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Preparation Test FMSB

BIOLOGY
Instructions: Choose The Correct Answer(S)
1. Most cells cannot harness heat in order to perform work because

A. Heat is not a form of energy
B. Cells do not have much heat; they are relatively cool
C. Temperature is usually uniform throughout the cell
D. There is no mechanism in nature that can use heat to do work
E. None of the above
2. Which of the following factors will tend to increase membrane fluidity?
A. A greater proportion of unsaturated phospholipids
B. A lower temperature
C. A relatively high protein content in the membrane
D. A greater proportion of relatively large glycolipids compared to lipids having similar
molecular weight
E. Lack of ATP
3. In some organisms, mitosis occurs without cytokinesis, this will result in:
A. Cells with more than one nucleus
B. Cells that are usually small
C. Cell lacking nuclei
D. Destruction of chromosomes
E. All of the above
4. One difference between a cancer cell and a normal cell is that
A. the cancer cell is unable to synthesize DNA
B. The cell cycle of cancer cells is restricted at the S phase
C. Cancer cells continue to divide even when they are tightly packed together
D. Cancer cells are always in the M phase of the cell cycle
5. The genetic information:
A. Is entirely contained in the nucleus of a cell
B. Is the same in mother and daughter cells
C. Is a program which the cell will execute
D. Is at the origin of just one part of the characteristics of an individual.
E. All the above answers are correct
QUESTIONS 5 – 10: RELATIONAL COMPLETION QUESTIONS: Choose
A if the two proposals are true but not related;
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B if they are true and related;
C if the first is true and the second is false;
D if the first is false and the second is true;
E if both are false.
5. 1. Chromatin contains the same genetic information as chromosomes
2. Chromosomes and the chromatin are made up solely of DNA
6. 1. In the human species the somatic cells are diploid because
2. They result from the mitosis of a diploid egg cell.
7. 1. DNA is the chemical support of the genetic information because
2. It has molecular double helical structure.
8. 1. All genes are made up of because
2. DNA is the chemical carrier of genetic information
9. 1. The genotype always produces the same phenotype because
2. The phenotype depends exclusively on the genotype.
10. 1. Identical twins (monozygous twins) always show the same phenotype
2. Monozygous twins have the same genotype
11. Which of the following is an organic molecule needed in small amounts?
A. Protein
B. Zinc
C. Vitamin C
D. Monosaccharide
E. Carbon
12. A pairing up of homologous chromosomes occur
A. Only in mitosis
B. Only in meiosis I
C. Only in meiosis II
D. In both mitosis and meiosis
E. All of the above
13. Mongolism or Down’s syndrome is due to
A. Deletion on the short arm of chromosome 21.
B. Deletion on the long arm of chromosome 21.
C. Non disjunction of the sex chromosomes during meiosis 1.
D. Non disjunction on chromosome 21 during anaphase 1
E. Disjunction chromosome 21 during anaphase 2.
QUESTIONS 14 TO 17: CHOOSE A IF 2 AND 4 ARE CORRECT; B IF 1,2 AND 3
ARE CORRECT; C IF 2 AND 3 ARE CORRECT; D IF 2,3 AND 4 ARE CORRECT; E
IF ONLY 2 IS CORRECT
14. During vaccination
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1. Antibodies are injected
2. Antigens are injected
3. Active immunity is induced
4. Passive immunity is induced
15. Concerning HIV
1. It is a retrovirus
2. It can be transmitted from mother to child during birth
3. It is specific for lymphocytes with CD4 markers on their surfaces
4. Recent data show that antibodies are effective against HIV
16. Lymphocytes are immune cells:
1. T- Lymphocytes mature in the bone marrow
2. B lymphocytes are produced in the bone marrow
3. B Lymphocytes mature in the thymus
4. Have 4 types of lymphocytes
17. Natural passive immunity acquired by a child at birth is only temporary because:
1. Ready- made antigens are given against a specific antigen or toxin
2. Antibodies are eventually broken down
3. There is no immunological memory for the production of antibodies by the baby
4. The half-life of antibodies is very short
18. Acini are responsible for:
A. Cellular movements
B. Production of pancreatic juice
C. Fixation of amoebae on their substrate
D. Sugar synthesis
E. Absorption of calcium
19. The number of red blood cells in man is in the order of:
A. 0.5 million per mm3
B. 5 million per mm3
C. 10 million per mm3
D. 15 million per mm3
E. is not constant since there are variations during nights and days 20.
20. Concerning mRNA and tRNA
A. mRA is only found in the cytoplasm
B. mRNA is only synthesized in mammalian cells
C. tRNA transfers information from the nucleus to the cytoplasm
D. tRNA is closely linked to DNA
E. mRNA is synthesized side by side through the whole length of DNA in the nucleus
21. Competitive inhibition corresponds, to:
A. an excessive production of the final product of a reaction
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B. a combination of the final product with one of the enzymes responsible for its production
C. a irreversible linkage of the inhibitor to the active site of the enzyme
D. a reversible linkage of the inhibitor to the active site of the enzyme
E. linkage of an inhibitor which depends on the molar concentration of the inhibitors
22. The oxygen consumed during cellular respiration is directly used in:
A. Glycolysis
B. The acceptance of electrons at the end of electron transfer chain.
C. The citric acid or the Kreb´s Cycle
D. The oxidation of pyruvic acid into acetyl-Co A
E. The phosphorylation of ADP.
22. Concerning the nucleus:
A. It is surrounded by a membrane which has two plasma membranes
B. The nuclear membrane completely isolates the nuclear matter from the cytoplasm which
surround the nucleus
C. The fine structure of chromosomes is quite visible on electron microscopy
D. It contains ribosomes
23. Oestrogens:
A. In females has an analogous effect to testosterone in males
B. is responsible for uterine thickening
C. Has a stable secretion during the follicular phase
D. Is not secreted during the post luteal phase
E. Are peptide hormones
24. Concerning the contraction of skeletal muscle
A. The total duration of a muscle jerk is in the order of one hundredth of a second
B. Muscular tone is an isotonic contraction
C. Isometric contraction results in shortening of the muscle
D. Physiological tetanus may be achieved by increasing the frequency of muscular stimulations
E. All of the above
25. The secretion of the exocrine gland of the pancreas is controlled by which of the
following:
A. Blood sugar level
B. Secretin
C. A gene
D. Blood calcium levels
E. Insulin
26. A peptide molecule is made up of the following:
A. Sugars
B. Nucleotides
C. Cellulose
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D. Sodium Phosphate
E. Amino acids
27. Antibodies are produced by
A. Kidneys
B. Oocytes
C. Lymphocytes
D. Haemocytes
E. Monocytes
28. The following disease is always due to an attack of the nervous system by a virus
A. Sleeping sickness
B. Meningitis
C. HIV/AIDS
D. Malaria
E. All of the above
29. Shade the correct proposition
A. Group A can receive blood from A and O
B. Group B can receive blood from B, AB and O
C. Group AB can receive blood from O, A, B and AB
D. Group O can receive blood from O, A, and AB
E. Rhesus positive blood can be transfused to a rhesus negative receiver
29. Lymph
A. Circulates in a system dependent of blood circulation
B. Takes the same circuit as blood circulation
C. Comes from blood and goes back to blood by a system that joints blood circulation
D. Is present in 80% of pygmies
E. None of the answers is correct
30. The joints between vertebrae are
A. Fixed
B. Semi mobile
C. Mobile
D. Varied
E. Semi-varied
31. Concerning the different types of joints:
A. There are 3 types of joints
B. Soft tendinous joints
C. Semi-mobile joints
D. Bony tendinous joints
E. All of the above
32. The two types of muscles that make up the muscular apparatus are:
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A. Skeletal muscles and animal flesh
B. Skeletal muscles and muscles which become fixed to bones
C. Skeletal muscles and visceral muscles
D. Visceral muscles and muscles of the wall of the stomach
E. None of the above answers is correct
33. As far as the cranial skeleton is concerned:
A. It is made of four flat bones
B. It comprises three parietal and a front bone C. It is made up of three parietal and an occipital
bone
D. All the above answers are correct
E. None of the above answer is correct
For question 34 to 47, one or many of the proposed answers are correct. Choose the
correct letter on the answers
A. If proposition I, ii, and iii are correct
B. If proposition I and iii are correct
C. if proposition ii and iv are correct
D. If proposition iv alone is correct
E. If proposition I, ii, iii and iv are correct
34. With regards to the spermatozoid:
i. It is produced in the testes
ii. It contains 22chromosomes
iii. It is made of the head, the body, and a flagellum which helps in its movements
iv. It produces antibodies under certain conditions
35. With regards to red blood cells
i. They are cell with nuclei which are hollow are the centre
ii. They are 5 million of them per ml of blood
iii. They originate from the liver and they die in the red bone marrow
iv. They are renewed 3 times in a year
36. The different origins of the excitement of muscles are:
i. Thermal
ii. Mechanical
iii. Electric
iv. Chemical
37. With regards to chromosomes
i. They are constituted of a chemical molecule: RNA
ii. In the human species, all body cells (except the sex cells) contain46 chromosomes grouped in
to pairs
iii. There are 23 pairs of autonomies
iv. There is 1 pair of gonosomes
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38. With regards to sweat glands
i. They secrete sweat which moisturize the skin and thereby cool it down
ii. Sweat is exactly like urine
iii. Their role is complementary to that of the kidneys
iv. There glands play a minimal role in the cleaning of the organism
39. A comparison of inhaled and exhaled air gives the following results
i. Nitrogen (N2): inhaled air 45% exhaled air 80%
ii. O2: inhaled air 15%, exhaled air 20%
iii. CO2: inhaled air 5% exhaled air 15%
iv. None of the above
40. With regards to respiration
i. During normal inhalation 1 litre enters the lungs
ii. Exhalation is a passive phenomenon
iii. During the intake of a deep breath 2.5 litres of air enter the lungs
iv. The air taken in, during a deep breath is called in respiratory reserve volume
41. With regards to the Bohr effect
i. It is produced in the testes
ii. At high CO2 tension haemoglobin is more efficient is releasingO2
iii. It is made up of the head, the body, and a flagellum which help in its movement
iv. At high CO2 pressure, the O2- dissociation curve shifts downwards
42. Proteins differ from carbohydrates, fats and nucleic acids in that
i. They may be fibrous
ii. They always contain nitrogen
iii. They have sulphur bridges
iv. They are always globular
43. With regards to the cones in the retina
i. They accurately perceive the environment
ii. They are packed outside the fovea
iii. They are responsible for day vision
iv. They have low visual acuity
44. With regards to hormones
i. Their responses are not stopped once shed in to the bloodstream
ii. They are secreted directly in to the bloodstream
iii. They have a long term effect
iv. They act on target organs
45. In anaerobic respiration:
i. A considerable amount of energy remains locked up as ethanol in the plants
ii. A considerable amount of energy can remain locked up as lactic acid in the plants
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iii. In terms of energy production anaerobic respiration is an inefficient process if carried out
continuously
iv. All of the above
46. With regards to the different deformation of the vertebral column:
i) In kyphosis the person is stiff
ii) In scoliosis the person has a lateral deformation
iii) In arthrosis the person is unilateral
iv) In lordosis the person is very bent
47. With regards to anaphase
i. With regards to anaphase
ii. The centromeres separate and migrate towards opposite poles
iii. ATP is the energy necessary for this process iv. The chromosomes become short and fatter
48. What are the 4 main conditions to be observed for proper skeletal bone ossification
A. A diet rich in calcium, phosphorus vitamins A and D
B. Well-functioning glands (pituitary and thyroid)
C. Correct muscular exercises
D. A good attitude
E. All of the above
49. The number of white blood cells in the blood of a healthy individual is:
A. 4 500 to 5500/mm3
B. 5 000 000/ mm3
C. 300 000/ mm3
D. 500 to 800/ mm3
E. one of the above answers
50. List of nucleated blood cells except
A. Plasmocyte
B. Macrophage
C. Neutrophilic granulocyte
D. Platelet
E. Lymphocyte.
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CHEMISTRY
Instructions: Choose The Correct Answer(S)
51. The pH at 25°C of a mixture of 20mL hydrochloric acid (pH1=2) with 30mL of the
same acid (pH2=3) is:
A. 5
B. 2.5
C. 1
D. 2.3
52. The pH at 25°C of a mixture of 20mL centimolar hydrochloric acid with 30mL of
sulphuric acid 10-3 molL-1 is:
A. 2.33
B. 2.28
C. 5.00
D. 2.5
53. Human blood can be considered as a buffer solution with a pH of 7.4. What is the off
concentration at 25°C?
A.3.98x10-8molL-1
B. 3.98x10-8gL-1
C. 2.51x10-7molL-1
D. 7.41x10-7molL-1
E. 7x10-7molL-1
54. Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane (DDT) is a very toxic insecticide. The lethal dose
for a human is 500mg per kilogramme. What mass of DDT will kill a person of 78.5kg
A) 19.63 g
B) 63.19 g
C) 39.25 g
D) 59.53 g
E) 78.50 g
55. A cell is produced from two half cells of Iron and Copper with standard electrode
potentials of -0.44V and 0.34V respectively. Calculate the EMF of the cell.
A. -0.78V
B. 0.10V
C. 0.78V
D. 1.24V
E. -0.10V
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56. What is the volume of hydrogen produced when 1.15g of sodium reacts with excess
ethanol at RTP? (Na=23gmol-1; Vm = 24dm3).
A. 1.200dm3
B. 204dm3
C. 0.12dm3
D. 1.2dm3
E. 0.6dm3
57. The hydrolysis of an ester with general molecular formula C7H14O2 resulted in
ethanoic acid and an alcohol X. Oxidation of X gave a carboxylic acid Y. Identify X and
Y.
A. X is pentan-2-ol and Y is pentanoic acid
B. X is pentan-3-ol and Y is 3-methyl butanoic acid.
C. x is pentan-1-ol and Y is pentanoic acid
D. X is 2-methylbutan-2-ol and Y is 2-methylbutanoic acid.
58. Conjugate acid-base pairs:
Below are some conjugate acid-base pairs. Which is the correct pair?
A. HS-/S2-
B. H2N-CH2-COO-/H3N-CH2-COO-
C. H3PO4/PO43-
D. H3PO4/HPO42-
E.+H3N-CH2-COO-/H2N-CH2-COOH
59. Acid-base reactions: Which of the following acid-base reactions below is correct?
A. H3O+ + HCO3-→ CO32- + 2H2O
B. H3O+ + HPO32- → H2PO4 + H2O
C.H3O+ + H6C4O4 → H5C4O4 +H2O
D. HClO2 + H2O → ClO2 + H3O+
60. Which substance is represented by the structure (HO)3P=O?
A. Acetic acid
B. Formic acid
C. Phosphoric acid
D. Aceto-acetic acid
E. acetone
61 What volume of alcohol (density 0.80g/mL) is needed to obtain 320g of alcohol?
(FMBS 2009)
A. 256mL
B. 125mL
C. 320mL
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D. 400mL
E. 200mL
62. What volume of 1.5M HCl is needed to neutralize 90mL of 0.5M NaOH?
A.12.0mL
B. 30.0mL
C. 33.8mL
D. 45.0mL
E. 15.0mL
63. What is the name of the saturated monoalcohol having four carbon atoms whose
oxidation with excess oxidant yields a carboxylic acid? Given that the alcohol is not a
straight chain
A. Butan-1-ol
B. Butan-2-ol
C.2-methylpropan-2-ol
D. 2-methylpropan-1-ol
E. 2-methylbutan-1-ol
64. Artesunate is one of the components of a combination used for the treatment of
malaria. Its structure is as follows:
A molecule of artesunate contains:

A. Eight asymmetric carbon atoms.
B. Seven asymmetric carbon atoms
C. Six asymmetric
carbon atoms
D. Five asymmetric carbon atoms E. Four asymmetricc
65. Arrange the following amines in order of increasing basic strength.
1) CH3NH2 2) CH3NHCH3 3) NH3.
A. 3, 1and 2
B. 3, 2 and 1
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1, 3 and 2
E. None of the above.
66. How many capsules of tetracycline 100 can be made from 1kg of tetracycline?
A. 1.000
B. 10.000
C. 100.000
D. 1.000.000
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67. if 111.7g of iron react with oxygen gas to produce
iron (III) oxide, how many moles of oxygen gas will
be used? Fe (56); O (16)
A. 0.67moles
B. 1.50moles
C. 2.66moles
D. 6.00moles
E. 2.16moles
68. The chlorination of 2 litres of methane in the presence of sun light requires 8 litres of
chlorine under the same conditions of temperature and pressure. What is the formula of
the organic compound obtained during this reaction?
A. CH4
B. CH3Cl
C. CH2Cl2
D. CHCl3
E. CCl4
69. The ionisation energy of an atom is:
A. The number of electrons on the outer most shell of the atom
B. The ease with which an atom can loss an electron
C. The ease with which atoms can combine to form molecules
D. The charge on the nucleus
70. Given that h = 6.62 x 10– 34 J.s, c = 3 x 108ms– 1 , E= 13.6eV and 1eV = 1.6 x 10–19J, the
wavelength of a photon emitted by a transition from n = 3 to n = 1 in hydrogen atom is:
A. 122nm
B. 1.03 x 10– 7m
C. 657nm
D. 10.3 x10– 7 m
E. 487nm
71. A reaction of basic hydrolysis is also known as saponification. Calculate the mass of
sodium hydroxide necessary for the saponification of 100Kg of propyl ethanoate.
A) 35.2Kg
B) 36.2Kg
C) 37.2Kg
D) 38.2Kg
E) 39.2Kg
72. 10ml of 0. 01mol.L– 1 sulphuric acid solution is titrated with 0. 01mol.L– 1 sodium
hydroxide solution. Given that the neutralisation equation is H+(aq)+ HO– →H2O. What
is the volume of the sodium hydroxide used?
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A. 5ml
B. 10ml
C. 15ml
D. 20ml
E. 25ml
73. The acidic constant for the system benzoic acid/benzoate ion is 6.3 x 10-5. Calculate
the pH of the resulting solution when 10cm3 of 0.16 mol/L benzoic acid is mixed with
8cm3of 0.1 mol/L of sodium hydroxide solution.
A. 9.3
B. 7.5
C. 6.3
D. 4.2
E. 3.2
74. The molecular weight of H2SO4 is 98. A 2N solution of H2SO4 contains
A) 49g in 1000ml
B) 98g in 1000ml
C) 196g in 1000ml
D) 49g in 100ml
E) None of the above
75. How many isomers have the formula C6H4(COOH)2?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
PHYSICS
Instructions: Choose The Best Answer

A ball of mass 250g falls freely from rest at a height of 20 m, at a place where g = 10ms-2.
(for questions 76 and 77)
76. The distance travelled in the last second of its fall is:
A. 5m
B.10m
C. 15m
D. 1m
77. The kinetic energy of the ball on reaching the floor is:
A. 50J
B. 500J
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C. 0J
D. 25J
78. Three capacitors of capacitances 1μF, 2μF, and 4μF respectively are connected in
series. The capacitance of the system is:
A. 7.00μF
B. 1.75μF
C. 0.57μF
D. 6.00μF
E. 1.54μF
79. An indefinitely long linear conductor in which a current flow will give rise to a
magnetic induction at a distance r from the conductor given by:
A. B = μ0I/4πr
B. The direction of b cannot be determined by the “3 finger rule”
C. B = μ02I/4πr
D. B = μ0I/4π2r
E. The direction of B is along the radius of a circle centred on the conductor
The following information concerns questions 79 to 81. A capacitor is made by putting
equally spaced metallic plates together. The capacitance between two plates is 10pF.
You want to obtain a capacitance of 40μF.
79. How can the elementary capacitors be connected?
A. 4 capacitors in series
B. 4 capacitors in parallel
C. 8 capacitors in series
D. 8 capacitors in parallel
E. 16 capacitors in series
80. Practically, we can overlap the plates. At least how many plates can be used?
A. 8
B. 7
C. 6
D. 5
E. 4
81. We displace the even numbered plates in such a way that the opposite surfaces are
divided by 2. What will be the new capacitance, with respect to the old, of the capacitor
C that we have made?
A. It will be multiplied by 4
B. It will be divided by 4
C. It will be multiplied by 8
D. It will be divided by 8
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E. It will be divided by 2.
82. Lead is always used for protection against strong radiations. (X-rays, γ rays, ...). The
intensity of the X-ray beam is reduced by a factor of 10 when it goes across lead of
thickness 1 cm. A beam of X-rays of intensity 10 crosses a lead plate of thickness 6cm.
Its intensity when emerging from the lead plate is:
A. I0/6
B. I0/60
C. I0/106
D. I0/610
83. A beam of UV radiation of frequency 8x105MHz is focused on a caesium photo
emissive cell. The threshold frequency for Caesium is 6.67x105GHz. The following
physical constants are given: h= 6.62x10-34Js and mass of an electron is 9.11x1031kg. The
maximum speed of emergence from the cathode is:
A.1.93x105m/s
B. 4.40x105m/s
C. 5.93x105m/s
D. 3.39x105m/s
84. The activity of an iodine laboratory sample is 1.85x108Bq at the time of forwarding.
On arrival the value of the activity is 1.55x108Bq. Knowing that its half-life is 8.04 days,
what was the time lapse at delivery?
A. 2.05 days
B. 0.80 days
C. 0.02 days
D. 6.0x103 days
E. 2.15 days
85. X-rays and γ rays are radiations used in:
A. Archaeology
B. Medicine
C. Isotopic tracing
D. Thickness control
E. All the above
86. A vehicle of mass 4tons moves along a horizontal road with a linear speed of 36kms-1.
The driver accelerates and the speed increases by ¼of the initial value. The kinetic
energy of the vehicle is:
A. 312.5kJ
B. 4.05MJ
C. 12.5kJ
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D. 25kJ
E. none of the above is correct
87. Light has:
A. only wave character
B. only corpuscular character
C. both wave and corpuscular character
D. neither wave nor corpuscular character
E. none of the above
88. Two electric charges having values 10-5C and 2 x 10-5 respectively exert between them
a force of intensity 0.2 x 104N. Given K = 9 x 109USI. The distance separating the two
charges is:
A. 3.1cm
B. 17.2cm
C. 3.0cm
D. 8.9cm
E. 0.09cm
89. The unit for measuring magnetic field intensity is:
A. The Weber
B. The Henry
C. The Volt
D. The Tesla
E. The Watt
90. A rechargeable cell is:
A. Generator only
B. Receptor only
C. Accumulator
D. A, B and C are correct
E. A, B and C are wrong
91. What is the electrical energy consumed by a resistor of resistance 10Ωwhen a current
of 2A flows through it in 45 min?
A. 1.08 x 104J
B. 1.08 x 105J
C. 3.6kJ
D. 1800J
E. 5.40 x 104J
92. A ray of light from air arrives the surface of a tank filled with water of refractive index
1.33 making an angle of incidence of 60° with the water surface. The angle of refraction
in water is:
A. 29°
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B. 40°
C. 27°
D. 22°
E. 180°
93. What is the refractive index of a prism of angle A = 30° which imposes a minimum
deviation of 16°on the light ray?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 1.5
D. √2
E. √3
94. An ideal gas goes from initial state (V1= 5L, T1= 300K, P1= 1 atm) to a final state (V2,
T2= 600K, P2= 1.5 atm). What is the value of V2?
A.6.67L
B. 7.5L
C. 2.5L
D. 10L
E. 13.34L
95. From a fixed object A, a convergent lens gives an image of the same size on a screen
placed 2 meters from it. To obtain an image 5 times larger on a mobile screen, one
needs to;
A. Place the lens farther away from the object (translation of 20 cm)
B. Place the lens 40 cm away from the object (translation of 20 cm)
C. Place the lens closer to the object (translation of 20 cm)
D. Place the lens closer to the object (translation of 40 cm)
E. Place the lens 20 cm away from the object
96. Two billiard balls, B1and B2collide elastically. The velocity of B2 after the collision
will be: Given: mass of B1= 500g, velocity before the collision = 2 m.s-1; Mass of B2=
800g, velocity before the collision = 1 m.s-1
A. 43 ms-1
B. 1.3 ms-1
C. 3.67 ms-1
D. 5.67 ms-1
E. 36.7 ms-1
97. A lens has a flat face and spherical and convex face. The index of glass is 1.5 and the
radius of the curve of the convex face is 50 cm. The focal length of this lens will be:
A. 25 cm
B. 1 m
C. 2 m
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D. 50 cm
E. 75 cm
Questions 98 to 100
A study is carried out on a drop off water which is assumed to be spherical while in the
air. Given: Density of air: ρa = 1.3kgm-3; Density of water: ρe= 1.0 x 103kgm-3; coefficient
of viscosity of air: η= 1.8 x 10-5kgs-1m-1; coefficient of fluid friction for a sphere of radius R,
which is moving in the air: f =6πηR; radius of the spherical drop: R = 0.50mm; g = 9.8ms-
2
98. Calculate the mass of the drop.

A. 5.20 x 10-14kg
B. 5.20 x 107kg
C. 3.49 x 107kg
D. 15.16 x 10-7kg
E. 5.20 x 10-7kg
99. Calculate the weight of the drop.
A. 5.10 x 10-6N
B. 10.2 x 10-7N
C. 5.20 x 108N
D. 1.52 x 10-5N
E. 1.52 x 105N
100. Calculate the value of the upthrust exerted by air on the drop of water.
A. 1.34 x 10-6N
B. 1.34 x 10-18N
C. 6.70 x 10-9N
D. 2.20 x 10-9N
E. 6.20 x 10N
101. The frictional force exerted by air on the drop is expressed as F = -fv. Calculate the
value of this force for v = 10ms-1
A. 3.4 x 10-6N
B. 3.0 x 10-6N
C. 3.0 x 10-5N
D. 1.7 x 10-6N
E. 1.7 x 10-5N
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Instruction: choose the correct answer:
102. Which of the following diseases is not managed by a national control program in
Cameroon?
A. tuberculosis
B. vaccine preventable diseases
Legend Beginning
C. HIV/AIDS
D. malaria
E. diabetes
103. Food borne illnesses have been a recurrent problem in your community over the
years. What should the health department registered sanitarian pay particular attention
to among the following during his inspection?
A. unhygienic food handling methods
B. improper storage of rodenticides
C. inadequate cooking
D. the use of unlabelled products
E. use of old utensils
104. Plasmodium spp is:
A. an accidental parasite
B. an erratic parasite
C. an obligate parasite
D. a facultative parasite
E. all of above
105. Which of these is a functional unit of the health care delivery system (HCDS) in
Cameroon?
A. Schools
B. Churches
C. Departments
D. Health centre
E. College
106. Which of these vaccines protects against poliomyelitis?
A. BCG
B. polio vaccine
C. diphtheria
D. small pox
E. immunoglobulins
107. Which human activity could reduce the spread of cholera?
A. hand washing
B. drinking well bottled water
C. killing of infected persons
D. washing vegetables with camel water
E. burning dead cholera victims
108. Which of the following represent a passive mechanism by which bacteria can
penetrate a host?
A. attacking the hosts intestinal linings
Legend Beginning
B. degrading carbohydrate protein complexes
C. disrupting the cell surface
D. tissue damage caused by other organisms
E. all of the above
109. Which of the following is used to preserve food by slowing down the metabolic
processes of food borne microbes?
A. freezing
B. lyophilisation
C. non ionizing radiation
D. pasteurization
E. sterilization
110. The best method for sterilizing milk is by:
A. deep freezing
B. pasteurization
C. autoclaving
D. refrigeration
111. Most antibiotics are isolated from:
A. viruses
B. microorganisms
C. organs and tissues of some animals
D. plants
E. soil
112. The use of immunoglobulins remains the best means of:
A. passive prophylaxis
B. active prophylaxis
C. treatment of diseases
D. all of the above
113. What is the name of the protein found in the viral envelop?
A. sockes
B. capsid
C. capsomere
D. globular protein
114. Which of the following diseases is not preventable by vaccination?
A. measles
B. whooping cough
C. poliomyelitis
Legend Beginning
D. syphilis
E. tuberculosis
115. In statistics (biostatistics), the measure of dispersion of data obtained for a variable
is:
A. mode
B. mean
C. median
D. range
E. standard deviation
116. The best indicator of the central value when one or more of the lowest or highest
observation are wide apart or not evenly distributed is called:
A. mode
B. mean
C. median
D. range
117. The most frequently occurring observation in a series is the:
A. mode
B. mean
C. median
D. range
118. When was the last time the Cameroon national football team participated in the
world cup?
A. 2014
B. 2010
C. 2006
D. 2002
E. 2017
119. Who is the minister of higher education in Cameroon?
A. Jack Fame
B. Marafa Amidou
C. Andre Mama Fouda
D. Luis Bapers
120. The celebration of the 50th anniversary of the reunification of Cameroon took place
in which town?
A. yaounde
B. douala
Legend Beginning
C. bamenda
D. bafoussam
E. buea
121. Which is the main cash crop grown in the northern regions of Cameroon?
A. cocoa
B. coffee
C. cotton
D. rubber
E. beans
122. The seat of the African union (former OAU) is found in which country?
A. Kenya
B. Cameroon
C. Ethiopia
D. south Africa
E. gabon
22. The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) was discovered in which year?
A. 1983
B. 1984
C. 1985
D. 1986
E. 1987
124. The man who discovered the causative agent of tuberculosis is called:
A. alexander fleming
B. Robert kock
C. Louis Pasteur
D. john snow
E. none
125. Ebola fever was an epidemic in the following west African countries except in:
A. guinea Conakry
B. sierra leone
C. Liberia
D. Nigeria
E. ghana
126. A new hydro electric damp is currently under construction in Cameroon in which
town is it being constructed?
A. Betoua
B. douala
C. kribi
D. Ebolowa
Legend Beginning
E. LongBanga
127. Which Microsoft office program is commonly used for data collection?
A. Microsoft office word
B. Microsoft office power point
C. Microsoft office outlook
D. Microsoft office publisher
E. Microsoft office excel
128. Which of the following countries does not belong to the central African economic
commission (CEMAC)?
A. Cameroon
B. Rwanda
C. chad
D. central African republic
E. equatorial guinea
129. Climate change with global warming is attributed mostly to which of the following?
A. oxygen depletion
B. nitrogen depletion
C. ozone layer depletion
D. deforestation
E. carbondioxide depletion
130. Which organisation was banned by the Cameroon government in yaounde for
exploiting the population?
A. MILDA
B. MADA
C. MIDA
D. MEDA
E. MIDER
131. What is the number of senators in the Cameroon senate?
A. 80
B. 90
C. 100
D. 110
E. 120
132. What is the number of members of parliament in the Cameroon national assembly?
A. 180
B. 170
C. 160
D. 150
E. 200
Legend Beginning
133. The next edition of the AFCON will be organise by which country?
A. Burkina faso
B. Cameroon
C. ivory coast
D. mali
E. Morocco
LANGUGE
Instructions: les chiffres dans le passage suivant correspondent aux mots qui manquent.
Completez le passage en choisissant les mots justes dans les listes proposées.
Le scanner est un appareil récent…..134….. on doit l’invention au professeur
Hounsfield. Il permet de réaliser un examen…..135….. le médecin a prescrit et
…..136….. on ne doit pas avoir peur car il n’est douloureux. C’est un examen …..137…..
utilise les rayons X émise par un arceau rotatif …..138….. glisse le lit d’examen
…..139….. est allongé le patient. Il donne des images en coupe du corps humaine
…..140….. on peut diagnostiquer des pathologies abdominales, neurologiques,
thoraciques, orthopédique.
134. A. dont B. que C. qui D. où E. donc
135. A. dont B. que C. auquel D. qui E. lequel
136. A. auquel B. a laquelle C. que D. dont
E. qui
137. A. où B. que C. qui D. don’t E. auquel
138. A. dans lequel B. auquel C. a laquelle
D. duquel E. qui
139. A. que B. auquel C. qui D. sur lequel
E. dont
140. A. grâce auxquelles B. grâce auquel
C. grâce a la quelle D. grâce auxquels
E. qui
Instructions : pour chaque phrase ci-dessous, choisissez le mot manquant parmi les
options proposées.
141. Cet homme est originaire………. Mozambique
A. du
B. de la
C. de
D le
E. en
142. Ils regardent………. bon film a l’écran
A. de
Legend Beginning
B. une
C. un
D. des
E. du
143. Le martin, elle____ acheter des choses au marché
A. ailles
B. ira
C. irai
D. vas
E. allait
144_________oiseaux attrapent les poules et les poussins
A. Quel
B. Quelles
C. Quels
D. Quelle
E. Qu’elle
145. L’amie de ma sœur étudie dans ………. ville européene
A. un
B. une
C. des
D. les
E. de
146 .………. Mauritanie est un pays d’Afrique du nord
A. la
B. le
C. du
D. les
E. de
147. ………. Cambodge est un beau pays ?
A. la
B. le
C. du
D. les
E. de
148. Vous………. la vaisselle avant de sortir
A. finis
B. finissons
C. finissez
D. finissent
Legend Beginning
E. finirez
149. Ton frère et toi ………. trop lentement
A. marchons
B. marchent
C. marches
D. marches
E. marcherez
150. Je ………. à la fac tous les jours
A. ne vas plus
B. ne va pas
C. ne vais pas
D. n’ allons plus
E. n’ allez jamais
151. C’est vous qui ………. étudiant en faculté des sciences de la santé
A. était
B. été
C. est
D. sommes
E. êtes
GOOD LUCK !!!!!!!
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