelled well
Observatory for Infrared Astronomy (SOFIA). beyond their original destinations.
Scientists have detected the 1st type of The spacecraft were built to last five years
molecule that ever formed in the universe – and conduct close-up studies of Jupiter and
a combination of helium and hydrogen called Saturn.
helium hydride – in a planetary nebula NGC-
Their five-year lifespans have stretched to
7027, near the constellation Cygnus.
41 years, making Voyager 2 NASA’s longest
running mission.
Explanation: 51. Correct Option: (d)
Option is correct: Project 3S aims to optimize Explanation:
post-marketing surveillance of priority drugs
and vaccines.
RE
PSLV-C47
3S Project
India’s Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle,
Centre is planning to expand the reach of the
PSLV-C47 has launched Cartosat-3 and
Smart Safety Surveillance or 3S programme.
13 commercial nanosatellites into Sun
It is a project to optimize post-marketing Synchronous orbit from Satish Dhawan Space
surveillance of priority drugs and vaccines. Centre (SDSC) SHAR, Sriharikota.

O
It was recommended by the World Health This is the first commercial order to put into
Organization (WHO), considering the orbit 13 American nanosatellites for NewSpace
limited safety data on vaccines introduced India, which was formed only in March 2019.
in India.
PSLV-C47 is the 21st flight of PSLV in
SC

It aims to ensure the vaccines distributed ‘XL’ configuration (with 6 solid strap-on
under the universal immunization programme motors).
are safe.
As part of the 3S project, India is evaluating 52. Correct Option: (b)
the recently-introduced rotavirus vaccines.
Explanation:
It is also trying to strengthen the collaboration
among key stakeholders, such as Ministry of Statement 1 is incorrect: It is a metabolic
GS
Health and Central Drugs Standard Control disorder characterized by abnormal fat
Organisation (CDSCO), to ensure high levels accumulation in the breast muscle tissue.
of vigilance.
Wooden Breast Syndrome
Researchers have recently found that the
Explanation: Wooden Breast Syndrome affects broiler
All statements are correct chickens by making the meat hard and
chewy.
It is a metabolic disorder characterized by
Voyager 2 abnormal fat accumulation in the breast
muscle tissue.
NASA’s Voyager 2 has become the second
human-made object in history to exit the It involves inflammation of the veins in the
Heliosphere (bubble created by solar winds). breast tissue and accumulation of lipid around
the affected veins.
Voyager 2 is the only spacecraft to have
visited all four gas giant planets — Jupiter, It is followed by muscle cell death and
Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune. replacement by fibrous and fatty tissue.
The two probes, Voyager 1 and Voyager 2 have An enzyme called lipoprotein lipase is
left the heliosphere, but have not yet left the behind the syndrome and it is crucial for fat
PTTS2020/CARC/500 234
metabolism. international scientific research.
At the onset of wooden breast syndrome, It is a first-of-its-kind ambitious public outreach
lipoprotein lipase was higher in affected programme in India for popularising science
chickens, leading to more fat accumulating in with contribution from the Department of
the breast muscles. Science & Technology (DST), along with
the National Council of Science Museums
This is an irregularity because breast muscle
(NCSM).
fibers in chicken typically rely on sugar
molecules for fuel, not fat molecules. It is conceived with the aim of providing a
common interactive platform for industry,
It can render the birds unmarketable and
academia and institutions.
cause losses for growers.
The exhibition celebrates India’s
participation as one of the core contributors
53. Correct Option: (c) in seven international collaborative mega-
Explanation: science projects, namely:
Option is correct: Hera mission launched by European Organization for Nuclear

ESA is related to Asterioid Deflection. Research (CERN)
International Thermonuclear Experimental
RE
Reactor (ITER)
Hera mission Facility for Antiproton and Ion Research
Scientists are studying asteroids and trying (FAIR)
to find ways to deflect them from a collision India-based Neutrino Observatory (INO)
course with Earth.
Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave
One such project is the Asteroid Impact and Observatory (LIGO)
Deflection Assessment (AIDA), which includes
(DART) mission and the European Space

Agency’s (ESA) Hera.
O
NASA’s Double Asteroid Redirection Test

Thirty Meter Telescope (TMT) and
Square Kilometer Array (SKA)
It was launched in Mumbai as the first venue
ESA and partner NASA will send a pair of
SC
in May 2019 and Vigyan Samagam will be
spacecraft to a double-asteroid system called organised in four cities in India including
Didymos. Bengaluru, Kolkata, and Delhi.
NASA will first crash its DART probe into the
smaller asteroid (Didymoon). Hera will arrive
later to map the impact crater and measure 55. Correct option:
the asteroid’s mass. Explanation:
The moon orbiting Didymos, called ‘Didymoon’ Statement 3 is incorrect: This device can be
GS

— almost the size of the Giza Pyramid in Egypt, used for lifetime but cannot be transferred to
measuring just 160 meters in diameter — will another vehicle.
be the smallest asteroid ever explored.
Hera will carry two CubeSats that can fly
extremely close to the asteroid’s surface FASTag
before touching down.
FASTag is an electronic toll collection
system in India, operated by the National
54. Correct Option: (b) Highway Authority of India (NHAI)
Explanation: FASTag is a Radio Frequency Identification

(RFID) technology passive tag used for
Statement 1 is incorrect: It is organized by making toll payments directly from the
the Department of Atomic Energy. customers linked prepaid or savings/current
account. It is affixed on the windscreen of
the vehicle and enables the customer to
Vigyan Samagam drive through toll plazas, without stopping
for any toll payments.
It is a multi-project multi-venue exhibition
organized by Department of Atomic Energy The toll fare is directly deducted from the
(DAE) ’to showcase India’s collaborative linked account of the customer.
contribution to cutting-edge mega-scale FASTag is also vehicle specific and once it is
235 PTTS2020/CARC/500
affixed to a vehicle, it cannot be transferred the target app, the hijacked tasks will open up
to another vehicle. instead of the original tasks.
FASTag can be purchased from any of the During this interception, the malicious app will
NETC Member Banks. seek permission to access the device’s camera,
microphone, messages, GPS and storage.
If a FASTag is linked to the prepaid account,
then it needs to be recharged/ topped-up as If the user grants these permissions,
per the usage of the customer. If adequate the malicious app gains access to these
balance is not maintained by the customer, components.
the FASTag gets blacklisted at the toll plaza.
Currently, there is no effective block or even
In such a scenario if the customer travels detection method against StrandHogg on
through a toll plaza without recharging then the device itself.
he won’t be able to avail the NETC services
It was first reported by Norway-based
and would be required to pay the toll fare
cybersecurity firm Promon and later confirmed
through cash.
by their partner firm Lookout.
National Payments Corporation of India
The cybersecurity wing of Ministry of Home
(NPCI) has developed the National Electronic
Affairs has issued a warning against this bug.
Toll Collection (NETC) program to meet
the electronic tolling requirements of the
RE
Indian market. It offers an interoperable 57. Correct Option: (b)
nationwide toll payment solution including
clearing house services for settlement and Explanation:
dispute management. Interoperability, as it Statement 1 is incorrect: It helps in managing
applies to National Electronic Toll Collection insulin levels and has nothing to do with
(NETC) system, encompasses a common set Estrogen hormone.
of processes, business rules and technical
O
specifications which enable a customer to use Supplementary notes:
their FASTag as payment mode on any of the
toll plazas irrespective of who has acquired
Secretagogin Protein
the toll plaza. The scientists at CSIR-Centre for Cellular and
Molecular Biology (CCMB) have discovered
SC
FASTag offers the convenience of cashless
a protein, Secretagogin or SCGN, that helps
payment along with benefits like - savings on
manage insulin levels and has the potential
fuel and time as the customer does not have
to tackle diabetes.
to stop at the toll plaza.
This protein binds to insulin and protects
it from various stresses while increasing its
56. Correct Option: (b) stability.
Explanation: SCGN-treated animals also have lower
GS
Statement 1 is incorrect: It is known to target levels of harmful LDL-cholesterol and lower

android operating systems. lipid accumulation in liver cells.
Supplementary notes: The injection of SCGN in obese diabetic mice

clears excess insulin from circulation and
Strandhogg Bug reduces fat mass.
StrandHogg is a software bug that It is also known to tackle neurodegenerative
exploits Android control settings called task disorders like dementia and Alzheimers as
Affinity and task Reparenting to allow apps diabetes and neurodegenerative disorders are
including malicious ones to freely assume the often linked with each other, the protein is also
identity of another task in the multitasking found to be in lower quantities in the brains of
system. Alzheimer’s patients.
It allows real-time malware applications
to pose as genuine applications and access 58. Correct Option: (a)
user data of all kind.
It can allow hackers to listen to the microphone,
Explanation:
steal login credentials, take photos using the Statement 3 is incorrect: Transduction is
camera, read SMS and even access photos. the process by which a virus transfers genetic
material from one bacterium to another.
It allows the malicious activity to hijack the
target’s task, so the next time the user opens Supplementary notes:
PTTS2020/CARC/500 236
Bacteriophage from Japan, Italy and Israel; their
applications range from remote sensing to
A bacteriophage is a type of virus that
earth imaging.
infects bacteria.
These satellites were launched under
All bacteriophages are composed of a nucleic
commercial arrangement with New Space
acid molecule that is surrounded by a protein
India Limited (NSIL), the commercial arm
structure.
of Indian Space Research Organisation
A bacteriophage attaches itself to a susceptible (ISRO).
bacterium and infects the host cell.
Following infection, the bacteriophage hijacks 60. Correct Option: (c)
the bacterium’s cellular machinery to prevent
it from producing bacterial components Explanation:
and instead forces the cell to produce viral Statement 1 is incorrect: Its primary area of
components. service extends 1500 km from the boundary
The new bacteriophages assemble and of India.
burst out of the bacterium in a process Statement 3 is incorrect: The satellite
called lysis to increase their spread. constellation has 3 satellites placed in
Bacteriophages occasionally remove a geostationary orbit and 4 in geosynchronous
RE

portion of their host cells’ bacterial DNA orbit.
during the infection process and then
transfer this DNA into the genome of
new host cells. This process is known as Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System
transduction. (IRNSS): NavIC
IRNSS is an independent regional navigation
59. Correct Option: (c) satellite system being developed by India.
Explanation:

O
Statement 2 is incorrect: It was launched by
It is designed to provide accurate position
information service to users in India as
well as the region extending up to 1500
PSLV-C48 launch vehicle into the low earth km from its boundary, which is its primary
SC
orbit. service area.
Supplementary notes: IRNSS will provide two types of services,
namely, Standard Positioning Service
RISAT-2BR1
(SPS) which is provided to all the users
The latest spy satellite, RISAT-2BR1, and and Restricted Service (RS), which is an
nine foreign satellites were launched by ISRO encrypted service provided only to the
in December 2019. authorised users.
GS
RISAT-2BR1 is radar imaging earth The IRNSS System is expected to provide a

observation satellite weighing about 628 position accuracy of better than 20 m in the
kg. primary service area.
It was launched through the Polar Satellite The space segment consists of the IRNSS
Launch Vehicle (PSLV), which successfully constellation of eight satellites, NavIC.
completed its 50th mission.
While the IRNSS-1A failed in the orbit,
The launch vehicle, PSLV-C48, took off from three satellites IRNSS-1C, IRNSS-1F and
the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota, IRNSS-1G are located in suitable orbital
Andhra Pradesh. slots in the geostationary orbit.
RISAT-2BR1 was injected into a low earth The remaining four IRNSS-1B, IRNSS-
orbit of 576 km at an inclination of 37 1D, IRNSS-1E and IRNSS-1I are located in
degrees to the equator. geosynchronous orbits with the required
inclination and equatorial crossings in two
Apart from being used for military purposes,
different planes.
it has applications in fields such as agriculture
and disaster management support. All the satellites of the constellation are
configured identically. The satellites are
RISAT-2BR1 has a mission life of five years.
configured with I-1K Bus to be compatible for
The other satellites include six from launch onboard PSLV.
the United States, and one each
237 PTTS2020/CARC/500
61. Correct Option: (a) L1 satellite will be launched by using PSLV XL.
The launch will take in early part of next solar
Explanation: cycle. The satellite will be programmed to orbit
Statement 3 is incorrect: Casey is Australia’s L1 point and image sun’s magnetic field from
research centre in Antarctica. space for very first time in world. Scientists
hope to capture close-ups of sun from here,
Supplementary notes: uninterrupted by eclipses for years.
BRUIE Objectives of mission
Buyant Rover for Under-Ice Exploration Study dynamic nature of sun’s outer most
(BRUIE) is a robot of NASA developed for layers, the corona and the chromosphere, and
underwater exploration in extra-terrestrial, collect data about Coronal Mass Ejections
icy waters. (CME).
It’s a wheeled vehicle designed to drive upside Study on origin of solar storms and their path
down on ice sheets. BRUIE is buoyant, which through the interplanetary space from the Sun
keeps it pressed against the ice ceiling. to the Earth.
Moons throughout the solar system believed The studies will also focus on collection of
to be covered in deep oceans hidden beneath information for space weather prediction.
thick, frozen surfaces.
RE
Lagrange point
It could be used to explore Jupiter’s moon
Europa or Saturn’s moon Enceladus. Lagrange point is position in space where
combined gravitational forces of two large
These can be the most promising locations bodies, such as Earth and sun or Earth
in our solar system to search for evidence of and moon, equal centrifugal force felt by
extraterrestrial life. a much smaller third body. The interaction
It is being tested at Australia’s Casey of these forces creates point of equilibrium

O
research station in Antarctica to perform where spacecraft may be “parked” to make
driving upside down under sea ice. observation.
NASA is already constructing the Europa

Clipper orbiter, scheduled for launch in 2025 63. Correct Option: (b)
SC
to study Jupiter’s moon Europa, laying the
Explanation:
groundwork for a future mission that could
search for life beneath the ice. Statement 1 is incorrect: It is Russia’s new
intercontinental hypersonic missile system
that can fly 27 times the speed of sound.
Explanation:
Avangard Missile System
GS
Statement 2 is incorrect: It is a flagship

programme of ISRO Russia’s military deployed a new
intercontinental weapon, the Avangard
Supplementary notes: hypersonic missile system that can fly 27
Aditya-L1 times the speed of sound.
The India Indian Space Research Organisation This will be the Russian military’s first Avangard
(ISRO) is set to launch first solar mission hypersonic intercontinental ballistic missile
Aditya-L1. It will be India’s first dedicated (ICBM).
scientific mission to study sun. This feat is highly significant and comparable
The mission aims to put 1,500-kg heavy to the 1957 Soviet launch of the first satellite.
class Aditya-L1 satellite into halo orbit Previously referred to as Project 4202, the
around Lagrangian point L1, a point between Avangard hypersonic missile system is a reentry
Sun and Earth. This point is at a distance of body carried atop an existing ballistic missile,
about 1.5 million km from earth. which has the capability to manoeuvre.
The mission is a joint venture between ISRO The missiles have a range of over 6,000
and physicists from various institutes including km, weigh approximately 2,000 kg and can
Indian Institute of Astrophysics (Bengaluru), withstand temperatures of over 2000 degree
Tata Institute of Fundamental Research celsius.
(Mumbai) and Inter University Centre for
Astronomy and Astrophysics (Pune). Aditya It’s manoeuvring capability makes it
PTTS2020/CARC/500 238
difficult to predict its trajectory and gives stakeholders by migrating from manual
it the ability to protect itself from the air process of training to digital platform.
and ballistic missile defences by delivering
nuclear warheads to targets, for instance, in
Europe and the US. 65. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
64. Correct Option: (a) All statements are correct
Statement 1 is incorrect: CACS project aims Polycrack Technology
to enhance security and ease of doing business
at airports. By January 2020, pretty much all kind of waste
generated at Bhubaneswar’s railway station,
Statement 3 is incorrect: CACS and e-BCAS carriage and coaching depot will be converted
projects are launched by Ministry of Civil into light diesel oil that can be used in furnaces
Aviation. and gas that can be used to keep the waste-
Supplementary notes: to-energy plant running.
This will be done using a patented technology
Biometric enabled Centralized Access Control
developed by Indian Railways’ Bhubaneswar-
RE
System (CACS) Project
located Carriage Repair Workshop, called
Ministry of Civil Aviation launched CACS Polycrack.
project to enhance security and ease of
The world’s first such process, Polycrack
doing business at airports.
converts multiple feedstock into hydrocarbon
Covering 43 Airports of AAI and 5 Joint Venture liquid fuels, gas, carbon and water.
airports at present, the CACS project is aimed
This will be the third such facility in India. The
to digitize the employee movement process

at the airports.
O
This multi-layered security system encompasses
the uniqueness of the Airport Entry Permit
same technology is being used for waste-
to-energy plants at New Delhi and Infosys,
Bengaluru.
Polycrack can be fed with all types of
(AEP) users, biometric authentication in
SC
plastic; petroleum sludge; un-segregated
addition to PIN-based identity verification
municipal solid waste with moisture up to 50
through contactless smart card technology,
per cent; electronic waste, automobile fluff,
which manages access of personnel along with
organic waste including bamboo, garden
RFID based automated vehicle access control
waste; jatropa fruit and palm bunch.
system according to the region, terminal, zone,
and gate access privileges. Polycrack’s strength includes not requiring
pre-segregation of waste, allowing waste
The cost of the card is Rs. 225, which shall be
as collected to be directly used. With a high
GS
valid for three years.

moisture tolerance, drying of waste is not
Biometric ID (Biometric enabled Centralized required.
Access Control System having chip embedded
Waste is processed within 24 hours. The
smart AEPs) thus issued, is non-duplicable.
working environment is dust free as the
e-BCAS Project unit is enclosed and the air quality of the
surrounding area is not hit. Also, the area
Ministry of Civil Aviation launched e-BCAS required for installing the plant is less when
project which aims to achieve a “paperless compared with the conventional method of
office” under e-Governance initiative of GoI. processing, and all constituents are converted
The objective of the e-BCAS project is to into energy.
make all the activities in the Bureau of Civil
Aviation Security (BCAS) transparent, user-
friendly, and efficient and above all, the
project intends to provide an ease of doing Explanation:
business with the stakeholders.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The theme for
The e-BCAS project included Training module, ISC-2020 was ‘Science & Technology: Rural
Quality Control and Operational module and Development’.
Administration etc.
e-BCAS Project: Training Module’ aims at
helping more than 1.5 lac employees of various Indian Science Congress (ISC)
239 PTTS2020/CARC/500
India’s largest annual gathering of scientific planet or moon is in the Goldilocks Zone of
luminaries from countries across the a star, doesn’t mean it’s going to have life or
world, the 107th session of Indian Science even liquid water.
Congress, was held from January 3 to 7,
2020 at University of Agricultural Sciences, Supplementary notes:
GKVK Campus, Bangalore, Karnataka Goldilocks Zone
focusing on ‘Science & Technology: Rural
Development’. NASA recently reported the discovery of
an Earth-size planet, named TOI 700 d,
It is a major focal point for scientists, orbiting its star in the “habitable zone”.
researchers and academicians interested in
various aspects of science discoveries and TOI 700 d measures 20% larger than Earth. It
technologies. orbits its star once every 37 days and receives
an amount of energy that is equivalent to 86%
The five-day long event aims to bring together of the energy that the Sun provides to Earth.
science fraternity across the world to discuss
scientific innovation and research. The star, TOI 700, is an “M dwarf” located just
over 100 light-years away in the southern
With focus on Rural Development through constellation Dorado, is roughly 40% of our
Science and Technology, for the first time Sun’s mass and size, and has about half its
in the history of Indian Science Congress, a surface temperature.
RE
Farmers Science Congress was held. It covered
themes ranging from farmers innovation on The Goldilocks Zone refers to the habitable
integrated agriculture and entrepreneurship zone around a star where the temperature
for doubling farmers income, climate change, is just right - not too hot and not too cold -
bio-diversity, conservation, ecosystem services for liquid water to exist on a planet.
& farmers empowerment to agrarian distress, Looking for planets in the Goldilocks Zone
rural bio-entrepreneurship, policy issues. is a way that allows scientists to hone in
their search for Earth-like planets that could

O
The Indian Science Congress Association (ISCA)
contain life. Basically, the assumption is that
owes its origin to the foresight and initiative
of two British Chemists, namely, Professor J. L. if it’s possible there may be liquid water on
Simonsen and Professor P.S. MacMahon. the planet, and then it’s also possible that the
planet may be habitable.
SC
The first meeting of the Congress was held
from January 15-17, 1914 at the premises of The location of a Goldilocks Zone around
the Asiatic Society, Calcutta. another star depends on the type of star.
Bigger hotter stars have their Goldilocks Zones
The Association was formed with the following further out, while smaller cooler stars such as
objectives: M-type red dwarf stars have habitable zones
To advance and promote the cause of much closer in.
science in India Just because a planet or moon is in the
GS
To hold an annual congress at a suitable Goldilocks Zone of a star, doesn’t mean it’s
place in India going to have life or even liquid water.
To publish such proceedings, journals, After all, Earth isn’t the only planet in the
transactions and other publications as may Sun’s Goldilocks Zone - Venus and Mars
be considered desirable are also in this habitable zone, but aren’t
currently habitable.
To secure and manage funds and
endowments for the promotion of Science
including the rights of disposing of or 68. Correct Option: (d)
selling all or any portion of the properties
of the Association Explanation:
To do and perform any or all other acts, All statements are correct
matters and things as are conductive to, or Supplementary notes:
incidental to, or necessary for, the above
objects Project NETRA
It is an early warning system in space to
67. Correct Option: (a) detect debris and other hazards to Indian
satellites launched by ISRO.
Explanation: Under NETRA, or Network for space object
Statement 2 is incorrect: Just because a Tracking and Analysis, the ISRO plans to put
PTTS2020/CARC/500 240
up many observational facilities: connected Theory of General Relativity.
radars, telescopes; data processing units and
a control centre. They can, among others,
spot, track and catalogue objects as small as 70. Correct Option: (a)
10 cm, up to a range of 3,400 km and equal to Explanation:
a space orbit of around 2,000 km.
Statement 2 is incorrect: In India, the plant
The project, when in place, will give India is cultivated in Himachal Pradesh, Punjab,
its own capability in space situational Haryana, Uttar Pradesh and North Eastern
awareness (SSA) like the other space Regions.
powers — which is used to ‘predict’ threats
from debris to Indian satellites. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Aroma Mission
was launched by Council of Scientific and
Our SSA will first be for low-earth orbits or Industrial Research (CSIR).
LEO which have remote-sensing spacecraft
with an eventual goal to capture the GEO, Supplementary notes:
or geostationary orbit, scene at 36,000 km
where communication satellites operate.
New Technology to Boost Production of
Geranium
The NETRA effort would make India a part of
international efforts towards tracking, warning Scientists from Council of Scientific and
Industrial Research – Central Institute
RE
about and mitigating space debris.
of Medicinal and Aromatic Plants (CSIR-
CIMAP), Lucknow have developed a new
69. Correct Option: (c) low-cost technology to prepare Geranium
saplings and make this available for the
Explanation: farmers too.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Gravitational waves Till now the plant of Geranium was saved
are distortions or ripples; in the fabric of space- in aerated glass house, but now with the
energetic processes in the Universe.

O
time caused by some of the most violent and development of the protective shed technology
of the polyhouse, it is prepared at a much
cheaper cost on the farmer’s farm itself.
Till now the plant was prepared from the
SC
Gravitational waves are distortions or ripples
in the fabric of space-time caused by some of saplings of Geranium, but these used to be
the most violent and energetic processes in ruined in the rainy season. This made the plant
the Universe. material very expensive to the farmer.
When the two supermassive black holes in The production of Geranium has got boost
each of these systems finally come together under the Aroma mission.
in millions of years, their encounters produces Geranium plant is originally from South
strong gravitational waves. Africa and is predominantly used in
GS
Gravitational waves produced by the collision manufacturing essential oils.

of two stellar-mass black holes have already It acts as an anti-inflammatory and antiseptic
been detected by the Laser Interferometer agent. It also has several medicinal values.
Gravitational-Wave Observatory (LIGO).
In India, the plant is cultivated in Himachal
The LIGO project operates three gravitational- Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh
wave (GW) detectors. Two are at Hanford in and North Eastern Regions.
the State of Washington, north-western USA,
and one is at Livingston in Louisiana, south- Aroma and Phyto-Pharmaceutical Mission
eastern USA. The CSIR Aroma Mission is envisaged to
LIGO India is a planned advanced gravitational- bring transformative change in the aroma
wave observatory to be located in India as part sector through desired interventions in the
of the worldwide network. It is an international areas of agriculture, processing and product
collaboration between the LIGO Laboratory development for fuelling the growth of
and three lead institutions in the LIGO-India aroma industry and rural employment.
consortium: Institute of Plasma Research, The mission will promote the cultivation of
Gandhinagar; IUCAA, Pune; and Raja Ramanna aromatic crops for essential oils that are in
Centre for Advanced Technology, Indore. great demand by aroma industry. It is expected
Gravitational waves were first predicted in to enable Indian farmers and aroma industry
1916 by Albert Einstein on the basis of his to become global leaders in the production
and export of some other essential oils on the
241 PTTS2020/CARC/500
pattern of menthol mint. This is expected to months.
provide substantial benefits to the farmers in
A maser (microwave amplification by stimulated
achieving higher profits, utilization of waste
emission of radiation) is the microwave (radio
lands and protection of their crops from wild
frequency) equivalent of a laser.
and grazing animals.
Masers are observed using radio telescopes
Under the Aroma Mission various economically
and most of them are observed at centimetre
important aromatic crops including mint,
wavelength. They are very compact.
vetiver, lemon grass, palmarosa, ocimum,
patchouli, lavender, rosemary, tagetes, Jammu A maser flare can be a sign of an extraordinary
monarda and valerian will be taken up. event such as the formation of a star.
Similarly, Phyto-Pharmaceutical Mission
will target several economically important 72. Correct Option: (b)
medicinal plants including kalmegh,
ashwagandha, satavar, senna, silybum, Explanation:
curcuma and swertia, he said. Option is correct
Dhanush
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Explanation:
Dhanush is the first indigenously built 155
Option is correct: Maser Monitoring mm x 45 calibre long-range artillery gun
Organization (M2O) is a joint global effort of with strike range of 38 kilometers.
astronomers from around the world to observe
accretion burst events. Accretion burst event is The indigenization to the extent of 81 per cent
incredibly rare. Till now, only three such events of the artillery guns has already been achieved.
have been observed, out of all the billions of By the end of 2019, indigenization will go up
to 91 per cent.
massive stars in the Milky Way.
O
Supplementary notes: The guns are now inducted in the Indian Army
and is said to increase the Fire Power of the
Maser Monitoring Organisation (M2O) Indian Artillery manifold.
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Accretion burst event is incredibly rare. Till now, The weight of the gun is less than 13 tons,
only three such events have been observed, making it easy to mobilize in hilly terrain and
out of all the billions of massive stars in the remote areas.
Milky Way.
It is a versatile weapon that can operate in all
After the first detection of an accretion burst, in climatic conditions.
2016, astronomers from around the world
The gun is equipped with inertial navigation-
agreed in 2017 to coordinate their efforts to
based sighting system, auto-laying facility, on-
observe more.
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board ballistic computation and an advanced

Reported bursts have to be validated and day-night direct firing system. The self-
followed up with more observations, and propulsion unit allows the gun to negotiate
this takes a joint, global effort – which led and deploy itself in the field.
to the formation of the Maser Monitoring
Organisation (M2O).
In January 2019, astronomers at Ibaraki
University in Japan noticed that one such Explanation:
massive protostar, G358-MM1, showed signs Statement 1 is incorrect: It observed the
of new activity. universe in infrared light.
The masers associated with the object
brightened significantly over a short period of
time. Spitzer Space Telescope
Follow-up observations with the Australian NASA has decommissioned the Spitzer Space
Long Baseline Array revealed something Telescope, one of its greatest observatories,
astronomers are witnessing for the first time – which has studied the universe by detecting
a blast of heat-wave coming from the source cosmic infrared radiation for more than 16
and travelling through the surroundings of the years.
forming big star.
The Spitzer Space Telescope is the final
Blasts can last for about two weeks to a few mission in NASA’s Great Observatories
PTTS2020/CARC/500 242
Program - a family of four space-based Coronaviruses are a class of viruses so named
observatories, each observing the Universe because their electron microscope image
in a different kind of light. The other resembles the corona of the sun.
missions in the program include the visible-
Coronaviruses are zoonotic, meaning
light Hubble Space Telescope (HST), Compton
they are transmitted between animals
Gamma-Ray Observatory (CGRO), and the
and people. Common signs of infection
Chandra X-Ray Observatory (CXO).
include respiratory symptoms, fever, and
Spitzer is designed to detect infrared cough, shortness of breath and breathing
radiation, which is primarily heat radiation. It difficulties. In more severe cases, infection can
is comprised of two major components: cause pneumonia, severe acute respiratory
syndrome, kidney failure and even death.
The Cryogenic Telescope Assembly, which
contains the a 85 centimeter telescope and The new or “novel” coronavirus, now called
Spitzer’s three scientific instruments 2019-nCoV, had not previously detected
before the outbreak was reported in Wuhan,
The Spacecraft, which controls the
China in December 2019.
telescope, provides power to the
instruments, handles the scientific data 2019-nCoV is from the same family of
and communicates with Earth viruses as Severe Acute Respiratory
Syndrome (SARS-CoV) but it is not the
The telescope revealed a new ring around the
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same virus.
planet Saturn. In 2017, the telescope also
revealed the presence of seven Earth-size As with other respiratory illnesses, infection
rocky planets around the TRAPPIST-1 star. with 2019-nCoV can cause mild symptoms
TRAPPIST-1 is a planetary system, located 12 including a runny nose, sore throat, cough,
parsecs away from the Solar system (39 light and fever. It can be more severe for some
years), and is 12 times less massive than the persons and can lead to pneumonia or
Sun and only slightly larger than the planet
O breathing difficulties. More rarely, the disease
Jupiter. There are at least seven planets can be fatal. Older people, and people with
orbiting the star. pre-existing medical conditions (such as,
diabetes and heart disease) appear to be
In 2016, NASA made a decision to close the
more vulnerable to becoming severely ill with
Spitzer mission in 2018 in anticipation of the
the virus.
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launch of the James Webb Space Telescope
(JWST). As the launch of the JWST got The 2019-nCoV causes respiratory disease and
postponed, the Spitzer mission was granted can be transmitted from person to person,
its fifth and final extension, which ended on usually after close contact with an infected
January 30th 2020. patient
The animal source of the 2019-nCoV has not
74. Correct Option: (a) yet been identified.
The nCoV seems to be more easily
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Explanation:
transmissible than SARS but is less
Statement 2 is incorrect: 2019-nCoV is from dangerous as the mortality rate of SARS
the same family of viruses as Severe Acute was much higher (in 2003).
Respiratory Syndrome (SARS-CoV) but it is not
the same virus. The nCoV virus can be transmitted from
one person to the other, even before the
Statement 4 is incorrect: Unlike SARS, symptoms had become evident in the
asymptomatic transmission of nCoV has been first person. Such transmissions are called
reported. asymptomatic.
Coronavirus 75. Correct Option: (c)
Coronaviruses (CoV) are a large family of Explanation:
viruses that cause illness ranging from the Statement 1 is incorrect: Neglected tropical
common cold to more severe diseases such diseases (NTDs) are a diverse group of
as Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS- communicable diseases that prevail in tropical
CoV) and Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome and subtropical conditions in 149 countries.
(SARS-CoV). A novel coronavirus (nCoV) is
a new strain that has not been previously Statement 2 is incorrect: They can
identified in humans. be caused by a variety of pathogens such as
viruses, bacteria, protozoa, helminths and
243 PTTS2020/CARC/500
parasitic pathogens. attempting for the first time a process to
restore coral reefs using biorock or mineral
Supplementary notes: accretion technology.
Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs) Biorock is the name given to the substance
Neglected tropical diseases (NTDs) are a formed by electro accumulation of minerals
diverse group of communicable diseases that dissolved in seawater on steel structures
prevail in tropical and subtropical conditions that are lowered onto the sea bed and are
in 149 countries. connected to a power source, in this case
solar panels that float on the surface.
They can be caused by a variety of pathogens
such as viruses, bacteria, protozoa, helminths The technology works by passing a small
and parasitic pathogens. amount of electrical current through electrodes
in the water. When a positively charged anode
NTDs are a diverse set of bacterial, viral, and and negatively charged cathode are placed on
parasitic pathogens that collectively cause the sea floor, with an electric current flowing
significant illness and debilitation, primarily in between them, calcium ions combine with
impoverished communities of low and middle- carbonate ions and adhere to the structure
income countries. (cathode). This results in calcium carbonate
The major types of NTDs are as given below: formation. Coral larvae adhere to the CaCO3
and grow quickly.
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Dengue
Fragments of broken corals are tied to the
Rabies biorock structure, where they are able to grow
Trachoma at least four to six times faster than their actual
growth as they need not spend their energy
Buruli ulcer in building their own calcium carbonate
Yaws skeletons.
Leprosy
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Chagas disease
These diseases affect more than one billion Explanation:
people and cost developing economies Option is correct
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billions of dollars every year.
Neglected tropical diseases (NTDs) are called
“neglected,” because they generally afflict the Longest Spaceflight by a Woman
world’s poor and historically have not received Christina Koch, a US astronaut set a record for
as much attention as other diseases. the longest single spaceflight by a woman,
Populations living in poverty, without adequate breaking the old mark of 288 days with about
sanitation and in close contact with infectious two months left in her mission.
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vectors and domestic animals and livestock The US record for longest space flight is 340
are those worst affected. days set by Scott Kelly in 2015-2016.
The first-ever edition of “World Neglected The world record is 15 months set in the 1990s
Tropical Diseases Day” (World NTD Day) is by a Russian cosmonaut aboard the former
launched on 30 January 2020. Mir space station.
This initiative brings together various civil
society organisations, community leaders,
global health experts and policymakers
working in the field of NTDs. Explanation:
Statement 2 is incorrect: IPV consists of a
76. Correct Option: (c) series of injections that start 2 months after
birth and continue until the child is 4 to 6
Explanation: years old. The vaccine is made from inactive
Both statements are correct poliovirus. It is very safe and effective and
cannot cause polio.
Statement 3 is incorrect: OPV is created from
Biorock or Mineral Accretion Technology a weakened form of poliovirus. It is low cost,
The Zoological Survey of India (ZSI), with easy to administer, and gives an excellent level
help from Gujarat’s forest department, is of immunity. However, in very rare cases, OPV
PTTS2020/CARC/500 244
has been known to revert to a dangerous form Statement 2 is incorrect: It is a contagious
of poliovirus, which is able to cause paralysis. viral disease of domestic and wild swine.
Polio Comeback in a Number of Countries Classical Swine Fever
In the last one year or so, polio has made a Classical swine fever (CSF), also known as
comeback in countries such as the Philippines, hog cholera, is a contagious viral disease of
Malaysia, Ghana, Myanmar, China, Cameroon, domestic and wild swine.
Indonesia and Iran, mostly as vaccine-derived
It is caused by a virus of the genus Pestivirus of
polio infection.
the family Flaviviridae, which is closely
Polio, or poliomyelitis, is a disabling and life- related to the viruses that cause bovine viral
threatening disease caused by the poliovirus. diarrhoea in cattle and border disease in
sheep.
The virus spreads from person to person and
can infect a person’s spinal cord; causing Clinical signs: The virus that causes CSF varies
paralysis (can’t move parts of the body). in virulence. Some strains are highly virulent
and cause acute (i.e. rapid) serious disease.
It can spread easily from person to person.
Some strains are of low virulence and cause
The World Health Organiation (WHO) aim chronic (i.e. long-lasting) disease, others are
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is to eradicate polio completely and, if this intermediate causing sub-acute disease.
happens, it will be only the third disease to
There is only one serotype of CSF virus
have been beaten in this way, after smallpox
(CSFV).
and rinderpest.
CSF is a disease listed by the OIE World
Nigeria, Pakistan, and Afghanistan are the
Organisation for Animal Health (OIE) Terrestrial
only three countries in which polio has not
Animal Health Code and must be reported to
successfully been stopped.
the OIE (OIE Terrestrial Animal Health Code).

will not have any visible symptoms.
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Most people who get infected with poliovirus
A smaller proportion of people with poliovirus

infection will develop other, more serious Explanation:
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symptoms that affect the brain and spinal Statement 2 is incorrect: Quantum
cord. entanglement is when two atoms are
Poliovirus is very contagious and spreads connected, or entangled, despite being
through person-to-person contact. separated. While, Quantum superposition is
the theory that sub-atomic particles exist in
It lives in an infected person’s throat and multiple states simultaneously.
intestines.
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There are two vaccines available to fight

polio: National Mission on Quantum Technologies
inactivated poliovirus (IPV) & Applications (NM-QTA)’
oral polio vaccine (OPV) The new mission will oversee the development
of quantum technologies for communications,
IPV consists of a series of injections that start 2 computing, materials development and
months after birth and continue until the child cryptography.
is 4 to 6 years old. The vaccine is made from
inactive poliovirus. It is very safe and effective It will coordinate the work of scientists, industry
and cannot cause polio. leaders and government departments
OPV is created from a weakened form of Implementing authority: The move will be
poliovirus. It is low cost, easy to administer, and implemented by the Department of Science &
gives an excellent level of immunity. However, Technology (DST).
in very rare cases, OPV has been known to Focus area: The areas of focus for the Mission
revert to a dangerous form of poliovirus, will be in fundamental science, translation,
which is able to cause paralysis. technology development, human and
infrastructural resource generation, innovation
and start-ups to address issues concerning
79. Correct Option: (a) national priorities.
Explanation: Quantum Technology:
245 PTTS2020/CARC/500
Quantum technologies are rapidly becomes the biological mother of a child.
developing globally with a huge disruptive
Gestational Surrogacy: In this process,
potential.
surrogate mother’s eggs are not used.
Quantum technology is a class of Eggs and sperms used are either donated
technology that works by using the by intended parents or other persons. The
principles of quantum mechanics (the surrogate mother has no biological link with
physics of sub-atomic particles), including the child.
quantum entanglement and quantum
Commercial Surrogacy: It includes
superposition.
surrogacies in which payment exceeding basic
Quantum entanglement is when two medical expenses and insurance covers are
atoms are connected, or entangled, despite paid.
being separated.
Altruistic Surrogacy: It does not include
Quantum superposition is the theory that payment of any monetary compensation other
sub-atomic particles exist in multiple states than basic medical expenses and insurance
simultaneously. coverage.
It concerns the control and manipulation of
quantum systems, with the goal of achieving 82. Correct Option: (a)
information processing beyond the limits of
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the classical world. Explanation:
Quantum technology is opening up new Statement 2 is incorrect: Madhuban Gajar
frontiers in computing, communications, cyber contains high β-carotene and iron content.
security with wide-spread applications.
It is expected that lots of commercial
applications would emerge from theoretical Bio-fortification
O
constructs which are developing in this area. It is the process of increasing nutritional value
Quantum technology promises improvements of food crops by increasing the density of
to a vast range of everyday gadgets, vitamins and minerals in a crop through either
including: conventional plant breeding; agronomic
practices or biotechnology.
SC
more reliable navigation and timing
systems The bio fortified crop- Madhuban Gajar was
developed by Shri VallabhhaiVasrambhai
more secure communications Marvaniya, a farmer scientist from Junagadh
more accurate healthcare imaging district, Gujarat.
more powerful computing It contains high β-carotene and iron

content.
The next generation transformative
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technologies that will receive a push under It is being planted in an area of over 200
this mission include quantum computers hectares in Junagadh, and the average
and computing, quantum communication, yield, which is 40-50 t/ha, has become
quantum key distribution, encryption, crypt the main source of income to the local
analysis, quantum devices, quantum sensing, farmers.
quantum materials, quantum clock and so on. The variety is being cultivated in more
than 1000 hectares of land in Gujarat,
Maharashtra, Rajasthan, West Bengal, and
81. Correct Option: (a) Uttar Pradesh during the last three years.
Explanation: MadhubanGajar carrot variety possesses
a significantly higher root yield (74.2 t/ha)
Statement 3 is incorrect: Altruistic Surrogacy: and plant biomass (275 gm per plant) as
It does not include payment of any monetary compared to check variety.
compensation other than basic medical
expenses and insurance coverage.
Explanation:
Methods of Surrogacy
Statement 2 is incorrect: It is spread to humans
Traditional Surrogacy: In this process
through bites from female phlebotomine
egg used is of a surrogate mother, thus she
sand flies – the vector(or transmitter) of the
PTTS2020/CARC/500 246
leishmania parasite. weakness for India.
Kala Azar Sundar Pichai, in an editorial, advocated for
AI to be regulated keeping in mind both the
Kala-azar also known as Visceral harm and societal benefits that the technology
leishmaniasis(VL) is caused by the protozoan could bring in. He also said that governments
parasite of genus Leishmania. must be willing to align on regulations around
It is spread to humans through bites from AI for “making global standards work”.
female phlebotominesandflies – the vector(or While India has been vocal about the use of AI
transmitter) of the leishmania parasite. in various sectors, it is far from regulating it.
The signs and symptoms include fever, weight A 2018 NITI Aayog paper proposed five areas
loss, fatigue, anemia and substantial swelling where AI can be useful. This paper noted
of the liver and spleen. the lack of regulation around AI as a major
The disease primarily infects internal organs weakness for India.
such as the liver,spleen (hence “visceral”) and
What is AI?
bone marrow.It has been associated with high
fatality without any proper diagnosis and Artificial Intelligence or AI is an autonomous
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treatment. decision-making system. It is a constellation
of technologies that enable machines to act
The Government of India(GOI) launched
with higher levels of intelligence and emulate
a centrally sponsored Kala-azar Control
the human capabilities of sense, comprehend
Programme in the endemic states in 1990-91.
and act.
Aim was to improve the health status of
AI can be described as, “a system’s ability
vulnerable groups and at-risk population living
to correctly interpret external data, to learn
in Kala-azar endemic areas by the elimination
from such data, and to use those learnings
public health problem.
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of Kala-azar so that it no longer remains a

to achieve specific goals and tasks through
flexible adaptation.”
AI has become an integral part of Information
84. Correct Option: (a) Technology (IT) and this branch mainly focuses
SC
Explanation: on the production of intelligent machines that
derive valuable output from the available data
Statement 2 is incorrect: It has been and react in accordance with it.
developed by DRDO
Quality of data is one of the crucial elements
Statement 3 is incorrect: It is a bomb for the success of AI.
detection device that can spot 20 homemade
explosives from two meters away. The science of AI is based on various disciplines,
which makes it a multidisciplinary field. This is
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Supplementary notes: essentially one reason why AI has a plethora

of applications.
Raider-X
It has been developed by the High Energy
Material Research Laboratory (HEMRL), an arm 86. Correct Option: (a)
of the DRDO in Pune and the Indian Institute Explanation:
of Science in Bangalore.
Only statement 3 is incorrect: Currently,
It is a bomb detection device that can spot 20 the radar is with the Army in LoC in Jammu &
homemade explosives from two meters away. Kashmir to track the source of shelling from
The data library can also be built in the system Pakistani positions.
to expand its capability to detect a number Supplementary notes:
of explosives in pure form as well as with the
contaminants. Swathi Radar
Swathi is a weapon locating radar developed
85. Correct Option: (b) by DRDO’s Electronics & Radar Development
Establishment (LRDE) and manufactured by
Explanation: Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL).
Statement 2 is incorrect: NITI Aayog noted It is designed to detect and track incoming
the lack of regulation around AI as a major artillery and rocket fire to determine the point
247 PTTS2020/CARC/500
of origin for counter-battery fire. inflammation of the cornea, called snow-
blindness, cataract, etc. Such exposure may
It is developed by the Defence Research
permanently damage the cornea.
and Development Organisation (DRDO)
and manufactured by the Bharat Electronics
Limited (BEL). 88. Correct Option: (c)
This would be a big boost for Make in India Explanation:
as the Prime Minister has declared a target of
increasing exports to Rs 35,000 crore in the Option is correct
next five years.
The contract is for four Swathi weapon
locating radars which provide fast, automatic The JOIDES Resolution
and accurate location of enemy weapons like The JOIDES Resolution (Joint Oceanographic
mortars, shells and rockets in a 50 km range. Institutions for Deep Earth Sampling), oten
It can simultaneously detect multiple projectiles known as JR is a research vessel that drills
like shells, mortars fired from various locations into the ocean floor to collect and study core
within a 50-km radius. samples. Scientists use data from the JR to
better understand climate change, geology and
The Indian Army is also using the same radars Earth’s history. It is a part of the International
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for its operations along the Line of Control Ocean Discovery Program and is funded by
in Jammu and Kashmir where this system is the National Science Foundation.
used to trace the source of attack by Pakistani
positions. The JR is currently transiting to port for
maintenance. The next expedition will start on
The system was handed to the Indian Army on April 26, 2020.
a trial basis in 2018.
The JR is used by the International Ocean
Discovery Program (IODP), an international,
O multi-drilling platform research program
Explanation: Gurumurthy G.P., a Post-doctoral Research

Fellow at the Manipal Centre for Natural
Option is the correct Sciences (MCNS), Manipal University, has
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Supplementary notes: become the first participant from the university
and the first from any private university in the
Snow blindness, also called arc eye or country to participate in the prestigious deep
photokeratitis, is a painful eye condition sea International Ocean Discovery Programme
caused by overexposure to ultraviolet (UV) (IODP).
light.
Gurumurthy was among the 30 scientists from
When too much UV light hits the transparent 26 countries to sail in Joides Resolution, a
outer layer of your eyes, called the cornea, it
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deep sea drilling research vessel.

essentially gives your cornea a sunburn.
About the deep sea International Ocean
Snow blindness symptoms can be Discovery Programme (IODP):
disorienting
The International Ocean Discovery Program
UV rays are of three types based on (IODP) is an international research collaboration
wavelength: that coordinates seagoing expeditions to study
UV-A the history of the Earth recorded in sediments
and rocks beneath the ocean floor.
UV-B
IODP is dedicated to advance scientific
UV-C understanding of Earth by sampling,
UV radiation of wavelengths shorter instrumenting and monitoring sub-seafloor
than UV-B is almost completely absorbed by environments.
Earth’s atmosphere, given that the ozone layer The Earth deep below the seafloor contains
is intact. a unique record of our planet’s history and
But, UV-B damages DNA and mutation may structure. Scientists study the subseafloor
occur. It causes ageing of the skin, damage to to better understand Earth’s components,
skin cells and various types of skin cancers. processes, and phenomena. This research
helps answer questions about fundamental
In the human eye, cornea absorbs UV-B aspects of our planet such as the past global
radiation, and a high dose of UV-B causes environment, the deep biosphere, plate
PTTS2020/CARC/500 248
tectonics, and deep fluid flow. always standardised or institutionalized.
The most common election ink used worldwide
89. Correct Option: (a) was invented by Filiberto Vázquez Davila, a
Mexican biochemical engineer.
Explanation:
Application:
Option is correct: Researchers developed
pesticide alternative to protect plants form Indelible ink is used as an effective security
viral infection. The programme first triggers feature to prevent double voting in
plants’ cells to multiply the virus, which creates elections or the case may be (like Indian
viral ribonucleic acid molecules (RNAs). Using government has structure to use this ink
special enzyme scissors, the plants then detect for curbing the corruption and double
these molecules and cut them — a process entry in demonetization).
which produces ‘small interfering RNAs’ Ink is normally applied to the left hand
(siRNAs). index finger, especially to the cuticle where
it is almost impossible to remove quickly.
Ink may be applied in a variety of
Small interfering RNAs’ (siRNAs) ways, depending on circumstance and
preference.
A novel approach to vaccinate plants
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against viruses can be used as an alternative Composition:
to toxic pesticides that is harmful both to This ink typically stays on skin for
insects and the environment. 72–96 hours, lasting 2 to 4 weeks on
During a virus attack, plants initiate a two- the fingernail and cuticle area.
stage molecular defense programme which The election ink used in India puts a
protects them “both at the site of the infection permanent mark on the cuticle area which
and throughout its structure. O disappears only with the growth of new
The programme first triggers plants’ cells nail.
to multiply the virus, which creates viral It can take up to 4 months for the stain
ribonucleic acid molecules (RNAs). Using to be replaced completely by new nail
special enzyme scissors, the plants then detect growth.
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these molecules and cut them — a process
which produces ‘small interfering RNAs’ Electoral stain typically contains a pigment
(siRNAs). for instant recognition; a silver nitrate which
stains the skin on exposure to ultraviolet
The siRNAs spreads throughout the plant and light, leaving a mark that is impossible to
attach them to a protein called Argonaute. The wash off and is only removed as external
siRNAs then leads the protein to RNAs viruses skin cells are replaced.
to kill them.
Industry standard electoral inks contain
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After six weeks, 90 per cent of the vaccinated 10%, 14% or 18% silver nitrate solution,
plants did not show any signs of infection, depending on the length of time the mark
but all the untreated plants were killed by the is required to be visible. Although normally
virus water-based, electoral stains occasionally
contain a solvent such as alcohol to allow
90. Correct Option: (c) for faster drying, especially when used
with dipping bottles, which may also
Explanation: contain a biocide to ensure bacteria aren’t
transferred from voter to voter.
Option is the correct
Electoral Ink or Indelible Ink
Explanation:
Electoral ink, indelible ink, electoral
stain or phosphoric ink is a semi- Both statements are correct
permanent ink or dye that is Supplementary notes:
applied to the forefinger (usually)
of voters during elections in order to Optoelectronics
prevent electoral fraud such as double voting. Recently researchers at IIT Madras developed
It is an effective method for countries where material with properties suitable for
identification documents for citizens are not quantum optoelectronics (the study and
249 PTTS2020/CARC/500
application of electronic devices that Supplementary notes:
source, detect and control light)
MANAV Human Atlas
Materials such as tungsten diselenide (WSe2)
and molybdenum diselenide are being studied The project aims to create an open and
keenly for their opto-electronic properties – a interactive atlas of human biology, compiling,
combination of optics and electronics. curating and synthesizing data at the molecular,
cellular, tissue and organismic level from
A key property of these materials is scientific literature and public databases.
photoluminescence, in which the material
absorbs light and re-emits it as a spectrum. For the first time, Indian scientists will be
mapping every single tissue of the human
Researchers from IIT Madras have found a way body to have a deeper understanding of the
of enhancing this property about 30 times in roles of tissues and cells linked to various
tungsten diselenide, by drop-casting gold diseases.
nanoparticles on to a two-dimensional film.
With the twin objective of creating a curated
When an electron in a semi-conductor jumps research database on human biology and
from the valence to the conduction band, it introducing young Indian brains to the world
leaves behind a shadow called a “hole.” The of biological sciences, the project will be
electron in the conduction band and the hole funded by Department of Biotechnology.
in the valence band can bind together and
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form a composite object (or pseudo-particle) This one-of-a-kind mega-project aims to
known as an exciton. Photoluminescence in create a unified human atlas by mapping
tungsten selenide is a result of such excitons. the molecular details of every cell, tissue and
organ in the human body by curating all the
There can be two ways in which an exciton available information present in scientific
can form – when the spins of the component literature and public databases.
electron and hole are opposite to each other
and when they are aligned in the same It will be executed by two of India’s major
O
direction. The former is called a bright exciton research Institutes, Indian Institute of Science
and the latter, a dark exciton. Education and Research (IISER), Pune, and
National Center for Cell Sciences (NCCS),
When they dropped gold nanoparticles on the Pune.
surface of the monolayer tungsten diselenide,
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they find that the dark excitons couple to the It has been proposed that via a citizen-science
surface fields generated and recombine to approach, around 3 – 5 lakh students enrolled
give off light quanta. Thus, the dark excitons in various biological courses in India can be
are “brightened” with the help of the gold made a part of achieving this goal.
nanoparticles. While undergraduate and post-graduate
Optoelectronics finds application in various students can be trained to extract and collate
fields like: information at the organ, tissue, cellular and
molecular level from published literature for
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Solar Cells/Photovoltaic Cells, which is the making the human atlas, young researchers
direct conversion of light into electricity. and senior scientists can keep a check on the
Laser Diodes- using stimulated emission are quality of collated data.
applied in compact disc (CD) players, laser The project aims to capture the human
printers, remote-control devices, and intrusion physiology in two stages – in a normal stage
detection systems. and in a disease stage.
Light Emitting Diodes- using
electroluminescence emits light when current 93. Correct Option: (c)
flows through it.
Explanation:
Optical Fiber- where data is transmitted in
the form of light particles or photons that Both statements are correct
pulse through a fiber optic cable
Akula Class Submarines
The Akula Class Submarine uses a nuclear
Explanation: reactor for propulsion, allowing it to remain
Statement 2 is incorrect: It is funded by the underwater for an extended period of time
Department of Biotechnology. which makes its detection impossible.
This class of Submarine can be used for
PTTS2020/CARC/500 250
multiple tasks like hunting enemy submarines, energy technology co-operation.
intelligence surveillance etc.
Benefits 95. Correct Option: (a)
It will help India in training Arihant and Explanation:
Arihant-class cruise on SSN submarines.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Golden Rice is the
It can be deployed at important focal points first purposefully created bio-fortified food to
in Indian Ocean and thus India will be able address Vitamin-A deficiency.
to enjoy strategic dynamic of the region.
Also, the submarine will have a deterrent Statement 3 is incorrect: IRRI is an
impact. independent, nonprofit, research and
educational institute.
Induction of this SSN will make India an Indian
Ocean Power with full spectrum of operational Supplementary notes:
capabilities.
Golden Rice
The submarine will act as a supreme board for
The International Rice Research Institute
India’s indigenous SSN development program
(IRRI) and its national research partners
as it will provide clues on submarine designs,
have developed Golden Rice to complement
nuclear submarine operation and maintenance
existing interventions to address Vitamin A
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etc.
deficiency (VAD).
It is also the symbol of deep Indo-Russia
Golden Rice regulatory applications are
relations as no two other countries in the
currently under review in the Philippines and
world have exchanged any nuclear element in
Bangladesh, and Golden Rice will only be
defence armament yet.
made available to the public once all necessary
permits have been received.
Explanation:
Statements 1 is incorrect:
O
The
Golden Rice is a new type of rice that contains
beta-carotene (pro-vitamin A), which is
converted into vitamin A as needed by the
body and gives the grain its golden color. It
International Energy Agency (IEA)is a Paris- is developed through genetic engineering and
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based autonomous intergovernmental produces two new enzymes that complete the
organization established in the framework beta-carotene expression in the rice grain.
of the Organisation for Economic Co-
operation and Development (OECD) in 1974 It can be grown just like ordinary rice and
in the wake of the 1973 oil crisis. varieties containing the GR2E Golden Rice
trait have the same yield and agronomic
Supplementary notes: performance as their conventional
counterparts.
International Energy Agency (IEA)
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Golden Rice is the first purposefully created

The International Energy Agency (IEA) is a Paris- bio-fortified food.
based autonomous intergovernmental
organization established in the framework Biofortification is the process of improving
of the Organisation for Economic Co- the nutritional quality of food crops.
operation and Development (OECD) in 1974 This can be achieved through agronomic
in the wake of the 1973 oil crisis. practices, conventional breeding or
more advanced biotechnology tools
The IEA was initially dedicated to responding such as genetic engineering and genome
to physical disruptions in the supply of oil, as editing. These advanced techniques are
well as serving as an information source on used for biofortification when micronutrient
statistics about the international oil market and content cannot be significantly increased
other energy sectors. through conventional practices.
The Agency’s mandate has broadened
International Rice Research Institute (IRRI)
to focus on the “3Es” of effectual energy
policy: energy security, economic development, The International Rice Research Institute
and environmental protection. The latter has (IRRI) is the world’s premier research
focused on mitigating climate change. organization dedicated to reduce poverty
and hunger through rice science; improving
The IEA has a broad role in promoting alternate
the health and welfare of rice farmers and
energysources (including renewable energy),
consumers; and protecting the rice-growing
rational energy policies, and multinational
environment for future generations.
251 PTTS2020/CARC/500
IRRI is an independent, nonprofit, research This significant move has the potential to boost
and educational institute, founded in 1960 the availability of more affordable transport
by the Ford and Rockefeller foundations with fuels, better use of agricultural residue, cattle
support from the Philippine government. dung and municipal solid waste, as well as
to provide an additional revenue source to
The institute, headquartered in Los Baños,
farmers.
Philippines, has offices in 17 rice-growing
countries in Asia and Africa, and more than Titled SATAT, the initiative is aimed at providing
1,000 staff. a Sustainable Alternative Towards Affordable
Transportation (SATAT) as a developmental
effort that would benefit both vehicle-users as
96. Correct Option: (c) well as farmers and entrepreneurs.
Explanation:
Both statements are correct 97. Correct Option: (c)
Bio-gas Both statements are correct
Biogas is produced naturally through a process Supplementary notes:

of anaerobic decomposition from waste / bio-
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Gravitational Lensing
mass sources like agriculture residue, cattle
dung, sugarcane press mud, municipal solid Gravitational Lensing is a natural
waste, sewage treatment plant waste, etc. phenomenon that magnifies light around
galaxies.
After purification, it is compressed and called
Compressed Bio Gas, which has pure methane The phenomenon occurs when a huge amount
content of over 95%. Compressed Bio- of matter, such as a massive galaxy or cluster
Gas is exactly similar to the commercially of galaxies, creates a gravitational field that
O
available natural gas in its composition and distorts and magnifies the light from objects
energy potential. behind it, but in the same line of sight.
With calorific value (~52,000 KJ/kg) and other This makes dim, faraway objects that otherwise
properties similar to CNG, Compressed Bio- would be undetectable, like an individual star,
SC
Gas can be used as an alternative, renewable visible. The effect allows researchers to study
automotive fuel. Given the abundance of the details of early galaxies too far away to be
biomass in the country, Compressed Bio-Gas seen otherwise with even the most powerful
has the potential to replace CNG in automotive, space telescopes.
industrial and commercial uses in the coming
Gravitational lensing is based on Einstein’s
years.
theory of general relativity (Mass bend
There are multiple benefits from converting light).
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agricultural residue, cattle dung and municipal

Using NASA’s James Webb Space Telescope
solid waste into CBG on a commercial scale:
as a sort of time machine, researchers plan
Responsible waste management, reduction in to investigate how new stars are born.
carbon emissions and pollution For this, they will take the help of a natural
phenomenon called “gravitational lensing”.
The additional revenue source for farmers
The programme is called Targeting Extremely
Boost to entrepreneurship, rural economy and Magnified Panchromatic Lensed Arcs and Their
employment Extended Star Formation, or TEMPLATES.
Support to national commitments in achieving
climate change goals 98. Correct Option: (c)
Reduction in import of natural gas and crude Explanation:
oil
Statement 1 is incorrect: This model has
Buffer against crude oil/gas price fluctuations been adopted in over 50 countries so far.
SATAT Initiative Statement 2 is incorrect: This program has
Recently SATAT Initiative has been launched been launched by Microsoft.
to set up Compressed Bio-Gas (CBG) Supplementary notes:
production plants and make available CBG in
the market for use in automotive fuels. K-12 Education Transformation Framework
PTTS2020/CARC/500 252
Microsoft has launched its ‘K-12 Education During the first recognized outbreak in
Transformation Framework’ to facilitate Malaysia, which also affected Singapore, most
comprehensive digital transformation of human infections resulted from direct contact
schools in India, a model which has been with sick pigs or their contaminated tissues.
adopted in over 50 countries so far. Transmission is thought to have occurred via
unprotected exposure to secretions from the
The framework comprises four pillars --
pigs or unprotected contact with the tissue of
leadership and policy, modern teaching
a sick animal.
and learning, intelligent environments and
technology blueprint. In subsequent outbreaks in Bangladesh and
India, consumption of fruits or fruit products
To help school principals initiate their journey
(such as raw date palm juice) contaminated
of digital transformation, the programme will
with urine or saliva from infected fruit bats
offer a series of workshops based on each of
was the most likely source of infection.
these pillars. Education leaders in more than 50
countries have already adopted the framework During the later outbreaks in Bangladesh and
to help plan their learning strategies. India, Nipah virus spread directly from human-
to-human through close contact with people’s
The framework is aimed at providing education
secretions and excretions.
leadership, government decision-makers,
teachers and most importantly learners, tools Fruit bats of the family Pteropodidae
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to achieve the ambitious change many schools – particularly species belonging to the
seek, and to thoughtfully integrate technology Pteropus genus – are the natural hosts for
in powerful and productive ways. Nipah virus. There is no apparent disease in
fruit bats. It is assumed that the geographic
distribution of Henipaviruses overlaps with
99. Correct Option: (d) that of Pteropus category.
Explanation: O Currently, there are no vaccines available
Statement 1 is incorrect: It is a zoonotic against Nipah virus.
virus but human-to-human transmission is In May 2018, a Nipah virus disease outbreak
also possible. was reported from Kozhikode district of
Statement 2 is incorrect: It was first Kerala, India
SC
recognized in 1999 during an outbreak
among pig farmers in Malaysia. 100. Correct Option: (a)
Statement 3 is incorrect: Fruit bats of the
Explanation:
family Pteropodidae – particularly species
belonging to the Pteropus genus – are the Statement 2 is incorrect: It is not the
natural hosts for Nipah virus. first mission to collect a sample from an
asteroid and bring it to Earth. In June 2010
Supplementary notes: the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency
GS
Nipah Virus (JAXA) Hayabusa probe returned asteroid

samples to Earth.
Nipah virus is a zoonotic virus (it is
transmitted from animals to humans) Supplementary notes:
and can also be transmitted through
OSIRIS-REx
contaminated food or directly between
people. OSIRIS-REx is the third major planetary
science mission for NASA’s New Frontiers
In infected people, it causes a range of illnesses
Program (after New Horizons launched in
from asymptomatic (subclinical) infection to
2006 and Juno launched in 2011).
acute respiratory illness and fatal encephalitis.
The virus can also cause severe disease in OSIRIS-REx is an acronym for “Origins, Spectral
animals such as pigs, resulting in significant Interpretation, Resource Identification,
economic losses for farmers. Security-Regolith Explorer.” The goal of the
mission is to collect a sample weighing 2.1
Nipah virus was first recognized in 1999
ounces (59.5 grams) from near-Earth asteroid
during an outbreak among pig farmers in
101955 Bennu (formerly known as 1999 RQ36)
Malaysia. It was also recognized in Bangladesh
and then to bring the sample to Earth.
in 2001, and nearly annual outbreaks have
occurred in that country since. The disease The mission, developed by scientists at the
has also been identified periodically in eastern University of Arizona, will give scientists more
India. information about how the early solar system
253 PTTS2020/CARC/500
formed and about how life began. It will also OSIRIS-REx won’t land on Bennu to gather
help us better understand asteroids that could the sample, but it will get very close. After
impact Earth in the future. descending toward the surface, the spacecraft’s
OSIRIS-REx will be the first U.S. mission robotic arm, the TAGSAM instrument, will
to collect a sample from an asteroid and actually make contact with the asteroid.
bring it to Earth however it is not the TAGSAM will release a burst of nitrogen gas
first mission to ever visit an asteroid and
to kick up regolith particles (loose dust and
attempt a sample return — In June 2010
the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency rocks) from the surface. The sampler head
(JAXA) Hayabusa probe returned asteroid at the end of the robotic arm will collect the
samples to Earth. regolith.

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O
SC
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PTTS2020/CARC/500 254
GENERAL STUDIES
CURRENT AFFAIRS
MISCELLANEOUS
255 PTTS2020/CARC/500
1. The central government has recently Select the correct answer using the code given
reconstituted the Cabinet Committees. In below:
this regard consider the following statements A B C D
regarding Cabinet Committees: (a) 1 2 3 4
1. They are constitutional bodies set up by the (b) 2 3 1 4
Prime Minister according to the exigencies of
(c) 1 3 2 4
the time and requirements of the situation.
(d) 3 4 1 2
2. Cabinet Committee on Investment and Growth
is a newly constituted committee to identify and
implement key projects involving investments 4. The Directorate of Enforcement is responsible
of Rs 1,000 crore or more.
for the enforcement of which of the following
Acts?
3. Prime Minister presides over all the Cabinet
1. Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
Committees.
2. Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 3. Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999
1 only 4. Black Money (Undisclosed Foreign Income
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(a)
and Assets) and Imposition of Tax Act, 2015
(b) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the codes given
(c) 1 and 3 only below:
(d) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
2. With reference to E-2020 initiative, seen
in news recently, consider the following
O (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
statements: (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
1. It is a World Health Organization (WHO)

5. Consider the following Statements regarding
SC
supported initiative to eliminate malaria in 21
Open Acreage Licensing Policy (OALP):
countries by 2022.
1. It gives an option to a company looking
2. India is not a part of E-2020 initiative. for exploring hydrocarbons to select the
exploration blocks on its own, without
waiting for the formal bid round from the
(a) 1 only Government.
2 only 2. Setting up of National Data Repository is one

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(b)
of the milestones achieved for Open Acreage
(c) Both 1 and 2 Licensing Policy.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) only
3. Match the following: (b) only
Reports/Indices Organizations (c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2
A. Female work and
labour force participa- 1. NITI Aayog
tion in India Report
Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana:
B. SDG Gender Index 2. UNDP 1. It has been launched by the Government of
India in its Budget 2019.
C. Healthy States Pro- 3. Equal Meas- 2. It is an area-based development approach of
gressive India Report ures 2030 predominantly dalit villages.
D. World Population 4. United Na- 3. It aimed to achieve integrated development
Prospect Report tions of selected villages with more than 25% SC
population.
PTTS2020/CARC/500 256
Which of the above statements are incorrect? Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
(a) and 2 only correct?
(b) and 3 only (a) 1 only

(c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2
7. With which of the following companies/ (d) Neither 1 nor 2
organizations, The Ministry of Electronics and
Information Technology (MeitY) has signed
a statement of intent to roll-out ‘Build for 11. Consider the following statements regarding
Digital India’ program? Kamini Roy
1. Roy is the fi rst woman to have graduated
(a) Facebook
with honors in the history of India.
(b) Microsoft 2. She published her fi rst book of poetry, “Alo O
(c) Google Chhaya” in 1889.
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(d) Powerhouse Cooper Which of the statement(s) given above is/ are
correct?
8. Consider the following statements about Pre- (a) 1 only

natal diagnosis tests: (b) 2 only
1. Dual Marker and Triple Marker Tests look (c) Both 1 and 2
at the level of certain hormones which are
‘markers’ associated with Down’s Syndrome. Neither 1 nor 2
2. The use of Amniocentesis for sex
O
determination is prohibited by law but its
use for determination of disability in foetus
(d)
12. Extinction Rebellion, recently seen in news is,

(a) An international movement that uses
is allowed.
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nonviolent civil disobedience in an attempt
Which of the above statements is/are correct? to halt mass extinction.
(a) 1 only (b) An international movement started with the

cooperation from UNDP to reduce worldwide
(b) 2 only corruption.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) A global movement to end abuses of human
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 rights.
GS
(d) A global movement started by World

9. September 21 revolution is related to which Economic Forum for poverty alleviation.
of the following countries?
(a) Yemen 13. The tropic of Capricorn passes through which
of the following countries?
(b) Oman
1. 1. Chile
(c) Saudi Arabia 2. 2. Brazil
(d) Iran 3. 3. South Africa
4. 4. Paraguay
5. 5. New Zealand
mass extinctions
1. The Cretaceous-Paleogene extinction event is
below.
the most recent mass extinction and the only
one definitively connected to a major asteroid (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
impact.
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
2. Permian-Triassic is the only one mass
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
extinction that wiped out large numbers of
insect species. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
257 PTTS2020/CARC/500
14. Which of the following factors are responsible Which of the statements given above is/ are
for skyrocketing onion prices in India? correct?
1. Traders are illegally hoarding onions and (a) 1 only
release the supply when prices increase.
(b) 2 only
2. Erratic monsoons influence the onion
production. (c) Both 1 and 2
3. Export of onions lead to decreased domestic (d) Neither 1 nor 2
supply.
Choose the correct answer using the code given 18. India has several indigenous water harvesting
below: methods in different parts of the country.
(a) 1 and 2 only ‘Khadins’ water harvesting method is used in
(b) 1 and 3 only (a) Rajasthan
(c) 2, and 3 only (b) Maharashtra
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Bihar
(d) Uttar Pradesh
15. Which of the following are anti-drone
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technology/technologies?
19. Consider the below statements in regard to
1. Drone Gun
recently launched Advanced air Quality early
2. Advanced Test High Energy Asset (ATHENA) warning system for Delhi
3. Rafale UAV 1. The system was launched by Ministry of Earth
(a) Sky wall 100 sciences (MoES).
O
Choose the correct answer using the code given 2. The early warning system measures stubble
below: burning, vehicular and industrial pollution
based on satellite data.
(b) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statement(s) given above is/ are
(c) 1 and 4 only
SC
correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 4
(a) 1 only
(e) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2 only
16. Consider the following statements: (c) Both 1 and 2

1. Guru Nanak was born in Talwandi and founded (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the Dera Baba Nanak in Kartarpur.
GS
2. In 1706, Guru Gobind Singh authenticated 20. Consider the following statements
the fi nal compilation Guru Granth Sahib.
1. Comprehensive national nutrition survey is
3. Guru Nanak emphasized the worship of one conducted by Ministry of women and child
God.
development (MoWCD) in partnership with
Which of the statements given above is/are UNICEF.
correct?
2. POSHAN Abhiyan(Nutrition mission) is
(a) 1 only implemented by MoWCD.
(b) 2 only Which of the statement(s) given above is/ are
(c) 1 and 2 only correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only
17. Consider the following statements about (c) Both 1 and 2
Chalukyas:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. The Chalukya dynasty was established by
Pulakeshin I in 543 AD.
2. Chalukyan architecture is the fusion of 21. Basel convention recently adopted a ‘BASEl
northern “Nagara” style and southern ban amendment’. Basel ban amendment is
“Dravida” style. related to which of the following:
PTTS2020/CARC/500 258
(a) Ban of transfer of missile technologies. 25. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
(b) Ban on movement of biological weapons.
incorrect about Electoral Bond Scheme?
1. 1. Names of donors are kept confidential.
(c) Ban on banking activities of terror-funding
organization. 2. 2. It is only to boost finances of parties with
less than 1% of vote in lok Sabha elections.
(d) Ban on movement of hazardous waste.
3. 3. Electoral bond is a type of Treasury bill.
22. To promote use of electric vehicles in India, 4. 4. Banks give 2% interest on these bonds.
government recently announced FAME II Choose the correct answer using the code given
scheme. In reference to FAME II scheme below:
consider the following statements (a) 1 only
1. 1. FAME II scheme will incentivize the electric
(b) 2 only
vehicles in commercial vehicles, for public
transport and two wheelers. (c) 1 and 2 only
2. 2. Department of heavy industries is the nodal (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
agency for monitoring and implementation
of the scheme.
26. The Nobel Prize in Chemistry for 2019 was
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Which of the statement(s) given above is/are awarded for work on lithiumion batteries.
correct? Which of the following statements are correct
(a) 1 only about lithiumion batteries?
(b) 2 only (a) 1. They are made from lead-acid and are
used to start gasoline and diesel-powered
(c) Both 1 and 2 O vehicles.
(d) None of the above (b) 2. Lithium extraction causes environmental
damage.
23. India slipped to rank 68th in Global (c) 3. Lithium-ion batteries are lightweight and
competiveness index (GCI). GCI is published require little maintenance.
SC
annually by
(d) 4. Lithium-ion technology can help create a
(a) World trade organization. fossil fuel-free society.
(b) International monetary fund. Choose the correct answer using the code given
below:
(c) United Nations Conference on Trade and
Development. (e) 1 and 2 only
World economic forum 2 and 3 only
GS
(d) (f)
(g) 1 and 3 only
24. In the context of recently approved new
(h) 2, 3 and 4 only
strategic disinvestment processes by
government, which of the following are
consequences of it on the economy? 27. Consider the following statements regarding
Diabetes in India
1. Increase in fiscal deficit.
1. 1. Among the population aged 20 years, the
2. Crowd-out private investment.
prevalence is more in urban areas as compared
3. Increase in privatization. to rural areas.
4. Increase in government expenditure on 2. 2. Diabetic disease can also lead to ocular
infrastructure and social programmes. morbidity (blindness).
Choose the correct answer using the code given Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
below: correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
259 PTTS2020/CARC/500
28. Consider the following statements regarding 3. 3. Mamallapuram is an important town of the
Kanyashree Scheme erstwhile Pallava dynasty.
1. 1. It has received United Nations Public Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
Service award. correct?
2. 2. It is a Conditional Cash transfer scheme (a) 2 only
which contributes towards empowerment of
girls in the state of West Bengal. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. 3. All girl children within the age of 6 to 20 (c) 1 and 2 only

in the state of West Bengal are targeted (d) 1, 2 and 3
beneficiaries.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are 32. Consider the following statements:
correct?
1. 1. India’s fi rst e-waste clinic would be set up
(a) 1 only in Lucknow.
(b) 2 only 2. 2. The clinic is being conceived in compliance
(c) 1 and 2 only with the Solid Waste Management Rules,
2016.
(d) 2 and 3 only
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incorrect?
29. Which of the following statement regarding
Emperor Penguins is/are incorrect? (a) 1 only
1. 1. It is one of the Antarctica’s most iconic (b) 2 only

species. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. 2. It is endangered as per IUCN.
Neither 1 nor 2
O
Choose the correct answer using the code given
(d)
below: 33. Consider the following statements regarding

(a) 1 only the Pneumoconiosis Fund:
SC
(b) 2 only 1. 1. Madhya Pradesh has announced the
creation of Pneumoconiosis Fund.
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. 2. It would be fi nanced by money from the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 District Mineral Foundation (DMF).
3. 3. The Fund will be operating under Social
30. Consider the following statements regarding Justice and Empowerment Department.
Mahatma Gandhi National Fellowship
Programme: Which of the statement(s) given above is/ are
GS
correct?
1. 1. It is a two-year fellowship programme to
boost skill development at the National level. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. 2. It is designed under Skills Acquisition (b) 2 and 3 only
and Knowledge Awareness for Livelihood (c) 1 and 3 only
Promotion (SANKALP).
(d) 1, 2 and 3
correct?
34. Consider the following statements about C40
(a) 1 only
cities
(b) 2 only 1. 1. C40 is a network of the world’s megacities
(c) Both 1 and 2 committed to addressing climate change.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. 2. C40 is supported by the UK Government and
is responsible for developing and delivering a
comprehensive industrial strategy.
31. Consider the following statements about the
recent India-China Informal Summit 2019 Which of the statement(s) given above is/ are
correct?
1. 1. The two nations have agreed on a joint
project in Afghanistan. (a) 1 only
2. 2. The summit was held in Mamallapuram. (b) 2 only
PTTS2020/CARC/500 260
(c) Both 1 and 2 38. Which one of the following institutions
does not come under the Ministry of
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Personnel?
(a) Central Information Commission
Regional Comprehensive Economic (b) Union Public Service Commission
Partnership (RCEP) (c) Central Vigilance Commission
1. It is a proposed mega-regional Free Trade (d) Competition Commission of India
Agreement (FTA)
2. When realized it will become the largest trade 39. “Securitypedia”, an online security related
bloc in terms of population encyclopaedia, has been launched by which
3. The RCEP negotiations were launched at the one of the following security forces?
Phnom Penh summit between the leaders of (a) Central Industrial Security Force (CISF)
ASEAN and its six partners.
(b) Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)
correct? (c) Indian Armed Force (IAF)
1 only (d) None of These
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(a)
(b) 1 and 2 only
40. With reference to Human Genome Project,
(c) 3 only consider the following statements:
(d) 1,2 and 3 1. It was a publicly funded project initiated in
1990 to complete mapping and understanding
of all the genes of all the species.
36. Consider the following statements regarding O 2. India had been the active participant of the
“K2-18b”
project.
1. It is a potentially ‘habitable’ planet
2. It is the only planet orbiting a star outside the correct?
Solar System that is known to have both water
SC
(a) 1 only
and temperatures that can support life.
3. It is eight times the mass of Jupiter. (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
correct? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
41. Arrange the following countries from west to
1 and 2 only
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(b) east:
(c) 3 only 1. Gambia
(d) 1, 2 and 3 2. Nigeria
3. Liberia
37. Tiangong-2, which was recently in news, is 4. Benin
related to which of the following?
Select the correct answer using the codes given
(a) A device which uses a powerful magnetic below:
field to confine hot plasma in the shape of
(a) 3-1-4-2
a torus.
(b) 3-1-2-4
(b) A manned Chinese space station which was
destroyed due to its re-entry into the Earth’s (c) 1-4-3-2
atmosphere. (d) 1-3-4-2
(c) A blood testing device can predict if a
pregnant woman is at risk of giving birth 42. Which one of the following statements about
prematurely. 3D Printed Pill, which was in news recently is
(d) An Energy-efficient toilet that can operate
correct?
without a sewer system and treat waste on (a) It is an antibiotic developed to target
the spot. Multidrug Resistant Bacteria.
261 PTTS2020/CARC/500
(b) It is a newly developed vaccine to prevent and rural youth.
zika virus disease. 2. It aims to attain Sweet Revolution in India.
(c) It is developed to assess gut bacteria 3. It was launched by Khadi and Village Industries
throughout the gastrointestinal (GI) tract. Commission (KVIC).
(d) It is a newly developed contraceptive pill. Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
SATAT initiative: (b) 2 and 3 only
1. It aims to tap the potential of biomass (c) 1 and 3 only
resources to provide alternate affordable
transportation. (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. It was launched by Ministry of Road Transport
and Highways. 47. Which one of the following Union Ministries
has launched ‘Indian Cyber Crime Coordination
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Centre (I4C)’ scheme?
(a) 1 only (a) Ministry of Defence
(b) 2 only
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Both 1 and 2
Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
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(c)
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Ministry of External Affairs

48. “Artemis mission” is been launched by?
(Famous Valley) (State) (a) Canadian Space Agency
(b) Roscosmos
1. Neelum Valley Jammu and Kashmir
O (c) JAXA
2. Spiti Valley Himachal Pradesh (d) NASA
3. Valley of flowers Arunachal Pradesh
49. “Chinese paddlefish” was recently in news;
SC
Which of the pairs given above are correctly consider the following statements regarding
matched? it
(a) 1 and 2 only 1. It has been declared extinct recently
(b) 2 and 3 only 2. Its ancestral home was the Yangtze River.
(c) 1 and 3 only Which of the following statement is/are correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 only
2 only
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(b)
45. Consider the following statements regarding (c) Both 1 and 2
International Court of Justice (ICJ):
1. Its mandate is to settle the criminal offences (d) Neither 1 nor 2
related to genocide, crimes against humanity,
war crimes, and crimes of aggression. 50. ‘Blue Flag Tag’ was in news recently. Which
2. For contentious cases, its judgment is binding of the following statements are correct about
on the disputed parties without any appeal. Blue Flag Tag?
3. No Indian has served as the permanent judge 1. Blue Flag Tag is an eco-label awarded by
of ICJ till now. Norway-based non-profit organization.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 2. Blue Flag Tag can be obtained by a beach,
marina, and also a sustainable boating
(a) 1 and 2 only tourism operator.
(b) 2 only 3. Mahabalipuram beach in Tamil Nadu is Blue
(c) 2 and 3 only Flag certified.
(d) 1 and 3 only Choose the correct answer:
(a) 1 only
46. Consider the following statements regarding (b) 2 only
Honey Bee Mission:
(c) 2 and 3 only
1. It aims to encourage scientific beekeeping
practice for enhancing the income of farmers (d) 1, 2 and 3\
PTTS2020/CARC/500 262
GENERAL STUDIES
CURRENT AFFAIRS
MISCELLANEOUS
Answer Key
Q. 1 (b) Q. 11 (c) Q. 21 (d) Q. 31 (d) Q. 41 (d)
Q. 2 (c) Q. 12 (a) Q. 22 (d) Q. 32 (a) Q. 42 (d)
Q. 3 (b) Q. 13 (d) Q. 23 (d) Q. 33 (b) Q. 43 (a)
Q. 4 (b) Q. 14 (d) Q. 24 (c) Q. 34 (c) Q. 44 (a)
Q. 5 (c) Q. 15 (c) Q. 25 (d) Q. 35 (d) Q. 45 (b)
Q. 6 (c) Q. 16 (d) Q. 26 (d) Q. 36 (b) Q. 46 (d)
Q. 7 (c) Q. 17 (c) Q. 27 (d) Q. 37 (b) Q. 47 (b)
Q. 8 (a) Q. 18 (a) Q. 28 (c) Q. 38 (d) Q. 48 (d)
Q. 9 (a) Q. 19 (a) Q. 29 (b) Q. 39 (a) Q. 49 (c)
Q. 10 (c) Q. 20 (b) Q. 30 (b) Q. 40 (d) Q. 50 (c)
263 PTTS2020/CARC/500
1. Correct Option: (b) It is supposed to provide “direction to
all policies, programmes, schemes and
Explanation initiatives for skill development aimed
Statement 1 is incorrect: Cabinet Committees at increasing the employability of the
are extra-constitutional bodies. workforce for effectively meeting the
emerging requirements of the rapidly
Statement 3 is incorrect: Except for the growing economy and mapping the
Committee on Accommodation and benefits of demographic dividend”.
Committee on Parliamentary Affairs,
Prime Minister presides over all other cabinet It is required to enhance workforce
committees. participation, foster employment growth
and identification, and work towards the
Supplementary notes: removal of gaps between requirement and
Cabinet Committees availability of skills in various sectors.
They are extra-constitutional bodies, which The panel will set targets for expeditious
are established under the India Transaction of implementation of all skill development
Business Rules, 1961. initiatives by the ministries and to
periodically review the progress in this
They are set up by the Prime Minister regard.
according to the exigencies of the time
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and requirements of the situation. Hence, Except for the Committee on
their number, nomenclature, and composition Accommodation and Committee on
varies from time to time. Parliamentary Affairs, all other cabinet
committees are headed by Prime Minister.
Reconstitution of Cabinet Committees
The Central Government has reconstituted
six Cabinet Committees while two Cabinet 2. Correct Option: (c)
Committees have been newly constituted.
O Explanation:
The committees that have been reconstituted
are:
Appointments Committee of the Cabinet Supplementary notes:
SC
Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs E-2020 Initiative
Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary In May 2015, the World Health Assembly

endorsed a new Global Technical Strategy
Affairs
for Malaria 2016-2030, setting ambitious
Cabinet Committee on Political goals aimed at dramatically lowering the
Affairs global malaria burden over this 15-year
period, with milestones along the way to
Cabinet Committee on Security track progress.
GS
Cabinet Committee on According to a WHO analysis published in 2016,

Accommodation 21 countries have the potential to eliminate
malaria by 2020. They were selected based
The new committees include:
on an analysis that looked at the likelihood of
Cabinet Committee on Investment and elimination across 3 key criteria:
Growth
Trends in malaria case incidence between
It will “identify key projects required 2000 and 2014
to be implemented on a time-bound
basis”, involving investments of Rs 1,000 crore Declared malaria objectives of affected
or more, or any other critical projects, as may countries
be specified by it, with regard to infrastructure Informed opinions of WHO experts in the
and manufacturing. field
It will prescribe time limits for giving requisite Together, these 21 malaria-eliminating
approvals and clearances by the ministries countries are part of a concerted effort known
concerned in identified sectors. as the E-2020 initiative, supported by WHO
It will also monitor the progress of such and other partners, to eliminate malaria in an
projects. ambitious but technically feasible time frame.
Cabinet Committee on Employment and Skill India is not among the 21 countries that are
Development part of E-2020 initiative.
PTTS2020/CARC/500 264
3. Correct Option: (b) The report has been developed by NITI Aayog,
with technical assistance from the World Bank,
Explanation: and in consultation with the Ministry of Health
Option is correctly matched: and Family Welfare (MoHFW).
World Population Prospect Report
Reports/Indices Organizations
The World Population Prospects report 2019
A. Female work and la- is published by the Population Division of
bour force participation 1. NITI Aayog the UN Department of Economic and Social
in India Report Affairs.
B. SDG Gender Index 2. UNDP According to it, the world’s population is
expected to increase by two billion people in
C. Healthy States Pro- 3. Equal Measures the next 30 years, from 7.7 billion currently to
gressive India Report 2030 9.7 billion in 2050.
D. World Population The new report highlighted that more than

4. United Nations half of the projected increase in the global
Prospect Report
population up to 2050 will be concentrated in
just nine countries, led by India and followed
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Supplementary notes: by Nigeria, Pakistan, Democratic Republic
of the Congo, Ethiopia, Tanzania, Indonesia,
Female work and labour force participation in Egypt and the US.
India Report
Recently UNDP, in association with IKEA 4. Correct Option: (b)
Foundation has brought out a report titled
“Female work and labour force participation Explanation:

in India”.
O
The focus of this report has been to understand
the continuing problem of low female labour
Statement 1 and 4 are incorrect: Enforcement
Directorate is responsible for the administration
of Prevention of Money Laundering Act,
force participation in India despite massive 2002 and Foreign Exchange Management
SC
investments in employment and skill-building Act, 1999 only.
initiatives.
SDG Gender Index
Enforcement Directorate
India is ranked 95th out of a total of 129
countries in the first-ever SDG Gender Index, It is economic intelligence and law
which measures strides made in achieving enforcement agency responsible for enforcing
gender commitments against internationally economic laws and fighting economic crime
GS
set targets. in India.

The index has been developed by Equal It functions under aegis of Department of
Measures 2030, which is a partnership Revenue, Union Ministry of Finance.
among global and regional organisations
Its prime objective is enforcement of two key
from the civil society and the development
Acts of Government of India namely:
and private sectors. It includes The African
Women’s Development and Communication Foreign Exchange Management Act 1999
Network, Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation, (FEMA) and
International Women’s Health Coalition and
Prevention of Money Laundering Act 2002
Plan International.
(PMLA)
Healthy States, Progressive India Report To check money laundering by curb black
NITI Aayog releases a comprehensive money and hawala trade cases.
Health Index report titled, “Healthy States,
It is composed of officers from the Indian
Progressive India”.
Revenue Service, Indian Police Service and the
The report ranks states and Union territories Indian Administrative Service.
innovatively on their year-on-year incremental
It was established in 1956 as ‘Enforcement
change in health outcomes, as well as, their
Unit’ in Department of Economic Affairs.
overall performance with respect to each
other. It is headquartered in New Delhi.
265 PTTS2020/CARC/500
5. Correct Option: (c) Statement 3 is incorrect: It aimed to achieve
integrated development of selected villages
Explanation: with more than 50% SC population.
Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana
The Union government has identified
Open Acreage Licensing Policy (OALP) gives 26,968 Dalit-majority villages for focused
an option to a company looking for exploring implementation of various government
hydrocarbons to select the exploration blocks schemes over the next five years.
on its own, without waiting for the formal bid
round from the Government. All existing Central and state welfare schemes
that are necessary to meet critical gaps in
Under Open Acreage Licensing Policy (OALP),
socio-economic and infrastructure needs, and
a bidder intending to explore hydrocarbons
like oil and gas, coal bed methane, gas hydrate reduce disparities will be implemented in Dalit
etc., may apply to the Government seeking villages.
exploration of any new block (not already These villages — where over 50 per cent of
covered by exploration). the total population are Dalits and those
The Government will examine the Expression with a sizeable overall population — have
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of Interest and justification. If it is suitable for been zeroed in under the Pradhan Mantri
award, Govt. will call for competitive bids after Adarsh Gram Yojana for “integrated
obtaining necessary environmental and other development”.
clearances.
While the scheme is mainly about ensuring
OALP was introduced vide a Cabinet decision focused implementation and convergence
of the Government as part of the new fiscal of existing Central and state government
regime in exploration sector called HELP or schemes, the ministry provides Rs 21 lakh
O
Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing Policy, per village as gap funding.
so as to enable a faster survey and coverage
of the available geographical area which has According to the 2011 Census, Dalits make
potential for oil and gas discovery. up 16.6 per cent of the country’s total
population, with states such as Punjab,
SC
What distinguishes OALP from New Exploration
and Licensing Policy (NELP) is that under OALP, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh,
oil and gas acreages will be available round West Bengal, and the Union Territory of
the year instead of cyclic bidding rounds as in Delhi recording more than 20 per cent Dalit
NELP. Potential investors need not have to wait population.
for the bidding rounds to claim acreages.
Setting up of National Data Repository is one 7. Correct Option: (c)
of the milestones achieved for Open Acreage
GS
Licensing Policy. To make India a favorable Explanation

destination globally for Exploration of Crude
Oil and Natural Gas, the Government plans to Option is correct: The Ministry of Electronics
move to the OALP regime soon. and Information Technology (MeitY)
and Google have signed a statement of
It is well acknowledged that there is a need for intent to roll-out ‘Build for Digital India’
a faster vehicle of awarding blocks in order to programme.
bring more area under exploration.
As India has vast unexplored sedimentary Supplementary notes:
basins, a strategy which facilitates a time Build for Digital India Program
bound full coverage has become a necessity.
Moreover, even the OALP pre-supposes The Ministry of Electronics and Information
offering of data to the interested companies Technology (MeitY) and Google have signed a
for them to submit their bids/ interest. Hence, statement of intent to roll-out ‘Build for Digital
availability of data is no longer an option, but India’ programme.
a pre-condition.
About:
The programme will give engineering students
a platform to develop technology-based
Explanation: solutions to address key social problems.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The scheme was As part of the programme, engineering
first launched on a pilot basis in 2009-10 students across the country will be invited to
PTTS2020/CARC/500 266
apply and join in a learning journey that will It was a gradual armed takeover by the Houthis
help them transform their bright ideas into and supporters of former Yemeni President
real-world solutions. Ali Abdullah Saleh that pushed the Yemeni
government from power.
Applicants will take part in online and offline
learning opportunities on key technologies
such as machine learning, cloud and android. 10. Correct option: (c)
These will be offered through Google’s
Explanation:
Developer Student Club network and other
Google Developer networks. Both statements are correct:
Google will also offer mentorship sessions in Supplementary notes:
product design, strategy and technology to
the most promising products and prototypes. Mass extinction:
Mass extinctions are defined as any substantial
increase in the amount of extinction (lineage
8. Correct Option: (c) termination) suffered by more than one
Explanation geographically wide-spread higher taxon during a
relatively short interval of geologic time, resulting
Both statements are correct in an at least temporary decline in their standing
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Supplementary notes: diversity.
There are five mass extinctions that are happened
Various Prenatal Diagnosis Tests
during geological history of the Earth.
Dual Marker and Triple Marker Tests: These
Ordovician-Silurian extinction 485 to 444
tests look at the level of certain hormones
million years ago.
which are ‘markers’ associated with Down’s
Syndrome. Late Devonian extinction - 383-359 million

O
Ultrasound Tests: They are used extensively,
four-five times in the pregnancy. Here we look
for markers for certain abnormalities. In the

years ago.
Permian-Triassic extinction - 252 million years
ago.
case of Down’s Syndrome, for example, certain
SC
Triassic-Jurassic extinction - 201 million years
physical characteristics suggest that the foetus
ago.
has this condition. With an ultrasound at 18-
19 weeks we can pick up lots of information Cretaceous-Paleogene extinction - 66 million
on structural problems. years ago.
Invasive Tests: These test the amniotic Permian-Triassic extinction - 252 million years
fluid, chorionic villus tissue or foetal blood. ago:
Sometimes we even do a skin biopsy of the
Of the five mass extinctions, the Permian-
GS
baby. The other tests will give you a probable

diagnosis – each one has its own proportion Triassic is the only one that wiped out
of false positives and false negatives. But when large numbers of insect species. Marine
we test the tissue, we are actually looking at ecosystems took four to eight million years to
the genes, chromosomes, DNA, and this gives recover.
us a confirmatory result for certain genetic The extinction’s single biggest cause is the
diseases. Amniocentesis is an example of Siberian Traps, an immense volcanic complex
invasive test. that erupted more than 720,000 cubic miles of
lava across what is now Siberia. The eruption
triggered the release of at least 14.5 trillion
9. Correct Option: (a) tons of carbon.
Explanation: Magma from the Siberian Traps infiltrated coal
Option is correct: The Houthi takeover basins on its way toward the surface, probably
in Yemen, is known as the September 21 releasing even more greenhouse gases such
Revolution. as methane.
Supplementary notes: In the million years after the event, seawater

and soil temperatures rose between 25 to 34
September 21 Revolution degrees Fahrenheit.
The Houthi takeover in Yemen, is known as As temperatures rose, rocks on land weathered
the September 21 Revolution more rapidly, hastened by acid rain that
267 PTTS2020/CARC/500
formed from volcanic sulfur. Just as in the late In 1921, she was one of the leaders of “Bangiya
Devonian, increased weathering would have Nari Samaj”, an organisation which fought for
brought on anoxia that suffocated the oceans. women’s suffrage.
Climate models suggest that at the time, the
oceans lost an estimated 76 percent of their
oxygen inventory. These models also suggest 12. Correct Option: (a)
that the warming and oxygen loss account for
Explanation:
most of the extinction’s species losses.
Option is correct.
Cretaceous-Paleogene extinction - 66 million
years ago: Supplementary notes:
The Cretaceous-Paleogene extinction event About Extinction Rebellion:
is the most recent mass extinction and the
only one definitively connected to a major Extinction Rebellion is an international
asteroid impact. movement that uses non-violent civil
disobedience in an attempt to halt mass
Some 76 percent of all species on the planet, extinction and minimise the risk of social
including all nonavian dinosaurs, went collapse.
extinct.
It is a movement made up of people from
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About 66 million years ago, an asteroid roughly all walks of life. It started in response to the
7.5 miles across slammed into the waters off IPCC report that we only have 12 years to
of Mexico’s Yucatán Peninsula at 45,000 miles stop catastrophic climate change and our
an hour. The massive impact left a crater more understanding that we have entered the 6th
than 120 miles wide flung huge volumes of mass extinction event.
dust, debris, and sulfur into the atmosphere,
bringing on severe global cooling. It started small and was launched in the UK on
October 31st 2018, it has grown very quickly

O
Wildfires ignited any land within 900 miles of
and there are now about 130 Extinction
the impact, and a huge tsunami rippled outward
Rebellion groups across the UK and across the
from the impact. Overnight, the ecosystems
world.
that supported nonavian dinosaurs began to
collapse. The majority of people who work for Extinction
SC

Rebellion are volunteers; a small percentage is
Global warming fueled by volcanic eruptions at
receiving living expenses.
the Deccan Flats in India may have aggravated
the event. Some scientists even argue that Decisions are made based on a model of
some of the Deccan Flats eruptions could have organising called a “self-organising system”
been triggered by the impact. in which people do what they can accord the
skills and time they can offer.
GS

Correct Option: (c) 13. Correct Option: (d)
Both statements are correct Option is correct
About Kamini Roy: The following map shows the countries through
which tropic of Capricorn passes.
Born in 1864, Kamini Roy was a social worker
and a feminist.
Roy is the first woman to have graduated
with honors in the history of India. Explanation:
At a time when a woman’s role was restricted All statements are correct
to taking care of household chores, Roy
graduated with a degree in Sanskrit from Supplementary Notes
Bethune College, Kolkata.
Onion price has been shooting in the
After her graduation she joined Bethune as wholesale and retail markets and the central
a teacher and published “Alo o Chhaya” in government has taken many efforts to control
1889. the increasing price.
PTTS2020/CARC/500 268
With elections nearing in Maharashtra and The cultivation area under rabi crop has
Haryana, the government cannot upset onion decreased in Maharashtra. So, it reported
growers in rural areas (part of the voter base) a low cultivation in the rabi season of 2018-
and urban consumers who have to shell out 19.
more money for the bulb.
Karnataka received heavy rain during
Since May 2019, prices in wholesale markets kharif crop’s harvest period, which
across the onion-growing districts of delayed the arrival of kharif onions from
Maharashtra have been increasing. Karnataka.
The ripple effect can be seen in the retail So, the stored rabi crop should have to be
markets where the price of onion has also supplied to the markets.
increased.
As the imported onions may not arrive
According to Price Monitoring Cell (PMC) of soon, the price of the bulb is expected
the Consumer Affairs department, the retail to stay high.
price of onion has increased by Rs 20-25/
kilo across the country in the last six months Steps Taken by Government to control Onion
(as of September 2019). Prices
Maharashtra, Karnataka, Gujarat, Madhya In early September 2019, the state-
Pradesh, Rajasthan, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh run Minerals and Metals Trading Corporation
RE
and West Bengal account for almost 90% of of India (MMTC) had floated contracts
onion production in the country. for importing onions from Pakistan, Egypt,
Maharashtra contributes nearly one third of China, Afghanistan, etc.Following sharp
the country’s production. criticism, MMTC dropped Pakistan from the
list of countries.
Farmers across the country take three crops
of onions which ensure uninterrupted supply The Centre also tried to restrict exports by
across the year. Of these, sharply hiking the Minimum Export Price

O
Kharif and late kharif are not amenable
for storage (has higher moisture content)
(MEP).
In June 2019, the government ended the 10%
export subsidy for onion.
Rabi crop can be stored for a long period.
SC
Anticipating a shortage, the central
Farmers usually store their produce in moisture-
proof and dust-proof structures to prevent the government had created a buffer stock of
bulbs from sprouting green shoots. 57,000 tonnes, of which some have already
been offloaded.
Depending on the price, farmers release their
produce, enabling steady supply for retail
markets. 15. Correct Option: (c)
Why the price is rising? Explanation:
GS
Hoarding: Hoarding of perishable items is Statement 3 is incorrect: Rafale UAV is not

illegal; however, many traders have hoarded an anti-drone technology.
onions and are now selling at much inflated
prices than before. Therefore, traders and not Supplementary Notes:
farmers are benefited when onion prices hike.
Various Anti-Drone Technologies
Low Onion Consumption: The price
Drone Gun: A drone gun is capable
rise comes during months when onion
consumption usually goes down. It goes with of jamming the radio, global positioning
the law of demand and supply. For example, system (GPS) and mobile signal between
it happens during the nine days of Navratri in the drone and the pilot and forces the drone
Maharashtra and the month of Shravan. to ground in good time before it could wreak
any damage
Delayed Monsoon leads to supply-side
constraints: The current increase in onion Sky Fence: It uses a range of signal disruptors
prices is a fall out of 2018’s drought and to jam the flight path and prevent them from
the delayed monsoon in 2019. Some entering their target, a sensitive installation or
onion-growing areas have reported excessive event venue.
rain and delay in harvest period by a week or ATHENA: It is an acronym for Advanced Test
so.
High Energy Asset, is another weapon under
A combination of factors has led to the analysis as it works by firing a high energy
increase in prices now. laser beam on a rogue drone resulting in
269 PTTS2020/CARC/500
its complete destruction in the air. However, By the seventeenth century, Guru Gobind Singh
this is a very costly technology and is being organised the Khalsa Movement, and the
currently tested by the US army. community of Sikhs became a political
organisation called the Khalsa Panth.
Drone Catcher: It swiftly approaches an
enemy drone and grabs it by throwing a Guru Nanak’s Teachings:
net around. Such a tool is required when a
Guru Nanak emphasised the worship of one
rogue drone is needed to be captured safely
God and insisted that caste, creed, and gender
to extract incriminating evidence from it.
were irrelevant to attainding salvation.
Skywall 100: It is the ground version of the According to him, pursuit of an active
‘drone catcher’ and it works by bringing life would liberate humans, and he also used
down an UAV using a parachute that is hurled the terms nam, dan, and isnan to mean right
through a net from 100 meters distance. worship, welfare, and purity of conduct.
His ideas today are called nam-japna, kirt-
16. Correct Option: (d) karna, and vand-chhakna, which mean right
belief and worship, honest living, and helping
Explanation: others.
All statements are correct Thus, Guru Nanak’s idea of equality had social
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Supplementary Notes: and political implications.
Guru Nanak was born in Talwandi but

he travelled for years before he 17. Correct Option: (c)
founded the Dera Baba Nanak in Kartarpur.
Explanation:
Irrespective of their creed or caste,
Both statements are correct:
his followers ate together in a common
O
kitchen known as langar. And the sacred Supplementary Notes:
place/temple he created for worship and
The discovery was made by explorer Manjunath
meditation was called dharmasal (now known
Sullolli who says that the place has graves of
as Gurudwara).
the family members of Chalukyan rulers.
SC
Before he died in 1539,
There are 11 small temple-like structures in
he appointed a follower called Lena (known
Huligemmanakolla that are believed to be the
later as Guru Angad) as his successor.
final resting place of the royal family.
Guru Angad compiled the work of Guru
Chalukyan kings were famous for building
Nanak and added to it his own script known gigantic temples with intricate architecture
as Gurmukhi. in places such as Aihole, Badami, and
The next three Gurus also wrote under Nanak’s Pattadakal in Bagalkot district.
GS
name, and their work was compiled by Guru Built between the sixth and eighth centuries,
Arjan in 1604. these monuments are examples of the best
Works of Shaikh Farid, Sant Kabir, Bhagat of the architecture of that era in entire South
Namdev, and Guru Tegh Bahadur were India.
also added to these compilations. Though the Chalukyan kings built marvelous
Finally, in 1706, Guru Gobind Singh monuments and temples, there are no clear
authenticated the compilation and created details available of the places where they
the Guru Granth Sahib. lived.
Guru Nanak’s followers increased in Neither they have left behind documents nor
the sixteenth century as people from all evidence of their graves; therefore, explorers
castes and occupations joined are still searching for their graves.
the community. Chaulakyas
By the seventeenth century, the town of The Chalukya dynasty was established by
Ramdaspur developed around a Gurudwara PulakeshinIin 543 AD. Pulakeshin I took
called the Harmandar Sahib and became a Vatapi (modern Badami in Bagalkot district,
self-governning society. Karnataka) under his control and made it his
capital.
The Mughal Emperor Jehangir saw them as
a potential threat, and in 1606 PulakeshinI and his descendants are referred
he ordered the execution of Guru Arjan. to as “Chalukyas of Badami”.
PTTS2020/CARC/500 270
PulakeshinII, the most famous ruler, extended A kund is a saucer-shaped catchment area
the Chalukya Empire up to the northern that gently slopes towards the central circular
extents of the Pallavakingdom and halted underground well. Kunds are common in
the southward march ofHarsha, belonging Gujrat.
toPushyabhutidynastyby defeating him on the
banks of the river Narmada.
Architecture
Their style of architecture is called “Chalukyan Explanation:
architecture”, “Karnata Dravida architecture” or the Statement 2 is incorrect: This system does
“Vesara Style” of architecture, which is the fusion not measure other sources of pollution except
between northern “Nagara” style and southern stubble burning.
“Dravida” style.
Badami Cave temples
Air quality early warning system:
Badami cave temples have rock-cut halls
with three basic features: pillared veranda, The system has been developed by Indian
columned hall and a sanctum cut out deep Institute of Tropical Meteorology, Pune, under
into rock. MoES.
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Pattadkal temples The AQEW system uses data of stubble burning
Virupaksha temple incidents from the past 15 years to predict the
date and place of the next burning.
Papanatha temple
This is then correlated with wind speed to
Mallikarjuna temple predict air pollution level for next 72 hours.
Sangameshwara temple O It can also forecast the level of pollutants like
Aihole temples particulate matter (PM) 2.5, PM10, and dust,
coming from sources other than stubble
Lad khan temple burning.
Durga temple • Presently the system monitors and forecasts
SC
• Suryanarayan temple two types of pollutants – PM2.5 and CO (Car-
bon Monoxide).
• Ravana Phadi temple
18. Correct Option: (a) 20. Correct Option: (b)
Option is correct: “Khadins” is the traditional Statement 1 is incorrect: National nutrition
GS

water harvesting method used in parts of survey was conducted by the Ministry of
Rajasthan. Health and Family Welfare in partnership with
United Nations Children Fund (UNICEF) to
Supplementary notes: measure the level of malnutrition in India.
Every region in the country has its own
traditional water harvesting techniques that
reflect the geographical peculiarities and CDSA – Clinical Development Services Agency
cultural uniqueness of the regions. Here is a was selected as the monitoring agency for the
brief account of the unique water conservation aforementioned survey.
systems prevalent in India.
The survey covered more than 1,20,000
Jhalaras , Bawari and Taanka in Rajasthan covering both children and adolescents in rural
Ahar Pynes are traditional floodwater and urban area. The survey was conducted
harvesting systems indigenous to South over a period of two years (2016-2018)
Bihar. It aimed to assess the following
Johads, one of the oldest systems used to Micro nutrient deficiencies
conserve and recharge ground water, are small
earthen check dams that capture and store Sub clinical inflammation
rainwater. They are common in Northern India.
Overweight or obesity
Johads are called as “madakas” in Karnataka
and “pemghara” in Odisha. Cardio – metabolic risks
271 PTTS2020/CARC/500
21. Correct Option: (d) The report “assesses the ability of countries
to provide high levels of prosperity to
Explanation: their citizens”. This in turn depends on
Option is correct. how productively a country uses available
resources.
The report measures twelve pillars of
The Basel Convention on the Control of competitiveness. These are:
Transboundary Movements of Hazardous
Wastes and Their Disposal, usually known as 1. Institutions
the Basel Convention, is an international treaty 2. Appropriate infrastructure
that was designed to reduce the movements
of hazardous waste between nations, and 3. Stable macroeconomic framework
specifically to prevent transfer of hazardous 4. Good health and primary education
waste from developed to less developed
countries (LDCs). 5. Higher education and training
The Ban Amendment prohibits all export 6. Efficient goods markets

of hazardous wastes, including electronic 7. Efficient labor markets
wastes and obsolete ships from 29 wealthiest
countries of the Organization of Economic 8. Developed financial markets
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Cooperation and Development (OECD) to 9. Ability to harness existing technology
non-OECD countries.
10. Market size—both domestic and
international
22. Correct Option: (d) 11. Production of new and different goods
Explanation: using the most sophisticated production
processes
Both statements are correct.
O 12. Innovation
The outlay of Rs. 10,000 crore has been made 24. Correct Option: (c)
for three years till 2022 for FAME 2 scheme.
SC
Explanation:
The government will offer the incentives
for electric buses, three-wheelers and four- Statement 1 is incorrect: It leads to decrease
wheelers to be used for commercial purposes. in fiscal deficit.
Plug-in hybrid vehicles and those with a
Statement 2 is incorrect: It leads to
sizeable lithium-ion battery and electric motor
crowding-in of private investment.
will also be included in the scheme and fiscal
support offered depending on the size of the Supplementary notes:
GS
battery.
The importance of disinvestment by the government
The centre will invest in setting up charging lies in utilization of funds for:
stations, with the active participation of public
sector units and private players. To improve public finances and fund
increasing fiscal deficit.
FAME 2 will offer incentives to manufacturers,
who invest in developing electric vehicles and Financing large-scale infrastructure
its components, including lithium-ion batteries development.
and electric motors. For investing in the economy to encourage
spending and fund growth.
23. Correct Option: (d) For retiring Government debt- since a big
part of Centre’s revenue receipts go towards
Explanation: repaying public debt/interest.
Option is correct: Global competitiveness For expenditure on social programs like
Index (GCI) is published by World economic health and education.
forum.
To encourage wider share of ownership in
Supplementary notes: an enterprise, and reduce monopoly like
enterprises.
The Global Competitiveness Report (GCR)
is a yearly report published by the World To introduce, competition, market discipline
Economic Forum. and efficiency.
PTTS2020/CARC/500 272
To depoliticize non-essential services and No interest will be given by the banks on
move out of non-core businesses, especially these bonds.
ones where private sector has now entered in
Donations will be tax deductible, and the
a significant way.
benefitting political party will get a tax
It also sends a positive single to the exemption for the amount received.
market and can boost economic activity.
They can be bought by a donor with a KYC-
It can expedite privatization of select PSUs. compliant account. Names of the donors are
kept confidential.

Explanation:
Explanation:
Supplementary Notes:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Lithium-ion battery
A bond is a debt security which borrowers
uses petroleum coke layered with lithium ions
issue to raise money from investors, who
and not lead-acid. Lead-acid batteries are still
are willing to lend them a sum for a certain
used to start gasoline- and diesel-powered
amount of time.
vehicles today.
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It can be purchased by an Indian citizen or
a company incorporated or established in Supplementary Notes:
India. About:
Only political parties registered under Section The first rechargeable battery came about in
29A of the Representation of the Peoples 1859. These were made from lead-acid, and
Act, 1951, which have secured no less than are still used to start gasoline- and diesel-
1% votes in the last Lok Sabha elections, are

eligible to receive electoral bonds.
These bonds can be bought from selected
branches of State Bank of India only.
O
powered vehicles today.
Dr. Stanley Whittingham discovered an
extremely energy-rich material, which he used
to create an innovative cathode in a lithium
SC
Political parties are allotted a verified account battery. This battery was made from titanium
by the Election Commission and all the disulphide.
electoral bond transactions are done through
The battery’s anode was partially made from
this account only.
metallic lithium, which has a strong drive to
The electoral bonds are available in release electrons. It resulted in a battery that
denominations from Rs 1,000 to Rs 1 crore. had great potential, just over two volts.
Electoral bonds will be valid for 15 days from The big advantage of this technology was that
GS

the date of purchase. lithium-ion stored about 10 times as much
273 PTTS2020/CARC/500
energy as lead-acid or 5 times as much as Lithium extraction has caused environmental
nickel-cadmium damage to areas around lithium processing
operations.
Lithium-ion batteries were also extremely
lightweight and required little maintenance.
Lithium ion batteries using cobalt oxide can 27. Correct Option: (d)
boost the lithium battery’s potential to four Explanation:
volts.
Both the statements are correct
Benefits and uses of Lithium ion battery:
The advantage of lithium-ion batteries is that
they are not based upon chemical reactions The prevalence in urban areas ranges between
10.9%-14.2% and prevalence in rural India is
that break down the electrodes, but upon
at 3.0-7.8% among population aged 20 years
lithium ions flowing back and forth between
and above with a much higher prevalence
the anode and cathode.
among individuals aged over 50 years.
They are lightweight, rechargeable, powerful
Diabetes and diabetic retinopathyhave been
batteries, now used in everything from mobile emerging as a significant non-communicable
phones to laptops and long-range electric disease leading to ocular morbidity (blindness).
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vehicles. It is estimated that diabetic retinopathy was
Battery technology helps replace carbon- responsible for 1.06% of blindness and 1.16%
emitting sources because it allows power of visual impairment globally in 2015.
companies to store excess solar and wind National Diabetes and Diabetic
power when the sun does not shine nor the Retinopathy Survey report for 2015-19-
wind blow, making possible a fossil fuel-free
society and combating the effects of climate Prevalence of diabetes in India has been
change.
O recorded at 11.8% in the last four years with
almost same percentage of men and women
They are also capable of being miniaturized and suffering from the disease.
used in devices like implanted pacemakers.
The prevalence of diabetes among males was
SC
They can be scaled up to power a car or a 12%, whereas among females it was 11.7%.
home. Highest prevalence of diabetes (13.2%) was
observed in the 70-79 years’ age group.
This battery technology helps replace carbon-
emitting sources because it allows power The prevalence of any form of diabetic
companies to store excess solar and wind retinopathy (DR) in diabetic population aged
power when the sun does not shine nor the up to 50 years was found to be 16.9%.
wind blow, making possible a fossil fuel-free Prevalence of blindness among diabetics was
society and combating the effects of climate
GS
2.1% and visual impairment was 13.7%.

change.
According to WHO, there are estimated 72.96
Mechanics of Lithium ion battery: million cases of diabetes in adult population
of India.
Lithium-ion batteries are powered by flows
of lithium ions crossing from one material to
another. 28. Correct Option: (c)
When the battery is in use, positively-charged
Explanation:
lithium ions pass from an anode to a cathode,
releasing a stream of electrons along the way Statement 3 is incorrect: All girl children
that form an electric current. within the age of 13 to 19 in the state are
targeted beneficiaries.
When the battery is being recharged,
lithium ions flow in the opposite direction, Supplementary notes:
resetting the battery to do it all over again.
Kanyashree is a conditional cash transfer
schemeaiming at improving the status and
Issues: wellbeing of the girl child by incentivising
schooling of teenage girls and delaying
More than half of lithium is gathered
their marriages until the age of 18.
using brine extraction from deep inside the
earth, and the rest is still mined traditionally It received the United Nations Public
from rock. Service Award last year.
PTTS2020/CARC/500 274
It Improve lives and status of the adolescent 30. Correct Option: (b)
girls in State. Provide financial help to girls
from disadvantaged families to pursue higher Explanation:
studies (now it will cover every girl from Statement 1 is incorrect- It is a two-
state). year fellowship programme to boost skill
Prevent child marriage. Improved outcomes in development at the district level.
terms of their health (especially facilitate the
prevention of infant and maternal mortality).
Contribute towards empowerment of girls in Union Ministry of Skill Development and
the state. Bring immeasurable benefits for the Entrepreneurship (MSDE) signed a contract
larger society as a whole. with Indian Institute of Management (IIM)
Bangalore for introducing a two-year fellowship
Components of Scheme Annual Scholarship programme called ‘Mahatma Gandhi National
of Rs. 500: It is for unmarried girls aged 13-18 Fellowship (MGNF) programme’.
years enrolled in classes VIII-XII in government
recognized regular or equivalent open school The step is taken to boost skill development
or equivalent vocational or technical training at the district level. Union Ministry of Skill
course. Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE)
signed a contract with Indian Institute of
One time Grant of Rs. 25,000: It is for girls
Management (IIM) Bangalore for introducing
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turned 18 at time of application, enrolled
a two-year fellowship programme called
in government recognized regular or open
‘Mahatma Gandhi National Fellowship (MGNF)
school and colleges or pursuing vocational or
technical training or sports activity or is inmate programme’. The step is taken to boost skill
of Home registered under JJ Act. development at the district level.
Progress: So far around 50 lakh girls from Objective: MGNF seeks- To address
the state have been benefited by scheme and challenge of non-availability of personnel for
implementation of various programmes at
O
removal of ceiling will help another three lakh
more girls annually. Since its launch, it has
helped to reduce number of school drop out
of girls by nearly 11.5%.

national, state and district levels.
To create a cadre of young individuals and
train them in a blended academic programme
that provides both academic inputs and a
SC
component of field immersion at district
level.
Explanation:
Eligibility of fellows for Programme– Age
Statement 2 is incorrect: It is listed as ‘near group has to be in 21-30 years age-group and
threatened’ in the Red List of International must be citizens of India.
Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
They must have a graduation degree from a
Supplementary notes: recognized university and also proficiency in
GS
official language of state of fieldwork will be

Emperor penguins are the tallest and heaviest
of all living penguin species and are endemic mandatory.
to Antarctica.
The only penguin species that breeds during 31. Correct Option: (d)
the Antarctic winter, emperor penguins trek
50–120 km (31–75 mi) over the ice to breeding Explanation:
colonies which can contain up to several All statements are correct
thousand individuals.
Supplementary Notes-
Recent demands:
The second informal
Experts have demanded that the IUCN status summit (Mamallapuram
of species should be changed to ‘vulnerable’
from ‘near threatened’.
summit) between leaders of India
and China held in Chennai, on 11-12
The experts also advocated that the emperor October 2019.
penguin should be listed by the Antarctic
Treaty as a Specially Protected Species. India has chosen Mamallapuram as a symbol
of India’s ‘soft power’.
The 1959 treaty sets aside Antarctica as a
scientific preserve, establishes freedom of Mamallapuram is an important town of the
scientific investigation, and bans military erstwhile Pallava dynasty that ruled in parts of
activity on the continent. South India from 275 CE to 897 CE.
275 PTTS2020/CARC/500
It is renowned for its architecture, widely Rajasthan is one of the leading mining states
admired across the world. of India, with a distinction of having more
than 33,000 mine leases, the highest in the
Mamallapuram and the Pallava dynasty are
also historically relevant, for the earliest country. Most of these are sandstone mines
recorded security pact between China and and quarries.
India (in the early 8th century) that involved a
Pallava king (Rajasimhan, or Narasimha Varma
II), from whom the Chinese sought help to 34. Correct Option: (c)
counter Tibet. Explanation:
Option is correct.
Explanation: C40 is a network of the world’s megacities
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Bhopal committed to addressing climate
Municipal Corporation (BMC) and the Central change. C40 supports cities to collaborate
Pollution Control Board (CPCB) have signed effectively, share knowledge and drive
a MOU to set up the country’s first e-waste meaningful, measurable and sustainable
clinic in Bhopal. action on climate change.
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Supplementary Notes- Around the world, C40 Cities connects 94 of
The clinic is being conceived in compliance the world’s greatest cities to take bold climate
with the Solid Waste Management Rules, action, leading the way towards a healthier
2016. and more sustainable future.
This would enable segregation, processing C40 is supported by the UK Government

and disposal of waste from both household and is responsible for developing and
and commercial units. delivering a comprehensive industrial

O
Electronic waste will be collected door-to-door
strategy.
or could be deposited directly at the clinic in The chair:
exchange for a fee. Door-to-door collection
The Chair is the elected leader of the
will happen in two ways. Either separate carts
organisation.
SC
for the collection of e-waste will be designed,
or separate bins will be attached to existing The Chairmanship is a rotating position, which
ones meant for solid and wet waste. has been held to date by the following C40
A three-month pilot project, the clinic, if City Mayors:
successful, would be replicated elsewhere in Paris Mayor Anne Hidalgo (2016-present)
the country.
Rio de Janeiro Mayor Eduardo Paes (2013-
2016)
GS
33. Correct Option: (b) New York Mayor Michael R. Bloomberg

Explanation: (2010-2013)
Statement 1 is incorrect: Rajasthan has Toronto Mayor David Miller (2008-2010)
announced the creation of a Pneumoconiosis London Mayor Ken Livingstone (2005-
Fund, which will be majorly financed by 2008)
money from the District Mineral Foundation
(DMF). This Fund will be used to finance a
comprehensive policy on the disease. 35. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
Pneumoconiosis Fund: All the statements are correct
The aim of the policy is to streamline the
strategy to deal with pneumoconiosis.
Supplementary notes
The Fund will be operating under Social Justice Regional Comprehensive Economic
and Empowerment Department. Partnership
It will include pension for patients and their The Regional Comprehensive Economic
families after the patient’s death and their Partnership (RCEP) agreement is being
inclusion in the state’s social security schemes, negotiated among 10 ASEAN members and
which will be over and above the compensation their six trade partners -- Australia, China,
paid. India, Japan, Korea and New Zealand
PTTS2020/CARC/500 276
This would create a free trade pact covering a India wants commitment on free movement
third of the world’s economy. of professionals to RCEP countries, including
China, as domestic information technology
This means a zero-customs duty zone in a firms currently face challenges in entering the
geography that contributes 34% of global neighboring market.
gross domestic product (GDP) and 40% of
world trade. The region is also home to almost Biggest challenge in RCEP negotiations is
half of the world’s population. to seek markets for global majors in such
a way that it doesn’t promote shifting the
Benefits of RCEP Agreement for India manufacturing base.
RCEP is expected to provide market access Present structure of RCEP puts agriculture,
for India’s goods and services exports horticulture, dairy and food processing in a
and encourage greater investments and vulnerable situation, especially from imports
technology into India. from New Zealand and Australia.
It would also facilitate India’s MSMEs to RCEP will open backdoor negotiations and
effectively integrate into the regional value may lead to the country losing out on Trade-
and supply chains. Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights
(TRIPS) agreements. This may result in giving
India is not a member of the Asia-Pacific way to global majors in agriculture seed and
Economic Co-operation (APEC) which is a pharmaceutical manufacturing.
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grouping of twenty-one countries in the
Asia Pacific region with an aim to deepen
and strengthen economic and technological 36. Correct Option: (b)
cooperation amongst APEC member
countries. Explanation:
India enjoys a comparative advantage in areas Statement 3 is incorrect: It is eight times the
mass of Earth and not Jupiter.
such as information and communication O
technology, IT-enabled services, professional Supplementary notes:
services, healthcare, and education services.
K2-18b
In addition to facilitating foreign direct
investment, the RCEP will create opportunities K2-18b an exoplanet that orbits around a
small red dwarf star K2-18, nearly 110 light-
SC
for Indian companies to access new markets.
This is because the structure of manufacturing years away in the constellation Leo.
in many of these countries is becoming K2-18b was first discovered in 2015 by Nasa’s
more and more sophisticated, resulting in a now retired Kepler space telescope.
“servicification” of manufacturing.
It was found orbiting within the red dwarf star’s
RCEP would help India streamline the rules and habitable zone, making it an ideal candidate
regulations of doing trade, which will reduce to have liquid surface water.
trade costs. It will also help achieve its goal of
GS
Having a mass that is eight times greater than

greater economic integration with countries Earth’s, K2-18b is also known as Super-Earth
East and South East of India through better exoplanets with masses between those of
access to a vast regional market ranging from Earth and Neptune.
Japan to Australia. The RCEP can be a stepping
stone to India’s “Act East Policy.” The Kepler satellite mission discovered nearly
two-third of all known exoplanets. While the
Why India is refraining from joining RCEP mission indicated that five to 20 per cent of
these are located in the habitable zone of their
India is concerned over the unfair” market
stars.
access to Indian products and the “protectionist
policies” of China that have created a significant Water vapour has been detected on K2-18b
trade deficit between the two nations. a potentially ‘habitable’ planet by Nasa and
the European space agency’s Hubble Space
Enormous trade deficit with China has climbed Telescope.
to $57.86 billion.
K2-18b could be the only exoplanet known
Various sectors, including dairy, metals, to have both water and temperatures in its
electronics, chemicals, and textiles, have urged atmosphere to sustain liquid water on a rocky
the government to not agree on duty cut in surface
these segments as it won’t be beneficial for
Indian domestic producers. The new finding offers an ‘unprecedented
opportunity’ to gain insight into the
Several challenges in both goods and services composition and climate of habitable-zone
sectors still persist. planets.
277 PTTS2020/CARC/500
K2-18b is not ‘Earth 2.0’ as it is significantly 38. Correct Option: (d)
heavier and has a different atmospheric
Explanation:
composition.
• Option is correct: It comes under Ministry of
This study contributes to our understanding Corporate Affairs.
of habitable worlds beyond our Solar System
and marks a new era in exoplanet research.
Competition Commission of India
What Is an Exoplanet?
It is responsible for enforcing The Competition
All of the planets in our solar system orbit Act, 2002 throughout India and to prevent
around the Sun. Planets that orbit around activities that have an adverse effect on
other stars are called exoplanets. competition in India.
Exoplanets are very hard to see directly CCI is quasi-judicial and statutory
with telescopes. They are hidden by the body established under The Competition Act,
bright glare of the stars they orbit. 2002.
There are many methods of detecting It comes under Ministry of Corporate
exoplanets. Transit photometry and Affairs.
Doppler spectroscopy have found the
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most, but these methods suffer from Composition - CCI earlier consisted of a
a clear observational bias favoring the Chairperson and 6 Members appointed by the
detection of planets near the star; thus, Central Government. Government has now
85% of the exoplanets detected are inside approved reduction of members from 6 to 3.
the tidal locking zone.
Objectives
One way to search for exoplanets is to look
The duty of the Commission is to eliminate
for “wobbly” stars. A star that has planets
O
doesn’t orbit perfectly around its center.
practices having adverse effect on competition,
From far away, this off-center orbit makes promote and sustain competition, protect the
the star look like its wobbling. interests of consumers and ensure freedom of
trade in the markets of India.
The most massive planet listed on the
SC
NASA Exoplanet Archive is HR 2562 b, The Commission is also required to give
about 30 times the mass of Jupiter. opinion on competition issues on a reference
received from a statutory authority established
under any law and to undertake competition
37. Correct Option: (b) advocacy, create public awareness and impart
training on competition issues.
Explanation:
Option is correct: It is a manned Chinese 39. Correct Option: (a)
GS

space station which was destroyed due to its
Explanation:
re-entry into the Earth’s atmosphere
Option is correct: It has been launched by
Supplementary Notes: Central Industrial Security Force (CISF).
Tiangong-2 Supplementary Notes:
It was a Chinese space laboratory which was Securitypedia
launched on 15 September 2016. It was de- It is a website which incorporates a wide range
orbited as planned on 19 July 2019. of security related issues, best practices and
latest technologies (in the domain of security)
It was neither designed nor planned to be a
available across the world.
permanent orbital station; rather, it is intended
as a testbed for key technologies that will It is not just a static website containing data
be used in the Chinese large modular space archives but is more of a dynamic platform
where a force member can contribute by
station, which is planned for launch between
writing blogs on relevant security related
2019 and 2022. professional issues.
The station subsequently made a controlled Just like Wikipedia, any member could
re-entry on 19 July and burned up over the post information or edit articles after citing
South Pacific Ocean. authentic and verifiable sources.
PTTS2020/CARC/500 278
As a supplement to Securitypedia, CISF has Nucleotides are not the only determinants
also developed CISF Tube which is an online of phenotypes, but are essential to their
video database of all videos relevant to CISF. formation.
The videos available on CISF Tube enables CISF
Each individual and organism has a specific
personnel to learn on various subjects related
to their area of functioning. nucleotide base sequence.
Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) Human Genome Project (HGP)

CISF is an armed force under the Union It was the international, collaborative research
Home Ministry established under an Act of program whose goal was the complete
Parliament, Central Industrial Security Force mapping and understanding of all the genes
Act, 1968.
of human beings. All our genes together are
It has 10 reserve battalions, 08 training known as our “genome”.
institutes and 39 other organizations.
It was a 13-year-long, publicly funded project
According to the mandate, CISF provides
security to the premises staff along with the initiated in 1990 coordinated by the National
security of property and establishments. Institutes of Health and the U.S. Department
of Energy.
It is providing security to the strategic
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establishment, including the Department It helped to develop modern sequencing
of Space, the Department of Atomic Energy, techniques, which have vastly improved the
the Airports, the Delhi Metro, the ports, the
efficiency while reducing the costs of genomic
historical monuments and the basic areas of
Indian economy such as petroleum and natural research.
gas, electricity, coal, steel and mining. It read the genetic code of just one species,
It is providing protection to some private sector Homo sapiens, between 1990 and 2003.
units and important government buildings in
Delhi
O Human Genome Project - Write (HGP -
Write)
It’s a proposed second Human Genome
Project
SC
Explanation:
It is believed that to truly understand our
Statement 1 is incorrect: It was initiated to
complete mapping and understanding of genetic blueprint, it is necessary to “write”
all the genes of only one species, Homo DNA and build human (and other) genomes
sapiens. from scratch.
Statement 2 is incorrect: India didn’t
participate in the project.
GS
Explanation:
Genome Sequencing
Correct order: Gambia – Liberia – Benin -
Human genome is made up of 23 chromosome
Nigeria
pairs with a total of about 3
billion DNA base pairs. There are
24 distinct human chromosomes:
22 autosomal chromosomes,
plus the sex-determining X and
Y chromosomes.
Genome sequencing is a method
used to determine the precise
order of DNA nucleotides,
or bases -Adenine, Cytosine,
Guanine, and Thymine - that
make up an organism’s DNA.
These bases provide the
underlying genetic basis for
telling a cell what to do, where
to go and what kind of cell to
become.
279 PTTS2020/CARC/500
42. Correct Option: (d) This initiative is expected to generate direct
employment for 75,000 people and produce
Explanation: 50 million tonnes of bio-manure for crops.
Option is correct: This pill is developed
to assess gut bacteria throughout the
gastrointestinal (GI) tract.
Explanation:
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Valley of
3D Printed Pill flowers is in Uttarakhand.
Researchers have developed an
ingestible 3D printed pill, which can (Famous Valley) (State)
non-invasively assess gut bacteria Jammu and Kash-
throughout the gastrointestinal (GI) 1. Neelum Valley
mir
tract.
2. Spiti Valley Himachal Pradesh
This biocompatible pill is manufactured in
a 3D printer with microfluidic channels. 3. Valley of flowers Uttarakhand
It can easily sample different stages of the GI
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tract, which was till now impossible to track
non-invasively. Supplementary Notes
Current method is based on the use of DNA Neelum Valley, Spiti Valley, Valley Of Flowers
sequencing techniques to analyse bacteria
• Neelum Valley is a Himalayan gorge in the
found in the gut known as the microbiome (The Kashmir region, along which the Neelum
gut microbiome is comprised of the collective River flows. This green and fertile valley is one
genome of microbes inhabiting the gut of the most attractive tourists places, like Swat
O
including bacteria, archaea, viruses, and and Chitral, but due to poor road system is yet
fungi). veiled to the outside world.
• Spiti Valley is a cold desert mountain valley lo-
43. Correct Option: (a) cated high in the Himalayas in the north-eastern
SC
part of the northern Indian state of Himachal
Explanation: Pradesh. The name “Spiti” means “The Middle
Land”, i.e. the land between Tibet and India.
Statement 2 is incorrect: It was launched Along the northern route from Manali, Himach-
by Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas. al Pradesh or Keylong via the Rohtang Pass or
SUPPLEMENTARY NOTES Kunzum Pass respectively, the valley lies in
the North Eastern section of the Indian state
SATAT INITIATIVE: Himachal Pradesh.
GS
Sustainable Alternative towards Affordable • Valley of Flowers National Park is an Indian

Transportation (SATAT) is a developmental national park located in the state of Uttara-
effort that would benefit vehicle-users as well khand and is known for its meadows of en-
as farmers and entrepreneurs. demic alpine flowers and the variety of flora.
This richly diverse area is also home to rare and
It aims to tap the potential of Compressed endangered animals, including the Asiatic black
Bio-Gas (CBG) production plants as it has bear, snow leopard, musk deer, brown bear, red
the potential to replace CNG in automotive, fox, and blue sheep. Birds found in the park
industrial and commercial uses in the coming include Himalayan monal pheasant and other
years. high altitude birds.
OBJECTIVES:
CBG produced at the plants will be transported 45. Correct Option: (b)
through cascades of cylinders to the fuel Explanation:
station networks of Oil Marketing Companies
(OMCs) for marketing as a green transport Statement 1 is incorrect: The Court may
fuel alternative. entertain two types of cases: legal disputes
between States submitted to it by them
The entrepreneurs would be able to separately (contentious cases) and requests for advisory
market the other by-products from these opinions on legal questions referred to it
plants, including bio-manure, carbon-dioxide, by United Nations organs and specialized
etc., to enhance returns on investment. agencies (advisory proceedings).
PTTS2020/CARC/500 280
Statement 3 is incorrect: Justice Dalveer It was launched first in Jharkhand by its state
Bhandari from India currently serves as agriculture department to –
permanent judge at ICJ.
To make Jharkhand state in the category of
SUPPLEMENTARY NOTES developed states by 2022.
International Court of Justice (ICJ) Providing employment by connecting the

farmers of the state with bee keeping.
ICJ is the primary judicial branch of the
United Nations. To increase agriculture and horticulture
yield and income of farmers.
Seated in the Peace Palace in The Hague,
Netherlands, the court settles legal disputes To make the state the leading state in the
submitted to it by states and provides advisory field of honey production.
opinions on legal questions submitted to it Children free from malnutrition.
by duly authorized international branches,
agencies, and the UN General Assembly. Production of quality honey.
It is composed of 15 judges elected to 9
About KVIC
year terms and may be re-elected for up to 2
further terms. The Khadi and Village Industries Commission
(KVIC) is a statutory body formed by the
It has two primary functions: to settle legal
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Government of India, under the Act of
disputes submitted by States in accordance
Parliament, 'Khadi and Village Industries
with established international laws, and to act
Commission Act of 1956'.
as an advisory board on issues submitted to it
by authorized international organizations. It is an apex organisation under the Ministry
of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises,
In Contentious Cases, the judgment is
with regard to khadi and village industries
final, binding on the parties to a case and
within India.
without appeal

by the Court do not have binding force.
O
In case of Advisory proceedings, the opinions
The KVIC is charged with the planning,
promotion, organization and implementation
of programs for the development of Khadi
and other village industries in the rural areas
SC
46. Correct Option: (d) in coordination with other agencies engaged
in rural development wherever necessary.
Explanation:
All the Statements are Correct
SUPPLEMENTARY NOTES
Explanation:
Honey Bee Mission
Option is correct
GS
‘Honey Mission’ was launched by Khadi and

Village Industries Commission (KVIC) in August SUPPLEMENTARY NOTES
2017 to attain sweet revolution in India.
Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C)
It aims to provide beekeepers Scheme
practical training about examination of Ministry of Home Affairs had rolled out a
honeybee colonies scheme ‘Indian Cyber Crime Coordination
Centre (I4C)’ for the period 2018-2020, to
acquaintance with apicultural equipments
combat cyber crime in the country, in a
identification and management of bee coordinated and effective manner. The scheme
enemies and diseases has following seven components:
honey extraction and wax purification National Cybercrime Threat Analytics Unit.
management of bee colonies in spring, National Cybercrime Reporting Portal.
summer, monsoon, autumn and winter
Platform for Joint Cybercrime Investigation
seasons
Team.
Sweet Revolution
National Cybercrime Forensic Laboratory
Sweet Revolution is a strategic step to Ecosystem.
emphasize the increase in honey production
National Cybercrime Training Centre.
in the state, which can be a major contributor
to doubling the income of the farmers. Cybercrime Ecosystem Management Unit.
281 PTTS2020/CARC/500
National Cyber Research and Innovation 49. Correct Option: (c)
Centre.
Explanation:
Police’ and ‘Public order’ are State subjects as
per the Constitution of India. Both statements are correct
States/UTs are primarily responsible for Supplementary notes

prevention, detection, investigation and A Giant fish is declared extinct
prosecution of crimes through their law
enforcement machinery. One of the largest freshwater fish has been
declared extinct in a study published in the
The Law Enforcement Agencies take legal journal Science of the Total Environment.
action as per provisions of the law against the
reported cyber crimes. The Chinese paddlefish (Psephurus gladius)
was an iconic species, measuring up to 7 m
in length, dating back from 200 million years
48. “Correct Option: (d) ago, and therefore swimming the rivers when
dinosaurs ruled the Earth.
Explanation:
Its ancestral home was the Yangtze River.
NASA wants to send the first woman and the
next man to the Moon by the year 2024, which Chinese researchers made this conclusion
it plans on doing through the Artemis lunar based on the Red List criteria of the International
RE
exploration program. Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
Declaring a species extinct is an elaborate
Supplementary notes
process. It involves a series of exhaustive
NASA’s Artemis mission surveys, which need to be taken at appropriate
times, throughout the species’ historic range
This cohort of new astronauts may be assigned and over a time-frame that is appropriate to
to space missions to the International Space the species’ life cycle and form.
Station (ISS), the Moon and ultimately, Mars.
O Once declared extinct, a species is not eligible
The agency has targeted the human exploration for protective measures and conservation
of Mars by the 2030s. funding; therefore, the declaration has
Raja Chari was selected by NASA to join the significant consequences.
SC
2017 Astronaut Candidate Class. In the case of the Chinese paddlefish, the
NASA wants to send the first woman and the researchers made the conclusion over long-
next man to the Moon by the year 2024, which term surveys. It was once common in the
it plans on doing through the Artemis lunar Yangtze, before overfishing and habitat
exploration program. fragmentation — including dam building —
caused its population to dwindle from the
With the Artemis program, NASA wishes to 1970s onwards.
demonstrate new technologies, capabilities
and business approaches that will ultimately Between 1981 and 2003, there were just
GS
be needed for the future exploration of Mars. around 210 sightings of the fish.
For the Artemis program, NASA’s new rocket The researchers estimate that it became
called the Space Launch System (SLS) will functionally extinct by 1993, and extinct
send astronauts aboard the Orion spacecraft sometime between 2005-2010
a quarter of a million miles away from Earth to
the lunar orbit.
Once astronauts dock Orion at the Gateway
— which is a small spaceship in orbit around Explanation:
the moon — the astronauts will be able to Statement 1 is incorrect: Blue Flag Tag is an
live and work around the Moon, and from the eco-label awarded by Denmark-based non-
spaceship, astronauts will take expeditions to profit organization.
the surface of the Moon.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Mahabalipuram
The astronauts going for the Artemis program beach in Tamil Nadu is “only identified” for
will wear newly designed spacesuits, called certification.
Exploration Extravehicular Mobility Unit, or
xEMU. Supplementary Notes
These spacesuits feature advanced mobility The ‘Blue Flag Tag’ is a certification that
and communications and interchangeable can be obtained by a beach, marina, or
parts that can be configured for spacewalks in sustainable boating tourism operator, and
microgravity or on a planetary surface. serves as an eco-label.
PTTS2020/CARC/500 282
The certification is awarded by the Denmark- maintaining a minimum distance of 10
based non-profit Foundation for meters from the High Tide Line (HTL):
Environmental Education (FEE), which sets Portable toilet blocks, change rooms and
stringent environmental, educational, safety- shower panels;
related and access-related criteria that
applicants must meet and maintain. Grey water treatment plant;
It is awarded annually to beaches and Solid waste management plant;

marinas in FEE member countries. Solar power plant;
The world-renowned certification is known Purified drinking water facility;
as an indication of high environmental and
Beach access pathways;
quality standards.
Landscaping lighting;
Forty-seven countries currently
participate in the program, and 4,573 beaches, Seating benches and sit-out umbrellas;
marinas, and boats have this certification. Outdoor play / fitness equipment;
In July 2019, the Ministry of Environment, CCTV surveillance and control room;
Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) had
identified 13 beaches across the country for First aid station;
RE
the Blue Flag certification, and announced Cloak room facility;
a list of activities that would be permissible in
Safety watch towers and beach safety
their respective CRZ zones for that purpose.
equipment;
Following beaches were identified:
Beach layout, environment information
Shivrajpur (Devbhumi Dwarka, Gujarat),
boards and other signages;
Bhogave (Sindhudurg, Maharashtra), Ghoghla
(Diu, Daman and Diu), Miramar (Panjim, Goa),
O Fencing, preferably vegetative;
Kasarkod (Karwar, Karnataka), Padubidri (Udupi, Parking facilities;
Karnataka), Kappad (Kozhikode, Kerala), Eden
(Puducherry), Mahabalipuram (Kanchipuram, Entry gate, tourist facilitation center; and
Tamil Nadu), Rushikonda (Visakhapatnam, Other associated facilities or infrastructure,
Andhra Pradesh), Golden (Puri, Odisha), and as per requirements of Blue Flag
SC
Radhanagar (Port Blair, Andaman & Nicobar) Certification.
Lately the Centre issued a new notification These activities and facilities would be exempt
declaring a bigger list. According to the from prior clearance under the provisions
latest notification, the following activities of CRZ Notification, Island Protection Zone
and facilities would be permitted in the CRZ Notification and Island Coastal Regulation
of the beaches, including Islands, subject to Zone Notifications respectively.
GS

283 PTTS2020/CARC/500

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RE

2. ECONOMY + ECONOMIC SURVEY+ BUDGET) 63

4. ART & CULTURE

5. SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

1. The new MGC Plan of Action envisages (c) 3 only

Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1. USA

(b) 2 3 1 (d) N Gopalaswami

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Which of the above statement is/are correct?

C. Healthy States 3. Equal Measures (a) 1 only

Prospect Report (d) Neither 1 nor 2

10. Consider the following statements regarding

(b) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

23. Consider the following Statements regarding (d) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the above statements are incorrect?

contributes towards empowerment of girls in

36. Consider the following statements about (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 2. Post-harvest losses up to a period of 30 days

2. It aims to reduce malnutrition through a (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) 2-1-3-4 59. Consider the following statements regarding

(a) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

decreasing order? launched the ‘Good Governance Index’.

4. Qatar Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 and 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 1 and 3 only

in wake of killing of General Soleimani. In this

Commission led systems since 1948.

(b) 2 only (b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

76. Consider the following statements regarding

the divisible pool of tax collections at the same

2. Indian Telegraph Act, 1885 (a) 1 and 3 only

1. National Mission on Manuscripts aims to

(c) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: In Prakash Singh vs Union of India

B. K.S. Puttaswamy 3. Constitutional partners: Australia, China, India, Japan, New

7. Correct Option: (b)

ASEAN countries, namely, Cambodia, Lao

cooperation in tourism, culture, education,

river basins. The MGC also indicates the

Option is correct: Recently, 45th G-7 Summit SDG Gender Index

company as legally distinct from its managers

12. Correct Option: (c)

The offence may be compounded (i.e. parties in terror-related offences.

21. Correct Option: (b)

Three major amendments are proposed to  Complete account of the election

be provided support for training of

Development (MWCD) is implementing

(EEC), constituted for this purpose.

Supplementary notes: 29. Correct Option: (c)

programme is to motivate and equip teachers of outsiders into the region.

30. Correct Option: (c) Supplementary notes:

The Central Government shall give 50 % share

for 18-23 years of age group. GER for male

Key Issues and Analysis Report on stability was recently launched by

it does not include any provisions regarding Supplementary notes:

the section under which he was convicted had

Quad Grouping EC cited Section 11 of the Representation

Explanation: The survey was conducted by the AIIMS,

Among men, the most important barriers are

Explanation: According to Section 2(h) of Right To

Three major amendments are proposed to Complete account of the election

on changes/ revisions in the drug policy. Infrastructure for Agro-Processing

Providing Solar Photovoltaic (SPV) based Division – Deputy Secretary

It recommended a review of the RBI’s covered by exploration).