QUESTION PAPER 1

1. For a fixed supply voltage the current flowing through a conductor will increase when its

[ (a) Area of x-section is reduced.(b) length is reduced. (c) length is increased

(d) length is increased and x-sectional area is reduced.]

2. Four resistances 80 Ω, 50 Ω, 25 Ω and R are connected in parallel. Current through 25 Ω

Resistance is 4 A . Total current of the supply is 10A. The value of R will be

[ (a) 66.66 Ω (b) 40.25 Ω (c) 36.36 Ω (d) 76.56 Ω]

3. Cells are connected in parallel in order to increase the

[ (a) life of the cell (b) efficiency (c) current capacity (d) voltage rating ]

4. Iron is a
[ (a) ferromagnetic. (b) ferrimagnetic (c) paramagnetic (d) antiferromagnetic material]
5. The RMS value of sine wave is 100A. Its peak value is
[ (a) 70.7 (b) 141A (c) 150A (d) 282.2 A ]
6 (-2 –j5)/(5 + j7 ) is expressed as

[ (a) 11.31 L 225 0

(b) 8.49 L 45 0
(c) 0.627 L -166.26 0
(d) 46.15 L -85.03 0
]

7. An alternating current of frequency of 50Hz and maximum value 250 is given as i =

[ (a)250 sine 314 t (b) 125 sine 314t (c) 250 cos314t (d) 250 cos 125t ]

8. In a DC Motor the windage loss is proportional to

[ (a) supply voltage (b) square of the supply voltage (c) square of the flux density

(d) square of armature speed ]

9. Laminated yoke in dc motor can reduce

[ (a) speed regulation (b) iron loss (c) temperature rise (d) sparking on load ]

10. In a DC machine armature winding , the number of commutator segments equal to the

number of armature

[ (a) coils (b) coil sides (c) conductors ( d) turns]

11. The commutating flux produced by interpole must be proportional to

[ (a) armature current (b) field current (c) both armature current and field current(d) none of the above ]

12. The torque speed characteristics of a dc shunt motor is

[ (a) a rectangular parabola (b) a drooping straight line (c) Parabola (d0 none of these ]

13. The speed of a 4 pole DC series motor at no load will be

[ (a) zero (b) 3000 rpm (c) infinite (d) 1500 rpm ]
 14. Which of the following losses occurring in a dc machine has the largest percentage

[ (a) Iron loss (b) Windage loss (c) Copper loss (d) Iron loss ]

15. A 16 bit register in 8051 microcontroller is

[(a) register B (b) P S W (c) program counter (d) TCON ]

16. In a transistor heavily doped area is

[ (a) collector (b) base (c) emitter (d) both collector and emitter ]

17. The ratio of latching current to holding current of SCR is

[ (a) less than unity (b) greater than unity (c) unity (d) zero ]

18. Input impedance of FET is

[ (a) high (b) zero (c) low (d) infinite ]

19. The main purpose of performing open circuit test on a transformer is to measure its

[ (a) copper loss (b) core loss (c) total loss (d) insulation resistance ]

20. Power factor of an electric circuit is ratio of

[ (a) voltage and current (b) resistance and impedance (c) active power and apparent power

(d) both( b) &( c )]

21. Insulating materials have

[ (a) positive temperature co-efficient of resistance (b) negative temperature co-

Efficient of resistance (c) zero resistance (d) none of these ]

22. The size of earth continuity conductor is

[ (a) 10SWG (B) 14 SWG (c) 20 SWG (d) 19 SWG ]

23. Transformer core laminations are coated with an enamel layer in order to

[ (a) reduce hum (b) attain adhesion between laminations

(c) insulate laminations from each other (d) prevent corrosion of the laminations ]

24. The noise in a transformer caused by vibrations of laminations set by magnetic force is termed as

[ (a) zoom (b) hum (c) buzz (d) none of these ]

25. The transformer oil must be free from

[ (a) moisture (b) sludge (c) gases (d) sulphur ]

26. A distribution transformer is selected on the basis of

[ (a) voltage regulation (b) efficiency (c) all day efficiency (d) none of these ]
 27. Which part of the transformer is subjected to maximum heating

[ (a) Frame (b) Core (c) Winding (d) Oil ]

28. Fleming’s left hand rule is related to

[ (a) Generator (b) Motor (c) transformer (d) both( a) &( b) ]

29. Diesel power stations in Kerala are at

[ (a) Wayanade & Kannur (b) Thiruvananthapuram & Calicut (c) Ernakulam & Thrissur

(d) Calicut & Ernakulam ]

30. Auto transformer can do the following

[ (a) Step up voltage (b) Step down the voltage (c) No change in voltage (d) both(a) & (b) ]

31. Tapings are usually provided on the hv winding of a transformer because it

[ (a) is easily accessible physically (b) has to handle low currents

(c) has larger number of turns which allows smoother variation of voltage (d) all of the above ]

32. The number of poles on turbo- alternator is usually

[ (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8]

33. The maximum possible speed at which an alternator can be driven to generate 50 Hz

And 4000V is

[ (a) 4000 rpm (b) 3600 rpm (c) 3000 rpm (d) 1500 rpm ]

34. The short pitch winding is preferred over full – pitch winding for an alternator because it

[ (a) gives improved waveform of the induced emf as the distorting harmonics can be reduced or totally

eliminated (b) reduces the inductance of the winding (c) increase total induced emf (d) both (a) & (b) ]

35. The power factor on which an alternator operates depends on the

[ (a) speed of the prime-mover, (b) nature of the load being supplied (c) armature losses (d) copper losses ]

36. The Union Government has launched which project at Ganga Gram Swachata Sammelan (GGSS-
2017)?

[ (a) Namami Gange (b) Gange Swachata Abhiyan (c) Gange Mahadev (d) Ganga Gram]

37. Which city hosted the 32nd Indian Engineering Congress (IEC-2017)?

[ (a) New Delhi (b) Chenna (c) Kolkata (d) Kochi]

38. Which among the following acts provided for direct control of Indian Affairs by the British
Government?
[ (a)  Government of India Act 1858 (b) Pitts India Act of 1784 (c) Government of India Act 1909
 (d) Indian Councils Act 1892]

39. Who among the following was the first recipient of Bharat Ratna ?

[ (a) CV Raman (b) C. Rajgopalachari (d) Dr. Radhakrishnan (d) Jawahar Lal Nehru]

40. Which among the following was India’s first Transgenic Crop?

[ (a) Sugar cane (b) Brinjal (c) BT cotton (d) Wheat]

41. Which among the following is responsible for depletion of Ozone?

[ (a) Carbon monoxide  (b) Carbon dioxide  (c) Chlorofluoro carbon  (d) Mercuric oxide]

42. What is the direction of flow of energy in an ecosystem?

[(a) Unidirectional  (b) Bidirectional (c) Multidirectional (d) Cyclic]

43. At which among the following places, India’s first rail coach factory was built with PPP:

[ (a) Secundarabad (b) Gwalior (c) Patiala (d) Palakkad]

44. Port Blair is located on which of the following Islands?

[ (a) North Andaman (b) South Andaman (c) Middle Andaman (d) None of the above]

45. Which Indian umpire has been recently promoted as umpire for International Hockey
Federation (FIH)?

[ (a) Deepika Kaul  (b) Nepoleon Singh (c) Satinder Sharma  (d) Durga Thakur ]

46. The largest producer of rubber is_________ ?

[ (a) Thailand (b) Malaysia (c) Singapore (d) India]

47. In which of the famous temple of Tamilnadu Shiva is worshipped as” Natraja” ?

[ (a) Madurai (b) Tanjore (c) Chidambaram (d) None of the above]

48. Which among the following is the correct decreasing of bioelements in Human Body?

[ (a) oxygen, hydrogen, Carbon, nitrogen, calcium, and phosphorus 

(b) oxygen, carbon, nitrogen, hydrogen, calcium, and phosphorus 

(c) oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, calcium, and phosphorus 
(d) carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen, calcium, and phosphorus]

49. Kerala Institute of Local Administration is located at ?

[ (a) Mulangunnathkavu (b) Ottapalam (c) Cheruthuruthi (d) Vellanikkara ]

50. Which is India’s first e- literate district?

[ (a) Bengaluru (b) Hyderabad (c) Malappuram (d) Palakkad ]
 QUESTION PAPER II

1. Two resistors R1 and R2 give combined resistance of 4.5 ohm when in series and 1 ohm when in parallel, the
resistances are
[ (a) 2 Ω and 2.5 Ω (b) 1(b) 1 Ω and 3.5 Ω (c) 1.5 Ω and 3 Ω (d) 4 Ω and .5 Ω ]

2 . Which of the following does not use heating effect of electric current?

[ (a) Electric furnace (b) Geyser (c) Electric iron (d) Vacuum cleaner ]

3 Ideal current source have

[ (a) zero internal resistance (b) infinite internal resistance (c) low value of voltage (d) large value of
current ]

4. while Thevenizing a circuit between two terminals Vth is equal to

[ (a) short- circuit terminal voltage (b) open- circuit terminal voltage

(c) net voltage available in the circuit (d) emf of the battery nearest to the terminal ]

5 Cells are connected in parallel in order to increase the

[ (a) life of the cells (b) efficiency (c) current capacity (d) voltage rating ]

6 The electric field intensity at a point situated at a distance d from a straight charged

Conductor is proportional to

[ (a) d (b) d2 (c) 1/d (d) 1/d2 ]

7 Joules/coulomb is the unit of

[ (a) electric field potential (b) potential (c) charge (d) none of the above ]

8 According to Faradays law of electromagnetic induction an emf is induced in a conductor

Whenever it

[ (a) lies in magnetic field (b) lies perpendicular to magnetic field (c) cuts the Magnetic field

(d) moves parallel to the direction of magnetic field ]

9 The form factor of sinusoidal alternating current is

[ (a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 1.11 (d) 1.15 ]

 10 In a series RLC resonance circuit the difference between XL and XC is

[ (a) zero (b) greater than 1 (c) less than 1 (d) non of these ]

11. When Q factor of a circuit is high ,then

[ (a) power factor of the circuit is high (b) impedance of the circuit high

(c) bandwidth is large (d) current in the circuit is high ]

12 For delta connected circuit the correct relationship is

[ (a) VL = Vph (b) Iph X √3 = IL (c) VL = IL X √3 (d) both (a) & (b)]

13 The principle of dynamically induced emf is utilised in

[ (a) transformer (b) choke (c) generator (d) thermocouple ]

14 Which of the following is not a part of DC machine ?

[ (a) Armature (b) Commutator (c) Field winding (d) Damping winding ]

15 A lap wound dc machine has 400 conductors and 8 poles. The voltage induced per conductor

Is 2 V .The machine generates a voltage of

[ (a) 100 V (b) 200 V (c) 400V (d) 800 V]

16 The mmf necessary for establishment of flux in the magnetic circuit of a dc generator can be

Obtained by means of field coils excited by

[ (a) some separate source (b) the generator itself (c) either of the above method (d) none of these ]

17 For battery charging application most preferable generator is

[ (a) DC series generator (b) DC compound generator (c) Alternator (d) DC shunt generator ]

18 A dc motor develops the maximum mechanical power when

[ (a) the Eb = ¾ V (b) Eb = ½ V (c) Eb = ¼ V (d) Eb = 2/3 V ]

19 In order to prevent the high inrush current at start of dc motor , a resistance is connected

[ (a) across the field (b) across the armature (c) in series with armature (d) in series with field ]

20 The test that can be used for determination of no-load losses in a large dc

Shunt machine is

[ (a) brake test (b) field test (c) Hopkinson’s test (d) Swinburne ‘s test ]

21 . In a transformer , electric power is transferred from primary to secondary

[ (a) through air (b) by magnetic flux (c) through insulating medium (d) none of the above ]
22 A transformer steps up the voltage by a factor 100. The ratio of current in the primary to that in

The secondary is

[ (a) 1 (b) 100 (c) 0.01 (d) 0.1 ]

23 In a power transformer iron losses remain practically constant from no load to full load .This is

Because

[ (a) core flux remains constant (b) leakage flux remains constant (c) both (a)& (b ), (d) neither (a) nor (b)]

24 The full- load copper loss and iron loss of transformer are 6400 W and 5000W respectively

The copper loss and iron loss at half load will be , respectively

[ (a) 3,200 W and 2,500W (b) 3,200W and 5,200W (c) 1,600W and 1,250W (d) 1,600 W and 5000 W]

25 Open- circuit test on a transformer is performed with

[ (a) rated transformer voltage (b) rated transformer current (c) direct current ]

26 The function of oil in a transformer is

[ (a) to provide insulation & cooling (b) to provide protection against lightning

(c)to provide protection against short circuit (e) to provide lubrication ]

27 The salient pole rotors are not suitable for high speed turbo generators due to

[ (a) excessive bearing friction (b) undesirable mechanical oscillations (c) high

Centrifugal force and windage loss (d) large eddy current loss ]

28 For a two layer winding the number of stator slots is equal to the number of

[ (a) poles (b) conductors (c) coil sides (d) coils ]

29 The maximum possible speed at which an alternator can be driven t0 generate 50 Hz and 4000V is

[ (a) 4000 rpm (b) 3600 rpm (c) 600 rpm (d) 500 rpm ]

30 When the inductive load is thrown off of an alternator , terminal voltage will

[(a) increase (b) decrease (e) remains unchanged ]

31 The direction of rotor current produced in an induction motor can be determined by

[ (a) Lenz’s Law (b) induction law (c) Fleming’s right hand rule (d) Fleming’s left hand rule ]

32 The speed of rotating field due to rotor currents relative to rotor surface in an induction motor is

[ (a) Ns (b)sNs (c) N (d)s N]

33 The starting torque of a 3-phase induction motor varies as

[ (a) V2 (b) V (c) √V (d) 1/V ]

 34 An induction motor always operates on lagging power factor . This is due to

[ (a) stator reactance (b) rotor leakage reactance (c) the large reactive lagging magnetizing current

Essential to produce the magnetic flux (d) all of the above ]

35 Forbidden band is largest in

[ (a) conductor (b) semiconductor (c) insulator ]

[ (a) Curie temperature (b) Neel temperature (c) Wein temperature (d) Weiss temperature ]

36. The aqueous solution of which among the following acids is called Vinegar?

[ (a) Oxalic acid  (b) Citric acid  (c) Acetic acid (d) Hydrochloric acid]

37. The World Tuberculosis Day is observed on which date?

[ (a) February 10  (b) March 24  (c) March 28 (d) April 5]

38.  Which of the following prizes is given by KK Birla Foundation for commendable work in Hindi?

[ (a) Acharya Tulsi Samman (b) Vyas Samman (c) Saraswati Samman (d) Rajahasha Samman]

39. The famous Muslim pilgrimage town “Galiakot” is located in which among the following states of
India?

[ (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Haryana (c) Rajasthan (d) Gujarat]

40. “Hopman cup” is related to which sports? 

[ (a) Football  (b) Lawn Tennis  (c) Badminton  (d) Cricket ]

41. India’s first Butterfly Park was established at which among the following National Parks?

[ (a) Bannerghatta National Park, Karnataka

(b) Nagarhole National Park, Karnataka
(c) National Zoological Park Calcutta
(d) Kaziranga National Park, Assam]

42. Mount Everest is a part of

[ (a)  Mahalangur Himal (b) Dhaulagiri Himalaya  (c) Baltoro Karakoram  (d) Jugal Himalaya]

43. Which among the following is the largest river system among the Deccan system of rivers?

[ (a) Godavari (b) Cauvery (c) Krishna (d) Periyar]

44. At which among the following places, India’s First steel factory was established?

[ (a) Jamshedpur (b) Durgapur (c) Burnpur (d) Bhilai]

45. In which state EVM machines were first used?

[ (a) Tamil nadu (b) Kerala (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Odisha]
 46. Which amendment of the constitution is related to reorganization of states on a linguistic basis?

[ (a) 1st (b) ] 7th (c) 10th (d) 15th]

47. Who among the following also launched a Home rule Movement in India, apart from Annie
Besant?

[ (a) Arubindo Ghosh (b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

(d) Madan Mohan Malviya]

48 Which among the following Mughal emperor had prohibited smoking use of tobacco in 1617
AD?

[ (a) Akbar (b) Jahanagir (c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb]

49. In which of the following modern State, most of the 24 Tirthankar of Jainism attained nirvana?

[ (a)  Bihar (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Rajasthan (d) Odisha]

50. Who among the following played a dominant role in the famous Vaikom Satyagraha of 1924–25
?

[ (a) T. K. Madhavan (b) Muloor S.Padmanabha Panicker (c) Balarama Varma (d) K. Kelappan]
 QUESTION PAPER III

1. A network consists of linear resistors and ideal voltage source. If the value of the
Resistors are doubled, then voltage across each resistor is
[ (a) halved (b) doubled (c) increased four times (d) not changed ]
2. Ideal voltage source have
[ (a) zero internal resistance (b) infinite internal resistance (c) low value of current
(d) large value of current ]

3. While determining Rth of a circuit

[ (a) voltage and current sources should be left as they are

(b) all sources should be Replaced by their source resistance

(c) all independent current and voltage sources are short circuited (d) nom of the above ]

4 The EMF of primary cell depends upon the

[ (a) physical dimension of a cell (b) nature of electrolyte (c) nature of electrode
(d) both (b) & (c) ]

5 Two capacitors each having capacitance C and break down voltage V are connected in series

The capacitance and break down voltage of the combination will be

[ (a) 2C and 2V (b) C/2 and V/2 (c) 2C and V/2 (d) C/2 and 2V ]

6 The unit of MMF is

[ (a) AT (b) Thesla (c) Weber (d) non of these ]
7 Pure inductive circuit is
[ (a) consume some power (b) does not consume power (c) takes power from the line during some part of
the cycle and then returns back during other part of cycle
(d) non of the above ]

8 Unit of reactive power is

[ (a) VA (b) watt (c) VAR (d) ohm ]

 9 A series RLC circuit will have unity power factor if operated at a frequency of
[ (a) 1/LC (b) 1/ω√LC (c) 1/ ω 2√LC (d) 1/2π√LC ]
10 The power measurement in balanced three –phase circuit can be done by
[ (a) one wattmeter method only (b) two wattmeter only (c) three wattmeter Method only
(d) any one of the above ]
11 The emf induced in a conductor rotating in a bipolar field is
[ (a) dc (b) ac (c) dc and ac both (d) none of the above
12 Stray losses are sum of
[ (a) Iron and mechanical losses (b) Copper and iron losses (c) Copper and
Mechanical losses (d) None of these ]
13 The functions of pole shoes in a dc machine is /are to
[ (a) support the field coils (b) reduce the reluctance of the magnetic path
(c) spread out the flux to achieve uniform flux distribution in the air gap (d) all of the above

14 Wave winding is employed in a dc machine of

[ (a) high current and low voltage rating (b) low current and high voltage rating

(c) high current and high voltage rating (d) low current and low voltage rating ]

15 For traction application DC series motor is preferred because

[ (a) High speed (b) High starting torque (c) Low starting torque (d) High starting current ]

16 The horse power obtained from the motor shaft is called the

[ (a) IHP (b) BHP (c) useful output (d) none of these ]

17 The most inefficient method for speed control of dc motors is

[ (a) voltage control (b) field control (c) armature control ]

18 The current drawn by a dc motor at starting is

[ (a) zero (b) very low (c) normal (d) very high ]

19 In swinburne’ s test the no load input power supplies

[ (a) armature and shunt field copper losses (b) iron losses (c) friction and Windage losses

(d) all of the above ]

20 In an ordinary transformer which of the following does not change

[ (a) voltage (b) current (c) frequency (d) all of the above ]

21 The open circuit test on transformer gives

[ (a) equivalent resistance and leakage reactance (b) magnetizing current and core loss at

Rated voltage (c) copper losses (d) both (b) & (c) ]

22 Power transformers are designed to have maximum efficiency around

[ (a) nearly full load (b) 70 % of full load (c) 50% of full load (d) 25 % of full load]

23 The all day efficiency of a distribution transformer will be high with low
 [ (a) copper loss (b) iron loss (c) operating temperature (d) copper as well as iron loss]

24 The primary and secondary winding of two winding transformer are interlaced for

[ (a) easiness of coil making (b) reduced leakage reactance (c) reduced cost (d) uniform heating]

25 The transformer oil should have

[ (a) high dielectric strength (b) good resistance to emulsion with water (c) low viscosity

(d) all of the above ]

26 Slip test of alternator is performed to determine

[ (a) Slip (b) direct axis reactance and quadrature axis reactance (c) positive –sequence reactance

And negative sequence reactance (d) sub transient reactance ]

27 A 3- phase synchronous motor needs dc supply for excitation

[ (a) continuously (b) at the starting instant only (c) of stator (d) n0ne of these ]

28 The magnitude of emf induced in the armature of a synchronous motor (Eb ) depends on

[ (a) arithmetic sum (b) arithmetic difference (c) phasor difference (d) phasor sum ]

29 The value of load angle for a synchronous motor depends mainly upon

[ (a) excitation (b) load (c) speed (d) supply voltage }

30 When does a synchronous motor operate with leading power factor current

[ (a) While it is under excited (b) While it is critically excited (c) While it is overexcited

(d) While it is heavily loaded ]

31 Regarding skewing of motor bars in a squirrel cage induction motor which statement is false

[ (a) it prevents cogging (b) it increases starting torque (c) it produces more uniform torque

(d) it reduces motor’ hum during its operation ]

32 Which of the following quantity in squirrel cage induction motor does not depends on it slip
[ (a) reactance (b) speed (C) induced emf (d) frequency ]
33 A 3-phase , 4pole squirrel cage induction motor has 36 stator and rotor slots .The number of
Phases in the rotor is
[ (a) 3 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) 8 ]
34 A wound rotor induction motor can be distinguished from squirrel cage induction motor by
[ (a) presence of slip ring (b) size of frame (c) shaft diameter (d) any one of the above ]
35 What is the frequency of rotor current of a 50 Hz induction motor operating at 2% slip
[ (a) 1 Hz (b) 100 Hz (c) 2 Hz (d) 50 Hz]

36. Where Kerala Forest Research Institute is located?

[ (a) Peechi (b) Thalassery (c) Kottayam (d) Sivagiri]

37. In which year the Presidential rule in Kerala was enforced for the first time?
 [ (a) 1960 (b) 1959 (c) 1962 (d) 1964]

38. . Which district of Kerala has most rivers?

[ (a) Kasaragodu (b) Idukki (c) Thiruvananthapuram (d) Kottayam]

39. Which among the following was main item of revenue during Maurya Period?

[ (a)  Bhaga (b) Pindikara (c) Hiranya (d) None of the above]

40. At which among the following places, the famous Bull Seal of Indus Valley Civilization was
found?

[ (a) Harappa (b) Mehrgarh (c) Mohenjo-Daro (d) Adamagarh

41. During the reign of Krishnadev Raya which of the following famous temples were built in
Vijaynagar

Empire ?

[ (a) Hampi (b) Hazura (c) Belgaum (d) None of them]

42. During Freedom Struggle of India, which among the following movements started with Dandi ?

[ (a) Swadeshi Movement (b) Noncooperative Movement (c) Civil Disobedience Movement
(d) Quit India Movement]

43. Who among the following is known as the “Saint of Dakhineshwar”?

[ (a) Ramkrishna Paramahansa (b) Swami Vivekananda (c) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
(d) Saint Tikaram]

44. Which among the following building built by Shah Jahan at Agra is similar in pattern of the Saint
Basil’s Cathedral in Moscow?

[ (a)  Taj Mahal (b) Agra fort (c) Pearl Mosque (d) Shah Jahani Mahal ]
45. Which among the following is known as Upper House?
[ (a)  Loksabha (b) Rajyasabha (c) Legislative assembly (d) None of the above]

46. Who among the following was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly ?
[ (a)  Sachidanand Sinha (b) B N Rao (c)  H N Kunzuru (d) V N Menon]

47. The most important Aluminium ore is?

[ (a) limestone (b) granite (c) bauxite (d) lead]

48. Which of the following was the first planet to have its motions plotted across the sky during the
second millennium BC?
[ (a)  Venus (b) Mars (c) Jupiter (d) Saturn]

49. Who will become the first women umpire to officiate in the ICC World Twenty20 cricket? 

[ (a) Jacqueline Williams (b) Kathleen Cross  (c) Clarie Polosak  (d)Sue Redfern ]

50. The World Tuberculosis Day is observed on which date? 

[ (a) February 10 (b) April 5 (c) March 28  (d) March 24  ] 
 ANSWER KEY OF Q.P I

Question No Answer
1 B
2 C
3 C
4 A
5 B
6 C
7 A
8 D
9 B
10 A
11 A
12 B
13 C
14 C
15 C
16 C
17 B
18 A
19 B
20 D
21 B
22 B
23 C
24 B
25 A
26 C
27 C
28 B
29 D
30 A
31 D
32 A
33 C
34 D
35 B
 36 D
37 B
38 A
39 A
40 C
41 C
42 A
43 D
44 B
45 D
46 A
47 C
48 C
49 A
50 C
5

ANSWER KEY OF Q.P II

Question No Answer
1 C
2 D
3 B
4 B
5 C
6 C
7 B
8 C
9 C
10 A
11 B
12 D
13 C
14 D
15 A
16 C
17 D
18 B
19 C
20 D
21 B
22 B
23 A
24 D
25 A
26 A
27 C
28 D
29 C
30 A
31 C
32 B
33 A
34 D
 35 C
36 C
37 B
38 B
39 C
40 B
41 A
42 A
43 A
44 C
45 B
46 B
47 A
48 B
49 A
50 D
5

ANSWER KEY OF Q.P III

Question No Answer
1 D
2 A
3 B
4 D
5 D
6 A
7 C
8 C
9 D
10 D
11 B
12 A
13 D
14 B
15 B
16 B
17 C
18 D
19 D
20 C
21 B
22 A
23 D
24 B
25 D
26 B
27 A
28 C
29 B
30 C
31 B
32 C
33 B
34 A
35 A
36 A
37 B
38 A
39 A
40 C
41 B
42 C
43 A
44 C
45 B
46 B
47 C
48 A
49 B
50 D