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94

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CRIMINAL JURISPRUDENCE,
PROCEDURE & EVIDENCE
*** CRIMINAL LAW BOOK ONE
1. The Revised Penal Code shall be applied even outside the Philippines in which
of these cases?
a. Should commit an offense while on a Philippine ship or airship
b. Should forge or counterfeit any coin or currency note of the Philippine
Islands or obligations and securities issued by the Government of the
Philippine Islands;
c. Should be liable for acts connected with the introduction into these islands
of the obligations and securities mentioned in the presiding number;
d. While being public officers or employees, should commit an offense in the
exercise of their functions;
e. Should commit any of the crimes against national security and the law of
nations, defined in Title One of Book Two of this Code.
f. All of these
2. Acts and omissions punishable by law are:
a. felonies b. crimes c. offense d. infractions
3. Felonies are committed not only be means of deceit (dolo) but also by means of:
a. Fault/culpa b. malice
4. There is deceit when the act is performed with deliberate intent and there is fault
when the wrongful act results from imprudence, negligence, lack of foresight,
or
a. lack of skill b. Lack of diligence
5. This is committed by any person performing an act which would be an offense
against persons or property, were it not for the inherent impossibility of its
accomplishment or an account of the employment of inadequate or ineffectual
means.
a. impossible crimes b. Indeterminate offense
6. Whenever a court has knowledge of any act which it may deem proper to repress
and which is not punishable by law, it shall render the proper decision, and
shall report to the Chief Executive, through the _______, the reasons which
induce the court to believe that said act should be made the subject of
legislation.
a. Supreme Court b. Department of Justice
7. If the judge feels that the penalty imposed by the law is excessive, he/court shall
submit to the Chief Executive, through the Department of Justice, such
statement as may be deemed proper, without suspending the execution of the

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sentence, when a strict enforcement of the provisions of this Code would result
in the imposition of a clearly excessive penalty, taking into consideration which
of these?
a. the degree of malice
b. the injury caused by the offense
c. Both of these
8. A felony is _______ when all the elements necessary for its execution and
accomplishment are present.
a. Consummated b. Frustrated
9. A felony is _________ when the offender performs all the acts of execution which
would produce the felony as a consequence but which, nevertheless, do not
produce it by reason of causes independent of the will of the perpetrator.
a. consummated b. frustrated
10. The felony is ______ when the offender commences the commission of a felony
directly or over acts, and does not perform all the acts of execution which should
produce the felony by reason of some cause or accident other than this own
spontaneous desistance.
a. frustrated b. attempted
11. Light felonies are punishable only when they have been consummated, with
the exception of those committed against:
a. person b. Property c. Both of these
12. Conspiracy and proposal to commit felony are punishable only in the cases in
which the law specially provides a penalty therefor. The statement is:
a. true b. False
13. This _______ exists when two or more persons come to an agreement concerning
the commission of a felony and decide to commit it.
a. conspiracy b. proposal
14. This takes place when the person who has decided to commit a felony proposes
its execution to some other person or persons.
a. conspiracy b. proposal
15. _________ are those to which the law attaches the capital punishment or
penalties which in any of their periods are afflictive.
a. grave felonies b. Less grave felonies
16. _______ are those which the law punishes with penalties which in their
maximum period are correctional.
a. grave felonies b. Less grave felonies
17. These are those infractions of law for the commission of which a penalty of
arresto menor or a fine not exceeding 200 pesos or both is provided.
a. grave felonies b. Light felonies
18. Offenses which are or in the future may be punishable special laws are not
subject to the provisions of the Revised Penal Code. The statement is:
a. true b. False
19. The Revised Penal Code shall be supplementary to _______, unless the latter
should specially provide the contrary.
a. constitution b. Special laws

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20. Which of these is requisite of self defense?

a. Unlawful aggression.
b. Reasonable necessity of the means employed to prevent or repel it.
c. Lack of sufficient provocation on the part of the person defending himself.
d. all of these
21. Which of these is requisite of defense of relatives only?
a. unlawful aggression
b. reasonable necessity of the means employed to prevent or repel it
c. in case the revocation was given by the person attacked, that the one
making defense had no part therein
d. all of the above
22. Which of these is requisite of defense of strangers only?
a. unlawful aggression
b. reasonable necessity of the means employed to prevent or repel it
c. the person defending be not induced by revenge, resentment, or other evil
motive
d. all of the above
23. Which of these is requisite of avoidance of greater evil?
a. That the evil sought to be avoided actually exists;
b. That the injury feared be greater than that done to avoid it
c. That there be no other practical and less harmful means of preventing it.
d. All of these
24. An imbecile or an insane person is exempted from criminal liability, unless the
latter has acted during:
a. a sleep b. Lucid interval
25. Surrender to be mitigating must be made to which of these?
a. person in authority b. Agent of a person in authority
c. All of these
26. The voluntary confession of guilt must be made:
a. prior to the presentation of evidence for prosecution
b. after the presentation of evidence for the prosecution
27. Which is a condition before being deaf and dumb, blind or otherwise suffering
some physical defect may be considered mitigating?
a. they must restrict the offenders means of action, defense, or
communications with his fellow beings
b. they must be so grave in nature and certified by a government physician
28. Night time, uninhabited place, or by a band, are aggravating if:
a. whenever such circumstances may facilitate the commission of the offense
b. whenever specially sought for by the offender to insure or afford impunity
c. all of these
29. Whenever more than three armed malefactors shall have acted together in the
commission of an offense, it shall be deemed to have been committed by a
_____.
a. brigands b. band

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30. He is one who, at the time of his trial for one crime, shall have been previously
convicted by final judgment of another crime embraced in the same title of the
Revised Penal Code.
a. Quasi recidivist b. recidivist
31. The aggravating circumstance where the offender has been previously
punished by an offense to which the law attaches an equal or greater penalty
or for two or more crimes to which it attaches a lighter penalty.
a. recidivist b. Reiteration/habituality
32. There is _________ when the offender commits any of the crimes against the
person, employing means, methods, or forms in the execution thereof which
tend directly and specially to insure its execution, without risk to himself
arising from the defense which the offended party might make.
a. treachery b. alevosia c. cuadrilla d. Some of these
33. This aggravating circumstance states that the wrong done in the commission
of the crime be deliberately augmented by causing other wrong not necessary
for its commissions.
a. ignominy b. cruelty
34. These are those which must be taken into consideration as aggravating or
mitigating according to the nature and effects of the crime and the other
conditions attending its commission.
a. aggravating circumstances b. Alternative circumstances
35. Which of these is alternative circumstance?
a. relationship b. intoxication
c. degree of instruction and education of the offender d. all of these
36. The alternative circumstance of relationship shall be taken into consideration
when the offended party is which of the following?
a. the spouse, ascendant, descendant, legitimate, natural, or adopted
brother or sister, or relative by affinity in the same degrees of the offender.
b. Brothers, sisters, nephew, niece cousin of the offender.
37. The intoxication of the offender shall be taken into consideration as a _______
circumstances when the offender has committed a felony in a state of
intoxication, if the same is not habitual or subsequent to the plan to commit
said felony.
a. mitigating b. Aggravating
38. Intoxication shall be aggravating if:
a. habitual b. Intentional c. both a and b d. accidental
39. Which of these is criminally liable for grave and less grave felonies?
a. principal
b. accomplices
c. accessories
d. all of these
40. Which of these is criminally liable for light felonies?
a. principal d. only a and b
b. Accomplices e. Principal only
c. accessories

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41.Those who directly force or induce others to commit it is a principal by what?

a. direct participation b. Inducement/induction
42. Those who cooperate in the commission of the offense by another act without
which it would not have been accomplished, is what type of principal?
a. direct participation b. Indispensable cooperation
43. These are persons who, not principals, cooperate in the execution of the offense
by previous or simultaneous acts.
a. accomplices b. accessories
44. They are those who, having knowledge of the commission of the crime, and
without having participated therein, either as principals or accomplices, take
part subsequent to its commission.
a. principal b. Accomplices c. accessories
45. Which of these is an act of an accessory?
a. By profiting themselves or assisting the offender to profit by the effects of
the crime.
b. By concealing or destroying the body of the crime, or the effects or
instruments thereof, in order to prevent its discovery.
d. By harboring, concealing, or assisting in the escape of the principals of the
crime, provided the accessory acts with abuse of his public functions or
whenever the author of the crime is guilty of treason, parricide, murder,
or an attempt to take the life of the Chief Executive, or is known to be
habitually guilty of some other crime.
e. All of these
46. Which of these relatives is an accessory but exempted however from criminal
liability?
a. spouses, ascendants, descendants, legitimate, natural, and adopted
brothers and sisters, or relatives by affinity within the same degrees
b. Cousins, nephews, nieces, uncles and aunties.
47. No felony shall be punishable by any penalty not prescribed by law prior to its
commission. The statement is:
a. true b. false
48. Penal Laws shall have a retroactive effect insofar as they favor the persons
guilty of a felony, who is not a what?
a. recidivist b. Habitual criminal
49. Which of these is effect of pardon by the offended party?
a. A pardon of the offended party does not extinguish criminal action
b. Civil liability with regard to the interest of the injured party is extinguished
by his express waiver.
c. All of these
50. A fine, shall be considered an afflictive penalty, if it exceeds 6,000 pesos; a

correctional penalty, if it does not exceed 6,000 pesos but is not less than
200 pesos; and a light penalty if it less than 200 pesos. The statement is:
a. true b. false

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51. Any person sentenced to any of the perpetual penalties shall be pardoned after
undergoing the penalty for _______, unless such person by reason of his
conduct or some other serious cause shall be considered by the Chief Executive
as unworthy of pardon.
a. 30 years b. 40 years
52. The penalty of ______ shall be from twelve years and one day to twenty years.
a. reclusion temporal b. Prison mayor
53. The duration of the penalty of _______ shall be from one day to thirty days.
a. arresto mayor b. Arresto menor
54. Offenders who have undergone preventive imprisonment shall be credited in

the service of their sentence consisting of deprivation of liberty, with the ______
during which they have undergone preventive imprisonment, if the detention
prisoner agrees voluntarily in writing to abide by the same disciplinary rules
imposed upon convicted prisoners.
a. full time b. 4/5
55. Which of these is not entitled to credit of full time of preventive imprisonment?
a. recidivists or have been convicted previously twice or more times of any
crime
b. Persons upon being summoned for the execution of their sentence they have
failed to surrender voluntarily
c. all of these
56. In case the maximum penalty to which the accused may be sentenced is
destierro, he shall be released after how many days of preventive
imprisonment?
a. 30 days b 40 days
57. This penalty shall deprive the offender during the time of his sentence of the
rights of parental authority, or guardianship, either as to the person or
property of any ward, of marital authority, of the right to manage his property
and of the right to dispose of such property by any act or any conveyance inter
vivos.
a. civil interdiction b. Bond to keep the peace
58. It shall be the duty of any person sentenced to this penalty, to present two
sufficient sureties who shall undertake that such person will not commit the
offense sought to be prevented, and that in case such offense be committed
they will pay the amount determined by the court in the judgment, or otherwise
to deposit such amount in the office of the clerk of the court to guarantee said
undertaking. Penalty for this is either 6 months or 30 days.
a. bond to keep the peace b. Bond for good behavior

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59. Which of this is effect of presidential pardon?

a. A pardon shall not work the restoration of the right to hold public office
b. Pardon shall not restore the right of suffrage, unless such rights be expressly
restored by the terms of the pardon.
c. A pardon shall in no case exempt the culprit from the payment of the civil
indemnity
d. All of these
60. Which of these is pecuniary liability of the offender?

a. The reparation of the damage caused.
b. Indemnification of consequential damages.
c. The fine.
d. The cost of the proceedings
e. All of these
61. If the convict has no property with which to meet the fine, he shall be subject
to a subsidiary personal liability at the rate of one day for each eight pesos (or
P481). This is:
a. subsidiary penalty/imprisonment b. Criminal liability
62. Every penalty imposed for the commission of a felony shall carry with it the
forfeiture of the proceeds of the crime and the instruments or tools with which
it was committed. The statement is:
a. true b. false
63. The proceeds and instruments or tools shall be confiscated and forfeited in
favor of the Government, unless they be property of a third person not liable
for the offense, but those articles which are not subject of lawful commerce
shall be destroyed. The statement is:
a. true b. false
64. The penalty prescribed by law for the commission of a felony shall be imposed
upon the accessory in the commission of such felony. The statement is:
a. true b. false
65. Whenever the law prescribes a penalty for a felony is general terms, it shall be
understood as applicable to the attempted felony. The statement is:
a. correct b. incorrect
66. When a single act constitutes two or more grave or less grave felonies, or when
an offense is a necessary means for committing the other, the penalty for the
most serious crime shall be imposed, the same to be applied in its maximum
period.
a. complex crime b. continuing crime

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67. Aggravating circumstances which in themselves constitute a crime specially

punishable by law or which are included by the law in defining a crime and
prescribing the penalty therefor shall not be taken into account for the purpose
of increasing the penalty. The statement is:
a. true b. False
68. There is no increase in the penalty with respect to any aggravating

circumstance inherent in the crime to such a degree that it must of necessity
accompany the commission thereof. This statement is:
a. true b. false
69. Aggravating or mitigating circumstances which arise from the moral attributes
of the offender, or from his private relations with the offended party, or from
any other personal cause, shall only serve to aggravate or mitigate the liability
of the principals, accomplices and accessories as to whom such circumstances
are attendant. The statement is:
a. true b. false
70. The circumstances which consist in the material execution of the act, or in the
means employed to accomplish it, shall serve to aggravate or mitigate the
liability of those persons only who had knowledge of them at the time of the
execution of the act or their cooperation therein. The statement is:
a. true b. false
71. He is a person who within a period of ten years from the date of his release or
last conviction of the crimes of serious or less serious physical injuries, robo,
hurto, estafa or falsification, he is found guilty of any of said crimes a third
time or oftener.
a. recidivist b. Habitual delinquent
72. A habitual delinquent may not be obliged to serve an additional penalty for
more than _______.
73: Which of these is a rule regarding computation of penalty of indivisible

penalties?
a. When in the commission of the deed there is present only one aggravating
circumstance, the greater penalty shall be applied.
b. When there are neither mitigating nor aggravating circumstances and
there is no aggravating circumstance, the lesser penalty shall be applied.
c. When the commission of the act is attended by some mitigating
circumstances and there is no aggravating circumstance, the lesser
penalty shall be applied.

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d. When both mitigating and aggravating circumstances attended the

commission of the act, the court shall reasonably allow them to offset one
another in consideration of their number and importance.
e. All of these
74. Which of these is a rule to be followed in the application of penalties which

contain three periods?
a. When there are neither aggravating nor mitigating circumstances, they
shall impose the penalty prescribed by law in its medium period.
b. When only a mitigating circumstances is present in the commission of the
act, they shall impose the penalty in its minimum period.
c. When an aggravating circumstance is present in the commission of the act,
they shall impose the penalty in its maximum period.
d. When both mitigating and aggravating circumstances are present, the court
shall reasonably offset those of one class against the other according to
their relative weight.
e. When there are two or more mitigating circumstances and no aggravating
circumstances are present, the court shall impose the penalty next lower
to that prescribed by law, in the period that it may deem applicable,
according to the number and nature of such circumstances.
f. All of these
75. Upon a person over fifteen and under eighteen years of age who have acted
with discernment the penalty next lower than that prescribed by law shall be
imposed, but always in the proper period. The statement is:
a. true b. false
76. A penalty lower by one or two degrees than that prescribed by law shall be
imposed if the deed is not wholly excusable by reason of the lack of some of
the conditions required to justify the same or to exempt from criminal liability
in the several cases mentioned in Article 11 and 12, provided that the majority
of such conditions be present. The courts shall impose the penalty in the period
which may be deemed proper, in view of the number and nature of the
conditions of exemption present or lacking. This statement is:
a. true b. false
77. When the culprit has to serve two or more penalties, he shall serve them
simultaneously if the nature of the penalties will so permit. The statement is:
a. true b. false
78. In the imposition of the penalties, the order of their respective severity shall be
followed so that they may be executed successively or as nearly as may be
possible, should a pardon have been granted as to the penalty or penalties first
imposed, or should they have been served out. This is the rule on:
a. simultaneous service of sentence b. Successive service of sentence

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79. The maximum duration of the convict's sentence shall not be more than three-
fold the length of time corresponding to the most severe of the penalties
imposed upon him. No other penalty to which he may be liable shall be inflicted
after the sum total of those imposed equals the same maximum period. This is
the:
a. three fold rule on the service of sentence
b. Successive rule on service of sentence
80. In applying the three fold rule, the maximum duration or period shall in no
case exceed how many years?
81. A penalty composed of three distinct penalties, each one shall form a period;
the lightest of them shall be the minimum the next the medium, and the most
severe the maximum period.
a. complex crimes b. Complex penalties
82. When a convict shall become insane or an imbecile after final sentence has
been pronounced, the execution of said sentence shall be ______ only with
regard to the personal penalty.
a. Suspended b. Continued
83. Any person sentenced to ________ shall not be permitted to enter the place or
places designated in the sentence, nor within the radius therein specified,
which shall be not more than 250 and not less than 25 kilometers from the
place designated.
a. destierro b. Civil interdiction
84. The penalty of ________ shall be served in the municipal jail, or in the house of
the defendant himself under the surveillance of an officer of the law, when the
court so provides in its decision, taking into consideration the health of the
offender and other reasons which may seem satisfactory to it.
a. arresto menor b. Arresto mayor c. both a and b
85. The civil liability of the accused who died is extinguished if:
a. his death occurs before final judgment
b. his death occurs after final judgment
86. Which of these is a total mode of extinguishment of criminal liability?

a. Death of the convict
b. By service of the sentence
c. By amnesty, which completely extinguishes the penalty and all its effects
d. By absolute pardon
e. By prescription of the crime
f. By prescription of the penalty
g. By the marriage of the offended woman in certain crimes

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h. By pardon by offended party

i. All of these except “h”
87. Crimes punishable by death, reclusion perpetua or reclusion temporal shall

prescribe in twenty years.
Crimes punishable by other afflictive penalties shall prescribe in fifteen years.
Those punishable by a correctional penalty shall prescribe in ten years; with
the exception of those punishable by arresto mayor, which shall prescribe in
five years.
The crime of libel or other similar offenses shall prescribe in one year.
The crime of oral defamation and slander by deed shall prescribe in six months.
Light offenses prescribe in two months.
These statements are all:
a. True b. False
88. The period of prescription shall commence to run from the day on which the
crime is discovered by the offended party, the authorities, or their agents, and
shall be interrupted by the filing of the complaint or information, and shall
commence to run again when such proceedings terminate without the accused
being convicted or acquitted, or are unjustifiably stopped for any reason not
imputable to him. The statement is:
a. true b. false
89. The term of prescription of crime shall not run when the offender is absent
from the Philippine Archipelago. The statement is:
a. true b. false
90. The penalties imposed by final sentence or prescription of crime shall be as
follows:
1. Death and reclusion perpetua, in twenty years;
2. Other afflictive penalties, in fifteen years;
3. Correctional penalties, in ten years; with the exception of the penalty
of arresto mayor, which prescribes in five years;
4. Light penalties, in one year.
These statements are:
a. True b. False
91. The period of prescription of penalties shall commence to run from the date
when the culprit should evade the service of his sentence, and it shall be
interrupted if the defendant should give himself up, be captured, should go to
some foreign country with which this Government has no extradition treaty,
or should commit another crime before the expiration of the period of
prescription. The statement is:
a. true b. false
92. Criminal liability is extinguished partially:

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a. By conditional pardon;
b. By commutation of the sentence; and
c. For good conduct allowances which the culprit may earn while he is serving
his sentence.
d. All of these
93. What is the effect of the convict’s non-compliance with any of the conditions of
the conditional pardon?
a. it shall result in the revocation of the pardon
b. Article 159 shall be applied to him.
c. He will be sentenced to destierro
d. Some of these
94. The ___________ of the original sentence for another of a different length and
nature shall have the legal effect of substituting the latter in the place of the
former.
a. reprieve b. commutation
95. The good conduct of any prisoner in any penal institution shall entitle him to
deductions from the period of his sentence
a. allowance for good conduct/good conduct time allowance
b. exemplary behavior
96. A deduction of one-fifth of the period of his sentence shall be granted to any
prisoner who, having evaded the service of his sentence under the
circumstances mentioned in Article 58 of this Code, gives himself up to the
authorities within 48 hours following the issuance of a proclamation
announcing the passing away of the calamity or catastrophe to in said article.
a. special time allowance for loyalty b. evasion of service of sentence
97. Every person criminally liable for a felony is also civilly liable. The statement
is:
a. true b. false
98. In default of the persons criminally liable, innkeepers, tavern keepers, and any
other persons or corporations shall be civilly liable for crimes committed in
their establishments, in all cases where a violation of municipal ordinances or
some general or special police regulation shall have been committed by them
or their employees. This also apply to employers, teachers, persons, and
corporations engaged in any kind of industry for felonies committed by their
servants, pupils, workmen, apprentices, or employees in the discharge of their
duties. This is:
a. subsidiary imprisonment b. Subsidiary civil liability
99. The (subsidiary) civil liability shall include:

a. Restitution;

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b. Reparation of the damage caused;

c. Indemnification for consequential damages
d. All of these
100. It is a misapprehension of fact on the part of the person who caused injury to
another. He is not liable for absence of criminal intent.
a. mistake of fact b. ignorance of the law
101. It is that cause which in the ordinary and continuous sequence, unbroken by
any efficient intervening cause produces the injury.
a. probable cause b. Proximate cause
102. It is one where the purpose of the offender in performing an act is not certain.
a. indeterminate offense b. Material crimes
103. Those where the act of a person is said to be in accordance with the law. As a
consequence he is freed from criminal and civil liability.
a. justifying circumstances b. Exempting circumstances
104. It is any unjust or improper conduct on the part of the offended party capable
of inciting or irritating any one.
a. vindication of grave offense b. provocation
105. Those grounds for exemption from punishment because there is

wanting/missing in the agent of the crime any of the conditions which make
the act voluntary or negligent.
a. exempting circumstances b. Mitigating circumstances
106. He is one who is old but has a mental development similar to children between
the ages 2-7 years.
a. my classmate b. Imbecile c. moron d. idiot
107. The mental capacity of a minor to distinguish between right from wrong and
to fully appreciate the consequences of his felonious acts.
a. lucid interval b. discernment
108. It is a force which produces such an effect upon an individual that, in spite
of all resistance, it reduces him to a mere instrument and as such incapable
of committing a crime.
a. irresistible force b. Uncontrollable fear
109. The exempting circumstance presupposes that the accused is compelled by

means of threat or intimidation by a third person to commit a crime.
a. irresistible force b. Uncontrollable fear

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110. One which takes place when a peace officer induces a person to commit a
crime. Without the inducement, the crime would not be committed. It exempts
one from criminal liability.
a. entrapment b. instigation
111. Those which if present in the commission of a crime, do not entirely free the
actor from criminal liability but reduces only the penalty.
a. mitigating circumstances b. Aggravating circumstances
112. Are those which if attendant in the commission of the offense, would serve
to increase the penalty.
a. aggravating circumstances b. Mitigating circumstances
113. That period of darkness beginning at end of dusk and ending at dawn.
a. uninhabited place b. nighttime
114. One where there are no houses or where the houses are scattered at a great
distance from each other.
a. band b. Uninhabited place
115. It involves a determination to commit the crime prior to the moment of its
execution and also to carry out the criminal intent which must be the result
of deliberate, calculated and reflective thoughts through a period of time
sufficient to dispassionately consider and accept the consequences thereof,
thus indicating greater perversity.
a. treachery b. Evident premeditation
116. It is a circumstance characterized by trickery or cunning resorted to by the

accused, to carry out his design. It is the use of intellectual trickery and
cunning on the part of the accused.
a. craft b. fraud
117. These are insidious words or machinations used to induce the victim to act
in a manner which would enable the offender to carry out his design.
a. craft b. fraud
118. It involves the deliberate effort of the accused to conceal his identity in the
commission of the crime.
a. disguise b. Superior strength
119. It is a circumstance pertaining to the moral order, which adds disgrace and
obloquy to the material injury caused by the crime. It is a circumstance that
tends to make the effects of the crime more humiliating, thus adding to the
victim’s moral sufferings.

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120. This aggravating circumstance takes place when an entrance is affected by a

way not intended for the purpose.
a. trespass b. Unlawful entry
121. It is a circumstance whereby the offender enjoys and delights in making his
victim suffer slowly and gradually, causing him unnecessary physical pain in
the consummation of his criminal act.
122. It is an act of grace proceeding from the power entrusted with the execution
of the laws which exempts the individual on whom it is bestowed from the
punishment the law inflicts for the crime he has committed. It may be a
conditional or absolute.
a. pardon b. amnesty
123. It is a single crime, consisting of a series of acts all arising from one criminal
resolution. It is a continuous, unlawful act or series of act set on foot by a
single impulse and operated by an unintermittent force, however long time it
may occupy.
a. complex crimes b. Continuing crimes
124. It means a group of two or more persons collaborating, confederating, or

mutually helping one another for the purpose of gain in the commission of a
crime.
a. organized/syndicated crime b. Band
125It is an act of the sovereign power granting oblivion or a general pardon for past
offense, and is rarely exercised in favor of a single individual, and is usually
exerted in behalf of certain classes of persons who are subject to trail but not
yet convicted.
a. amnesty b. Pardon
126. It is the loss or forfeiture of the right of the Government to execute the final
sentence after the lapse of a certain time.
a. prescription of crim b. Prescription of penalty
CRIMINAL LAW BOOK TWO

Title One
CRIMES AGAINST NATIONAL SECURITY AND THE LAW OF NATIONS
CRIMES AGAINST NATIONAL SECURITY

127. Committed by any person who, owing allegiance to the Government of the
Philippine Islands, not being a foreigner, levies war against them or adheres

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to their enemies, giving them aid or comfort within the Philippine Islands or
elsewhere.
a. Treason b. Espionage
128. No person shall be convicted of treason unless on the testimony of two

witnesses at least to the same overt act or on confession of the accused in
open court. This is the:
a. Two witness rule b. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
129. The penalty for Filipino citizen and resident alien who commit treason is the
same. The stament is:
a. True b. False
130. The conspiracy or proposal to commit the crime of treason shall be punished
respectively, by prision mayor and prision correctional respectively. The
statement is:
a. Correct b. Not correct
131. Every person owing allegiance to the Government of the Philippine Islands,
without being a foreigner, and having knowledge of any conspiracy against
them, conceals or does not disclose and make known the same, as soon as
possible to the governor or fiscal of the province, or the mayor or fiscal of the
city in which he resides, as the case may be, shall be punished as an
accessory to the crime of treason. Here, the one who is liable is punished
principal in the crime of:
a. Misprision of treason b. Treason itself
132. Which of these is an act of “espionage”?

a. Without authority therefor, enters a warship, fort, or naval or military
establishment or reservation to obtain any information, plans,
photographs, or other data of a confidential nature relative to the defense
of the Philippine
b. Being in possession, by reason of the public office he holds, of the articles,
data, or information referred to in the preceding paragraph, discloses
their contents to a representative of a foreign nation.
c. All of these
133. Who is the father of organized military espionage?

a. Sun Tsu b. Frederick The Great
134. Which of these is Provoking war and disloyalty in case of war?

a. inciting to war and giving motives for reprisals
b. violation of neutrality
c. flight to enemy country
d. correspondence with enemy country

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e. all of these
135. This is committed by any public officer or employee or any private individual,
who, by unlawful or unauthorized acts provokes or gives occasion for a war
involving or liable to involve the Philippine Islands or exposes Filipino citizens
to reprisals on their persons or property.
a. inciting to war and giving motives for reprisals b. espionage
136. Committed by anyone who, on the occasion of a war in which the Government
is not involved, violates any regulation issued by competent authority for the
purpose of enforcing neutrality.
a. violation of neutrality b. Correspondence with hostile country
137. Any person who in time of war, shall have correspondence with an enemy
country or territory occupied by enemy troops.
a. violation of neutrality b. Correspondence with hostile country
138. Which of these is a basis for the imposition of penalty for the crime of
correspondence with hostile country?
a. The correspondence has been prohibited by the Government
b. The correspondence be carried on in ciphers or conventional signs
c. If notice or information be given thereby which might be useful to the
enemy. If the offender intended to aid the enemy by giving such notice or
information.
d. All of these
139. Committed by any person who, owing allegiance to the Government, attempts
to flee or go to an enemy country when prohibited by competent authority.
a. violation of neutrality b. Flight to enemy country
140. Committed by any person who, on the high seas, or in Philippine waters shall
attack or seize a vessel or, not being a member of its complement nor a
passenger, shall seize the whole or part of the cargo of said vessel, its
equipment, or personal belongings of its complement or passengers.
a. piracy in general on the high seas or in Philippine waters
b. mutiny
141. The penalty for piracy is reclusion perpetua. Is this the same penalty for
mutiny in the high seas or Philippine waters?
a. yes b. no
142. When is a piracy qualified? (Penalty Reclusion perpetua to death)

a. Whenever they have seized a vessel by boarding or firing upon the same;
b. Whenever the pirates have abandoned their victims without means of saving
themselves; or

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c. Whenever the crime is accompanied by murder, homicide, physical injuries

or rape.
d. All of these
Title Two
CRIMES AGAINST THE FUNDAMENTAL LAWS OF THE STATE
143. Committed by any public officer or employee who, without legal grounds,
detains a person.
a. kidnapping b. Arbitrary detention
144. There is only one penalty for arbitrary detention regardless of duration of
detention. The statement is:
a. true b. False
145. Which of these is a legal ground to detain another?

a. The commission of a crime
b. Violent insanity
c. Any other ailment requiring the compulsory confinement of the patient in
a hospital
d. All of these
146. The penalty for arbitrary detention and delay in the delivery of detained
persons to the proper judicial authority is the same, as it will depend upon
the length of detention? The statement is:
a. true b. false
147. This is committed by any public officer or employee who shall detain any
person for some legal ground and shall fail to deliver such person to the
proper judicial authorities within the period of; twelve (12) hours, for crimes
or offenses punishable by light penalties, or their equivalent; eighteen (18)
hours, for crimes or offenses punishable by correctional penalties, or their
equivalent and thirty-six (36) hours, for crimes, or offenses punishable by
afflictive or capital penalties, or their equivalent.
a. expulsion
b. delay in the delivery of detained persons to the proper judicial authorities
148. The penalty for delaying release is the same as the penalty for arbitrary
detention? This is:
a. true b. false
149. This is committed by any public officer or employee who delays the
performance of any judicial or executive order for the release of a prisoner or
detention prisoner, or unduly delays the service of the notice of such order

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to said prisoner or the proceedings upon any petition for the liberation of
such person.
a. delaying release b. expulsion
150. This is committed by any public officer or employee who, not being thereunto
authorized by law, shall expel any person from the Philippine Islands or shall
compel such person to change his residence.
a. delaying release b. expulsion
151. Committed by any public officer or employee who, not being authorized by
judicial order, shall enter any dwelling against the will of the owner thereof,
search papers or other effects found therein without the previous consent of
such owner, or having surreptitiously entered said dwelling, and being
required to leave the premises, shall refuse to do so.
a. trespass to dwelling b. Violation of domicile
152. Which of these is qualified violation of domicile?

a. If the offense be committed in the night-time
b. If any papers or effects not constituting evidence of a crime be not returned
immediately after the search made by the offender.
c. All of these
153. Committed by any public officer or employee who shall procure a search
warrant without just cause, or, having legally procured the same, shall
exceed his authority or use unnecessary severity in executing the same.
a. Search warrant maliciously obtained and abuse in the service of those
legally obtained.
b. Violation of domicile
154. Committed by any public officer or employee who, in cases where a search is
proper, shall search the domicile, papers or other belongings of any person,
in the absence of the latter, any member of his family, or in their default,
without the presence of two witnesses residing in the same locality.
a. searching domicile without witnesses b. arbitrary detention
155. The crime of Prohibition, interruption and dissolution of peaceful meetings is

committed by which of these means?
a. any public officer or employee who, without legal ground, shall prohibit or
interrupt the holding of a peaceful meeting, or shall dissolve the same.
b. any public officer or employee who shall hinder any person from joining
any lawful association or from attending any of its meetings.
c. any public officer or employee who shall prohibit or hinder any person from
addressing, either alone or together with others, any petition to the
authorities for the correction of abuses or redress of grievances.
d. all of these

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156. Which of these is Crimes against religious worship?

a. interruption of religious worship
b. offending the religious feelings
c. all of these
157. This is committed any public officer or employee who shall prevent or disturb
the ceremonies or manifestations of any religion.
158. What is qualified interruption of religious worship?

a. If the crime shall have been committed with violence or threats.
b. If the crime is committed by private persons
159. This is committed by anyone who, in a place devoted to religious worship or

during the celebration of any religious ceremony shall perform acts
notoriously offensive to the feelings of the faithful.
Title Three
CRIMES AGAINST PUBLIC ORDER
160. They are committed by rising publicly and taking arms against the
Government for the purpose of removing from the allegiance to said
Government or its laws, the territory of the Philippine Islands or any part
thereof, of any body of land, naval or other armed forces, depriving the Chief
Executive or the Legislature, wholly or partially, of any of their powers or
prerogatives.
a. Rebellion b. Insurrection c. All of these
161. This crime is a swift attack accompanied by violence, intimidation, threat,

strategy or stealth, directed against duly constituted authorities of the
Republic of the Philippines, or any military camp or installation,
communications network, public utilities or other facilities needed for the
exercise and continued possession of power, singly or simultaneously carried
out anywhere in the Philippines by any person or persons, belonging to the
military or police or holding any public office of employment with or without
civilian support or participation for the purpose of seizing or diminishing state
power.
a. rebellion b. Insurrection c. coup d’ etat
162. The law on Coup d’ etat

a. Article 134- A RPC b. RA 6968 c. All of these

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163. Who among these is liable for rebellion and coup d etat?
a. Any person who promotes, maintains, or heads it.
b. Any person merely participating or executing the commands of others in
a rebellion
c. Any person who leads or in any manner directs or commands others to
undertake a coup d'etat
d. Any person in the government service who participates, or executes
directions or commands of others in undertaking a coup d' etat.
e. Any person not in the government service who participates, or in any
manner supports, finances, abets or aids in undertaking a coup d' etat
f. All of these
164. When the rebellion, insurrection, or coup d' etat shall be under the command
of unknown leaders who will be deemed the leaders of such?
a. any person who in fact directed the others, spoke for them, signed receipts
and other documents issued in their name, as performed similar acts,
on behalf or the rebels.
b. any person who fail to resist rebellion or coup d’ etat within their powers
165. The penalty for conspiracy and proposal to commit coup d’ etat is greater than
the penalty for conspiracy and proposal to commit rebellion.
a. True b. False
166. This is committed by any public officers or employees who have failed to resist
a rebellion by all the means in their power, or shall continue to discharge the
duties of their offices under the control of the rebels or shall accept
appointment to office under them.
a. Disloyalty of public officers and employees
b. Conspiracy to commit rebellion
167. This is committed by any person who, without taking arms or being in open
hostility against the Government, shall incite others to the execution of any
of the acts specified in article 134 of RPC (Rebeliion), by means of speeches,
proclamations, writings, emblems, banners or other representations tending
to the same end.
a. Conspiracy to commit rebellion
b. Inciting to rebellion or insurrection
168. The crime of sedition is committed by persons who rise publicly and
tumultuously in order to attain by force, intimidation, or by other means
outside of legal methods, which of these?
a. To prevent the promulgation or execution of any law or the holding of any
popular election

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b. To prevent the National Government, or any provincial or municipal

government or any public officer thereof from freely exercising its or his
functions, or prevent the execution of any administrative order;
c. To inflict any act of hate or revenge upon the person or property of any
public officer or employee
d. To commit, for any political or social end, any act of hate or revenge against
private persons or any social class
e. To despoil, for any political or social end, any person, municipality or
province, or the National Government, of all its property or any part
thereof.
f. All of these
169. Which of these is not punishable?

a. Conspiracy to commit sedition
b. Inciting to sedition
c. Proposal to commit sedition
170. This is committed by any person who, without taking any direct part in the
crime of sedition, should incite others to the accomplishment of any of the
acts which constitute sedition, by means of speeches, proclamations,
writings, emblems, cartoons, banners, or other representations tending to the
same end, or upon any person or persons who shall utter seditious words or
speeches, write, publish, or circulate scurrilous libels against or any of the
duly constituted authorities thereof, or which tend to disturb or obstruct any
lawful officer in executing the functions of his office, or which tend to instigate
others to cabal and meet together for unlawful purposes, or which suggest or
incite rebellious conspiracies or riots, or which lead or tend to stir up the
people against the lawful authorities or to disturb the peace of the community,
the safety and order of the Government, or who shall knowingly conceal such
evil practices.
a. proposal to commit sedition
b. inciting to sedition
c. all of these
171. CRIMES AGAINST POPULAR REPRESENTATION/ Crimes against legislative

bodies and similar bodies
a. Act tending to prevent the meeting of the Assembly and similar bodies.
b. disturbance of proceedings
c. violation of parliamentary immunity
d. all of these
172. Committed by any person who, by force or fraud, prevents the meeting of the
National Assembly (Congress of the Philippines) or of any of its committees
or subcommittees, constitutional commissions or committees or divisions
thereof, or of any provincial board or city or municipal council or board.

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a. violation of parliamentary immunity

b. act tending to prevent the meeting of the national assembly and similar
bodies
173. Committed by any person who disturbs the meetings of the National Assembly
(Congress of the Philippines) or of any of its committees or subcommittees,
constitutional commissions or committees or divisions thereof, or of any
provincial board or city or municipal council or board, or in the presence of
any such bodies should behave in such manner as to interrupt its
proceedings or to impair the respect due it.
a. disturbance of proceedings
b. violation of parliamentary immunity
174. Which of these is violation of parliamentary immunity?

a. any person who shall use force, intimidation, threats, or fraud to prevent
any member of the National Assembly (Congress of the Philippines) from
attending the meetings of the Assembly (Congress) or of any of its
committees or subcommittees, constitutional commissions or committees
or divisions thereof, from expressing his opinions or casting his vote.
b. any public officer or employee who shall, while the Assembly (Congress)
is in regular or special session, arrest or search any member thereof,
except in case such member has committed a crime punishable under
this Code by a penalty higher than prision mayor.
c. Both a and b
175. This is committed by the organizers or leaders of any meeting attended by

armed persons for the purpose of committing any of the crimes punishable
under this Code, or of any meeting in which the audience is incited to the
commission of the crime of treason, rebellion or insurrection, sedition or
assault upon a person in authority or his agents.
a. illegal assemblies b. Illegal associations
c. both a and b
176. Persons merely present at illegal assemblies shall suffer the penalty of arresto
mayor, unless they are armed, in which case the penalty shall be prision
correccional. Is this true?
a. yes b. no
177. If any person present at the illegal assemblies carry an unlicensed firearm, it
shall be presumed that the purpose of said meeting, insofar as he is
concerned, is to commit acts punishable under this Code, and he shall be
considered a ________ of the meeting or illegal assemblies.
a. Leader b. Organizer c. both a and b

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As used in this article, the word "meeting" shall be understood to include a

gathering or group, whether in a fixed place or moving.
178. This is committed by the founders, directors, and presidents of associations

totally or partially organized for the purpose of committing any of the crimes
punishable under this Code or for some purpose contrary to public morals.
a. illegal assemblies b. Illegal associations
179. Mere members of illegal associations shall suffer the penalty of arresto mayor.
The statement is:
a. true b. false
179 - A. Which of these is a way of committing direct assault?

a. any person or persons who, without a public uprising, shall employ force
or intimidation for the attainment of any of the purpose enumerated in
defining the crimes of rebellion and sedition.
b. any person who shall attack, employ force, or seriously intimidate or resist
any person in authority or any of his agents, while engaged in the
performance of official duties, or on occasion of such performance.
c. all of these
179-B. Committed by any person who not having committed direct assault shall
resist or seriously disobey any person in authority, or the agents of such
person, while engaged in the performance of official duties.
a. Resistance and disobedience to a person in authority or the agents of such
person
b. Direct assault
179-C. Unlawful use of means of publication and unlawful utterances is committed

by which of these?
a. Any person who by means of printing, lithography, or any other means of
publication shall publish or cause to be published as news any false news
which may endanger the public order, or cause damage to the interest or
credit of the State;
b. Any person who by the same means, or by words, utterances or speeches
shall encourage disobedience to the law or to the constituted authorities
or praise, justify, or extol any act punished by law;
c. Any person who shall maliciously publish or cause to be published any
official resolution or document without proper authority, or before they
have been published officially; or
d. Any person who shall print, publish, or distribute or cause to be printed,
published, or distributed books, pamphlets, periodicals, or leaflets which
do not bear the real printer's name, or which are classified as anonymous.
e. All of these
180. Which of these is qualified direct assault?

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a. when the assault is committed with a weapon

b. when the offender is a public officer or employee
c. when the offender lays hands upon a person in authority.
d. all of these
181. Committed by any person who shall make use of force or intimidation upon
any person coming to the (aid of the authorities) or their agents (of a person
in authority) on occasion of the commission of any of the crimes of direct
assault.
a. indirect assault b. indirect bribery
182. Disobedience to summons issued by the National Assembly, its committees

or subcommittees, by the Constitutional Commissions, its committees,
subcommittees or divisions, is committed by which of these means?
a. having been duly summoned to attend as a witness before the National
Assembly, (Congress), its special or standing committees and
subcommittees, the Constitutional Commissions and its committees,
subcommittees, or divisions, or before any commission or committee
chairman or member authorized to summon witnesses, refuses, without
legal excuse, to obey such summons.
b. being present before any such legislative or constitutional body or official,
refuses to be sworn or placed under affirmation or to answer any legal
inquiry or to produce any books, papers, documents, or records in his
possession, when required by them to do so in the exercise of their
functions.
c. any person who shall restrain another from attending as a witness, or who
shall induce disobedience to a summon or refusal to be sworn by any such
body or official
d. all of these
183. The penalty for serious disobedience is arresto mayor, while simple
disobedience is arresto menor.
a. true b. false
184. Any person directly vested with jurisdiction, whether as an individual or as a

member of some court or governmental corporation, board, or commission,
shall be deemed a person in authority. A barrio captain and a barangay
chairman shall also be deemed such.
a. person in authority b. agent of a person in authority
185. A person who, by direct provision of law or by election or by appointment by

competent authority, is charged with the maintenance of public order and the
protection and security of life and property, such as a barrio councilman,
barrio policeman and barangay leader and any person who comes to the aid of
persons in authority, shall be deemed:

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a. person in authority
b. agent of a person in authority
186. Teachers, professors and persons charged with the supervision of public or
duly recognized private schools, colleges and universities, and lawyers in the
actual performance of their professional duties or on the occasion of such
performance, shall be deemed persons in authority.
a. true b. false
187. Committed by any person who shall cause any serious disturbance in a public
place, office, or establishment, or shall interrupt or disturb public
performances, functions or gatherings, or peaceful meetings, if the act is not
included in the provisions of Articles 131 and 132 of the RPC.
a. tumults and other disturbances of public order
b. alarms and scandals
188. The disturbance or interruption shall be deemed to be _______ if caused by

more than three persons who are armed or provided with means of violence.
a. charivari b. tumultuous
189. Burying with pomp the body of a person who has been legally executed is
punishable by:
a. death b. arresto menor
190. Alarms and scandals is committed by which of these?

a. Any person who within any town or public place, shall discharge any
firearm, rocket, firecracker, or other explosives calculated to cause alarm
or danger;
b. Any person who shall instigate or take an active part in any charivari or
other disorderly meeting offensive to another or prejudicial to public
tranquility;
c. Any person who, while wandering about at night or while engaged in any
other nocturnal amusements, shall disturb the public peace; or
d. Any person who, while intoxicated or otherwise, shall cause any
disturbance or scandal in public places, provided that the circumstances
of the case shall not make the provisions of Article 153 applicable.
e. All of these
191. This is committed by any person who shall remove from any jail or penal
establishment any person confined therein or shall help the escape of such
person, by means of violence, intimidation, or bribery. If the escape of the
prisoner shall take place outside of said establishments by taking the guards
by surprise this crime is also committed.
a. evasion of service of sentence
b. delivering prisoners from jail

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192. This is committed by any convict who shall evade service of his sentence by
escaping during the term of his imprisonment by reason of final judgment.
a. evasion of service of sentence
b. delivering prisoners from jail
193. Which of these is qualified evasion of service of sentence?

a. such evasion or escape shall have taken place by means of unlawful entry
b. by breaking doors, windows, gates, walls, roofs, or floors, or by using
picklocks, false keys, deceit, violence or intimidation, or through connivance
with other convicts or employees of the penal institution
c. all of these
194. This is committed by a convict who shall evade the service of his sentence, by
leaving the penal institution where he shall have been confined, on the
occasion of disorder resulting from a conflagration, earthquake, explosion, or
similar catastrophe, or during a mutiny in which he has not participated, shall
suffer an increase of one-fifth of the time still remaining to be served under
the original sentence, which in no case shall exceed six months, if he shall
fail to give himself up to the authorities within forty-eight hours following the
issuance of a proclamation by the Chief Executive announcing the passing
away of such calamity.
a. Evasion of service of sentence on the occasion of disorder, conflagrations,
earthquakes, or other calamities.
b. infidelity in the custody of prisoners
195. Committed by a convict who, having been granted conditional pardon by the
Chief Executive, shall violate any of the conditions of such pardon.
a. other cases of evasion of service of sentence
b. violation of conditional pardon
c. both a and b
196. Committed by any person who shall commit a felony after having been
convicted by final judgment, before beginning to serve such sentence, or while
serving the same, shall be punished by the maximum period of the penalty
prescribed by law for the new felony.
a. Recidivist b. Quasi Recidivist
197. A quasi recidivist who is not a habitual criminal, shall be pardoned at the age
of ______ years old if he shall have already served out his original sentence, or
when he shall complete it after reaching the said age, unless by reason of his
conduct or other circumstances he shall not be worthy of such clemency.
a. 70 b. 80

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Title Four
CRIMES AGAINST PUBLIC INTEREST
198. Committed by any person who shall forge the Great Seal of the Government
of the Philippine Islands or the signature or stamp of the Chief Executive.
a. Counterfeiting the great seal of the Government of the Philippine Islands,
forging the signature or stamp of the Chief Executive
199. Committed by any person who shall knowingly make use of the counterfeit
seal or forged signature or stamp of the President
a. Using forged signature or counterfeit seal or stamp.
200. Committed by any person who makes, imports, or utters, false coins, in
connivance with counterfeiters, or importers. This crime is:
a. making and importing and uttering false coin
201. This is committed by any person who shall mutilate coins of the legal currency
of the Philippine Islands or import or utter mutilated current coins, or in
connivance with mutilators or importers.
a. mutilation of coins
202. Committed by the person who knowingly, although without the connivance,
shall possess false or mutilated coin with intent to utter the same, or shall
actually utter such coin.
a. selling of false or mutilated coins without connivance
203. This is committed by forging or falsification of treasury or bank notes or

certificates or other obligations and securities payable to bearer and the
importation and uttering in connivance with forgers or importers of such false
or forged obligations or notes.
a. Forging treasury or bank notes on other documents payable to bearer;
importing, and uttering such false or forged notes and documents.
204. Committed by any person who shall knowingly use or have in his possession,
with intent to use any of the false or falsified instruments.
a. Illegal possession and use of false treasury or bank notes and other
instruments of credit.
205. How is forgery committed?

a. By giving to a treasury or bank note or any instrument, payable to bearer or
order mentioned therein, the appearance of a true genuine document.
b. By erasing, substituting, counterfeiting or altering by any means the figures,
letters, words or signs contained therein.
c. All of these
206. How is Falsification by public officer, employee or notary or ecclesiastic

minister. Committed?

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a. Counterfeiting or imitating any handwriting, signature or rubric;

b. Causing it to appear that persons have participated in any act or proceeding
when they did not in fact so participate;
c. Attributing to persons who have participated in an act or proceeding
statements other than those in fact made by them;
d. Making untruthful statements in a narration of facts;
e. Altering true dates;
f. Making any alteration or intercalation in a genuine document which changes
its meaning;
g. Issuing in an authenticated form a document purporting to be a copy of an
original document when no such original exists, or including in such a copy
a statement contrary to, or different from, that of the genuine original; or
h. Intercalating any instrument or note relative to the issuance thereof in a
protocol, registry, or official book.
i. all of these
208. Committed by any person who shall knowingly and falsely represent himself
to be an officer, agent or representative of any department or agency of the
Philippine Government or of any foreign government, or who, under pretense
of official position, shall perform any act pertaining to any person in authority
or public officer of the Philippine Government or any foreign government, or
any agency thereof, without being lawfully entitled to do so.
a. usurpation of authority or official functions
209. Committed by any person who shall publicly use a fictitious name for the
purpose of concealing a crime, evading the execution of a judgment or causing
damage.
a. using fictitious names and concealing true name
b. anti alias law
210. Committed by any person who shall publicly and improperly make use of
insignia, uniforms or dress pertaining to an office not held by such person or
to a class of persons of which he is not a member.
a. estafa
b. illegal use of uniforms and insignia
211. Committed by any person who shall give false testimony against the defendant
in any criminal case.
a. false testimony against a defendant
b. false testimony favourable to the defendant
212. Committed by any person who shall give false testimony in favor of the
defendant in a criminal case.
a. false testimony against a defendant
b. false testimony favourable to the defendant

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213. Committed by any person, who knowingly makes untruthful statements and
shall testify under oath, or make an affidavit, upon any material matter before
a competent person authorized to administer an oath in cases in which the law
so requires.
a. perjury b. false testimony
214. Committed by any person who shall knowingly offer in evidence a false witness
or testimony in any judicial or official proceeding, shall be punished as guilty
of false testimony.
a. offering false testimony in evidence
215. This is committed by any person who shall solicit any gift or promise as a
consideration for refraining from taking part in any public auction, and any
person who shall attempt to cause bidders to stay away from an auction by
threats, gifts, promises, or any other artifice, with intent to cause the reduction
of the price of the thing auctioned,
a. machinations in public auctions
Title Six
CRIMES AGAINST PUBLIC MORALS
216. Punishable by arresto mayor and committed by any person who shall offend
against decency or good customs by any highly scandalous conduct not
expressly falling within any other article of this Code.
a. alarms and scandals b. public scandals c. grave scandals
217. Which of these is an act that violates the law on immoral doctrines, obscene
publications and exhibitions and indecent shows?
a. Those who shall publicly expound or proclaim doctrines openly contrary to
public morals
b. the authors of obscene literature, published with their knowledge in any
form; the editors publishing such literature; and the owners/operators of
the establishment selling the same;
c. Those who, in theaters, fairs, cinematographs or any other place, exhibit,
indecent or immoral plays, scenes, acts or shows, whether live or in film,
which are prescribed by virtue hereof, shall include those which (1) glorify
criminals or condone crimes; (2) serve no other purpose but to satisfy the
market for violence, lust or pornography; (3) offend any race or religion; (4)
tend to abet traffic in and use of prohibited drugs; and (5) are contrary to
law, public order, morals, and good customs, established policies, lawful
orders, decrees and edicts;
c. Those who shall sell, give away or exhibit films, prints, engravings,
sculpture or literature which are offensive to morals.
d. All of these

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218. Which of these is vagrant?

a. Any person having no apparent means of subsistence, who has the physical
ability to work and who neglects to apply himself or herself to some lawful
calling
b. Any person found loitering about public or semi-public buildings or places
or trampling or wandering about the country or the streets without visible
means of support
c. Any idle or dissolute person who ledges in houses of ill fame; ruffians or
pimps and those who habitually associate with prostitutes
d. Any person who, not being included in the provisions of other articles of
this Code, shall be found loitering in any inhabited or uninhabited place
belonging to another without any lawful or justifiable purpose
e. Prostitutes.
f. All of these
219. The law that decriminalized vagrancy, it is no longer punishable.

a. RA 10158
220. She is a women who, for money or profit, habitually indulge in sexual
intercourse or lascivious conduct, her penalty is arresto menor or a fine not
exceeding 200 pesos, however, if she is a recidivist arresto mayor medium to
prision correctional minimum and P200 – P2,000 fine.
a. prostitute
Title Seven
CRIMES COMMITTED BY PUBLIC OFFICERS
221. He is a person who, by direct provision of the law, popular election or
appointment by competent authority, shall take part in the performance of
public functions in the Government of the Philippine Islands, of shall perform
in said Government or in any of its branches public duties as an employee,
agent or subordinate official, of any rank or class.
a. Person in authority b. Public officer
222. This is committed by any judge who shall knowingly render an unjust
judgment in any case submitted to him for decision.
a. Misfeasance b. Knowingly rendering unjust judgment
224. Committed by any judge who, by reason of inexcusable negligence or
ignorance shall render a manifestly unjust judgment in any case submitted to
him for decision.
a. Judgement rendered thru negligence b. Unjust Interlocutory order
225. This is committed by any judge who shall knowingly render an unjust
interlocutory order or decree. But if he shall have acted by reason of
inexcusable negligence or ignorance and this order be manifestly unjust, the
penalty shall be suspension.

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a. Judgement rendered thru negligence b. Unjust Interlocutory order
226. This is committed by any judge guilty of malicious delay in the administration
of justice.
a. Malicious mischief
b. Malicious delay in the administration of justice
227. All of these are committed by a judge except:

a. knowingly rendering unjust judgment
b. judgment rendered thru negligence
c. unjust interlocutory order
d. malicious delay in the administration of justice
e. prevaricacion
228. This is committed by any public officer, or officer of the law, who, in dereliction
of the duties of his office, shall maliciously refrain from instituting prosecution
for the punishment of violators of the law, or shall tolerate the commission of
offenses.
a. Negligence and tolerance in the prosecution of offense
b. Prevaricacion
c. All of these
229. This is committed by any attorney-at-law or solicitor ( procurador judicial)

who, by any malicious breach of professional duty or of inexcusable negligence
or ignorance, shall prejudice his client, or reveal any of the secrets of the latter
learned by him in his professional capacity. This crime may also be committed
by an attorney-at-law or solicitor (procurador judicial) who, having undertaken
the defense of a client or having received confidential information from said
client in a case, shall undertake the defense of the opposing party in the same
case, without the consent of his first client.
a. Prevaricacion
b. Betrayal of trust by an attorney
230. This is committed by any public officer who shall agree to perform an act
constituting a crime, in connection with the performance of this official duties,
in consideration of any offer, promise, gift or present received by such officer,
personally or through the mediation of another.
This crime is also committed whenever the gift was accepted by the officer
in consideration of the execution of an act which does not constitute a crime,
and the officer executed said act, and or if said act shall not have been
accomplished.
If the object for which the gift was received or promised was to make the
public officer refrain from doing something which it was his official duty to do,
this crime is also committed.
a. Direct bribery b. Indirect bribery

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231. This is committed by any public officer who shall accept gifts offered to him
by reason of his office.
a. Direct bribery b. indirect bribery
232. This is committed by any public officer is entrusted with law enforcement and
he refrains from arresting or prosecuting an offender who has committed a
crime punishable by reclusion perpetua and/or death in consideration of any
offer, promise, gift or present, in which case, he shall suffer the penalty for the
offense which was not prosecuted. If it is the public officer who asks or
demands such gift or present, he shall suffer the penalty of death.
a. Direct bribery b. indirect bribery c. qualified bribery
233. The same penalties imposed upon the officer corrupted, except those of
disqualification and suspension, shall be imposed upon any person who shall
have made the offers or promises or given the gifts or presents as described in
the crime of direct and indirect bribery
a. true
234. This is committed public officer who:

1. In his official capacity, in dealing with any person with regard to
furnishing supplies, the making of contracts, or the adjustment or
settlement of accounts relating to public property or funds, shall enter into
an agreement with any interested party or speculator or make use of any
other scheme, to defraud the Government;
2. Being entrusted with the collection of taxes, licenses, fees and other
imposts, shall be guilty or any of the following acts or omissions:
(a) Demanding, directly, or indirectly, the payment of sums different
from or larger than those authorized by law.
(b) Failing voluntarily to issue a receipt, as provided by law, for any
sum of money collected by him officially.
(c) Collecting or receiving, directly or indirectly, by way of payment or
otherwise things or objects of a nature different from that provided
by law.
What crime is mentioned above?

a. frauds against the public treasury and similar offenses.
b. Estafa
235. In the crime of “frauds against the public treasury”, when the culprit is an
officer or employee of the Bureau of Internal Revenue or the Bureau of
Customs, the provisions of the Administrative Code, and not the Revised Penal
Code shall be applied. The statement is:
a. true b. false

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236. This is committed by any appointive public officer who, during his
incumbency, shall directly or indirectly become interested in any transaction
of exchange or speculation within the territory subject to his jurisdiction.
a. Prohibited transactions
237. This is committed by a public officer who directly or indirectly, shall become
interested in any contract or business in which it is his official duty to
intervene.
a. Possession of prohibited interest by a public officer
238. This is committed by any public officer who, by reason of the duties of his
office, is accountable for public funds or property, shall appropriate the same
or shall take or misappropriate or shall consent, through abandonment or
negligence, shall permit any other person to take such public funds, or
property, wholly or partially.
a. Malversation of public funds and property
b. Illegal Use of Public Funds and Property
239. Persons guilty of malversation shall also suffer a fine equal to the amount of
the funds malversed or equal to the total value of the property embezzled. The
statement is:
a. true b. false
240. Under the law on malversation, the failure of a public officer to have duly
forthcoming any public funds or property with which he is chargeable, upon
demand by any duly authorized officer, shall be ____________evidence that he
has put such missing funds or property to personal use.
a. conclusive b. prima facie
241. Committed by any public officer, whether in the service or separated

therefrom by resignation or any other cause, who is required by law or
regulation to render account to the Insular Auditor, or to a provincial auditor
and who fails to do so for a period of two months after such accounts should
be rendered.
a. Failure of accountable officer to render account
242. This is committed by any public officer who unlawfully leaves or attempts to
leave the Philippine Islands without securing a certificate from the Insular
Auditor showing that his accounts have been finally settled.
a. Failure of a responsible public officer to render accounts before leaving the
country.
243. This is committed by any public officer who shall apply any public fund or
property under his administration to any public use other than for which such
fund or property were appropriated by law or ordinance shall suffer the

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penalty of prision correccional in its minimum period or a fine ranging from

one-half to the total of the sum misapplied, if by reason of such
misapplication, any damages or embarrassment shall have resulted to the
public service. If no damage or embarrassment to the public service has
resulted, the penalty shall be a fine from 5 to 50 per cent of the sum
misapplied.
a. illegal use of public funds or property
b. technical malversation
c. all of these
244. This is committed by any public officer under obligation to make payment
from Government funds in his possession, who shall fail to make such
payment.
a. Failure to make delivery of public funds or property
245. This is committed by public officer who shall consent to the escape of a
prisoner in his custody or charge.
a. conniving with or consenting to evasion
b. evasion of service of sentence
246. If the evasion of the prisoner shall have taken place through the negligence of
the officer charged with the conveyance or custody of the escaping prisoner, the
crime is:
a. Evasion through negligence
b. Evasion of service of sentence
247. This is committed by any private person to whom the conveyance or custody
or a prisoner or person under arrest shall have been confided, who shall commit
any infidelity custody of prisoners, or evasion thru negligence, shall suffer the
penalty next lower in degree than that prescribed for the public officer.
a. Escape of prisoner under the custody of a person not a public officer
248. This is committed by any public officer who shall remove, destroy or conceal
documents or papers officially entrusted to him.
a. infidelity in the custody of documents
b. removal, concealment or destruction of documents
c. all of these
249. This is committed by any public officer charged with the custody of papers or
property sealed by proper authority, who shall break the seals or permit them
to be broken
a. Officer breaking seal
250. This is committed by any public officer who, without proper authority, shall
open or shall permit to be opened any closed papers, documents or objects
entrusted to his custody

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a. Opening closed document

251. This is committed by any public officer who shall reveal any secret known to
him by reason of his official capacity, or shall wrongfully deliver papers or copies
of papers of which he may have charge and which should not be published,
whether the revelation or delivery has caused serious damage to the public
interest or not.
a. revelation of secrets by an officer
252. This is committed by any public officer to whom the secrets of any private
individual shall become known by reason of his office who shall reveal such
secrets.
a. Public officer revealing secrets of private individual
253. This is committed by any judicial or executive officer who shall openly refuse
to execute the judgment, decision or order of any superior authority made
within the scope of the jurisdiction of the latter and issued with all the legal
formalities.
a. Open disobedience
254. This is committed by public officer who, having for any reason suspended the
execution of the orders of his superiors, shall disobey such superiors after the
latter have disapproved the suspension.
a. Disobedience to order of superior officers, when said order was suspended
by inferior officer.
255. This is committed by a public officer who, upon demand from competent
authority, shall fail to lend his cooperation towards the administration of justice
or other public service, if such failure shall result in serious damage to the
public interest, or to a third party or otherwise.
a. Refusal of assistance
256. This is committed by any person who, having been elected by popular election
to a public office, shall refuse without legal motive to be sworn in or to discharge
the duties of said office.
a. Refusal to discharge elective office
257. This is committed by any public officer or employee who shall overdo himself
in the correction or handling of a prisoner or detention prisoner under his
charge, by the imposition of punishment not authorized by the regulations, or
by inflicting such punishment in a cruel and humiliating manner.
a. Maltreatment of prisoners
b. Physical injuries
258. What is qualified maltreatment of prisoners?

a. If the purpose of the maltreatment is to extort a confession

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b. If the purpose of the maltreatment is to obtain some information from the

prisoner
c. All of these
259. This is committed by any person who shall assume the performance of the
duties and powers of any public officer or employment without first being sworn
in or having given the bond required by law, shall be suspended from such
office or employment until he shall have complied with the respective formalities
and shall be fined from 200 to 500 pesos.
a. Anticipation of duties of a public office
260. This is committed by any public officer shall continue to exercise the duties
and powers of his office, employment or commission, beyond the period
provided by law, regulation or special provisions applicable to the case.
a. Prolonging performance of duties and powers
261. This is committed by any public officer who, before the acceptance of his
resignation, shall abandon his office to the detriment of the public service
a. Abandonment of office or position
262. Committed by any public officer who shall encroach upon the powers of the
legislative branch of the Government, either by making general rules or
regulations beyond the scope of his authority, or by attempting to repeal a law
or suspending the execution thereof.
a. Usurpation of legislative powers
263. Committed by any judge who shall assume any power pertaining to the
executive authorities, or shall obstruct the latter in the lawful exercise of their
powers.
a. Usurpation of executive powers
264. Committed by any officer of the executive branch of the Government who shall
assume judicial powers or shall obstruct the execution of any order or decision
rendered by any judge within its jurisdiction.
a. Usurpation of judicial functions
265. Committed by any public officer who, before the question of jurisdiction is
decided, shall continue any proceeding after having been lawfully required to
refrain from so doing.
a. Disobeying request for disqualification
266. Committed by any executive officer who shall address any order or suggestion
to any judicial authority with respect to any case or business coming within the
exclusive jurisdiction of the courts of justice.
a. Orders or requests by executive officers to any judicial authority

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267. Committed by any public officer who shall knowingly nominate or appoint to
any public office any person lacking the legal qualifications therefor.
a. Unlawful appointments
268. This is committed by:

1. any public officer who shall solicit or make immoral or indecent advances to
a woman interested in matters pending before such officer for decision, or with
respect to which he is required to submit a report to or consult with a superior
officer;
2. Any warden or other public officer directly charged with the care and custody
of prisoners or persons under arrest who shall solicit or make immoral or
indecent advances to a woman under his custody (or wife, daughter or sister in
the custody of such warden or officer)
The felony committed by the public officer is:
a. Sexual harassment
b. Abuses against chastity
Title Eight
CRIMES AGAINST PERSONS
269. This is committed by any person who shall kill his father, mother, or child,
whether legitimate or illegitimate, or any of his ascendants, or descendants, or
his spouse.
a. incest b. parricide
270. Committed by any legally married person who having surprised his spouse in
the act of committing sexual intercourse with another person, shall kill any of
them or both of them in the act or immediately thereafter, or shall inflict upon
them any serious physical injury, shall suffer the penalty of destierro.
a. Death or physical injuries inflicted under exceptional circumstances
271. Murder is killing another by which of these qualifying/attendant
circumstances?
a. With treachery, taking advantage of superior strength, with the aid of
armed men, or employing means to weaken the defense or of means or
persons to insure or afford impunity.
b. In consideration of a price, reward, or promise.
c. By means of inundation, fire, poison, explosion, shipwreck, stranding of
a vessel, derailment or assault upon a street car or locomotive, fall of an
airship, by means of motor vehicles, or with the use of any other means
involving great waste and ruin.
d. On occasion of any of the calamities enumerated in the preceding
paragraph, or of an earthquake, eruption of a volcano, destructive cyclone,
epidemic or other public calamity.
e. With evident premeditation.

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f. With cruelty, by deliberately and inhumanly augmenting the suffering of

the victim, or outraging or scoffing at his person or corpse.
g. all of these
272. Committed by any person who shall kill another without the attendance of
any of the circumstances of murder.
a. homicide b. murder
273. This happens when there are several persons, not composing groups
organized for the common purpose of assaulting and attacking each other
reciprocally, quarrel and assault each other in a confused and tumultuous
manner, and in the course of the affray someone is killed, and it cannot be
ascertained who actually killed the deceased, but the person or persons who
inflicted serious physical injuries can be identified, such person or persons
shall be punished by prision mayor.
a. Death caused in a tumultuous affray
b.
274. Committed by person who shall assist another to commit suicide or lends his
assistance to another to the extent of doing the killing himself.
a. Giving assistance to suicide b. Giving assistance to euthanasia
275. Committed by any person who shall shoot at another with any firearm (no
intent to kill).
a. grave threats b. (illegal) discharge of firearms
276. Committed by any person who shall kill any child less than three days of age,
and the penalty for which is the same as that for parricide and murder.
a. infanticide b. homicide
277. Mitigating circumstance of a mother who committed infanticide of her own

child.
a. the child has in born defect
b. to conceal her dishonor
278. Which of these is a way of committing intentional abortion?

a. using any violence upon the person of the pregnant woman.
b. without using violence, acting without the consent of the woman.
c. causing an abortion if the woman shall have consented.
d. all of these
279. Committed by any person who shall cause an abortion by violence, but
unintentionally.
a. intentional abortion b. unintentional abortion

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280. Committed by a pregnant woman who shall practice abortion upon herself or
shall consent that any other person should do so.
a. Abortion practice by the pregnant woman herself or by her parents
281. Which of these may enjoy mitigated penalty if they cause the abortion of a
baby for the purpose of concealment of dishonour of the pregnant woman?
a. pregnant woman herself
b. parents of the pregnant woman
c. both a and b
d. husband of the pregnant woman
282. Committed by any physician or midwife who, taking advantage of their
scientific knowledge or skill, shall cause an abortion or assist in causing the
same.
a. Abortion practiced by a physician or midwife
283. Any pharmacist who, without the proper prescription from a physician, shall
dispense any abortive.
a. Unlawful dispensing of abortives
284. A formal combat between two parties in the presence and under the direction
of a second/s.
a. duet b. duel c. ufc d. wwe
285. In the crime of duel, the seconds shall in all events be punished as:
a. principals b. accomplices c. accessories
286. Committed by any person who shall challenge another, or incite another to
give or accept a challenge to a duel, or shall scoff at or decry another publicly
for having refused to accept a challenge to fight a duel.
a. Challenging to a duel
b. Grave threats
287. Committed by any person who shall intentionally mutilate another by

depriving him, either totally or partially, or some essential organ of
reproduction.
a. mutilation b. cutting source of joy of another
288. Which of these is serious physical injuries?

a. the injured person shall become insane, imbecile, impotent, or blind
b. the person injured shall have lost the use of speech or the power to hear or
to smell, or shall have lost an eye, a hand, a foot, an arm, or a leg or shall
have lost the use of any such member, or shall have become incapacitated
for the work in which he was therefor habitually engaged
c. the person injured shall have become deformed, or shall have lost any other
part of his body, or shall have lost the use thereof, or shall have been ill or

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incapacitated for the performance of the work in which he as habitually

engaged for a period of more than ninety days
d. the physical injuries inflicted shall have caused the illness or incapacity for
labor of the injured person for more than thirty days.
e. all of these
289. What is qualified serious physical injuries?

a. if the victim of the physical injuries is the spouse, ascendants,
descendants, parents, and children of the offender.
290. The same penalty for physical injuries shall be applicable in the respective
case to any person who, without intent to kill, shall inflict upon another any
serious, physical injury, by knowingly administering to him any injurious
substance or beverages or by taking advantage of his weakness of mind or
credulity.
a. Administering injurious substances or beverages
b.
291. Committed by any person who shall inflict upon another physical injuries
which shall incapacitate the offended party for labor for ten days or more (up
to 30 days), or shall require medical assistance for the same period.
a. slight physical injuries b. less serious physical injuries
292. Which of these is slight physical injuries or maltreatment?

a. inflicting physical injuries which shall incapacitate the offended party for
labor from one to nine days, or shall require medical attendance during the
same period.
b. inflicting physical injuries which do not prevent the offended party from
engaging in his habitual work nor require medical assistance.
c. ill-treating another by deed without causing any injury
d. all of these
293. An act expanding the definition of the crime of rape, reclassifying the same as
a crime against persons. "The Anti-Rape Law of 1997.
a. RA 8353
294. Committed by any person who shall commit an act of sexual assault by
inserting his penis into another person's mouth or anal orifice, or any
instrument or object, into the genital or anal orifice of another person.
a. rape by sexual intercourse b. rape by sexual assault
Title Nine
CRIMES AGAINST PERSONAL LIBERTY AND SECURITY

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295. Kidnapping and serious illegal detention is committed by any private

individual who shall kidnap or detain another, or in any other manner deprive
him of his liberty, by which of these
a. . If the kidnapping or detention shall have lasted more than 3 days.
b . If it shall have been committed simulating public authority.
c. . If any serious physical injuries shall have been inflicted upon the person
kidnapped or detained; or if threats to kill him shall have been made.
d.. If the person kidnapped or detained shall be a minor, female or a public
officer.
e. all of these
296. What is qualified kidnapping?

a. If the kidnapping or detention was committed for the purpose of extorting
ransom from the victim or any other person
b. If the victim died, or is raped, or is tortured
c. All of these.
297. Committed by any person who, in any case other than those authorized by
law, or without reasonable ground therefor, shall arrest or detain another for
the purpose of delivering him to the proper authorities.
a. kidnapping b. unlawful arrest
298. Committed by any person who, being entrusted with the custody of a minor
person, shall deliberately fail to restore the latter to his parents or guardians.
a. Kidnapping and failure to return a minor
b. Inducing a minor to abandon home
299. This is committed by anyone, including a parent who shall induce a minor to
abandon the home of his parent or guardians or the persons entrusted with
his custody.
a. Kidnapping and failure to return a minor
b. Inducing a minor to abandon home
300. Committed by anyone who shall purchase, sell, kidnap or detain a human
being for the purpose of enslaving him.
a. human trafficking b. slavery
301. What is qualified slavery?

a. If the slavery is committed for the purpose of assigning the offended party
to some immoral traffic
302. Committed by anyone who, under the pretext of reimbursing himself of a debt
incurred by an ascendant, guardian or person entrusted with the custody of a
minor, shall, against the latter's will, retain him in his service.
a. Exploitation of child labor b. Child abuse

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303. Committed by any person who, in order to require or enforce the payment of
a debt, shall compel the debtor to work for him, against his will, as household
servant or farm laborer.
a. Grave coercion
b. Services rendered under compulsion in payment of debt.
304. Committed by one who shall fail to render assistance to any person whom he
shall find in an uninhabited place wounded or in danger of dying, when he can
render such assistance without detriment to himself, unless such omission
shall constitute a more serious offense. Anyone who shall fail to help or render
assistance to another whom he has accidentally wounded or injured.
a. abandonment of persons in danger and abandonment of one’s own victim
305. Committed by anyone who shall abandon a child under seven years of age,
the custody of which is incumbent upon him.
a. abandoning a minor
306. This is committed by anyone who, having charge of the rearing or education
of a minor, shall deliver said minor to a public institution or other persons,
without the consent of the one who entrusted such child to his care or in the
absence of the latter, without the consent of the proper authorities. This is also
committed by parents who shall neglect their children by not giving them the
education which their station in life require and financial conditions permit.
a. Abandonment of a minor by a person entrusted with his custody;
indifference of parents
307. Committed by private person who shall enter the dwelling of another against
the latter's will.
a. violation of domicile b. trespass to dwelling
308. What is qualified trespassing?

a. If the trespassing be committed by means of violence or intimidation.
309. Which of these is absolutory cause in trespassing?

a. enter another's dwelling for the purpose of preventing some serious harm to
himself, the occupants of the dwelling or a third person
b. trespassing by any person who shall enter a dwelling for the purpose of
rendering some service to humanity or justice,
c. anyone who shall enter cafes, taverns, inn and other public houses, while
the same are open.
d. All of these
310. Committed by any person who shall enter the closed premises or the fenced
estate of another, while either or them are uninhabited, if the prohibition to

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enter be manifest and the trespasser has not secured the permission of the
owner or the caretaker thereof.
a. simple trespass b. other forms of trespass
311. This is committed by any person who shall threaten another with the infliction
upon the person, honor or property of the latter or of his family of any wrong
amounting to a crime.
a. grave threats b. light threats
312. Any threat to commit a wrong not constituting a crime.

a. Grave threats b. light threats
313. The person making the grave or light threats may also be required to give bail
not to molest the person threatened, or if he shall fail to give such bail, he shall
be sentenced to destierro.
a. bond for good behaviour b. bond to keep the peace
314. Which of these is “other light threats”?

a. threatening another with a weapon or draw such weapon in a quarrel, unless
it be in lawful self-defense.
b. any person who, in the heat of anger, shall orally threaten another with
some harm not constituting a crime, and who by subsequent acts show that
he did not persist in the idea involved in his threat.
c. any person who shall orally threaten to do another any harm not
constituting a felony.
d. all of these
315. Committed by any person who, without authority of law, shall, by means of
violence, prevent another from doing something not prohibited by law, or
compel him to do something against his will, whether it be right or wrong.
a. grave threats b. grave coercion
316. What is qualified grave coercion?

a. If the coercion be committed for the purpose of compelling another to
perform any religious act or to prevent him from so doing.
317. Committed by any person who, by means of violence, shall seize anything
belonging to his debtor for the purpose of applying the same to the payment of
the debt.
a. Light coercions b.Grave coercions
318. Any human conduct which although not productive of material or physical
harm will annoy or vex an innocent person
a. unjust vexation b. unjust enrichment

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319. Committed by any private individual who in order to discover the secrets of
another, shall seize his papers or letters and reveal or not reveal the contents
thereof.
a. Discovering secrets through seizure of correspondence
320. This is committed by any manager, employee, or servant who, in such

capacity, shall learn the secrets of his principal or master and shall reveal such
secrets.
a. Revealing secrets with abuse of office
321. Committed by any person in charge, employee or workman of any

manufacturing or industrial establishment who, to the prejudice of the owner
thereof, shall reveal the secrets of the industry of the latter.
a. Revelation of industrial secrets
Title Ten
CRIMES AGAINST PROPERTY
322. Committed by any person who, with intent to gain, shall take any personal
property belonging to another, by means of violence or intimidation of any
person, or using force upon anything.
a. theft b. robbery
323. When more than three armed malefactors take part in the commission of a
robbery, it shall be deemed to have been committed by a __________.
a. band
324. Any member of a band who is present at the commission of a robbery by the
band, shall be punished as principal of any of the assaults committed by the
band, unless it be shown that he:
a. attempted to prevent the same
b. reported the incident to the police
325. When by reason or on occasion of an attempted or frustrated robbery a

homicide is committed, this is also known as:
a. attempted and frustrated robbery committed under exceptional circumstances
326. This is a type of robbery wherein any person who, with intent to defraud
another, by means of violence or intimidation, shall compel him to sign, execute
or deliver any public instrument or documents, shall be held guilty of robbery.
a. Execution of deeds by means of violence
327. Robbery may be robbery with violence against or intimidation of another

person. The other form of robbery is:
a. robbery with the use of force upon things

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328. It means any shelter, ship or vessel constituting the dwelling of one or more
persons, even though the inhabitants thereof shall temporarily be absent
therefrom when the robbery is committed.
a. Inhabited house
329. The term ________ includes every building owned by the Government or
belonging to a private person not included used or rented by the Government,
although temporarily unoccupied by the same.
a. private building b. public building
330. These are tools especially adopted to the commission of the crime of robbery,
and the possession of which is already punishable.
a. picklocks and other similar tools
331. The term "false keys" shall be deemed to include which of these?
a. picklocks
b. genuine keys stolen from the owner.
c. any keys other than those intended by the owner for use in the lock forcibly
opened by
d. all of these
332. When more than three armed persons form a band of robbers for the purpose
of committing robbery in the highway, or kidnapping persons for the purpose
of extortion or to obtain ransom or for any other purpose to be attained by
means of force and violence, they shall be deemed what?
a. highway robbers or brigands b. recidivists
333. This is committed by any person who, with intent to gain but without violence
against or intimidation of persons nor force upon things, shall take personal
property of another without the latter's consent.
a. theft b. robbery
334. Theft is likewise committed by:

a. Any person who, having found lost property, shall fail to deliver the same
to the local authorities or to its owner;
b. Any person who, after having maliciously damaged the property of another,
shall remove or make use of the fruits or object of the damage caused by
him; and
c. Any person who shall enter an inclosed estate or a field where trespass is
forbidden or which belongs to another and without the consent of its
owner, shall hunt or fish upon the same or shall gather cereals, or other
forest or farm products.
d. all of these
335. A type of theft higher by two degrees , if committed by a domestic servant, or
with grave abuse of confidence, or if the property stolen is motor vehicle, mail

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matter or large cattle or consists of coconuts taken from the premises of the
plantation or fish taken from a fishpond or fishery, or if property is taken on
the occasion of fire, earthquake, typhoon, volcanic eruption, or any other
calamity, vehicular accident or civil disturbance.
a. robbery b. qualified theft
336. If the property stolen be any property of the National Library or the National
Museum this is:
a. Theft of the property of the National Library and National Museum. –
337. Any person who, by means of violence against or intimidation of persons, shall
take possession of any real property or shall usurp any real rights in property
belonging to another.
a. Occupation of real property or usurpation of real rights in property
b. squatting
338. Committed by any person who shall alter the boundary marks or monuments
of towns, provinces, or estates, or any other marks intended to designate the
boundaries of the same.
a. Squatting
b. Altering boundaries or landmarks
339. Committed by any person who shall abscond with his property to the
prejudice of his creditors, shall suffer the penalty of prision mayor, if he be a
merchant and the penalty of prision correccional in its maximum period to
prision mayor in its medium period, if he be not a merchant.
a. Estafa b. fraudulent insolvency
340. Estafa is also known as:
a. swindling b. embezzlement
341. Committed by any person who taking advantage of the inexperience or

emotions or feelings of a minor, to his detriment, shall induce him to assume
any obligation or to give any release or execute a transfer of any property right
in consideration of some loan of money, credit or other personal property,
whether the loan clearly appears in the document or is shown in any other form.
a. Swindling a minor
342. This is committed by any person who shall damage or defraud another by any
other deceit not mentioned in the laws on estafa. This is also committed by any
person who, for profit or gain, shall interpret dreams, make forecasts, tell
fortunes, or take advantage of the credulity of the public in any other similar
manner.
a. Other deceits
343. The crime of Removal, sale or pledge of mortgaged property is committed by

which of these?

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a. Any person who shall knowingly remove any personal property

mortgaged under the Chattel Mortgage Law to any province or city other
than the one in which it was located at the time of the execution of the
mortgage, without the written consent of the mortgagee, or his
executors, administrators or assigns.
b. Any mortgagor who shall sell or pledge personal property already
pledged, or any part thereof, under the terms of the Chattel Mortgage
Law, without the consent of the mortgagee written on the back of the
mortgage and noted on the record hereof in the office of the Register of
Deeds of the province where such property is located.
c. All of these
344. The destruction of the property of another by means of fire.

a. arson b. malicious mischief
345. Which of these is Prima Facie evidence of Arson?

a. If the fire started simultaneously in more than one part of the building
or establishment.
b. If substantial amount of flammable substances or materials are stored
within the building note necessary in the business of the offender nor
for household us.
c. If gasoline, kerosene, petroleum or other flammable or combustible
substances or materials soaked therewith or containers thereof, or any
mechanical, electrical, chemical, or electronic contrivance designed to
start a fire, or ashes or traces of any of the foregoing are found in the
ruins or premises of the burned building or property.
d. If the building or property is insured for substantially more than its
actual value at the time of the issuance of the policy.
e. If during the lifetime of the corresponding fire insurance policy more
than two fires have occurred in the same or other premises owned or
under the control of the offender and/or insured.
f. If shortly before the fire, a substantial portion of the effects insured and
stored in a building or property had been withdrawn from the premises
except in the ordinary course of business.
g. If a demand for money or other valuable consideration was made before
the fire in exchange for the desistance of the offender or for the safety of
the person or property of the victim.
h. all of these
346. Which of these is Special Aggravating Circumstances in Arson?

a. If committed with intent to gain;
b. If committed for the benefit of another;
c. If the offender is motivated by spite or hatred towards the owner or
occupant of the property burned;
d. If committed by a syndicate

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e. All of these
347. What is syndicated arson? Or arson aggravated by being committed by a
syndicate?
a. The offense is committed by a syndicate if its is planned or carried
out by a group of three (3) or more persons.
348. This is committed by any person who shall deliberately cause the property of
another any damage by any means and is not considered arson.
a. malicious mischief
b. reckless imprudence resulting in damage to property
349. Which of these is special case of malicious mischief?

a. cause damage to obstruct the performance of public functions
b. using any poisonous or corrosive substance
c. spreading any infection or contagion among cattle
d. cause damage to the property of the National Museum or National Library,
or to any archive or registry, waterworks, road, promenade, or any other
thing used in common by the public.
e. all of these
350. Committed by any person who shall damage any railway, telegraph or
telephone lines.
a. Damage and obstruction to means of communication
351. This is committed by person who shall destroy or damage statues or any other
useful or ornamental public monument or any useful or ornamental painting
of a public nature.
a. Destroying or damaging statues, public monument or paintings
352. No criminal, but only civil liability, shall result from the commission of the
crime of theft, swindling or malicious mischief committed or caused mutually
by the following persons, who is not included? (who is not exempted from
criminal liability?)
a. Spouses, ascendants and descendants, or relatives by affinity in the same
line.
b. The widowed spouse
c. Brothers and sisters and brothers-in-law and sisters-in-law, if living
together.
d. cousins and uncle and auntie
TITLE XI
CRIMES AGAINST CHASTITY
353. This is committed by any married woman who shall have sexual intercourse
with a man not her husband and by the man who has carnal knowledge of her
knowing her to be married.
a. adultery b. concubinage
354. The concubine shall suffer the penalty of______.

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a. stoning b. destierro
354-A. Committed by any husband who shall keep a mistress in the conjugal
dwelling, or shall have sexual intercourse, under scandalous circumstances,
with a woman who is not his wife, or shall cohabit with her in any other place.
a. adultery b. concubinage
355. Formerly rape was crime against chastity, now because of RA 8353, rape is
now a crime against:
a. chastity still b. persons
356. It is having sex with a virgin over twelve years and under eighteen years of
age, committed by any person in public authority, priest, home-servant,
domestic, guardian, teacher, or any person who, in any capacity, shall be
entrusted with the education or custody of the woman seduced.
a. Qualified seduction b. simple seduction
357. It is having sex with a woman who is single or a widow of good reputation,
over twelve but under eighteen years of age, committed by means of deceit.
a. qualified seduction b. simple seduction
358. This is committed by person who shall promote or facilitate the prostitution
or corruption of persons underage to satisfy the lust of another.
a. corruption of minors b. child abuse
359. This is committed by any person who, in any manner, or under any pretext,
shall engage in the business or shall profit by prostitution or shall enlist the
services of any other for the purpose of prostitution.
a. White slave trade b. prostitution and vagrancy
360. The taking of any woman or her abduction against her will and with lewd
designs.
a. Forcible abduction b. Consented abduction
361. It is the abduction or kidnapping or taking of a virgin over twelve years and
under eighteen years of age, carried out with her consent and with lewd designs.
a. Forcible abduction b. Consented abduction
362. The crimes of adultery and concubinage shall not be prosecuted except upon
a complaint filed by which one?
a. offended spouse c. legally separated spouse
b. divorced spouse d. common law
363. Which of these can file a case of abductions, seduction and acts of
lasciviousness?

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a. offended party
b. parents,
c. grandparents, or
d. guardian, nor, in any case, if the offender has been expressly pardoned by
the above named persons, as the case may be.
e. All of these
364. In cases of seduction, abduction, acts of lasciviousness and rape, the ______
of the offender with the offended party shall extinguish the criminal action or
remit the penalty already imposed upon him. This shall also be applicable to
the co-principals, accomplices and accessories after the fact of the above-
mentioned crimes.
a. pardon b. marriage c. payment of civil liability
365. Person guilty of rape, seduction or abduction, shall also be sentenced to which
of these?
a. To indemnify the offended woman.
b. To acknowledge the offspring, unless the law should prevent him from so
doing.
c. In every case to support the offspring
d. all of these
Title Twelve
CRIMES AGAINST THE CIVIL STATUS OF PERSONS
366. This takes place when the woman pretended to be pregnant and on the date
of delivery takes the child of another as her own
a. simulation of birth b. substitution of one child for another
367. This is committed by any person who shall usurp the civil status of another
with or without intent to defraud another.
a. usurpation of civil status
368. This is committed by any legally married person who shall contract a second
or subsequent marriage before the former marriage has been legally dissolved,
or before the absent spouse has been declared presumptively dead by means of
a judgment rendered in the proper proceedings.
a. polygamy b. monogamy c. bigamy d. annulment
369. This is committed by any person who, shall contract marriage knowing that
the requirements of the law have not been complied with complied or that the
marriage is in disregard of a legal impediment.
a. Marriage contracted against the provision of the law.
370. How is premature marriage committed?

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a.. by any widow who shall marry within three hundred and one day from the date
of the death of her husband, or before having delivered if she shall have been
pregnant at the time of his death..
b. by any woman whose marriage shall have been annulled or dissolved, if she shall
marry before her delivery or before the expiration of the period of three hundred
and one day after the legal separation.
c. all of these
Title Thirteen
CRIMES AGAINST HONOR
371. It is a public and malicious imputation of a crime, or of a vice or defect, real

or imaginary, or any act, omission, condition, status, or circumstance tending
to cause the dishonor, discredit, or contempt of a natural or juridical person,
or to blacken the memory of one who is dead.
a. slander b. libel
372. Under the law on libel, every defamatory imputation is presumed to be

malicious, even if it be true, if no good intention and justifiable motive for
making it is shown, except in which of these
a. A private communication made by any person to another in the performance
of any legal, moral or social duty; and
b. A fair and true report, made in good faith, without any comments or
remarks, of any judicial, legislative or other official proceedings which are not
of confidential nature, or of any statement, report or speech delivered in said
proceedings, or of any other act performed by public officers in the exercise
of their functions.
c. all of these
373. Libel is not only limited to newspaper, it may also be committed thru?
a. writing, printing, lithography, engraving, radio, phonograph, painting,
theatrical exhibition, cinematographic exhibition, or any similar means,
374. It is libel committed orally instead of in writing?

a. slander b. oral defamation c. both a and b d. libel
375. This is committed by any person who shall perform any act which shall cast
dishonor, discredit or contempt upon another person.
a. Slander by deed.
376. Who are liable for libel?

a. any person who shall publish, exhibit, or cause the publication or
exhibition of any defamation in writing or by similar means.
b. The author or editor of a book or pamphlet, or the editor or business
manager of a daily newspaper, magazine or serial publication.

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c. all of these
377. In every criminal prosecution for libel, the truth may be given in evidence to
the court and if it appears that the matter charged as libelous is true, and,
moreover, that it was published with good motives and for justifiable ends, the
defendants shall be acquitted. The statement is:
a. true b. false
378. Proof of the truth of an imputation of an act or omission not constituting a

crime shall not be admitted, unless the imputation shall have been made
against Government employees with respect to facts related to the discharge of
their official duties. In such cases if the defendant proves the truth of the
imputation made by him, he shall be acquitted. The statement is:
a. true b. false
379. Incriminatory machinations are which of these?

a. incriminating innocent persons
b. intriguing against honor
c. all of these
380. This is committed by any person who, by any act not constituting perjury,
shall directly incriminate or impute to an innocent person the commission of a
crime.
a. Incriminating innocent persons
b. Intriguing against honor
381. Committed by any person who shall make any intrigue which has for its
principal purpose to blemish the honor or reputation of a person. It is a scheme
or plot designed to blemish the reputation of a person by some forms of trickery.
a. Incriminating innocent persons
b. Intriguing against honor
Title Fourteen
QUASI-OFFENSES
382. This consists in voluntary, but without malice, doing or falling to do an act
from which material damage results by reason of inexcusable lack of precaution
on the part of the person performing of failing to perform such act, taking into
consideration his employment or occupation, degree of intelligence, physical
condition and other circumstances regarding persons, time and place.
a. reckless imprudence
383. This consists in the lack of precaution displayed in those cases in which the
damage impending to be caused is not immediate nor the danger clearly
manifest.
a. simple imprudence

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Title Fifteen
FINAL PROVISIONS
CRIMINAL PROCEDURE
PRELIMINARY CONCEPTS
384. Last article of the Revised Penal Code.

a. article 367
385. The method prescribed by law for the apprehension and prosecution of
persons accused of any criminal offense, and for their punishment, in case of
conviction.
a. criminal procedure b. criminal law c. criminal evidence
386. The main bulk of Philippine Rules on Criminal Procedure are found in Part
III, from Rules 110 to 127 of the Rules of Court which took effect on what
date?
a. January 1, 1964 b. January 1, 1932 c. February 2, 1987
387. Which of these is source of criminal procedure?
a. 1987 Constitution c. E.O.

b. Laws passed by Congress such as BP 129 d. all of these
388. The systems of criminal procedure are:
a. inquisitorial system b. accusatorial/adversarial system

c. mixed system d. all of these
389. The rules of court shall be liberally construed in order to promote their
objective of securing a just, speedy, and inexpensive disposition of every
action and proceeding. This is the:
a. liberal construction rule b. strict construction rule
390. The word “jurisdiction” is derived from two Latin words “juris” and “dico”
which means:
a. law and order b. I speak by the law
391. It is the authority to hear and determine a cause. It is the power given by
the law to a court to entertain, hear and determine certain controversies.
a. venue b. jurisdiction

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392. It is the particular country, or geographical area, in which a court with

jurisdiction may hear and determine a case. It is the place of trial.
a. venue b. jurisdiction
393. The power of a tribunal to hear and try a particular offense and impose
punishment for it.
a. criminal jurisdiction b. civil jurisdiction
394. Requisites of criminal jurisdiction are the following except:
a. jurisdiction over the subject matter

b. jurisdiction over the territory where the crime was committed
c. jurisdiction over the person of the accused
d. jurisdiction over the nationality of the offender
RULE 110
PROSECUTION OF OFFENSES
395. For offenses where a preliminary investigation is required, the institution of

criminal action is made by filing the complaint with the proper officer for the
purpose of conducting the requisite preliminary investigation. Who among the
following is the proper officer referred to in this statement?
a. city and provincial prosecutor and their assistants

b. national and regional prosecutors
c. ombudsman
d. all of the above
396. For all other offenses, meaning those where the offense is punishable by less
than 4 years 2 months and 1 day, the filing of the complaint or information is
made directly with which of the following?
a. Municipal Trial Courts

b. Municipal Circuit Trial Courts, or
c. The complaint with the office of the prosecutor
d. All of the above
397. In Manila and other chartered cities, the complaints shall be filed with the
_________, unless their charter provides otherwise.
a. office of the prosecutor

b. office of the baranggay captaion
c. office of the President
d. office of the mayor

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398. The filing of the complaint or information for preliminary investigation or

trial:
a. interrupts the running of the prescriptive period
b. does not interrupt the running of the prescriptive period
399. The law firm of the Philippine government. It represents the government and
its agencies in any matter requiring the services of a lawyer.
a. Department of Justice
b. Supreme Court
c. Office of the Solicitor General
d. None of the above
400. In case of heavy work schedule of the public prosecutor, in the event of lack
of public prosecutors, the ____________ may be authorized in writing by the
Chief of the Prosecution office or the Regional State Prosecutor to prosecute the
case subject to the approval of the court.
a. offended party
b. complainant
c. criminology student
d. private prosecutor
401. In Municipal Trial Courts or Municipal Circuit Trial Courts when the
prosecutor assigned thereto or to the case is not available, who may prosecute
the case?
a. The offended party
b. Any peace officer
c. Public officer charged with the enforcement of the law violated
d. Any or all of the above may
402. The authority of the offended party or peace officer to prosecute the case
authority shall cease:
a. upon actual intervention of the public prosecutor
b. upon elevation of the case to the Regional Trial Court
c. either of or both a and b
d. upon order of the President
403. The crimes of adultery and concubinage shall not be prosecuted except
upon a complaint filed by the:
a. public prosecutor
b. private prosecutor
c. offended spouse
d. any of the above

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404. The offended party cannot institute criminal prosecution without including
both the guilty parties, if both are alive, nor in any case, if the offended party
has consented to the offense or pardoned the offenders. This rule is applicable
in which of the following criminal cases?
a. adultery
b. concubinage
c. bigamy
d. both a and b
e. all of the above
405. Which among the following crimes may not be filed or prosecuted by the
public prosecutor unilaterally or without the complaint filed by the offended
party?
a. seduction
b. abduction
c. acts of lasciviousness
d. adultery
e. concubinage
f. all of the above
406. Fiscal X filed an information for homicide against Pedro. Fiscal X later wanted
to withdraw the information since Pedro filed with the DOJ a petition for review.
Fiscal X filed motion to dismiss or withdraw the information that he filed.
a. the motion to dismiss will be granted since the prosecutor is in direct

control of prosecution of criminal cases
b. the motion to dismiss may not be granted because once the case had
been filed in court, its dismissal is now properly addressed to the sound
discretion of the trial court.
407. The right to intervention of the offended party in a criminal case is based on:
a. His right to enforce the civil liability borne out of the criminal of the
accused.
b. His right to demand punishment of the accused
c. His right to have the accused electrocuted
d. His right to protect the society from evil doers
408. Petra is a victim of abduction. Here the public prosecutor:
a. may file the case by himself even without complaint of Petra

b. cannot file the case by himself without the complaint being filed by Petra
or her parents, grandparents or guardian if she were a minor.
c. will dismiss the case
d. must refer the case to mediation

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409. Petra is a victim of abduction with rape. Here the public prosecutor:
a. may file the case by himself even without Petra’s complaint
b. cannot file the case by himself without the complaint being filed by
Petra or her parents, grandparents or guardian if she were a minor.
c. will dismiss the case
d. must refer the case to mediation
410. Denise is married to Cedric. Roxan spread gossip that Denis is the concubine
of Bong. Can the public prosecutor file the case of libel/slander against Roxan
by himself without the complaint of Denise?
a. yes
b. no
411. As a general rule allegation of the specific place where the crime is committed
is not required when drafting an information. The exception however is in the
crime/s of:
a. robbery in an inhabited house
b. destructive arson
c. trespass to dwelling
d. all of the above
e.
412. As a general rule, allegation of the exact time when the crime was committed
is not required when drafting an information, except when the crime charged
is:
a. infanticide
b. violations of election laws
c. violations of labor laws such as rule on double pay in declared holidays
d. certain laws on gambling
e. all of the above
f.
413. As a general rule, a duplicitous information is open to a motion to quash.
Which among the following is an exception to the rule on duplicitous
information and may therefore not be challenged via a motion to quash?
a. complex crimes
b. special complex crimes
c. continuous crimes or delito continuado
d. crimes of which the other offense is but an ingredient
e. all of the above
414. A complaint or information is sufficient if it states the following EXCEPT:

a. the name of the accused
b. the designation of the offense

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c. the amount of bail required

d. acts or omissions complained of as constituting the offense
415. As a general rule, the precise and exact date and time of the commission of
the offense is required to be specifically stated in the complaint or information.
a. true b. false
416. As a general rule, the precise and exact place of the commission of the offense
is required to be specifically stated in the complaint or information.
a. true b. false
417. The complaint or information must state the name and surname of the
accused or any appellation or nickname by which he has been or is known. If
his name cannot be ascertained, he must be described under a _______ name.
a. alias b. fictitious c. assumed d. baptismal
418. The complaint or information shall state the following except:

a. designation of the offense given by the statute
b. name of the judge and fiscal handling the case
c. acts and omissions constituting the offense
d. qualifying and aggravating circumstances
419. In the complaint or information, if there is no designation of the offense given

by the statute, what should the pleader do?
a. reference shall be made to the section or subsection of the statute
punishing it
b. dismiss the case for lack of jurisdiction
c. file a motion to quash the complaint or information
d. all of the above
420. The acts or omissions complained of as constituting the offense and the
qualifying and aggravating circumstances must be stated in ______ and concise
language and not necessarily in the language used in the statute.
a. ordinary b. technical c. legal d. very clear
421. The complaint or information need not be stated in the technical or very
legalistic language used by the law but it should be stated in terms that will:
a. enable a person of common understanding to know what offense is being
charged
b. enable a person of common understanding to know what qualifying
circumstances if any are being charged
c. enable the court to pronounce proper judgment
d. all of the above

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422. The complaint or information is sufficient if it can be understood from its

allegations that the offense was committed or some of its essential ingredients
occurred at some place within the jurisdiction of the court unless:
a. the particular place where it was committed constitutes an essential
element of the offense charged
b. the particular place where it was committed is necessary for its
identification
c. both a and b
d. the it charges two or more offenses
423. It is not necessary to state in the complaint or information the precise date
the offense was committed EXCEPT:
a. when time is a material ingredient of the offense
b. when the place is material ingredient of the offense
c. when circumstances of the offender is a material ingredient of the offense
d. when the mind set of the accused is material ingredient of the offense
424. It is not necessary to state the precise date the offense was committed except
in the crime of, which of the following?
a. rape
b. homicide
c. complex crime of direct assault with homicide
d. infanticide
425. As a general rule is not necessary to state the precise date the offense was
committed. However the pleader must:
a. guess the remotest time of the commission of the crime
b. omit the approximate time of the commission of the crime
c. let the judge decide on the exact time of the commission of the crime
d. allege a date as near as possible to the actual date of the commission of
the crime
426. The offended party, in case his name is unknown must be described under a:
a. assumed name b. real name c. fictitious name d. A.K.A name
427. If the name of the offended party in crimes against property is unknown, what
must the pleader do?
a. the property must be described with such particularity as to properly
identify the offense charged
b. the victim must be described with such particularity as to properly
c. the accused must be described with such particularity as to properly
d. all of the above

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428. What should the pleader do if the offended party is a juridical person?
a. state its name or any of its known designation or by which it may be
identified
b. dismiss the case for lack of respondent
c. either a or b
d. cause a through investigation first and file the case later
429. As a rule, a complaint or information must charge _____ offense.

a. one
b. two
c. three
d. as many offenses as there appear to be committed by the accused
430. The joinder of two or more offenses in only one information is known as:
a. duplicitous information b. illegal information c. legal information
431. What is the remedy of an accused who is being charged under a duplicitous
information?
a. file a motion to dismiss
c. cry and cry until he dies
b. file a motion to quash
d. file demurrer to evidence
432. A complaint or information may be amended, in form or substance, without

leave of court, at any time before the accused enters his plea. What is meant by
“leave of court?”
a. knowledge of the court c. against the will of the judge
b. permission of the court d. vacation of the court personel
433. A complaint or information may be amended, in form or substance, without

leave of court, at any time before the accused enters his plea. The underlined
statement refers to until what stage of the trial?
a. pre-trial c. arraignment
b. promulgation of judgment d. appeal
434. The following are correct venues of trial in the cases and circumstances stated
hereunder EXCEPT one. Which one is it?
(a) Subject to existing laws, the criminal action shall be instituted and tried in the
court of the municipality or territory where the offense was committed or where
any of its essential ingredients occurred.
(b) Where an offense is committed in a train, aircraft, or other public or private

vehicle in the course of its trip, the criminal action shall be instituted and tried
in the court of any municipality or territory where such train, aircraft, or other
vehicle passed during its trip, including the place of its departure and arrival.

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(c) Where an offense is committed on board a vessel in the course of its voyage, the
criminal action shall be instituted and tried in the court of the first port of entry
or of any municipality or territory where the vessel passed during such voyage,
subject to the generally accepted principles of international law.
d. Where the offense is committed by a Senator or Congressman the case shall be

filed before Congress itself so that they may be impeached
RULE 111
Prosecution of Civil Action
435: What is the general rule when a criminal action has been instituted?
a. When a criminal action is instituted, the civil action for the recovery of civil
liability arising from the offense charged shall be deemed instituted with the
criminal action unless the offended party waives the civil action, reserves the
right to institute it separately or institutes the civil action prior to the criminal
action.
b. When a criminal action is instituted, the civil action for the recovery of civil
liability arising from the offense charged shall be expressly instituted with the
criminal action unless the offended party waives the civil action, reserves the
right to institute it separately or institutes the civil action prior to the criminal
action.
436: Which among the following is the exception to the rule that When a criminal
action is instituted, the civil action for the recovery of civil liability arising from
the offense charged shall be deemed instituted with the criminal action?
a. If the offended party waives the civil action
b. If the offended reserves the right to institute it separately
c. If the offended party institutes the civil action prior to the criminal action
d. All of these
437: When is the proper time to reserve the right to institute the separate civil
action?
a. The reservation shall be made before the prosecution starts presenting its
evidence
b. The reservation shall be made under circumstances affording the offended
party a reasonable opportunity to make such reservation.
c. Both a and b
d. Only “a” is the right answer
438: What happens when the offended party seeks to enforce civil liability against
the accused by way of moral, nominal, temperate, or exemplary damages
without specifying the amount thereof in the complaint or information?
a. The filing fees thereof shall constitute a first lien on the judgment awarding
such damages

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b. The complainant must pay the appropriate filing fees otherwise the court
will have no jurisdiction
439: If the amount of damages, other than actual, is specified in the complaint or
information, what must the complainant do?
a. He must the corresponding filing fees upon the filing thereof in court.
b. He may not pay the filing fees anymore
440: As a general rule no filing fees shall be required or paid by the complainant
or offended party for what kind of damages?
a. Moral
b. Exemplar
c. Nominal
d. Temperate
e. Actual
f. Liquidated
441: In a criminal case, the accused is not allowed to file this.

a. counterclaim
b. cross-claim
c. third-party
d. all of these
442. The rules say that the criminal action for violation of Batas Pambansa Blg. 22
shall be deemed to include the corresponding civil action. No reservation to file
such civil action separately shall be allowed. This statement is:
a. true b. false
443. Where the civil action has been filed separately from the criminal action and
trial thereof has not yet commenced, it may be consolidated with the criminal
action upon application with the court trying which case?
a. Court trying the civil action
b. Court trying the criminal action
444. After the criminal action has been commenced, the separate civil action
arising therefrom cannot be instituted until final judgment has been entered in
the criminal action. This statement is:
a. true b. false
445. If the criminal action is filed after the civil action has already been instituted,
the _______ shall be suspended in whatever stage it may be found before
judgment on the merits. The suspension shall last until final judgment is
rendered in the criminal action.
a. Civil action
b. Criminal action
446. This states that where both criminal and civil actions arising from the same
facts are filed in different courts, the civil case may be suspended in whatever
stage it may be found.

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a. Doctrine of primacy of criminal actions

b. Doctrine of primacy of civil actions
447. If a civil action is filed separately from the criminal action and before
judgment on the merits is rendered in the civil action, it may, upon motion of
the offended party, be ________ with the criminal action in the court trying the
criminal action. In case of consolidation, the evidence already adduced in the
civil action shall be deemed automatically reproduced in the criminal action
a. Joined
b. Combined
c. Intertwined
d. Consolidated
448. Extinction of the penal action does not carry with it extinction of the civil
action. However, the civil action based on delict shall be deemed extinguished
if there is a finding in a final judgment in the criminal action that the act or
omission from which the civil liability may arise did not exist. The statement
is:
a. True b. false
449. In the cases provided for in Articles 32, 33, 34 and 2176 of the Civil Code of
the Philippines, the independent civil action may be brought by the offended
party. It shall proceed independently of the criminal action and shall require
only what kind of evidence?
a. Proof beyond reasonable doubt c. Substantial evidence
evidence d. None of these
b. Preponderance of evidence
450. A final judgment rendered in a civil action absolving the defendant from civil
liability is not a bar to a criminal action against the defendant for the same act
or omission subject of the civil action. The statement:
a. True
b. false
451. It is one which arises in a case, the resolution of which is a logical antecedent
of the issue involved therein and the cognizance of which pertains to another
tribunal.
a. Judicial question
b. Prejudicial question
452: Where does the accused file a petition for suspension of the criminal action
based upon the pendency of a prejudicial question in a civil action?
a. Office of the prosecutor
b. The court conducting the preliminary investigation
c. When the criminal action has been filed in court for trial, the petition to suspend
shall be filed in the same criminal action at any time before the prosecution
rests.

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d. All of these
453. The elements of a prejudicial question are:

(a) the previously instituted civil action involves an issue similar or intimately
related to the issue raised in the subsequent criminal action
(b) the resolution of such issue determines whether or not the criminal action may
proceed.
c. all of these
RULE 112
Preliminary Investigation
454. It is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether there is sufficient ground
to engender a well-founded belief that a crime has been committed and the
respondent is probably guilty thereof, and should be held for trial.
a. Inquest
b. Preliminary examination
c. Preliminary trial
d. Preliminary investigation
455. A preliminary investigation is required to be conducted before the filing of a

complaint or information if:
a. the penalty prescribed by law for the alleged offense is at least four (4) years, two
(2) months and one (1) day without regard to the fine.
b. the penalty prescribed by law for the alleged offense is at least four (4) years, two
(2) months and one (1) day with regard to the fine.
c. The penalty is below 4 years 2 months and 1 day
456. Who may not conduct preliminary investigations?

(a) Provincial or City Prosecutors and their assistants;
(b) Judges of the Municipal Trial Courts and Municipal Circuit Trial Courts;
(c) National and Regional State Prosecutors; and
(d) Other officers as may be authorized by law.
457. In a preliminary investigation, the affidavits shall be subscribed and sworn to

before any prosecutor or government official authorized to administer oath, or,
in their absence or unavailability, before a notary public. The statement is:
a. true
b. false
458. In a preliminary investigation, within _______ days after the filing of the
complaint, the investigating officer shall either dismiss it if he finds no ground
to continue with the investigation, or issue a subpoena to the respondent
attaching to it a copy of the complaint and its supporting affidavits and
documents.
a. 10 days
b. 5 days

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459. Within______ days from receipt of the subpoena with the complaint and
supporting affidavits and documents, the respondent shall submit his counter-
affidavit and that of his witnesses and other supporting documents relied upon
for his defense.
a. 10 days
b. 5 days
460. If the respondent cannot be subpoenaed, or if subpoenaed, does not submit

counter-affidavits within the ten (10) day period, the investigating officer shall:
a. resolve the complaint based on the evidence presented by the complainant
b. dismiss the case
c. automatically file the case
461. No complaint or information may be filed or dismissed by an investigating

prosecutor without the prior written authority or approval of the provincial or
city prosecutor or chief state prosecutor or the Ombudsman or his deputy. This
statement is:
a. true
b. false
462. Where the investigating prosecutor recommends the dismissal of the complaint
but his recommendation is disapproved by the provincial or city prosecutor or
chief state prosecutor or the Ombudsman or his deputy on the ground that a
probable cause exists, the latter may, by himself, file the information against the
respondent, or direct any other assistant prosecutor or state prosecutor to do so
without conducting another preliminary investigation. This statement is:
a. true
b. false
463. The issuance of a warrant of arrest is not necessary in this case.

a. The accused is already under detention pursuant to warrant issued by mtc
b. When the accused is lawfully arrested without a warrant
c. The offense is punishable by a fine only
d. All of these
464. When a person is lawfully arrested without a warrant involving an offense

which requires a preliminary investigation, the complaint or information may be
filed by a prosecutor without need of such investigation provided that this has
been made
a. Preliminary investigation
b. Torture
c. Complaint filed by complainants
d. Inquest

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465. If the accused was arrested without a warrant, before the complaint or
information is filed, the person arrested may ask for a preliminary investigation
in accordance with this Rule, but he must sign a waiver of the provision of which
Article of the Revised Penal Code as amended, in the presence of his counsel?
a. Article 124 on arbitrary detention proper
b. Article 125 on arbitrary detention by delay in the delivery of detained persons to
the proper judicial authorities.
466. After the filing of the complaint or information in court without a preliminary
investigation, the accused may, within ________ days from the time he learns of
its filing, ask for a preliminary investigation
a. 5 days
b. 10 days
RULE 113
Arrest
467. The taking of a person into custody in order that he may be bound to answer
for the commission of an offense.
a. arrest b. search c. rape d. detention
468. An arrest is made by an actual restraint of a person to be arrested, or by his
what?
a. Submission to the custody of the person making the arrest.
b. Delivering a surrender feelers with a person in authority or agent
469. It shall be the duty of the officer executing the warrant to arrest the accused
and to deliver him to the nearest police station or jail without unnecessary delay.
The statement is:
a. True
b. False
470. The head of the office to whom the warrant of arrest was delivered for execution
shall cause the warrant to be executed within _____ days from its receipt. Within
ten (10) days after the expiration of the period, the officer to whom it was
assigned for execution shall make a report to the judge who issued the warrant.
a. 10 days
b. 5 days
471. Which among the following is not a valid ground to arrest another without
warrant?
(a) When, in his presence, the person to be arrested has committed, is actually
committing, or is attempting to commit an offense;
(b) When an offense has just been committed, and he has probable cause to believe
based on personal knowledge of facts or circumstances that the person to be
arrested has committed it; and
(c) When the person to be arrested is a prisoner who has escaped from a penal
establishment or place where he is serving final judgment or is temporarily

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confined while his case is pending, or has escaped while being transferred from
one confinement to another.
(d) When the person to be arrested is acting suspiciously or there are reliable
information that the person is the criminal.
472. An arrest may be made on any weekdays and office hours only. The statement
is:
a. True
b. False
473. The officer need not have the warrant in his possession at the time of the arrest
but after the arrest, if the person arrested so requires, the warrant shall be
shown to him as soon as practicable. The statement is:
a. True
b. False
474. When making an arrest without a warrant, the officer must: inform the person
to be arrested of his authority and the cause of the arrest, unless
a. the accused is engaged in the commission of an offense
b. the accused is pursued immediately after its commission,
c. the accused has escaped, flees or forcibly resists before the officer has
opportunity so to inform him
d. the giving of such information will imperil the arrest
e. all of these
475. When making an arrest, a private person shall inform the person to be arrested
of the intention to arrest him and cause of the arrest, unless:
a. the accused is engaged in the commission of an offense
b. the accused is pursued immediately after its commission
c. accused has escaped, flees, or forcibly resists before the person making the
arrest has opportunity to so inform him
d. when the giving of such information will imperil the arrest
e. all of these
476. An officer making a lawful arrest may orally summon as many persons as he
deems necessary to assist him in effecting the arrest. Every person so summoned
by an officer shall assist him in effecting the arrest when he can render such
assistance without detriment to himself. The statement is:
a. true
b. false
477. An officer, in order to make an arrest either by virtue of a warrant, or without

a warrant may break into any building or enclosure where the person to be
arrested is or is reasonably believed to be if he is refused admittance thereto,
after announcing his authority and purpose. This is:

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a. break open/in doctrine

b. not allowed
c. police brutality or abuse
478. Whenever an officer has entered the building or enclosure in accordance with
the preceding section, he may break out therefrom when necessary to liberate
himself.
a. Right to break out
b. Break out doctrine
c. All of these
479. If a person lawfully arrested escapes or is rescued, any person may

immediately pursue or retake him without a warrant at any time and in any
place within the Philippines. The statement is:
a. True
b. False
RULE 114
Bail
480. It is the security given for the release of a person in custody of the law,
furnished by him or a bondsman, to guarantee his appearance before any court
as required under the conditions hereinafter specified.
a. bail b. recognizance c. property bond d. james bond e. robber bond
481. Which among these is a condition of bail grant?

(a) The undertaking shall be effective upon approval, and unless cancelled, shall
remain in force at all stages of the case until promulgation of the judgment of
the Regional Trial Court.
(b) The accused shall appear before the proper court whenever required by the court
of these Rules;
(c) The failure of the accused to appear at the trial without justification and despite
due notice shall be deemed a waiver of his right to be present thereat. In such
case, the trial may proceed in absentia; and
(d) The bondsman shall surrender the accused to the court for execution of the final
judgment.
(e) All of these
482. No person under detention by legal process shall be released or transferred

except upon order of the court or when he is admitted to bail. The statement is:
a. true
b. false
483. Before or after conviction by the Metropolitan Trial Court, Municipal Trial
Court, Municipal Trial Court in Cities, or Municipal Circuit Trial Court, and
before conviction by the Regional Trial Court of an offense not punishable by
death, reclusion perpetua, or life imprisonment, bail is a matter of:

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a. right
b. discretion
484. Upon/after the conviction by the Regional Trial Court of an offense not
punishable by death, reclusion perpetua, or life imprisonment, admission to bail
is _____.
a. Matter of right
b. Matter of discretion
485. Which among these is the correct statement regarding where to apply for bail?
a. The application for bail may be filed and acted upon by the trial court despite
the filing of a notice of appeal, provided it has not transmitted the original record
to the appellate court.
b. If the decision of the trial court convicting the accused changed the nature of
the offense from non-bailable to bailable, the application for bail can only be filed
with and resolved by the appellate court.
c. All of these
486. When is the accused denied bail?

a. If the penalty imposed by the trial court is imprisonment exceeding six (6) years.
b. If the penalty is 6 years or less
487. The accused shall be denied bail, or his bail shall be cancelled upon a showing
by the prosecution, with notice to the accused, of which of the following
circumstances?
(a) accused is a recidivist, quasi-recidivist, or habitual delinquent, or has committed
the crime aggravated by the circumstance of reiteration;
(b) accused has previously escaped from legal confinement, evaded sentence, or
violated the conditions of his bail without valid justification;
(c) accused committed the offense while under probation, parole, or conditional
pardon;
(d) The circumstances of his case indicate the probability of flight if released on bail;
or
(e) That there is undue risk that he may commit another crime during the pendency
of the appeal.
(f) all of these
488. This is an offense which, under the law existing at the time of its commission
and of the application for admission to bail, may be punished with death.
penalty
a. Heinous crimes
b. Capital offense
489. No person charged with a capital offense, or an offense punishable by reclusion

perpetua or life imprisonment, shall be admitted to bail when evidence of guilt
is strong. The statement is:

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a. Correct
b. Not correct
490. Who has the burden of proof or of showing that evidence of guilt is strong so
that the accused may be denied bail?
a. defense b. judge c. prosecution d. complainant
491. The judge who issued the warrant may fix a reasonable amount of bail
considering which of the following factors:
(a) Financial ability of the accused to give bail;
(b) Nature and circumstances of the offense;
(c) Penalty for the offense charged;
(d) Character and reputation of the accused;
(e) Age and health of the accused;
(f) Weight of the evidence against the accused;
(g) Probability of the accused appearing at the trial;
(h) Forfeiture of other bail;
(i) The fact that accused was a fugitive from justice when arrested; and
(j) Pendency of other cases where the accused is on bail.
(k) all of these
492. It is an undertaking constituted as lien on the real property given as security

for the amount of the bail.
a. rubber bond b. james bond c. mighty bond d. property bond
493. The payment of bail shall be made to:

a. nearest collector or internal revenue
b. provincial, city, or municipal treasurer
c. judge
d. all of these except “c”
494. When a person has been in custody for a period equal to or more than the
possible maximum imprisonment prescribe for the offense charged, he shall be
_____
a. released immediately
b. sentenced to death
495. If the maximum penalty to which the accused may be sentenced is _______ he
shall be released after thirty (30) days of preventive imprisonment.
a. arresto menor
b. destierro
496. A person in custody for a period equal to or more than the minimum of the
principal penalty prescribed for the offense charged, without application of the

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Indeterminate Sentence Law or any modifying circumstance, shall be released

on a reduced bail or on ________.
a. Recognizance
b. Parole
c. Probation
d. All of these
497. Bail may be filed with the court where the case is pending, or in the absence
or unavailability of the judge thereof, with any regional trial judge, metropolitan
trial judge, municipal trial judge, or municipal circuit trial judge in the province,
city, or municipality. If the accused is arrested in a province, city, or municipality
other than where the case is pending, bail may also be filed with any regional
trial court of said place, or if no judge thereof is available, with any metropolitan
trial judge, municipal trial judge, or municipal circuit trial judge therein. The
statement is:
a. True
b. False
498. An act institutionalizing recognizance as a mode of granting the release of an

indigent person in custody as an accused in a criminal case and for other
purposes "recognizance act of 2012″.
a. RA 10389
499. It is a mode of securing the release of any person in custody or detention for
the commission of an offense who is unable to post bail due to abject poverty.
The court where the case of such person has been filed shall allow the release of
the accused, to the custody of a qualified member of the barangay, city or
municipality where the accused resides.
a. Guarantee
b. Recognizance
c. Palabra de Honor
500. An indigent person shall be refused to be released on recognizance if which of

these is proven?
(a) The accused bad made untruthful statements in his/her sworn affidavit under
RA 10389
(b) He is a recidivist, quasi-recidivist, habitual delinquent, or has committed a crime
aggravated by the circumstance of reiteration;
(c) He had been found to have previously escaped from legal confinement, evaded
sentence or has violated the conditions of bail or release on recognizance without
valid justification;
(d) He had previously committed a crime while on probation, parole or under
conditional pardon;
(e) The personal circumstances of the accused or nature of the facts surrounding
his/her case indicate the probability of flight if released on recognizance;

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(f) There is a great risk that the accused may commit another crime during the
pendency of the case; and
(g) The accused has a pending criminal case which has the same or higher penalty
to the new crime he/she is being accused of.
(i) all of these)
501. Which of these is qualification of the custodian of the person released on

recognizance?
(a) A person of good repute and probity;
(b) A resident of the barangay where the applicant resides;
(c) Must not be a relative of the applicant within the fourth degree of consanguinity
or affinity; and
(d) Must belong to any of the following sectors and institutions: church, academe,
social welfare, health sector, cause-oriented groups, charitable organizations or
organizations engaged in the rehabilitation of offenders duly accredited by the
local social welfare and development officer
(e) All of these
502. This penalty shall be imposed upon the custodian who failed to deliver or
produce the accused who was released on recognizance before the court, upon
due notice, without justifiable reason.
a. 6 months to 2 years imprisonment
b. Death Penalty
503. The bond of the accused shall be forfeited when:

a. He fails to appear in person as required
b. He commits another crime
504. When is bail be cancelled?

a. upon surrender of the accused
b. proof of his death.
c. acquittal of the accused
d. dismissal of the case
e. execution of the judgment of conviction
f. all of these
505. An accused released on bail may be re-arrested without the necessity of a

warrant if he attempts to depart from the Philippines without permission of the
court where the case is pending. The statement is:
a. true
b. false
506. No bail shall be allowed after the judgment of conviction has become final. If
before such finality, the accused has applies for probation, he may be allowed
temporary liberty under his bail. When no bail was filed or the accused is

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incapable of filing one, the court may allow his release on recognizance to the
custody of a responsible member of the community. In no case shall bail be
allowed after the accused has commenced to serve sentence. The statement is:
a. true
b. false
507. An application for or admission to bail shall not bar the accused from
challenging the validity of his arrest or the legality of the warrant issued therefor,
or from assailing the regularity or questioning the absence of a preliminary
investigation of the charge against him, provided that he raises them before this
time.
a. After entering his plea
b. Before entering his plea
c. During appeal
d. Anytime before judgment becomes final
RULE 115
Rights of Accused
508. Upon motion, the accused may be allowed to defend himself in person if:
a. it sufficiently appears to the court that he can properly protect his right without
the assistance of counsel.
b. The accused is found by the court to be of extraordinary high intellect
509. The accused has the right to testify as a witness in his own behalf but subject
to cross examinations. His silence shall not in any manner prejudice him.
a. true
b. false
510. To be exempt from being compelled to be a witness against himself, is the right
of the accused against:
a. false prosecution
b. self incrimination
511. This right was established on the grounds of public policy and humanity — of
policy, because if the party were required to testify, it would place the witness
under the strongest temptation to commit the crime of perjury, and of humanity,
because it would prevent the extorting of confessions by duress."
a. Right to lawyer
b. Right against self incrimination
512. He is a lawyer appointed by the court, from among such members of the bar
in good standing who by reason of their experience and ability may adequately
defend the accused in a criminal case.

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a. Counsel de parte
b. Counsel de officio
513. It is one free from vexatious, capricious and oppressive delays. Its salutary
objective being to assure that an innocent person may be freed from the anxiety
and expense of a court litigation. It is one that can be had as soon as possible
after a person is indicted, and within such time as the prosecution may with
reasonable diligence could prepare for it.
a. Right to speedy trial

b. Right to appeal
RULE 116
Arraignment and Plea
514. This shall be made in open court by the judge or clerk by furnishing the
accused with a copy of the complaint or information, reading the same in the
language or dialect known to him, and asking him whether he pleads guilty or
not guilty
a. arraignment
b. trial
c. judgment
515. The accused must be present at the arraignment and must _______enter his
plea.
a. personally
b. impersonally
516. When the accused refuses to plead or makes a conditional plea, a plea of _____
shall be entered for him.
a. guilty
b. not guilty
517. When the accused pleads guilty but presents exculpatory evidence, his plea
shall be deemed withdrawn and a plea of _______ shall be entered for him.
a. guilty
b. not guilty
518. The private offended party is also required to appear at the arraignment for
purposes of
a. plea bargaining
b. determination of civil liability
c. other matters requiring his presence.
d. All of these
519. In case of failure of the offended party to appear at arraignment or pre trial:

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a. the court may allow the accused to enter a plea of guilty to a lesser offense which
is necessarily included in the offense charged with the conformity of the trial
prosecutor alone.
b. The court may issue a bench warrant against the offended party or cite him in
contempt
520. At arraignment, the accused, with the consent of the offended party and the
prosecutor, may be allowed by the trial court to plead guilty to a lesser offense
which is necessarily included in the offense charged. After arraignment but
before trial, the accused may still be allowed to plead guilty to said lesser offense
after withdrawing his plea of not guilty. No amendment of the complaint or
information is necessary. This is known as:
a. Stifling of criminal case
b. Compromise
c. Plea bargaining
521. The process whereby the accused and the prosecutor in a criminal case work
out a mutually satisfactory disposition of the case subject to court approval. It
usually involves the defendant’s pleading guilty to a lesser offense or to only one
or some of the counts of a multi count indictment in return for a lighter sentence
than for the grave charge.
a. Plea bargaining
b. Plea of guilty
522. When the accused pleads guilty to a capital offense, what should the court do?
a. the court shall conduct a searching inquiry into the voluntariness and full
comprehension of the consequences of his plea
b. require the prosecution to prove his guilt and the precise degree of culpability.
c. All of these
523. When the accused pleads guilty to a non-capital offense, the court may
a. receive evidence from the parties to determine the penalty to be imposed.
b. Sentence the accused to death
524. At any time before the judgment of conviction becomes final, the court may
permit an improvident plea of guilty to be withdrawn and be substituted by a
plea of not guilty. What is an improvident plea?
a. Plea made without proper advice or recklessly entered by the accused without
comprehending its seriousness and consequences.
b. Plea that is subject to the condition that certain penalty be imposed.
525. Before arraignment, the court shall inform the accused of his right to counsel
and ask him if he desires to have one. Unless the accused is allowed to defend
himself in person or has employed a counsel of his choice, the court must assign
him a ________

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a. Counsel de officio
b. Counsel de parte
526. In localities where such members of the bar are not available, the court may
appoint any person, resident of the province and of good repute for probity and
ability, to defend the accused. The statement is:
a. True
b. False
527. A counsel de officio shall be given _______ to consult with the accused as to
his plea before proceeding with the arraignment.
a. Reasonable time
b. 1 hour
528. The accused may, before arraignment, move or file a ___________ to enable him
properly to plead and to prepare for trial. The motion shall specify the alleged
defects of the complaint or information and the details desired.
a. Motion to quash
b. Bill of particulars
529. It is a statement which makes a pleading more certain by furnishing additional

information respecting the cause of action or defense.
a. Bill of particulars
b. Motion to quash
530. Grounds to suspend the arraignment is which of these?

(a) The accused appears to be suffering from an unsound mental condition which
effective renders him unable to fully understand the charge against him and to
plead intelligently thereto. In such case, the court shall order his mental
examination and, if necessary, his confinement for such purpose;
(b) There exists a prejudicial question; and
(c) A petition for review of the resolution of the prosecutor is pending at either the
Department of Justice, or the Office of the President; provided, that the period
of suspension shall not exceed sixty (60) days counted from the filing of the
petition with the reviewing office.
(d) all of these
RULE 117
Motion to Quash
531. It is a special pleading filed by the defendant before entering his plea, which
hypothetically admits the truth of the facts spelled out in the complaint or
information but at the same time it sets up a matter which if duly proved, would
preclude further proceedings.
a. Motion to quash
b. Demurrer to evidence

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532. When may the accused file a motion to quash?

a. at any time before entering his plea
b. after entering his plea
533. Which of these is a ground for motion to quash?

(a) That the facts charged do not constitute an offense;
(b) That the court trying the case has no jurisdiction over the offense charged;
(c) That the court trying the case has no jurisdiction over the person of the accused;
(d) That the officer who filed the information had no authority to do so;
(e) That it does not conform substantially to the prescribed form;
(f) That more than one offense is charged except when a single punishment for
various offenses is prescribed by law;
(g) That the criminal action or liability has been extinguished;
(h) That it contains averments which, if true, would constitute a legal excuse or
justification; and
(i) That the accused has been previously convicted or acquitted of the offense
charged, or the case against him was dismissed or otherwise terminated without
his express consent.
(k) all of these
534. If the motion to quash is based on an alleged defect of the complaint or

information which can be cured by amendment, the court shall order that an
amendment be made. The statement is:
a. true
b. false
535. If the motion to quash is sustained, the court may order that another complaint
or information be filed. The statement is:
a. true
b. false
536. An order sustaining the motion to quash is not a bar to another prosecution
for the same offense unless the motion was based on the grounds:
a. criminal action or liability is extinguished
b. double jeopardy
c. all of the above
537. When an accused files a M2Q, he must include all the grounds available in
support of his motion. His failure to allege them all in the motion will mean their
waver. They could not be raised anymore specially on appeal. This is the:
a. omnibus motion rule
b. double jeopardy rule

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538. Exceptions to the omnibus motion rule. They can be filed even if not raised
before arraignment.
a. Facts charge do not constitute an offense
b. Court trying the case has no jurisdiction
c. Criminal offense or liability is extinguished
d. Double jeopardy
e. Duplicitous information
f. All of these except “e”
539. When an accused has been convicted or acquitted, or the case against him
dismissed or otherwise terminated without his express consent by a court of
competent jurisdiction, upon a valid complaint or information or other formal
charge sufficient in form and substance to sustain a conviction and after the
accused had pleaded to the charge, the conviction or acquittal of the accused or
the dismissal of the case shall be a bar to another prosecution for the offense
charged, or for any attempt to commit the same or frustration thereof, or for any
offense which necessarily includes or is necessarily included in the offense
charged in the former complaint or information. This is known as:
a. double jeopardy
b. ex post facto law
540. It is a dismissal of a criminal case without prejudice to refilling the same case
in the future.
a. Provisional dismissal
b. Temporary dismissal
541. A case shall not be provisionally dismissed except with the express consent of
the accused and with notice to the offended party. The statement is:
a. True
b. False
542. The provisional dismissal of offenses punishable by imprisonment not

exceeding six (6) years or a fine of any amount, or both, shall become permanent
after ____
a. one (1) year after issuance of the order without the case having been revived
b. 2 years
543. With respect to offenses punishable by imprisonment of more than six (6)
years, the provisional dismissal shall become permanent 3 years after issuance
of the order without the case having been revived. The statement is
a. True
b. False
544. The failure of the accused to assert any ground of a motion to quash before he
pleads to the complaint or information, either because he did not file a motion
to quash or failed to allege the same in said motion, shall be deemed a waiver of

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any objections based on the grounds provided for in paragraphs (a), (b), (g), and
(i) of section 3 of Rule 117.
a. Omnibus motion rule
b. Summary Procedure
RULE 118
Pre-Trial
545. It is a conference between the court and the counsel to consider the
simplification of issues, the necessity or desirability of amendments to the
pleadings and the possibility of obtaining admissions to avoid unnecessary proof
and such other matter as may aid in the disposition of the case.
a. Pre trial order

b. Pre trial
546. Which of these is considered during the pre trial?

(a) plea bargaining;
(b) stipulation of facts;
(c) marking for identification of evidence of the parties;
(d) waiver of objections to admissibility of evidence;
(e) modification of the order of trial if the accused admits the charge but interposes
a lawful defense; and
(f) such other matters as will promote a fair and expeditious trial of the criminal and
civil aspects of the case.
(g) All of these
547. It is the discontinuance of a criminal prosecution by the prosecuting officer,

with consent of the court. It is a written argument presented by the prosecuting
officer stating that he does not believe the evidence sufficient to warrant the
conviction of the accused.
a. Nolle Prosequi
b. Motion to dismiss
548. After the pre-trial conference, the court shall issue an order reciting the actions
taken, the facts stipulated and the evidenced marked. What do you call this
order?
a. pre-trial order b. arraignment
RULE 119
Trial
549. After a plea of not guilty is entered, the accused shall have at least _______
days to prepare for trial
a. 15 days
b. 10 days

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550. It is the examination before a competent tribunal of the facts put in issue for
the purpose of determining such issue.
a. Trial
b. Pre trial
551. The order of trial shall be:

(a) The prosecution shall present evidence to prove the charge and, in the proper
case, the civil liability.
(b) The accused may present evidence to prove his defense, and damages, if any.
(c) The prosecution and the defense may, in that order, present rebuttal and sur-
rebuttal evidence unless the court, in furtherance of justice, permits them to
present additional evidence bearing upon the main issue.
(d) Upon admission of the evidence of the parties, the case shall be deemed
submitted for decision unless the court directs them to argue orally or to submit
written memoranda.
(e) When the accused admits the act or omission charged in the complaint or
information but interposes a lawful defense, the order of trial may be modified.
(f) All of these
552. When the court is satisfied, that a material witness will not testify when
required, it may, upon motion of either party, order the witness to_______ . Upon
refusal to post bail, the court shall commit him to prison until he complies.
a. Post bail
b. Sentenced to destierro
553. When two or more accused are jointly charged with any offense, they shall be
tried _______ unless the court, in its discretion and upon motion of the
prosecutor or any accused, orders separate trial for one or more accused.
a. jointly
b. separately
554. Which of these is a requirement before a person may become a state witness?
(a) There is absolute necessity for the testimony of the accused whose discharge is
requested;
(b) The is no other direct evidence available for the proper prosecution of the offense
committed, except the testimony of said accused;
(c) The testimony of said accused can be substantially corroborated in its material
points;
(d) Said accused does not appear to be the most guilty; and
(e) Said accused has not at any time been convicted of any offense involving moral
turpitude.
(f) All of these

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555. The order that the accused is officially a state witness shall amount to ______of
the discharged accused and shall be a bar to future prosecution for the same
offense, unless the accused fails or refuses to testify against his co-accused.
a. Acquittal
b. Conviction
556. When it becomes manifest at any time before judgment that a mistake has
been made in charging the proper offense and the accused cannot be convicted
of the offense charged or any other offense necessarily included therein, the
accused shall not be discharged if there appears good cause to detain him. What
should the court do then?
a. The court shall dismiss the original case upon the filing of the proper
information.
b. The court shall re raffle the case to another judge
557. The judge may, motu proprio, exclude the public from the courtroom if the
evidence to be produced during the trial is :
a. offensive to decency
b. offensive to public morals
c. all of these
558. Charges for offenses founded on the same facts or forming part of a series of
offenses of similar character may be tried jointly at the discretion of the court.
This is:
a. consolidation of trial
b. forum shopping
559. After the prosecution rests its case, the court may dismiss the action on the
ground of insufficiency of evidence on its own initiative after giving the
prosecution the opportunity to be heard or upon __________ filed by the accused
with or without leave of court.
a. Motion to dismiss
b. Demurrer to evidence
560. The order denying the motion for leave of court to file demurrer to evidence or
the demurrer itself shall not be reviewable by appeal or by certiorari before
judgment.
a. true b. false
561. It is a motion to dismiss based on insufficiency of evidence which may be filed

within a non-extendible period of 5- days after the prosecution has rested the
case. AKA- Motion to acquit.
a. Demurrer to evidence
b. Motion to quash
562. When do you file demurrer to evidence?

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a. After the prosecution rested its case

b. Before the prosecution rested its case
563. Which of these is a ground to file demurrer to evidence?

a. Evidence of the prosecution is insufficient
b. Lack of jurisdiction of the court
c. Double jeopardy
d. The officer who filed the information had no authority
e. All of these
RULE 120
Judgment
564. It is the adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty or not guilty of the
offense charged and the imposition on him of the proper penalty and civil
liability, if any. It must be written in the official language, personally and directly
prepared by the judge and signed by him and shall contain clearly and distinctly
a statement of the facts and the law upon which it is based.
a. Decision
b. Judgment
565. The judgment must contain:

a. the legal qualification of the offense constituted by the acts committed by the
accused and the aggravating or mitigating circumstances which attended its
commission
b. the participation of the accused in the offense, whether as principal, accomplice,
or accessory after the fact
c. the penalty imposed upon the accuse
d. the civil liability or damages caused by his wrongful act or omission to be
recovered from the accused
e. all of these
566. The judgment is _________ by reading it in the presence of the accused and any
judge of the court in which it was rendered. However, if the conviction is for a
light offense, this may be made in the presence of his counsel or representative.
When the judge is absent or outside of the province or city, the judgment may
be promulgated by the clerk of court.
a. Promulgated
b. Read
c. Announced
567. If the accused is confined or detained in another province or city, the judgment
may be promulgated by the __________ of the Regional Trial Court having
jurisdiction over the place of confinement or detention upon request of the court
which rendered the judgment.
A. Executive judge

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B. Chief PAO
RULE 121
New Trial or Reconsideration
568. This may be granted any time before a judgment of conviction becomes final
upon motion of accused or upon judge initiative.
a. Motion for new trial
b. Appeal
569. Which among the following is a ground for new trial?

(a) The errors of law or irregularities prejudicial to the substantial rights of the
accused have been committed during the trial;
(b) The new and material evidence has been discovered which the accused could not
with reasonable diligence have discovered and produced at the trial and which
if introduced and admitted would probably change the judgment.
(c) All of these
570. The only ground for motion for reconsideration in criminal proceedings:
a. errors of law or fact in the judgment, which requires no further proceedings.
b. Miscarriage of justice
571. Effects of the grant of motion for new trial or reconsideration is:
(a) all proceedings and evidence affected thereby shall be set aside and taken anew.
The court may, in the interest of justice, allow the introduction of additional
evidence.
(b) evidence already adduced shall stand and the newly-discovered and such other
evidence as the court may, in the interest of justice, allow to be introduced shall
be taken and considered together with the evidence already in the record.
(c) When the court grants new trial or reconsideration, the original judgment shall
be set aside or vacated and a new judgment rendered accordingly.
(d) All of these
RULE 122
Appeal
572. Any party may appeal from a judgment or final order, unless the accused will
be placed in double jeopardy. The statement is:
a. True
b. False
573. The appeal to CA from RTC in cases decided by the RTC out of its original
jurisdiction is:
a. notice of appeal
574. The appeal to the Court of Appeals in cases decided by the Regional Trial Court
in the exercise of its appellate jurisdiction shall be by:
a. Petition for review

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575. Which of these is the effect of appeal of several accused?

(a) An appeal taken by one or more of several accused shall not affect those who
did not appeal, except insofar as the judgment of the appellate court is favorable
and applicable to the latter;
(b) The appeal of the offended party from the civil aspect shall not affect the criminal
aspect of the judgment or order appealed from.
(c) Upon perfection of the appeal, the execution of the judgment or final order
appealed from shall be stayed as to the appealing party.
(d) all of these
RULE 123
Procedure in the Municipal Trial Courts
576. The procedure to be observed in the Metropolitan Trial Courts, Municipal Trial
Courts and Municipal Circuit Trial Courts shall be the same as in the Regional
Trial Courts, except where a particular provision applies only to either of said
courts and in criminal cases governed by the Revised Rule on Summary
Procedure. This is known as:
a. Uniform procedure
RULE 124
Procedure in the Court of Appeals
577. In all criminal cases appealed to the Court of Appeals, the party appealing the
case shall be called the ________ and the adverse party the "appellee,".
a. Appellant
b. Movant
c. Sore loser
d. Petitioner
RULE 125
Procedure in the Supreme Court
578. When the Supreme Court en banc is equally divided in opinion or the
necessary majority cannot be had on whether to acquit the appellant, the case
shall again be deliberated upon and if no decision is reached after re-
deliberation, the judgment of conviction of the lower court shall be reversed and
the accused ________.
a. Acquitted
b. Convicted
RULE 126
Search and Seizure
579. It is an order in writing issued in the name of the People of the Philippines,
signed by a judge and directed to a peace officer, commanding him to search for
personal property described therein and bring it before the court.
a. Warrant of arrest
b. Search warrant
580. Which of these may be seized by virtue of search warrant?

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(a) Subject of the offense;

(b) Stolen or embezzled and other proceeds, or fruits of the offense; or
(c) Used or intended to be used as the means of committing an offense.
(d) All of these
581. Requisites before the judge may issue search warrant are:
a. probable cause
b. in connection with one specific offense
c. determined personally by the judge
d. after examination under oath or affirmation of the complainant and the
witnesses he may produce
e. particularly describing the place to be searched and the things to be seized which
may be anywhere in the Philippines
f. all of these
582. The judge must, before issuing the warrant do this:

a. personally examine in the form of searching questions and answers, in writing
and under oath, the complainant and the witnesses he may produce on facts
personally known to them and attach to the record their sworn statements,
together with the affidavits submitted.
b. Just rely on the affidavits of the police officers
583. No search of a house, room, or any other premise shall be made except in the
presence of:
a. lawful occupant
b. any member of his family
c. two witnesses of sufficient age and discretion residing in the same locality
d. all of these in the order of preference stated
584. The warrant must direct that it be served in the day time, unless the affidavit
asserts that the property is on the person or in the place ordered to be searched,
in which case a direction may be inserted that it be served at any time of the day
or night. The statement is:
a. true
b. False
585. A search warrant shall be valid for ten (10) days from its date. Thereafter it
shall be still be valid. The statement is:
a. True
b. False
586. The officer seizing property under the warrant must give a detailed receipt for
the same to the lawful occupant of the premises in whose presence the search
and seizure were made, or in the absence of such occupant, must, in the
presence of at least two witnesses of sufficient age and discretion residing in the

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same locality, leave a receipt in the place in which he found the seized property.
The statement is:
a. true
b. false
587. A person lawfully arrested may be searched for dangerous weapons or anything
which may have been used or constitute proof in the commission of an offense
without a search warrant. This is:
a. search incidental to lawful arrest
b. arrest incidental to lawful search
588. A motion to quash a search warrant and/or to suppress evidence obtained

thereby may be filed in and acted upon only by the court where the action has
been instituted. If no criminal action has been instituted, the motion may be
filed in and resolved by the court that issued the search warrant. However, if
such court failed to resolve the motion and a criminal case is subsequent filed
in another court, the motion shall be resolved by the latter court. The statement
is:
a. true
b. false
RULE 127
Provisional Remedies in Criminal Cases
589. When the civil action is properly instituted in the criminal action as provided
in Rule 111, the offended party may have the property of the accused _____ as
security for the satisfaction of any judgment that may be recovered from the
accused . This is:
a. repelvin
b. attached/attachment
590. Attachment of the property of the accused may be made in which of the
following?
(a) When the accused is about to abscond from the Philippines;
(b) When the criminal action is based on a claim for money or property embezzled
or fraudulently misapplied or converted to the use of the accused who is a public
officer, officer of a corporation, attorney, factor, broker, agent, or clerk, in the
course of his employment as such, or by any other person in a fiduciary capacity,
or for a willful violation of duty;
(c) When the accused has concealed, removed, or disposed of his property, or is
about to do so.
(d) When the accused resides outside the Philippines.
(e) All of these.
591. Which of these provisional remedies may also be availed of in criminal cases?
a. Preliminary attachment

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b. Preliminary injunction
c. Receivership
d. Replevin
e. Support pendent lite
f. All of these
EVIDENCE
592. Rules 128-134 is:
a. Law on evidence
b. Law on criminal procedure
593. Part IV of the Revised Rules of Court

a. Rules of evidence
b. Rules on criminal procedure
594. It is the means, sanctioned by these rules, of ascertaining in a judicial

proceeding the truth respecting a matter of fact.
a. Criminal procedure
b. Evidence
595. The rules of evidence shall be the same in all courts and in all trials and
hearings, except as otherwise provided by law or these rules. The statement is:
a. true
b. false
596. Evidence is admissible when it is relevant to the issue and is not excluded by
the law of these rules.
a. Admissibility of evidence
b. Competency of evidence
c. Relevancy of evidence
597. Evidence must have such a relation to the fact in issue as to induce belief in
its existence or non-existence. Evidence on collateral matters shall ________,
except when it tends in any reasonable degree to establish the probability or
improbability of the fact in issue.
a. Be allowed
b. Not be allowed
598. Judicial notice may be mandatory judicial notice or:

a. Discretionary judicial notice
b. Optional judicial notice
599. Courts shall take mandatory judicial notice without the introduction of
evidence of which of the following?
a. existence and territorial extent of states

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b. political history of states

c. forms of government and symbols of nationality of states
d. the law of nations
e. the admiralty and maritime courts of the world and their seals
f. the political constitution and history of the Philippines
g. the official acts of legislative, executive and judicial departments of the
Philippines
h. the laws of nature
i. the measure of time
j. geographical divisions.
k. All of these
l. None of these
600. Which of these is discretionary judicial notice?

a. matters which are of public knowledge
b. matters which are capable to unquestionable demonstration
c. matters which ought to be known to judges because of their judicial functions.
d. All of these
601. When can the court take judicial notice and allow the parties to be heard
thereon?
a. During the trial
b. After the trial but before judgment
c. on appeal
d. all of the above
e. none of these
f. some of these
602. These are those verbal or written, made by the party in the course of the
proceedings in the same case, which does not require proof.
a. Judicial admissions
b. Judicial confessions
603. How may judicial admissions be contradicted?

a. by showing that the admission was made through palpable mistake
b. by showing that no such admission was made
c. both a and b
d. by showing that he did not understand the proceedings since it was conducted
in English
604. Those addressed to the senses of the court.

a. object (as) evidence
b. documentary evidence

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605. When an object is relevant to the fact in issue, it may be exhibited to, examined
or viewed by which of these?
a. Prosecutor
b. Public attorney
c. Accused
d. Court
606. These consist of writing or any material containing letters, words, numbers,
figures, symbols or other modes of written expression offered as proof of their
contents.
a. object (as) evidence
b. document (as) evidence (documentary evidence)
607. When the subject of inquiry is the contents of a document, no evidence shall
be admissible other than the original document.
a. Best evidence rule
b. Parole evidence rule
c. Hearsay evidence rule
608. The best evidence rule admits some exceptions. Which of these is the exception
to the best evidence rule?
(a) When the original has been lost or destroyed, or cannot be produced in court,
without bad faith on the part of the offer or;
(b) When the original is in the custody or under the control of the party against
whom the evidence is offered, and the latter fails to produce it after reasonable
notice;
(c) When the original consists of numerous accounts or other documents which
cannot be examined in court without great loss of time and the fact sought to be
established from them is only the general result of the whole; and
(d) When the original is a public record in the custody of a public officer or is
recorded in a public office.
(e) All of these
609. Which of these is original document?

(a) The original of the document is one the contents of which are the subject of
inquiry.
(b) When a document is in two or more copies executed at or about the same time,
with identical contents, all such copies are equally regarded as originals.
(c) When an entry is repeated in the regular course of business, one being copied
from another at or near the time of the transaction, all the entries are likewise
equally regarded as originals.
(d) all of these
610. When the original document has been lost or destroyed, or cannot be produced
in court, the offeror, upon proof of its execution or existence and the cause of its

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unavailability without bad faith on his part, may prove its contents by a copy,
or by a recital of its contents in some authentic document, or by the testimony
of witnesses in the order stated. What is being referred to here is:
a. Secondary evidence
b. Parole evidence
c. Hearsay evidence
611. How do you prove the contents of an original document which is lost or
destroyed?
a. By a copy of the original
b. By recital of the contents of the original in some authentic document
c. By the testimony of witness
d. All of these in the order stated
612. If the document is in the custody or under the control of adverse party, he
must have reasonable notice to produce it. If after such notice and after
satisfactory proof of its existence, he fails to produce the document, what may
the proponent do?
a. He is now allowed to present secondary evidence may be presented as in the
case of its loss.
b. He may petition the court to cite the opponent in contempt
613. When the original of document is in the custody of public officer or is recorded
in a public office, how may its contents be proven?
a. Its contents may be proven by photocopy that is very clear and has no suspicions
of alterations
b. its contents may be proved by a certified copy issued by the public officer in
custody thereof.
614. A party who calls for the production of a document and inspects the same is
______ obliged to offer it as evidence.
a. very
b. not
615. When the terms of an agreement have been reduced to writing, it is considered
as containing all the terms agreed upon and there can be, between the parties
and their successors in interest, no evidence of such terms other than the
contents of the written agreement. This is:
a. Hearsay evidence rule
b. Parole evidence rule
c. Res Inter alios acta rule
d. All of these
e. None of these
616. Which of these is the exception to the parole evidence rule?

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(a) An intrinsic ambiguity, mistake or imperfection in the written agreement;

(b) The failure of the written agreement to express the true intent and agreement of
the parties thereto;
(c) The validity of the written agreement; or
(d) The existence of other terms agreed to by the parties or their successors in
interest after the execution of the written agreement.
(e) all of these
617. A party may present evidence to modify, explain or add to the terms of written
agreement if he puts in issue in his _______ the exceptions to the parole evidence
rule as mentioned above.
a. Pleadings
b. Electronic mails
c. Letters
d. Face Book Account
618. Under the parole evidence rule, the term "agreement" includes what?
a. verbal agreement
b. wills
c. statement of accounts
d. dying declarations
619. Which of these is a rule on the interpretation of (ambiguous) documents?

a. The language of a writing is to be interpreted according to the legal meaning it
bears in the place of its execution, unless the parties intended otherwise.
b. In the construction of an instrument, where there are several provisions or
particulars, such a construction is, if possible, to be adopted as will give effect
to all.
c. In the construction of an instrument, the intention of the parties is to be
pursued; and when a general and a particular provision are inconsistent, the
latter is paramount to the former. So a particular intent will control a general
one that is inconsistent with it.
d. For the proper construction of an instrument, the circumstances under which it
was made, including the situation of the subject thereof and of the parties to it,
may be shown, so that the judge may be placed in the position of those who
language he is to interpret.
e. The terms of a writing are presumed to have been used in their primary and
general acceptation, but evidence is admissible to show that they have a local,
technical, or otherwise peculiar signification, and were so used and understood
in the particular instance, in which case the agreement must be construed
accordingly.
f. When an instrument consists partly of written words and partly of a printed
form, and the two are inconsistent, the former controls the latter.
g. When the characters in which an instrument is written are difficult to be
deciphered, or the language is not understood by the court, the evidence of

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persons skilled in deciphering the characters, or who understand the language,

is admissible to declare the characters or the meaning of the language.
h. When the terms of an agreement have been intended in a different sense by the
different parties to it, that sense is to prevail against either party in which he
supposed the other understood it, and when different constructions of a
provision are otherwise equally proper, that is to be taken which is the most
favorable to the party in whose favor the provision was made.
i. When an instrument is equally susceptible of two interpretations, one in favor
of natural right and the other against it, the former is to be adopted.
j. An instrument may be construed according to usage, in order to determine its
true character.
k. All of these
620. All persons who can perceive, and perceiving, can make their known perception
to others, may be not witnesses. The statement is:
a. True
b. False
621. Religious or political belief, interest in the outcome of the case, or conviction
of a crime unless otherwise provided by law, shall be ground for disqualification.
The statement is:
a. True
b. False
622. Which of these cannot be witnesses?

(a) Those whose mental condition, at the time of their production for examination,
is such that they are incapable of intelligently making known their perception to
others
(b) Children whose mental maturity is such as to render them incapable of
perceiving the facts respecting which they are examined and of relating them
truthfully.
(c) Those who can perceive and can make known their perceptions to others
(d) Some of these
(e) All of these
623. During their marriage, neither the husband nor the wife may testify for or
against the other without the consent of the affected spouse, except in a civil
case by one against the other, or in a criminal case for a crime committed by one
against the other or the latter's direct descendants or ascendants.
a. Disqualification by reason of marriage
b. Disqualification by reason of death or insanity of adverse party
624. Parties or assignor of parties to a case, or persons in whose behalf a case is

prosecuted, against an executor or administrator or other representative of a
deceased person, or against a person of unsound mind, upon a claim or demand

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against the estate of such deceased person or against such person of unsound
mind, cannot testify as to any matter of fact occurring before the death of such
deceased person or before such person became of unsound mind.
a. Disqualification by reason of marriage
b. Disqualification by reason of death or insanity of adverse party
625. All of these are disqualified to testify because of “privileged communication
rule”, except:
(a) The husband or the wife, during or after the marriage, cannot be examined
without the consent of the other as to any communication received in confidence
by one from the other during the marriage except in a civil case by one against
the other, or in a criminal case for a crime committed by one against the other
or the latter's direct descendants or ascendants;
(b) An attorney cannot, without the consent of his client, be examined as to any
communication made by the client to him, or his advice given thereon in the
course of, or with a view to, professional employment, nor can an attorney's
secretary, stenographer, or clerk be examined, without the consent of the client
and his employer, concerning any fact the knowledge of which has been acquired
in such capacity;
(c) A person authorized to practice medicine, surgery or obstetrics cannot in a civil
case, without the consent of the patient, be examined as to any advice or
treatment given by him or any information which he may have acquired in
attending such patient in a professional capacity, which information was
necessary to enable him to act in capacity, and which would blacken the
reputation of the patient;
(d) A minister or priest cannot, without the consent of the person making the
confession, be examined as to any confession made to or any advice given by
him in his professional character in the course of discipline enjoined by the
church to which the minister or priest belongs;
(e) A parent cannot testify against the children without the consent of the affected
child in a criminal or civil case.
(f) A public officer cannot be examined during his term of office or afterwards, as to
communications made to him in official confidence, when the court finds that
the public interest would suffer by the disclosure.
(g) none of these
626. No person may be compelled to testify against his parents, other direct
ascendants, children or other direct descendants.
a. testimonial privilege rule
b. parental and filial privilege rule
c. both a and b
d. none of these
627. The act, declaration or omission of a party as to a relevant fact may be given
in evidence against him.
a. Admission of a party

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b. Confession of a party
628. In ________ cases, an offer of compromise is not an admission of any liability,

and is not admissible in evidence against the offeror.
a. Civil
b. Criminal
629. In______cases, an offer of compromised by the accused may be received in

evidence as an implied admission of guilt.
a. Civil
b. Criminal
630. In criminal cases involving quasi-offenses (criminal negligence) or criminal

cases that are allowed by law to be compromised, an offer of compromise is not
an admission of any liability. The statement is:
a. True
b. False
631. A plea of guilty later withdrawn, or an unaccepted offer of a plea of guilty to

lesser offense, is _________ in evidence against the accused who made the plea
or offer.
a. Admissible
b. Not admissible
632. An offer to pay or the payment of medical, hospital or other expenses

occasioned by an injury is ________ in evidence as proof of civil or criminal
liability for the injury.
a. Admissible
b. Not admissible
633. As a general rule, the rights of a party cannot be prejudiced by an act,

declaration, or omission of another.
a. Admission by third party
b. Res Inter Alios acta rule
c. Both a and b are acceptable
634. The act or declaration of a partner or agent of the party within the scope of his
authority and during the existence of the partnership or agency, may be given
in evidence against such party after the partnership or agency is shown by
evidence other than such act or declaration. The same rule applies to the act or
declaration of a joint owner, joint debtor, or other person jointly interested with
the party.
a. Admission by co partner or agent
b. Admission by co conspirator

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635. The act or declaration of a conspirator relating to the conspiracy and during
its existence, may be given in evidence against the co-conspirator after the
conspiracy is shown by evidence other than such act of declaration.
a. Admission by silence
b. Admission by conspirator
636. Where one derives title to property from another, the act, declaration, or
omission of the latter, while holding the title, in relation to the property, is
evidence against the former.
a. Admission by privies
b. Admission by silence
637. An act or declaration made in the presence and within the hearing or
observation of a party who does or says nothing when the act or declaration is
such as naturally to call for action or comment if not true, and when proper and
possible for him to do so, may be given in evidence against him.
a. Admission by privies
b. Admission by silence
638. The declaration of an accused acknowledging his guilt of the offense charged,
or of any offense necessarily included therein, may be given in evidence against
him.
a. Admission
b. Confession
639. Evidence that one did or did not do a certain thing at one time is not admissible
to prove that he did or did not do the same or similar thing at another time; but
it may be received to prove a specific intent or knowledge; identity, plan, system,
scheme, habit, custom or usage, and the like.
a. Previous conduct as evidence
b. Similar acts as evidence
c. Res inter alios acta alteri noceri non debet part 2
d. All of these
640. Unaccepted offer. — An offer in writing to pay a particular sum of money or to

deliver a written instrument or specific personal property is, if rejected without
valid cause, equivalent to the actual production and tender of the money,
instrument, or property. The statement is:
a. true
b. false
641. A witness can testify only to those facts which he knows of his personal
knowledge; that is, which are derived from his own perception, except as
otherwise provided in the rules of court.
a. testimonial knowledge ruloe

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b. hearsay evidence rule

c. both a and b
d. none of these
642. Which of these is exception to the hearsay evidence rule?

a. Dying declarations
b. Declarations against interests
c. Act or declaration about pedigree
d. Family reputation or tradition regarding pedigree
e. Common reputation
f. Parts of the res gestae
g. Entries in the course of business (business entries rule)
h. Entries on official records
i. Commercial lists and the like
j. Learned treatises
k. Testimony or deposition in former proceedings
l. All of these
643. The declaration of a dying person, made under the consciousness of an

impending death, may be received in any case wherein his death is the subject
of inquiry, as evidence of the cause and surrounding circumstances of such
death.
644. The declaration made by a person deceased, or unable to testify, against the
interest of the declarant, if the fact is asserted in the declaration was at the time
it was made so far contrary to declarant's own interest, that a reasonable man
in his position would not have made the declaration unless he believed it to be
true, may be received in evidence against himself or his successors in interest
and against third persons.
645. The act or declaration of a person deceased, or unable to testify, in respect to

the pedigree of another person related to him by birth or marriage, may be
received in evidence where it occurred before the controversy, and the
relationship between the two persons is shown by evidence other than such act
or declaration. The word "pedigree" includes relationship, family genealogy,
birth, marriage, death, the dates when and the places where these fast occurred,
and the names of the relatives. It embraces also facts of family history intimately
connected with pedigree.
b. Act or declaration about pedigree

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646. The reputation or tradition existing in a family previous to the controversy, in

respect to the pedigree of any one of its members, may be received in evidence if
the witness testifying thereon be also a member of the family, either by
consanguinity or affinity. Entries in family bibles or other family books or charts,
engravings on rings, family portraits and the like, may be received as evidence
of pedigree.
a. Res gestae
b. Family reputation or tradition regarding pedigree
647. Common reputation existing previous to the controversy, respecting facts of

public or general interest more than thirty years old, or respecting marriage or
moral character, may be given in evidence. Monuments and inscriptions in
public places may be received as evidence of common reputation.
a. Business entries
b. Common reputation
648. Statements made by a person while a starting occurrence is taking place or
immediately prior or subsequent thereto with respect to the circumstances
thereof, may be given in evidence as part of res gestae. So, also, statements
accompanying an equivocal act material to the issue, and giving it a legal
significance, may be received as part of the res gestae.
b. Res gestae
649. Entries made at, or near the time of transactions to which they refer, by a
person deceased, or unable to testify, who was in a position to know the facts
therein stated, may be received as prima facie evidence, if such person made the
entries in his professional capacity or in the performance of duty and in the
ordinary or regular course of business or duty.
a. Entries in the course of business
b. Entries in official records
650. Entries in official records made in the performance of his duty by a public
officer of the Philippines, or by a person in the performance of a duty specially
enjoined by law, are prima facie evidence of the facts therein stated.
a. Commercial lists and the like
b. Entries in official records
651. Evidence of statements of matters of interest to persons engaged in an

occupation contained in a list, register, periodical, or other published
compilation is admissible as tending to prove the truth of any relevant matter so
stated if that compilation is published for use by persons engaged in that
occupation and is generally used and relied upon by them therein.
b. Learned treatises

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652. A published treatise, periodical or pamphlet on a subject of history, law,

science, or art is admissible as tending to prove the truth of a matter stated
therein if the court takes judicial notice, or a witness expert in the subject
testifies, that the writer of the statement in the treatise, periodical or pamphlet
is recognized in his profession or calling as expert in the subject.
653. The testimony or deposition of a witness deceased or unable to testify, given in

a former case or proceeding, judicial or administrative, involving the same
parties and subject matter, may be given in evidence against the adverse party
who had the opportunity to cross-examine him.
a. testimony or deposition at a former proceedings
654. The opinion of (ordinary) witness is not admissible, as a general rule. The
statement is:
a. True
b. False
655. The opinion of a witness on a matter requiring special knowledge, skill,

experience or training which he shown to posses, may be received in evidence.
a. Opinion of expert witness
b. Opinion of ordinary witness
656. The opinion of an ordinary witness for which proper basis is given, may be
received in evidence regarding:
(a) the identity of a person about whom he has adequate knowledge;
(b) A handwriting with which he has sufficient familiarity; and
(c) The mental sanity of a person with whom he is sufficiently acquainted.
(d) On his impressions of the emotion, behavior, condition or appearance of a
person.
(e) All of these
657. Character evidence not generally admissible. The statement is:

a. true
b. false
658. Which of these is a rule on character evidence?

a. The accused may prove his good moral character which is pertinent to the moral
trait involved in the offense charged.
b. Unless in rebuttal, the prosecution may not prove his bad moral character which
is pertinent to the moral trait involved in the offense charged.

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c. The good or bad moral character of the offended party may be proved if it tends
to establish in any reasonable degree the probability or improbability of the
offense charged.
d. Evidence of the moral character of a party in civil case is admissible only when
pertinent to the issue of character involved in the case
e. All of these
659. It is the duty of a party to present evidence on the facts in issue necessary to
establish his claim or defense by the amount of evidence required by law.
a. Burden of proof
b. Burden of evidence
660. Which of these is conclusive presumptions?

(a) Whenever a party has, by his own declaration, act, or omission, intentionally and
deliberately led to another to believe a particular thing true, and to act upon
such belief, he cannot, in any litigation arising out of such declaration, act or
omission, be permitted to falsify it:
(b) The tenant is not permitted to deny the title of his landlord at the time of
commencement of the relation of landlord and tenant between them.
(c) A person is innocent of a crime or wrong
(d) Only a and b
661. These are presumptions that are satisfactory if uncontradicted, but may be
contradicted and overcome by other evidence.
a. conclusive presumption
b. disputable presumption
662. Which of these is a disputable presumption?

(a) That a person is innocent of crime or wrong
(b) That an unlawful act was done with an unlawful intent
(c) That prior rents or installments had been paid when a receipt for the later one is
produced
(d) That a person found in possession of a thing taken in the doing of a recent
wrongful act is the taker and the doer of the whole act; otherwise, that things
which a person possess, or exercises acts of ownership over, are owned by him
(e) All of these
663. After an absence of _______, it being unknown whether or not the absentee still
lives, he is considered dead for all purposes, except for those of succession.
a. 7 years
b. 10 years
664. The absentee shall not be considered dead for the purpose of opening his
succession till after an absence of ______ years.
a. 7 years
b. 10 years

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665. If he disappeared after the age of seventy-five years, an absence of _____ years
shall be sufficient in order that his succession may be opened.
a. 5 years
b. 10 years
666. Which of these shall be considered dead for all purposes including the division
of the estate among the heirs:
(a) A person on board a vessel lost during a sea voyage, or an aircraft with is missing,
who has not been heard of for four years since the loss of the vessel or aircraft;
(b) A member of the armed forces who has taken part in armed hostilities, and has
been missing for four years;
(c) A person who has been in danger of death under other circumstances and whose
existence has not been known for four years;
(d) If a married person has been absent for four consecutive years, the spouse
present may contract a subsequent marriage if he or she has well-founded belief
that the absent spouse is already death. In case of disappearance, where there
is a danger of death the circumstances hereinabove provided, an absence of only
two years shall be sufficient for the purpose of contracting a subsequent
marriage. However, in any case, before marrying again, the spouse present must
institute a summary proceedings as provided in the Family Code and in the rules
for declaration of presumptive death of the absentee, without prejudice to the
effect of reappearance of the absent spouse.
(e) All of these
667. Which of these statement regarding evidence of survivorship is true?

a. If both were under the age of fifteen years, the older is deemed to have survived;
b. If both were above the age sixty, the younger is deemed to have survived;
c. If one is under fifteen and the other above sixty, the former is deemed to have
survived;
d. If both be over fifteen and under sixty, and the sex be different, the male is
deemed to have survived, if the sex be the same, the older;
e. If one be under fifteen or over sixty, and the other between those ages, the latter
is deemed to have survived.
f. All of these
668. Preponderance of evidence is determined by the judge by which of these

means?
a. all the facts and circumstances of the case
b. the witnesses' manner of testifying
c. intelligence of witness
d. witness means and opportunity of knowing the facts to which there are testifying
e. the nature of the facts to which they testify
f. the probability or improbability of their testimony
g. their interest or want of interest

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h. their personal credibility

i. The court may also consider the number of witnesses, though the preponderance
is not necessarily with the greater number.
j. All of these
669. In a criminal case, the accused is entitled to an acquittal, unless his guilt is
shown beyond reasonable doubt. Proof beyond reasonable doubt does not mean
such a degree of proof, excluding possibility of error, produces absolute
certainly. Moral certainly only is required, or that degree of proof which produces
conviction in an unprejudiced mind. The statement is:
a. True
b. False
670. An extrajudicial confession made by an accused, shall not be sufficient ground

for conviction, unless corroborated by evidence of what?
a. Witness
b. Corpus delicti
671. What are the requisites of circumstantial evidence?

(a) There is more than one circumstances;
(b) The facts from which the inferences are derived are proven; and
(c) The combination of all the circumstances is such as to produce a conviction
beyond reasonable doubt.
(d) All of the above
672. In cases filed before administrative or quasi-judicial bodies, a fact may be

deemed established if it is supported by _______________, or that amount of
relevant evidence which a reasonable mind might accept as adequate to justify
a conclusion.
a. Preponderance of evidence
b. Substantial evidence
673. The court may stop the introduction of further testimony upon any particular
point when the evidence upon it is already so full that more witnesses to the
same point cannot be reasonably expected to be additionally persuasive. But
this power should be exercised with caution. This statement refers to:
a. Judicial notice
b. Power of the court to stop further evidence
674. When a motion is based on facts not appearing of record the court may hear
the matter on affidavits or depositions presented by the respective parties, but
the court may direct that the matter be heard wholly or partly on oral testimony
or depositions.
a. Evidence on motion
b. Parole evidence Rule

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COURT TESTIMONY
675. The examination of witnesses presented in a trial or hearing shall be done in
______ court, and under oath or affirmation.
a. Open
b. Close
676. As a general rule the answer of the witness shall be given _______, unless the
witness is incapacitated to speak, or the questions calls for a different mode of
answer.
a. Orally
b. In writing
677. The entire proceedings of a trial or hearing, including the questions

propounded to a witness and his answers thereto, the statements made by the
judge or any of the parties, counsel, or witnesses with reference to the case, shall
be recorded by means of shorthand or stenotype or by other means of recording.
These recordings are made by and kept by the:
a. Clerk of court
b. Stenographer
678. A transcript of the record of the proceedings made by the official stenographer,
stenotypist or recorder and certified as correct by him shall be deemed _______ a
correct statement of such proceedings.
a. Conclusive
b. Prima facie
679. The rights of a witness are these except:

a. To be protected from irrelevant, improper, or insulting questions, and from harsh
or insulting demeanor
b. Not to be detained longer than the interests of justice require
c. Not to be examined except only as to matters pertinent to the issue
d. Not to give an answer which will tend to subject him to a penalty for an offense
unless otherwise provided by law
e. to tell a lie
f. Not to give an answer which will tend to degrade his reputation, unless it to be
the very fact at issue or to a fact from which the fact in issue would be presumed.
But a witness must answer to the fact of his previous final conviction for an
offense.
680. The order in which the individual witness may be examined is as follows;
(a) Direct examination by the proponent;
(b) Cross-examination by the opponent;
(c) Re-direct examination by the proponent;
(d) Re-cross-examination by the opponent.

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(e) All of these in the proper order
681. It is the examination-in-chief of a witness by the party presenting him on the

facts relevant to the issue.
a. Direct examination
b. Cross examinations
682. The termination of the direct examination, the witness may be ________ by the
adverse party as to many matters stated in the direct examination, or connected
therewith, with sufficient fullness and freedom to test his accuracy and
truthfulness and freedom from interest or bias, or the reverse, and to elicit all
important facts bearing upon the issue.
a. Direct examinations
b. Cross examinations
683. After the cross-examination of the witness has been concluded, he may be re-
examined by the party calling him, to explain or supplement his answers given
during the cross-examination. On re-direct-examination, questions on matters
not dealt with during the cross-examination, may be allowed by the court in its
discretion.
a. Re direct examination
b. Re cross examinations
684. Upon the conclusion of the re-direct examination, the adverse party may re-
cross-examine the witness on matters stated in his re-direct examination, and
also on such other matters as may be allowed by the court in its discretion.
a. Direct examinations
b. Re cross examinations
685. After the examination of a witness by both sides has been concluded, the
witness cannot be recalled without ________
a. Being placed under oath again
b. Leave of court
686. A question which suggests to the witness the answer which the examining
party desires is a leading question. It is not allowed, in direct examinations.
a. leading questions
b. misleading questions
687. Leading question are not allowed. But leading questions are allowed in which
of these?
(a) On cross examination;
(b) On preliminary matters;
(c) When there is a difficulty is getting direct and intelligible answers from a witness
who is ignorant, or a child of tender years, or is of feeble mind, or a deaf-mute;
(d) Of an unwilling or hostile witness; or

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(e) Of a witness who is an adverse party or an officer, director, or managing agent

of a public or private corporation or of a partnership or association which is an
adverse party.
(g) All of these
688. It is one which assumes as true a fact not yet testified to by the witness, or
contrary to that which he has previously stated. It is not allowed.
a. Leading questions
b. Misleading questions
689. How may a witness may be impeached by the party?

a. by contradictory evidence
b. by evidence that his general reputation for truth, honestly, or integrity is bad
c. by evidence that he has made at other times statements inconsistent with his
present, testimony
d. all of these
690. As a general rule a party may not impeach his own witness. The statement is:
a. true
b. false
691. When can a party or lawyer impeach his own witness?

a. The witness is unwilling or hostile witness
b. The witness is an adverse party or an officer, director, or managing agent of a
public or private corporation or of a partnership or association which is an
adverse party.
c. Both a and b
d. Cooperative witness
692. A witness may be considered this type of witness if so declared by the court
upon adequate showing of his adverse interest, unjustified reluctance to testify,
or his having misled the party into calling him to the witness stand.
a. Unwilling witness
b. Hostile witness
c. All of these
693. Before a witness can be impeached by evidence that he has made at other
times statements inconsistent with his present testimony, the statements must
be related to him, with the circumstances of the times and places and the
persons present, and he must be asked whether he made such statements, and
if so, allowed to explain them. If the statements be in writing they must be shown
to the witness before any question is put to him concerning them. This is:
a. Laying the predicate
b. Cross Examinations

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694. Evidence of the good character of a witness is not admissible until such
character has been impeached. The statement is:
a. True
b. False
695. On any trial or hearing, the judge may exclude from the court any witness not
at the time under examination, so :
a. he may not hear the testimony of other witnesses.
b. He will not be intimidated by lawyers of opponent
696. The judge may also cause witnesses to be kept separate so that:
a. To prevent them from conversing with one another until all shall have been
examined.
b. To prevent them from being intimidated by the adverse party
697. A witness may be allowed to refresh his memory respecting a fact, by anything
written or recorded by himself or under his direction at the time when the fact
occurred, or immediately thereafter, or at any other time when the fact was fresh
in his memory and knew that the same was correctly written or recorded.
a. Revival of present memory or present recollection revived
b. This is not allowed
698. A witness may testify from such writing or record, though he retain no
recollection of the particular facts, if he is able to swear that the writing or record
correctly stated the transaction when made.
a. Revival of past recollection/ past recollection recorded
b. This is not allowed
699. When part of an act, declaration, conversation, writing or record is given in

evidence by one party, the whole of the same subject may be inquired into by
the other. The statement is:
a. True
b. False
700. Before any private document offered as authentic is received in evidence, its
due execution and authenticity must be proved by which of the following
(a) By anyone who saw the document executed or written; or
(b) By evidence of the genuineness of the signature or handwriting of the maker.
(c) By testimony of expert witness
(d) Both a and b
701. Where a private document is more than thirty years old, is produced from the
custody in which it would naturally be found if genuine, and is unblemished by
any alterations or circumstances of suspicion, no other evidence of its
authenticity need be given. This is the:

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a. Tanders Document Rule

b. Ancient Document Rule
702. How does one prove the geuininess of handwriting of a person?

a. The handwriting of a person may be proved by any witness who believes it to be
the handwriting of such person because he has seen the person write, or has
seen writing purporting to be his upon which the witness has acted or been
charged, and has thus acquired knowledge of the handwriting of such person.
b. By a comparison, made by the witness or the court, with writings admitted or
treated as genuine by the party against whom the evidence is offered, or proved
to be genuine to the satisfaction of the judge.
c. All of these
703. Documents consisting of entries in public records made in the performance of

a duty by a public officer are ________ of the facts therein stated.
a. Conclusive evidence
b. Prima facie evidence
704. Every instrument duly acknowledged or proved and certified as provided by

law, may be presented in evidence without further proof, the certificate of
acknowledgment being ________ evidence of the execution of the instrument or
document involved.
a. Prima facie
b. Conclusive
705. There shall be no difference between sealed and unsealed private documents
insofar as their admissibility as evidence is concerned. The statement is:
a. True
b. False
706. Documents written in an unofficial language shall _______ as evidence, unless

accompanied with a translation into English or Filipino.
a. not be admitted
b. still be admitted
707. The court shall consider no evidence which has not been formally offered. The
statement is:
a. true
b. false
708. As regards the testimony of a witness, the offer must be made at the time the
witness is called to testify. As to Documentary and object evidence, they shall be
offered after the presentation of a party's testimonial evidence. Such offer shall
be done orally unless allowed by the court to be done in writing. The statement
is:

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a. true
b. false
709. Objection to evidence offered orally must be made immediately after the offer
is made. Objection to a question propounded in the course of the oral
examination of a witness shall be made as soon as the grounds therefor shall
become reasonably apparent. The statement is:
a. true
b. false
710. Should a witness answer the question before the adverse party had the
opportunity to voice fully its objection to the same, and such objection is found
to be meritorious, the court shall sustain the objection and order the answer
given to be stricken off the record. This is:
a. striking out answer
b. erasing from transcript.
Law enforcement administration

***
1. It refers to the field of management which involves planning, and controlling the
efforts of a group of individuals toward achieving a common goal with maximum
dispatch and minimum use of administrative resources.
A. Administration
B. Personnel Management
C. Organization
D. Police Organization
▪ Organization-a group of persons working together for a common goal or
objectives a form of human association for the attainment of a goal or
objective.
▪ Police Organization- a group of trained personnel in the field of public safety
administration engaged in the achievement of goals and objectives.
▪ Administration- an organizational process concerned with the implementation
of objectives and plans and internal operating efficiency.
▪ Police Administration- the process involved in ensuring strict compliance,
proper obedience of laws and related statutes focuses on the policing process.

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2. The national headquarters of the PNP is located in Quezon City. It was named
after the 1st Filipino Chief of the Philippine Constabulary.
A. Antonio Torres
B. Cesar Nazareno
C. Rafael Crame
D. Lamberto Javalera
▪ PDG Cesar Nazareno- the first chief of the Philippine National Police
▪ Col Antonio Torres- the first Filipino chief of police of the Manila Police
Department in 1935
▪ Col Lamberto Javalera- the first chief of police of the Manila Police
Department after the Philippine Independence from the United States of
America in 1946
3. Eugene Sakuragi joined the PNP in 1996. He was 29 years old then. What year
can Eugene retire if he wants to avail the mandatory retirement?
A. 2017 C. 2032
B. 2031 D. 2023
▪ Compulsory – upon reaching the age FIFTY-SIX (56), the age of retirement
▪ Optional – upon completion of TWENTY (20) YEARS of active service
4. The Role of the PNP on matters involving the suppression of insurgency and
serious treats to national security?
A. The AFP operating through the area commander is the one primarily
responsible on matters involving insurgency and other serious treats to
national security.
B. The PNP is relieved of the primary role towards insurgency and other serious
treats to national security.
C. The PNP shall provide assistance to the AFP in insurgency-affected areas.
D. All of these
5. The procedure which is intended to be used in situations of all kinds and

outlined as guide and by men in the field operations relative to reporting,
dispatching, raids, arrest and investigation refers to:
A. Field Procedure
B. Standard Operating Procedure
C. Problem oriented plan
D. Headquarters procedure
▪ Headquarters Procedures - include the procedures to be followed in the
headquarters, usually reflected in the duty manual
▪ Standard Operating Procedures (SOP) - procedures intended for specific
operations to ensure uniformity of action
6. The term of office of the Chief PNP shall be for a period ______?
A. Not exceeding four (5) years.
B. Not exceeding five (3) years.

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C. Not exceeding six (4) years.

D. Not exceeding three (6) years.
▪ Attrition by Attainment of Maximum Tenure
Those who have reached the prescribed maximum tenure corresponding to

their position shall be retired from the service
▪ Chief 4 years
▪ Deputy Chief 4 years
▪ Director of Staff Services 4 years
▪ Regional Directors 6 years
▪ Provincial/District Directors 9 years
▪ Other positions higher than
Provincial Director 6 years
7. The law that empowered the police commission to conduct entrance and
promotional examination for police members refers to:
A. RA 6040 C. RA 5487
B. RA 157 D. PD 765
▪ R.A. 157- created the National Bureau of Investigation, enacted June 19, 1947
and later reorganized by R.A. 2678
▪ PD 765- otherwise known as the Integration Act of 1975, enacted on August 8,
1975; established the Integrated National Police (INP)
▪ R.A. 5487 – Private Security Agency Law
8. The theory of police service which states those police officers are servants of the
people or the community refers to:
A. Old
B. Home rule
C. Modern
D. Continental
▪ Continental - policemen are regarded as servants of the higher authorities

o It exist in France, Italy and Spain- countries with a decentralized form of
government
▪ Old Concept - measurement of police competence is the increasing number of
arrests.
▪ Modern Concept - police efficiency is measured by the decreasing number of
crimes
9. Dr. XYY is a Doctor of Philosophy; he opted to join the Philippine National
Police. What would be his initial rank upon entry?
A. Senior Inspector C. Inspector
B. Chief Inspector D. NONE

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▪ Inspector Rank: Dentists, optometrists, nurses, engineers, graduates of

forensic sciences, graduates of the PNPA and licensed criminologists
▪ Senior Inspector Rank: Chaplains, members of the bar and doctors of medicine
10. The following are functions in a police organization, EXCEPT:

A. primary functions
B. administrative functions
C. secondary functions
D. auxiliary functions
▪ Primary or Line Functions- functions that carry out the major purposes of the
organization, Patrolling, traffic duties, and crime investigation
▪ Staff/Administrative Functions- designed to support the line functions and
assist in the performance of the line functions examples of the staff functions
of the police are Planning, research, budgeting and legal advice
▪ Auxiliary Functions- functions involving the logistical operations of the
organization examples are communication, maintenance, records
management, supplies and equipment management.
11. If the external patting of the suspect’s clothing fails to disclose evidence of a
weapon the next procedure of the Patrol officer is:
A. Conduct a complete search.
B. The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect.
C. No further search may be made.
D. Turnover the suspect to the immediate supervisor.
12. He is known as the father of modern policing system?

A. August Vollmer C. Oliver Cromwell
B. Robert Peel D. Cesare Lombroso
▪ August Vollmer - recognized as the Father of Modern Law Enforcement

▪ Oliver Cromwell- first commissioner of Scotland Yard
▪ Cesare Lombroso – Father of Modern Criminology.
13. When responding to call for police assistance due to planted or found
explosives, what immediate actions should the patrol officer will do?
A. Scrutinize the item if it is an explosive or not.
B. Dispose the item immediately to avoid further injury to happen.
C. Never attempt to handle, call for Explosive Ordinance Disposal Team.
D. Call to the Tactical Operation Center for proper procedure to be followed,
after investigating the item.
14. Captain Matako is a commissioned officer of the Armed Forces of the

Philippines. What is his equivalent rank in the PNP?
A. Inspector C. Senior Inspector

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B. Chief Inspector D. Superintendent
▪ Inspector – Captain
▪ Chief Inspector – Major
▪ Superintendent – Lieutenant Colonel
15. How many Deputy Director General ranks are there in the PNP?
A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4
Deputy Director General ranks
▪ DDG for Administration (2nd in Command)
▪ DDG for Operation (3rd in Command)
▪ Chief of the Directorial Staff (4th in Command)
16. The highest rank in the BJMP is __________.

A. Four star general C. Director
B. Chief Superintendent D. Director General
▪ Chief- highest position in the PNP, with the rank of DIRECTOR GENERAL
17. What is the minimum police-to-population ratio?
A. 1:000 C. 1:1500
B. 1:500 D. 1:7
Sec. 27 of R.A. 6975 provides (police-to-population ratio)
o 1:500 – nationwide average
18. What kind of force is needed during armed confrontation?

A. Reasonable force C. Logical Force
B. Rational Force D. Evenhanded Force
19. The largest organic unit within a large department.

A. Bureau C. Section
B. Division D. Unit
▪ Division- The primary subdivision of a bureau.
▪ Section- Functional units within a particular division. This is necessary for
specialization.
▪ Units- Functional group within a section where further specialization is
needed.
20. The word “police” was derived from the Greek word _______, which means
government of the city.
A. politia C. politeia
B. polis D. Policy
▪ Polis – Greek word which means “City-State”.
▪ Politia – Roman word which means “condition of the state or the Government”.

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21. It is defined as the determination in advance of how the objectives of the

organization will be attained.
A. planning C. Advancement
B. police planning D. Development
▪ Police Planning - it is an attempt by police administration to allocate
anticipated resources to meet anticipated service demands.
22. It is the premier educational institution for the training, human resource
development and continuing education of all personnel of the PNP, BFP, and
BJMP.
A. PPSC C. RTS
B. PNPA D. NPC
PNPA- created pursuant to Section 13 of PD 1184, premier educational institution

for future officers of the tri-bureaus.
23. It is the central receiving entity for any citizen’s complaint against the police
officers.
A. IAS C. PNP
B. PLEB D. NAPOLCOM
▪ NAPOLCOM - shall exercise administrative control and operational supervision
over the PNP
▪ IAS - investigate complaints and gather evidence in support of an open
investigation; conduct summary hearings on PNP members facing
administrative charges;
24. The following are the grounds for Patrol officers to execute spot checks.
a. Questionable presence of the individual in the area;
b. The suspect is a long time enemy of your superior;
c. The individual flees at the sight of a police officer;
d. The Patrol officer has knowledge of the suspect’s prior criminal record; and
e. Visual indications suggesting that the suspect is carrying a pyrotechnics.
A. b, c, d, C. a, c, d
B. b, e, a, d D. a, b, c, d, e
25. The provincial governor shall choose the provincial director from a list of _____
eligible’s recommended by the PNP regional director:
A. six C. five
B. Three D. four
▪ MAYOR – Shall choose from the (5) FIVE eligible’s recommended by the PD.
26. The deployment of officers in a given community, area or locality to prevent

and deter criminal activity and to provide day-to-day services to the community.
A. Patrol C. Beat Patrol
B. Line Patrol D. Area Patrol

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27. The head of the IAS shall have a designation of ____________?

A. Director General C. Solicitor General
B. Inspector General D. IAS General
28. As per the requirement of R.A. 6975, there should be how many PLEB for every
500 police personnel?
A. one (1) C. more than one
B. at least one D. less than one
▪ there shall be at least one (1) PLEB for every five hundred (500) city or
municipal police personnel
29. If you are the patrolman on beat, what would be the immediate things to do
when accident occur?
A. Cordon the area
B. Go away and call your superior
C. Bring the victim to the nearest hospital
D. Chase the criminal and Arrest him
30. The following are the upgraded general qualifications for appointment in the
Philippine National Police.
a. Applicant must weigh more or less than five (5) kilos;
b. Applicant shall not be below twenty (20) or over thirty five (35) years of age;
c. Applicant must be person of good moral character;
d. Applicant must not have been dishonorably discharged from military services or
civilian position in the government; and
e. Applicant must be eligible.
A. e, c, d, b C. a, c, d, e
B. b, c, e D. c, d, e
31. All of the following are members of the People’s Law Enforcement Board,
EXCEPT:
A. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and Order Council from among the
respected members of the community
B. A bar member chosen by the Integrated Bar of the Philippines
C. Any barangay captain of the city/municipality concerned chosen by the
association of barangay captains
D. Any member of the Sangguniang Panglunsod
32. Two or more persons forming an organization must identify first the reason for
establishing such organization. They must identify the organization’s _________:
A. strategy C. Goal
B. Tactic D. objective

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▪ Strategy – is a broad design, method; a major plan of action that needs a large
amount of resources to attain a major goal or objectives.
▪ Goal- General Statement of intention normally with time perspective. It is
achievable end state that can be measured and observed.
▪ Tactic – it is a specific design, method or course of action to attain a particular
objective in consonance with strategy.
33. To improve delegation, the following must be done, EXCEPT:

A. establish objectives and standards
B. count the number of supervisors
C. require completed work
D. define authority and responsibility
34. The number of subordinates that can be supervised directly by one person
tends to:
A. Increase as the physical distance between supervisor and subordinate as
well as between individual subordinate increases
B. Decrease with an increase in the knowledge and experience of the
subordinate
C. Increase as the level of supervision progresses for the first line supervisory
level to the management level
D. All of the above
35. This means controlling the direction and flow of decisions through unity of
command from top to bottom of organization:
A. Audit C. Coordination
B. Monitoring D. Authority
36. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. Performance evaluation measures credibility of the police
B. Performance evaluation is not a basis for salary increases or promotion
C. Performance evaluation is done once a year among police personnel
D. Performance evaluation is implemented to determine the quality of work
performance of personnel
37. The NAPOLCOM is an attached agency to the DILG for _______:

A. Administrative control
B. Administration and control
C. Operational supervision
D. Policy and program coordination
38. SPO1 Last and SPO2 First report to the same supervisor. This is the principle
of __________:
A. delegation of authority
B. span of control

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C. unity of command
D. chain of command
▪ Delegation of Authority- conferring of certain specified authority by a superior

to a subordinate
▪ Chain of Command- the arrangement of officers from top to bottom on the
basis of rank or position and authority
▪ Span of Control- the maximum number of subordinates that a superior can
effectively supervise
▪ Command Responsibility- dictates that immediate commanders shall be
responsible for the effective supervision and control of their personnel and unit
39. Who has the authority to promote Insp Jhack T. Khole?

A. President C. Chief, PNP
B.CA D. Regional Director
Promoting Authorities:
Grade/Rank Promoting Authorities

▪ Director General President
▪ Sr. Supt. to Deputy Dir. Gen. President
▪ Insp. To Supt. Chief, PNP
▪ PO1 to SPOIV RD/Chief, PNP
40. In police parlance, “S.O.P.” stands for?

A. Standard operation procedures
B. Special operation procedures
C. Standard operating procedures
D. Special operating procedures
41. The following are the characteristics of a good plan, EXCEPT:

A. flexibility C. specific
B. clear D. expensive
42. If the annual quota for the year 2013 is 1200. How many of the annual quota is
allocated for women?
A. 10% C. 120
B. 100 D. 200
▪ The PNP shall reserve TEN PERCENT (10%) of its annual recruitment, training
and education quota for women
43. Waivers for initial appointment in the PNP may be waived in the following order:
A. age, height, weight & education
B. age, weight, height & education
C. height, education, weight & age
D. in any order

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▪ Applicants who possess the least disqualification shall take precedence over
those who possess more disqualification;
▪ The requirement shall be waived in the following order: Age, Height, Weight and
Education. (AHWE)
44. It is the downsizing of PNP personnel on the basis provided by law.

A. attrition C. Specialization
B. promotion D. retirement
▪ Specialization- the assignment of particular personnel to particular tasks
which are highly technical and require special skills and training
▪ Retirement - The separation of the police personnel from the service by reason
of reaching the age of retirement provided by law, or upon completion of
certain number of years in active service.
▪ Promotion - It is a upgrading of ranks and/or advancement to a position of
leadership
45. The age requirement for new PNP applicants must not be less than twenty-one
(21) years of age. The Maximum age requirement for PNP applicants using the
lateral entry program is ____.
A. 35 years old C. 25 years old
B. 30 years old D. 31 years old
46. A Field training Program for all PNP uniformed members is required for
permanency of their appointment. Who among the following is exempted to
undergo the Field Training Program and issued a permanent appointment?
A. Pastor Jayson Lopez, who is appointed Sr. Inspector via Lateral entry.
B. Atty. Rose Camia, who is appointed Sr. Inspector via Lateral entry.
C. Ryan, A PNPA graduate who is appointed Inspector after graduation.
D. Bruno Sikatuna a Licensed Criminologist and First Place in the Examination.
▪ Field Training Program. – All uniformed members of the PNP shall undergo a
Field Training Program for twelve (12) months involving actual experience and
assignment in patrol, traffic, and investigation as a requirement for
permanency of their appointment.
47. Planning as a management function is to be done in the various levels of PNP

organization. Broad policy based from laws directives, policies and needs in
general is the responsibility of:
A. Directorate for Plans
B. President of the Philippines
C. Chief, PNP
D. Dep. Dir. For Administration

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48. What is the rank equivalent of PNP Deputy Director General in the Armed
Forces of the Philippines?
A. Lt. General C. Major General
B. Brigade General D. General
▪ Chief Superintendent – Brigade General
▪ Director – Major General
▪ Director General – General
49. The Philippine National Police will recruit 300 new policemen on March 2012
to fill up its quota. Who among the following applicants is qualified to apply?
A. Khyle who was born on April 24, 1978
B. Tom who was born on November 22, 1980
C. Vince who was born on March 17, 1993
D. Migz who was born on August 10, 1991
▪ For a new applicant, must not be less than twenty-one (21) nor more than thirty
(30) years of age
50. Inspector Bruno joined the Philippine National Police on October 5, 1988.
Nevertheless, he want to pursue his career as embalmer, he decided to file an
optional retirement so that he could enjoy benefits of the gratifying PNP which he
served with extreme commitment and loyalty. When does Bruno can retire?
A. October 5, 1998 C. October 6, 1999
B. September 5, 2010 D. September 5, 2008
51. Which of the following administrative penalties is immediately executory?

A. Dismissal C. Forfeiture of pay
B. Suspension D. Death penalty
52. What is the Appropriate Training Course is needed to be promoted to SPOIV?

A. Officers Candidate Course
B. Senior Leadership Course
C. Junior Leadership Course
D. Public Safety Basic Recruit Course
▪ SLC- SPOII to SPOIII

▪ JLC – POIII to SPOI
▪ PSBRC – POI to POII
53. The head of the National Capital Regional Police Office shall assume the
position of NCR director with the rank of:
A. Chief Superintendent C. Director
B. Superintendent D. C/Inspector
▪ Regional Director -with the rank of Chief Superintendent
▪ Provincial Director -with the rank of Senior Superintendent

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▪ NCR District Director -with the rank of Chief Superintendent

▪ Chief of Police – with the rank of Chief Inspector
54. Under the waiver program, who among the following PNP applicants is the
least priority for appointment?
A. Jude who just earned 72 units in college
B. Renz who is under height
C. Justine who is underweight
D. Philip who is overage
55. Republic Act 6975 is otherwise known as____________.

A. Department of Interior and Local Government Act of 1990
B. Department of the Interior and Local Government Act of 1990
C. Department of Interior and the Local Government Act of 1990
D. Department of the Interior and the Local Government Act of 1990
56. The following are the component agencies that compose the Philippine
National Police (Sec. 23, RA 6975).
a. NARCOM civilian personnel;
b. Coast Guards;
c. Philippine Constabulary;
d. Philippine Air Force Security Command; and
e. National Action Committee on Anti-Hijacking.
A. a, c, d, e C. b, a, e, c
B. e, b, a, d D. a, b, c, d, e
57. SPO4 Nonito Pacquiao receives 27, 690.00 base pay since he was promoted.
After five years from promotion, what would be his monthly base pay after adding
his longevity pay?
A. 32, 690.00 C. 37, 690.00
B. 30, 459.00 D. 31, 549.00
58. Decisions rendered by the national IAS shall be appealed to the__________:

A. Regional Appellate Board
B. National Appellate Board
C. People’s Law Enforcement Board
D. National Police Commission
▪ National Appellate Board - shall decide cases on appeal from decisions

rendered by the PNP Chief and the IAS.
▪ Regional Appellate Board - shall decide cases on appeal from decisions
rendered by the RD, PD, COP, the city or municipal mayor and the PLEB
except decision on suspension.
NOTE:
▪ The PLEB decision of the suspension is final and cannot be appealed.

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▪ The decision of dismissal by either PLEB or Regional Director is final and

executory but subject to appeal to RAB.
▪ Decision of Chief of Police is appealable within 10 days to Provincial Director,
upon receipt of decision.
▪ Decision of Provincial Director is appealable within 10 days to Regional
Director, upon receipt of decision.
▪ Decision of Regional Director is appealable within 10 days to Chief, PNP upon
receipt of decision.
▪ The decisions of COP, PD, and RD are from those cases concerning internal
discipline.
▪ Cases involving internal discipline filed with the Chief, PNP originally, the
decision is appealable to NAB which decision is Final.
▪ Motion for Reconsideration is only allowed ONCE.
59. Who shall administer the entrance and promotional examinations for police
officers on the basis of the standards set by the Commission as amended by RA
8551?
A. PLEB C. CSC
B.PRC D. NAPOLCOM
▪ Police Entrance Examination – taken by applicants of the PNP

▪ Police Promotional Examinations – taken by in-service police officers as part of
the mandatory requirements for promotion
NOTE: Police officers, who are Licensed Criminologists, no longer need to take the
Police Promotional Examinations as part of the requirements for promotion. As PRC
Board Passers, they have already complied with the eligibility requirement.
60. SPOIV Rudolf Tocsin is set to be promoted, if he is promoted who has the
appointing authority?
A. Regional Director or office of the PNP for the national headquarters
personnel attested by the Civil Service Commission.
B. Chief PNP, recommended by immediate superiors and attested by the Civil
Service Commission.
C. President, upon recommendation of Chief PNP, endorsed by the Civil
Service and subject to confirmation by the Commission of
Appointment.
D. President from among the senior officers down to the rank of Chief
Superintendent, subject to the confirmation of the Commission on
Appointment.
Appointment of uniformed PNP personnel
▪ PO1 TO SPO4 – appointed by the Regional Director for regional personnel or
by the Chief, PNP for the national headquarters
▪ INSP. TO SUPT. – appointed by the Chief, PNP
▪ SR. SUPT TO DDG – appointed by the President upon recommendation of the
Chief, PNP, subject to confirmation by the Commission on Appointments

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▪ DIRECTOR GENERAL – appointed by the President from among the senior

officers down to the rank of C/Supt, subject to the confirmation of the
Commission on Appointments
61. It is known as the Professionalization act of 1966.

A. R.A. 4864 C. Act 255
B. Act 175 D. Act 183
▪ Act No 175 - entitled “An Act Providing for the Organization and Government of
an Insular Constabulary”, enacted on July 18, 1901
▪ Act No. 183 - created the Manila Police Department, enacted on July 31, 1901
▪ Act No 255 - The act that renamed the Insular Constabulary into Philippine
Constabulary, enacted on October 3, 1901
62.________ is given to any PNP member who has exhibited act of conspicuous and
gallantry at the risk of his life above and beyond the call of duty.
A. Promotion by virtue of Position
B. Meritorious Promotion
C. Regular Promotion
D. On-the-Spot Promotion
▪ Regular – promotion granted to police officers meeting the mandatory
requirements for promotion
▪ Promotion by virtue of Position- any PNP personnel designated to any key
position whose rank is lower than what is required for such position shall,
after 6 months occupying the same, be entitled to rank adjustment
corresponding to position.
63. PNP members under the waiver program but is dismissed for failure to comply
with the requirements can re-apply to the PNP?
A. Maybe Yes C. Maybe No
B. Absolutely Yes D. Absolutely No
▪ PNP members under the waiver program but is dismissed for failure to comply
with the requirements can RE-APPLY provided he now have the minimum
requirements.
64. The reason why police officer appears in court as a witness has to be in
complete uniform is to show his respect to the court and to his:
A. Position/Rank C. Superior
B. Profession D. Comrades
65. One having supervisory responsibilities over officers to the lower rank,
whether temporary or permanent.
A. None C. Superior officer
B. Ranking officer D. Sworn officer
▪ Sworn Officer- The term referring to personnel of the police department who
has taken oath of office and possesses the power to arrest.

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▪ Ranking Officer-Refers to the officers having the highest rank or grade

according to their date of appointment to that grade
66. Law that created the Manila Police Department, enacted on July 31.
A. RA 4864 C. ACT 183
B. ACT 255 D. ACT 175
▪ RA 4864- otherwise known as the Police Professionalization Act of 1966,
enacted on September 8, 1966; created the Police Commission (POLCOM); later
POLCOM was renamed in Act No 255 - The act that renamed the Insular
Constabulary into Philippine Constabulary, enacted on October 3, 1901 to
National Police Commission (NAPOLCOM)
▪ Act No 175 - entitled “An Act Providing for the Organization and Government of
an Insular Constabulary”, enacted on July 18, 1901
67. The performance evaluation system is conducted:

A. thrice a year C. Every 6 months
B. Every 2 years D. Quarterly
▪ January to June Evaluation Report to be submitted 1st week of July
▪ June to December Evaluation Report to be submitted 1st week of January of
the succeeding year.
68. A PNP member who acquired permanent physical disability in the performance
of his duty and unable to further perform his duty shall be entitled to a lifetime
pension equivalent to:
A. 50% of his last salary
B. 70% of his last salary
C. 60% of his last salary
D. 80% of his last salary
Retirement due To Permanent Physical Disability
PNP uniformed personnel who are permanently and totally disabled as a

result of injuries suffered or sickness contracted in the performance of his duty
shall be entitled to ONE YEAR’S SALARY and to a LIFETIME PENSION equivalent
to EIGHTY PERCENT (80%) of his last salary, in addition to other benefits.
Should such PNP personnel die within FIVE (5) YEARS from his retirement
due to physical disability, his legal spouse or legitimate children shall be entitled to
receive the pension for the remainder of the five year-period.
69. How many successive annual rating periods before a police officer may be
separated due to inefficiency or poor performance?
A. 2 C. 4
B.3 D. 1

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Attrition by other Means

Those who have at least five (5) years of active service shall be separated
based on any of the following:
▪ inefficiency based on poor performance during the last two (2) successive
annual rating periods;
▪ inefficiency based on poor performance for three (3) cumulative annual rating
periods;
▪ physical and/or mental incapacity to perform police functions and duties; or
▪ failure to pass the required entrance examinations twice and/or finish the
required career courses except for justifiable reasons
70. Female detainees shall not be transported in handcuffs but only with
necessary restraint and proper escort, preferably aided by a police woman. The
statement is-
A. Partially True C. Wholly True
B. Partially False D. Wholly False
71. In this theory, management assumes employees may be ambitious and self-
motivated and exercise self-control. It is believed that employees enjoy their
mental and physical work duties.
A. Hawthorne Effect C. XYY Theory
B. X theory D. Y theory
▪ Hawthorne effect is a form of reactivity whereby subjects improve or modify an
aspect of their behavior being experimentally measured simply in response to
the fact that they are being studied, not in response to any particular
experimental manipulation.
▪ X theory - management assumes employees are inherently lazy and will avoid
work if they can and that they inherently dislike work.
72. The theory X and Y is a human motivation created and developed by?
A. Giuseppe “Joe” Petrosino
B. John Edgar Hoover
C. Henry A. Landsberger
D. Douglas McGregor
▪ Giuseppe “Joe” Petrosino - New York City Police officer, who pioneer fighting
Organized Crime.
▪ Henry A. Landsberger – coined the word Hawthorne Effect
▪ John Edgar Hoover - first Director of the Federal Bureau of Investigation; he
was instrumental in founding the FBI in 1935.
73. What is the Appropriate Training Course is needed to be promoted to Senior

Superintendent.
A. Officers Senior Executive Course
B. Officers Advance Course

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C. Officers Basic Course

D. Bachelor of Science in Public Safety
▪ MNSA/Allied MA Degree – Chief Superintendent - up.

▪ OAC – Chief Inspector
▪ OBC – Senior Inspector
▪ BSPS – Inspector
74. Who among the following have summary dismissal powers?

A. Chief, PNP C. RD
B. NAPOLCOM D. All of these
The NAPOLCOM, PNP Chief and Regional Directors have summary dismissal
powers in any of the following cases:
• when the charge is serious and the evidence of guilt is strong
• when the respondent is a recidivist or has been repeatedly charged and
there are reasonable grounds to believe that he is guilty of the charges; and
• when the respondent is guilty of a serious offense involving conduct
unbecoming of a police officer
75. If the offense is punishable for a period of not exceeding 30 days but not less
than 16 days, the citizen’s complaint against erring PNP member shall be filed at
the
A. Office of the chief of police
B. PLEB
C. Mayor’s Office
D. any of them
▪ Chief of Police - for a period not exceeding FIFTEEN (15) DAYS

▪ PLEB - for a period exceeding THIRTY (30) DAYS, or by DISMISSAL
76. Monthly retirement benefits or pay shall be ___ of the base pay and longevity
pay of the retired grade in case of 20 years active service
A. 50% C. 10%
B. 2.5% D. 55%
▪ Monthly retirement pay shall be FIFTY PERCENT (50%) of the base pay in case
of twenty years of active service, increasing by TWO AND ONE-HALF PERCENT
(2.5%) for every year of active service rendered beyond twenty years.
77. This type of plan is intended for specific purpose such as drug crackdown,
crime prevention program, or neighborhood clean-up campaign. It concludes when
the objective is accomplished or the problem is solved
A. Strategic plan
B. Time Specific plan
C. Functional Plan
D. time bound operational plan

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▪ Functional Plan- includes the framework for the operation of the major
functional unit in the organization Such as patrol and investigation.
▪ Strategic Plan - It relates to plans which are strategic or long range in
application, it determine the organization’s original goals and strategy.
78. This type of plan is intended to guide PNP members on routine and field
operations and some special operations
A. Extra Departmental plan
B. Tactical Plan
C. Operational Plan
D. policy or procedural plan
▪ Extra-Departmental Plans - which require actions or assistance from persons
or agencies outside of the department
▪ Operational Plan - often called work plan; the work program of the field units
▪ Tactical Plans - concern methods of action to be taken at a designated location
and under specific circumstances
79. What kind of appointment when the applicant is under the waiver program
due to weight requirements pending satisfaction of the requirement waived.
A. Permanent C. Probationary
B. Temporary D. Special
▪ Permanent – when an applicant possesses the upgraded general qualifications
for appointment in the PNP
▪ Probationary- All PNP members upon entry level, before appointed to
permanent status shall undergo a mandatory 1 Year probationary period.
80. The institution of a criminal action or complaint against a police officer is

A. A ground for dismissal
B. Not qualified for promotion
C. Automatically dismiss
D. Not a bar to promotion
▪ Pursuant to RA 9708, “…In addition, the institution of a criminal action or
complaint against a police officer shall not be a bar to promotion
81. Refers to the utilization/use of units or elements of the PNP for the purpose of
protection of lives and properties, enforcement of laws, maintenance of peace and
order, prevention of crimes, arrest of criminals and bringing the offenders to
justice
A. Deployment C. Reinforcement
B. Reintegration D. Employment
▪ Deployment- shall mean the orderly and organized physical movement of
elements or units of the PNP within the province, city or municipality for
purposes of employment

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82. What is the first step in making a plan?

A. Frame of reference
B. Analyzing the Facts
C. Collecting all pertinent data
D. Selling the plan
83. It identify the role of police in the community and future condition in state
A. Visionary Plans
B. Strategic Plans
C. Synoptic Planning
D. Incremental Planning
▪ STRATEGIC PLANS – are designed to meet the long-range, overall goals of the
organization.
▪ SYNOPTIC PLANNING (Rational comprehensive approach) – is the dominant
tradition in planning. It is also the point of departure for most other planning
approaches. It is base on “pure” or “objective” rationality and attempts to
assure optimal achievement of desired goals from a given situation. It relies
heavily on the problem identification and analysis phase of planning process.
▪ INCREMENTAL PLANNING – this approach disfavors the exclusive use of
planners who have not direct interest in the problems at hand and favors a
sort of decentralized political bargaining that involves interested parties.
84. The organizational structure of the PNP is __________.

A. Line C. Staff
B. Functional D. Line and staff
▪ Line – oldest and simplest kind; few departments
▪ Functional – according to functions of the organization
85. It is the process of developing methods or procedure or an arrangement of

parts intended to facilitate the accomplishment of a definite objective.
A. Management C. Functioning
B. Budgeting D. Planning
86. Refers to any offense committed by a member of the PNP involving and
affecting order and discipline within the police organization.
A. Breech of Internal Discipline
B. Citizens Complaint
C. Minor Offense
D. Any of these
▪ Minor Offense -shall refer to an act or omission not involving moral turpitude
but affecting the internal discipline of the PNP
▪ Citizen’s Complaints- pertains to any complaint initiated by a private citizen or
his duly authorized representative on account of an injury, damage or

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disturbance sustained due to an irregular or illegal act committed by a

member of the PNP.
87. Which of the following is NOT a function of police personnel unit?

A. Preparing policy statements and standard operating Procedures relating to all
areas of the administration of human resources
B. Serves as an adviser to the chief and other line officials regarding personnel
matters
C. Conducts exits interviews with resigning officers to identify, and
subsequently correct, unsatisfactory working conditions
D. Establish a criteria for promotion to the exclusive ranks
88. It refers to the process of screening out or eliminating undesirable applicants

that do not meet the organization’s selection criteria
A. Promotion C. Recruitment
B. Transfer D. Selection
• Recruitment – it is the process of attracting candidates who have the
maximum qualifications to be eligible for the selection procedure.
89. It is recognized as the best method of filing

A. Pigeon Hole
B. Retrieval operation
C. Records Management
D. Chain of custody
90. It is considered to be the heart of any identification system; it provides positive

identification of the criminal
A. Arrest and booking report
B. Miscellaneous Records
C. Identification records
D. Fingerprint Records
91. The payment of Missing Uniformed Personnel’s monthly salary and allowances
for the heirs is for a maximum of how many months?
A. 1 year C. 2 months
B. 30 Days D. 12 months
▪ Absence Without Official Leave (AWOL) - Failure to report for duty without
official notice for a period of THIRTY (30) DAYS
92. In Supervisory Training, a minimum of _____ number of hours of classroom

training should be required for newly promoted supervisory personnel
A. 72 hours C. 80 hours
B. 75 hours D. 85 hours

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93. It should be proactive, people oriented, based on individual need, and

delivered in such a way as to motivate the experienced officer to a higher degree of
professionalism/professionalization
A. Recruit Training
B. Specialized training
C. In Service
D. Field Training
94. When an officer reaches the time-in-grade possessing the entire mandatory
and other consideration in promotion, is what kind of promotion?
A. Promotion by Virtue of Position
B. Regular Promotion
C. Meritorious Promotion
D. Promotion
95. It involves assistance and action by non police agencies such as Local Safety
Council for Traffic Division, DSWD for Child/Juvenile Delinquency, or Disaster
Preparedness plans and Civil defense plans
A. Management Plans
B. Procedural plan
C. Tactical Plans
D. Extra departmental plan
96. Refers to the distinctive physical device of metal and ribbon, which constitute
the tangible evidence of an award:
A. Medal C. Awards
B. Decorations D. Ribbons
▪ Award — anything tangible granted to an individual in recognition of acts of
gallantry or heroism, meritorious service or skill and proficiency.
▪ Decoration — a piece of metal/material representing an award.
97. For every _______ letters of commendation, a medalya ng papuri may be

awarded to nay PNP member:
A. Six C. Four
B. Five D. Three
98. Imports an act of cruelty, severity, unlawful exaction, domination, or excessive

use of authority:
A. Misconduct C. Dishonesty
B. Incompetency D. Oppression
▪ Misconduct generally mans wrongful, improper, or unlawful conduct,
motivated by premeditated, obstinate or intentional purpose. It usually refers
to transgressions or some established and definite rule of action
▪ Incompetency — is the manifest lack of adequate ability and fitness for the
satisfactory performance, of police duties.

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▪ Dishonesty — is the concealment or distortion of the truth in a matter or act

relevant to one’s office, or connected with the performance of his duties.
99. The operational support unit of the PNP shall function as a mobile strike force
or reaction unit to augment police forces for civil disturbance control, counter-
insurgency, hostage taking, rescue operations and other special operations:
A. NARCOM C. SAF
B. SWAT D. SOCO
100. The primary objective of Philippine National Police:

A. Law Enforcement C. Peace and Order
B. Protect and Serve D. Crime Prevention
101. As a General Rule, High powered firearms are not allowed to possess except
when there is an upsurge of lawlessness and criminality as determined by proper
authority, but shall not exceed ______ of the total number of security guards.
A. 50% C. 20%
B. 30% D. 10%
102. The vault door should be made of steel at least __________ in thickness?
A. 7 inches C. 9 inches
B. 6 inches D. 20 feet or more
Specifications of Vault
▪ Doors should be 6 inches thick made of steel
▪ Walls, ceilings and floor should be 12 inches thick
▪ Floor should be elevated by 4 inches
▪ Not more than 5,000 cubic feet in size
▪ Vault door must be fire-resistive up to 4 to 6 hours
103. An act or condition, which results in a situation conducive to a breach of the

protection system, or that, could result to loss.
A. Hazards C. Human Hazards
B. Natural Hazards D. Security Hazards
Kinds of Security Hazard
▪ Human Hazard – is the act or condition affecting the safe operation of the
facility caused by human action.
▪ Natural Hazard – is the act or situation caused by natural phenomenon,
like floods, typhoons, earthquakes, etc.
104. An inquiry into the character, reputation, discretion, integrity, morals and
loyalty of an individual in order to determines person suitability for appointment
or access to classified matter.
A. Local Agency check
B. Background Investigation

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C. National Agency Check

D. Personnel Security Investigation
▪ National Agency Check- It consists of LAC supplemented by investigation of the

records and files of the following agencies: PNP, ISAFP, NBI, CSC, Bureau of
Immigration and Deportation and other agency.
▪ Local Agency Check- Refers to the investigation of the records and files of
agency in the area of principal residence of the individual being investigated
like Mayor, Police, Fiscal, Judge.
▪ Background Investigation – a check made on an individual usually seeking
employment through subjects records in the police files, educational
institutions, place of residence, and former employers.
105. The importance of the firm or installation with reference to the national
economy security.
A. Relative vulnerability C. Relative program
B. Relative criticality D. Relative security
▪ Relative Vulnerability – is the susceptibility of the plant or establishment to
damage, loss or disruption of operation due to various hazards.
106. Private security agencies have to be registered with the:

A. SEC C. DTI
B. PADPAO D. PNP, SAGSD
▪ Trade name of the Security Agencies must be registered at the Department of
Trade and Industry
107. To deny outsiders from visual access in a certain facility what must be
constructed.
A. Full view fence C. Solid fence
B. Chain link fence D. Multiple fences
▪ Full View Fence- This is a kind of fence that provides visual access through the
fence.
108. A private security Guard who is escorting a big amount of money or cash
outside his area of jurisdiction shall be issued with a-
A. Firearms C. Duty Detail Order
B. Mission Order D. None of These
109. What is the duration of the Basic Security Guard Course?

A. 150 Hours C. 48 Hours
B. 72 Hours D. 300 Hours
Classification and Duration Period of training

▪ Basic Security Guard Course (Pre-Licensing Training Course)- 150 Hours
▪ Re-Training Course- 48 Hours

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▪ Security Officers Training Course- 300 Hours

▪ Basic Supervisory Course- 48 Hours
▪ Security Supervisor Development Course
▪ Other Specialized Training Course
110. All EXCEPT one are the line leadership staff:

A. Detachment Commander
B. Chief Inspector
C. Post-in-Charge
D. Security Supervisor 1
Line Leadership Staff
▪ Security Supervisor 3- Detachment Commander- the field or area commander
of the agency.
▪ Security Supervisor 2- Chief Inspector- responsible for inspecting the entire
area coverage by the detachment.
▪ Security Supervisor 1- Inspector- responsible for the area assigned by the chief
inspector or the detachment commander.
111. Barbed wire fences standard wire is twisted, double strand, 12 gauge wire
with 4 point barbs spaces in an equal part. Barbed wire fencing should not be less
than ___ high excluding the top guard.
A. 8 feet C. 9 feet
B. 7 feet D. 6 feet
Barbed Wire Fences (Semi-Permanent)
Specifications
▪ Standard barbed wire is twisted double strand, 12 gauge wires, with 4 point
barb spaced on equal distant part.
▪ Barbed wire fencing should not be less than 7 feet high, excluding the top
guard.
▪ Barbed wire fencing must be firmly affixed to post not more than 6 feet apart.
▪ The distance between strands will not exceed 6 inches and at least one wire
will be interlock vertical and midway between posts.
112. Who exercises the power to remove, for cause, license issued to security
guards.
A. Any of these
B. Secretary, DILG
C. Chairman, NAPOLOCOM
D. C/PNP
113. What type of alarm is best suited for doors and windows?
A. Photoelectric C. Audio detection

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B. Metallic foil D. Vibration Detection

▪ Photoelectric or Electric Eye Device - A light beam connected by a wire to
control station and when an intruder crosses the beam he breaks the contact
with the photoelectric coil which thus activates the alarm.
▪ Audio Detection Device - It is a supersensitive microphone speaker sensor that
is installed in walls, ceilings, and floors of the protected area, Any sound
caused by attempted forced entry is detected by file censor.
▪ Vibration detection device - Any vibration caused by attempted force entry is
detected by the sensor.
114. Is the process of conducting physical examination to determine compliance

with establishment security policies and procedures?
A. Security Education C. Security Inspection
B. Security Planning D. Security Survey
Security Planning- Is a corporate and executive responsibility. It involves knowing

the objectives of the security and the means and the method to reach those
objectives or goal must then evolve.
▪ Security Survey- Is the process of conducting an exhaustive physical
examination and thorough inspection of all operation system and procedures
of a facility
▪ Security Education - The basic goal is to acquaint all the employees the
justification behind the security measures and to insure cooperation at all
times.
115. What is the last phase of Security Education?

A. Initial Interview C. Conference
B. Dissemination D. Security promotion
Phases of Security Education

▪ Initial Interview
▪ Training Conference
▪ Refresher Conference
▪ Security Reminders
▪ Security Promotion
▪ Special Interview
▪ Debriefing
116. A mechanical, electrical, hydraulic or electronic device designed to prevent

entry into a building, room container, or hiding place, and to prevent the removal
of items without the consent of the owner
A. Padlocks C. Code Operated
B. Locks D. Combination Locks
▪ Padlock- A portable and detachable lock having or sliding hasp which passes
through a staple ring or the like and is then made fast or secured.

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▪ Code-Operated Locks - They are open by pressing a series of numbered

buttons in the proper sequence.
▪ Combination Locks - A lock that requires manipulation of dials according to a
predetermined combination code of numbers or letters
117. A type of protective alarm system where the protective alarm located outside
the installation.
A. Local Alarm system C. Central Station System
B. Auxiliary System D. Proprietary
▪ Local Alarm by chance System - This is a local alarm in which a siren or bell is
sounded with no predicable Response.
▪ Auxiliary System - In this system installation circuits are led into local police
or fire department by lease telephone line
▪ Proprietary System - It is the same as the central station system except that it
is owned by, operated and located in the facility
118. In which the badge or pass coded for authorization to enter specific areas
issued to an employees who keeps it in the possession until his authorization is
change or until he terminates.
A. Single Pass C. Pass exchange system
B. Visitors pass system D. Multiple Pass System
▪ Pass Exchange System- Which he exchange one-color coded pass at the
entrance to the controlled area is issued to an employee who keeps it in his
possession until his authorization or until he terminates.
▪ Multiple Pass System- Multiple copies of passes are issued to an individual
with the same photograph. The individual exchange his badge for another color
or markings at the entrance. Once inside, if he needs to enter a restricted area,
he exchanges it for another color acceptable in that area.
119. It is placed on the floor in such a position that tellers may activate the alarm
by placing the front of their foot to engage the activation bar
A. Bill traps C. Knee or Thigh Buttons
B. Foot Rail Activator D. Double Squeeze Button
▪ Bill Traps - It is also known as Currency Activation, when currency is removed

from the devices, the alarm is activated.
▪ Knee or Thigh Buttons - It is installed inside the deck or teller station so they
can be activated by knee or thigh pressure.
▪ Double Squeeze Button - It requires pressure on both side of the device and
therefore the probability of accidental alarm is reduced.
120. These are wide beam units, used to extend the illumination in long,
horizontal strips to protect the approaches to the perimeter barrier; it projected a
narrow, horizontal and from 15 to 30 degrees in the vertical plane

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A. Fresnel Lights C. Floodlights

B. Street Lights D. Search lights
▪ Floodlights - projects light in a concentrated beam. Best used in boundaries,
building or fences. Otherwise known as reflectorized or spotlight.
▪ Searchlights - highly focused incandescent lamps used in pinpointing potential
▪ Street Lights - produced diffused light rather than direction beam.
121. The following Firearms are allowed to be issued to a private security guard
under normal condition:
I. Cal .50;
II. Cal .45;
III. Cal .38;
IV. Magnum .22; and
V. 12 Gauge Shotgun.
A. II, III, IV C. III, IV, V

B. II, III, IV, V D. I, II, III, IV, V
122. What is the required capital investment for organization of private security
agency?
A. P 500,000 C. P 1,000,000
B. P 100,000 D. P 50,000
New applicants to operate shall be required to obtain a minimum capitalization of

ONE MILLION (P1, 000, 000.00) pesos with a minimum bank deposit of FIVE
HUNDRED THOUSAND (P500, 000.00) pesos in order to start its business
operations.
123. One who steals with preconceived plans and takes away any or all types of
items or supplies for economic gain?
A. Normal Pilferer C. Casual Pilferer
B. Regular Pilferer D. Systematic pilferer
▪ Casual Pilferer – one who steals due to his inability to resist the unexpected
opportunity and has little fear of detection.
124. The metallic container used for securing documents or small items in an
office or installation refers to:
A. Safe C. File room
B. Vault D. None of these
125. Chain link fences must be constructed in______ material excluding the top
guard?
A. Seven feet C. Four feet
B. Six feet D. Five feet

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Chain Link Fences (Permanent Structure)

Specifications
▪ Must be constructed in 7 feet material excluding the top guard
▪ Must be of 9 gauge or heavier
▪ Mesh opening must not be larger than 2 inches
126. The following things are used as barrier, which serves as a deterrent to the
possible intruder in an Industrial Complex, EXCEPT:
A. Human C. Doors
B. Fences D. NONE
127. Vaults are storage devices which are usually designed to be at least
_______fire resistant.
128. A lock which is commonly installed in safe deposit boxes and is deemed pick
proof since it is operated by utilizing combinations by means of a dial.
A. None C. Card Operated Locks
B. Combination lock D. Disc Tumbler locks
▪ Card-Operated Locks - Coded card notched, embossed or containing an
embedded pattern of copper flocks.
▪ Disc Tumbler Locks - Also known as wafer tumbler type, has flat metal
tumblers with open center fitted into lock case, commonly used for Automobile
Industry which affords delay up to 7 to 10 minutes.
129. The maximum number of firearms allowed to possess by a PSA should not
exceed by___ units.
A. 30 C. 500
B. 70 D. 1000
Use of Firearms
▪ Number of firearms shall not exceed one (1) for every two (2) Security Guard.
(1:2)
▪ For Temporary licensed, one hundred (100) guards, an initial of at least 30
licensed firearms.
▪ For regular licensed two hundred guards (200), at least 70 pieces of licensed
firearms.
130. What type of gaseous discharge lamp emits a blue- green color?
A. Sodium vapor lamp
B. Mercury vapor lamp
C. Gaseous-Discharge Lamp
D. Quartz lamp

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▪ Sodium Vapor Lamp- Type of Gaseous Discharge lamp that emit Yellow
Light.
▪ Quarts Lamp- These lamps emits very bright white light and instant on
almost as rapidly as the incandescent lamp.
▪ Gaseous-Discharge Lamp- it is very economical to use but for industrial
security it is not acceptable due to long time of lighting. It requires 2 to 5
minutes to light.
▪ Incandescent Lamps- These are common light bulbs that are found in every
home. They have the advantage of providing instant illumination
131. What type of security deals with the industrial plants and business
enterprises where personnel, processes, properties and operations are
safeguarded?
A. Personal security C. Operational security
B. industrial security D. bank security
▪ Personal Security- Involves the protection of top-ranking officials of the
government, visiting persons of illustrious standing and foreign dignitaries.
Also called VIP security.
▪ Operational Security- This involves the protection of processes, formulas,
and patents, industrial and manufacturing activities from espionage,
infiltration, loss, compromise or photocopying.
▪ School Security- Security involving not only facilities but also the students
or pupils.
132. The following are principles of Physical Security, EXCEPT:
A. There is impenetrable Barrier.
B. Surreptitiously and non-surreptitiously entry.
C. Defense is depth - barrier after barrier.
D. Intelligence requires continuous security measures.
133. For a Security agency, how much is the registration fee for each security
guard?
A. 2,000.00 Php C. 20.00 Php
B. 50.00 Php D. 100.oo Php
Payment of fees and licenses

▪ For Agency
➢ The sum of two thousand pesos (P 2,000.00) as national license fee
payable to the National Treasurer.
➢ The sum of twenty pesos (P 20.00) as payment for registration fee for each
security guard employed.
▪ For Individual
➢ One hundred pesos (P 100.00) per year for Security Consultant,Security
Officer and Private Detectives
➢ Fifty (P 50.00) pesos per year for Security Guard payable at the Chief
Finance Office, HQ PNP.

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134. Security Clearance is a certification by a responsible authority that the

person described is cleared to access and classify matters at appropriate levels.
Interim clearance will remain valid for a period of____ from the date of issuance.
A. 1 year C. 4 years
B. 2 years D. 5 years
▪ Final Clearance- Effectivity Five Years
135. The term used in England for lock pickers, safecrackers and penetrators of
restricted areas or room.
A. Peterman C. Pick Lockers
B. Thug D. Peterpan
136. The tenure of a security guard is:

A. Six Months
B. Co-terminus with the service contract
C. Two years
D. Contractual
137. Which among the following is not an advantage of a full-view fence, except:
A. It allows visual access to the installation which aids the intruder in
planning
B. It allows the intruder to become familiar with the movements of persons in
the installation.
C. It creates shadows which could prevent concealment of the intruder.
D. None of these
138. Every registered PSA are mandatory to give surety bond which shall answer
for any valid and legal claims against such agency filed by aggrieved party. How
much is the Surety bond of PSA with 500-799 guards.
A. 50, 000 C. 150, 000
B. 100, 000 D. 200, 000
▪ Surety Bond
o Agency with 1-199 guards – P 50,000.00
o Agency with 200-499 guards – P100,000.00
This bond shall answer for any valid and legal claims against such agency filed by
aggrieved party.
139. What type of investigation involves all aspect and details about the
circumstances of a person?
A. partial background investigation
B. personnel security investigation
C. complete background investigation

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D. national agency check
▪ Partial Background Investigation - investigation of the background of the

individual but limited only to some of the circumstances of his personal life.
140. The exposure and the teaching of employees on security and its relevance to
their work is:
A. Security Inspection C. Security Education
B. Security Orientation D. Security Survey
141. It is under physical security which provides sufficient illumination to areas

during hours of darkness.
A. Protective Lighting C. Standby Lighting
B. Emergency Lighting D. Moveable Lighting
▪ Standby Lighting- This system is similar to continuous lighting but it is turn
on manually or by special device or other automatic means.
▪ Moveable Lighting- This consist of stationary or portable, manually operated
searchlights. The searchlights may be lighted continuously during the hours of
darkness nor only as needed, it is just a supplementary to other protective or
security Lighting.
▪ Emergency Lighting- This standby lighting may be utilized in the event of
electric failure, either due to local equipment or commercial failure.
▪ Stationary Luminary- This is a common type consisting of series of fixed
luminous flood a given area continuously with overlap
142. In order to be qualified as a Security Consultant, you must have ____ year/s
experience in the operation and management of security business.
A. At least 5 years C. At least 10 years
B. At least 1 year D. At least 3 years
143. What is the ratio of the security guard to their licensed firearm is needed
after operating for six months.
A. 1:3 C. 1:2
B. 1:5 D. 1:1
144. What type of gaseous discharge lamp is useful in areas where insects
predominate?
A. Mercury vapor lamp
B. Sodium vapor Lamp
C. Quartz lamp
D. Gaseous Discharge Lamp
▪ Amber color does not attract insects at night.

145. What is an act governing the organization and management of private security
agency, company guard force and government security forces?

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A. RA 8574 C. RA 4587
B. RA 5478 D. RA 5487
146. Wire fencing can be barbed wire, chain link or concertina. Chain link are for
______.
A. Solid structure
B. Permanent structure
C. Least permanent structure
D. Semi- permanent structure
▪ Barbed Wire Fences (Semi-Permanent)

▪ Concertina Wire Fences (Least Permanent)
147. It is more comprehensive investigation than the NAC & LAC since it includes
thorough and complete investigation of all or some of the circumstances or
aspects of a person’s life is conducted?
A. Personnel Security Investigation
C. Partial Background Investigation
D. Complete Background Investigation
148. The unobstructed area maintained on both sides of a perimeter barrier on

the exterior and interior parallel area to afford better observation of the
installation refers to:
A. Clear zone C .Complimentary zone
B. Open zone D. Free zone
149. The extension period for a license to operate issued upon a PSA that lacks
the required minimum number of guards is:
A. 1 month C. 6 months
B. 2 years D. 1 year
150. Which of the following types of lock is generally used in car doors?
A. Warded lock C. Lever lock
B. Disc tumbler lock D. Combination lock
151. Which among the following aspects of Security is the weakest of them all?
A. Physical security
B. Personnel security
C. Personal Security
D. Document and information security
152. “There is no impenetrable barrier”. The statement is-

A. Partially Correct C. Partially Wrong
B. Absolutely Correct D. Absolutely Wrong

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153. It refers to any structure or physical device capable of restriction, deterring

or delaying illegal access to an installation.
A. Animal Barrier C. Perimeter Barrier
B. Barrier D. Energy Barrier
▪ Perimeter Barrier- A medium or structure which defines the physical limits of
an installation or area to restrict or impeded access thereto
▪ Animal Barrier – Animals are used in partially providing a guarding system like
dogs and geese.
▪ Energy Barrier – It is the employment of mechanical, electrical, electronic
energy imposes a deterrent to entry by the potential intruder.
154. It is normally provided at main perimeter entrances to secure areas located

out of doors, and manned by guards on a full time basis.
A. Guard Control Stations C. Tower
B. Tower Guard D. Control Stations
▪ Tower/Guard Tower – house-like structures above the perimeter barriers. It
gives a psychological effect to violators.
155. Any officer or enlisted man of the AFP or uniform member of the PNP
honorably discharged/separated or retired from the service are exempted from the
requirements of a private detective. The statement is-
A. False C. Absolutely True
B. Partially True D. Maybe False
156. The following are the areas to be lighted:

a. Parking Areas;
b. Thoroughfare;
c. Pedestrian Gates;
d. Vehicular Gates; and
e. Susceptible Areas.
A. a, c, e C. a, b, c, d
B. a, c, d, e D. a, b, c, d, e
157. An additional overhead of barbed wire placed on vertical perimeter fences

fencing upwards and outward with a 45* angle with three to four strands of
barbed wires spread 6” apart.
A. Top guard C. Fence Top
B. Barbed Wire D. None of these
158. When are security guards deputized by the PNP Chief or local mayor to have
police authority within their assigned area of responsibility?

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A. When there is an employee’s strike

B. When the company is in retrenchment
C. During times of emergency
D. When there is a crime committed inside the establishment
159. It refers to records that are irreplaceable; reproduction of this record does not
have the same value as the original.
A. Vital Documents
B. Important Documents
C. Useful Documents
D. Non- Essential Documents
Types of Documents
▪ Class II – Important Documents- This includes records, the reproduction of

which will close considerable expense and labor, or considerable delay.
▪ Class III – Useful Document- This include records whose loss might cause
inconvenience but could b readily replaced and which would not in the
meantime present an insurmountable obstacle
▪ Class IV – Non-essential Documents- These records are daily files, routine in
nature even if lost or destroyed, will not affect operation or administration.
This class represents the bulk of the records which should not be attempted to
protect.
160. It is the importance of firm with reference to the national economy and
security.
A. Relative Operation
B. Relative Security
C. Relative Vulnerability
D. Relative Criticality of Operation
161. A new Private security agency that has been issued a temporary license to
operate is good for how many years?
A. One C. Two
B. Three D. Four
▪ PSAs with 200-1000 guards – a regular license to operate good for two (2)
years
162. The removal of the security classification from the classified matter.
A. Segregation C. Declassify
B. Reclassify D. Exclusion
163. The form of security that employs cryptography to protect information refers
to:
A. Document and information security

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B. Operational security
C. Communication security
D. Industrial security
164. The following are exempted from Pre-licensing training.

1. Holder of a Degree of Bachelor of Laws
2. Holder of Degree of Bachelor of Science in Criminology;
3. Graduate of CI Course offered by NBI or any PNP training school;
4. Veterans and retired military/police personnel; and
5. Honorably discharged military/police personnel.
A. 1, 2, 3, and 5 C. 1, 3, and 5
B. 1, 2, 3, and 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
165. The minimum age requirement for Security Manager or Operator of a security
agency is:
A. 18 yrs. Old C. 25 yrs. Old
B. 50 yrs. Old D. 35 yrs. Old
▪ 18 years Old- minimum age qualification for SG.
▪ 50 years Old – Maximum age qualification for SG.
166. The following are the categories of automatic alarm system, EXCEPT:
A. Photoelectric C. Electric Eye Device
B. Audio detection D. Bill Traps
167. Which of the following is NOT a false key?

A. picklock or similar tool .
B. A duplicate key of the owner.
C. A genuine key stolen from the owner.
D. Any key other than those intended by the owner.
168. The Normal weight of a safe is at least:

A. 500 lbs. C. 750 lbs.
B. 1000 lbs. D. 600 lbs.
169. The minimum number of guards required for a company security force is:
A. 1000 C. 30
B. 100 D. 200
▪ For PSAs – a minimum of two hundred (200) and maximum of one thousand
(1,000).
170. It refers to a system use in big installation whereby keys can open a group of
locks.
A. Key Control C. Master Keying
B. Change Key D. Grand Master Key

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▪ Key control- is the management of keys in a plant or business organization to

prevent unauthorized individual access to the keys.
▪ Change key - A key to single lock within a master keyed system.
▪ Sub-Master Key - A key that will open all the locks within a particular area or
grouping in a given facility.
▪ Master Key - A special key capable of opening a series of locks.
▪ Grand Master Key - A key that will open everything involving two or more
master key groups.
171. PADPAO stands for:

A. Philippine Association of Detective and Protective Agency Operators, Inc.
B. Philippine Alliance of Detective and Protective Agency Operators, Inc.
C. Philippine Association of Detective and Protector Agency Operators, Inc.
D. Philippine Agencies of Detective and Protective Associations Operators, Inc.
172. It refers to a protection against any type of crime to safeguard life and assets
by various methods and device.
A. Physical Security C. Perimeter Security
B. Operational Security D. Security
173. All EXCEPT one are the qualifications of a security officer.

A. Has graduated from a Security Officer Training Course.
B. Holder of Masters Degree.
C. Retired personnel of the PNP or AFP.
D. Physically or mentally fit.
174. These provides access within the perimeter barrier and should be locked and
guarded.
A. Gates and Doors
B. Side-Walk Elevator
C. Utilities Opening
D. Clear Zones
175. A fact finding probe to determine a plant adequacy and deficiency in all aspects
of security, with the corresponding recommendation is:
A. security inspection C. security education
B. security training D. security survey
176. What unit of PNP handles the processing and issuances of license for private
security personnel?
A. PNP SOSIA C. PNP FED
B. PADPAO D. PNP SAGSD
177. What is the most common type of human hazard?

A. Sabotage C. Pilferage

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B. Theft D. Subversion
178. What is the security force maintained and operated by any private company/
corporation for its own security requirements?
A. GSU C. CSF
B. PSA D. PD
Types of Security Guard

▪ Private Security- A security guard hired by client belonging to private security
agency.
▪ Government Security- A security guard recruited and employed by the
government
179. What type of controlled area requires highest degree of security?

A. Limited C. Restricted
B. Special D. Exclusive
▪ Restricted Area - It refers to an area in which personnel or vehicles are
controlled for reasons of security.
▪ Limited Area - It is a restricted area in which lesser degree of control is
required than in an exclusion area but which the security interest would be
compromised by uncontrolled movement.
180. File room is a cubicle in a building constructed a little lighter than a vault
but bigger size. One of the specifications of file room should be ___feet high.
A. 12 C. 36
B. 24 D. 48
Specifications of File Room

▪ Should be 12 feet high
▪ Interior cubage should not be more than 10,000 cubic feet
▪ Water-tight door, fire-proof for 1 hour
181. Concertina wire should be ______ feet long and 3 feet diameter.
A. 20 feet C. 40 feet
B. 30 feet D. 50 feet
182. What type of security lighting is focused to the intruder while the guard
remains in the comparative darkness?
A. Controlled lighting C. Fresnel light
B. Emergency lighting D. Glare- projection
▪ Controlled Lighting Type- The lighting is focused on the pile of items, rather
than the back ground.
183. What is the system of natural or manmade barriers placed between the
potential intruder and the object, person and matter being protected?

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A. Communication security
B. Document security
C. Physical security
D. Barrier
184. The following are the purposes of Security Survey, EXCEPT:
A. To ascertain the present economic status
B. To determine the protection needed
C. To make recommendations to improve the overall security
D. None of these
185. License to Operate (LTO) is a License Certificate document which is issued by

____________ authorizing a person to engage in employing security guard or
detective, or a juridical person to establish, engage, direct, manage or operate a
private detective agency.
A. Secretary of DILG
B. Chief, PNP
C. Security and Exchange Commission
D. President
186. One of the specifications of a barbed wire fence is that the distances between
strands will not exceed _______and at least one wire will be interlock vertical and
midway between posts.
A. 3 inches C. 6 inches
B. 4 inches D. 7 inches
187. Clear Zone of _______ must be established between the perimeter barrier and
structure within the protected areas.
A. 20 feet or more C. 40 feet or more
B. 30 feet or more D. 50 feet or more
20 feet or more between the perimeter barrier and exterior structure. (Outside)
188. Which among the following statements is FALSE?

A. Protective Lighting diminish visibility so that intruders can be seen, identified
or apprehend.
B. Protective Lighting makes easier for guards to identify employees during
night time.
C. Protective Lighting gives Psychological fear, which serves as a deterrent.
D. Protective Lighting can reduce the number of stationary guards.
189. The highest rank in security agency organizational structure:
A. Security Executive Director
B. Chief Security Director
C. Security Staff Director
D. Security Staff Director
Security Management Staff

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▪ Security Director (SD)-Agency Manager/Chief Security officer- responsible for

the entire operation and administration/management of the security agency
▪ Security Executive Director (SED) - Assistant agency manager/Assistant chief
security officer- automatically the security executive director, assists the
agency security director and takes operational and administrative management
when the manager is absent.
▪ Security Staff Director (SSD) - Staff director for operation and administration-
He is also responsible for the conduct of investigation and training.
190. A heavily constructed fire and burglar resistance container usually a part of
the building structure use to keep, and protect cash, documents and valuables
materials.
A. Vault C. Safe
B. File Room D. None of these
191. Juan Esperanza is a security guard, after his Tour of Duty, what shall he do
with his Firearm?
A. Return the Firearm for safekeeping in the company’s Vault.
B. Turnover to the next security guard on duty.
C. Bring home the firearms for easy responses.
D. Deposit the Firearm inside the drawer of the guards table.
192. Any physical structure whether natural or man-made capable of restricting,

deterring or delaying illegal or unauthorized access.
A. Perimeter Fences C. Wire Fences
B. Moveable Barrier D. Barrier
193. A company owned protective alarm with unit in a nearest police station of fire
department.
A. Proprietary Alarm C. Auxiliary Alarm
B. Central Alarm D. Security Alarm
194. It is Lighting equipment which produced diffused light rather than direction
beam. They are widely used in parking areas
A. Street Lights C. Search Lights
B. Flood Lights D. Fresnel Lights
195. PSAs with cancelled/revoked licenses shall cease to operate, and with ____
days after having been duly notified of such cease operation order, shall
immediately deposit all its firearms with the FEO.
A. 7 days C. 21 days
B. 3 days D. 30 days

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196. It is a test for safe’ to determine if the sudden rise in temperature will not
cause the safe to rupture. If the safe can withstand 2000 0F for 30 minutes
without cracking or opening then it has passed the test.
A. Fire Endurance Test
B. Fire and Impact Test
C. Burning Test
D. Explain Hazard Test
Test for Fire Resistance
▪ Fire Endurance Test- A safe should not have any one time a temperature
350 0F.
▪ Fire and Impact Test- Its objective is to determine the strength of a safe to
resist the collapse of a building during fire.
197. Services of any security personnel shall be terminated on the following

grounds:
1. Expiration of contract;
2. Revocation of license to exercise profession;
3. Conviction of crime involving moral turpitude;
4. Loss of trust and confidence; and
5. Physical and mental disability.
A. 1, 2, 4, and 5 C. 1, 3, 4, and 5
B. 1, 2, 3, and 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
198. For every security guard the basic load of their Firearm is-
A. 50 rounds C. 30 rounds
B. 25 rounds D. Unlimited
▪ 50 rounds- basic load of a firearm
199. The following are the specifications of a Vault:
I. Walls, ceilings and floor should be 12 inches thick;
II. Not more than 5,000 cubic feet in size;
III. Doors should be 1 1/2 inches thick made of steel; and
IV. Floor should be elevated by 4 inches.
A. I, III, IV C. I, II, III

B. I, II, IV D. I, II, III, IV
200. Practical Test or exercise of a plan or any activities to test its validity.
A. Practice C. Dry run
B. Rehearsal D. Trial
201. A fixed point or location to which an officer is assigned for duty:

A. Post C. Beat
B. Area D. Route

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▪ Route - the length of street or streets, designated for patrol purposes also
referred to as line beat.
▪ Beat - an area designed for patrol purposes, whether foot or motorized.
▪ Sector - an area containing two or more beats, routes or posts.
▪ District - a geographical subdivision of a city for patrol purposes, usually
with its own station.
▪ Area - A section or territorial division of a large city.
202. The patrol strategy which employs bait or distracter to in order to catch
criminals is known as:
A. High visibility patrol C. Target Oriented patrol
B. Low visibility patrol D. Decoy patrol
▪ Low Visibility - This patrol tactic is designed to increase the number of

apprehension of law violator to engage in certain types of crimes
▪ High Visibility – Marked police Car and Poilce inj Uniform. Primary objective is
Crime Prevention.
▪ Target Oriented Patrol - It is patrol strategy which is directed towards

specific persons or places.
203. Barangay Tanod is included in what component of Integrated Patrol System?

A. Fixed Component
B. Auxiliary Component
C. Secondary Component
D. Patrol Component
▪ Fixed Components - include the different police station headquarters, PCP,

police visibility points, and traffic post.
▪ Patrol Components - include the air patrols; the line beat patrols, mobile
patrols and detective repressive patrols.
▪ Auxiliary Components - include the security guards deployed in area, the
traffic enforcer, barangay tanods, volunteers and NGO’s.
204. Report prepared by the patrol officer upon reaching the end of the line beat,
and before returning to the point of origin.
A. Daily Patrol Report C. Situation Report
B. Investigation Report D. Incident Report
Daily Patrol Report – after the Tour of Duty
205. The ideal police response time is:

A. 3 minutes C. 5 minutes
B. 7 minutes D. 10 minutes

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206. Persons, Place, thing, situation or condition possessing a high potential for
criminal attack or for the creation of problem necessitating a demand for
immediate police service:
A. Hazard C. Opportunity
B. Perception of Hazard D. Police Hazard
▪ Hazard – it refers to any person, place, thing, situation, or condition which, if
allowed to exist may induce an accident or cause the commission of a crime.
207. The most expensive patrol method and gives the greatest opportunity to
develop sources of information is:
A. Foot Patrol C. Marine Patrol
B. Mobile Patrol D. Helicopter Patrol
208. Walking closed to the building at night is a tactic in patrol which makes the
policemen less visible during the night. The primary purpose is:
A. To surprise criminals in the act of committing a crime
B. To have sufficient cover
C. To attract less attention
D. D, For safety of the Patrol officer
209. The following are included in the cause and effect of team policing.
a. Reduce public fear on crime;
b. lessen the crime rate;
c. Facilitate career development;
d. Diminish police morale; and
e. Improve police community relation.
A. a, b, e C. a, b, d, e
B. a, c, d, e D. a, b, c, e
210. This patrol tactic differs from traditional patrol methods in that patrol
methods; patrol officers perform specific predetermined preventive functions on a
planned systematic basis:
A. Target Oriented Patrol
B. High-Visibility Patrol
C. Low-Visibility Patrol
D. Directed deterrent Patrol
211. Small alleys like those in the squatter’s area can be best penetrated by the
police through.
A. Foot patrol C. Bicycle patrol
B. Mobile patrol D. Helicopter patrol
212. Integrated patrol system is the total system used to accomplish the police
visibility program of the PNP. The Police officers in Police Community Precincts
render 24 hours duty with prescribed divisions of:

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A. 2 shifts C. 4 shifts
B. 3 shifts D. every other day shift.
213. The objective of this Patrol is to reduce or totally prevent the desire of human
being to commit crime.
A. Preventive C. Proactive
B. Reactive D. High Visibility
▪ Proactive Patrol- Deployment of Patrol personnel in their respective Area of
Responsibility with definite objectives.
▪ Reactive Patrol- An old concept in patrolling wherein officers and units drive
around their area of responsibility waiting for something to happen or waiting
for a call that they will respond.
214. Bicycle patrol has the combined advantage of ________________ since they can
be operated very quietly and without attracting attention.
A. Mobility and wide area coverage.
B. Reduced speed and greater area covered.
C. Shorter travel time and faster response.
D. Mobility and stealth
215. What is the most excellent method of Patrol in San Juanico Bridge?
A. Foot Patrol C. K-9 Patrol
B. Automobile Patrol D. Bicycle Patrol
216. When was the first automobile patrol initiated in the Philippines and the
First Chief of the Mobile patrol bureau of Manila Police Department was Isaias
Alma Jose?
A. May 7, 1954 C. May 17, 1954
B. May 14, 1957 D. March 10, 1917
217. As a Patrol officer, when checking suspicious persons, places, buildings/

establishments and vehicles especially during night-time, be prepared to use your
service firearm and Flashlight should be-
A. Nearby the body, to have an easy searching of a possible target.
B. Tightly away from the body to avoid making you a possible target.
C. Close at hand to your firearm to threaten possible adversary.
D. None of these
218. What is your priority as a Patrol officer when responding to Calls for Police
Assistance?
A. Arrest criminals C. Securing the area
B. Aiding the injured D. Extort Money
219. The following are the duties of Patrol Supervisors:

Make a patrol plan;
Designate and select the members of the patrol team/s;

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Inspect the members of the patrol on the completeness;

Render hourly report of location and situation; and
Resolve conflicts/differences between neighbours.
A. II, III, IV, V C. II, III, IV

B. I, II, III, IV D. I, II, III, IV,
220. As a rule, moving vehicle shall not be fired upon, except when its occupants
pose imminent danger of causing death or injury to the police officer or any other
person, and that the use of firearm does not create a danger to the public and
outweighs the likely benefits of its non-use. In firing upon a moving vehicle, the
following parameters should be considered EXCEPT:
A. Accessibility or the proximity of the fleeing suspect/s with the police officer and
other persons.
B. The capability of the fleeing suspect/s to harm in certainty the police officer or
other persons
C. The intent of the fleeing suspect/s to harm the police officer or other p
D. The kind of vehicle of the fleeing suspect/s to avoid traffic accident.
221. When Patrol officer visually observe a weapon during pat-down search, a
more secure search position may be:
A. Standing position
B. Lying Face down Position
C. Hands placed against a stationary object, and feet spread apart.
D. All of these
222. All except one are the types of specialized patrol method:
A. Marine Patrol C. Air Patrol
B. Canine Patrol D. Foot Patrol
223. A uniformed patrol officers work in generally judged by his-

i. Knowledge of all problems in the community
ii. Residents developed good public relations
iii. Ability
iv. His capability to solve crimes that happened in his area
224. Can the Patrol officers disperse unlawful assemblies?
A. True C. False
225. In Police Radio System, What frequency is needed in the police department?
A. 300, 000 KM per Seconds
B. 30 – 300 MHz
C. Above 30 MHz
D. NONE
▪ Radio waves- The radio or electromagnetic waves travel as fast as the speed of
light at 186, 000 miles per second or 300, 000 kilometers per second.

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▪ 30 – 300 MHz – intended for short distances transmission.
226. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about patrol?

A. It is the backbone of the police department
B. It is the essence of police operation
C. It is the nucleus of the police department
D. It is the single largest unit in the police department that can be eliminated
227. It is usually used for traffic, surveillance, parades and special events.
A. Random Foot Patrol C. Fixed Foot Patrol
B. Moving Foot Patrol D. Line Beat Patrol
▪ Moving Foot Patrol – It is used when then there is considerable foot movement
such as business and shopping center, family dwellings and the like.
o Line beat patrol – it is used in securing certain portion of the road.
o Random foot Patrol – It is used in checking residential buildings, business
establishments, dark alley, and parking lots.
228. The following are patrol activities, except:

A. Arrest of alleged criminals
B. Responding to emergency calls
C. Inspection services
D. Preparation of investigation reports
229. This type of patrol maintains better personal contact with the members of the
community ideal in gaining the trust and confidence of the people to the police:
A. Horse Patrol C. Bicycle Patrol
B. Automobile Patrol D. Foot Patrol
▪ Automobile Patrol - It separates public from the Police.
230. The patrol pattern which is usually done at the last hour of duty to ascertain
that nothing happened in the area of responsibility of the patrol officer is:
A. Clockwise pattern
B. Zigzag pattern
C. Counter clockwise pattern
D. Crisscross pattern
▪ Clockwise Patrol Pattern - Rectangular/square size of beat; done in the start of

8 hours tour of duty.
▪ Zigzag/Free Wheeling Patrol Pattern - Done by patrolling the streets within the
perimeter of the beat not at random but with definite target location where he
knows his presence is necessary.
▪ Straightway and Criss-Cross Patrol Pattern - Hazard oriented patrol; Easiest to
observe the movement of the patrol officer.

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▪ Cloverleaf Pattern - A highway intersection designed to route traffic without

interference, by means of a system of curving ramps from one level to another,
in the form of a Four (4) leaf clover
231. The following are the advantages of Foot Patrol. EXCEPT:

A. It involves larger number of personnel
B. It develops greater contact with the public
C. It insures familiarization of area
D. It promotes easier detection of crime
232. Dogs are of great assistance in search and rescue as well as in smelling out
drugs and bombs. What do you call the large dog with drooping ears and sagging
jaws and keenest smell among all dogs, formerly used for tracking purposes?
A. German shepherd C. Bloodhounds
B. Doberman pinscher D. WOLVES
▪ German Shepherd- the most frequently used and high scoring dog for police
work
▪ WOLVES (Wireless Operational Link and Video Exploration System) – It is the
system of attaching miniature camera and transmitter to a search dog which
makes the dogs the eyes and ears of his handler.
233. The best method of patrol to be done in sector is:

A. Foot C. Automobile
B. Bicycle D. Helicopter
234. A supervisor’s span of control is usually computed in terms of number of:

A. Superiors to whom he reports
B. Superiors from whom he takes orders
C. Subordinates directly reporting to him
D. Any of these
235. Frequent beat changes prevent a police officer from becoming _______ with
people, hazards, and facilities on his beat.
A. Well Acquainted C. Sluggish
B. Energetic D. Unfamiliar
236. The patrol pattern to be followed after the clockwise and before the counter-
clockwise?
A. Straightway C. Crisscross
B. Sector D. Zigzag
237. The two-man patrol became_________ due to increase attack of police officer
by militant, dangerous section to be patrolled and many riots demonstration in
the street.

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A. Unnecessary C. Necessary
B. Voluntary D. Redundant
238. A police strategy which aims to directly involve members of the community in
the maintenance of peace and order by police officers.
A. Integrated Police System C. Detective Beat System
B. Comparative Police System D. Community Oriented Policing System
Integrated Patrol System

▪ Considered as the best way of immersing policemen in various activities of
a particular area and to demonstrate to the populace the commitment of
the Police to serve and protect the community.
▪ It is response to the requirement of Police Visibility.
Detective Beat System - enhancing the efficiency and effectiveness of the PNP’s
investigation capability
239. Which among the following routine patrol duties, is the least likely to become
completely a function of automobile patrol is the checking of-
A. Security of business establishment.
B. Street light outrages.
C. Roadway defects and damaged traffic signs.
D. Illegal posting of signs and other advertisement.
240. It is the most disadvantage of fixed post for patrolmen in areas where police
hazards are serious is that, it usually-
A. Encourages laxness on the part of Patrolman.
B. Lays the patrolman open to unwarranted charges.
C. Wasteful of manpower.
D. Keeps the patrolman out of sight or hearing when quick mobilization is needed.
241. Patrol weaken the potential offenders belief in the-

A. Opportunity for graft.
B. Existence of an opportunity to effectively violate the law.
C. Effectiveness of Police Administration.
D. Police bureau’s willingness to use specialized squads.
242. Team Policing is said to be originated in________:

A. Aberdeen, Scotland C. Lyons, France
B. Vienna, Austria D. London, England
243. They are considered as the first to utilize dogs for patrolling:
A. Egyptians C. English
B. Chinese D. American
244. Psychology of Omniprescense means______.

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A. Low Visibility C. High Visibility

B . Reactive D. Proactive
245. X wanted to commit suicide by jumping in a 13th floor building. Which of the
following should be the first thing to do by the Patrol officer who first arrived at
the scene?
A. Urge no to jump
B. Call nearest relative
C. Clear the area
D. Report immediately to Station
46. What is the most realistic advantage of the motorcycle patrol over the other
patrol methods?
A. Low cost C. Visibility
B. Speed D. Security
247. 1st Statement- The objectives of Patrol officers are different from ordinary
Police Officer.
2nd Statement- Patrol is the ears and eyes of Police Organization.
3rd Statement- Patrol plays a major role in determining the quality of justice to
be served in a community.
4th Statement- All police function had been vested to the patrol division.
A. The 1st and 4th statements are correct
B. The 2nd and 3rd statements are correct
C. The 1st and 3rd statements are incorrect.
D. All statements are correct
248. The basic purpose of patrol is most effectively implemented by police activity
which-
A. Provides for many types of specialized patrol, with less emphasis on routine.
B. Minimize the prospective lawbreaker aspiration to commit crime.C. Influences
favorable individual and group attitudes in routine daily associations with
the police.
D. Intensifies the potential offender’s expectation of apprehension.
249. What is the new concept, police strategy which integrates the police and
community interests into a working relationship so as to produce the desired
organizational objectives of peacemaking?
A. Preventive patrol C. Community Relation
B. Directed Patrol D. Team policing
250. What is the appropriate patrol method that is most ideally suited to
evacuation and search-and-rescue operations?
A. Motorcycle C. Automobile
B. Helicopter D. Horse

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▪ Automobile – To carry an Extra equipment by the Patrol Officers
251. If the external patting of the suspect’s clothing fails to disclose evidence of a
weapon the next procedure of the Patrol officer is:
A. Conduct a complete search.
B. The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect.
C. No further search may be made.
D. Turnover the suspect to the immediate supervisor.
252. During Civil Disturbances, what may be utilized when demonstrators

become unruly and aggressive forcing troops to fall back to their secondary
positions?
A. Tear Gas C. Water Cannon
B. Truncheon D. Shield
▪ Tear gas - may be utilized to break up formations or groupings of
demonstrations who continue to be aggressive and refused to disperse
despite earlier efforts.
253. The factors to be considered in determining the number of patrol officers to

be deployed in an area are the following:
a. Size of the area;
b. Topography;
c. Crime rate and;
d. Possible problems to be encountered.
A. a, c, d C. a, b, d
B. b, c, d D. a, b, c, d
254. The patrol strategy which is best on populous areas such as markets, malls,
and ports is:
A. Blending patrol C. Reactive patrol
B. Decoy patrol D. Plainclothes patrol
255. Going left while patrolling upon reaching every intersection until reaching the
point of origin is following what pattern?
A. Clockwise C. Zigzag
B. Counter clockwise D. Crisscross
256. All but one are the advantages of Bicycle Patrol:

A. Can report regularly to the command center.
B. Can operate quietly and without attracting attention.
C. It is inexpensive to operate.
D. It can cover areas that are not accessible by patrol cars.
257. The following are advantages of the use of Radio in Police Work:

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I. Simple Installation Process;

II. Cost of transceivers has relatively gone down;
III. The ease in the use of radio equipment;
IV. Availability of safeguards in the transmission of classified operational
information.
A. I, II, III C. II, III, IV

B. III, IV, I D. I, II, III, IV
258. The Purpose of conducting de-briefing after patrol is-

A. To integrate the police and the community interest into a working relationship.
B. To remind the patrol on the strict observance of the PNP Operational
Procedures.
C. To assess its conduct and make necessary corrective measures on defects
noted.
D. All of the Above
259. The members of the Patrol teams shall form and assemble at the police unit
headquarters at least _______ before the start of their shift for accounting-
A. 10 minutes C. 1 hour
B. 30 minutes D. 15 minutes
260. The police must make an effort to ascertain and amaze upon the law abiding
citizens and would be criminals alike that the police are always existing to
respond to any situation at a moment’s notice and he will just around the corner
at all times. This statement refers to:
A. Police Omnipresence
B. Police Patrol
C. Police Discretion
D. Integrated Patrol
261. A patrol beat refers to a:

A. Number of crimes to be solved
B. Location of police headquarters
C. Number of residence to be protected
D. Geographical area to be protected
262. Team members of the decoy may dress themselves in a manner designed to
help them blend the neighborhood where they are deployed.
A. Absolutely False C. Absolutely True
263. “Personality clash is reduced”, it is the advantage of:

A. One Man Patrol Car

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B. Two Man Patrol Car

C. Foot Patrol
D. Canine Patrol
264. The least desirable of all police shifts due to lack of activities:
A. Afternoon Shift C. Morning Shift
B. Night Shift D. None of these
265. Time between the call of the Police to arrival at the scene of an incident:
A. Response Time C. Call Time
B. Duration Time D. Critical Time
▪ Response time - It refers to the running time of the dispatched patrol car from
his position where the assignment was received and the arrival at the scene.
266. The percentage of police officers assigned in patrol is:

A. 20% C. 40%
B. 25% D. 50%
▪ Criminal Investigation – 15%
▪ Traffic Function – 10%
▪ Vice and Juvenile Related Functions – 10%
▪ Administrative Function – 10%
▪ Auxilliary Functions – 5%
▪
267. Refers to the actual stopping or accosting of armed and dangerous person or
persons, aboard a vehicle or on foot, including the power to use all necessary and
legal means to accomplish such end.
A. Dragnet Operation
B. Hasty Checkpoint
C. High-Risk Arrest
D. High Risk Stop
▪ Dragnet Operation - is a police operation purposely to seal-off the probable
exit points of fleeing suspects from the crime scene to prevent their escape.
▪ High Risk Arrest - is the actual restraint of armed persons following a high-
risk stop.
▪ Hasty Checkpoint - is an immediate response to block the escape of lawless
elements from a crime scene, and is also established when nearby
checkpoints are ignored or during hot pursuit operations.
268. Which among the following activities during post-patrol or post-deployment

phase is not included?
A. Formation & Accounting
B. Inspection & recall of Equipment
C. Debriefing/Report Submission
D. Briefing

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269. It refers to a computer that is installed inside a patrol car which allows patrol
officer to have an access from the Headquarters files and other Law Enforcement
Agencies which are used in order to expedite their operation.
A. Mobile Data Terminal
B. Vehicle-Mounted TV
C. High Intensity Emergency Lighting Plan
D. CCTV
▪ Vehicle-Mounted TV – It refers to a Video Camera which is attached and

installed in a patrol car with a high-resolution and wide angle lens.
▪ High Intensity Emergency Lighting Plan – It refers to a heavy duty light that
can provide two (2) million candle power of light.
270. The first organized patrol for policing purposes was formed in London. This
patrol pattern is usually done at the last hour of duty to ascertain that nothing
happened in the area of responsibility of the patrol?
A. Straight C. Crisscross
B. Clockwise D. Counter clockwise
271. It is a “frisk” or external feeling of the outer garments of an individual for

weapons only.
A. Frisking C. Search
B. Spot Check D. Pat-down Search
▪ Spot Check/Accosting - is the brief stopping of an individual, whether on foot
or in a vehicle, based on reasonable suspicion/probable cause, for the purpose
of determining the individual’s identity and resolving the officer’s suspicion
concerning criminal activity.
272. It is one by patrolling the streets within the perimeter of the beat not at
random but with definite target location where he knows his presence is
necessary.
A. Target Oriented C. Zigzag
B. Clockwise D. Criss-Cross
273. Foot patrol is the oldest form of patrol; the following are the advantages of
Foot patrol, EXCEPT:
A. Easy to supervise and fix responsibility for action taken.
B. It enables patrol officers to cover a considerable area
C. Inspire more Public confidence.
D. The officer can actually get to know the physical layout of his beat better.
274. The word Patrol was derived from the French word ________which means to
go through paddles.
A. Patroulier C. Patroul
B. Politeia D. Politia

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275. The concept of Unity of command is:

A. No one should have more than one boss.
B. Arrangement of officers from top to bottom.
C. Number of subordinates that a Superior can effectively supervise.
D. Conferring certain tasks, duties, and responsibilities to subordinates.
276. Which among the following Patrol Method is appropriate when responding to
quick emergency call?
A. Motorcycle Patrol C. Automobile Patrol
B. Air Patrol D. Foot Patrol
277. The following are the advantages of Regular post.

I. Patrol officer becomes thoroughly familiar with the various post
conditions;
II. Patrol officer takes more pride and interest in improving the conditions
on his post resulting in better public relations and cooperation from the
residents;
III. Favoritism will be lessened because of transitory assignments; and
IV. The patrol officer moral is enhanced, since a steady post is an indication
of public acceptance of his work.
A. I, II and III C. I, II, and IV
B. II, III, and IV D. I, II, III, and IV
278. Detective Beat System is one of the concrete responses of the PNP in
reinventing the field of investigation. Who is the NCRPO Chief who introduces this
DBS?
A. Dir. AlmaJose C. Dir. Romeo Pena
B. Dir. Sonny Razon D. Dir. Rene Sarmiento
▪ Dir. Almajose – First Chief of Mobile Patrol in Manila.
279. The type of Patrol which requires special skills and training:
A. TV C. Air
B. Automobile D. Foot
280. Traditional foot patrolling in the Philippines was initiated on:

A. August 10, 1917 C. August 7, 1901
B. November 22, 1901 D. March 17, 1901
281. In police communication, 10-74 means:

A. Negative C. Need Assistance
B. Caution D. Unable to copy
Some APCO TEN SIGNALS

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▪ 10 – 0 Caution
▪ 10 – 1 Unable to copy/Change Location
▪ 10 – 50 Accident
▪ 10 – 70 Fire Alarm
▪ 10 – 78 Need Assistance
▪ 10 – 90 Bank Alarm
282. This patrol tactic would result to improvement of police omnipresence:

A. Target Oriented Patrol
B. High-Visibility Patrol
C. Low-Visibility Patrol
D. Directed deterrent Patrol
283. Police Community Precincts are mandatorily led by an officer with the rank of
_______ with a minimum of 30 personnel including the commander divided into 3
shifts.
A. Sr. Inspector or Superintendent
B. Supt. To Sr. Supt.
C. Sr. Supt. To C/Supt.
D. C/Insp. To Supt.
284. The smelling sense of dog is up to how many times more sensitive than
human’s sense of smell?
A. One thousand times C. One hundred times
B. Ten thousand times D. Ten million times
285. Transfer of knowledge from one person to another through common medium
and channel.
A. Information C. Communication
B. Police Communication D. Radio
286. Refers to a location where the search, which is duly authorized by the PNP, is
conducted to deter/prevent the commission of crimes, enforce the law, and for
other legitimate purposes.
A. Hot Pursuit C. Public Place
B. Police Checkpoint D. Pre-Determined Area
▪ Hot Pursuit (Cross Jurisdictional Pursuit) - (also termed in the US as fresh
pursuit) immediate, recent chase or follow-up without material interval for the
purpose of taking into custody any person wanted by virtue of a warrant, or
one suspected to have committed a recent offense while fleeing from one police
jurisdictional boundary.
▪ Pre-Determined Area - is the specific or projected spot where the armed and
dangerous person or persons would pass or likely to pass and so tactically
located as to gain calculated advantage against said person or persons.
▪

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287. The advisable cruising speed in automobile patrol ranges from:

A. 20-25 mph C. 60-80 kph
B. 20-25 kph D. 50 kph
288. It is the primary objective of police patrol operations:

A. Crime Prevention
B. Preservation of Peace and Order
C. Law enforcement
D. All of these
▪ Preservation of peace and order - It is the fundamental obligation of the

Police and it is the most important function performed by the patrol service
289. Doubling the level of routine patrol is a patrol strategy called:
A. Reactive Patrol C. Directed Patrol
B. Preventive Patrol D. Proactive Patrol
290. If a patrol officer needs to respond to a crime incident faster but undetected,
then the best patrol method that he should employ is:
A. Bicycle patrol C. Automobile patrol
B. Motorcycle patrol D. Foot patrol
291. In the anatomy of crime, this refers to the act of a person that enables
another to victimize him:
A. Instrumentality C. Opportunity
B. Motive D. Capability
▪ Motive - It is the basis why the people will commit crime or it is what induces
the people to act.
▪ Instrumentality - it is the means used in executing the crime
292. The factors to be considered in determining the number of patrol officers to
be deployed in an area are the following, except:
A. Size of the area
B. Topography
C. Possible problems to be encountered
D. Neither of them
293. The patrol strategy which brings the police and the people together in a
cooperative manner in order to prevent crime:
A. Integrated Patrol C. Team policing
B. Reactive patrol D. Proactive patrol
294. The theory in patrol which states that police officers should conduct overt
police operations in order to discourage people from committing crime refers to:
A. Theory of police omnipresence
B. Low police visibility theory

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C. Low profile theory

D. Maximum deterrence theory
295. The principle of patrol force organization which states that patrol officers
should be under the command of only one man refers to:
A. Span of control
B. Unity of command
C. Chain of command
D. Command responsibility
Organization Principles
▪ Span of Control - refers to the number of officers or subordinates that a
Superior supervises without regard to the effectiveness or efficiency of the
supervision.
▪ Delegation of Authority - is the assignment of tasks, duties, and
responsibilities to subordinates while at the same time giving them the
power or right to control, command, make decisions, or otherwise act in
performing the delegated responsibilities.
▪ Chain of Command - the arrangement of officers from top to bottom on the
basis of rank or position and authority
▪ Command Responsibility - dictates that immediate commanders shall be
responsible for the effective supervision and control of their personnel and
unit.
296. The elimination of the opportunity of people to commit crime as a result of

patrol.
A. Crime prevention
B. Crime intervention
C. Crime suppression
D. Crime deterrence
297. What type of Patrol method is appropriate when mobility is needed in small
alleys?
A. Motorcycle Patrol C. CCTV

B. Automobile Patrol D. Foot Patrol
Motorcycle Patrol – mobility in wider area
298. Under the Integrated Patrol System, the primary objective of patrol activity is:
A. To prevent commission of crime.
B. Integrate the police and the community
C. Constant and Alert Patrolling.
D. Visibility and Omniprescence.
299. The following are benevolent services performed by the Patrol officers:

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I. Preventing the actual commission of crimes.

II. Rendering first aid for accident victims;
III. Mediate in family quarrels; and
IV. Give relief assistance to disaster victims;
A. I, II, III C. II, III, IV

B. III, IV, I D. I, II, III, IV
300. All but one are the dogs best suited for police work except:
A. Askals C. Chihuahua
B. Rottweiler D. All of these
301. What law provides for the creation of the National Intelligence Coordinating
Agency?
A. EO 389 C. EO 1012
B. EO 1040 D. EO 246
▪ EO 389- ordered that the Philippine Constabulary be one of the four services of
the Armed Forces of the Philippines, enacted on December 23, 1940
▪ EO 1012- transferred to the city and municipal government the operational
supervision and direction over all INP units assigned within their locality;
issued on July 10, 1985
▪ EO 1040- transferred the administrative control and supervision of the INP
from the Ministry of National Defense to the National Police Commission
302. A person who breaks intercepted codes.

A. Crypto Analyst C. Cryptographer
B. Cryptography D. Code breaker
▪ Cryptography- It is defined as an art and science of codes and ciphers.
▪ Cryptographer- It refers to a person who is highly skilled in converting
message from clear to unintelligible forms by use of codes and cipher.
303. Agent who is a member of paramilitary group organized to harass the enemy
in a hot war situation.
A. Guerilla C. Propagandist
B. Provocateur D. Strong Arm
Kinds of Action Agent

▪ Espionage Agent- Agent who clandestinely procure or collect information.
▪ Propagandist- Agents who molds the attitudes, opinions, and actions of an
individual group or nation.
▪ Saboteur- Agents who undertakes positive actions against an unfriendly
power, resulting in the loss of use temporarily or permanently of an article or
others.
▪ Strong Arm- Agent who is made to provide special protection during
dangerous phase of clandestine operations.

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▪ Provocateur- Agent who induces an opponent to act to his own detriment
304. It is a type of Cover which alters the background that will correspond to the
operation.
A. Multiple C. Natural
B. Artificial D. Unusual
▪ Multiple- Includes different cover
▪ Natural- Actual or True Background.
305. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
i. Intelligence Officer can submit his information report any time since it is to
processes.
ii. All intelligence information’s are collected by clandestine method.
iii. Counter Intelligence is not much needed in a medium size police station.
iv. Patrol Officers can help collect intelligence information by initiating good
public relations.
306. Wire tapping operations in our country is strictly prohibited but it can be
done at the commander’s discretion since it tends to collect intelligence
information.
A. Partly True C. Partly False
B. Wholly True D. Wholly False
307. If information comes with a low reliability and doubtful accuracy, will this
information be discarded or refused acceptance?
A. Maybe Yes C. Yes
B. No D. Maybe No
308. In selection and recruitment of informers the best factor to be considered is:
A. Age C. Access
B. Educational Attainment D. Body built
309. It is otherwise known as the “Anti-Wiretapping Act” which prohibits

wiretapping in our country.
A. RA 1700 C. RA 4200
B. RA 7610 D. CA 616
▪ RA 1700 – Ant-Subversion Act
▪ CA 616 - Act to punish espionage and other Offenses against National
Security
▪ RA 7610 - Special Protection of Children Against Abuse, Exploitation and
Discrimination Act
310. Security Clearance is a certification by a responsible authority that the
person described is cleared to access and classify matters at appropriate levels.
Interim clearance will remain valid for a period of____ from the date of issuance.
A. 1 year C. 5 years

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▪ Final Clearance – 5 years
311. How will you evaluate the intelligence report of Agent Buanko with an
evaluation rating of D2?
A. Completely reliable source – doubtfully true information
B. Unreliable source – probably true information
C. Fairly reliable source – possibly true information
D. Not Usually reliable source – probably true information
312. It is a process or method of obtaining information from a captured enemy

who is reluctant to divulge information.
A. Wiretapping C. Bugging
B. Elicitation D. Tactical Interrogation
▪ Elicitation - The process of extracting information from a person believes to be
in possession of vital information without his knowledge or suspicion.
▪ Bugging - The use of an equipment or tool to listen and record discreetly
conversations of other people.
▪ Wiretapping - A method of collecting information thru interception of telephone
conversation.
313. The term of office of the members of the PLEB is _______

A. 6 years
B. 3 years
C. 6 years without re-appointment
D. None of the above
314. He directs the organization in conducting the clandestine activity.

A. Target C. Sponsor
B. Agent D. Support Agent
▪ Target- Person, place or things against which the clandestine activity is to be
conducted.
▪ Agent- It refers to a person who conducts the clandestine Operations to include
Principal Agents, Action Agents, and Support Agents.
315. It refers to an associate of the subject who follows him to detect surveillance.
A. Convoy C. Decoy
B. Subject D. Surveillant
▪ Decoy- A person or object used by the subject in attempt to elude Surveillant
▪ Surveillant – is the plainclothes investigator assigned to make the
observation.
▪ Subject – is who or what is observed. It can be a person, place, property, and
vehicle, group of people, organization or object.
316. It is a type of Agent used in collecting information who leaks false

information to the enemy.

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A. Double Agent C. Expendable Agent

B. Agent of Influence D. Penetration Agent
Types of Agent used in collecting of Information

▪ Agent of Influence- Agent who uses authority to gain information
▪ Agent in Place- Agent who has been recruited within a highly sensitive
target
▪ Penetration Agent- Agent who have reached to the enemy, gather
information and able to get back without being caught.
▪ Double Agent- An enemy agent, who has been taken into custody, turned
around and sent back where he came from as an agent of his captors.
317. It is one of the Functional Classification of Police Intelligence which refers to

the knowledge essential to the prevention of crimes and the investigation, arrest,
and prosecution of criminal offenders.
A. Internal Security Intelligence
B. Public Safety Intelligence
C. Intelligence
D. Preventive Intelligence
▪ Internal Security Intelligence (INSINT) – refers to the knowledge essential to the
maintenance of peace and order.
▪ Public Safety Intelligence (PUSINT) – refers to the knowledge essential to
ensure the protection of lives and properties
318. Intelligence is the end product resulting from the collection, evaluation,
analysis, integration, and interpretation of all available information. What is
considered as the core of intelligence operations?
A. Dissemination C. Analysis
B. Mission D. Planning
319. He is regarded as the "Father of Organized Military Espionage".

A. Alexander the Great
B. Frederick the Great
C. Karl Schulmeister
D. Arthur Wellesley
▪ Sir Arthur Wellesly- Regarded as the "Greatest Military Spymaster at All
Time".
▪ Karl Schulmeister- famous as "Napoleon's Eye". He was credited for
establishing counter intelligence conducted against spies.
▪ Alexander the great - He was able to identify those disloyal ones by ordering
the communication letters opened and was successful in curtailing the
decline of esprit de corps and morale of his men.
320. There are four categories of classified matters; top secret, secret, confidential,
and restricted. To distinguish one against the other, their folder consists of

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different colors. What will be the color of the document which requires the highest
degree of protection?
A. Red C. Black
B. Blue D. Green
▪ Secret (RED)
▪ Confidential (BLUE)
▪ Restricted (BLACK)
321. What verse of the Holy Bible that includes the biblical indication of the
beginning of Intelligence?
A. Number 13:17 C. Number 3:17
B. Number 17:13 D. Number 17:3
322. A certain locality is identified to be a major source of illicit drugs, to resolve

this issue intelligence officer was deployed to live in the area for a considerable
amount of time to find out the authenticity of such reports.
A. Social assignments
B. Work assignments
C. Organizational assignments
D. Residential assignments
▪ Work Assignment – getting employed where the investigator can observe the
activities of the subject at his place of work.
▪ Social Assignments – Frequent places of entertainment and amusement
habitually being visited by the subject.
▪ Personal Contact Assignment – the investigator required to develop the
friendship and trust of the subject.
▪ Multiple Assignment – The investigator is tasked to cover two (2) or more of the
above specific assignments simultaneously, it can produce extensive
information with minimum expenses but more prone to compromise.
323. It is a type of intelligence activity which deals with defending the organization
against its criminal enemies?
A. Line Intelligence C. Counter-Intelligence
B. Strategic Intelligence D. Tactical Intelligence
▪ Line or Tactical Intelligence – it is the intelligence information which
directly contributes to the accomplishment of specific objectives and
immediate in nature.
▪ Strategic Intelligence - This is intelligence information which is not
immediate operational but rather long range.
324. What is the evaluation of an intelligence report which is “usually from a

reliable source and improbable information”?
A. C-5 C. B-5
B. B-3 D. C-3

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EVALUATION GUIDE FOR COLLECTED INFORMATION
Reliability of Information Accuracy of Information Source of the Information

CODE: CUFNUR CODE: CPPDIT
A – Completely Reliable 1 – Confirmed By Other T – Direct Observation by a

Sources commander or Unit
B – Usually Reliable 2 – Probably True U – Report by a penetration or
resident agent
C - Fairly Reliable 3 – Possibly True V – Report by an AFP trooper or
PNP personnel in operation
D – Not Usually Reliable 4 – Doubtfully True W – Interrogation of a captured
enemy or agent
E – Unreliable 5 – Improbable X – Observation by a
government or civilian employee
or official
F – Reliability Cannot Be Judged 6 – Truth Cannot Be Judged Y – Observation by a member of
populace
Z - Documentary
REMINDER: You should LEARN BY HEART this Evaluation Guide
325. It is a form of investigation in which the operative assumes a cover in order

to obtain information
A. Overt operation C. Undercover assignment
B. Covert operation D. clandestine operation
326. What is evaluation of the intelligence report gathered by Agent Fukymo

Mikuto which is “Fairly Reliable and doubtfully true information?
A. D C. C-4
B. C-5 D. D-5
327. The following must be observed during surveillance:

a. Meet the subject eye to eye;
b. Avoid contact on the subject;
c. Recognize fellow agent;
d. If burnt out, drop subject and;
e. Adapt inconspicuous clothing.
A. a, c, d C. b, d, e
B. b, c, d, e D. a, b, c, e
328. In surveillance, the following are done to alter the appearance of the
surveillance vehicle, EXCEPT:
A. Changing license plates of surveillance vehicle
B. Putting on and removing hats, coats and sunglasses

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C. Change of seating arrangement within the surveillance vehicle

D. Keep the cars behind the subject car.
329. A _______ is usually for the purpose of waiting for the anticipated arrival of
the suspect who is either wanted for investigation or who is expected to commit a
crime at a certain location.
A. Stake out C. Rough Shadowing
B. Shadowing D. surveillance
▪ Surveillance – is the covert, discreet observation of people and places for the
purpose of obtaining information concerning the identities or activities of
subjects.
▪ Moving Surveillance or Shadowing or tailing – simply the act of following a
person.
▪ Rough Shadowing – employed without special precautions, the subject maybe
aware of the surveillance; employed also when the subject is a material
witness and must be protected from harm or other undesirable influences.
330. In the Intelligence function, the black list includes ________ forces.
A. Unwanted C. Friendly
B. Neutral D. Unfriendly
331. They are responsible for foreign intelligence of United Kingdom and it is also
referred as Box 850 because of its old post office box number.
A. Security Service (MI-5)
B. Secret Intelligence Service (MI-6)
C. Government Communication Headquarters
D. Defense Intelligence Staff
UK Intelligence Agency
•Security Service (MI-5 or Military Intelligence Section 5) – Internal Counter-

Intelligence and Security agency also responsible for internal Security of United
Kingdom.
• Government Communications Headquarters (GCHQ) - responsible for providing
signals intelligence (SIGINT) and information assurance to the UK government and
armed forces.
•Defense Intelligence Staff (DIS) - is a collector of intelligence through its
Intelligence Collection Group (ICG)
332. Known as the Prussia's "King of Sleuthhounds" as minister of police he

studied the use of propaganda and censorship as well as utilizing statistical
intelligence accounting.
A. Napoleon Bonaparte C. Wilhem Steiber
B. AKBAR D. Delilah

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▪ Napoleon Bonaparte- "One Spy in the right place is worth 20,000 men in the
field". He organized two Bureau of Interest.
▪ Akbar- The "Great Mogul" and wise master of Hindustan employed more than
4,000 agents for the sole purpose of bringing him the truth that his throne
might rest upon it.
▪ Delilah- A biblical personality who was able to gain information by using her
beauty and charm.
333. If the information or documents are procured openly without regard as to

whether the subject of the investigation becomes knowledgeable of the purpose or
purposes for which it is being regarded.
A. Overt Operation C. Surveillance
B. Covert Operation D. Analysis
▪ Covert Operation – Information are procured clandestinely
334. Investigation of the records and files of agencies in the area and residence of
the individual being investigated.
A. CBI C. NAC
B. PBI D. LAC
▪ National Agency Check- It consists of LAC supplemented by investigation of the
records and files of the following agencies: PNP, ISAFP, NBI, CSC, Bureau of
Immigration and Deportation and other agency.
▪ Background Investigation – a check made on an individual usually seeking
employment through subjects records in the police files, educational
institutions, place of residence, and former employers.
▪ Complete Background Investigation- it is a type of BI which is more
comprehensive, that consist of detailed information regarding the subject.
335. The end product resulting from the collection, evaluation, analysis,
integration, and interpretation of all available information regarding the activities
of criminals and other law violators for the purpose of affecting their arrest,
obtaining evidence, and forestalling plan to commit crimes.
A. Police Intelligence B. National Intelligence

C. Miltary Intelligence D. Departmental Intelligence
▪ National Intelligence- integrated product of intelligence developed by all
government departments concerning the broad aspect of national policy and
national security.
▪ Department of Intelligence – the intelligence required by department or
agencies of the government to execute its mission and discharge its
responsibilities.
▪ Military Intelligence – refers to the knowledge by the military institution
essential in the preparation and execution of military plans, policies and
programs.

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336. It is considered as the most secured method of disseminating the information

to the user of classified matters is by means of:
A. Debriefing C. Conference
B. Cryptographic method D. Seminar
337. It refers to the combination of all analyzed data to form a logical picture or
theory.
A. Integration C. Evaluation
B. Recording D. Interpretation
▪ Recording – is the reduction of information into writing or some other form
of graphical representation and the arranging of this information into
groups related items.
▪ Evaluation – is the determination of the pertinence of the information to the
operation, reliability of the source of or agency and the accuracy of the
information.
▪ Analysis- This is the stage in which the collected information is subjected to
review in order to satisfy significant facts and derive conclusion there from.
▪ Interpretation- Process of determining the significance of new information
in the possible alternatives.
338. It refers to the person who conducts the clandestine Operation.

A. Agent C. Support Agent
B. Action Agent D. Principal Agent
▪ Principal Agent- Leader or management Agent in clandestine operation
usually undertaken by the case officer.
▪ Support Agent- Agent who is engaged in activities which supports the
clandestine operations and or the action agent in his operations
339. It is claimed that 99% of information is obtained from conspicuous sources

and 1% of information is obtained from clandestine sources. Clandestine means.
A. Observable C. Overt
B. Visible D. Covert
340. An E-3 intelligence report means:
A. The information comes from completely reliable sources and Improbable true.
B. The information comes from Unreliable sources and probably true.
C. The information comes from Fairly Reliable sources and doubtfully true.
D. The information comes from Unreliable sources and possibly true.
341. The following are methods of Surveillance Detection, EXCEPT:

A. Use of Bait and Changing Pace
B. Convoy and Watching Procession
C. Entering Crowded buildings and concealment to movement
D. Retracting the cause and Window Shopping

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343. The process of assigning higher category of document or information

according to the degree of security needed.
A. Reclassify C. Classify
B. Upgrading D. Declassify
▪ Classify – Assigning of Information or material to one of the four security
classification after determining that such information requires security as
prescribed by PNP regulation 200-012.
▪ Reclassify – The act of changing the assigned classification of a document
or material.
▪ Declassify – The removal of the security classification from classified
document or material.
▪ Compartmentation – The granting of access to classified document or
information only to properly cleared persons when such classified
information is required in the performance of their official duties, and
restricting it to specific physical confines when feasible.
345. The purpose of evaluation and analysis is to determine if the information is

true and-
A. Reliable C. Accurate
B. Correct D. Probably true
347. It refers to a place, building or enclosed area where police undercover men
meet for debriefing or reporting purposes.
A. Safe house C. Log
B. Live Drop D. Decoy
▪ Log – chronological records of activities that took place in the establishment
under surveillance.
▪ Live Drop- Refers to a place where agents or informants leave their messages to
the other Agents.
348. It is more comprehensive than the NAC or LAC, which includes some or all of
the circumstances.
A. National Agency Check
C. Complete Background Investigation
D. Personnel Security Investigation
349. Greeting of Fellow Surveillant is encouraged. The statement is –

A. Yes C. NO
B. Absolutely Correct D. False
350. What specialist group of CIA that was established to research, create and
manage technical collection discipline and equipment.
A. National Clandestine Service
B. Directorate of Intelligence .
C. Directorate of Support

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D. Directorate of Science and Technology

▪ National clandestine Service (Formerly known as Directorate of Operations)-
responsible for collecting intelligence mainly from clandestine sources and
covert action.
▪ Directorate of Intelligence (DI)- Responsible for providing timely and accurate
all source of intelligence analysis.
▪ Directorate of Support- Provides everything that the CIA needs to accomplish
its mission.
351. The persons listed in________ are allowed to enter a certain establishment or
building.
A. Access list C. Black List
B. Blue Print D. Silver list
352. The deliberate destruction, disruption, or damage of equipment, a public

service, as by enemy agent or dissatisfied employees.
A. Subversion C. Sabotage
B. Espionage D. None of these
▪ Subversion - acts designed to destabilize or overthrow the authority of a
ruling power.
▪ Espionage - the secret collection of information, or intelligence, that the
source of such information wishes to protect from disclosure.
353. In order to secure the intelligence the surveillance Operation center, the
stationary surveillance must _________ before leaving.
A. Conduct Surveillance Detection
B. Conduct Debriefing
C. Conduct Post-Surveillance Operation
D. Conduct Interrogation
354. It deals with the demographic and psychological aspects of groups of people.
A. Sociological Intelligence
B. Economic Intelligence
C. Biographical Intelligence
D. Political Intelligence
▪ Political Intelligence – deals with Domestic and Foreign affairs and relation of
government operations
▪ Economic Intelligence – deals with the extent and utilization of Natural and
Human resources to the industrial potential of the Nations
▪ Biographical Intelligence – deals with individual personalities who have actual
possession of power
▪ Geographical Intelligence – deals with the natural as well as manmade
features of the physical environment of man considered from the point in view
of military operations

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▪ Scientific Intelligence – deals with the progress of the research and

development as it affects the economic and military potential of a nation.
355. Which among the following principles of intelligence deemed to be the most
important?
A. Intelligence requires continuous security measures
B. Intelligence and operation are interdependent
C. Intelligence must be available on time
D. Intelligence must be flexible
356. It is the careful inspection of a place to determine its suitability for a

particular operational purpose.
A. Casing C. Loose Tail
B. Close Tail D. Stakeout
▪ Loose tail – employed where a general impression of the subject’s habits
and associates is required.
▪ Close tail – extreme precautions are taken against losing the subject is
employed where constant surveillance is necessary.
357. In Foot Surveillance, “Call – Off” means that –
A. Termination of Surveillance
B. Actual Surveillance
C. Stake – out and Pick up of the Subject
D. On target Requirements and Instruction
358. It refers to the most dangerous type of informant.

A. Women C. Double Crosser
B. False D. Anonymous
▪ Anonymous-Unidentified or unknown informants

▪ False Informant- reveals information of no consequences, value or stuff
connected within thin air.
▪ Frightened Informants- weakest link in criminal chain, motivated by
anxiety.
▪ Self-Aggrandizing- moves around the center of criminals delight in
surprising the police about bits of information.
▪ Mercenary- Information for sale needed something for exchange of
information.
▪ Double-Crosser- He wants to get more information from the police more
than he gives.
▪ Legitimate- operators of business desire to give information for legitimate
reasons.
359. It is the transforming of coded message into plain text.

A. Coding C. Encrypting
B. Decoding D. Reclassify

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▪ Coding-It is the changing of message from plain clear text to unintelligible

form also known as “Encrypting”.
360. After the planning on how intelligence is to be collected, the intelligence

officer must have thorough knowledge of the __________.
A. The strength of the area where the information will be gathered
B. Where they will be collecting the information
C. Available sources of information
D The vulnerabilities of the possessor of intelligence
361. He often dresses as a beggar & went to the street of Rome to gather first
hand information, he is considered as the greatest military strategist.
A. Alexander the Great C. Hannibal
B. Frederick the Great D. Genghis Khan
362. If information comes with a low reliability and doubtful accuracy, will this
information be discarded or refused acceptance?
A. Yes C. True
B. No D. False
363. It is one of the Functional Classification of Police Intelligence which refers to

the knowledge essential to the prevention of crimes and the investigation, arrest,
and prosecution of criminal offenders.
A. Internal Security Intelligence
B. Criminal Intelligence
C. Public Safety Intelligence
D. Preventive Intelligence
364. If the information or documents are procured openly without regard as to

whether the subject of the investigation becomes knowledgeable of the purpose or
purposes for which it is being regarded.
A. Overt Operation C. Clandestine
B. Surveillance D. Covert Operation
365. Which of the following is the most common reason why an informer gives
information to the police?
A. Monetary Reward C. Popularity
B. Revenge D. As a good citizen
366. A method of collecting information thru interception of telephone

conversation.
A. Bugging C. Wire Tapping
B. Code name D. NONE

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367. Is the condition, situation, and circumstance the enemy’s’ area of

consideration that render the criminal groups susceptible to damage, deception,
or defeat by the police organization.
A. Conclusion C. Capabilities
B. Vulnerabilities D. Evaluation
368. It is the general statement describing the current police internal defense,
internal development, psychological operation and responsibilities of the
organization
A. Area of operation
B. Capabilities of organized crime
C. the crime situation
D. the mission
369. It is defined as evaluative and interpreted information concerning organized

crime and other major police problems.
A. Military Intelligence C. Military Information
B. Police Intelligence D. Police Investigation
370. The term appropriate for someone who gives information in exchange for a
reward is:
A. Informer C. Informant
B. Special informer D. Confidential Informant
▪ Informants- Any person who hand over information to the agents which is
relevant to the subject. The informant may openly give the information
clandestinely and choose to remain anonymous.
371 Developing security consciousness among policemen forms part of enhancing

_______.
A. Line intelligence C. strategic intelligence
B. counter intelligence D. artificial intelligence
372. It is a type of Support Agent who obtains money when needed for operational
use.
A. Procurer of Funds C. Safe house Keeper
B. Communication Agent D. Surveillant
▪ Surveillant- Agent who observes persons and places of operations of interest.
▪ Safe house Keeper- Agents who manages and maintains a safe house for
clandestine operations like meetings, safe heavens, training, briefing, and
debriefing.
▪ Communication Agent- Agent who is detailed as securing of clandestine
communications.
373. What is the evaluation rating of Unreliable and Possibly true?

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A. C-2 C. E-2
B. E-3 D. C-3
374. Phase of intelligence covering the activity devoted in destroying the

effectiveness of hostile foreign activities and the protection of information against
espionage, subversion and sabotage.
A. Passive Intelligence
B. Counter Intelligence
C. Line Intelligence
D. Demographic Intelligence
379 All except one are interrelated to one another.

A. Fixed Surveillance
B. Stakeout Surveillance
C. Stationary Surveillance
D. Active Surveillance
380. The agent will gain access to the subject by going to the different hang out
places of the subject.
A. Social Assignment
B. Residential Assignment
C. Work Assignment
D. None of these
381. A person who informs solely for the pecuniary or other material gain he is to
receive.
A. Gratitude C. Repentance
B. Remuneration D. Vanity
382. National Intelligence Coordinating Agency is led by a-

A. Director C. General
B. President D. Director-General
383. Integrated product of intelligence developed by all government departments

concerning the broad aspect of national policy and national Security.
A. National Intelligence
B. Departmental Intelligence
C. International Intelligence
D. Social Intelligence
384. In Foot Surveillance “Debriefing” means:

A. Actual Surveillance
B. Collation of Report and Analysis of Significant Observation
C. Preparation of reports and its submission
D. Observe time

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385. Factors to be considered in choosing a “Safe House” EXCEPT:

A. Concealment, Utility, and Suitability
B. Activity of the people in neighborhood and location of Police Outpost
C. Complete Description of Entrance, Exits and Escape Routes
D. Operational Technical Requirements
386. Which of the following statement is FALSE?

A. Classified information must not be discussed with friends and members of
the family.
B. Classified information should be known only by one person.
C. Cabinets with classified documents must be secured with padlocks and
security measures at all times.
D. All classified documents must be safeguarded.
387. It refers to the person who conducts the surveillance.

A. Surveillant C. Subject
B. Interrogator D. Interviewee
▪ Interrogator- person who conduct Interrogation
388. The following are objectives of Casing EXCEPT:

A. Security of an Agent
B. Planning for Surveillance and preparation of Search
C. Suitability of Sites for personal meeting
D. Verification
389. The purpose of evaluation and analysis is to determine if the information is

true and-
A. Reliable C. Correct
B. Probably true D. Accurate
390. It refers to those measures, which seek actively to block the enemies’ effort to
gain information or engage in espionage, subversion, and sabotage.
A. Counter Intelligence
B. Passive Counter Intelligence
C. Active Counter Intelligence
D. Intelligence
▪ Passive CI Measures – protection of classified and sensitive information to the
unauthorized through secrecy, communication security, and other various
safeguards.
391. All EXCEPT one should be considered in conducting stationary surveillance.

A. Preparation
B. Financial Requirement
C. Personnel, Supply/Equipment and Security

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D. Coverage of Operation
392. Undercover operation is also known as;

A. Roping C. Bait
B. Clandestine D. Loose
393. It is defined as an art and science of codes and ciphers.

A. Cryptography C. Cryptanalysis
B. Decipher D. Coding
394. The protection resulting from the application of various measures which
prevent or delay the enemy or unauthorized person in gaining information
through communication.
A. Communication Security
B. Physical Security
C. Document Security
D. Internal Security
397. It is a certification by a responsible authority that the person described is

cleared to access and classify matters at appropriate levels.
A. Security Clearance
B. Document Clearance
C. Interim Clearance
D. Nome of these
398. Refers to an attack amounting to actual or eminent threat to the life, limb, or
right of the person claiming self-defense.
A. Imminent Danger C. Unlawful Aggression
B. Just Cause D. None of these
399. The police officer may stop an individual for the purpose of conducting a spot
check/accosting only when-
A. Probable Cause Exist
B . Notion to commit crime
C. Rational Grounds
D. Reasonable Suspicion
399. X evaluates the information as usually reliable and probably true.

A. C-4 C. B-3
B. B-2 D. C-5
400. Mossad is the National Intelligence agency of _____________.

A. Russia C. Philippines
B. Israel D. Pakistan
▪ Russia - Federal Security Service of Russian Federation

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▪ Philippines- National Intelligence Coordinating Agency

▪ Pakistan - Inter-Services Intelligence
401. Law enforcement in China was carried out by _______ which developed in
both chu and jin kingdom of the Spring and Autumn period.
A. Watch man C. Prefect
B. Gendemarie D. Constabulary
402. First Female Filipino commissioned officer in a UN integral mission.

A. P /D Rodolfo A. Tor C. Insp. Anrisa I. Mitra
B. SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas D. None of these
▪ SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas – First Non-Commissioned officer in a UN integral
Mission
▪ P/D Rodolfo A. Tor – First Commissioned officer in UN Integral Mission
403. New York Police Department (NYPD) have limited jurisdiction on _______:
A. USA C. New York
B. None of these D. Los Angeles
405. In the etymology of the word police the ancient word “Polisoos” referred to a
person who_____?
A. Enforcing Law C. Civil Policy
B. Guarding a City D. Citizenship
406. During the middle ages, there were two guard officer of the kingdom of
France with police responsibilities those are the Marshal of France and ________:
A. Constable of France C. Queens Royal Guard
B. Scotland Yard D. Constabulary
408. The typical number of Detectives roughly ________ of police service personnel:
A. 75% C. 5 to 10%
B. 15 to 25% D. 7 to 10%
409. In USA, FBI only have jurisdiction over federal crimes or those with an
interstate components. The statement is:
A. Correct C. Partially Correct
B. False D. partly False
410. This pertains to all those forms of policing that, in some sense transgress
national borders:
A. International Policing
B. Global Policing
C. National Policing
D. Transnational Policing

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411. In US, he introduced police reforms to include educational requirement for

police officer:
A. James Q. Wilson C. Sir Robert Peel
B. August Volmer D. O.W. Wilson
▪ Robert Peel – Father of Modern policing System
▪ O.W. Wilson - responsible in reducing corruption and introduced
professionalism in Winchita, Kansas and Chicago Police Department
412. The motto of Hongkong Police force:

A. Law and Order
B. Knowledge is Safety
C. Serve and Protect
D. We serve with pride and Care
413. Where do you can find the so called Police Ombudsman? It’s outside review
organization for police officer whose are changed of committing any form of
misconduct:
A. Northern Ireland C. England
B. China D. Japan
414. Throughout the United Kingdom, the rank structured of police force is
identical up to the rank of?
A. Chief Constable C. Chief Inspector
B. Chief Superintendent D. Inspector
415. In USA, what state are among the first to hire women and minorities as
police officer.
A. Massachusetts C. California
B. New York D. Washington
416. In Taiwan police Agency, what is the comparable rank to inspector or sub-
lieutenant?
A. Police Rank 4
B. Police Supervisor Rank 4
C. Police Officer Rank 1
D. Police Supervisor Rank 1
417. In Taiwan National Police Agency, what is the lowest possible rank of its
police personnel?
A. Police Rank 1 C. Police Officer Rank 1
B. Investigator 1 D. Constable
418. It is being acknowledge by Federal Bureau Investigation and INTERPOL to be

the “Asia’s Finest” police force and in having, set up the foundation for the social

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stability of Hong Kong and has won a good reputation as one of the safety cities in
the world.
A. Philippine National Police
B. Hong Kong Police Force
C. Japan Police Department
D. National Police Agency
419. It is the highest possible rank in Australia Police Force:

A. Commissioner General C. Director General
B. Commissioner D. Director
▪ Director General – Philippine National Police
▪ Director – BJMP and BFP
▪ Commissioner General - highest position in Japan Police Organization
420. The code of secrecy of Mafia:

A. Omerta C. Morse
B. Nostra Compra D. Cosa Nostra
421. INTERPOL stands for:

A. International Police
B. International Organization of Police
C. International criminal Organization
D. International Criminal Police Organization
422. The supreme governing body of the INTERPOL is the:

A. Executive Assembly C. Major Assembly
B. National Assembly D. General Assembly
423. The general Secretariat office of the INTERPOL is run by the:

A. Director General C. Supervisor
B. Inspector General D. Secretary General
425. The police rank in Japan that is called Keishi:

A. Policeman C. Chief Superintendent
B. Superintendent D. Senior Superintendent
426. It is the counterpart of Police Community Precinct in Japan:

A. Keishi C. Koban
B. Omerta D. Keiban
427. In Japan it is not considered as a rank but it is the highest position in Japan
Police Organization:
A. Commissioner Secretariat
B. Commissioner
C. Chairman

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D. Commissioner General
428. The Japan’s Police Organization is headed by a Commissioner General who is

appointed by:
A. Japans Emperor
B. Prime Minister
C. National Public Safety Commission
D. Japan Commission
429. The lowest rank in Singapore Police Force:

A. Junsa C. Constable
B. Sergeant D. Police Officer
430. Irish Police are called:
A. Militsiya C. Constable
B. Police Force D. Garda Socha
431. The following are the language of communication used by the Gen.
Secretariat:
a. French;
b. Mandarin;
c. English;
d. Arabic; and
e. Spanish.
A. b, c, d, e C. d, a, c, e
B. c, d, e D. a, b, c, d, e
432. It States that the yardstick of police proficiency relies on the absence of
crime.
A. Home rule C. Continental
B. Old police service D. Modern police service
433. The first secretary general of the Interpol.

A. Oskar Dressler C. Ronald K. Noble
B. Johann Schober D. Aberdeen Scotland
Johann Schober - The first president of the Interpol
435. Group of highly specialized armed men who inflict fear and uses violence to
accomplish their objectives with a usual international scope of activity.
A. Organized Crime
B. Transnational Crime
C. Transnational Organized crime
D. Terrorist

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▪ Organized Crime - Group activities of three or more persons, with

hierarchical links or personal relationships, which permits their leaders to
earn profits or control territories or markets, internal or foreign, by means
of violence, intimidation or corruption, both in furtherance of criminal
activity and to infiltrate the legitimate economy.
▪ Transnational Crime - a continuing illegal activity of group of person which
is primarily concerned with the generation of profits, irrespective of national
boundaries as a result of globalization.
▪ Transnational Organized crime - is a crime perpetuated by organized criminal
group which the aim of committing one or more serious crimes or offenses in
order to obtain directly or indirectly, a financial or other material benefits
committed through crossing of borders or jurisdictions
436 Is the terrorist group which was founded by Osama Bin Laden in 1980?
A. Al Qaeda C. Jihad
B. Mafia D. Nuestra Costra
▪ Mafia – is a term used to describe a number of criminal organizations
around the world.
▪ Jihad - refers to the holy war by members of the Islamic religion against the
Jews
438. It is the category of terrorist organization which is aimed in achieving

political autonomy or religious freedom.
A. Revolutionary C. Separalist
B. Ethnocentric D. Political
▪ Ethnocentric - is the category of terrorist organization which is aimed at
establishing a dominant or superior race that will be looked upon by the
entire populace in the world.
▪ Revolutionary - is the category of terrorist group which is dedicated to
overthrow an established order and replacing it with a new political or
social structure.
▪ Political - is the category of terrorist group which aims in restructuring the
society.
▪ Nationalistic - those who commit acts of violence due to their loyalty or
devotion to their country.
439. It is the anchor of the investigation of all crimes committed via the internet:
A. Dynamic IP Address
B. Internet Protocol Address
C. Static IP Address
D. Website
▪ ISP – stands for Internet Service Provider. It provides internet service to
internet users.
▪ IP Address – series of numbers assigned by an Internet Service Provider to
an internet user when it connects to the Internet

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▪ Dynamic IP Address – a type of IP Address that changes every time the

internet user accesses his Internet Service Provider. It is usually assigned
to dial-up or base speed broadband service subscribers
▪ Static IP Address – a type of IP Address that is constant regardless of the
time or number of attempts the internet user accesses the internet. It is
usually assigned to High-Speed Internet Users.
▪ Website – a portfolio of a person / organization / entity / company which is
posted on the Internet for accessibility worldwide.
440. It is the act of illegally accessing the computer system or network of an

individual, group or business enterprise without the consent of the party’s system:
A. Computer Fraud C. Hacking
B. Cracking D. Theft
▪ Hacking - is the act of illegally accessing the computer system/network of
an individual, group or business enterprise without the consent or approval
of the owner of the system.
▪ Cracking - is a higher form of hacking in which the unauthorized access
culminates with the process of defeating the security system for the
purpose of acquiring money or information and/or availing of free services
441. It refers to a Code written with the intention of replicating itself.

A. Trojan Horse C. Worm
B. Logic Bomb D. Computer Virus
▪ Worm spread itself to other computers without needing to be transferred as
part of a host.
▪ Trojan horse - is a file that appears harmless until executed. Trojan horses
do not insert their code into other computer files
▪ Logic bomb - a set of instructions secretly inserted into a program that is
designed to execute if a particular program is satisfied.
442. It is a center created by Executive Order No. 62 to establish a shared

database among concerned agencies for information on criminals, methodologies,
arrests and convictions on transnational crime
A. Philippine Center on Transnational Crimes (PCTC)
B. National Commission on Anti Hijacking (NACAH)
C. International Criminal Police Organization (ICPO)
D. Philippine National Police (PNP)
443. An order strengthening the operational, administrative and information

support system of the PCTC. Under this EO, the centre shall exercise general
supervision and control over NACAHT, ICPO, PNP or DILG
A. EO 100 C. EO 465
B. EO 465 D. EO 789
444. Considered as the major concerns of the PCTC, EXCEPT:

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A. Information Exchange
B. Strategic studies and capacity building
C. Law enforcement coordination
D. none of these
445. A decree codifying the law on Illegal/unlawful Possession, manufacture,

Dealing in, acquisition or disposition of firearms, ammunitions or explosions
A. RA 9165 C. RA 9372
B. RA 8294 D. RA 8792
▪ RA 8792 - Electronic Commerce Act

▪ R.A. 9165 – Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act of 2002
▪ RA 9372 - Human Security Act of 2007
▪ PD 1866 as amended by RA 8294 - Illegal Possession of Firearms and
Explosive
▪ RA 9745 - Anti-Torture Law of 2009
▪ RA 9995 - Anti-Photo and Video Voyeurism Act of 2009
▪ RA 9775 - Anti-Child Pornography Act of 2009
▪ RA 10088 - Anti-Cam cording Act of 2010
446. What is the highest rank of police officer in Japan?

A. KEISHI SOKAN C. KEISHI SO
B. KEISHI KAN D. KEIBU-HO
447. The founder of the Texas Rangers and known to be the “Father of Texas”.
A. Stephen Austin C. Vernon Knell
B. Dave Batista D. Johann Schober
449. The following have summary dismissal powers over errant police members.
a. District Director;
b. Chief of Police;
c. Regional Director;
d. Chief, PNP;
e. PLEB; and
f. NAPOLCOM.
A. a, b, d, f C. c, d, f
B. b, d, e D. a, c, e, f
450. Amado Perez joined the PNP in 1996. She was 29 years old then. What year
will Amado will retire?
A. 2016 C. 2023
B. 2012 D. 2031

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451. It refers to a kind of retirement where PNP commissioned and non-

commissioned officer may retire and be paid separation benefits corresponding to
a position two ranks higher than his/her rank:
A. Retirement in the next higher grade B. Compulsory retirement
C. Early retirement program D. Optional Retirement
452. It is a part of the PNP but enjoining an independence from the PNP. It has an
investigative and adjudicatory power over PNP members.
A. Internal Affairs Service
B. National Police Commission
C. People’s Law Enforcement Board
D. National Appellate Board
453. In police operational planning the use of the wedge, squad diagonal or
deployed line would be probable used for:
A. Arm confrontation C. Relief Operation
B. Civil Disturbance D. VIP Security
453. Organized in 1712 for the purpose of carrying the regulations of the
Department of State; this was armed and considered as the mounted police.
A. Carabineros De Seguridad Publica B. Guadrilleros
C. Guardia Civil D. Metropolitan Police Force
454. What is the appropriate training course for POIII to SPOI?

A. Officers Senior Executive Course
B. Officer Basic Course
C. Senior Leadership Course
D. Junior Leadership Course
455. Reasons for suspension or withdrawal of deputation of local chief executives

as representative of the NAPOLCOM:
I. Repeated unauthorized absences;
II. Abuse of authority;
III. Habitual tardiness;
IV. Providing material support to criminals; and
V. Engaging in acts inimical to national security.
A. I, II, III, V C. II, V, IV, I

B. I, II, IV, III D. I, II, III, IV, V
456. Planning for emergencies of a specific nature at known locations.

A. Functional Plan C. Time Specific Plans
B. Tactical Plans D. Operational Plans

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457. A retired PNP uniformed personnel can get the lump sum of his retirement
benefits for the period of the first _____.
A. 10 years C. 5 years
458. Specific Qualifications may be waived like Age, Height, Weight and
Education, only when the number of qualified applicants falls below the minimum
annual quota. Appointment status under a waiver program is ________.
A. Temporary C. Probationary
B. Permanent D. Regular
459. No officer who has retired or is retirable within _______ from his compulsory
retirement age be appointed as chief of the PNP.
A. Three months C. Six months
B. One year D. Two years
460. __________ is given to any PNP member who has exhibited act of conspicuous
and gallantry at the risk of his life above and beyond the call of duty.
A. Meritorious Promotion
B. Special Promotion
C. Regular Promotion
D. On-the-Spot Promotion
461. Which among the following has no promotional authority over the members
of the PNP?
A. Deputy Director General
B. Director General
C. President of the Philippines
D. Regional Director
462. The establishment of a formal structure of authority through which works

and divisions are arranged, defined and coordinated refers to:
A. Planning C. Organizing
B. Staffing D. Directing
463. In regard to the police planning function, it may be said that:

A. Planning is essentially order giving.
B. Planning is essentially decision making in advance of action.
C. Policemen must plan carefully than their supervisors.
D. The higher the job in the organization, the shorter the time-lag between
planning and execution.
464. The National Bureau of Investigation, was patterned by the Federal Bureau
Investigation, it was organized by R.A. 157. What law reorganized the NBI?
A. R.A 9708 C. R.A 6040

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B. R.A. 2678 D. R.A. 9262
465. The IAS can recommend promotion of the members of the PNP or the
assignment of PNP personnel to any key position. The statement is:
A. Partly True C. Partly False
B. Absolutely True D. Absolutely False
466. The following are the offenses for which a member of the PNP may be charged
administratively:
I. Oppression;
II. Misconduct;
III. Neglect of Duty;
IV. Violation of law; and
V. Incompetence.
A. I, II, IV, V C. I, II, III, IV

B. V, II, III, I D. IV, III, IV, I, II
467. The police function in which patrol belong is:

A. Line function C. Administrative function
B. Staff function D. Auxiliary function
468. The planning responsibility of the PNP chief and other high ranking PNP
officials is known as:
A. Broad external policy planning
B. Incremental planning
C. Internal policy planning
D. Radical planning
469. Refers to the actual restraint of armed persons following a high-risk stop.
A. Dragnet Operation C. Hasty Checkpoint
B. High -Risk Arrest D. High Risk Stop
▪ Dragnet Operation - police operation intentionally to seal-off the probable

exit points of fleeing suspects from the crime scene to prevent their escape.
▪ Hasty Checkpoint - is an immediate response to block the escape of lawless
elements from a crime scene, and is also established when nearby
checkpoints are ignored or during hot pursuit operations.
▪ High Risk Stop - actual stopping of armed and dangerous persons, aboard
a vehicle or on foot, including the power to use all necessary and legal
means to accomplish such end.
470. Maximum period wherein a police officer may be suspended from service by
the Chief PNP:

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Disciplinary Authorities for Breach of Internal Discipline

▪ Chief of Police- NOT EXCEEDING FIFTEEN (15) DAYS
▪ Provincial Directors- NOT EXCEEDING THIRTY (30) DAYS
▪ Regional Director- NOT EXCEEDING SIXTY (60) DAYS
471. The IAS can recommend promotion of the members of the PNP or the
assignment of PNP personnel to any key position. The statement is-
A. YES C. NO
B. Wholly Correct D. Wholly False
472. Who has the disciplinary authority in citizen’s complaint when the penalty
imposed is not exceeding fifteen (15) days?
A. City/Municipal Mayor C. Chief of Police
B. Provincial Director D. PLEB
▪ City/Municipality Mayors- not less than SIXTEEN but not exceeding
THIRTY (30) DAYS
▪ People’s Law Enforcement Board (PLEB)- exceeding THIRTY (30) DAYS, or
by DISMISSAL
473. The law that governs the Code of Conduct and Ethical Standards for officials
and employees of the Government – National or Local.
A. R.A. 7160 C. R.A. 7610
B. R.A. 6713 D. R.A. 9263
▪ RA 7160 – Local Government Code
▪ RA 7610 - Special Protection of Children against Abuse, Exploitation and
Discrimination
▪ RA 9263 – BFP and BJMP Professionalization Act of 2004
474. How vacancy filled up in the commission, except through expirations of

term?
A. It shall be filed up for the unexpired term only with the capacity for regular
appointment for another full term.
B. It shall be filed up for the unexpired term only without re appointment.
C. It shall be filed up by another person with full term
D. None of these
475. Under the police reform and reorganization law, a Field training Program for
all PNP uniformed members is required for permanency of their appointment
consisting of 12 months. Basic areas of actual experience and assignment during
this period shall be on:
A. Patrol, traffic and investigation
B. Patrol, investigation and Intelligence
C. Patrol, Public Relations and auxiliary services
D. Traffic, investigation and Intelligence

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476. Based on NAPOLCOM MC# 95-013, the following are the factors considered
in promotion:
a. Educational Attainment;
b. Personality traits;
c. Potential;
d. Service reputation; and
e. Physical Fitness.
A. a, c, d, e C. b, e, c, a
B. d, b, c, a D. a, b, c, d, e
477. At 48 years old, Supt. Andres Matapang is due to be promoted. Who has the
authority to promote him to his next rank?
A. Chief, PNP C. CSC
B. Secretary, DILG D. President
478. Fr. Bogart Roman was born on December 11, 1964; He opted to join the
Philippine National Police in March 1999. Is he qualified to join the PNP?
A. Yes C. Wholly True
B. No D. Wholly False
479. In times of war or other national emergency declared by the Congress the
President may extend such term of office from __________________depending on the
gravity of the situation.
A. Six months to one year
B. One year to two years
C. One to six months
D. Five months to one year
480. POIII Floyd Macanochie, receives 19, 870.00 base pay since he was
promoted. After five years from promotion, what would be his monthly base pay
after adding his longevity pay?
A. 21, 857.00 C. 19, 970.00
B. 24, 870.00 D. 31, 549.00
481. If the police plan of Municipality X can carry out the purpose or goal of the
police station then the plan is considered_______.
A. Feasible C. Acceptable
B. Suitable D. Adaptable
482. The PNP Internal Affairs Service is headed by a police officer with the rank of
__________ and a designation as Inspector-General.
A. Deputy Director General C. General
B. Director D. C/Superintendent

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483. The shift that receives most of the call of the public which are directly related
to police function, it is considered as the busiest among them all.
A. Afternoon shift C. Day shift
B. Midnight shifts D. Night Shift
▪ Night Shift – Least Desirable shift
484. If we are seeking for an arrest of wanted person with a view to extradition.
A. Blue Notice C. Red Notice
B. Black Notice D. Purple Notice
Types of Notice by INTERPOL

▪ Yellow Notice- To help locate missing persons, often minors, or to help
identify persons who are unable to identify themselves.
▪ Blue Notice- To locate, identify or obtain information on a person of interest
in a criminal investigation.
▪ Black Notice- To seek information on unidentified bodies.
▪ Green Notice- To warn about a person's criminal activities if that person is
considered to be a possible threat to public safety.
▪ Orange Notice- To warn of an event, a person, an object or a process
representing an imminent threat and danger to persons or property.
▪ Purple Notice- To provide information on modi operandi, objects, devices
and concealment methods used by criminals.
484. What is the name of the acclaimed first formally organized modern police
force in the world?
A. Interpol C. Scotland Yard
B. New York Police District D. Texas rangers
485. The following are the law enforcement principles enunciated by the Father of
Modern Policing System, except:
A. Prevention of crime is the basic mission of the police
B. The police must have full respect of the citizenry
C. The police are the public and the public are the police
D. No free man shall be imprisoned except by final judgment
E. None of the above
487. The period of time elapsed since the oath of office was administered is termed
A. Tour of duty C. Term of office
B. On duty D. Length of service
488. The NAPOLCOM shall affirm, reverse or modify personnel disciplinary actions
involving demotion or dismissal from the service imposed upon members of the
PNP by the Chief PNP through the:
A.PLEB C. RAB
B. NAB D. C/PNP

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489. Promotion by virtue of position shall be granted after:

A. 6 months C. 2 years
B. 1 year D. 18 months
490. Breach of internal discipline committed by any member of the PNP shall be
brought to the office of the Chief of Police or equivalent supervisor if the penalty
imposed covers the period of:
A. Not exceeding 15 days
B. Not exceeding 60 days
C. Not exceeding 30 days
D. Dismissal
491. Any PNP member shall be dismissed immediately from the service after due
notice and summary hearings if it was proven that he went on AWOL for a
continuous period of:
A. 30 days or more C. 15 days or more
B. 20 days or more D. 60 days or more
492. The city or municipal mayor shall develop an integrated community public
safety plan pursuant to:
A. E.O. 309 C. E.O. 903
B. RA No. 6975 D. RA No. 8551
493. The Statute of Winchester introduced the system known as:

A. Keepers of the peace C. Curfew
B. Watch and ward D. Justice of the peace
494. Which of the following is a characteristic of effective plan?

A. give police department a clear direction
B. increase personnel involvement
C. clearly define objectives and goals
D. contain a degree of flexibility for the unforeseen
495. As a general rule, a patrol officer on foot during day time should walk ____
the curb:
A. Outside C. Inside
B. Near D. Far
496. The following are the duties and responsibilities of Patrol officers:
a. Conduct home visitations when a circumstance warrants, dialogues with the
residents in their beat;
b. Report occurrences and conditions which relate to crime, public peace, order
and safety;
c. Observe and monitor public gatherings, prevent disorders and disperse
unlawful assemblies;

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d. Assist personnel of responsible agencies/unit in facilitating the flow of traffic at

busy intersections/roads within his Area of Responsibility (AOR) and;
e. Inspect and/or conduct surveillance in various places of business
establishments and other installation and remove hazards to public safety.
A. b, c, d C. c, e, a, b
B. e, b, d, c D. a, b, c, d, e
497. Which among the following is not included in a Patrol Plan?
A. Organization Detail of Personnel C. Stand-by points
B. Spot Report D. Area Coverage
498. The terrorist group Abu Sayyaf is formerly included in what terrorist group?
A. MILF C. MNLF
B. Al Qaeda D. NPA
499. The Koban policing system is adopted in:

A. Japan C. Malaysia
B. Korea D. Thailand
500. The word “Abu Sayyaf” in Arabic literally means-

A. The Sword Bearer C. The Base
B. Islamic Congregation D. Hezbollah
▪ Jemaah Islamiyah - Islamic Congregation

▪ Al Qaeda – The Base
▪ Hezbollah – Party of God
▪ Ayman Al Zawahiri – 2011-Present commander of Al Qaeda
501. PNP in-service training programs are under the responsibility of the;
A. PNP Directorate for Plans
B. PNP Directorate for Human Resource and Doctrine Development
C. PNP Directorate for Personnel and Records Management
D. PNP Directorate for Comptrollership
It is the total number of police officers assigned in patrol duties.
502. Who is responsible in determining whether there is a permit for the holding
of the public assembly?
A. Immediate Superior C. Ground Commander
B. Commanding Officer D. Chief of Police
503. The following are the things to be done after armed confrontation, EXCEPT:
A. Check whether the situation still poses imminent danger
B. Conduct debriefing on all involved PNP operatives
C. Submit the fact-finding report
D. Evacuate the wounded to the nearest hospital
E. None of these

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504. The IAS shall also conduct, motu propio of the following cases:
I. incidents where a police personnel discharges a firearm;
II. incidents where death, serious physical injury, or any violation of human
rights occurred in the conduct of a police operation;
III. incidents where evidence was compromised, tampered with, obliterated, or
lost while in the custody of police personnel;
IV. incidents where a suspect in the custody of the police was seriously
injured; and
V. Incidents where the established rules of engagement have been violated.
A. I, II, IV and V C. II, III, IV, and V
B. I, II, III, and IV D. I, II, III, IV and V
497. The nature of which, the police officer is free from specific routine duty is the
definition of
A. “on duty” C. “Active Service”
B. “Length of Service” D. “off duty”
▪ Length of Service- The period of time elapsed since the oath of office was
administered.
▪ Active Service- shall refer to services rendered as an officer and non-officer,
cadet, trainee or draftee in the PNP
498. The first step a dispatcher must take when a felony-in-progress call has been
received through telephone or by direct alarm signal is to?
A. assigns an investigator to investigate the witness
B. clears the air for emergency broadcast
C. call the investigators to report to crime scene
D. sends augmentation force
499. How many years of non-promotion before a PNP Member can be attrited?
A. 5 years C. 2 years
B. 10 years D. 18 Months
▪ Attrition by Relief - Those who have been relieved for just cause and have not
been given an assignment within TWO (2) YEARS after such relief shall be
retired or separated
▪ Attrition by Demotion in Position or Rank - who shall not be assigned to a
position commensurate to his or her grade within EIGHTEEN (18) MONTHS
after such demotion shall be retired or separated
500. What is the main purpose why police car or police officers are not allowed to
be sent in the scene of a Kidnap for ransom?
a. To avoid unnecessary actions for the kidnappers
b. To avoid disturbances in the negotiation
c. To avoid any indication that police have been informed of the KFR incident
d. To avoid failure in surveillance of the KFR activities inside the warehouse

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501.Which among the following, is not a applicable legal parameter during rallies,
strikes, demonstrations or other public assemblies, under the pertinent provisions
of the Public Assembly Act of 1985 (Batas Pambansa Bilang 880), the Labor Code
of the Philippines, as amended and other applicable laws.
A. Exercising Maximum Tolerance
B. No arrest of any leader, organizer, or participant shall be made during the
public assembly, unless he violates any pertinent law as evidence warrants.
C. In case of unlawful aggression, only reasonable force may be employed to
prevent or repel it.
D. Directly employment of tear gas and water cannons.
502. Which of the following is considered as the most important factor in

formulating an effective patrol strategy?
A. training of station commander
B. rank of the patrol commander
C. adequacy of resources of police station
D. salary rates of police personnel
503. The peace-keeping detail shall not be stationed in the picket line (or
confrontation line) but should be stationed in such manner that their presence
may deter the commission of criminal acts or any untoward incident from either
side. The members of the peace-keeping detail shall stay outside a _______ radius
from the picket line.
A. 50 feet C. 50 meter
B. 100 feet D. 100 meter
504. Police officers are required to give the suspect Miranda Warning, during Spot
checks and pat down searches. The statement is-
A. Partially C. Correct
B. Partially Wrong D. Wrong
505. The following are the circumstances which may justify pat-down search,
EXCEPT:
A. The appearance and demeanor of the suspect
B. The time of the day and the location where the pat-down search took
C. Where the police officer handles several suspects
D. None of these
506. Whenever possible, pat-down searches should be conducted by-

A. Day time to avoid ambush or Surprise attack.
B. At least two police officers, one to perform the search while the other
provides protective cover.
C. the aid of civilian to act as a witness during the search.
D. Civilian to avoid any issue thereof.

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507. Which of the following is not included in the patrol function?

A. Response for citizen calls for assistance
B. Investigation of crimes after this is reported to the investigation section
C. Routine preventive patrol
D. Inspection of identified hazards
508. During police intervention operations, the duty to issue a warning is not
absolute before he could use force against an offender.
A. Correct C. Partially Correct
B. Wrong D. Partially Wrong
509. In transporting Detention Prisoner, if transported by a patrol jeep, the

subject must be-
A. Seated on the left rear seat and a PNP escort shall sit at the rear on the Right
side facing the subject
B. Seated on the Right rear seat and a PNP escort shall sit at the rear on the left
C. Seated on the Left rear seat and a PNP escort shall sit at the rear on the left
D. Seated on the Right rear seat and a PNP escort shall sit at the rear on the
Right side facing the subject
510. Which among the following should be observed during the patrol operations?
A. Render after-patrol report

B. Buddy System
C. Kabit System
D. Render Hourly Report
511. During rallies, strikes, demonstrations or other public assemblies,

employment of tear gas and water cannons shall be made under the control and
supervision of the-
A. Ground Commander C. Incident Commander
B. Immediate Commander D. Superior Officer
512. What should be the action of patrol officers, when responding to Calls for
Police Assistance, except?
A. Stop the car at some distance away from the scene.
B. Focus all efforts to arrest criminals
C. Determine the crime committed.
D. None of these
513. Where should the patrol officer turnover the information and pieces of
evidence gathered at the crime scene?

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A. SOCO team C. Immediate Supervisor

B. Responding unit D. Medico Legal Officer
514. Request for police assistance in the implementation of final decisions or

orders of the court in civil cases and of administrative bodies on controversies
within their jurisdiction shall be acted upon by the appropriate police office. The
request is filed at least _____ prior to the actual implementation.
515. In cases of armed confrontation wherein a suspect dies, the Team Leader of
the operating unit shall?
A. He shall immediately undertake the necessary investigation and processing
of the scene of the encounter.
B. After the Investigation, He shall immediately request the SOCO team to
conduct Crime Scene Processing.
C. He shall submit the incident for inquest before the duty Inquest Prosecutor
prior to the removal of the body from the scene.
D. He shall report immediately to his superior for the proper undertakings to
be done.
516. PNP personnel who will point/profile suspected vehicle subject for
checkpoint:
A. Search Sub-Team C. Security Sub-Team
B. Spotter D. Investigation Sub-team
▪ Team Leader (TL) - shall lead and take responsibility in the conduct of
checkpoint preferably an officer with the rank of at least Police Inspector;
▪ Spokesperson - TL or member who is solely in charge of communicating with
the motorists subject for checkpoint;
▪ Investigation Sub-team - in charge of investigation and documentation of
possible incidents in the checkpoint to include issuance of Traffic Citation
Ticket (TCT) or Traffic Violation Report (TVR);
▪ Search/Arresting Sub-Team - designated to conduct search, seizure and
arrest, if necessary;
▪ Security Sub-Team - tasked to provide security in the checkpoint area; and
▪ Blocking/Pursuing Sub-Team - team tasked to block/pursue fleeing
suspects/vehicle.
517. During Checkpoints, who are allowed to display high-powered firearms and
are positioned where they can best provide security to the Checkpoint team
including themselves.
A. Security Sub-Team C. Search Sub-Team
B. Blocking/pursuing Sub-team D. A and B

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518. As much as practicable, who shall lead the PNP contingent detailed to assist
the Sheriff during the demolition activity.
A. Immediate Superior C. Ground Commander
B. Commissioned Officer D. Chief of Police
519. Police officers shall, upon receipt of a complaint or report or information that
a child has been or is being abused, maltreated, discriminated, exploited,
neglected, or abandoned, or is under imminent danger of being abused or
exploited, shall take immediate action thereon, but under no circumstance shall
be beyond____?
520. In designating a “safe” assembly area, well away from the threatened
structure, out of line-of-sight of the building and well clear of windows. A
minimum distance of is recommended.
A. 200 meters C. 100 meters
B. 150 meters D. 300 meters
521. Provides for methods of apprehending a criminal by an act of the

complainant shout to call all male residents to assemble and arrest the suspect.
A. Tun Policing C. Hue and Cry
B. Statute of 1295 D. Courts of the Star Chamber
▪ Courts of the Star-Chamber (1487) - The room set-up is formed in a shape of
a star and judges were given great powers such as the power to force
testimony from a defendant leading to a great abuse of power or brutality on
the part of the judges.
▪ Statute of 1295 - the law that mark the beginning of the curfew hours, which
demanded the closing of the gates of London during sundown.
▪ Tun Policing System - A system of policing emerged during the Anglo-Saxon
period whereby all male residents were required to guard the town
522. Refers to a location where the search, which is duly authorized by the PNP, is
conducted to deter/prevent the commission of crimes, enforce the law, and for
other legitimate purposes.
A. Clear Zone C. Public Place
B. Police Checkpoint D. Pre-Determined Area
523. Electronic blotter is a computerized system, which was accepted by the

courts, prosecutors’ office and the public in general. What police office is using
this kind of blotter?
A. Makati C. Cebu
B. Baguio D. Davao

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524. Marcos is a robber who is looking at the earrings of Josephine while Insp.
Gonzales is standing near Josephine, Marcos plan to rob is not weaken by
existence of Insp. Gonzales but the ______ for successful robbery is prevented.
A. Ambition C. Intention
B. Motive D. Opportunity
525. Police personnel whose rank at the time of his retirement is Superintendent
shall retire with the rank of __________:
A. Superintendent C. C/Superintendent
B. Sr. Superintendent D. C/Inspector
526. Which among the following terms is not related to each other?
A. Hot Pursuit C. Fresh Pursuit
B. Cross Jurisdictional Pursuit D. Bright Pursuit
527. General rules on media relations, No information regarding the incident shall
be released without clearance from the_________:
A. Chief of police C. Ground Commander
B. Incident Commander D. Immediate Superior
528. Which of the following is not true about patrol?

A. It is the backbone of the police department
B. It is the essence of police operation
C. It is the single largest unit in the police department that can be eliminated
D. It is the nucleus of the police department
529. Refers to utilization of units or elements of the PNP for purpose of protection
of lives and properties, enforcement of laws, maintenance of peace and order,
prevention of crimes, arrest of criminal offenders and etc.
A. Deployment C. Operation
B. Service D. Employment
Criminalistics
***
1. __________ are tiny portions or is a hill-like structure found on the epidermis of

friction skin containing sweat, with pores appearing as black lines in a
fingerprint impression.

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a. Imaginary Lines
b. Furrows
c. Black Lines
d. Ridges
2. What is that downward slope of the ridges above the core formed from the direction
of the thumb towards the little finger?
a. Accidental Whorl
b. Central Pocket loop whorl
c. Ulnar loop
3. He published nine (9) fingerprint patterns but he made no mention of the
value of fingerprints for personal identification.
a. John Evangelist Purkinje
b. Francis Galton
4. What is that two innermost ridges running parallel with each other and
diverging at a certain point surrounding the pattern area?
a. Pattern Area
b. Divergence
c. Convergence
d. Type lines
5. What are those that are sometimes referred to as papillary or epidermal
ridges?
a. Latent ridges
b. Friction Ridges
6. When the innermost sufficient recurve contains no ending ridge or rod rising
as high as the shoulder of the loop, the Core is placed on the shoulder of the
loop farther from the Delta.
a. True
b. False
7. The inner layer of the skin is known as
a. Dermis
b. Epidermis
8. What is that portion of the fingerprint bounded by the type lines where the
characteristics needed for interpretation/classification is found?
a. Double Lines
b. Loops
c. Ridges
d. Pattern Area
9. He discovered the three families of fingerprint patterns.
a. Govard Bidloo
b. Dr. Marcelo Malpighi
c. J.C.A. Mayer
d. Francis Galton
10. A single ridge which divide into two or more ridges.
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a. Type lines
b. Bifurcation
c. Core
d. Pattern Area
11. It appears after the sub-secondary classification at the extreme right portion
of the classification formula.
a. Secondary Classification
b. Key Classification
c. Primary Classification
d. Final Classification
12. Complete this adage, “The neighboring fingers of the same person have
never been found to be________________.”
a. Similar in all respects
b. Different in some respects
c. Different in every respects
d. Exactly identical in all respects
13. Which of the following is a type of secondary classification?
a. By slant line to the left
b. All of these
c. By slant line to the right
d. By small letter
14. What type of classification takes into consideration only the loop type
starting from the right thumb (the first loop appearing in the set of prints on
a fingerprint card)?
b. Primary Classification
c. Final Classification
d. Key Classification
15. What is that epidermal hairless skin found on the lower surface of the hands
and feet covered with minute ridges?
a. Polydactyl skin
b. Friction Skin
c. Epidermis
d. Flexure line
16. What do you call the inner terminus or focal point located at the center or
the approximate center of the pattern area?
a. Center
b. Delta
c. Core
d. Open Delta
17. He used his own thumb print on a document to prevent forgery. This is the
first known use of fingerprints in the United States.
a. Bertillon
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b. Francis Galton
c. Thompson
18. It is the ridge count of the loop and the whorl in the little finger of both
hands.
d. Final Classification
19. What fingerprint pattern does not have ridge count?
a. Whorls
b. Arches
c. Radial loop
d. Ulnar Loop
20. Two ridges running parallel or nearly parallel to each other which separate
in an opposite direction.
a. Delta
b. Core
c. Divergence
21. Which of the following is also called “delta” in fingerprint identification?
a. Lower ridge
b. Inner terminus
c. Outer terminus
22. He published a 41-pages book entitled “The Origin of Fingerprint” which
describes his research starting in 1858 when he practiced actual recording
of the finger and palm prints of India.
a. Govard Bidloo
b. Sir William Herschel
c. J.C.A. Mayer
23. What patterns do not have numerical value for purposes of primary
classification?
a. Plain whorl loops
b. Accidental Whorl and arches
c. Double loop whorl and arches
d. Loops and Arches
24. What classification takes into consideration the thumbs of both hands (ridge
tracing for whorl type and ridge counting for loop type)?
a. Key classification
b. Final classification
c. Major Classification
d. Sub-Secondary Classification
25. What is the spreading apart of two lines which have been running parallel or
nearly parallel?
a. Bifurcation
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b. Convergence
c. Appendage
d. Divergence
26. What type of pattern possesses am angle, an up thrust, or two of the three
basic characteristics of the loop?
a. Tented arch
b. Double Loop
c. Plain Arch
27. He discovered the outer and inner layer of the skin.
a. Govard Bidloo
c. J.C.A. Mayer
28. What corresponds to the study of the palms of the hands?
a. Plantar
b. Palmar
c. Furrows
d. Chiroscopic
29. What are the canals of depression found between ridges called?
a. Dents
b. Pores
c. Furrows
30. What is the act of counting the ridges which intervene between the core and
delta of a loop?
a. Divergence
b. Ridge Tracking
c. Ridge Counting
31. He is an argentine Police Official who began the first fingerprint files based
on Galton pattern types.
a. Mark Twain
b. Juan Vucetich
c. Thomson
32. What pattern type has ridges that enter on one side of the pattern and flow
towards the other side with a rise in the center?
a. Vaulted arch loop
b. Loop
c. Tented Arch
d. Plain Arch
33. The Introduction of the coloring pigment in the human skin as a form of
identification is known as-
a. Scarcification
b. Anthropometry
c. Tattoo
d. Photography
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34. The configuration and details of individual ridges remain constant and
unchanging. This is the principle of ___________.
a. Principle of Individuality
b. Principle of Permanency
c. Principle of Infallibility
35. He published an article entitled” On the Skin Furrows of the Hand”. In this
article he points out his observation that chance prints left at the scene of
the crime would provide for positive identification of offenders when
apprehended.
a. Govard Bidloo
b. Henry Faulds
c. J.C.A. Mayer
36. It represents all fingerprint patterns that appear in the Index finger of both
hands. It must be written in capital letter.
a. Second Secondary Classification
b. First Secondary Classification
c. Second Sub-Secondary Classification
d. Third Secondary Classification
37. How many ridge counts must a pattern have, to be a loop?
a. 2
b. 5
c. 1
38. The outer Layer of the skin is known as
a. Dermis
b. Pores
c. Scarf
d. Epidermis
39. He published a book which was an atlas of anatomical illustrations of
fingerprint.
a. Malphighi
b. Francis Galton
c. J.C.A. Mayer
40. He is credited as the first scientist of Friction Skin Identification as well as
his role in promoting its use.
a. Govard Bidloo
c. J.C.A. Mayer
d. Francis Galton
41. What is the scientific name of fingerprint identification?
a. Dactyloscopy
b. Flouroscopy
c. Poroscopy
42. The core and delta are also termed as
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a. Focal Points
b. Inner Terminus
c. Pattern Area
43. What is the Latin word for finger?
a. Dermis
b. Dermal
c. Digitus
d. Dactyl
44. A system of identification based on the measurements of the various bony
structure of the human body.
a. Tattoo
b. Portrait Parle
c. Anthropometry
d. Photography
45. How many standard fingerprint patterns are there?
a. 12
b. 9
c. 8
46. He is the father of fingerprint science.
a. Vucetich
b. John Evangelist Purkenji
c. Sir Edward Richard Henry
d. Hans Gross
47. What are the little openings on the skin from where sweat is excreted?
a. Ridges
b. Whorl
c. Pores
d. Loop
48. What ridge divides itself into two or more branches that meet to form the
original figure?
a. Island Ridge
b. Lake Ridge
c. Eyelet
d. All of the foregoing
49. What is an attempt at character reading through the patterns of
fingerprints?
a. Dactylography
b. Dcatyloscopy
c. Dactylomancy
d. Dactylo-analysis
50. He undertook in 1856 an experiment by printing his right palm to prove
himself if the ridges change. By 1897, forty one years later, he again printed

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his right palm. Though taken two scores apart, it proved that the ridge
characteristics do not change.
a. John Evangelist Purkinje
b. Herman Welcker
c. William Herscel
d. Francis Galton
51. The inner terminus of the finger print pattern.
a. Delta
b. Core
c. Ridges
d. Pores
52. The Secondary Classification of the Thumb, Middle, Ring and Little fingers
must be written in small letters.
a. True
b. False
c. Partially True
d. Partially False
53. There are three (3) principles of Fingerprint science. Which among the
following is not included?
d. Principle of Uniqueness
54. He is a notorious gangster and a police character who attempted to erase his
fingerprint by burning it with acid.
a. Locard
b. William West
c. Will West
d. John Dillinger
55. What objects appear as tiny black lines with tiny white dots (called pores) in
an inked finger impression?
a. Pores
b. Sweat
c. Furrows
d. Ridges
56. What do you call the separating or spreading apart of two ridges that were
previously running side by side?
a. Disjunction
b. Divergence
c. Convergence
d. Looping
57. What kind of pattern has two deltas in which at least one ridge makes a
turn through one complete circuit?
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a. Loop
b. Accidental Whorl
c. Arch
d. Plain whorl
58. What is the scientific examination of the prints of the soles of the feet?
a. Podoscopy
b. Horoscopy
c. Chiroscopy
d. Flouroscopy
59. When the innermost sufficient recurve contains an uneven number of rods
rising as high as the shoulders of the loop, the core is placed upon the end
of the center rod whether it touches the looping ridge or not.
a. True
b. False
c. Partially True
60. Fingerprint pattern are ______, as all fingerprint experts agree.
a. Always inherited
b. Sometimes inherited
c. Inherited as mendelian characteristics
d. Never Inherited
61. It is done by cutting on various parts of the body and leaving scars to form
elaborate designs.
a. Tattoo
b. Scarcification
c. Personal Description
d. Anthropometry
62. A system of identification based on the measurements of the varioys bony
structure of the human body.
a. Tattoo
b. Scarcification
c. Personal Description
d. Anthropometry
63. Fingerprints offer an _______ means of personal identification
a. Infallible
b. Reliable
c. Dependable
d. All of these
64. No two fingerprints have ever been found alike in many billion of human and
automated computer comparisons.
a. The statement is true
b. The statement is false
65. The first forensic professional organization is
a. DNA
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b. IAI
c. FBI
66. When there are two or more possible Delta which conform to the definition,
the one nearest to the core is chosen.
a. True
b. False
67. The Delta is placed upon or within the innermost sufficient recurve.
a. True
b. False
68. Other visible human characteristics change-fingerprint do no.
a. True
b. False
69. He devised the anthropometric system of identification.
a. Alphonse Bertlillon
b. Alphense Bertillion
c. Will West
70. In his “Philosophical Transaction”, he presented his observation on the
appearance of the ridges on the fingers and palms.
a. Dr. Marcelo Malpighi
b. Govard Bidloo
c. Sir Francis Galton
d. Dr. Nehemiah Grew
71. Govard Biloo presented the appearance and arrangement of the ridges on a
thumb in his thesis entitled-
a. De externo Tactus Organo
b. Philosophical Transaction
c. Anatomia Humanis Corporis
72. He described the ridges found on the palmar surface of the hand and the
pores which served as the mouth of the sweat glands.
a. J.C.A. Mayer
b. Herman Welcker
c. Dr. Marcelo Malpighi
73. He is the father of Criminalistic.
a. Dr. Marcelo Malpighi
b. Govard Bidloo
c. Sir Francis Galton
d. Hans Gross
74. It is the approximate center of a fingerprint pattern usually found in loops
and whorls.
a. Delta
b. Core
c. Type line

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75. When there is a choice between a bifurcation and another type of delta, the
bifurcation is selected.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
76. It is the reproduction on some smooth surfaces of the pattern or design
formed by ridges on the inside of the end joint of the fingers and thumb.
a. Ridges
b. Pores
c. Fingerprint
77. This principle states that there are no two fingerprints which are exactly
alike.
78. Damage to the dermis will not result to permanent ridge destruction.
a. True
b. False
79. There are ________ families of finger print pattern.
a. Two
b. Three
80. This are raised strips of the skin on the inside of the end joint of our fingers
and thumbs by which fingerprints are made.
a. Papillary Ridges
b. Friction Ridges
c. Epidermal Ridges
d. All of these
81. The following are families of fingerprint pattern except-
a. Whorl
b. Loop
c. Arch
d. Accidental
82. Can fingerprint be erased?
a. Yes
b. No
83. The outer terminus in the pattern area.
a. Delta
b. Core
84. In loop the ridges are usually circular.
a. True
b. False
85. The science of palm print identification.
a. Dactyloscopy
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b. Dactylography
c. Chiroscopy
86. The symbol for accidental whorl is
a. Z
b. X
87. It is that part of a loop or whorl in which the core and delta appear which we
are concerned in the classification process.
a. Type lines
b. Pattern Area
88. There are five (5) types of pattern in the Whorl Family.
a. True
b. False
89. The upper ten impressions in the fingerprint card are taken individually.
These are referred to as the ___________.
a. Rolled impression
b. Plain Impression
90. These are the innermost ridges running parallel or nearly parallel to each
other which diverge and surround or tend to surround the pattern area.
a. Bifurcation
b. Type Lines
91. This is the impressions at the bottom of the card that are taken
simultaneously without rolling, printing all of the fingers of each hand at a
forty-five degree angle and then the thumbs.
a. Rolled Impression
b. Slapped Impression
c. Flat Impression
d. B & C
92. In taking fingerprints, the technician must encourage the subject being
fingerprinted to relax.
a. True
b. False
93. The symbol for radial loop is-
a. RL
b. R
94. The outer terminus of a fingerprint pattern usually found in loops and
whorls.
a. Core
b. Delta
95. The delta must be located in from of the point of divergence of the two type
lines which open towards the Delta.
a. True
b. False

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96. In this pattern, the ridges enter from either side, re-curve and pass out or
tend to pass out the same side they entered.
a. Loop
b. Whorl
97. In order to take advantage of the natural movement of the forearm, the hand
should be rotated from the more difficult position to the easiest position.
a. True
b. False
98. It is a type of fingerprint pattern which possesses either an angle or up
thrust, or two of the three basic characteristics of the loop.
a. Plain Arch
b. Tented Arch
99. It is the Ridge counting of a Loop pattern that appears in the Index, Middle
and Ring fingers of both hands.
a. Key Classification
b. Major Classification
c. Final Classification
d. Sub-Secondary Classification
100. It refers to a bone condition wherein the finger joints cannot be bent.
a. Ankylosis
b. Chiroscopy
c. Calcar
d. Webb Finger
101. What is written between the Final Classification and the Secondary
Classification?
a. Key Classification
b. Major Classification
c. Sub-Secondary Classification
102. If the ridge counting of a loop in the Index finger is eleven (11), what
must be the symbol for purposes of the Sub-Secondary classification?
a. I
b. M
c. O
103. It represents only about five (5) percent of the fingerprint patterns
encountered.
a. Loop
b. Arches
c. Whorl
104. It is a biometric Identification Methodology that uses digital imaging
technology to obtain, store, and analyze fingerprint data.
a. AFIS
b. Automated Fingerprint Identification System
c. Digital Imaging System
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d. Both A & B
105. It refers to a single ending ridge in the center f a recurving ridge of a loop.
a. Appendage
b. Bar
c. Rod
d. Both B & C
106. It is a single ridge, which divides or forks into two ridges.
a. Converging Ridge
b. Bifurcating Ridge
c. Dissociated Ridge
107. It refers to the insertion on a fingerprint card the results of the
interpretation of all ten patterns. Represented by letters, symbols or
numbers on the card required for each of the rolled prints.
a. Blocking Out
b. Ridge counting
c. Ridge tracing
108. The heart or the innermost center of a pattern.
a. Delta
b. Core
c. Pattern area
109. It refers to the appearance of extra fingers as anatomically known.
a. Poroscopy
b. Anyklosis
c. Polydactylism
110. It is the process of counting ridges that cross or touch an imaginary line
drawn between the delta and core of a loop.
a. Ridge counting
b. Ridge tracing
c. Ridge Ending
d. None of these
111. It refers to the process of charting the ridge that originates from the lower
side of the left delta toward the right delta to see where it flows in relation to
the right delta.
a. Ridge counting
b. Ridge Tracing
c. Ridge ending
112. A type of fingerprint pattern in which the ridges run its direction to the
radius or to the thumb.
a. Radial Bone
b. Radial Loop
c. Ulnar Loop
113. For purposes of the Primary Classification, the Right Index and Left
Middle are intended as Numerator.
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a. True
b. False
c. Partially True
114. It constitutes approximately 65% of all fingerprint patterns.
a. Arch
b. Loop
115. The arch and loop patterns are not included in the Primary
Classification.
a. True
b. False
116. It consists of one or more ridges which makes a complete circuit with two
deltas.
a. Central Pocket Loop
b. Plain Whorl
117. It consists of two separate loop formations with two separate and distinct
sets of shoulders, and two (2) deltas.
a. Central Pocket Loop Whorl
b. Accidental Whorl
c. Double Loop Whorl
118. It is a kind of fingerprint pattern consisting of two (2) different types of
pattern with the exception of the plain arch.
a. Central Pocket Loop Whorl
b. Accidental Whorl
119. There are _____ types of impressions involved in taking fingerprints.
a. 3
b. 4
c. 2
120. Plain impressions are printed last at the bottom of the card.
a. True
b. False
121. If the individual has a bandage or cast of a finger, thumb or hand, place
the notation, “Cannot be Printed” or CP in the appropriate finger block.
a. True
b. False
122. If an individual has more than ten fingers, the thumbs and the next four
fingers and the extra finger should be printed.
a. True
b. False
123. There are four (4) steps in the Finger print Classification. Which among
the following is not included?
a. Recording
b. Interpretation
c. Blocking
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d. Pairing
124. The Classification formula is written horizontally on the fingerprint card.
It is consists of six (6) classification.
a. True
b. False
125. It is the sum total of all numerical values of Whorls in a set of finger plus
(+) a fraction of over 1.
126. It is the process of writing the symbols of the corresponding patterns on
the space provided in the fingerprint cards.
a. Pairing
b. Blocking
127. It is the process of assigning Numerical Values for Whorl patterns.
a. Pairing and Assigning of Numbers
b. Blocking of numbers
c. Tracing of numbers
d. Interpretation
128. The numerical value of the right thumb and right index for purposes of
primary classification is-
a. 16
b. 8
129. The following patterns belong to the Non-Numerical Group except-
a. Tented Arch
b. Plain Arch
c. Plain Whorl
130. If the Ridge count of the Ring finger is 16, what is the symbol for
purposes of the Sub-Secondary Classification?
a. I
b. O
c. M
131. Ridge tracing applies to__________ pattern.
a. Loop
b. Arch
c. Whorl
132. What is written between the Key Classification and the Primary
Classification?
133. This classification is concerns with the THUMB of both hands. It is the
Ridge of both thumbs.
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134. It is the ridge count of the loop appearing on the set of prints on the
fingerprint card.
135. It refers to a fingerprint pattern wherein the ridges flow from one side to
the other without recurving and make a rise at the center.
a. Plain Arch
b. Tented Arch
c. Plain whorl
d. Plain Loop
136. It is the process of reduction in which exposed silver halides are reduced into
metallic silver.
a. Development c. Reduction
b. Printing d. Crop
137. An intermediate bath between the developer and the fixer. It is usually a
combination of water plus acetic acid or just plain water. It function is to prevent
the contamination of two chemicals.
a. Stop Bath c. Development
b. Fixation d. Reduction
138. It is the process of removing unexposed silver halide remaining in the emulsion
after the first stage of development of the latent image.
a. Stop Bath c. Development
b. Fixation d. Reduction
139. It is a Reducer or developing agent
a. Elon c. Sodium Sulfite
b. Hydroquinone d. A or B
140. It is use as preservative in the Development process.
a. Sodium Sulfite c. Potassium Bromide
b. Hydroquinone d. Sodium Carbonate
141. It is use as accelerator in the chemical processes.
a. Sodium Carbonate c. Potassium bromide
b. Hydroquinone d. Sodium Bromide
142. It is a Dissolving agent in the fixer solution.
a. Hypo/Sodium thiasulphate c. Potassium Bromide
b. Hydroquinone d. Sodium Bromide
143. Which among the following chemical is use as neutralizer?
a. Boric Acid c. Potassium Alum
b. Acetic Acid d. A or B

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144. Which of the following is use as Hardener in the fixing solution?

a. Potassium Alum
b. Boric Acid
c. Acetic Acid
d. Potassium Alum
145. It is a picture of small object taken through a microscope and generally has a
magnification of more than 50 times.
a. Photomicrography c. Infra- Red Photography
b. Photomacrography d. Ultra-violet Photography
146. This is sensitive to ultraviolet and blue light only.
a. Panchromatic c. Infra-red
b. Orthochromatic d. X-ray
147. It is sensitive to all colors particularly red and red light.
a. Panchromatic c. Infra-red
b. Orthochromatic d. X-ray
148. It is placed between the emulsion and the plastic base of a film to prevent
whatever light that passed through the emulsion and reflected by the base back to
the emulsion which forms a halo effect.
a. Base c. Anti-halation Backing
b. Emulsion d. Spectral Sensitivity
149. What is the equivalent of ASA 25 in DIN Rating?
a. DIN 18 c. DIN 30
b. DIN 15 d. DIN 33
150. It is given to negative or non-reversal film.
a. Color d. Bromide
b. Chrome
c. Chloride
151. It has a slow speed and it is suited for contact printing.
a. Chloride Paper c. Chloro-Bromide paper
b. Bromide Paper d. Exposure Latitude
152. It consists of crystals of light-sensitive compounds (silver nitrate) evenly
distributed throughout plastic base material.
a. Base c. Emulsion
b. Anti-halation Backing d. Spectral Sensitivity
153. This refers to the size of the metallic silver grains that formed after development
of an exposed film.
a. Spectral Sensitivity c. Emulsion Speed
b. Granularity d. Reversal Film
154. It refers to American Standards Association, expressed in arithmetical value
system. The speed ratings numbers are directly proportional to the sensitivity of
the material.
a. DIN c. ASO
b. ASA d. ISO
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155. A lens defect which is the inability to focus both horizontal and vertical plane at
the same time lines running different directions.
a. Chromatic Aberration c. Coma
b. Astigmatism d. Curvature of Field
156. It has a fast speed and is recommended for projection printing and enlarging.
a. Chloride Paper c. Chloro-bromide Paper
b. Bromide Paper d. Exposure Latitude
157. It refers to the absence of all colors in the spectrum.
a. White c. Black
b. Rainbow d. Yellow
158. It refers to the inability to focus all the different colors of light on film at the
same time.
a. Chromatic Aberration c. Coma
b. Astigmatism d. Curvature of field.
159. Also referred to as lateral spherical aberration, it is a lens defects in which the
rays enters the lens obliquely.
a. Coma c. Astigmatism
b. Chromatic Aberration d. Curvature of Field
160. It is the remoteness or distance measured from the nearest to the farthest
object in apparent sharp focus when the lens set of focus is at a particular
distance.
a. Focal Length c. Depth of Field
b. Angle of View d. Curvature of Field
161. A natural light in which the object casts a deep and uniform shadow.
a. Bright Sunlight c. Hazy Sunlight
b. Dull Sunlight d. Poor Sunlight
162. It refers to Deutche Industri Normen Rating, expressed in Logarithmic value
system. In this system, an increase of three degrees doubles the sensitivity of the
film.
a. ASA Rating c. ISO Rating
b. DIN Rating d. ASO Rating
163. A form of natural light in which objects in open space casts no shadows.
a. Dull Sunlight c. Hazy Sunlight
b. Bright Sunlight d. Cloudy Sunlight
164. Consisting of light-sensitive silver salts in a gelatin medium and used to coat
photographic films and papers.
a. Base c. Emulsion
b. Anti-Halation Backing d. Exposure
165. A light sensitive material that is placed inside a camera to store any image the
camera focuses.
a. Film c. Aperture
b. Shutter d. None of these

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166. A colored gelatin or medium which absorbs or transmits differentially light rays
passing through it.
a. Lens c. Shutter
b. Filter d. Film
167. It refers to the process of removing unexposed silver halides remaining in the
emulsion after the first image of development of the latent image.
a. Fixation c. Stop Bath
b. Development d. Printing
168. It is known as “hypo” and its purpose are to harden the gelatin emulsion on the
film, and to dissolve out all the unexposed and the undeveloped silver halide in it.
a. Fixation c. Stop Bath
b. Fixing Bath d. Development
169. It is a distance measured from the optical center of the lens to the film plane
when the lens set of focus is set at infinity position.
a. Focal Plane c. Focusing
b. Focal Length d. Depth of Field
170. It serves to support the emulsion layer of the film.
a. Base c. Anti-halation Backing
b. Emulsion d. Granularity
171. It refers to the sensitivity of the film to wavelength or color.
a. Speed c. Granularity
b. Spectral Sensitivity d. Graininess
172. It refers to silver halides which are light sensitive and impregnated in the
emulsion exists as small crystals and upon development are converted to pure
silver granules.
a. Grain Size c. Film
b. Emulsion d. None of these
173. It refers to the Potassium Alum that solidifies the gelatin of the sensitized
materials which was soften in the developing solution.
a. Developing agent c. Hardening Agent
b. Fixing Agent d. None of these
174. It refers to the sensitivity of the film to light.
a. Film Speed c. Film Graininess
b. Base d. Color Films
175. It contains minute grains of silver halide suspended in animal gelatin and
coated on celluloid material.
a. Lens
b. Film
176. Lenses with larger apertures are also described as –
a. Faster
b. Slower
177. Lenses with smaller aperture requires a slower shutter speed and the depth of
field is-
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a. Wider
b. Narrower
178. It refers to the study of physical evidence through a laboratory work.
a. Criminology
b. Criminalistics
179. It is the study concerning the production of permanent records of images by the
combined action of light on sensitive surfaces, a mechanical device and the
chemical process.
a. Dactyloscopy
b. Photography
e. Light
180. A visible form of energy that radiates in waves of different length.
a. Light
b. Heat
181. A black box sealed against light with a piece of film in one end and a hole in the
other end to let certain amount of light to get in and strike the chemically
sensitized material.
a. Film
b. Cartoon
c. Camera
182. A light sensitized material that records and image.
a. Lens
b. View Finder
c. Camera
d. Film
183. The process of converting the latent image into a visible and permanent image.
a. Chemical Process
b. Film
c. Collodion Process
d. Calotype Process
184. The birth year of photography.
a. 1829
b. 1839
185. He coined the word “Photography”.
a. Joseph Nicephore Niepce
b. Thomas Wedgewood
c. Sir John Herschel
186. A founder of Royal society who reported that silver chloride turned dark under
exposure, but he appeared to believe that it was caused by exposure to the air,
rather than to light.
a. Robert Boyle
b. Isaac Newton
187. He discovered that white light is composed of different colors.
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a. Robert Boyle
b. Isaac Newton
188. He achieved the first photographic image with camera obscura. However, the
image required eight hours of light exposure and later faded.
b. Thomas Wedgewood
189. He discovered a way of developing photographic plates, a process which greatly
reduced the exposure time from eight hours down to half an hour.
b. Thomas Wedgewood
c. Sir John Herschel
d. Louis Jacques Mande Daguerre
190. The first photographic process.
a. Calotype Process
b. Daguerreotype Process
d. Gelatin dry plate silver bromide process
191. The first negative-positive process making possible the first multiple copies.
a. Calotype Process
192. This process reduced the exposure time from half and hour to two or three
seconds of light exposure.
a. Calotype Process
193. He invented the flexible, paper-based photographic film.
a. Hannibal Goodwin c. George Eastman
b. Kodak d. Daguerre
194. It is otherwise known as Instant Photos or One Step Photography.
a. Polaroid c. SLR
b. Camera Obscura d. Digital Camera
195. It is mounted over the opening at the front of the camera body. Its function is
to produce an image on the film at the back of the camera by gathering and
focusing the rays of light from the object.
a. Camera
b. Shutter
c. Lens
196. The light-gathering power of the lens is indicated by-
a. F-number
b. Relative aperture
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197. It holds the film in place at the back of the. It is designed to hold the film flat so
that the image produced by the lens will be sharp over the whole picture area.
a. Focusing ring
b. Film Case
c. Film Holder
198. It helps the photographer see the precise area that will be photographed when
he trips the shutter.
a. Focusing ring
b. Film Case
c. Film Holder
d. View Finder
199. These are essentially carved pieces of glass or other transparent materials used
to refract rays of light so as to form an image of an object on a photographic film.
a. Aperture
b. Diaphragm
c. Magnifying lens
d. Photographic lens
200. The speed of the lens is expressed in terms of its-
a. Aperture
b. Diaphragm
201. The combination of blue and green light will produce what color?
a. Black
b. Cyan
c. Magenta
d. Yellow
202. In a stake out surveillance photography, where the photographer cannot get
close to the subject, what kind of lens must be used?
a. Normal
b. Telephoto
203. How many parts does a camera generally have, with all other parts treated as
accessories?
a. Four
b. Five
c. Six
d. Seven
204. The lens opening also known as the relative aperture is the indicator for light
transmitting capability of the lens. Which lens opening will admit more light to
pass through its medium?
a. F16
b. F5.6
c. F4
d. F2.8

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205. What contraption or device is used to block the path of light passing through
the lens exposing the sensitized materials?
a. Range Finder d. View Finder
b. Shutter
c. Exposure
206. The light from the pinhole will form

a. A halo effect c. An inverted image
b. A photographic emulsion d. An emergent ray
207. What is the process of converting the exposed image on the film into the actual
image?
a. Developing c. C. Fixing
b. Stop bath d. D. Washing
208. When light passes through an object, it is said to be
a. Transmitted c. C. Diffracted
b. Refracted d. D. Absorbed
209. He discovered that white light is composed of different colors.
a. Robert Boyle c. C.Angelo Sala
b. Isaac Newton d. D.Joseph Nicephore Niepce
210. He achieved the first photographic image with camera obscure-however, the
image required eight hours of light exposure.
b. Louis Jacques Mande Daguerre
211. The smallest and the simplest type of camera. It is known as Instamatic camera
or Point and Shoot camera.
a. View finder camera
b. SLR
212. A type of camera with two objective lenses of the same focal length.
a. View Finder Camera
b. SLR
c. TLR
d. Press Type Camera
213. The chief attribute of this camera is its ability to deliver a complete processed
print almost immediately after exposure.
a. View Finder Camera
b. SLR
c. Polaroid
d. Press Type of Camera
214. It is a wavelength emitted by the sun which cannot be seen, tough we can feel it
in our bodies as warmth or heat.
a. Infra-red
b. Ultra-violet Light

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c. Natural Light
d. Man-made light
215. It is another form of light that we cannot see, but we know about it because it
tans our skin in summer.
a. Infra-red
b. Ultra-violet Light
c. Natural Light
d. Man-made light
216. The speed of light measured in a vacuum is approximately________?
a. 186, 281 miles/sec.
b. 299, 792.5 km/sec
c. 299, 795.2 km/sec
d. Both A and B
217. The complete range of electromagnetic radiation is called_____.
a. Electromagnetic Spectrum
b. Electromagnetic waves
218. The following are primary colors except-
a. Red
b. Green
c. Black
d. Blue
219. Colors made by combining the primary colors are called-
a. Sub-Primary Colors
b. Secondary Colors
c. Tertiary Colors
d. Elementary Colors
220. When light passes from one medium to another such as from air to water it is
bent and this bending is called-
a. Refraction
b. Reflection
c. Absorption
d. Addition
221. It is the bouncing back of light upon hitting an object or material.
a. Reflection
b. Refraction
c. Transmission
d. Absorption
222. The change of direction of light that passes through an object or material.
a. Reflection
b. Refraction
c. Transmission
223. The maximum usable aperture of a lens is usually specified as the focal ration
or f-number.
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a. The statement is correct

b. The statement is partially true
c. The statement is false
d. The statement is doubtful
224. The lower the f-number, the more light per unit area is delivered in the focal
plane.
a. True
b. Partially True
c. False
d. Partially false
225. The focal length determines the-
a. Depth of field
b. Angle of view
c. Color of the picture
226. Lenses with larger apertures are also described as being “faster”.
a. True c. Partially True
b. False d. Partially False
227. Lenses with larger maximum apertures provide significantly brighter viewfinder
images.
a. True c. Partially True
b. False d. Partially False
228. The distance between the nearest object and the object farthest from the
camera that both appear in focus.
a. Focal Length c. Lens Speed
b. Depth of Field d. Lens Hood
229. The first practical photographic process.
a. Calotype
b. Daguerreotype
230. Light sensitivity of the film is also known as-
a. Film Speed
b. Film Grains
231. He discovered the use of Hydroquinone as a developing agent.
a. John Carbutt
b. William Abney
232. In ________, the subjects will produced a strong shadow, because the source of
light is not covered and the objects or subjects appear glossy in open space due to
direct sunlight and reflected lights coming from the sky which act as a reflector.
a. Bright sunlight
b. Hazy Sunlight
233. In__________, the sun is covered by thin clouds and the shadow appears bluish
because of the decrease of light falling on the subjects in open space.
a. Bright sunlight

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c. Cloudy Sunlight
234. It is a sheet of plastic (cellulose acetate) coated with emulsion containing light-
sensitive silver halide salts with variable crystal size salt that determine the
sensitivity, contrast and resolution of the film.
a. Film
b. Camera
c. Lens
d. Shutter
235. In__________, the sun is totally covered by thick clouds. No shadows are cast
due to the uniform illumination of lights around the subjects in open space.
a. Bright sunlight c. Cloudy Sunlight
b. Hazy Sunlight d. Dull Sunlight
236. An examination wherein an informal interview of the subject is

undertaken between 20 to 30 minutes.
a. Post-test Interrogation c. Actual Interrogation
b. Pre-test Interview d. Lie Detection Test
237. Which among the following is not a required qualification for a polygraph
examiner?
a. Criminology Graduate c. Technical Know How
b. Honesty d. Integrity and Morals
238. Which among the forgoing is not a part in the conduct of a polygraph
examination?
a. Pre-test Interview c. Post-Test Interview
b. Instrumental Test d. Psychological Test
239. Which among the following is not included in recording the psycho-
physiological response of the subject?
a. Use of Water therapy b. Psychological
c. Stress Evaluator d. Word Association Test
240. A person who is capable of detecting deception with the use of

instrumentation or mechanical device.
a. Interrogator c. Medico-legal Officer
b. Detective d. Polygraph Examiner
241. Which among the following statement is not among the limitations of the
polygraph?
a. It is only as accurate as the examiner is competent.
b. It is admissible as evidence.
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c. It is an aid and not a substitute for investigation.

d. It is a scientific diagnostic instrument which records responses
242. An invaluable aid in investigation and an instrument in the detection of
deception.
a. Photography c. Lie Detection
b. Chemistry d. Medicine
243. Questions in connection to the matter under investigation.
a. Irrelevant
b. Supplementary
c. Control
d. Relevant
244. It refers to query having no bearing or weight to the case under
investigation.
a. Relevant Question
b. Supplementary Questions
c. Control Question
d. Irrelevant Question
245. A test usually administered as part of the standard test to draw a better
conclusion.
b. Supplementary
c. Control
d. Irrelevant
246. This measures, detects and graphically displays voice modulation.
a. Word Association Test
b. Psychological Stress Evaluator
c. Truth Serum
d. Water therapy
247. In this examination, stimulus and non-stimulus words are read to the
subject who in turn is instructed to answer as quickly as possible.
c. Truth Serum
d. Water Therapy
248. A test conducted wherein the subject is instructed not to produce verbal
response.
a. Peak of Tension Test
b. Silent Test
c. Narrative
d. Guilt Complex Test
249. Using the Psychological Stress Evaluator, a lying subject or when a
person is under stress, the frequencies___________?
a. Tends to disappear
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b. Rise
c. Increases
d. Stop
250. This test not concerned with the answer whether it is yes or no, what is
important is the time of response in relation to delay the answer.
c. Truth Serum
d. Water Therapy
251. It refers to the composite records of pneumograph, galvanograph, and
cardiosphygmograph tracings recorded from series of question.
a. Polygrams
b. Chart
c. Subject
d. A & B
252. A test undertaken when the subject is not aware of the details of the
offense for which he is under scrutiny.
a. Guilt Complex Test
b. Silent Answer Test
c. Peak of Tension Test
d. Narrative
253. When response to control questions is consistently similar this is
administered.
a. Guilt complex test
b. Silent answer Test
d. Narrative
254. It is a tracing on the chart wherein the subject answered in the irrelevant
question.
a. Normal Tracing
b. Normal Response
c. Specific Response
d. Response
255. This test uses Hyoscine Hydrobromide Drug that is administered
hypodermically which produces a state of delirium.
a. Hypnotism
b. Narco-analysis
c. Narco-synthesis
d. Administration of truth serum
256. It is base on the maxim “in vino veritas”.
a. Hypnotism
b. Narco-analysis
c. Narco-Synthesis
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d. Intoxication with the use of alcoholic beverages

257. It is any deviation from the normal tracing of the subject.
a. Normal Response
b. Specific Response
c. Polygrams
d. Response
258. In this examination, psychiatric sodium pentothal is administered.
a. Hypnotism
b. Narco-analysis
c. Intoxication with the use of alcoholic beverages
d. Administration of truth serum
259. The most common scientific method of detecting deception.
a. Polygraphy
b. Polygraph
c. Truth Serum
d. Interrogation
260. He devised an instrument capable of continuously recording pulse rate,
respiration and blood pressure.
a. William Marston
b. Angelo Mosso
c. John Larson
d. Sticker
261. Psychological Response to any demand.
a. Reaction
b. Stress
c. Pressure
d. All of the above
262. He is the father of Criminalistic.
a. Cesare Lombroso
b. Godard
c. Hans Gross
d. Becarria
263. A subject must have at least how many hours of sleep to be considered
fit for polygraph examination.
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
264. It is a type of question related to the facts of the case.
a. Relevant question
b. Irrelevant question
c. General Question
d. Immaterial Question
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265. He states that FEAR influenced the heart and could be use as a basis for
detecting deception.
a. Marston
b. Larson
c. Mosso
d. Verguth
266. An act of discovery that is indicative of the fact that something is hidden
or obscure.
a. Fear
b. Deception
c. Detection
d. Reaction
267. An inhibition of a previous activity of an organism as a result of
stimulation.
a. Response
b. Reaction
c. Stimuli
d. Fear
268. It refers to an emotional response to a specific danger which appears to
go beyond a person’s defensive power.
a. Response
b. Deception
c. Stimuli
d. Fear
269. This component drives the chart paper under the recording pen
simultaneously at the rate of 6 to 12 inches per minute.
a. Cardiosphygmograph
b. Kymograph
c. Stimuli
d. Fear
270. A part of the galvanograph attached to the left fingers of the subject.
a. Finger electrode plate
b. Diacritic notch
c. Rubber convoluted tube
d. Kymograph
271. This component record changes of the subject’s blood pressure and pulse
rate.
b. Sphygmomanometer
c. Galvanograph
d. Pneumograph
272. It records the subject’s skin resistance to a small amount of electricity.
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b. Sphygmomanometer
c. Galvanograph
d. Pneumograph
273. This component records the changes in the breathing of the subject.
b. Sphygmomanometer
c. Galvanograph
d. Pneumograph
274. A kind of lie wherein a person assumes another identity to deceive
others.
a. Black Lie
b. White Lie
c. Red Lie
d. Yellow Lie
275. It is a deviation from normal tracing of the subject in the relevant
question.
a. Reaction
b. Normal Response
d. Positive Response
276. Chart tracing of the subject when irrelevant questions were answered.
a. Reaction
b. Normal Response
d. Positive Response
277. Normal time interval for pre-test interview.
a. 20 to 30minutes
b. 30 to 60 minutes
c. 60 to 90 minutes
d. 90 to 120 minutes
278. What is the primary objective of the post test interview?
a. To thank the subject
b. To obtain confession
c. To make the subject calm
d. To explain polygraph test procedures
279. What is the purpose of the pre-test interview?
a. To prepare the subject for polygraph test
b. To obtain confession
c. To make the subject calm
d. To explain polygraph test procedures
280. Test undertaken when both relevant and control questions are similar in
degree and consistency.
a. Guilt complex test
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b. Silent answer Test

d. None of the Above
281. It refers to questions to ascertain the subject’s normal pattern of
response.
a. Relevant Questions
b. Irrelevant Questions
c. Supplementary Questions
d. Control Questions
282. The number of basic tracings in a modern polygraph.
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
283. Did you hide Senator Lacson in your in your beach resort? It is an
example of –
a. Control Question
b. Irrelevant Question
c. Relevant Question
d. Leading Question
284. He developed the systolic blood pressure method for detecting deception.
a. William Marston
b. Harold Burtt
c. John Larson
d. Leonard Keeler
285. He noted that respiratory and systolic blood pressure changes were signs
of deception.
a. William Marston
b. Harold Burtt
c. Leonard Keeler
d. John Larson
286. An Italian Scientist who used hydrosphygmograph procedure for persons
charged with the commission of a crime.
a. Angelo Mosso
b. Veraguth
c. Lombroso
d. Vittorio Benussi
287. Pioneer who first used the term psycho galvanic skin reflex.
a. Angelo Mosso
b. Veraguth
c. Lombroso
d. Vittorio Benussi

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288. Who first incorporated the galvanograph with measurement, respiration

component and blood pressure?
a. Harold Burtt
b. Hans Gross
c. Leonarde Keeler
d. John Larson
289. A primitive practice of detecting deception whereby controversies are
settled by means of duel, the victor will be spared from consequences and
the loser will be pronounce guilty.
a. Ordeal
b. Trial by Combat
c. Combat
d. None f these
290. It is an instrument used for the recording of changes in blood pressure,
pulse rate, respiration and skin resistance as indication of emotional
disturbances especially when questioned.
a. Polygraphy
b. Polygraph
c. Lie detector machine
d. B & C
291. It is a scientific method of detecting deception using polygraph.
a. Polygraphy
b. Lie Detection
c. B & A
d. None of the foregoing
292. It is an emotional response to specific danger that appears to beyond a
person’s defensive power.
a. Stimulus
b. Fear
c. Reaction
d. Detection
293. It is a force or motion reaching the organism and excites the receptors.
a. Stimulus
b. Recation
c. Deception
d. Detection
294. It is use to measure the blood pressure and heart rate of the subject in
the polygraph examination.
a. Pneumograph
b. Galvanograph
c. Kymograph
d. Cardio-Sphymograph

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295. The component of the Polygraph machine that records the subject’s
respiratory rate.
a. Pneumograph
b. Galvanograph
c. Kymograph
296. This component of the Polygraph machine records the amount of
perspiration produced.
a. Pneumograph
b. Galvanograph
c. Kymograph
297. Questions formulated must be short, simple and direct answerable by
either ‘yes” or “no” only, phrased in the language easily understood by the
subject.
a. True
b. False
c. Partially True
d. Partially False
298. These are questions which have no bearing to the case under
investigation.
c. Control Question
d. Uncontrollable Questions
299. These are questions pertaining to the issue under investigation.
c. Control Question
d. Uncontrollable Questions
300. It is used to test or question individuals for the purpose of detecting
deception and verifying the truth of statements through visual, permanent
and simultaneous recording of a person’s cardiovascular and respiratory
pattern as a minimum instrumentation requirement.
a. Polygraphy
b. Polygraph
c. Lie Detection
d. Computer
301. The science of lie detection.
a. Polygraphy
b. Polygraph
c. Lie Detection
d. Computer
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302. Within the U.S. Federal Government, a polygraph examination is also

referred to as-
a. Psycho physiological Detection of Deception
b. PDD
c. Psychological Detection of Deception
d. Federal Scientific Detection of Deception
303. He invented the first scientific instrument to detect deception.
a. Cesare Lombroso
b. Cesare Beccaria
c. William Marston
d. Vittorio Benussi
304. An instrument that graphically measures an examinee’s inhalation and
exhalation.
a. Pneumograph
b. Spygmograph
c. Kymograph
d. Galvanograph
305. An instrument that measured changes in pulse and blood pressure.
a. Pneumograph
b. Hydrospygmograph
c. Kymograph
d. Galvanograph
306. He invented the Pneumograph component of the Lie detector machine.
a. Vittorio Benussi
b. John Larson
c. Cesare Lombroso
d. William Marston
307. He conducted a further research that dealt with Sphygmomanometer,
which was used to obtain periodic discontinuous blood pressure readings
during the course of an examination.
a. William Marston
b. John Larson
c. Cesare Lombroso
d. Vittorio Benussi
308. A device invented that records both blood-pressure and galvanic skin
response was invented in 1920 by_______.
a. William Marston
b. John Larson
c. Cesare Lombroso
d. Vittorio Benussi
309. The term polygraph was first used in 1906 by James MacKenzie in his
invention the “ink polygraph”, which was used for medical purposes.
a. William Marston
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b. John Larson
c. Cesare Lombroso
d. James Mackenzie
310. He is the self-proclaimed father of polygraph.
a. William Marston
b. John Larson
c. Cesare Lombroso
d. Vittorio Benussi
311. Today, most polygraph test are administered with the digital equipment
rather than the analog type.
a. True
b. False
c. Partially True
d. Partially False
312. The following are methods of detection of deception except:
a. Devices which record the psycho-physiological responses
b. Use of drugs that try to inhibit the inhibitor
c. Hypnotism
d. Torture
313. The nervous control of the human body includes the-
a. Central Nervous System
b. Autonomic Nervous System
c. Muscular System
d. Reproductive System
e. Both A & B
314. It primarily controls the motor and sensory functions that occur at or
above the threshold.
c. Muscular System
315. It acts as a self-regulating autonomic response of the body.
c. Muscular System
316. When the person is under the influence of physical exertion or emotional
stimuli, the sympathetic will dominate and over-rid the parasympathetic,
thus there will be changes in the heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory
pattern, psycho galvanic reflexes, time of response to question, and voice
tracing.
a. True
b. Partially True
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c. False
317. The parasympathetic nervous system works to restore things to normal
when the condition of stress has been removed. It is dominant branch when
the condition is normal and the subject is calm, contented and relaxed.
a. True
b. Partially True
318. In this examination, lists of stimulus and non-stimulus words are read to
the subject who is instructed to answer as quickly as possible.
a. Lie Detection
b. Word Association Test
c. Hypnotism
d. Psychological Stress Evaluator
319. In lie detector, the time interval between the words uttered by the
examiner and the answer of the subject is recorded.
a. True
b. False
320. When the subject is asked with reference to his name, address, civil
status, nationality, ect., which has no relation to the subject matter of the
investigation, the tendency is to delay the answer.
a. True
b. Partially True
c. Doubtful
d. False
321. The Psychological Stress Evaluator is not concerned with the answer, be
it a “yes” or a “no”. The important factor is the time response in relation to
stimulus and non-stimulus words.
a. True
b. False
322. It detects, measures, and graphically displays the voice modulations that
we cannot hear.
323. When the person is under stress as when he is lying, the micro tremor in
the voice utterance is moderately and completely suppressed.
a. True
b. False
324. When a person is relaxed and responding honestly to the questions,
those inaudible frequencies are registered clearly on the instrument.
a. True
b. False
325. In the administration of truth serum, the drug given hypodermically to
the subject is_________.
a. Shabu
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b. Hyoscine Hydrobromide
c. Psychiatric Sodium Amytal
d. Morphine
326. The drug administered to the subject in Narcoanalysis/Narcosynthesis
is________.
a. Shabu
b. Hyoscine Hydrobromide
c. Psychiatric Sodium Amytal
d. Morphine
327. The Latin maxim which means that in wine there is truth.
a. In Vino San Miguel
b. In Vino Matador
c. InVino Veritos
d. In Vino Veritas
328. It is the alteration of consciousness and concentration in which the
subject manifests a heightened suggestibility while awareness is maintained.
a. Narcism
b. Hypnosis
329. It is also called Prevarication. A type of deception in the form of
untruthful statements with the intention to deceive, often with the intention
to maintain a secret of reputation, to protect someone’s feelings from getting
hurt, or to avoid punishment.
a. Lie
b. Lei
330. It is a lie that is told when it is obvious to all concerned that is a lie.
a. Lie to Children
b. Bald Face Lie
331. It is often a platitude that may use euphemism that is told to make an
adult subject acceptable to children.
a. Lie to Children
b. Bald Face Lie
332. It is a lie by omitting an important fact, deliberately leaving another
person with a misconception.
a. Lie to Children
b. Bald Face Lie
c. White Lie
d. Lying by Omission
333. It would cause no discord if it were undiscovered and offers some benefit
to the liar, the hearer, or both.
a. Lie to Children
b. Bald Face Lie
c. White Lie

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334. A kind of lie that would normally cause discord if it were uncovered, but
it offers some benefit to the liar and perhaps assists an orderly society.
a. Perjury
b. Noble Lie
335. It is an strategic lie told when the truth may not be told because, for
example, harm to a third party would come of it.
a. Perjury
b. Emergency Lie
336. It is the act of lying or making verifiably false statements on material
matter under oath or affirmation in a court of law or in any of various sworn
statements in writing.
a. Perjury
b. Bluffing
337. Pretending to have the capability or intention one doesn’t.
a. Dissembling
b. Misleading
c. Bluffing
338. A polite term of lying, though some might consider it to being merely
misleading.
a. Dissembling
b. Misleading
339. It occurs when the most fundamental aspect of a statement is true, but
the degree to which it is true is not correct.
a. Jocose Lie
b. Exaggeration Lie
340. Lies that are meant in jest and are usually understood as such by all
present parties.
a. Jocose lie
b. Promotion Lie
341. A lie in the advertisements that contain statement that is not credible.
a. Jocose Lie
b. Exaggeration
c. Jocose Lie
d. Promotion Lie
342. It is wooden puppet often led into trouble by his propensity to lie.
a. Pinocchio
b. Pacquio
343. The component of the Polygraph machine that measures the blood
pressure and heart rate.
a. Cardio-sphygmograph
b. Pneumograph
344. It records the subject’s respiratory rate.
a. Cardio-sphygmograph
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b. Pneumograph
c. Galvanograph
d. Keymograph
345. It is an act of deceiving or misleading usually accompanied by lying.
a. Detection
b. Deception
346. This valid test is only made possible when there is no widespread
publicity about the crime.
b. Tension Test
347. It refers to the uttering or conveying falsehood or creating false or
misleading information with the intention of affecting wrongfully the acts or
opinion of other.
a. Response
b. Lying
348. Which of the following is not a standard qualification of a polygraph
examiner?
a. He must be free of prejudice
b. He is an impartial seeker of truth
c. He must be a policeman
d. He must be of good moral character
349. This test consists of series of relevant and irrelevant questions asked in a
planned order.
b. General Peak of tension Question Test
350. The examination room must be equipped with paintings, decorations or
other ornaments.
a. True
b. False
351. Permanent physical illness such as mental derangement, certain heart
condition and addiction to narcotic drugs are definite causes that makes a
person unfit for a polygraph test.
a. True
b. False
352. This phase of the examination will condition the subject psychologically
for the test.
a. Pre-test interview
b. Actual Interrogation
353. Questions formulated must be short, simple and multiple choice type.
a. True
b. False
354. Questions pertaining to the issue under investigation.
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c. Control Question
d. Supplementary Question
355. These are questions which are unrelated to the matter under
investigation but of similar nature although less serious as compared to
those relevant questions under investigation.
c. Control Question
d. Supplementary Question
356. It is a metallic or non-metallic cylindrical projectile propelled from a
firearm by means of the expansive force of gases coming from the burning
gunpowder.
a. Cartridge
b. Bullet
357. The science of motion of projectiles.
a. Firearm Examination
b. Ballistic
358. This consists of unburned, burning and partially burned powder together
with graphite which came out from the muzzle. It is responsible for the
tattooing around the gunshot wound of entrance.
a. Smoke
b. Powder Grains
359. In a common police parlance, a bullet may be called ______.
a. Projectile
b. Tingga
c. Slug
360. A portion in the cartridge case which consists of a brass or gilding metal
cup. The cup contains a highly sensitive mixture of chemical compound.
a. Gunpowder
b. Propellant
c. Primer
361. It refers to the identification and investigation of firearms by means of
ammunition fired through them.
a. Terminal Ballistic
b. Exterior Ballistic
c. Forensic Ballistic
362. It refers to any weapon designed to be operated from the shoulder.
a. Revolver
b. Rifle

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363. Ignition of the propellant will cause the production of flame. The flame
does not usually go beyond a distance of ___inches in pistols.
a. 6 inches
b. 3 inches
364. This is an instrument used for making measurement such as bullet
diameter, bore diameter, and barrel length.
a. Micrometer
b. Taper Gauge
c. Caliper
365. He is credited as the father of Percussion Ignition.
a. Calvin Goddard
b. Alexander john Forsyth
366. Firing pin mark can be found in a “Fired Shell”.
a. True
b. False
367. It refers to the effect of the impact of the bullet on the target.
a. Terminal ballistic
368. The number of lands and grooves inside the bore of a fired firearm are
always_________.
a. Different
b. The same
369. The size of the bullet grouping on the target.
a. Terminal Accuracy
b. Terminal Energy
370. All rim-fire cartridges and most center-fire revolver cartridges that are
now manufactured have_________.
a. Long Neck Cartridges
b. Bottle Neck cartridges
c. Straight Cases
371. It refers to the properties and attributes of the bullet while still inside the
gun.
b. Interior Ballistic
372. The elevated portion of the bore.
a. Land
b. Grooves
373. He is credited as the father of Criminalistic.
a. Calvin Goddard
b. Garrand
c. Aristotle
d. Hans Gross

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374. In this firearm a pressure is applied on the trigger and will both cock and
fire the firearm by release of the hammer.
a. Single Action Firearm
b. Double Action Firearm
c. Single Shot Firearm
d. Automatic Firearm
375. The speed of the bullet upon striking the target.
a. Terminal Accuracy
b. Terminal Energy
c. Terminal Velocity
376. It is an ancient smooth-bore and muzzle loading military shoulder arm
designed to fire a single round lead ball.
a. Musket
b. Machine guns
c. Shoulder Arms
d. Revolver
377. This is a part of the firearm which causes firing mechanism.
a. Hammer
b. Trigger
c. Barrel
d. Ejector
378. As applied to ballistic or any other subject, it suggests a relationship to
courts of justice and legal proceeding.
a. Ballistic
b. Legal
c. Forensic
379. The term ballistic is derived from the Greek word __________ which
literally means to throw.
a. Ballista
b. Ballo
c. Ballein
d. B or C
380. Fired bullets should be marked by the recovering officer with his initials
in the ____________.
a. Nose
b. Mouth
c. Ogive
d. A or C
381. It refers to the circular groove near the base of the case or shell designed
for the automatic withdrawal of the case after each firing.
a. Ejector Groove
b. Extractor Groove
c. Land Groove
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d. None of these
382. It is the amount of force on the trigger necessary to fire a gun.
a. Hair Trigger
b. Trigger Force
c. Trigger Pressure
383. He is the maker of the first known carbine.
a. David Williams
b. Alexander Forsyth
384. It is generally found on the primer cup.
a. Shearing Mark
b. Firing Pin mark
385. The trigger pressure of a shotgun is______.
a. 3-4lbs.
b. 4 lbs
386. He is credited as the father of Ballistic.
a. Samuel Colt
b. Calvin Goddard
387. It refers to the characteristics that are determinable even prior to the
manufacture of the firearms. These are factory specification and within the
control of man.
a. Individual Characteristics
b. Class Characteristics
388. It describes the ability of the bullet to maintain its velocity against air
resistance.
a. Trajectory
b. Air Resistance
c. Pull of Gravity
d. Ballistic Coefficient
389. Firearms that propel projectile of less than one inch in diameter.
a. Artillery
b. Small Arms
390. The depressed portion of the bore.
a. Groove
b. Land
391. The depth of entry of the bullet in the target.
a. Pull of Gravity
b. Air Resistance
c. Terminal Penetration
392. It is generally used in the preliminary examination of fired bullets and
shells for the purpose of determining the relative distribution of the class
characteristics.
a. Bullet Comparison Microscope
b. Stereoscopic Microscope
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393. It refers to a “Loaded Shell” for rifles, carbines, shotguns, revolvers and
pistols from which a ball, bullet, shot or other missile may be fired by means
of a gun powder or other explosives..
a. Bullet
b. Ammunition
394. Sometimes it is called as “secondary firing pin mark” and found in the
primer near the firing pin mark.
a. Firing Pin Mark
b. Shearing Mark
395. The first priming mixture is composed of Potassium Chlorate, Charcoal,
and _________.
a. Ground Glass
b. Fulminate of Mercury
c. Barium Nitrate
d. Sulphur
396. Firearm which may be fired only by a single hand.
a. Rifle
b. Pistol
397. It refers to the rate of speed of the bullet per unit of time.
a. Velocity
b. Air Resistance
398. In marking physical evidence, use distinctive mark such as X.
a. true
b. false
399. This is used in determining weights of bullets and shotgun pellets to
determine probably the type of caliber and make of firearms from which they
were fired.
a. Micrometer
b. Bullet Comparison Microscope
c. Helixometer
d. Analytical Balance
400. The term cartridge is derived from the word “charta”, the Latin word for
____.
a. Plastic
b. Metal
c. Cartoon
d. Paper
401. The container of the priming mixture is _______.
a. Shell
b. Cartridge
c. Primer Cup
402. He produced the first practical revolver.
a. Samuel Colt
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c. John M. Browning
403. The Gunpowder was invented in_________.
a. 1413
b. 1313
c. 1350
d. 1213
404. This instrument is use to measure the angle of twist in a rifled pistol and
revolver.
a. Magnifying Glass
b. Gunsmith tools
c. Micrometer
d. Helixometer
405. The resistance encountered by the bullet whiles its flight.
a. Velocity Resistance
b. Air Resistance
c. Pull of Gravity
406. What kind of firearm that has a muzzle velocity of more than 1,400 feet
per second??
a. High Power Firearm
b. Low Power Firearm
c. Pistol
407. Bore diameter is an example of class characteristic.
a. True
b. False
408. It is the distance measured between two opposite lands inside the bore.
a. Caliber
b. Bore
409. The highly sensitive chemical mixture contained in the primer cup.
a. Priming Mixture
b. Gunpowder
410. The collecting officer can mark the cylindrical surface of the bullet.
a. True
b. False
411. These are generally found on bullets fired through “loose fit” barrels
wherein the rifling is already worn out.
a. Shearing Mark
b. Stripping Mark
412. Skid mark can be found on fired bullets.
a. True
b. False
413. It refers to the characteristics markings peculiar and not found in all
firearms.
a. Class Characteristics
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c. Group Characteristics
414. This is especially designed to permit the firearm examiner to determine
the similarity and dissimilarity between two fired bullets and slugs or
projectiles, or two fired shells by simultaneously observing their magnified
image in a single microscopic instrument.
a. Stereoscopic Microscope
b. Bullet Comparison Microscope
415. It is applied to that part of the cartridge case that is occupied by the
bullet.
a. Base
b. Crimp
c. Vents
d. Neck
416. These are found in the anterior portions of the fired bullets and caused
by the forward movement of the bullet from the chamber before it initially
rotates due to the rifling inside the gun barrel.
a. Stripping Mark
b. Skid Mark
417. It is the hole in the web or the bottom of the primer pocket through
which the primer ‘flash” provides ignition to the gunpowder.
a. Flash holes
b. Vents
c. Cannelures
d. A or B
418. It refers to the straight distance between the muzzle and the target.
a. Trajectory
b. Velocity
c. Range
419. This is used primarily in determining the bore diameter of firearms.
a. Gunsmith tools
b. Taper Gauge
420. The first reference to rifled barrels happened around this year.
a. 1575
b. 1498
421. The oldest propellant.
a. Black Powder
b. Pink powder
422. In this, the diameter or the base of the cartridge is bigger than the body
of the cartridge.
a. Rimless type
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c. Semi-rimmed
423. If the Shape if the base of the bullet is boat tailed, the shape of the nose
is________.
a. Pointed
b. Round
424. It can be used in the close up examination of tampered serial numbers.
a. Gunsmith tool
b. Taper Gauge
c. Stereoscopic Microscope
425. It is equal to the height of the side of a land.
a. Depth of Grooves
b. Twist
426. The gun powder is otherwise known as_____________.
a. Powder charge
b. Propellant
c. Pulbura
d. A & B
427. The first reference to paper cartridge happened around this year.
a. 1313
b. 1575
428. It contains a compound at the base usually similar to barium nitrates,
which is set on fire when the bullet is projected. The flash of the smoke from
the burning permits the light of the bullet to be seen especially at night time.
a. Incendiary Bullets
b. Tracer Bullets
429. The rifling inside the gun barrel may twist _________.
a. To the right only
b. To the left only
c. To the right & left
430. It refers to serrated grooves that are sometimes found rolled into the
necks and bodied of the cases at the location of the bases of the bullet to
prevent the bullet from being pushed back or loosened.
a. Neck
b. Base
c. Crimp
d. Cannelures
431. It refers to the actual curved path of the bullet during its flight from the
gun muzzle to the target.
a. Velocity
b. Trajectory
432. Land and groove marks are called__________.
a. Skid Mark
b. Shearing Mark
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c. Rifling Mark
433. Type of firearms that propel projectiles less than one inch in diameter.
a. Artillery
b. Small arms
434. When percussion ignition started?
a. 1853
b. 1807
435. If the shape of the nose is round, the shape of the base is______.
a. Boat-tailed
b. Flat base
436. It is a tabular metallic or non-metallic container which holds together the
bullet, gunpowder and primer.
a. Bullet
b. Cartridge Case
c. Shell
d. B or C
437. It refers to firearms that have rifling inside their gun barrel.
a. Smooth-Bore Firearms
b. Rifled-Bore firearms
438. The bore diameter of the firearm is the________.
a. Type of firearm
b. Caliber of firearm
439. The term commonly used by physicians whenever there is blackening of
the margin of the gunshot wound of entrance.
a. Powder Grains
b. Powder Burns
440. This kind of bullet contains a mixture such as phosphorous or other
material that can be set on fire by impact. These are used on targets that
will readily burn such as aircrafts or gasoline depot.
a. Explosive Bullets
b. Incendiary Bullets
441. The term Bullet originated from the French word_______.
a. Boulette
b. Boul
d. None of these
442. The noise created at the muzzle of the gun due to the sudden escape of
the expanding gas coming in contact with the air in the surrounding
atmosphere at the muzzle point.
a. Muzzle Energy
b. Trajectory
c. Velocity
d. Muzzle Blast

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443. A part of the mouth of the case that is turned in upon the bullet and
holds the bullet in place.
a. Crimp
b. Cannelure
444. It is the most powerful propellants.
a. Smokeless Powder
b. Black Powder
445. It refers to the attributes and movement of the bullet after it has left the
gun muzzle.
a. Muzzle Energy
446. A type of weapon which fire or is designed to fire automatically or semi-
automatically more than one shot without manual reloading.
a. Artillery
b. Machine guns
447. It is known as self-loading firearm.
a. Revolver
b. Automatic Pistol
448. The portion of the primer against which the priming mixture is crushed
by a blow from the firing pin.
a. Disc
b. Anvil
449. The diameter of the base of the cartridge case is the same as the
diameter of the body of the cartridge case or shell.
a. Rimmed type
b. Rimless type
450. In this firing weapon, the empty shell is ejected when the cartridge is
fired and a new cartridge is slipped into the breach automatically as a result
of the recoil.
a. Rifle
b. Shotgun
c. Automatic Pistol
451. Most center-fire rifle cartridge cases are of_______.
a. Bottleneck type
b. Straight Cases
452. It refers to firearm whose projectile is a collection of lead pellets which
varies in sizes with the type of cartridge applied.
a. Single Action Firearm
b. Double Action Firearm
c. Rifle
d. Shotgun
453. A firearm with a long barrel and butt.
a. Shotgun
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c. Double Action Firearm

454. There are two classification of bullet according to mechanical
construction. One is the lead bullet and the other is_________.
a. Jacketed Bullet
b. Round Nose
455. He is a wizard of modern firearms and pioneered the breech-loading
single shot rifle.
a. David Williams
b. John M. Browning
456. The two classification of firearm according to the gun-barrel internal
construction is the Rifled-bore firearm and the ___________.
a. Single Shot firearm
b. Repeating Arms
c. Smooth Bore Firearm
457. The muzzle velocity of a Rifle is________.
a. 2, 600 feet per second
b. 2, 500 feet per second
458. A type of firearms designed to fire only one shot every loading.
a. Repeating Arms
b. Single Shot Firearms
459. The following are attributes of the bullet while still inside the muzzle of
the gun except-
a. Velocity
b. Firing pin hitting the primer
c. Ignition of the priming mixture
460. The bottom of the case which holds the primer and the shell head.
a. Extracting Groove
b. Base
c. Crimp
d. Mouth
461. These bullets have hardened steel cores and are fired at vehicles and
other armored targets in general.
a. Armor Piercing Bullet
b. Incendiary Bullet
462. It refers to the investigation and identification of firearms by means of
ammunition fired through them.
b. Forensic Ballistic
463. An English Monk scientist who invented the gunpowder in 1248.
a. Berthold Schwarts
b. Roger Bacon
464. A mechanism of the firearm by which the empty shell or ammunition is
thrown from the firearm.
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a. Extractor
b. Ejector
465. This firearm is first manually cocked then followed by pressure on the
trigger to release the hammer.
a. Automatic Firearm
b. Single Shot Firearm
c. Double Action Firearm
d. Single Action Firearm
466. It refers to firearm that propelled projectile more than an inch in

diameter.
a. Small Arms
b. Artillery
467. He founded the great firm Smith and Wesson and pioneered he making
of breech loading rifles.
a. Daniel B. Wesson
b. Horace Smith
468. It contains the head stamp, caliber and year of manufacture.
a. Primer
b. Base
c. Shell Head
469. It is an instrument used for the propulsion of projectile by means of the
expansive force of gases coming from the burning gunpowder.
a. Bullet
b. Firearm
470. Firearms that have no rifling inside the gun barrel.
a. Smooth-Bore firearm
b. Rifled-bore firearm
471. A smooth-bore and breech loading shoulder arm designed to fire a
number of lead pellets or shots in one charge.
a. Carbine
b. Shotgun
472. A hand firearm equipped with rotating cylinder, serving as magazine,
successively places a cartridge into position for firing.
a. Pistol
b. Magazine
c. Revolver
473. It initiates the path of the bullet.
a. Barrel
b. Frame
474. It houses the internal part of the firearm.
a. Yoke

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b. Bolt
c. Hammer
d. Frame
475. It pulls the empty shell from the cylinder simultaneously.
a. Yoke
b. Firing Pin
c. Extractor
476. Smith and Wesson revolvers have _________.
a. 5 lands , 5 Grooves and twist to the right
b. 5 lands , 5 Grooves and twist to the left
c. 6 lands, 6 grooves and twist to the right
d. 6 lands, 6 grooves and twist to the left
477. It activates the parts necessary to fire the weapon.
a. Hammer
b. Trigger
478. A mechanism of the firearm responsible for the spent shell or
ammunition to be withdrawn from the firing chamber.
a. Extractor
b. Ejector
479. What firearm has a muzzle velocity of not more than 1,400 feet per
second?
a. High Powered firearm
b. Low Power Firearm
480. The metal containing the highly sensitive priming mixture of chemical
compound, which when struck by the firing pin it would ignite.
a. Gunpowder
b. Primer
481. It refers to a firearm which has a cylindrical magazine situated at the
rear of the barrel capable of revolving motion and which can accommodate
five or six cartridges; each of which is housed in a separate chamber.
a. Automatic Pistol
b. Revolver
482. It is the most simple form of modern cartridge and can generally found in
Cal. 22
a. Pin-Fire cartridge
b. Rim-Fire Cartridge
c. Center Fire Cartridge
d. All of these
483. In this kind of firearm, a pull or pressure on the trigger will cause one
shot.
a. Automatic firearm
b. Single Shot firearm
c. Double Action firearm
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d. Single Action Firearm

484. The first cartridge of a self-exploding type.
a. Pin-Fire cartridge
b. Rim-Fire Cartridge
c. Center Fire Cartridge
d. All of these
485. The Trigger pressure of a rifle is________.
a. 4 lbs.
b. 3-4 lbs
c. 3-5 lbs
d. 6-7 lbs
486. The inner surface of the barrel that has a series of parallel spiral grooves
on the whole length is called_____.
a. Bore
b. Rifling
c. Twist
d. Hammer
487. The number of lands and grooves varies from __________.
a. 2 to 12
b. 3 to 12
c. 4 to 12
d. 6 to 5
488. It refers to a tabular metallic container for the gunpowder.
a. Bullet
b. Primer
c. Cartridge
d. None of these
489. Refers to as fingerprint pattern wherein the ridge flow from one side to the
other without recurving, and ridges rising in the center.
a. Plain arch c. Plain whorl
b. Tented arch d. Plain loop
490. A pattern in which the ridges flow from one circle to another without
recurving, usually forming a slight upward curve in the center having
resemblance of an arch.
a. Plain arch c. Plain whorl
b. Tented arch d. Plain loop
491. The system of fingerprinting is referred to as:
a. Poroscopy c. Dactyloscopy
b. Podoscopy d. Palmistry
492. It is a ridge in the center of the fingerprint pattern which may resemble a
rod, loop, or a spiral in the interior of the pattern.
a. Core c. Delta
b. Loop d. Bifurcation
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493. A German criminologist who discovered that fingerprinting for

identification purpose were already used in the Far East during the Tang
dynasty from 618 to 906 A.D.
a. Henry Faulds c. Robert Heindle
b. Dr. Nehemiah Greu d. Alphonse Bertillon
494. Regarded as the “Father of Fingerprints”
a. Sir Edward Richard Henry c. Alphonse Bertillon
b. Sir Frances Galton d. Gilbert Thompson
495. Basis of fingerprint identification.
a. Pores c. Friction ridges
b. Ridges d. Latent print
496. Period of a person’s life wherein papillary ridges are formed and developed?
a. 3rd month of fetal life c. At birth
b. 6th month of infancy d. 3 months after birth
497. Nucleus of the fingerprint pattern which may resemble a loop, spiral or
rod.
a. Delta c. Ridge
b. Core d. Whorl
498. Minimum identical characteristics detail to justify the identity between two
points.
a. Nine c. Fifteen
b. Twelve d. Eighteen
499. An American who first utilized fingerprint classification to prevent forgery
in New Mexico.
a. Sir Francis Galton c. Samuel Clemens
b. Sir Edward Richard Henry d. Gilbert Thompson
500. First chief of the Identification Bureau in Paris who was known for his
anthropometric measurement.
a. Alphonse Bertillon c. Samuel Clemens
b. Sir Edward Richard Henry d. Gilbert Thompson
501. First Filipino expert on fingerprinting.
a. Atty. Agustin Patricio c. Atty. Lorenzo Sunico
b. Gen. Rafael Crame d. Col. Jose Lukban
502. The fingerprint classification which is used in the United States.
a. Henry System c. Beni’lion System
b. Batley System d. Galton System
503. Study of the characteristics formed by the sides of papillary ridges as
means of identification.
a. Edgeoscopy c. Podoscopy
b. Poroscopy d. Chiroscopy
504. In taking fingerprints the absolute control of the subject’s hand is:
a. Necessary c. Optional
b. Unnecessary d. Excessive

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505. Usually occupational damage to ridge formation is;

a. Temporary c. Lasting
b. Permanent d. Stable
506. An inking pad which requires no ink or roller.
a. Porelon c. Inkless pad
b. Special pad d. None of these
507. If the same digits of both hands are missing, the impression is held to be:
a. Plain whorl meeting c. Arches
b. Loops d. Dependent on ridge tracings
508. Referred to as outer terminus:
a. Delta c. Bifurcation
509. Impressions which are taken simultaneously on the fingerprint card are
referred to as:
a. Rolled impressions c. Fragmentary impressions
b. Plain impressions d. Visible impressions
510. Known for his rule which states that “No two individuals in the world are
exactly the same size and that human skeleton does not change after 20 years.
a. Darwin c. Galton
b. Mendel d. Bertillon
511. The easiest means of discovering latent fingerprints is to view the area:
a. Obliquely c. Directly
b. About half an inch distance d. about one inch distance
512. A distinct fingerprint pattern with two separate loops, with its respective
shoulder and deltas.
a. Double loop c. Central pocket loop
b. Accidental loop d. whorl
513. What pattern bears a downward slant of ridge from the thumb toward the
little finger?
a. Tented Arch c. Ulnar loop
b. Radial loop d. Loop
514. A fingerprint pattern which one or more ridges enter on either side of the
impression by a recurve, and terminate on the same side where the ridge has
entered.
a. Tented arch c. Ulnar loop
b. Radial loop d. loop
515. It is triangular shaped and formed by the bifurcation of a ridge at the outer
portion of the pattern.
a. Latent prints c. Core
b. Ridge d. Delta
516. A single ridge that bifurcates and meets again to form a single ridge is
called:
a. Enclosure ridge c. Short ridges
b. Dot ridges d. Resembling a loop

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517. Points often missed in rolling impression.

a. Bifurcation c. Delta
b. Core d. Ridge
518. Which among the following is not considered as a basic fingerprint
pattern?
a. Loop c. Whorl
b. Arch d. Accidental
519. A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges form a sequence of spirals around
core axes.
a. Whorl c. Double loop
b. Central packet loop d. Accidental
520. Refers to the study of sweat gland openings found on papillary ridges as a
means of identification.
a. Poroscopy c. Podoscopy
b. Edeoscopy d. Dactyloscopy
521. In determining the identity of an unknown dead body found in a river,
wherein no identifying papers are to be found, and the body is badly mutilated
and swollen, which among the following means of identification is least
dependable?
a. Fingerprints c. Scars on the body
b. Tattoo markings on the body d. Measurement of the body
522. It constitutes approximately 65% of all fingerprints.

a. Loops c. Whorls
b. Arches d. Accidentals
523. That part of the fingerprint wherein we find the core and delta.
a. Bifurcation c. Type lines
b. Pattern area d. None of these
524. Refers to innermost ridges that run parallel, diverge and surround or tend
to surround the pattern area.
a. Delta c. Core
b. Divergence d. Type lines
525. A smooth spreading apart of two ridges which have been running parallel
or nearly parallel.
a. Island c. Divergence
b. Dot d. Convergence
526. A small ridge attached to another ridge.
a. Island c. Bifurcation
b. Dot d. appendage
527. If one finger is amputated, it is given a classification with that of;
a. The opposite finger c. The first finger
b. The next finger d. The last finger

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528. It consist of recordings of all friction ridges present on the palmar surfaces
of the hands and the inner surfaces of the fingers. They are commonly utilized
to make accurate and conclusive comparisons with all latent prints obtained
during the investigation of a major case.
a. Major Case print c. Special case print
b. Fingerprint chart d. None of these
529. This test is used to detect the presence of semen particularly in stained
clothing.
a. Microscopic test c. Florence test
b. Barberio’s test d. Ultraviolet test
530. The best method in comparative soil analysis.
a. Chemical examination c. UV light examination
b. Density gradient test d. Microscopic examination
531. To know whether a paper is not easily torn, what test is utilized?
a. Accelerated aging test c. Opacity examination
b. Bursting strength test d. Microscopic examination
532. A gas with a rotten egg odor usually made by decaying body.
a. Chloride c. Carbon dioxide
b. Ammonia d. Hydrogen sulfide
533. A condition whereby males have no spermatozoa in their seminal fluid.
a. Aspermia c. Sterility
b. Oligospremia d. Rigidity
534. It is the scientific study of serums which describes the analysis of
antigen-antibody reactions.
a. Serology c. Biology
b. Posology d. Serumnology
535. An incendiary device made of glass bottle filled with gasoline or any
inflammable mixture with a piece of absorbent cotton for a fuse or wick.
a. Tear gas c. Molotov bomb
b. Molotov Cocktail d. RDX
536. Cheapest form of solid oxidizer in an explosive mixture.
a. C-4 c. Ammonium nitrate
b. RDX d. TNT
537. Most utilized and important military explosive.
a. C-4 c. Ammonium nitrate
b. RDX d. TNT
538. Earliest substance used for writing.
a. Leaves c. Linen
b. Paper d. Egyptian papyrus
539. Agents which produce intestinal evacuation.
a. Emetic c. Antidotes
b. Cathartics d. Demulcents
540. A product of decomposition found nearly in all soils.

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a. Sedentary soil c. Primary minerals

b. Clay minerals d. Organic constituents
541. For radial cracks it states that stress lines on radial crack will be at
right angle to the rear side.
a. RFC rule c. Flotation
b. 3 R’s d. Immersion
542. Normally responsible for retraction of the blood cloth.
a. Whiter blood cells (leucocytes)
b. Red blood cells (erythrocytes)
c. Blood platelets (thrombosytes)
d. Fibribogen
543. Rifling in the bore of small arms is primarily designed for:
a. Increase the speed of the bullet
b. Decrease the amount of recoil
c. Increase impact damage
d. Prevent the bullet from turning end over in the air
544. Scientific examination of bullets and firearms presumably used in the
commission of a crime.
a. Interior ballistics c. Terminal ballistics
b. Exterior ballistics d. Forensic ballistics
545. A result of wear and tear, corrosion, erosion which affects the normal
operation of a firearm.
a. Factory defect c. Individual intention
characteristics
b. Precipitate d. Individual accidental
characteristics
546. Cannelure is used in firearms identification to determine.
a. Manufacturer of the firearm c. Type of gun
b. Manufacturer of the bullet d. Weapon that fired the shot
547. A barrel of any firearm is legally classified as:
a. Part of the firearm c. Accessory
b. Nomenclature d. Complete firearm
548. Rate of twist in the rifling of a rifle or pistol barrel.
a. Land c. Leed
b. Grooves d. Ogive
549. A test used to determine the distance from the bullet hole at which the
gun was fired.
a. Triangulation c. Alphanothylamine test
b. Photo-micrographic test d. Diphenylamine test
550. After repeated firing of a revolver, this is deposited frequently on the
index finger of the hand which the shooter used to fire the gun.
a. Powder burn c. Precipitin
b. Residue d. Dirt

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551. To link a shell with a shotgun that fired it, in the laboratory examination
it should be given:
a. Wadding c. Pellets
b. Cap d. Wads
552. In firearms identification, it is essential to supplement the serial number
with…
a. Caliber c. Make and model number
b. Frame number d. All of these
553. It is a result when the firearm is shot at around 2 to 8 inches to the
target.
a. Smudging c. Contact burn
b. Tattooing d. Contact wound
554. It is produced when the muzzle is held against the target or body when
fired.
a. Smudging c. Contact burn
b. Tattooing d. Contact wound
555. In the effort to identify the shell with the revolver which fired it, which
among the following is essential?
a. Marks of the breechblock c. None of these
b. Marks of the firing pin hole d. Both A and B
556. In shots fired from an automatic pistol, the shell in most cases…
a. Will be found on the scene of the crime
b. Will remain in the chamber
c. Will be rarely found in the scene of the crime
d. Will be usually disposed by the perpetrator
557. When booking a fired bullet, the mark used to identify it is placed on.
a. Its base c. Its side and base
b. Its side d. Its nose
558. Danao made firearms or homemade weapons are usually classified as:
a. Flare guns c. Matchlock
b. Zip guns d. Freakish device
559. The most reliable of all individual characteristics, when fired cartridges
are concerned.
a. Extractor marks c. Chamber marks
b. Ejector marks d. Breechface markS
560. It literally means delay in discharge or the cartridge’s failure to explode
on time.
a. Misfire c. Ricochet
b. Hang fire d. Key hole shot
561. A bullet fired from a firearm with an oversized or oily barrel or its lands
have been worn down would produce what kind of markings?
a. Slippage marks c. Rifling marks
b. Skid marks d. Shearing marks

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562. Measuring device used to measure the velocity of projectiles.

a. Caliper d. Test bullet
b. Chronograph d. Bullet recovery box
563. Any metallic body referred to as a bullet.
a. Projectile c. Shell
b. Ball d. Missile
564. The science of dealing with the motion of projectiles at the same time it
leaves the muzzle of the firearm to the time it hits the target.
b. Exterior ballistics d. Posterior ballistics
565. The science which deals with the effect of the impact of the projectile on
the target.
b. Exterior ballistics d. Posterior ballistics
566. Part of the firearm which strikes the firing pin.
a. Trigger c. Sear
b. Hammer d. Main spring
567. Applied to a shot gun which indicates bore diameter is equal to the
diameter of the lead ball whose weight in pound is equal to reciprocal gauge
index.
a. Caliber c. Shot
b. Gauge d. Charge
568. An ancient smooth bore weapon designed to shoot a single round lead
ball.
a. Shotgun c. Musket
b. Rifle d. Pistol
569. A smooth bore weapon designed to shoot a number of lead pellets in one
charge.
a. Shotgun c. Musket
b. Rifle d. Pistol
570. Placed in the barrels of the firearm to impart a spin on the bullet that
pass through it.
a. Lands c. Rifling
b. Grooves d. All of these
571. The modern method of rifling which uses a hardened steel rod with
several cutting rings spaced down the rod.
a. Button rifling c. Polygonal rifling
b. Broach rifling d. Electrochemical rifling
572. The most common method of rifling used today, wherein the grooves are
formed in the barrel under very high pressure forming the rifling in the
barrel which hardens and polishes the inside of the barrel.
b. Broach rifling d. Electrochemical rifling

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573. This produces a type of rifling called polygonal rifling, common in Glock,
Steyr, IMI and a few other manufacturers.
b. Broach rifling d. Hammer forged rifling
574. Part of exterior ballistics which refers to the sound created at the muzzle
end of the barrel.
a. Muzzle energy c. Muzzle noise
b. Muzzle blast d. Range
575. A type of rimmed cartridge wherein the diameter of the rim is greater
than the diameter of the body of the cartridge case.
a. immed type c. Belted type
b. Semi-rimmed type d. Rebated type
576. A type of firearm which the pressure upon the trigger both cocks and
release the hammer.
a. Automatic c. Double action
b. Single action d. slide action type
577. All calibers of Colt revolver has________.
a. 5 lands , 5 Grooves and twist to the right
b. 5 lands , 5 Grooves and twist to the left
c. 6 lands, 6 grooves and twist to the right
d. 6 lands, 6 grooves and twist to the left
578. A metallic cup charged with a priming composition, usually made up of
potassium chlorate, antimony sulfide and fulminate of mercury.
a. Primer c. Cartridge
b. Gunpowder
579. It is committed by giving any payable instrument to bearer such as
treasury or bank notes the appearance of a genuine document.
a. Estafa c. Forgery
b. Falsification of document d. All of these
580. It applies to documents whether public, official or commercial wherein
handwriting or signature contained therein is imitated.
b. Falsification of document d. All of these
581. The act of making it appears that persons have participated in any
proceeding or act when in fact they have not participated in any document.
b. Falsification of document d. All of the foregoing
582. A person who alters by any means, the lettes, figures, words or signs
contained in any bank or Treasury note is liable for:
b. Falsification of document d. All of the foregoing
583. It refers to the assessment or altered, forged or suspected papers to
determine if they are genuine or otherwise.

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b. Falsification of document d. Questioned document
examination
584. Iodine fumes is useful in questioned document examination because:
a. It can be used to developed secret writings
b. It can be used to determine whether erasures have been made
c. It can determine the kind of ink used in writing
d. Both A and B
585. Which among the foregoing may be utilized as a means to carry out
mechanical erasures?
a. Rubber eraser c. Blade
b. Sharp knife d. All of these
586. An erasure with the use of ink eradicators.
a. Mechanical erasure c. Electronic erasure
b. Chemical erasure d. All of the foregoing
587. Instruments whose origin are known and proven; which are used in
comparison with a questioned document.
a. Simulated documents c. Standard documents
b. Falsified documents d. Forged documents
588. A document executed without the intervention of a notary or any
competent public official by which some agreement or disposition is proved.
a. Public document c. Private documents
b. Official document d. Commercial document
589. To obtain conviction for the charge of possession of false bank or
treasury notes this is an essential requisite.
a. Intention to use it c. Intention to surrender it to
authorities
b. Intention to keep it d. Intention to display it
590. A city mayor executed a document in his legal capacity as a local
executive, that document is classified as:
a. Public document c. Private document
591. A document notarized by a notary public or any competent authority is
legally classified as:
a. Public document c. Private document
592. A man who is unable to write may use this legally signify a signature.
a. Crude x c. Thumb mark
b. Cross mark d. Both A and B
593. Refers to the design of letters which are fundamental to a writing system.
a. Copy book form c. Line quality
b. System of writing d. Writing movement

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594. It refers to any abnormality or maladjustment in the typewriter which is

reflected in its product
a. Defect c. Misalignment
b. Mal alignment d. Alteration
595. Enlarged photographic court exhibit usually referred to as bromide
enlargements of a document.
a. Standard document c. Collected documents
b. Questions documents d. Display exhibits
596. The appearance of paper when viewed by transmitted light, which
discloses the formation and texture of the sheet.
a. Lock-through of paper c. Cross marks
b. Watermarks d. Sidelight marks
597. It consists of chemical solutions.
a. Non aqueous ink c. Ink eradicators
b. Aqueous ink d. all of these
598. Any characteristic of handwriting which is sufficiently well fixed and
unique to serve as a fundamental point in the identification of the writer.
a. Copy book form c. System of writing
b. Line quality d. Significant writing habits
599. Refers to any specimen of writing executed normally without any attempt
to change or control its identifying habits and its usual quality of execution.
a. Natural writing c. Cursive writing
b. Disguised writing d. System of writing
600. Jose Pidal in trying to alter his own signature to hide his identity is
using:
601. Writing in which are for most part joined together.
602. Usual deviations found between repeated specimen of any individual
handwriting or in the product of any typewriter.
a. Normal variation c. Tremor
b. Natural variation d. Wrong hand writing
603. A person executing a signature while his arm is steadied and assisted
produces a:
a. Guided signature c. Scribble
b. Normal signature d. Handwriting signature
604. A preliminary embellished initial common to capital letters.
a. Embellishment c. Buckle knot
b. Beard d. Diacritic
605. A minute curve which occurs at the end of terminal strokes.
a. Hook c. Loop

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b. Spur d. Staff
606. An oblong curve found in small letters f, g, h and I.
a. Hook c. Loop
b. Spur d. Staff
607. The introductory backward stroke added to the start of many capital
letters and which can also be seen occasionally in introductory strokes of
small letters.
b. Beard d. Hitch
608. A loop made as a flourish which is added to a letter.
b. Beard d. Diacritic
609. Visible record in the writing stroke of the basis movement and manner of
holding the writing instrument.
a. Line quality c. Baseline
b. Rhythm d. Writing pressure
610. Additional unnecessary stroke for ornamental purposes.
a. Embellishment c. Diacritic
b. Hump d. Knot
611. Balance quality of movement of the harmonious recurrence of stress of
impulse.
a. Line quality c. Baseline
b. Rhythm d. Writing pressure
612. Refers to the periodic increase in pressure or intermittently forcing the
pen against the paper surface with increase pressure.
a. Writing pressure c. Pen emphasis
b. Shading d. Natural variation
613. An imaginary line upon which the writing rests.
a. Line quality c. Foot
b. Baseline d. Hitch
614. A signature written by the forger in his own style of handwriting without
attempting to copy to form of the genuine signature.
a. Traced forgery c. Simulated forgery
b. Disguised forgery d. Simple forgery
615. A freehand imitation and regarded as the most skilful type of forgery.
a. Traced forgery c. Simulated forgery
b. Disguised forgery d. Simple forgery
616. Which among the following is an indication of genuineness of
handwriting?
a. Continuity c. Skilful writing
b. Smoothness d. Tremor
617. Combination of the basic design of letters and writing movement as
taught in school.

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a. Letter form c. Copy book form

b. Line quality d. System of writing
618. Document which is completely written and signed by one person.
a. Genuine documents c. Holographic document
b. Disputed document d. Authentic document
619. A document which contains some changes either as an addition or
deletion.
a. Altered document c. Obliterated document
b. Disputed document d. Inserted document
620. Signatures used to acknowledge delivery, purchase of goods and mail.
a. Complete c. Cursory
b. Formal d. Careless scribble
621. It refers to the smearing over a writing to make the original
undecipherable.
a. Decipherment c. Obliteration
b. Restoration d. Interlineations
622. A class of signature for routine document or day to day correspondence.
a. Formal c. Cursory
b. Complete d. Careless scribble
623. Refers to a class of signature to acknowledge important documents.
a. Complete c. Informal
b. Cursory d. Careless scribble
624. A process by which a canal like outline is produce on a fraudulent
document underneath the genuine and tracing it with the use of a pointed
instrument.
a. Carbon process c. Projection process
b. Indention process d. Transmitted light process
625. A type face defect wherein one side is printed heavier than the rest of its
outline.
a. Off its feet c. Clogged type face
b. Twisted letter d. Rebound
626. It is the visible effect of bodily movement which is almost unconscious
expression of fixed muscular habits reacting from fixed mental impressions.
a. Handwriting c. Typewriting
b. Writing d. writing movement
627. A writing instrument that makes detection of hesitation and pen lifts
difficult.
a. Ball point pen c. Iron nutgall ink
b. Fountain pen d. Markers
628. Disconnection between letters or letter combination due to lack of
movement control.
a. Pen lift c. Patching
b. Retouching d. Retracing

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629. A distinctive design which is translucent impressed on the paper during

manufacture.
a. Water marks c. Paper design
b. Fiber marks d. Wire marks
630. In utilizing a stereo-graphic photomicrograph, what particular condition
is manifested?
a. Grainy image c. Overlapping image
b. Two image d. Three dimensional image
631. An element which is added to complete another letter.
a. Spur c. Diacritics
b. Beard d. hook
632. It is a signature signed at a particular time and place, purpose and
normal writing conditions.
a. Complete signature c. Evidential signature
b. Standard signature d. Model signature
633. Periodic increase in pressure, characterized by widening of the ink
stroke.
a. Shading c. Pen lift
b. Pen emphasis d. Pen pressure
634. The most reliable criterion in judging the authenticity of paper money.
a. Quality or sharpness of the engraving
b. Color of the seal
c. Wet strength of the paper
d. Watermarks
635. A coin given the appearance of a legal tender but made inferior or
superior intrinsic value to that of the genuine coin.
a. Priceless coin c. False coin
b. Mutilated coin d. All of these
636. It is a deviation showing free connecting and terminal strokes made by
the momentum of the hand.
a. Tremor c. Genuine tremor
b. Tremors of fraud d. Deterioration
637. Any arcade formed in the body of the letters.
a. Staff c. Diacritics
b. Slant d. Humps
638. A type face ordinarily spaced 10 characters to the horizontal inch.
a. Pica c. Proportional spacing machine
b. Elite d. Adding machine
639. Developed the system of handwriting classification utilized by most police
departments.
a. Lee and Abbey c. Levine
b. Rolando Wilson d. Land steiner

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640. A kind of document executed by a person in authority and by private

parties but notarized by competent officials.
a. Official document c. Commercial document
b. Public document d. Private document
641. An act of diminishing the metal value of a genuine coin.
a. False coin c. Priceless coin
b. Counterfeit coin d. Mutilation of coins
642. It refers to the printing surface of a type block.
a. Character c. Pitch
b. Design d. Type face
643. Widening of the ink stroke due to added pressure on a flexible pen point.
a. Shading c. Shading
b. Pen pressure d. All of these
644. It represents the backbone or main stroke of letters.
a. Slant c. Staff
b. Diacritics d. Foot
645. It is the process of making out what is illegible or what has been effaced.
a. Decipherment c. Obliteration
b. Collation d. Examination
646. An act of setting two or more items to weigh their identifying
characteristics.
a. Comparison c. Conclusion
b. Collation d. Examination
647. An examination of documents wherein it is viewed with the source of
illumination behind it and the light passing through the paper.
a. Transmitted light examination c. Infrared examination
b. Oblique photography examination d. Ultraviolet examination
648. The art of attempting to interpret the personality of a person from his
handwriting.
a. Questioned Document Examination c. Graphology
b. Polygraphy d. Psychology
649. Identifying typewriter characteristics which can be eliminated by
cleaning the machine or replacing the ribbon.
a. Transitory defect c. Permanent defect
b. Alignment defect d. Defect
650. A defect in typewrites due to the wear and tear of the type block in which
some letters lean to the left or right of their correct slant.
a. Off its feet c. Twisted letter
b. Clogged type face d. Rebound
651. And angle or inclination of the axis of the letter relative to the baseline.
a. Foot c. Staff
b. Slant d. Hitch

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652. A distinct and peculiar character used to identify handwriting to any

identifying factor related to the writing movement itself.
a. Quality c. Skill
b. Line quality d. System of writing
653. Going back over a defective portion of a writing stroke, it is a common
defect in forgeries and is also known as retouching.
a. Patching c. Erasure
b. Smeared over writing d. Interlineations
654. Refers to written documents in the ordinary course of business or in the
regular course of man’s activity. Also known as procured standards.
a. Requested standards c. Standard documents
b. Collected standards d. Holographic documents
655. Also known as “post litel motam” or dictated standards is a document
which are executed and prepared at one time upon request.
a. Requested standards c. Standard documents
b. Collected standards d. Holographic documents
656. Also known as formal signature it is executed in signing contracts,
certifications, checks and other important documents.
a. Complete c. Careless scribble
b. Cursory d. None of these
657. A signature usually executed in the conduct of a person’s daily affairs.
a. Formal c. Informal
b. Cursory d. Both B and C
658. For signing mail, receipts and other insignificant documents such as
signatures executed by celebrities to their fans.
a. Complete c. Careless scribble
b. Cursory d. Informal
659. Builder of the first pyramid, he was considered as the first or earliest
recorded medico-legal expert.
a. Antistius c. Paulus Zacchias
b. Imhotep d. San Juan de Bautista
660. First chief medico legal officer of the Philippine Commonwelth.
a. Dr. Sixto delos Angeles c. Dr. Gregorio T. Lantin
b. Dr. Pedro Solis d. Dr. Enrique V. delos Santos
661. Regarded as the Father of Forensic Medicine.
662. Earliest known forensic pathologist or police surgeon, who performed the
autopsy of Julius Caesar, reporting that out of the 23 stab wounds, only one
penetrated the chest cavity between the first and second rib which was
Caesar’s proximate cause of death.

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los Santos
663. Color of blood when exposed to the atmosphere.
a. Red c. Reddish-brown
b. Clay d. Black
664. It has for its characteristics as, bright scarlet in color, with high oxygen
content and leaves the blood vessel with pressure.
a. Arterial blood c. Menstrual blood
b. Venous blood d. Human blood
665. Dark red in color, with low oxygen content and usually does not spill far
from the wound.
666. This blood contains a high number of deodorleins bacillus, it does not clot
and has acidic reactions.
667. A condition in which foreign matters are introduced in the blood stream
blocking the blood circulation in the finer capillaries and arteriiles.
a. Infection c. Hemorrhage
b. Embolism d. Hematoma
668. It is the disorder of the fluid balance due to peripheral deficiency,
characterized by the decreased blood volume, its flow, hemo-concentration
and renal deficiency.
b. Shock d. Hematoma
669. Extravasations or loss of blood from the circulation due to inflicted wounds
in the cardio-vascular system.
670. The growth and development of micro-organism in the location of the
injury or wound.
671. Effusion of blood into the tissue underneath the skin due to the rupture
of blood vessels as a result of the application of a blunt force.
a. Contusion c. Hemorrhage
b. Shock d. Hematoma
672. Wound produced to man’s instinctive reaction of self-preservation to repel
attacks or an aggressor.
a. Defense wound c. Patterned wound
b. Self-inflicted wound d. Mutilated wound
673. A wound which resembles the shape or object of the instrument which
caused it.

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a. Defense wound c. Patterned wound

b. Self-inflicted wound d. Mutilated wound
674. Pulverization of the body into shape with the use of intense heat.
a. Exhumation c. Charring
b. Cremation d. Pounding
675. Prescribed depth of a grave under P.D. 856, Section 19 of the Code of
Sanitation.
a. At least ½ meters deep c. At least 1 and ½ meters deep
b. At least 1 meters deep d. At least 2 meters deep
676. A significant difference between the male and female skull is that in males,
the supercialiary ridges are ______ than compared with females.
a. Less sharp c. More pointed
b. Sharper d. Smoother
677. Female pelvis diameter is _______ compared with male pelvis.
a. Greater c. Lesser
b. Equal d. Less significant
678. How many minutes is necessary persistent cessation in respiration,
circulation and brain function is sufficient to declare a person clinically dead?
a. 10-15 minutes c. 30-45 minutes
b. 15-30 minutes d. 45-60 minutes
679. A simple test used to determine cessation of respiration by placing water
or mercury in a container on top of the chest of a person and no visible
movement is noticed.
a. Winslov test c. Barberio’s test
b. Florence test d. Castle Meyer test
680. In tropical countries, hair and nails are detached from a dead body in how
many days?
a. 7 c. 21
b. 14 d. 28
681. Maggots are seen in dead bodies particularly in warm countries within how
many days from death?
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 4
682. Refers to a fracture where there is a break in the bone, loss of alignment
of the affected bones and separation of fragment bones.
a. Simple fracture c. Communicated fracture
b. Compound fracture d. None of these
683. Abrasion due to contact with a rough, hard object.
a. Imprint abrasion c. Friction abrasion
b. Pressure abrasion d. Graze
684. Reduction of oxygen in the blood.
a. Hypoxia c. Hypercapnea

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b. Asphyxia d. None of the foregoing

685. Refers to an abrasion due to pressure applied and with accompanying
movement over the skin.
a. Pressure abrasion c. Impact abrasion
b. Imprint abrasion d. Graze
686. A nervous disease marked by seizures with convulsion and loss of
consciousness.
a. Epilepsy c. Catalepsy
b. Apoplexy d. Uremia
687. Refers to the accumulation in the blood ordinarily eliminated in the urine;
specifically a toxic condition seen in urinary suppression, marked by nausea,
vertigo, vomiting, coma and convulsion.
a. Epilepsy c. Catalepsy
b. Apoplexy d. Uremia
688. LIvor mortis or post mortem lividity is completed in how many hours when
the blood has already clotted or diffused to different parts of the body wherein
the discoloration is permanent and darker in color?
a. 12 hours c. 36 hours
b. 24 hours d. 48 hours
689. In blood grouping, should there be no agglutination with either group A or
B what would be the particular blood group of the sample?
a. Group A c. Group AB
b. Group B d. Group O
690. Period of time wherein human bones will not exhibit changes.
a. 10 years c. 30 years
b. 20 years d. 40 years
691. It is the formation of a soft, friable and brownish white greasy substance
in the soft fatty tissue after death.
a. Saponification c. Mummification
b. Rigor mortis d. Maceration
692. A discoloration of the body after death when the blood tends to pool in the
blood vessels of the most dependent portions of the body and starts 20 to 30
minutes after death and is completed by 12 hours.
a. Rigor mortis c. Maceration
b. Primary flaccidity d. Livor mortis
693. Average time for the stomach to empty its contents after meals.
a. 2 to 3 hours c. 4 to 5 hours
b. 3 to 4 hours d. 5 to 6 hours
694. Rate of growth of human hair.
a. 0.4 to 0.5 mm./day c. 0.6 to 0.6 mm./day
b. 0.5 to 0.6 mm./day d. 0.7 to 0.8 mm./day
695. A person is considered dead if the rate of fall of body temperature is about:
a. 10 to 15⁰F c. 20 to 25⁰F

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b. 15 to 20 ⁰F d. 25 to 30⁰F
696. Sudden inflammation of the pancreas caused by infections carried in the
blood stream. It may follow obstruction of the pancreatic duct and subsequent
congestion of the gland.
a. Perforated peptic ulcer c. Acute intestinal obstruction
b. Generalized peritonitis d. Acute pancreatitis
697. A break or solution in the continuity of the skin.
a. Wound c. Bruise
b. Trauma d. Scratch
698. A wound which inflicted in the body which is so serious that it will
endanger one’s life.
a. Non-mortal wound c. Trauma
b. Mortal wound d. Coup injury
699. Straining or tearing of tendons, ligaments and muscles causing skin
discoloration and extreme pain.
a. Sprain c. Fracture
b. Contusion d. Dislocation
700. It is a fracture wherein a break of the skin and bone is evident.
a. Simple c. Comminuted
b. Compound d. fracture
701. A displacement of the articular surface of the bone without external
wounds.
a. Sprain c. Hematoma
b. Fracture d. Dislocation
702. In gunshot wounds, when there is evident burning of tissues and
blackening of the skin, it may be ascertained that it is a near contact fire
meaning that the distance of the body to the gun is approximately:
a. 6 inches c. 18 inches
b. 12 inches d. 24 inches
703. A physical injury found at the site of the application of force.
a. Extensive injury c. Contre coup injury
b. Coup injury d. Coup and contre coup injury
704. A wound produced by a blunt instrument such as log and stone.
a. Punctured wound c. Lacerated wound
b. Hack wound d. Incised wound
705. When the person was stabbed by an ice pick, what wound would be
exhibited?
a. Punctured wound c. Lacerated wound
b. Hack wound d. Incised wound

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1. What legal doctrine was established in the case Mapp vs.Ohio?

A. Archipelagic Doctrine
B. Fruit of the Poisonous Tree Doctrine
C. Miranda Doctrine
D. Eclectics Doctrine
E. None of these
2. The testimony of witnesses reduced in writing while under oath is generally

called
A. Admission
B. Declaration
C. Information
D. Deposition
3. Human sources of information who voluntarily provide facts to the detectives

are generally known as
A. Informers
B. Suspects
C. Informants
D. Respondents

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4. Proof beyond reasonable doubt is the weight and sufficiency of evidence needed
to convict the defendant in
A. administrative cases
B. civil cases
C. criminal cases
D. all of the above
5. The stage of criminal interview purposely done to clarify information already

gathered or to gather additional facts about the case is the:
A. initial interview
B. follow-up interview
C. concluding interview
D. preliminary interview
6. The prosecutor is the proper authority to subscribe in the
A. Affidavit
B. Complaint
C. Joint affidavit
D. Information
7. Any person arrested, detained or under custodial investigation shall at all times
be assisted by
A. Prosecutor
B. police officer
C. counsel
D. complaint
8. Remuneration gain is the main motive of

A. Informants
B. Criminals

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C. Informers
D. Witnesses
9. As established by our Supreme Court through the case People vs. Galit, the first
step in arresting an offender is
A. show the warrant of arrest
B. inform the nature and cause of accusation
C. identify yourself as a law enforcer
D. give the Miranda warning
10. Planned and coordinated legal search conducted to locate physical evidences at
the locus criminis refers to
A. Crime scene search
B. Intelligence
C. Instrumentation
D. Covert operation
11. A self-incriminatory statement not tantamount to acknowledgement of criminal

guilt is called
A. Complaint
B. Admission
C. Confession
D. Deposition
12. The fundamentals responsibility of the officer in charge of protecting the crime
scene is
A. interrogating the witnesses
B. engaging in the search for traces left by the search for traces left by the criminal
C. removal of evidence which may prone important to the case
D. preserving the site of the crime in the same physical condition as it was left by
the perpetrator

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13. Which of the following is NOT among the rules to be observed in questioning a
suspect?
A. simplicity of the question
B. one question at a time
C. accepted applied answer
D. saving faces
14. One of the following is an art, which deal with the identity and location of the
offender and provides evidence of his guilt through criminal proceedings.
A. information
B. interrogation
C. instrumentation
D. criminal investigation
15. The declaration made under a consciousness of an impending death is called

A. Res gestae
B. Declaration against interest
C. Dying declaration
D. all of these
16. A police officer testifying to the fact that he observed the defendant assault the
victim is presenting to the court ____ evidence.
A. circumstantial evidence
B. direct evidence
C. artificial evidence
D. real evidence
17. A standard arrow to designate the north must be indicating to facilitate proper
orientation. This is known as
A. map
B. wind whirl
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C. compass direction
D. window
18. The profession and scientific discipline directed to the recognition, identification,
individualization and evaluation of physical science by application of natural
sciences in matters of law and science.
A. chemist
B. scientist
C. toxicologist
D. criminalistics
19. The number of person who handle the evidence from the scene of the crime and
between the times of the commission of the crime up to the final disposition of
the case.
A. time of disposition
B. chain of custody
C. time of custody
D. time of disposal
20. A technique useful in investigation with the application of instrumental

detection of deception is called
A. ballistic test
B. questioned document test
C. fingerprint testing
D. polygraph testing
21. The warrant of arrest is good only for

A. 10 days
B. 15 days
C. 20 days
D. none of these

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22. The effectiveness of this tool in investigation depends on the craft, logic, and
psychological insight of the initiator in interpreting the information relevant to
the case is called
A. instrumentation
B. information
C. interrogation
D. interview
23. The systematic classification of the fundamentals or basic factors of a criminal

method is called
A. corpus delicti
B. modus operandi
C. methodology
D. all of the above
24. It is a type of reconstruction of crime wherein collected information is analyzed

carefully thereby developing a theory of the crime.
A. deductive reasoning
B. physical reconstruction
C. inductive reasoning
D. mental reconstruction
25. The defense of the suspect that he was present in a place other than the crime
scene during the estimated time when the crime was committed is called
A. Defense
B. Allegation
C. Alibi
D. Statement

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26. These are hints that suggest lines of investigative actions and information that
is valuable in expanding the universe of suspects, identifying prime suspects
and finding the guilty person. This is called
A. Information
B. Investigative leads
C. Corpus delicti
D. Modus operandi
27. Complaint document is filed by the

A. Police to the prosecutor's office
B. Offended party directly to the court
C. Fiscal against the offended party
D. Prosecutor directly to the court
28. That type of reasoning used in reconstruction of the crime whereby the
detective assumes a theory based on collected information is regarded as
A. deduction approach
B. logical reasoning
C. inductive approach
D. positive approach
29. The lawful act of restraining a person believed to have committed a crime
and placing him under custody is termed as
A. Imprisonment
B. Restraint
C. Arrest
D. Detention
30. The use of scientific instruments, methods and processes while detecting and
investigating crimes is technically called
A. Criminal Justice

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B. Forensic Science
C. Criminalistics
D. Instrumentation
31. Preponderance of evidence is the weight and sufficiency of evidence needed to

convict a person in
A. Murder cases
B. Civil cases
C. Criminal cases
D. None of these
32. The two forms of arrest are arrest by actual restraint and
A. By forcible surrender
B. By detention
C. By voluntary submission
D. By virtue of a warrant
33. In portrait parle method the witness provides a vivid physical appearance of the
offender. Portrait parle means
A. Oral discussion
B. Verbal description
C. Photographic files
D. Facial appearance
34. The application of the same or substantially the same pattern, plan, system of a
particular offender in committing a crime is known as
A. Premeditation
B. plan
C. modus operandi
D. all of the above

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35. The method employed by peace officers to trap and catch malefactor in
inflagrante delicto is known as
A. modus operandi
B. “buy-bust”
C. Entrapment
D. Instigation
36. An effort made to determine what actually occurred and what the circumstances
of a crime were is called
A. physical construction
B. crime scene investigation
C. mental reconstruction
D. crime reconstruction
37. Which of the following is under the Field Laboratory Work of the SOCO?
A. Macro-etching
B. DNA examination
C. Casting
D. DNA typing
38. “Releases the crime scene to the officer on case” is the function of
A. evidence custodian
B. team leader
C. sketcher
D. technician
39. “The xerox copy signed by Rose” is an example of

A. document evidence
B. direct evidence

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C. secondary evidence
D. positive evidence
40. Evidence which the law does not allow to be contradicted is known as
A. competent evidence
B. conclusive evidence
C. expert evidence
D. substantial evidence
41. An interrogation technique where to police officers are employed, a relentless

investigator and a king-hearted man is called
A. shifting the blame
B. mutt and jeff
C. tom and jerry
D. none of the above
42. What law enumerated and provided definition of the different felonies in the
Philippines?
A. RA 8177
B. RA 6975
C. RA 8353
D. None of these
43. The following are authorized to issue a valid search warrant, except:
A. Appellate Judge
B. Presiding Judge of MCTC
C. Chief Prosecutor
D. RTC Judge

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44. Which of the following detective system prioritized on information that are
bought?
A. American System
B. English System
C. French System
D. All of these
45. In crime reconstruction, gathering information first then developing a theory on

how the crime was committed is one approach, otherwise known as:
A. Deductive reasoning
B. Inductive reasoning
C. Productive reasoning
D. Pragmatic reasoning
46. The branch of medicine, which deal with the application of medical knowledge to
the purpose of law and in the Administration of justice.
A. Nursing
B. Medico Legal
C. Legal
D. None of these
47. It pertains to law, arising out of, it also refer anything conformable to the law.
A. Legal
B. Rule
C. Sanction
D. All of these
48. One of the following denotes things belonging to the court of law or use in court
or legal proceeding or something fitted for legal or legal argumentation.
A. Jurisdiction
B. Jurisprudence
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C. Law or Legal
D. None of these
49. The legal maxim which means “both drivers displayed negligence”
A. Res Ipsa Loquitor
B. Pare Delicto
C. Inflagrante Delicto
D. Locus criminis
50. Which of the following is useful in the investigation of hit and run accidents?
A. Motor vehicle registers
B. Employees of the body fender shops
C. Records of accidents and stolen vehicles
D. all of the above
51. When 6 pedestrians who witnessed an automobile accident all tell identical
stories, the investigating officer might reasonably suspect that:
A. the story which they tell is true since they all agree so perfect
B. the delay between the time of the accident and the witnesses time together to
discuss and compare their observations
C. all of the witnesses are close friends with similar physical abilities opinions,
educational and the like
D. all of the witnesses are dishonest
52. The police must arrived at the scene of the crime as quickly as possible because:
A. he is the source of the most productive evidence
B. the principals are there or may still be present
C. some physical evidence may deteriorate
D. all of the above

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53. The traffic sign that is triangular in shape and have a red colored border is
known as:
A. information sign
B. instruction sign
C. direction sign
D. caution sign
54. The systematic examination of all the facts relating to condition, actions and
physical features associated with motor collision or accident is called:
A. traffic engineering
B. reckless driving
C. traffic accident investigation
D. hit and run investigation
55. An event in the road which characterizes the manner of occurrence of a motor
vehicle traffic accident is
A. Accident
B. key event
C. chain of accident
D. all of these
56. The delay resulting from traffic congestion affect not only the time of travel but
also the productivity of individual is part of what we call
A. traffic engineering
B. traffic environment
C. traffic economy
D. traffic congestion
57. The traffic enforcement action that does not contemplate possible assessment of
penalty by the court
A. traffic arrest

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B. traffic citation
C. traffic warning
D. traffic violation
58. In accordance with Sec. 6 of PD 1613, which of the following circumstances

does not constitute a prima facie evidence of arson?
A. The property was insured substantially more than its actual value at the time of
the issuance of the policy.
B. Substantial amounts of flammable substances were stored within the building
not necessary in the business.
C. Doors and windows that were normally kept open in the course of business
were found closed during the fire.
D. The fire started in more than one part of the building or establishment.
59. After a fire in which arson is suspected, you may be able to trace the fire to its
origin because __.
A. the alligator pattern of charring is not as light absorbent of the surrounding
areas
B. the checks of the charring process will be larger then the surrounding areas
C. the pattern of charring at the point of origin is smaller and deeper than the rest
of the areas
D. the point of origin will be darker than the rest of the areas
60. One of the following situations is a good indication of an accidental fire.

A. Smell of ammonia
B. Fire of several origin
C. Intense heat
D. Fire of only one origin
D
61. The purpose of closing the doors and windows during fire is to __.
A. stop the fire
B. confine the fire

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C. slow the spread of fire

D. spread the accelerants
62. The purpose of opening the doors and windows of adjacent rooms in a burning
building is to __.
A. extinguish the fire
B. supply the oxygen in the area
C. prevent back draft
D. serve as entrance of firemen
63. An arsonist may rearrange materials or furniture in a room prior to setting it on

fire in order to __.
A. mislead the investigators
B. camouflage the odor of accelerants
C. provide a quick burning situation
D. all of the above
64. If the fire is set by rationale motive, the important point to establish is ___.
A. intensity of fire
B. size of fire
C. rapidity of spread
D. origin of fire
65. The “eyes and ears” of the investigators in fire investigation are the
A. By standers
B. Arsonists
C. Victims
D. Firemen

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66. The fire that started in almost all corners of the building at the same time is
called __.
A. separate burning
B. simultaneous burning
C. non-related burning
D. related burning
67. A building which is unsafe in case of fire because it lacks adequate fire exit is
said to be a __.
A. Fire hazard
B. Fire trap
C. Fire resistive
D. Fire unsafe
68. In cases where a structure is completely burned to the ground, the position of
doors and windows during the fire whether opened or closed may be
ascertained by __.
A. consulting the original structure blueprint on file
B. interviewing spectators
C. collecting broken pieces of window glasses
D. locating the hardware used in the construction of such doors
69. Using electrical appliances, which draws electrical current beyond the designed
capacity of the electrical circuit, is known as __.
A. Over using
B. Over loading
C. Over plugging
D. Over capacity
70. The introduction of drugs into the deeper layer of the skin by means of special
electric current is known as:
A. Topical method
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B. Injection method
C. Iontophoresis
D. Oral method
71. When too much drug is taken into the physiological system of the human body,
there maybe an over extension of its effect which is commonly called:
A. Overdose
B. Allergic reaction
C. Side effect
D. Idiosyncracy
72. When two drugs are taken together, or with in a few hours of each other, they
may interact with:
A. good effects
B. bad effects
C. unexpected results
D. no effects
73. The actual action of a particular drug depend on the basis of:
A. it’s chemical component
B. person’s tolerance
C. body absorption
D. food and water intake
74. Which of the following is considered as the world’s oldest cultivated plant as a
source of prohibited drug?
A. Marijuana
B. Coca Bush
C. Opium Poppy
D. Peyote Cactus

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75. The opium poppy plant is scientifically known as:

A. Cannabis Sativa
B. Hashis
C. Erythroxylon coca
D. None of these
76. The word hashis is derived from the name Hasan/Hashasin, a Muslim leader.
Hashis refers to:
A. male marijuana plant
B. female marijuana plant
C. the marijuana resin
D. marijuana leaves
77. Opium use in China was stemmed out from India and became widespread in the
19th Century. From Middle East, the plant was cultivated
in India, Pakistan, Iran andAfghanistan which is known as the:
A. City of Dope
B. Golden Crescent
C. Green triangle
D. Golden triangle
78. Among the following was the German pharmacist who discovered the morphine
drug.
A. Allan Heithfield
B. Troy Mcweigh
C. Freidrich Serturner
D. Alder Wright
79. What do you call the incident where vast numbers of American soldiers were
addicted on the morphine drug during the American Civil War?

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A. Morpheum Illness
B. Soldier’s Disease phenomenon
C. American Addiction
D. Dreamer’s syndrome
80. What is the chemical name of the Heroin drug?

A. Amphetamine Sulfate
B. Diacetylmorphine
C. Acetonyl Dioxide
D. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride
81. Which of the following law was enacted to provide for the registration of
collection, and the imposition of fixed and special taxes upon all persons who
engage in illegal drug production?
A. R.A. 953
B. PD 44
C. R.A 7659
D. R.A. 6425
82. The cause of majority of fire deaths is:

A. Shock
B. Burn
C. Falling materials
D. Asphyxiation
83. One of the following is a fire resistant item.

A. Asbestos
B. Borax
C. Phosphate of ammonia
D. Sulfur

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84. Uncontrollable impulse to incendiarism is commonly known as

A. Kleptomania
B. Pedophilia
C. Manic depressive
D. Arson
85. Normally, fire feeds in all directions, but the least likely path a fire will follow is
A. Upward
B. Sideward
C. Downward
D. Outward laterally
86. What part of the investigation report that gives a brief summary of the major
investigative steps accomplished?
A. Details
B. Synopsis
C. Undeveloped
D. Conclusions
87. He was a buckle maker then a brothel operator; a master criminal who became
London’s most effective criminal investigator. He was the most famous thief
catcher in 1720s.
A. Henry Fielding
B. Jonathan Wild
C. John Fielding
D. Chales Dickens
88. The America’s most famous private investigator and founder of Criminal
Investigation in USA. He established the practice of handwriting examination in
American courts and promoted a plan to centralize criminal identification
records.
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A. Henry Fielding
B. Jonathan Wild
C. John Fielding
D. Allan Pinkerton
89. In this method, the three searchers follow each other along the path of a spiral,
beginning on the outside and spiraling in toward the center.
A. Skip method search
B. Round the clock method of search
C. Quadrant search
D. None of these
90. A fire started from the basement of the building. After 30 minutes, the whole
building has turned into ashes. Which among the following is responsible for
the spread of fire in the building?
A. Heat
B. Smoke
C. Flame
D. Combustion products
91. These are used by fire setters in spreading the fire throughout the building
A. Plants
B. Accelerants
C. Trailers
D. Gasoline
92. The sudden ignition of accumulated radical gases produced when there is
incomplete combustion of fuel
A. Backdraft
B. Flashfire
C. Flashover
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D. Biteback
93. A flow which would be obtained if there is a continuous flow of vehicle and are
given a one hundred percent green time is called:
A. Saturation flow
B. Traffic flow
C. Acceleration flow
D. Smooth flow
94. A signal system is created when two or more signals on any traffic route is
coordinated with a fixed time relationship among the several intervals known
as:
A. Signal system
B. Traffic system
C. Traffic lights
D. Traffic signals
95. The time within which the traffic indicates of any particular traffic signal face
does not change:
A. Interval
B. Cycle
C. Phase
D. Timing
96. The total time required for the complete sequence of the phase is known as:
A. Cycle
B. Cycle length
C. Timing
D. Interval

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97. the objective of traffic signal time apportionment to secure movement with safety
through an intersection with a minimum delay is called:
A. Timing
B. Cycle length
C. Phase
D. Interval
98. A portion of a signal cycle during which an assignment of right of way is made to
given traffic management:
A. Offset
B. Traffic phase
C. Signal cycle
D. Cycle split
99. The number of times allocated to each phase of traffic light is called:
A. Split
B. Cycle time
C. Cycle split
D. Traffic phase
100.On a highway, a yellow or white line with a dotted white line means that
A. you cannot overtake if the solid is in your side
B. absolutely no overtaking
C. overtaking allowed
D. keep right
101. The primary course of action in case of a fire.

A. Pack up and flee
B. Run for your life
C. Call an ambulance
D. Raise the alarm

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102. The main product of the combustion of carbon. It is not poisonous but
is an asphyxia which lowers the proportion of oxygen available for
breathing.
A. carbon oxide
B. carbon monoxide
C. carbon paper
D. carbon dioxide
103. A normal product of combustion, and is poisonous, especially when

the air supply to the fire is restricted.
A. carbon oxide
B. carbon monoxide
C. carbon paper
D. carbon dioxide
104. The fire resisting property of structural elements and the behavior of a
building material in a fire, it is used to predict how long it will resist the
effect of a fire before it fails.
A. fire resistance
B. fire duration
C. fire proof
D. fire strength
105. A type of fire that is the result of the combustion of certain metals in
finely divided forms; magnesium, potassium, zinc, etc….
A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
D. class D
106. A type of fire which results from burning of wood, paper, textiles, and
other carbonaceous materials. Extinguisher of this fire is by quenching
and cooling.
A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
D. class D
107. The following are components of fire except one:
A. Gas
B. Fuel
C. Oxygen
D. Heat

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108. It is observed in structural fires and can be an indicator of the fire

travel and point of origin.
A. Charring
B. Alligatoring
C. V pattern
D. Pour pattern
109. A pattern or network of fine, irregular lines in glass and wood.
A. Crazing
B. Spalling
C. Light bulbs
D. Charring
110. A tool employed by an arsonist to delay the start of the fire and allow
him to establish an alibi.
A. Accelerants
B. delaying tactic
C. timing device
D. stopper
111. It can be readily identified by their distinctive odors, and the most
common examples are gasoline, turpentine and kerosene.
A. Accelerants
B. Trailers
C. timing device
D. Stopper
112. This catalytic combustion device is the most common means employed
to detect flammable vapors.
A. Accelerant
B. Sniffer
C. timing device
D. stopper
113. The irresistible impulse or compulsion to start a fire and experience
gratification and satisfaction from it.
A. fire starter syndrome
B. pyrotechnic disease
C. pyromania
D. pyrophobia
114. It is known as the “Fire Code of the Philippines.”
A. PD 1108
B. PD 1017
C. PD 1081
D. PD 1185
115. Any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and oxidizer used to set off
explosives.
A. blasting agent
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B. blasting cap
C. gun powder
D. explosive primer
116. These are description of materials or compounds that are easily set on
fire except one:
A. Combustible
B. Corrosive
C. Flammable
D. Inflammable
117. Any material having a flash point at or above 37.80 degree Celsius or
100 degree Fahrenheit.
A. combustible liquid
B. flammable liquid
C. inflammable liquid
D. corrosive liquid
118. Any liquid that causes fire when in contact with organic matter.
A. combustible liquid
B. flammable liquid
C. inflammable liquid
D. corrosive liquid
119. An extremely hot luminous bridge formed by the passage of an electric
current across the space between two conductors.
A. electrical arc
B. damper
C. duct system
D. ember
120. The active principle of burning, characterized by the heat and light
combustion.
A. explosion
B. arson
C. combustion
D. fire
121. A type of fire, of flammable liquid and gasses.
A. class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
122. A mass movement in a fluid, an example a liquid or a gas where fluid at
one temperature and density moves under the influence of gravity at
different temperatures.
A. Conduction
B. Convection

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C. Radiation
D. Combustion
123. The temperature at which a liquid is transformed or converted to vapor.
A. burning point
B. melting point
C. freezing point
D. boiling point
124. The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from a collision course
or to avoid hazard.
A. point of no return
B. point of no escape
C. start of evasive action
D. final position
125. The movement of vehicles, and pedestrians in a road or highway.
A. Traffic
B. Flight
C. Trip
D. Journey
126. A method of locating a spot in the area by measurements from two or
more reference points.
A. traffic report
B. spot report
C . triangulation
D. accident investigation
127. The force that tends to pull all objects to the center of the earth.
A. Inertia
B. Friction
C. Energy
D. Gravity
128. Any motor vehicle accident that results in no death, but only injuries to
one or more persons.
A. Fatal
B. Chronic
C. Non fatal
D. Injurious
129. The “Traffic and Land Transportation Code of the Philippines”
A. RA 7160
B. RA 8551
C. RA 6425
D. RA 4136
130. An occurrence in a sequence of events, which usually produces
unintended injury, death or property damage.
A. traffic incidents
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B. traffic accidents
C. traffic hazards
D. traffic events
131. An order wherein a violator is commanded to appear in court, but
without detaining him.
A. traffic citation
B. traffic request
C. traffic warrant
D. D. traffic violation
132. The first accidental touching of an object collision course or otherwise
avoid a hazard.
A. primary contact
B. secondary contact
C. disengagement
D. initial contact
133. The following are the three E’s of Traffic Management and Operation
except one:
A. Engineering
B. Education
C. Enforcement
D. Evaluation
134. The “Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002.”
A. RA 9870
B. RA 9165
C. RA 1017
D. RA 6195
135. Drugs that produce perceptual alteration, varying emotional change,
thought disruption and ego distortion. They are called psychedelics.
A. Tranquillizers
B. Hallucinogens
C. Stimulants
D. Depressants
136. Drugs which produce insensibility, stupor, melancholy or dullness of
the mind with delusions.
A. Stimulants
B. Narcotics
C. Depressants
D. Hallucinogens
137. The practice or profession of having sexual intercourse for money or
profit.
A. Gynecology
B. Prostitution

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C. White Slavery
D. Sex Trade
138. The scientific name of Indian hemp plant.
A. cannabis sativa L
B. Papaver somniforum
C. deoxyribonucleic acid
D. methamphetamine HCl
139. The original components of heroin and morphine.
A. Codeine
B. Caffeine
C. Opium
D. Methamphetamine
140. An inter department agency that enforce and carry out the law against
illegal drugs.
A. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
B. Bureau of Foods and Drugs
C. Dangerous Drug Board
D. Food and Drug Administration
141. A harmful conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to depravity,
wickedness and corruption of the mind and body.
A. Vice
B. Abuse
C. Addiction
D. Virtue Answer: A
142. The most common form of stimulant.
A. Heroin
B. Codeine
C. Morphine
D. Shabu
143. 44.It is chemically known as methamphetamine hydro chloride.
A. Heroin
B. Codeine
C. Morphine
D. None of these
144. A derivative of opium which is used a cough reliever.
A. Codeine
B. Heroin
C. Morphine
D. Caffeine
145. Any part of the plant of the papaver somniferum, including the seeds.
A. opium poppy
B. marijuana

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C. caffeine components
D. codeine
146. Another term for psychological drug addiction.
A. drug habituation
B. drug net consciousness
C. drug pushing
D. drug dependence
147. Commercially produced drugs that can be legally sold or dispensed only
by a physician’s order.
A. illegal drugs
B. prohibited drugs
C. regulated drugs
D. prescription drugs
148. Any chemical substance that by virtue of its chemical nature alters the
structure and functioning of living organism.
A. Alcohol
B. Poison
C. Drug
D. Vice
149. It is, in most cases, the initial step for obtaining information to
determine the origin and cause of fire.
A. Evidence collection
B. laboratory examination of evidence
C. interview witnesses
D. interrogation of suspects
150. An extra judicial confession obtained from a suspect is admissible in a court of
law if it was made in the presence of a counsel of his own choice and must be
in
A. the presence of a fiscal
B. the presence of a police investigator
C. writing
D. front of a judge
151. Fiscals and Prosecutors are under the control and supervision of the
A.National Bureau of Investigation
B. Department of the Interior and Local Government
C. Supreme Court
D.Department of Justice
152. The questioning of a person in a formal and systematic way and is most often
used to question criminal suspects to determine their probable guilt or
innocence.
A. Inquiry
B. Interview

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C. polygraph examination
D. interrogation
153. A form of investigation in which the investigator assume a different and
unofficial identity.
A. Tailing
B. Casing
C. Espionage
D. Undercover work
154. A type of surveillance in which extreme precautions and actions are taken in
not losing the subject.
A. loose tail
B. casing
C. pony tail
D. close tail
155. A type of shadowing employed when a general impression of the

subject’s habits and associates is required.
A. loose tail
B. casing
C. pony tail
D. close tail
156. A surveillance activity for the purpose of waiting the anticipated arrival
of a suspect or observing his actions from a fixed location.
A. Casing
B. Tailing
C. Stake out
D. Espionage
157. An examination of an individual’s person, houses, or effects or a
building, or premises with the purpose of discovering contraband's or
personal properties connected in a crime.
A. Search
B. Raid
C. Investigation
D. Seizure
158. A kind of evidence that tends to prove additional evidence of a different
character to the same point.
A. Corroborative evidence
B. Circumstantial evidence
C. Direct evidence
D. Real evidence
159. The process of bringing together in a logical manner all evidence
collected during the investigation and present it to the prosecutor.
A. case preparation
B. order maintenance
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C. crime prevention
D. public service
160. Ways and means are resorted for the purpose of trapping and capturing
the law breaker during the execution of a criminal act.
A. Instigation
B. Inducement
C. Buy bust operation
D. Entrapment
161. A special qualification for an undercover agent.
A. excellent built
B. excellent eyesight
C. excellent looks
D. excellent memory
162. The discreet observation of places, persons and vehicles for the purpose
of obtaining information concerning the identities or activities of
suspects.
A. close observation
B. espionage
C. tailing
D. surveillance
163. The questioning of a person by law enforcement officers after that
person has been taken into custody.
A. preliminary investigation
B. interrogation
C. custodial investigation
D. cross examination
164. As a general rule, a warrant of arrest can be served at
A. day time
B. night time
C. any day and at any time of the day or night
D. weekdays
165. Measures through which police seek to detect crimes, or attempts to be
present when they are committed, through the use of the undercover
agents, electronic devices for wiretapping
or bugging, and stakeouts.
A. preventive measures
B. countermeasures
C. pro-active measures
D. tape measures
166. A police activity directed toward the identification and
apprehension of alleged criminals and the accumulation, preservation,
and presentation of evidence regarding their alleged crimes.
A. police patrol
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B. police intelligence
C. Criminal procedure
D. Criminal investigation
167. An extension or continuation of the preliminary investigation.
A. initial investigation
B.custodial investigation
C.secondary investigation
D.follow-up investigation
168. To obtain admission and confession of guilt is the primary purpose
of
A. Interview
B. Surveillance
C. Investigation
D.Interrogation
169. Such facts and circumstances that would lead a reasonably
discreet and prudent man to believe that an offense has been committed
and that the object sought in connection with the
offense are in the place sought to be searched.
A. prima facie evidence
B. probable cause
C. prejudicial question
D.res ipsa loquitur
170. A search warrant shall be valid for _____ days from its date.
Thereafter, it shall be void.
A. 10
B. 15
C. 30
D. 45
171. It means that a specific crime was committed at a specified time,
date and place, and that the person named in his report committed the
crime.
A. corpus delicti
B. sufficiency of evidence
C. stare decisis
D. parens patriae
172. Police seek to prevent crime by being present in places where
crimes might be committed and by alerting citizens to refrain from
practices that make them or their property vulnerable.
A. opportunity denial
B. order maintenance
C. criminal investigation
D. police intelligence

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173. A statement of the suspect directly acknowledging his guilt.

A. Admission
B. Confession
C. Deposition
D. Accusation
174. It may be a direct acknowledgement of the truth of the guilty fact
as charge or of some essential part of the commission of the criminal act
itself.
A. Admission
B. Confession
C. Deposition
D. Accusation
175. It may be a self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling
short of an acknowledgement of guilt.
A. Admission
B. Confession
C. Deposition
D. Accusation
176. The simplest type of interview which concerns with the gathering of
information regarding the personal circumstances of a person who is the
subject of investigation.
A. background interview
B. personal interview
C. intimate interview
D. pre-game interview
177. It means method of operation.
A. corpus delicti
B. parens patriae
C. stare decisis
D. modus operandi
178. It is one which induces the criminal to act and need not be shown
in order to obtain conviction.
A. Intent
B. Motive
C. Opportunity
D. Inducement
179. The three tools in criminal investigation, whereby their application
varies in proportion on their necessity to establish the guilt of the
accused in a criminal case.
A. information, interrogation, instrumentation
B. detection, apprehension, conviction ‘
C. inquiry, observation, conclusion
D. magnifying glass, pencil, tape measure

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180. The simple questioning of a person who is cooperating in the

investigation.
A. Interview
B. Inquiry
C. Interrogation
D. Instrumentation
181. It involves a number of persons who might have handled evidence
between the time of the commission of the alleged offense and the
disposition of the case, should be kept to a minimum.
A.chain of command
B.chain of custody
C.evidence tracking
D.tracing evidence
182. A kind of evidence which may link the suspect to the crime scene
or offense. Examples are fingerprints, impressions, blood etc.
A. physical evidence
B. associative evidence
C. tracing evidence
D. factual evidence
183. Articles and materials which are found in connection with an
investigation and which help in establishing the identity of the
perpetrator or the circumstances under which the crime was
committed or which in general, assist in the prosecution of the criminal.
A. physical evidence
B. documentary evidence
C. tracing evidence
D. testimonial evidence
184. The following are different techniques in interrogation except one:
A. sympathetic approach
B. emotional appeal
C. financial assistance
D. friendliness
185. This may be applicable to a crime scene which is approximately
circular or oval. The searchers gather at the center and proceed outward
along radii or spokes.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C. spiral method
D. zone method
186. The area to be searched is divided into quadrants and each
searcher is assigned to one quadrant.
A. strip method
B. wheel method

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C. spiral method
D. zone method
187. The searchers follow each other in the path of a crime scene
beginning in the outside and circling around a central point.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C.spiral method
D.zone method
188. A kind of gathering information whereby a subject is being
followed.
A. Convoy
B. Caravan
C. Tailing
D. Surveillance
189. Another term for tailing.
A.Impersonating
B.Backing
C.Supporting
D.Shadowing
190. A person who gives necessary information to the investigator. He
may give the information openly and even offer to be a witness or he
may inform the investigator surreptitiously and
request to remain anonymous.
A. Witness
B. Expert witness
C. Hostile witness
D. Informant
191. The use of an equipment or tool to listen and record discreetly
conversations of other people.
A. Bugging
B. Dubbing
C. Mimicking
D. Tapping
192. The questioning of persons not suspected of being involved in a
crime,but who knows about the crime or individuals involved in it.
A. Interrogation
B. rumor mongering
C. interview
D. inquiry
193. An objective of criminal investigation.
A. determine the motive
B. identify criminals

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C. rehabilitate criminals
D. prevent crimes
194. A term used to describe a transition which occur in the
development of a fire, when, for example, most of all the combustible
surfaces within a room are heated above their ignition temperature at
the same time.
A. Intensity
B. Ignition
C. Flash over
D. Starter
195. A term of the start of the combustion, its detailed process of a solid
is very complicated, since the proportion of different flammable vapors
varies from one material to another and contact with oxygen must take
place before combustion can begin.
A. Intensity
B. Ignition
C. Flash over
D. Starter
196. The term describes the transfer of heat through a gas or vacuum in
a similar way to that of light.
A. Ignition
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Conduction
197. The transfer of heat within a solid material from hotter to cooler
parts.
A. Ignition
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Conduction
198. The greatest concern of the firemen at the fire/crime scene is to
A. interview witnesses
B. view the site of the crime
C. preserve the fire/crime scene
D. opportunity in the fire/crime scene
199. Most malicious fires are set by individuals secretly; it is either set
for revenge or self aggrandizing; or set by psychotic fire setter, or for
sexual gratification.
A. group fire setter
B. arson for profit
C. fire starter
D. solitary fire setter

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Sociology of crimes
And ethics
***
1. A member of the PNP while on duty, whether in uniform or not should avoid
unpleasant habits which affect not only himself as an individual member, but
also the whole organization where he belongs.
a. Sleeping on duty
b. Intoxication and use of prohibited drugs
c. Partisan police activities
2. The general rule is that a member of the PNP cannot draw his firearms,
except for-
a. Necessary apprehension of criminals
b. Necessary target practice
c. Necessary inspection or lawful use
3. It is the process by which we use or manipulate representation or symbols.

a. Thinking
b. Intuition
c. Perceiving
d. Memory
4. It is everyone’s duty and obligation regardless of his intelligence, degree of

education, social standing, religion, sect, or color etc.
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a. Code of ethics
b. Public office is a public thrust
c. Faithful allegiance to the government and constitution
d. Loyalty and love of country
5. Deficiencies in the CJS can be manifested by the following circumstances,

except-
a. Poor linkage or relationship among the 5 pillars
b. Poor image or credibility of and controversies in law enforcement
c. Widespread indifference and apathy of the community
d. Proper disposition of cases by the prosecution and court
6. This involves functions of the police to ensure compliance by regulatory

means with public safety and security.
a. Implement law
b. Enforce traffic and crowd laws
c. Arrest and investigate criminals
d. Regulate non-criminal conduct
7. Which of the following does not belong to the group?

a. Assassination
b. Bombing
c. Sabotage
d. Prostitution
8. It is known as an Act Prohibiting the Employment of Children Below 15 years

of age in public and private undertakings.
a. Republic Act 7610
b. Republic Act 7658

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c. Republic Act 8551

d. Presidential Decree 603
9. Assume that you are a police officer and you found out that you have
unjustly reprimanded police officer Juan de la Cruz. The best procedure to
follow is-
a. Justify the reprimand
b. Talk to him and admit your mistakes
c. Make no apology but tolerate his behavior
d. Ignore the matter
10. This is a term applied for a specialist in the study of disorders, sometimes
interchangeably used with psychiatrist.
a. Anthropologist
b. Alienist
c. Autophobia
d. Biometry
11. Inconsistent and wise use of discretion, base on professional policing

competence, will do much to preserve good relationship and retain the
confidence of the public. This statement is __________.
a. Absolutely correct
b. Absolutely wrong
c. Maybe correct
d. Neither correct or wrong
12. What disciplinary measure, do you think, will most likely produce
discontentment and grievance?
a. Unusual strictness
b. Inconsistent administration
c. Severity of punishment
d. Impersonal attitude
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13. This theory believes that punishment should fit the criminal and not the
crime committed.
a. Positivist theory
b. Neo-classical theory
c. Classical theory
d. Differential Association Theory
14. A police officer in uniform is prohibited from carrying any package or

bundle unless it is needed in the performance of his duty. The likelihood, the
said officer will be misinterpreted to ______.
a. Have accepted favors
b. Be a comprador for his wife
c. A trim appearance while in uniform is important
d. All of the forgoing
15.Before the development of scientist theorist, this theory involved believing

that criminal behavior is caused by the possession of evil spirits.
a. Demonological
b. Classical
c. Italian
d. Neo-classical
16. A statue enacted by Congress, penal in character, which is not amendment

to the Revise Penal Code such as Republic Acts, Presidential Decrees and
Memorandum Circulars.
a. Special Law
b. Constitution
c. Revised Penal Code
d. Common Law

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17. It is a kind of early form of punishment where prisoners are shipped or

moved from one place to another for the purpose of cheap labor.
a. Slavery
b. Banishment
c. Transportation
d. Penal colony
18. Justice according to the Supreme Court is symbolically represented by a

blindfolded woman holding a sword and with a balance, meaning it is?
a. Administered with respect to persons
b. Administered without respect to persons, equality to poor and the rich
c. Administered without respect to persons. Equality to poor people
d. Administered with respect to persons, Equality and Treatment
19. Which agency is responsible for the custody and rehabilitation of youthful
offenders?
a. Boards of Pardons and Parole
b. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
c. Department of Social Welfare and Development
d. Bureau of Corrections
20. Are those who commit crime due to abnormalities or psychological

disorders. They should be exempted from criminal liability.
a. Born criminals
b. Insane criminals
c. Criminaloids
d. Criminal by passion
21. It is defined as the wise use of one’s judgment, common sense and personal
experience in deciding.
a. Discretion

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b. Decision making
c. Problem solving
22. A police officer on witness stand is not called upon to express his view
about the case, nor to tell what he heard others say about it, nor to make a
speech. Of the following, the most accurate statement of this situation is that –
a. Be courteous
b. To tell the truth and nothing but the truth
c. Do not volunteer
23. The basic weapon of a police officer is?

a. Gun
b. Uniform
c. Whistle
d. Knowledge of the law
24. It is defined as the sum total of dealings between the police and the people
it serves and whose goodwill and cooperation it craves for the greatest possible
efficiency in the service.
a. Public Relations
b. Human Relations
c. Police Community Relations
d. Police information and education
25. Which of the following is the most important function of good public
relation officers of a police station?
a. Training of police members
b. Generating community awareness and support
c. Recruiting qualified applicant

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d. Planning and special projects
26. The term “police” can be defined in two ways. This definition refers to the
creation of the police under the Constitution forming a part of the executive
department in charge in the apprehension of offenders and to execute the law.
a. As to agency
b. As to behavior
c. As to individual
d. As to organization
27. The form of child abuse that can range from habitual humiliation of the
child to withholding life-sustaining nurturing refers to –
a. Mental abuse
b. Emotional abuse
c. Physical abuse
d. Economic abuse
28. He advocated a system of classifying criminals according to bodily

measurements. Because human skeleton is unchangeable after the twentieth
year and because no two individuals are alike in all dimensions; this method of
identification received prominence in 1880’s.
a. Alphonse Bertillon
b. Charles Darwin
c. Cesar Lombroso
d. Charles Goring
29. Dominated by Pleasure principle, through which the individual is pressed

for immediate gratification of his or her desires.
a. Id
b. Ego
c. Superego

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30. The theory which states that police officers who know the wrongdoing of
another police officer will not take action against them or provide information
against them to investigators.
a. Code of ethical standards
b. Code of Secrecy
c. Blue wall of silence
31. He founded the Positive School of Criminology in the Nineteenth Century.

a. Cessare Beccaria
b. Cesare Lombroso
c. Charles Goring
d. Calvin Goddard
32. Under this ethical standard, the PNP member shall take legitimate means to
achieve goals despite of internal and external difficulties.
a. Perseverance
b. Humility
c. Orderliness
d. Integrity
33. It means more than reporting to work on time. It involves as well as every
detail of the policeman’s daily activity.
a. Protection of the underdog
b. Maltreatment of offenders
c. Punctuality to calls, requirements of duty, etc.
d. Due process of law
34. It is a morbid fear of one’s self or of being alone.

a. Monophobia
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b. Megalomania
c. Autophobia
d. Kleptomania
35. A police officer is forbidden to engage in idle conversation while on duty.

Specifically this prohibition refers to-
a. Gossip and idle talk
b. Communication outside organization
c. Vexing of humiliating other
36. It is a strategic position to prevent crime and delinquency. It receives him

when he is young, observes, supervises, and teaches him for many hours each
week during some of his most impressionable years.
a. Home
b. Religion
c. School
d. Police agency
37. One of the following is not a cause of juvenile delinquency:

a. Neglected homes
b. Police inefficiency
c. Lack of proper guidance
d. Delinquent parents
38. Police officer shall treat official business as such, and shall no impart the
same to anyone except those for whom it is intended, or as by his superior
officer, or as required by law. This Phrase describes-
a. Confession
b. Confidential information
c. criminal investigation

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d. Secrecy discipline
39. Which of the following should not released to the press by the police officer?
a. Length of investigation
b. Juveniles age
c. Juveniles name
d. Type of crime committed
40. What is meant by victimless crime?

a. There is no victim
b. There is no complaining Victim
c. The victim is dead
d. The victim knows the suspect
41. A person who commits crime due to less physical stamina or self control.
a. Criminaloids
b. Criminal by passion
c. Insane criminal
d. Born criminal
42. The center stage of Police Officers actions wherein his spectators are the
citizens he has sworn to serve with utmost dedication is the –
a. Court
b. Community
c. Police station
d. None of the foregoing
43. It is considered as the weakest pillar in the Philippine Criminal Justice

System because they fail to reform offenders and prevent them from returning
to criminal life.

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a. Police
b. Prosecution
c. Correctional institutions
d. Community
44. Who constitutes the Holy Three in Criminology?

1. Cesare Lomborso 2. Emile Durkheim
3. Enrico Ferri 4. Rafael Garofalo
a. 2, 3, and 4
b. 1, 2, and 3
c. 2, 3, and 4
d. 1, 3 and 4
45. All PNP members must have the moral courage to sacrifice self interest in
keeping with the time honored principle of _____________.
a. Delicadeza
b. Pakikisama
c. Balikatan
46. Growth, learning, maturation, are part of natural development of –

a. A child
b. An adolescent
c. Senile
d. Old age
47. May be defined as a study and investigation of crime and criminals and is
concerned with the application of knowledge regarding crime to social programs
of crime prevention and control.
a. Etiology of crime

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b. Criminalist
c. Criminology
d. Criminal process
48. Republic Act No. 8551 provides for the reorganization of the Philippine
National Police. Which of the following is NOT a guiding policy in the
preparation of reorganization plan?
a. Enhancement of community and service orientation to the police
b. Maintenance of a civilian and national police force
c. Attainment of efficiency and effectiveness
d. Adaptation of military command structures
49. They are atavists according to Lombroso because they have inherited their
criminal tendencies.
a. Born criminals
b. Criminal by Passion
c. Insane criminals
d. Criminaloids
50. Typology of crime simply means –

a. Categorization or type of crime
b. Crime situation
c. Extent of crime
d. Crime trend
51. The key to professionalism is the implementation of a _______________

program which includes the equitable distribution of recruitment, fair
promotion, rationalized approach in assignment, skills development, grant of
reward and award, and decent living upon retirement.
a. Compensation
b. Press relation officer
c. Human resource development
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d. Organizational development
52. The Neo-classical theory believes that children and lunatics should not be
regarded as criminal and punished because –
a. They are special people
b. They cannot calculate pleasure and pain
c. They cannot complain
d. They are under age
53. Ms Judith was under underweight when she was issued a temporary
appointment. What will happen to her if she does not gain the required weight
after six (6) months from her appointment?
a. She will be charge for violation of recruitment policy
b. She will be put under probation
c. She will be dismissed from one service
d. She will be reassigned
54. The goal of any juvenile justice system is to –

a. Punish children
b. Remove children from streets
c. Save children from becoming criminals
d. Ensure that children are in school
55. A police officer must wear his uniform securely buttoned at all times
because –
a. A complete uniform attracts “chicks”
b. A neat appearance commands respect
c. Loose clothing is likely to catch obstruction

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56. This political violence is used to promote political goals and employs
kidnapping, assassination and bombing to draw repressive response from
government trying to defense themselves.
a. Insurgency
b. Sabotage
c. Espionage
d. Terrorism
57. Strict code of conduct that governs the behavior of mafia members
a. Code and cipher
b. Omerta
c. Code of ethics
58. There are _____ justices that composed the Supreme Court including the
chief justice.
a. 15
b. 12
c. 20
d. 24
59. Who has the peace-keeping responsibility and to act as auxiliaries of the
law?
a. Congressman
b. Mayor
c. Barangay Captain
d. Councilors
60. According to Adolphe Quetelet, crimes against property increases during

__________.
a. Summer

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b. Winter
c. Night time
d. All of the above
61. It is term as the relationship between the victim and the offender.
a. Penal couple
b. Brotherhood
c. Married couple
62. Also known as the “Family Courts Act”.

a. Republic Act No. 9165
b. Republic Act No. 6713
c. Republic Act No. 7160
d. Republic Act No. 8369
63. The prosecutor in court hearing represents the;
a. Plaintiff
b. Defendant
c. Police investigator
d. The State and the people
64. This process see to it that no person will be deprived of life, liberty, or
property without notice of charges, legal counsel, a hearing, and an opportunity
to confront accusers.
a. Plea bargaining
b. Booking
c. Bail
d. Due process
65. Republic Act No. 6975 did not amend its provision on the ____________
power of city executives in spite of lobbying to have them in congress, the power
still remains with the National Police Commission.
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a. Hire and fire

b. Appointing
c. Promoting
d. Dismissing
66. Compulsory retirement from police service entitles one to be promoted one
rank higher from the rank he last held, for purpose of?
a. Monthly retirement
b. Retirement pay
c. Salary adjustment
d. Longevity pay
67. When a person was subjected to some shocking experiences leaving him
with painful memories, repressed and can no longer be recalled, he is suffering
from this disorder,
a. Delusion
b. Amnesia
c. Phobia
d. Dementia praecox
68. The rank of Police Senior Superintendent is required to become a,

a. Police Director
b. Police Superintendent
c. PNP Regional Director
d. Police Chief Superintendent
69. All statements are correct except one.

a. Attitudes are inherited, not learned
b. Defective character is related to deviant behavior
c. Mass media has an influence on delinquent behavior
d. Loyalty to gang compels the members to conform

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70. If Metro Manila accounts for 26% of the national total crime volume of 84,
875, How many crimes were reported to the police?
a. 22, 868
b. 22, 068
c. 20, 250
d. 32, 644
71. Sexual deviation is attained in this deviant behavior by watching nude man
or woman.
a. Exhibitionism
b. Transvertism
c. Voyeurism
d. Fetishism
72. This is an ethical standard that requires all PNP members to follow logical
procedures in accomplishing their duties in order to minimize waste of time,
money and efforts.
a. Morality
b. Justice
c. Humility
d. Orderliness
73. The mental attitude of every policemen is of vital importance in police works
because,
a. police works calls for executive abilities
b. police job requires the ability to make vital calculation
c. a police officer must keep calm in order to think clearly in an emergency and
critical situations
d. a policeman usually has to act before he has the chance to think
74. Who said that crime is normal and part of nature society?
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a. Jeremy Bentham
b. Charles Goring
c. Cesare Beccaria
d. Cesare Lombroso
75. There is ___________ if the killing was considered beforehand and that it was
motivated by more than simple desire to engage in an act of violence.
a. Implied malice
b. Deliberation
c. Premeditation
d. Express malice
76. An offender who committed an act of violence, more than nine years of age
but less than 18 at the time of the commission of the crime, is classified as,
a. Juvenile Offender
b. Adult Offender
c. Habitual Offender
d. Professional criminal
77. Under the PNP Reform Bill known as the RA 8551, thee police ranks are
maintained. What is the equivalent military rank of a Police Chief
Superintendent?
a. Colonel
b. Lt. Colonel
c. Major General
d. Brigadier General
78. The body of an _________ person is short, fat, and small-boned. He is easy-
going and a very comfortable person.
a. Mesomorph
b. Endomorph

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c. Ectomorph
d. Chronomorph
79. A behavior pattern where an individual return to a state of form adjustment
and attempt to experience them again in memory.
a. Anger
b. Phobia
c. Regression
d. Frustration
80. Police officers trained on how to deal with people in a warm and friendly
manner are more skilled in handling ____________works.
a. Media relation
b. International relation
c. Press relation
d. Public relation
81. The promulgation of the Code of Kalantiaw was in what year?

a. 1433
b. 1444
c. 1434
d. 1435
82. With a population of 195,000 and a volume crime of 2,540, in Municipality

A, What is its crime rate?
a. 1465.2
b. 1203.5
c. 1230.6
d. 1302.6
83. How do you classify a family or home condition where death, or separation,
or desertion occurred?
a. Broken home
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b. Family disintegration
c. Family migration
84. They are considered as juvenile offenders when they committed a crime at
their given ages;
1. Jimmy who is 9 years old
2. Rosa, 22 years old
3. Peter, 19 years old
4. Rodrigo, 15 years old
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 4
d. 1 and 3
85. Where war or internal conflict is present, children found in those areas are
referred to as,
a. Children of war
b. Affected children
c. Victims of situation
d. Zones of peace
86. The security preservation of the state is assumed by the PNP in the national
level, and the AFP in the external level. However, the AFP can take over primary
responsibilities over internal or national security when the situation calls for
them, as
Given below, EXCEPT,
a. There is a need for the employment of bigger tactical forces and use of higher
caliber armaments
b. Insurgents have penetrated much of the community
c. Index crimes are mostly committed
d. These are serious threats to national security and great disturbance of peace
and order

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87. The most important supervisory principle in any office in order to improve
the morale of the staff is;
a. To be fair and just
b. To be strict on attendance
c. To be kind and respectful
d. To be more forgiving
88. It is a contemporary approach that relates behavior to events taking place

inside the body, specifically the brain and the nervous system.
a. Psychoanalytic approach
b. Neurobiological approach
c. Cognitive approach
d. Phenomenological approach
89. Eviction or demolition of squatters calls for the policemen to,

a. Exercise maximum tolerance while giving security assistance
b. Exercise limited force
c. Exercise maximum force in dealing with squatters
d. Participate in actual demolition
90. What will happen to the sentence rendered by the court to a boy of 10 who
raped a girl of his age?
a. Mitigated
b. Suspended
c. Serve
d. Commuted
91. A child deserted by his parents or guardians for six continuous months is
classified as,
a. Neglected
b. Dependent
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c. Abandoned
d. Abused
92. Criminal physical anthropology refers to the study of the relationship of

crime to the ______.
a. Environment
b. Physical constitution of man
c. Given population
d. Spatial distribution of crime in a given area
93. Police immorality is exampled by,

a. Living with a woman not his wife
b. Smoking while patrolling
c. Being constantly absent from work
d. Reporting to work not in uniform
94. Which statement can be considered FALSE?

a. People in early centuries believes that man’s behavior is caused by good or
evil spirits
b. All human behaviors are motivated, that drives gives direction and sustain
action
c. Extended family is a common and accepted fact in any Filipino community
d. Religion is never necessary in the improvement of behavior
95. When may age, height, weight, and educational requirements among police
applicants be waived?
a. Only when the PNP has declared an annual quota
b. Only when the applicant has a recommendation from the mayor
c. Only when the number of qualified applicants falls below the minimum
annual quota
d. Only when all applicants have submitted their applications

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96. In a given jurisdiction, who exercises control and supervision of anti

gambling operations?
a. Police Provincial Director
b. Local Chief executives
c. Police Regional Directors
d. Chief of Police
97. A process in court pillar of our criminal justice system where the accused is
brought before the court and appraised of the formal charges and informed of
his constitutional rights. What is this process?
a. Plea bargaining
b. Custodial investigation
c. Arraignment
d. Preliminary investigation
98. Policemen reports on a three (3) working shifts. However, they sometimes
extend working hours due to,
a. Overtime pay
b. Individual discretion
c. need for more policemen
d. Inadequate manpower
99. He was referred to as the “Father of Modern Criminology”.

a. Cesare Lombroso
b. Jeremy Bentham
c. Sigmund Freud
d. Cesare Beccaria
100. The study of crime’s relation to environment is referred to –

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a. Criminal Demography
b. Criminal Epidemiology
c. Criminal Ecology
d. Criminal Physical Anthropology
101. It is the smallest unit of society composed of people who share a way of
life, a definite location and has some continuity.
a. Society
b. Population
c. Family
d. Associations
102. The Chief PNP exercises ________ since he has lawful authority over his
subordinates by virtue of his rank, position and assignment.
a. Order
b. Administration
c. Control
d. Command
103. Unusual emergencies that happens and absence of superior officers leaves
the policeman to handle the situation properly, the best procedure to follow is?
a. Take no action
b. Confer with any other superior
c. Act according to one’s judgment
d. Confer immediately with other police officers on the best action to take
104. The command and direction of the Chief PNP may be delegated to
___________ officials with respect to the units under their respective command.
a. Subordinate
b. Next-in-rank
c. Qualified
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d. Efficient
105. Who among the following can be considered an applicant to the PNP?
a. Jose, born on January 25, 1981
b. Protacio, born on February 14, 1989
c. Rizal, born on March 27, 1975
d. Mercado, born on April 1, 1969
106. The __________ is still considered as the most basic institution which has
control over the behavior of young persons.
a. Family
b. School
c. Church
d. Peer group
107. This statement is FALSE.

a. Heredity and environment play a part in the behavior of an individual
b. Fraternal twins have identical hereditary traits
c. Personality is the product of body and soul
d. Heredity is the talent transferred through the genes from parents to siblings
108. All PNP members should try to create a positive image of the police in the
eyes of the public in line with its _________ building program.
a. People’s awareness
b. Human relations
c. Image building
d. Educational
109. Police –to-population ratio in urban areas, ideally should be,

a. 1:1000

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b. 1:750
c. 1:900
d. 1:500
110. When the incarcerated convicted offender undergoes rehabilitation inside

jails, they are undergoing?
a. Institutional treatment
b. Probation
c. Parole
d. Community-based treatment
111. The Chief PNP has term of ______ years.

a. 5
b. 4
c. 3
d. 2
112. The purpose of a police public relations program is,

a. Train police officers in community relation program
b. Recruit new members for community relation program
c. Develop mutual understanding between the police and the public
d. Plan for a police-community relation program
113. This theory states that the crime and delinquency results when an
individual’s bond to society is weak or broken.
a. Social learning
b. Social structure
c. Social process
d. Social control

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114. This theory states that intelligence is largely determined genetically; that
ancestry determines IQ; and that low IQ is linked to behavior, including
criminal behavior.
a. Cultural deviance theory
b. Labeling theory
c. Nature theory
d. Strain theory
115. Excessive use of force or police brutality by some members of the PNP is a
violation of human rights and police ethical standards. It is mandated that all
PNP members shall exercise proper and ___________ use of authority in the
performance of duty.
a. Proportionate
b. Ethical
c. Effective
d. Legitimate
116. In Differential Association Theory, ______________ stressed that criminal

conduct is learned behavior and that learning occur through communication
and association with others who are with criminal mind.
a. Cesare Beccaria
b. Cesare Lombroso
c. Cesar Montano
d. Edwin Sutherland
117. They play an important role by bringing criminal events to the police.
a. Media
b. Judges
c. Jail guards
d. Janitor
118. The need to assault or injure somebody is referred to as?

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a. Need recognition
b. Need aggression
c. Need difference
d. Need order
119. Presidential Decree 603 deals with _________ offender, whose age is less
than nine but under 18 at the time of the commission of an offense.
a. Habitual
b. Professional
c. Minor
d. Adult
120. The best measure for the competence of police officer is ?

a. Command of word
b. High level of education
c. Ability to make good reports
d. High morale
121. Absence of a complaining victim in the typology of crime is classified as

public order crime or?
a. Crimes against person
b. Victimless crime
c. Physical crime
d. Public scandal
122. When PNP members and their families involved themselves in religious,
social, and civic activities in the community, it enhances ___________ which will
work well for the image of the police.
a. Camaraderie
b. Social awareness
c. Responsiveness
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d. Effectiveness
123. There is a trend in criminal activities which was studied that as one grows
older, there is also a decline in criminal activities. This is known as,
a. Aging-out phenomenon
b. Age-line curve
c. Parkinson’s law
d. Age-crime relationship
124. There are four inspection and audit authorities that conducts agency
check on the PNP. They are; The NAPOLCOM, Civil Service Commission,
Commission on Audit, and
A. NBI
b. IAS,PNP
c. DOJ
d. Presidential Management Staff
125. Appeals from the decision given by the Chief, PNP regarding a case, are
filed with the,
a. PNP Summary Disciplinary Board
b. Peoples Law Enforcement Board
c. NAPOLCOM National Appellate Board
d. NAPOLCOM Regional Appellate Board
126. A strange development of mutual feeling between the hostage and the
hostage taker due to the prolong time of negotiation is known as,
a. Camaraderie
b. Stockholm syndrome
c. Successful negotiation
d. Sympathy

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127. The law that provides care and treatment of youthful offenders from
apprehension to the termination of the case is,
a. RA 7610
b. PD 603
c. PD 6975
d. RA 6425
128. It is the unwritten authority given to police officers to make decision, using
ones own judgment based on justice and fairness.
a. Negotiation
b. Discretion
c. Arraignment
d. Plea bargaining
129. The PNP belongs to one of the most inspected and audited agencies of the
government where audit and inspection are handled by the following
authorities; NAPOLCOM, Civil Service Commission, Internal Affairs Service, PNP
and,
a. Department of Justice
b. National Bureau of Investigation
c. Commission on Audit
d. Presidential Management staff
130. This theory states that obedience to the norms of lower-class culture
places people in conflict with norms of the dominant culture.
a. Theory of anomie
b. Strain theory
c. Differential association theory
d. Culture conflict theory

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131. This theory considers delinquent behavior as result of people’s frustration

and anger over their inability to achieved legitimate social and financial
success.
a. Classical
b. Sociological
c. Labeling
d. Strain
132. Which of the following factors are considered as psychologically related to

delinquent behavior?
1. learning capacity
2. mental deficiency and retardation
3. mental psychological set-up
4. emotional imbalances
5. personal problems
a.2,3,4, and 5
b.1,2,3, and 4
c. 1,3,4, and 5
d. 1,5,4, and 3
133. Presidential Decree Number 9344, the most recent bill that deals with
youthful offenders whose age is fifteen and below, is also known as,
a. Comprehensive Juvenile Justice System
b. Juvenile Justice Welfare System
c. Juvenile Justice Welfare Code
d. Comprehensive Justice System
134. “Parens Patriae” in legal term means –

a. Parents of the accused
b. Parents of the State
c. Parents of the Victim
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135. Moral aspect of personality that judges our personality and is also known
as the conscience.
a. Id
b. Ego
c. Super ego
136. He developed the study of body build and criminal behavior or Somatotype
School, which held that manifest distinct physiques that makes them
susceptible to particular types of delinquent behavior.
a. Charles Goring
b. William Sheldon
c. Charles Darwin
d. Edwin Sutherland
137. Girls see her mother as rival for her father’s attention is termed as –
a. Oedipus Complex
b. Electra
c. Mental retardation
138. Which deals with selective law enforcement for specific problem in the
area?
a. Tactical patrol c. Police patrol
b. Horse patrol d. Beat patrol
139. The offenders who actively pursue a life of crime refer to

a. Career criminals c. Informants
b. Terrorist d. Professional Criminals
140. Which is a program that is devised by the National Sheriff’s Association

which incorporates the ancient notion of frankpledge?
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a. Bellman System c. Neighborhood Watch

b. Citizen Volunteer Program d. Either A or C
141. What is a civil wrong which the court seeks a remedy in the form of
damages to be paid?
a. Gift c. Crime
b. Tort d. None of the above
142. A crime discovered after the perpetrator has left the scene?
a. Hot crimes c. Crime Scene
b. Cold crimes d. Either A or B
143. What is an accusation based on probable cause by grand jury changing
an individual with a specific crime?
a. Pilferage c. Indictment
b. Accusation d. Inducement
144. Which is sometimes referred to as special heinous crime?
a. Infamous crime c. Crime
b. Famous crime d. Offense
145. Which is referred to as the group of citizen’s patrolling at night and

armed with rattle to call for help?
a. Watchman c. Rattle watch
b. Rattle Snake d. Bellman Patrol
146. What is the geographic territory claimed by a gang?

a. Beat c. Turf
b. Territory d. Either B or C
147. The term referring to the power of making decisions or a choice is

a. Decision – making c. Discretion
b. Vision d. Problem – solving
148. What is the component of justice that is concerned with the allocation of
the goods and burdens of society?
a. Restorative justice c. Social justice
b. Distributive justice d. Any of the above
149. Other term of “EXPIATION” is
a. Egoism c. Atonement
b. Explication d. Explanation
150. Which term is used for police officers who passively accept and take
advantage of opportunities of corruption?
a. Meat eaters c. Opportunists
b. Grass eaters d. None of the above

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Correctional
administration
***
1. It is the authority of the President of the Philippines to

suspend the execution of a penalty, reduce the sentence and
extinguish criminal liability.
A. Parole
B.Executive clemency
C. Pardon
D.President’s clemency
2. The B.J.M.P. is under the administration of the:

A. Executive Department
B. P.N.P.
C. D.I.L.G.
D. D.O.J
3. There are three (3) casework techniques applied by the parole

officer, which is not included?
A. The trick and treat techniques
B.The executive techniques
C.The guidance, counseling and leadership techniques
D.The manipulative techniques
4. The basis of this old school of penology is the human free-will.

A. Penology School
B. Classical School
C. Neo-classical
D. Positivist

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5. This helps the prisoner/detainee in the resolution of his problems

A. Meeting
B. Working
C. Recreation
D. Counseling
6. Takes charge of financial matters especially in programming,

budgeting, accounting, and other activities related to financial
services. It consolidates and prepares financial reports and
related statements of subsistence outlays and disbursements in
the operational of the jail.
A. Budget and finance branch
B. General services branch
C. Property and supply branch
D. Mess services branch
7. Operation conducted by the BJMP wherein a prisoner maybe

checked at any time. His bedding's, lockers and personal
belongings may also be opened at anytime, in his presence,
whenever possible. This practice is known as:
A. Check and balance
B. S.O.P.
C. Inventory
D. Operation Greyhound
8. Pardon cannot be extended to one of the following instances.

A. Murder
B. Brigandage
C. Rape
D. Impeachment
9. It refers to commission of another crime during service of

sentence of penalty imposed for another previous offense.
A. Recidivism
B. Delinquency
C. Quasi-recidivism
D. City prisoner
10. A person who is detained for the violation of law or ordinance

and has not been convicted is a -
A. Detention Prisoner
B. Provincial Prisoner
C. Municipal Prisoner
D. City Prisoner

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11. The following are forms of executive clemency, EXCEPT

A. Commutation
B. Reform model
C. Amnesty
D. Pardon
12. It is that branch of the administration of Criminal Justice

System charged with the responsibility for the custody,
supervision, and rehabilitation of the convicted offender.
A. conviction
B. corrections
C. penalty
D. punishment
13. Which of the following instances Pardon cannot be exercised?

A. before conviction
B. before trial
C. after conviction
D. during service of sentence
14. This is a procedure which permits a jail prisoner to pursue

his normal job during the week and return to the jail to serve
his sentence during the weekend or non-working hours.
A. Amnesty
B. good conduct time allowance
C. probation
D. delayed sentence
15. The following are the justifications of punishment, EXCEPT

A. Retribution
B. Deterrence
C. Redress
D. Expiration or atonement
16. Pardon is exercised when the person is __.

A. already convicted
B. not yet convicted
C. about to be convicted
D. serve the sentence
17. The idea that punishment will be give the offender lesson by
showing to others what would happen to them if they have
committed the heinous crime.
A. Protection
B. Deterrence
C. Lethal injection
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D.Stoning
18. For a convicted offender, probation is a form of __.

A. Punishment
B. Treatment
C. Enjoyment
D. Incarceration
19. For amnesty to be granted, there should be __.

A. Recommendation from U.N.
B. Recommendation from C.H.R.
C. Application from C.H.R
D. Concurrence of the congress
20. The head of the Bureau of Corrections is the

A. Director
B. Secretary of the DND
C. Chief of Executive
D. Prison Inspector
21. Which program plays a unique role in the moral and spiritual
regeneration of the prisoner?
A. None of these
B.Work programs
C.Education programs
D.Religious programs
22. It is a penalty wherein a convicted person shall not be permitted

to enter the place designated in the sentence or within the radius
therein specified, which shall not be more than 250 and not less
than 25 kilometers from the place designated.
A. Fine
B. None of these
C. P22.00/day
D. P19.00/day
23. Giving punishment to a person so to serve as an example to

others is the theory of
A. Self-defense
B. Social defense
C. Exemplary
D. Equality
24. The purpose of the decree on probation shall be to

A. provide an opportunity for the reformation of a
penitent offender
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B. prevent the commission of offenses

C. promote the correction and rehabilitation of an offender
by providing him with individualized treatment
D. All of these
25. In the Philippines, the most common problem of the

National Prison is
A. Excessive number of escapes
B. Overcrowding
C. Disagreement about their mess
D. Lack of adequate funding
26. A justification of penalty which states that nobody can assume

the suffering for a crime committed by others.
A. Justice
B. Personal
C. Legal
D. Certain
27. These are the factors considered in diversification, EXCEPT;

A. Age of offenders
B. Mother of offender
C. Sex of offenders
D. Medical condition
28. This branch takes charge of the preparation of the daily menu,
makes foodstuff purchases, prepares and cooks the food and
serves it to the inmates.It maintains a record of daily purchases
and consumption and submits a daily report to the warden.
A. General Services Branch
B. Mittimus Computing Branch
C. Budget and Finance
D. Mess services Branch
29. Under Article VII, Section 10 paragraph (B) of the Philippines

Constitution, pardoning power is vested with the
A. Department of Justice
B. Judiciary
C. Chief Executive
D. Legislative
30. The temporary stay of execution of sentence is called

A. Reprieve
B. Pardon
C. Communication
D. Amnesty

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31. Parole is a matter of ___.

A. Privilege
B. Right
C. Grace
D. Requirement
32. This group consists of chronic troublemakers but not as

dangerous as the super security prisoners. They are not
allowed to work outside the institution.
A. maximum security prisoners
B. super security prisoners
C. minimum security prisoners
D. medium security prisoners
33. Among the following, which has the authority to grant parole?
A. President
B. Board of Pardons and Parole
C. Director of Prison
D. Court
34. A recipient of absolute pardon is ________ from civil

liability imposed upon him by the sentence.
A. partially exempted
B. exempted
C. conditionally exempted
D. not exempted
35. It is an act of clemency which changes a heavier sentence to

a less serious one or a longer term to a shorter term.
A. Amnesty
B. Commutation
C. Reprieve
D. none of these
36. ___ is an act of grace and the recipient is not entitled to

it as a matter of right.
A. Pardon
B. Parole
C. Probation
D. none of these
37. In probation system’s philosophy and concept, it is stated

that the individual has the ability to ____ and to modify
his anti-social behavior with the right kind of help.
A. challenge
B. none of these
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C. change
D. aggravate his behavior
38. The Bureau of Corrections is under the _____.

A. Department of Social Welfare and Development
B. Department of Justice
C. Department of the Interior and Local Government
D. Department of Health
39. A person who is sentenced to serve a prison term of over three

(3) years is a _________________.
A. Municipal prisoner
B. Detention prisoner
C. National or Insular prisoner
D. City prisoner
40. The Head of Bureau of Corrections is also the

A. Chief of the Bureau of Corrections
B. Director of the Bureau of Corrections
C. Superintendent of the Bureau of Corrections
D. Warden
41. What is the type of Jails under the Supervision of the BJMP?
A. Provincial and sub-Provincial Jails
B. City and Municipal Jails
C. Lock up Jails
D. Insular Jails
42. Provincial Jails were first established in 1910 under the

American Regime. At present, who supervises and controls the
said jails?
A. BJMP
B. Provincial Government
C. DOJ
D. Municipal or City Mayor
43. What is the primary purpose of imprisonment?

A. Rehabilitation and Reformation
B. To stand trial
C. Punishment
D. Socialization
44. Which is a place of confinement for persons awaiting trial or

court action and where the convicted offenders serve short
sentences or penalty of imprisonment?
A. Jail
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B. Lock-up
C. Penitentiary
D. Detention Cells
45. Which is a warrant issued by the court bearing its seal and
signature of the judge directing the jail or prison authorities to
receive the convicted offender for service of sentence or
detention?
A. Mittimus
B. Detention Mittimus
C. Sentence Mittimus
D. Detention Warrant
46. The maintenance or care and protection accorded to people who

by authority of law are temporarily incarcerated for violation
of laws and also those who were sentenced by the court to serve
judgment is called –
A. custody
B. safe-keeping
C. classification
D. caring
47. Which of these refers to the assigning or grouping of offenders

according to their sentence, gender, age, nationality, health,
criminal record, etc.?
A. None of these
B. Custody
C. Security
D. Safe-keeping
48. The institution for dangerous but not incorrigible prisoners

in the Philippines is the
A. NBP
B. Medium Security Institution
C. Maximum Security Institution
D. Minimum Security Institution
49. The act of grace from a sovereign power inherent in the

state which exempts an individual from the punishment which the
law imposes or prescribes for his crime, extended by the President
thru the recommendation of the Board of Parole and Pardon is
called
A. Amnesty
B. Parole
C. Pardon
D. Probation
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50. Under the prison service manual, the prescribed color of prison
uniform for maximum security prison is -
A. Orange
B. Brown
C. Stripe Orange
D. Blue
51. When an inmate is given a “shakedown” before admission, it

means:
A. He has taken the process of identification, record,
fingerprint and photograph
B. He has been examined for contraband
C. His commitment paper are delivered to record clerk
D. All of these
52. An inmate maybe granted parole if he

A. earned good conduct time allowance credit
B. serve minimum sentence
C. earned good behavior while serving prison term
D. all of these
53. Aside from protecting the public, imprisonment has for its
latest objective, the
A. reformation of offenders
B. deterrence
C. segregation of offender
D. confinement of Offender
54. In the New Bilibid Prison, all medium security prisoners are
confined at the
A. NBP Main Prison
B. Camp Bukang Liwayway
C. Camp Sampaguita
D. Medium Security Prison
55. Under the prison rules, who is charged for the hearing of
disciplinary cases in prison?
A. Classification Board
B. Parole Board
C. Administrative Board
D. Disciplinary Board
56. The form of conditional release that is granted after a

prisoner has served a portion of his sentence in a correctional
A. Conditional pardon
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B. Probation
C. Parole
D. Commutation
57. In jails or prisons, which of the following is a function of

the Custodial Division?
A. Supervision of prisoners
B. Escort of inmates or prisoners
C. Keeping of records
58. The putting of offenders in prison for the purpose of protecting

the public and at the same time rehabilitating them by requiring
the latter to undergo institutional treatment program is
referred to as:
A. Imprisonment
B. Trial
C. Conviction
D. Detention
59. The Sablayan Penal Colony and Farm, a National Penitentiary in

the Philippines under the BUCOR is located in ____.
A. Palawan
B. Zamboanga
C. Davao
D. Occidental Mindoro
60. In Babylon, about 1990 BC, this is credited as the oldest

code prescribing savage punishment but in fact ___ is nearly.
100 years older
A. Hammurabic Code
B. Sumerian Code
C. Justinian Code
D. Code of Draco
61. The penalty imposed for offenders must be certain. This means
that:
A. The guilty one must be the one to be punished, no proxy.
B. No one must escape its effect
C. It must be equal for all persons
D. The consequence must be in accordance
with law.
62. The following are the duties of the custodial force in prison,
except:
A. Censor offender’s items
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B. Escort inmates
C. Inspect security devices
D. Conduct disciplinary hearing
63. As a rule, when a jailbreak, escape or riot is in progress or has

just been perpetuated in the jail, the officer at the control
centers shall immediately:
A. sound the alarm
B. locked prisoners in their respective cells
C. Notify the nearest police precinct
D. call the warden or the director
64. In case of mass jailbreak, all members of the custodial force

shall immediately issued firearms and assigned to critical posts to:
A. plug off the escape routes
B. to shoot the escapees
C. protect the other inmates
D. to give warning shots
65. Which of these is known as the Adult Probation Law, which

grants probation to prisoner sentenced to term in prison of not
more than six (6) years?
A. PD 603
B. RA 698
C. PD 968
D. PD 869
66. The continuing relationship between probation officer and

probationer is known as –
A. Affiliation Guidance
B. Pre-sentenced Investigation
C. Supervision
D. Probation Guidance
67. Those who have been once on probation under the Probation
Law:
A. are qualified to apply for probation
B. are disqualified to apply for probation
C. may be granted for another probation
D. should be confined in prison
68. This pillar/component of our criminal justice system has been

regarded the weakest pillar due to its failure to eliminate
recidivism and habitual offenders.
A. law enforcement
B. prosecution
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C. court
D. correction
69. The traditional goal of penology is

A. Retribution
B. Deterrence
C. Incapacitation
D. Rehabilitation
70. The attempt to prevent future crimes through fear of

punishment.
A. Retribution
B. Deterrence
C. Incapacitation
D. Rehabilitation
71. The task of changing an offender’s attitude so that he or she

may not commit another crime in the future.
A. Retribution
B. Deterrence
C. Incapacitation
D. Rehabilitation
72. The idea that re-entry of an offender should be in the

mainstream of society rather than the usual abrupt re-entry
at the end of a prison sentence.
A. Reintegration
B. Deterrence
C. Incapacitation
D. Rehabilitation
73. They were known as Bridewells, which started in 1553 and

served as training schools for delinquent youths, provided
housing and support for older and poorer persons,
and detained vagrants.
A. House of Corrections
B. Workhouses
C. Common jails
D. Penal colonies
74. It direct, supervise and control the administration and operation

of all district, city and municipal jails to implement a better
system of jail management nationwide
A. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
C. Bureau of Corrections
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D. Parole and Probation Administration
75. It exercise supervision and control over provincial jails.

A. BJMP
B. Bureau of Corrections
C. Provincial Government
76. An agency under the Department of Justice that is charged with

custody and rehabilitation of national offenders, that is, those
sentenced to serve a term of imprisonment of more than three
(3) years
A. BJMP
77. The New Bilibid Prison, the Correctional Institution for Women
(CIW), Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm, and Sablayan Prison and
Penal Farm are all under this agency.
A. BJMP
D. Department of Justice
78. An attached agency of the Department of Justice which provides

a less costly alternative to imprisonment of offenders who are
likely to respond to individualized community based treatment
programs.
A. BJMP
79. Prisoners whose sentences are more than three years to capital
punishment are considered
A. municipal prisoners
B. provincial prisoners
C. city prisoners
D. insular prisoners
80. Prisoners whose sentences are from one day to six months are
A. municipal prisoners
B. provincial prisoners
C. city prisoners
D. insular prisoners
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81. A prison model which sought penitence (hence the term

penitentiaries) through total individual isolation and silence.
A. Pennsylvania Prison Model
B. Auburn Prison Model
C. Work Release
D. Halfway Houses
82. A prison model where incarcerated persons are allowed to work

outside the institution that houses them.
A. Pennsylvania Prison Model
B. Auburn Prison Model
C. Work Release
D. Halfway Houses
83. An alternative to incarceration granted after a convicted person

served a part of his sentence and is allowed to complete a
sentence at large, subject to restrictions and supervision.
A. Probation
B. Work release
C. Parole
D. Halfway houses
84. An alternative to incarceration that allow convicted persons

to remain at large and under varying degrees of restriction
and supervision and certain conditions imposed by the
granting court.
A. Probation
B. Work release
C. Parole
D. Halfway houses
85. A correctional institution that has the authority to detain

persons awaiting trial or adjudication or confine convicted
offenders for a short period of time.
A. Halfway houses
B. Penal colonies
C. Jails
D. All of these
86. A correctional institution that has the authority to detain

convicted offenders for longer or extended period of time,
including those who are waiting their death sentence.
A. Halfway house
B. Farm house
C. Jail
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D. Prison
87. The law creating the Bureau of Jail Management and Penology.
A. RA 8551
B. RA 9165
C. RA 6975
D. RA 4890
88. Who among the following is a provincial prisoner?

A. A prisoner serving a term below six (6) years
B. A prisoner serving a term of six (6) years and up
C. A prisoner serving a term of six (6) months and one
(1) day to three (3) years
D. A prisoner serving a term of three (3)years and one
(1) day up
89. This theory in criminology states that people are totally

responsible for their behaviors and the stress is more on the
effect of their felonious act than upon the criminal.
A. Positivist Theory
B. Psychological Theory
C. Biological Theory
D. Classical Theory
90. Which of the following is an executive clemency that requires

the concurrence of congress?
A. Probation
B. Pardon
C. Amnesty
D. Parole
91. The Parole and Probation Administration administers the _____

Correctional Program.
A. Institutional
B. Integrated
C. Community – based
D. Traditional
92. A minimum and maximum amount of time to be served in prison is

referred to as
A. a corporal punishment
B. a determinate sentence
C. an indeterminate sentence
D. a capital punishment
93. Pedro was required to provide financial remuneration for the

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losses incurred by the victim. What is the type of penalty

described?
A. Bond
B. Retribution
C. Restitution
D. Remuneration
94. What kind of program employs prisoners in various product or

good producing tasks?
A. Agricultural
B. Operational
C. Industrial
D. Administrative
95. What crimes apparently have no complaining victims such as

gambling, prostitution and drunkenness?
A. Complex Crime
B. Compound Crime
C. Blue Collar crimes
D. Victimless crimes
96. Which agency performs the evaluation of prisoner’s fitness and

qualifications for the grant of pardon or parole?
A. Punishment, confinement retribution, treatment
B. Retribution, Deterrence, incapacitation, rehabilitation
C. Deterrence, retribution, punishment treatment
97. Which of the following should a probationer avoid?

A. Make periodic report
B. Go and play in the gambling den
C. Work regularly to support family
D. Stay away from bad associates.
98. The Supreme Court automatically reviews the cases of criminals

convicted and meted out the penalty of
A. 12 years 6 months and one day
B. Death
C. Life imprisonment
D. 6 years one month and one day
99. The ________ theory in crime causation focuses on the criminal

disorders, chromosomes irregularity and abnormal brain activity.
A. None of these
B. Age Reform
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C. Age of Discernment
D. Age of Reason
100. What correctional institution houses accused persons awaiting

trial?
A. Rehabilitation center
B. Jail
C. Halfway house
D. Prison
101. Articles 1706 - 1727 of the revised Administrative Code as

amended is known as
A. Correction Law
B. Jail Management Law
C. Prison Law
D. Parole and Probation Law
102. The mechanical device or contrivance, tools or implement used

to hold back, keep in check or under control is the
A. Instrument of Restraint
B. Iron leg Lock
C. Handcuffs
D. Metallic chains
103. Who is tasked with the gathering and collecting of information

and other data of every prisoner into a case study to determine
the work assignment, the type supervision and degree of
custody and restriction under which an offender must live in jail?
A. Classification Board
B . Board of Custody
C. Diagnostic Board
D. Treatment Board
104. The imprisonment a convicted offender may serve, at the rate

of PhP8.00 a day subject to certain rules, for failure to pay a
fine and if ordered to do so by the judgment is referred to as
A. Subsidiary imprisonment
B. Secondary imprisonment
C. Preventive imprisonment
105. The meaning of the word oblivion is

A. forgetting completely
B. class of persons
C. abolish
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D. community based treatment
106. The process of determining the needs and requirements of

prisoners for assigning them to programs according to their
existing resources is called:
A. classification
B. quarantine
C. diversification
D. quality control
107. Public humiliation or public exhibition also mean:

A. public execution
B. social degradation
C. banishment
D. public trial
108. During the 16th up to the 18th century, a criminal may be sent
away from a place carried out by prohibition to coming against a
specified territory. This is an ancient form of punishment called:
A. Exile
B. Transportation
C. Banishment
D. Public trial
109. One of the following represents the earliest codification of the

Roman law, which was incorporated into the Justinian Code.
A. Twelve Tables
B. Burgundian Code
C. Code of Draco
D. Hammurabic code
110. In the history of correction, thinkers during the reformatory

movement were the major influences of today’s correctional
system. Alexander Macanochie was the one who introduced the __
of correction
A. Solitary system
B. Irish System
C. Marked System
D. Congregate system
111. What law renamed the Bureau of Prison to Bureau of Correction

during the Aquino administration in the Philippines?
A. E.O 727
B. E.O 292
C. E.O 645
D. E.O 104
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112. Retaliation is the earliest remedy for a wrong act to any one (in
the primitive society). The concept follows that the victim’s
family or tribe against the family or tribe of the offender, hence
“blood feuds” was accepted in the early primitive societies.
Retaliation means:
A. Personal Vengeance
B. Tooth for a tooth
C. Eye for an Eye
D. All of these
113. In 1936, the City of Manila exchanges its Muntinlupa property

with the Bureau of Prisons originally intended as a site for boys’
training school. Today, the old Bilibid Prison is now being used as
the Manila City Jail, famous as the :
A. “ May Halique Estate”
B. “Tandang Sora State”
C. New Bilibid Jail
D. Muntinlupa Jail
114. The sheriff of Bedsfordshire in 1773 who devoted his life and
fortune to prison reform.After his findings on English Prisons, he
recommended the following: single cells for sleeping, segregation
of women, segregation of youth, provision of sanitation facilities,
and abolition of fee system by which jailers obtained money from
prisoners.
A. John Howard
B. Robert Peel
C. William Penn
D. Manuel Montesimos
115. Mr. Cruz was convicted of the crime of murder. After 10 days
from the promulgation of the sentence, he escaped from his
place of confinement. He maybe
A. liable for evasion of service of sentence
B. considered as an escaped prisoner
C. not liable for evasion of service of sentence
D. All of these
116. Ms. Bantog was convicted for the crime of infanticide. After
serving her sentence she committed again the same crime.Ms.
Ines Bantog maybe considered as a
A. recidivist
B. quasi-recidivist
C. habitual delinguent
D. mentally retarded person
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117. Ramon, a basketball player, arrested Berto for some legal ground
but he failed to file a complaint against the latter with in the
prescribed period of filing. What crime did Ramon committed?
A. arbitrary detention
B. illegal Detention
C. illegal arrest
D. no crime committed
118. The Camp Sampaguita of the national Bilibid Prison houses

A. Super Maximum Security Prisoners
B. Maximum Security Prisoners
C. Medium Security Prisoners
D. Minimum Security Prisoners
119. The only early Roman place of confinement which was built
under the main sewer of Rome in 64 B.C.
A. Bridewell Workhouse
B. Wulnut Street Jail
C. Burgundian House
D. none of these
120. The punishment should be provided by the state whose sanction

is violated, to afford the society or individual the opportunity of
imposing upon the offender suitable punishment as might be
enforced. Offenders should be punished because they deserve
it.This is one justification of punishment called:
A. Atonement
B. Incapacitation
C. Deterrence
D. Retribution
121. The purpose of commutation of sentence is to:

A. do away with the miscarriage of justice
B. break the rigidity of the law
C. restore the political and civil rights of the accused
D. all of the above
122. One of the following is an admission procedure which involves

the frisking of the prisoner.
A. Identification
B. Searching
C. Briefing/Orientation
D. minimum security prisoners
123. If the warden is taken as the hostage, for all intents and
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purposes, he ceases to exercise authority and the next in

command or the __________ officer present shall assume the
command.
A. Veteran
B. Assistant
C. Most senior
D. Custodian
124. Upon receipt of the probation officer investigation report, the

court shall resolve the application for probation not later than-
A. 60 days
B. 5 days
C. 15 days
D. 45 days
125. Who is the Father of Philippine Probation?

A. Jose Lacson
B. Juan Ponce Enrile
C. Antonio Torres
D. None of these
126. What is the country, whose early schemes for humanizing the
criminal justice under it’s common law, originated probation.
A. England
B. United States
C. Greece
D. France
127. Which of the following does not belong to the common law
practices to which the emergence of probation is attributed?
A. Recognizance
B. Reprieve
C. Benefit of the Clergy
D. Penance
128. Benefit of clergy, judicial reprieve, sanctuary, and abjuration

offered offenders a degree of protection from the enactment of
A. harsh sentences
B. soft sentences
C. criminal liabilities
D. code of Hammurabi
129. In the United States, particularly in Massachusetts, different

practices were being developed. "Security for good behavior,"
also known as good aberrance, was much like modern bail.
A. Penalizing
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B. Good aberrance
C. Paying in cash
D. Collateral
130. Who among the following was the builder hospice of San
Michelle, a reformatory for delinquent boys
A. Montesquieu
B. Pope Clement XI
C. Samuel Romily
D. John Howard
131. The advocate of ultimate prison known as “the Panopticon” was

A. Jeremy Bentham
B. Samuel Romily
C. Walter Crofton
D. John Howard
132. The founder of the Classical School of Criminology and published

a short treaties “ On Crimes and Punishments” which contains
his reformatory ideas was
A. Jeremy Bentham
B. Cesare Lombroso
C. Cesare Beccaria
D. Enrico Ferri
133. Diversification means

A. Proper integration of prisoners
B. Proper classification of prisoners
C. Proper segregation of prisoners
D. Welfare of prisoners
134. Filipino female national prisoners are confined at the

A. Mental hospital
B. CIW
C. Manila City Jail
D. Iwahig Penal Colony
135. An offender who surrenders from escaping because of calamity

immediately 48 hours after the pronouncement of the
passing away of calamity shall be granted
A. 1/5 reduction of sentence
B. ½ reduction of sentence
C. 2/5 reduction of sentence
D. 2/6 reduction of sentence
136. What is the name of the prison institution situated in

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Zamboanga, named after Capt. Blanco of the Spanish Royal

Army?
A. Old Bilibid Prison
B. Sablayan Prsions and Penal Farm
C. San Ramon Prison & Penal Farm
D. Iwahig Penal
137. A branch or division of law which defines crimes, treat of their

nature and provides for their punishment
A. Remedial law
B. Criminal law
C. Civil law
D.Political law
138. One who investigates for the court a referral for probation or
supervises a probationer or both
A. police officer
B. probationer officer
C. intelligence officer
D. law enforcer
139. Post sentence investigation report must be submitted by the

probation officer to the court within
A. 20 days
B. 30 days
C. 60 days
D. 90 days
140. Parole in the Philippine is governed by the

A. determinate sentence law
B. Indeterminate sentence law
C. Board of pardon and parole
D. Parole and probation administration
141. A detention jail in Philadelphia but it was converted into state

prison and became the first American penitentiary.
A. Auburn Prison
B. Walnut Street Jail
C. Pennsylvania Prison
D. Bride Well
142. The system of prison were the confinement of the prisoners in

single cells at night and congregate work in stop during the
day.
A. Pennsylvania prison
B. Auburn prison
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C. Elmira reformatory
D. Alcatraz prison
143. Under the rules, the chairman of the classification board and
disciplinary board for jails should be
A. Warden
B. Assistant warden
C.Custodial officer
D. Security officer
144. A special group of prisoners composed of incorrigible, intractable

and dangerous persons who are so difficult to manage inside
prisons.
A.Medium Security prisoners
B. Maximum security prisoners
C. Super maximum security prisoners
D. Minimum Security Prisoners
145. One of the following is considered as the corner stone in

reformation n which includes all the life experiences which
shape a persons attitudes and behaviors.
A. Recreational program
B. Religious program
C. Educational program
D. Work program
146. It involves supervision of prisoners to insure punctual and

orderly movement from the dormitories, place of work, hospital
and churches in accordance with the daily schedules.
A. Control
B. Custody
C. Discipline
D. Inspection
147. It is a special unit in prison where by newly arrived prisoners

will be admitted for diagnostic examination, observation
A. Reception and Diagnostic Center
B. Medium Security Compound
C. Maximum Security Compound
D. Minimum Security Compound
148. Under the jail rules, the following are authorized disciplinary
measures imposable to inmate offender except
A. Reprimand
B. Cancellation of visiting privilege
C. Cancellation of food allowance
D. Extra fatigue duty
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149. The principle of an “eye for an eye” “tooth for a tooth” doctrine
is common among ancient laws, specifically t
A. Code of Draco
B. Hammurabic Code
C. Summerian Code
D. Code of Solomon
150. “Lex Tallionis” means

A. Punishment
B. Law of retaliation
C. Retribution
D. Suffering
151. These were abandoned or unusable transport ships use to

confine criminals during the early period of treating criminal
offenders.
A. Hulks
B. Gaols
C. Transportation
D. Galleys
152. He wrote his book “State of the Prisons” and he was also
considered as the great prison reformer.
A. John Howard
B. John Augustus
C. William Penn
D. Domets of France
153. The first house of correction in London England was the

B. Walnut Street Jail
C. Mamertine Prison
D. Panopticon
154. ___ - known as the “Rock” build in San Francisco Bay

A. Walnut prison
B. Alcatraz prison
C. New York prison
D. Red Rock penitentiary
155. Anything that is contrary to prison or jail rules and regulations

are considered
A. Firearms
B. Contrabands
C. Greyhounds
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D. Personal belongings
156. It is the suffering that is inflicted by the state for the

transgression of a law for the purpose of controlling criminals.
A. Prevention
B. Revenge
C. Penalty
D. All of the above
157. Parole and Probation Administration is under the direction of

the
A. Department of Finance
C. Department of Interior and Local Government
D. BJMP
158. What is nature in hearing the violation of a probation?

A. Formal
B. Summary
C. Due process
159. Which is considered the forerunner of parole?

A. Mark system
B. Solitary system
C. Benefits of a clergy
D. Congregate system
160. The following are considered as discretionary conditions of

probation except
A. Drinking intoxicated liquor to excess
B. Abstain from visiting house of ill repute
C. Meet his family responsibilities
D. Cooperate with the program of probation
161. The first convict in the Philippines, sentenced to death by

means of Lethal injection was
A. Baby Ama
B. Asiong Salonga
C. Leo Echagaray
D. Gregorio S. Mendoza
162. In the 13th C, a criminal could avoid ________ by claiming

refugee in a church for a period of 40 days at the end of which time he has compelled
to leave the realm by a road or path
assigned to him.
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A. Penalty
B. punishment
C. trial
D. conviction
163. Long, low, narrow, single decked ships propelled by sails, usually
rowed by criminals, a type of ship used for transportation of
criminals in the 16th century. This referred to as the:
A. Gaols
B. Galleys
C. Hulks
D. Stocks
164. The Classical School of penology maintains the “doctrine of

psychological hedonism” or __________. That the individual
calculates pleasures and pains in advance of action and
regulates his conduct by the result of his calculations.
A. denied individual responsibility
B. free will
C. pleasures and avoiding pain
D. natural phenomenon
165. History has shown that there are three main legal systems in the
world, which have been extended to and adopted by all
countries aside from those that produced them. Among the
three, it was the _____ that has the most lasting and most
pervading influence.
A. Mohammedan Law
B. Anglo-American Law
C. Roman Law
D. Hammurabic Code
166. Hanging is for death penalty, maiming is for

A. Social degradation
B. Exile
C. Physical torture
D. Slavery
167. Who is the Director of the English Prison who opened the Borstal
Institution for young offenders? The Borstal Institution is
considered as the best reform institution for young offenders
today.
A. Evelyn Brise
B. Manuel Montesimos
C. Zebulon Brockway
D. Walter Crofton
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168. The __________ is considered forerunner of modern penology

because it has all the elements in a modern system.
B. Elmira Reformatory
C. Wulnut Street Jail
D. Borstal Institution for Boys
169. Capital punishment refers to:

A. Life imprisonment
B. Death Penalty
C. Reclusion Perpetua
D. All of these
170. One of the following is not an administrative function exercised

by the executive branch of the government.
A. Probation
B. Pardon
C. Parole
D. Amnesty
171. Pardon granted by the Chief Executive

A. extinguishes criminal liability of offender
B. does not extinguish civil liability of offender
C. must be given After the prosecution of the offense
D. all of the above
172. The enactment of Republic Act no. 6975 created the BJMP. It
operates as a line bureau under the Department of Interior and
Local Government (DILG). This statement is:
A. partially true
B. partially false
C. true
D. false
173. The Jail Bureau shall be headed by a chief with a rank of

Director General, and assisted by Deputy Chief with the Rank of
Chief Superintendent. This statement is:
A. partially true
B. partially false
C. true
D. false
174. The group having the responsibility of providing a system of

sound custody, security and control of inmates and their
movements and also responsible to enforce prison or jail
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discipline is the:
A. Security group for jails
B. Escort Platoon
C. Control Center groups
D. Warden
175. A unit of the prison or a section of the RDC where the prisoner is
given thorough physical examination including blood test, x-rays,
vaccinations and immunity is the:
A. Quarantine cell
B. NBP
C. Death row
D. Control Area
176. Imprisonment is not always advisable. Placing a person to

custodial coercion is to place him in physical jeopardy, thus
drastically narrowing his access to source of personal
satisfaction and reducing his self-esteem. This principle is based
on the ____ of community based treatment programs.
A. Restorative aspect
B. Humanitarian aspect
C. Managerial aspect
D. Legal aspect
177. The case where the Supreme Court laid down the doctrine that
the absolute pardon removes all that is left of the consequences
of conviction, and that it is absolute in so far it restores the
pardonee to full civil and political rights.
A. Cristobal vs. Labrador
B. Fernandez vs. Aquino
C. People vs. Galit
D. None of these
178. The power of the chief Executive to grant pardon is limited to

the following, except:
A. Pardon can not be extended to cases of impeachment.
B. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for the
violation of any election law may be granted without
favorable recommendation of the Commission
of Elections.
C. Pardon is exercised only after conviction
D. Pardon is administered by the court
179. In determining the fitness of a prisoner for release on conditional

pardon, the following points shall be considered as guides,
except:
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A. The political, organizational or religious affiliation of the

prisoner should be disregarded.
B. Due regard should be given the attitude of the people in
the community from which he was sentenced.
C. The background of the prisoner before he was committed
to prison – social, economic.
D. Financial capacity of the prisoner.
180. Prisoners who are nearly to leave the institution, awaiting

transfer,those in disciplinary status, and those who are
chronically ill with mental disabilities are considered:
A. unassignable prisoners to undergo prison programs
B. all of these
C. special group of offenders
D. minimum security prisoners
181. Parole is not claimed as a right but the Board of Parole grants it
as a privilege to a qualified prisoner. This statement is:
A. partially true
B. partially false
C. true
D. false
182. Every violation of jail/prison discipline shall be dealt with

accordingly. In extreme cases, where the violation necessitate
Immediate action, the warden or the Officer of the Day may
administer the necessary restraints and reports the action
taken to
A. an SOP
B. an emergency plan
C. a general rule
D. not applicable to prisoners
183. Which of the following is a maximum security prison in Ossining,

New York, USA? It is located approximately 30 miles (48 km)
north of New York City on the banks of the Hudson River which
the Auburn Prison system was applied
A. Alcatraz prison
B. Sing Sing Prison
C. Wulnut Street Jail
D. Silver Mine Farm
184. A ___, also called a 'block' or 'isolation cell', used to separate

unruly, dangerous, or vulnerable prisoners from the general
population, also sometimes used as punishment.
A. Segregation Unit
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B. Reception Unit
C. Quarantine Unit
D. Cell 45
185. What is the place in some prisons, or a section in prisons where

criminals are placed awaiting execution?
A. Execution room
B. Death row
C. Garotine
D. Galley room
186. The Auburn system is a penal method of the 19th century in

which persons worked during the day in groups and were kept in
solitary confinement at night, with enforced silence at all times.
The Auburn system is also known as
A. Albany system
B. Irish system
C. New York System
D. None of these
187. Bedford Hills Correctional Facility for Women is a prison in

Bedford Hills, Westchester County, New York, USA. It is the
largest women's prison in New York State and has hosted many
infamous prisoners. It is the only women's maximum security
prison in New York State. This statement is:
A. True
B. False
C. Partially true
D. Partially false
188. The Panopticon is a type of prison building designed by English

philosopher Jeremy Bentham in 1785. The concept of the design
was derived from the word meaning of “pan” and “opticon”.
“Opticon’ means:
A. to allow an observer to observe
B. with out the prisoner
C. avoid watching
D. To walk in military manner
189. Elmira Correctional Facility, known otherwise as ___, is a

maximum security prison located in New York in the USA. The
prison is located in Chemung County, New York in the City of
Elmira.
A. “the school”
B. “the hill”
C. “the rock”
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D. “the dungeon”
190. Who among the following was given the title “father of Prison
Reform” in the United States?
A. Zebulon Brockway
B. Robert Peel
C. John Howard
D. Alexander Macanochie
191. It is the idea that the moral worth of an action is solely

determined by its contribution to overall utility, that is, its
contribution to happiness or pleasure as summed among all
persons. It is thus a form of consequentialism, meaning that the
moral worth of an action is determined by its outcome—the ends
justify the means.
A. Hedonism
B. Positivism
C. Determinism
D. Penology
192. The concept of probation, from the Latin word “probatio” which
means ___, has historical roots in the practice of judicial
reprieve.
A. walk with faith
B. live with integrity
C. testing period
D. out of prison
193. In the history of capital punishment, what do they call this

frame, typically wooden, used for execution by hanging?
A. Galley
B. Gallows
C. Hulk
D. Double blade
194. Lethal injection refers to the practice of injecting a person with

a fatal dose of drugs for the explicit purpose of causing the
death of the subject. The main application for this procedure is
capital punishment. Which of the following drug is injected to
stops the heart thus causing death by cardiac arrest?
A. Sodium thiopental
B. Pancuronium
C. Potassium chloride
D. Bicarbonate
195. Execution by electrocution (referred to as the Electric Chair) is

an execution method originating in the United States in which
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the person being put to death is strapped to a specially built

wooden chair and electrocuted through electrodes placed on
the body. In the Philippines, its first use was in :
A. 1924
B. 1976
C. 1972
D. 1918
196. Who was the British prison administrator and reformer, and
founder of the Borstal system?
A. Zebulon Brockway
B. Alexander Mocanochie
C. Evelyn Ruggles Brise
D. Sir John Watson
197. Besides religious laws such as the Torah, important codifications

of laws were developed in the ancient Roman Empire, with the
compilations of the Lex Duodecim Tabularum.This law refers to
A. the Corpus Juris Civilis
B. the Twelve Tables
C. the Hammurabic code
D. lex taliones
198. The first permanent system of codified laws could be found in

China, with the compilation of the
A. Tang Code
B. Wong Code
C. Ting Code
D. Chang Code
199. Opponents of capital punishment claim that a prisoner's isolation

and uncertainty over their fate constitute a form of mental
cruelty and those especially long-time death row inmates are
liable to become mentally ill, if they are not already. This is
referred to as
A. death row phenomenon
B. Cruelty syndrome
C. Execution syndrome
D. None of these
200. After individuals are found guilty of an offense and sentenced to

execution, they will remain on death row while following an
appeals procedure, if they so choose, and then until there is a
convenient time for __.
A. Execution
B. Pardon
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C. Parole
D Amnesty
***ANSWER KEY***
CRIMINAL LAW BOOK 1

1 F 18 A 35 D 52 A 69 A 86 I 103 A 120 B
2 A 19 B 36 A 53 B 70 A 87 A 104 B 121 B
3 A 20 D 37 A 54 A 71 B 88 A 105 A 122 A
4 A 21 C 38 C 55 C 72 A 89 A 106 B 123 B
5 A 22 C 39 D 56 A 73 E 90 A 107 B 124 A
6 B 23 D 40 D 57 A 74 F 91 A 108 A 125 A
7 C 24 B 41 B 58 A 75 A 92 D 109 B 126 B
8 A 25 C 42 B 59 D 76 A 93 D 110 B
9 B 26 A 43 A 60 E 77 A 94 B 111 A
10 B 27 A 44 C 61 A 78 B 95 A 112 A
11 C 28 C 45 E 62 A 79 A 96 A 113 B
12 A 29 B 46 A 63 A 80 B 97 A 114 B
13 A 30 B 47 A 64 A 81 B 98 B 115 B
14 B 31 B 48 B 65 A 82 A 99 D 116 A
15 A 32 D 49 C 66 A 83 A 100 A 117 B
16 B 33 C 50 A 67 A 84 A 101 B 118 A
17 B 34 B 51 A 68 A 85 A 102 A 119 A
CRIMINAL LAW BOOK II

127 A 167 B 204 A 245 A 285 B 325 A 364 B 404 D 444 A
128 A 168 F 205 C 246 A 286 A 326 A 365 D 405 F 445 A
129 B 169 C 206 I 247 A 287 A 327 A 366 A 406 B 446 A
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130 A 170 B 207 A 248 C 288 E 328 A 367 A 407 A 447 D

131 A 171 D 208 A 249 A 289 A 329 B 368 B 408 B 448 A
132 C 172 B 209 B 250 A 290 A 330 A 369 A 409 A 449 B
133 B 173 A 210 B 251 A 291 B 331 D 370 C 410 B 450 A
134 E 174 C 211 A 252 A 292 D 332 A 371 B 411 D 451 B
135 A 175 A 212 B 253 A 293 A 333 A 372 C 412 E 452 D
136 A 176 A 213 A 254 A 294 A 334 D 373 A 413 E 453 C
137 B 177 C 214 A 255 A 295 E 335 B 374 C 414 C 454 D
138 D 178 B 215 A 256 A 296 C 336 A 375 A 415 B 455 A
139 B 179 A 216 C 257 A 297 B 337 A 376 A 416 B 456 B
140 A 179A C 217 D 258 C 298 A 338 B 377 A 417 B 457 A
141 A 179B A 218 F 259 A 299 B 339 B 378 A 418 B 458 A
142 D 179C E 219 A 260 A 300 B 340 A 379 C 419 A 459 A
143 B 180 D 220 A 261 A 301 A 341 A 380 A 420 A 460 A
144 B 181 B 221 B 262 A 302 A 342 A 381 B 421 D 461 A
145 D 182 D 222 B 263 A 303 B 343 382 A 422 C 462 A
146 A 183 A 224 A 264 A 304 A 344 A 383 A 423 A 463 D
147 B 184 A 225 A 265 A 305 A 345 H 384 A 424 D 464 D
148 A 185 B 226 B 266 A 306 A 346 E 385 A 425 D 465 B
149 A 186 A 227 E 267 A 307 B 347 A 386 A 426 C 466 A
150 B 187 A 228 C 268 B 308 A 348 A 387 D 427 A 467 A
151 B 188 B 229 B 269 B 309 D 349 E 388 D 428 A 468 A
152 C 189 B 230 A 270 A 310 B 350 A 389 A 429 A 469 A
153 A 190 E 231 B 271 G 311 A 351 A 390 B 430 A 470 A
154 A 191 B 232 C 272 A 312 B 352 D 391 B 431 B 471 D
155 D 192 A 233 A 273 A 313 A 353 A 392 A 432 B 472 B
156 C 193 C 234 A 274 A 314 D 354 B 393 A 433 C 473 A
157 A 194 A 235 A 275 B 315 B 354A B 394 D 434 D 474 E
158 A 195 C 236 A 276 A 316 A 355 B 395 D 435 A 475 E
159 B 196 B 237 A 277 B 317 A 356 A 396 D 436 D 476 A
160 C 197 A 238 A 278 D 318 A 357 B 397 A 437 C 477 A
161 C 198 A 239 A 279 B 319 A 358 A 398 A 438 A 478 C
162 C 199 A 240 B 280 A 320 A 359 A 399 C 439 A 479 A
163 F 200 A 241 A 281 C 321 A 360 A 400 D 440 E 480 A
164 A 201 A 242 A 282 A 322 B 361 B 401 D 441 D 481 E
165 A 202 A 243 C 283 A 323 A 362 A 402 C 442 A 482 A
166 A 203 A 244 A 284 B 324 A 363 E 403 C 443 B 483 A
484 B 524 A 564 B 604 A 644 B 684 B

485 C 525 A 565 E 605 D 645 B 685 B
486 A 526 A 566 A 606 B 646 B 686 A

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487 F 527 A 567 A 607 A 647 B 687 G

488 B 528 B 568 A 608 E 648 B 688 B
489 A 529 A 569 C 609 D 649 A 689 D
490 C 530 B 570 A 610 A 650 B 690 A
491 K 531 A 571 D 611 D 651 A 691 C
492 D 532 A 572 A 612 A 652 B 692 C
493 D 533 K 573 A 613 B 653 A 693 A
494 A 534 A 574 A 614 B 654 A 694 A
495 B 535 A 575 D 615 B 655 A 695 A
496 A 536 C 576 A 616 E 656 E 696 A
497 A 537 A 577 A 617 A 657 A 697 A
498 A 538 F 578 A 618 B 658 E 698 A
499 B 539 A 579 B 619 K 659 A 699 A
500 I 540 A 580 D 620 B 660 D 700 D
501 E 541 A 581 F 621 B 661 B 701 B
502 A 542 A 582 A 622 D 662 E 702 C
503 A 543 B 583 D 623 A 663 A 703 B
504 F 544 A 584 A 624 B 664 B 704 A
505 A 545 B 585 B 625 E 665 A 705 A
506 A 546 G 586 A 626 B 666 E 706 A
507 B 547 A 587 A 627 A 667 F 707 A
508 A 548 A 588 A 628 A 668 J 708 A
509 A 549 A 589 B 629 B 669 A 709 A
510 B 550 A 590 E 630 A 670 B 710 A
511 B 551 F 591 F 631 B 671 D
512 A 552 A 592 A 632 B 672 B
513 A 553 A 593 A 633 C 673 B
514 A 554 F 594 B 634 A 674 A
515 A 555 A 595 A 635 B 675 A
516 B 556 A 596 A/B 636 A 676 A
517 B 557 C 597 B 637 A 677 B
518 D 558 A 598 A 638 B 678 B
519 A 559 B 599 K 639 D 679 E
520 C 560 A 600 D 640 A 680 E
521 A 561 A 601 D 641 C 681 A
522 C 562 A 602 A 642 L 682 B
523 A 563 A 603 C 643 A 683 A
LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION
1 B 41 D 81 D 121 C 161 A 201 A 241 B 281 A 321 A
2 C 42 C 82 A 122 C 162 C 202 D 242 A 282 B 322 D
3 43 A 83 A 123 D 163 A 203 B 243 A 283 D 323 C

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4 D 44 A 84 D 124 A 164 D 204 C 244 C 284 D 324 C

5 A 45 A 85 D 125 A 165 C 205 B 245 C 285 C 325 C
6 C 46 C 86 A 126 A 166 D 206 D 246 B 286 B 326 C
7 A 47 C 87 D 127 C 167 B 207 A 247 B 287 B 327 C
8 B 48 A 88 D 128 B 168 C 208 A 248 B 288 A 328 B
9 D 49 D 89 A 129 C 169 C 209 D 249 D 289 B 329 A
10 C 50 B 90 D 130 B 170 C 210 D 250 B 290 B 330 D
11 C 51 A 91 D 131 B 171 A 211 A 251 C 291 C 331 B
12 B 52 A 92 C 132 D 172 D 212 B 252 C 292 D 332 C
13 C 53 C 93 C 133 C 173 B 213 A 253 D 293 C 333 A
14 C 54 A 94 B 134 B 174 B 214 D 254 A 294 A 334 D
15 C 55 B 95 D 135 A 175 D 215 B 255 B 295 B 335 A
16 C 56 D 96 A 136 B 176 D 216 C 256 D 296 A 336 B
17 A 57 B 97 B 137 C 177 C 217 B 257 D 297 A 337 A
18 A 58 B 98 D 138 C 178 C 218 B 258 C 298 D 338 B
19 A 59 D 99 C 139 C 179 D 219 B 259 B 299 C 339 D
20 C 60 B 100 D 140 C 180 A 220 D 260 A 300 B 340 D
21 A 61 A 101 D 141 A 181 D 221 B 261 D 301 D 341 C
22 A 62 B 102 B 142 C 182 D 222 D 262 C 302 A 342 B
23 B 63 B 103 D 143 C 183 C 223 B 263 A 303 A 343 B
24 C 64 A 104 D 144 B 184 A 224 B 264 B 304 B 344 A
25 B 65 C 105 B 145 D 185 B 225 B 265 D 305 IV 345 A
26 C 66 C 106 A 146 B 186 C 226 D 266 D 306 D 346 B
27 B 67 C 107 C 147 B 187 D 227 C 267 D 307 B 347 A
28 B 68 D 108 C 148 A 188 A 228 A 268 D 308 A 348 B
29 C 69 A 109 A 149 C 189 B 229 D 269 A 309 C 349 D
30 D 70 C 110 C 150 B 190 A 230 C 270 D 310 B 350 D
31 B 71 D 111 B 151 B 191 B 231 A 271 D 311 D 351 A
32 D 72 D 112 D 152 B 192 D 232 C 272 C 312 D 352 C
33 C 73 A 113 B 153 B 193 C 233 C 273 B 313 B 353 A
34 C 74 D 114 C 154 A 194 A 234 C 274 A 314 C 354 A
35 C 75 C 115 155 C 195 A 235 A 275 A 315 A 355 C
36 D 76 A 116 B 156 D 196 D 236 D 276 A 316 C 356 A
37 D 77 B 117 C 157 A 197 D 237 C 277 C 317 C 357 A
38 C 78 D 118 A 158 C 198 B 238 D 278 C 318 B 358 A
39 C 79 B 119 B 159 A 199 B 239 A 279 C 319 B 359 B
40 C 80 D 120 A 160 D 200 C 240 A 280 C 320 D 360 C
LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION CRIMINALISTICS
361 C 406 A 451 C 490 A 522 B 1 D 41 A 81 D
362 B 408 B 452 A 491 A 523 D 2 C 42 A 82 B
363 B 409 A 453 B 492 A 524 D 3 A 43 D 83 A

REVIEWER
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364 A 410 D 453 A 493 B 525 A 4 D 44 C 84 A

365 A 411 B 454 D 494 C 526 D 5 B 45 C 85 C
366 C 412 D 455 C 495 B 527 C 6 A 46 C 86 B
367 B 413 A 456 B 496 528 C 7 A 47 C 87 B
368 D 414 B 457 C 497 B 529 D 8 D 48 D 88 B
369 B 415 C 458 A 498 C 9 D 49 A 89 A
370 A 416 A 459 C 499 A 10 B 50 B 90 B
371 B 417 A 460 A 500 A 11 D 51 B 91 D
372 A 418 B 461 A 501 B 12 D 52 A 92 A
373 B 419 B 462 C 502 C 13 D 53 D 93 B
374 B 420 A 463 B 503 C 14 D 54 D 94 B
375 D 421 D 464 B 504 D 15 B 55 D 95 B
379 D 422 D 465 B 497 D 16 C 56 B 96 A
380 A 423 D 466 D 498 B 17 C 57 D 97 A
381 B 425 B 467 A 499 B 18 D 58 A 98 B
382 D 426 C 468 A 500 C 19 B 59 A 99 D
383 A 427 D 469 B 501 D 20 C 60 D 100 A
384 B 428 C 470 A 502 C 21 C 61 B 101 C
385 D 429 C 471 B 503 C 22 B 62 D 102 C
386 B 430 D 472 C 504 D 23 D 63 D 103 B
387 A 431 C 473 B 505 D 24 C 64 A 104 D
388 A 432 D 474 B 506 B 25 D 65 B 105 D
389 A 433 A 475 A 507 B 26 A 66 A 106 B
390 C 435 D 476 D 508 A 27 B 67 B 107 A
391 B 436 A 477 D 509 B 28 D 68 A 108 B
392 A 438 C 478 A 510 B 29 C 69 A 109 C
393 A 439 B 479 A 511 A 30 C 70 D 110 A
394 A 440 C 480 A 512 D 31 B 71 C 111 B
397 A 441 D 481 B 513 C 32 D 72 C 112 B
398 C 442 A 482 B 514 B 33 C 73 D 113 A
399 D 443 A 483 A 515 C 34 B 74 B 114 B
399 B 444 D 484 C 516 B 35 B 75 A 115 A
400 B 445 B 484 C 517 D 36 B 76 C 116 B
401 C 446 A 485 E 518 D 37 C 77 A 117 C
402 C 447 A 487 D 519 D 38 D 78 B 118 B
403 C 449 C 488 B 520 B 39 C 79 B 119 C
405 B 450 C 489 A 521 C 40 D 80 D 120 A
CRIMINALISTICS
121 B 161 A 201 C 241 B 281 B 321 B 361 C 401 C 441 A
122 B 162 B 202 B 242 C 282 A 322 B 362 B 402 A 442 D
123 D 163 A 203 D 243 D 283 C 323 A 363 B 403 B 443 A

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124 A 164 C 204 D 244 D 284 A 324 A 364 C 404 D 444 A

125 C 165 A 205 B 245 B 285 B 325 B 365 B 405 B 445 B
126 B 166 B 206 C 246 B 286 C 326 C 366 A 406 A 446 B
127 A 167 A 207 A 247 A 287 B 327 D 367 A 407 A 447 B
128 A 168 A 208 A 248 B 288 C 328 B 368 B 408 A 448 B
129 C 169 A 209 B 249 A 289 B 329 A 369 A 409 A 449 B
130 B 170 A 210 A 250 A 290 D 330 B 370 C 410 B 450 C
131 C 171 B 211 A 251 D 291 A 331 A 371 B 411 B 451 A
132 C 172 A 212 C 252 C 292 B 332 D 372 A 412 A 452 D
133 C 173 C 213 C 253 A 293 A 333 C 373 D 413 B 453 B
134 B 174 A 214 A 254 A 294 D 334 B 374 B 414 B 454 A
135 A 175 B 215 B 255 D 295 A 335 B 375 C 415 D 455 B
136 A 176 A 216 D 256 D 296 B 336 A 376 A 416 B 456 C
137 A 177 A 217 A 257 B 297 A 337 C 377 B 417 D 457 B
138 B 178 B 218 C 258 B 298 B 338 A 378 C 418 C 458 B
139 D 179 B 219 B 259 A 299 A 339 B 379 D 419 B 459 A
140 A 180 A 220 A 260 C 300 A 340 A 380 D 420 B 460 B
141 A 181 C 221 A 261 A 301 A 341 D 381 B 421 A 461 A
142 A 182 D 222 B 262 C 302 A 342 A 382 C 422 B 462 B
143 D 183 A 223 A 263 B 303 A 343 A 383 A 423 A 463 B
144 A 184 B 224 A 264 A 304 A 344 B 384 B 424 C 464 B
145 A 185 C 225 B 265 C 305 B 345 B 385 B 425 A 465 D
146 B 186 A 226 A 266 C 306 A 346 A 386 B 426 D 466 B
147 A 187 B 227 A 267 A 307 A 347 B 387 B 427 B 467 B
148 C 188 A 228 B 268 D 308 B 348 C 388 D 428 B 468 C
149 B 189 D 229 B 269 B 309 D 349 B 389 B 429 C 469 B
150 A 190 B 230 A 270 A 310 A 350 B 390 A 430 D 470 A
151 A 191 A 231 B 271 A 311 A 351 A 391 C 431 B 471 B
152 C 192 C 232 A 272 C 312 D 352 A 392 B 432 C 472 C
153 B 193 C 233 B 273 D 313 E 353 B 393 B 433 B 473 A
154 B 194 A 234 A 274 A 314 A 354 A 394 B 434 B 474 D
155 B 195 C 235 D 275 C 315 B 355 C 395 D 435 B 475 C
156 B 196 A 236 B 276 B 316 A 356 B 396 B 436 D 476 A
157 C 197 C 237 A 277 A 317 A 357 B 397 A 437 B 477 B
158 A 198 D 238 D 278 B 318 B 358 B 398 B 438 B 478 A
159 A 199 D 239 A 279 A 319 B 359 C 399 D 439 B 479 B
160 C 200 A 240 D 280 A 320 D 360 C 400 D 440 B 480 B
481 B 521 D 561 A 601 C 641 D 681 C

482 B 522 A 562 B 602 B 642 D 682 C
483 B 523 B 563 A 603 A 643 B 683 A

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484 A 524 D 564 B 604 B 644 C 684 A

485 D 525 C 565 C 605 A 645 A 685 A
486 A 526 D 566 B 606 C 646 A 686 A
487 A 527 A 567 B 607 D 647 A 687 D
488 C 528 A 568 C 608 C 648 C 688 A
489 B 529 C 569 A 609 A 649 A 689 D
490 D 530 B 570 C 610 A 650 C 690 B
491 C 531 B 571 B 611 B 651 B 691 D
492 A 532 D 572 A 612 A 652 A 692 B
493 C 533 A 573 D 613 B 653 A 693 A
494 A 534 A 574 B 614 D 654 B 694 B
495 C 535 B 575 A 615 C 655 A 695 D
496 B 536 C 576 C 616 A 656 A 696 D
497 C 537 B 577 D 617 D 657 D 697 A
498 A 538 D 578 A 618 C 658 C 698 B
499 D 539 B 579 C 619 A 659 B 699 A
500 A 540 B 580 B 620 D 660 C 700 D
501 A 541 B 581 B 621 C 661 C 701 D
502 A 542 C 582 C 622 C 662 A 702 D
503 A 543 D 583 D 623 A 663 C 703 B
504 A 544 D 584 D 624 B 664 A 704 C
505 A 545 D 585 D 625 A 665 B 705 A
506 A 546 B 586 B 626 A 666 C
507 A 547 D 587 C 627 B 667 B
508 A 548 C 588 C 628 A 668 B
509 B 549 C 589 A 629 A 669 C
510 B 550 B 590 B 630 D 670 A
511 A 551 A 591 A 631 C 671 A
512 A 552 C 592 D 632 C 672 A
513 C 553 A 593 A 633 B 673 C
514 C 554 D 594 A 634 A 674 B
515 D 555 D 595 D 635 C 675 C
516 A 556 A 596 A 636 C 676 A
517 C 557 A 597 C 637 D 677 A
518 D 558 B 598 D 638 A 678 A
519 A 559 D 599 A 639 A 679 A
520 A 560 B 600 B 640 B 680 A
CRIME DETECTION & INVESTIGATION
1 B 26 B 51 A 76 C 101 D 126 C 151 D 176 A
2 D 27 A 52 D 77 B 102 D 127 D 152 D 177 D

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3 C 28 A 53 D 78 C 103 B 128 B 153 D 178 B
4 C 29 C 54 C 79 B 104 A 129 D 154 D 179 A
5 B 30 C 55 B 80 B 105 D 130 B 155 A 180 A
6 D 31 B 56 C 81 A 106 A 131 A 156 C 181 A
7 C 32 C 57 B 82 D 107 A 132 D 157 A 182 C
8 C 33 B 58 C 83 A 108 A 133 D 158 A 183 A
9 C 34 C 59 B 84 A 109 A 134 B 159 A 184 C
10 A 35 C 60 D 85 C 110 C 135 B 160 D 185 B
11 B 36 D 61 B 86 B 111 A 136 B 161 D 186 D
12 D 37 C 62 C 87 B 112 B 137 B 162 D 187 C
13 D 38 B 63 D 88 D 113 C 138 A 163 B 188 C
14 D 39 C 64 D 89 D 114 D 139 C 164 C 189 B
15 C 40 B 65 D 90 A 115 A 140 A 165 C 190 B
16 B 41 B 66 B 91 C 116 B 141 A 166 D 191 A
17 C 42 D 67 A 92 C 117 A 142 D 167 D 192 C
18 D 43 C 68 D 93 A 118 A 143 D 168 D 193 B
19 B 44 C 69 B 94 A 119 A 144 A 169 B 194 C
20 D 45 B 70 C 95 A 120 D 145 A 170 A 195 B
21 A 46 B 71 D 96 B 121 B 146 D 171 A 196 C
22 C 47 A 72 C 97 A 122 B 147 D 172 A 197 D
23 B 48 B 73 A 98 B 123 B 148 C 173 B 198 C
24 D 49 A 74 A 99 A 124 C 149 C 174 B 199 D
25 C 50 D 75 D 100 A 125 A 150 C 175 A
SOCIOLOGY OF CRIMES AND ETHICS CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION
1 D 34 A 67 B 100 B 133 A 1 B 34 D 67 B 100 B 133 C 166 C 199 A

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2 A 35 D 68 D 101 C 134 C 2 C 35 B 68 D 101 C 134 B 167 C 200 A
3 B 36 C 69 A 102 D 135 C 3 A 36 B 69 B 102 A 135 B 168 B
4 C 37 B 70 B 103 C 136 B 4 B 37 C 70 B 103 A 136 C 169 B
5 D 38 D 71 C 104 B 137 B 5 D 38 B 71 D 104 A 137 B 170 A
6 A 39 C 72 D 105 B 138 A 6 A 39 D 72 A 105 A 138 A 171 D
7 D 40 B 73 C 106 A 139 A 7 D 40 B 73 B 106 C 139 C 172 C
8 A 41 A 74 B 107 B 140 C 8 D 41 B 74 A 107 B 140 B 173 D
9 B 42 B 75 C 108 C 141 B 9 C 42 B 75 C 108 C 141 B 174 A
10 A 43 C 76 A 109 D 142 B 10 A 43 A 76 B 109 A 142 B 175 A
11 A 44 D 77 D 110 A 143 B 11 B 44 A 77 B 110 C 143 B 176 A
12 B 45 A 78 B 111 B 144 A 12 B 45 C 78 D 111 B 144 B 177 A
13 C 46 B 79 C 112 C 145 C 13 B 46 A 79 D 112 A 145 C 178 D
14 A 47 C 80 D 113 D 146 C 14 D 47 A 80 A 113 A 146 A 179 D
15 A 48 D 81 A 114 B 147 C 15 C 48 B 81 A 114 A 147 A 180 D
16 A 49 A 82 D 115 D 148 D 16 A 49 C 82 B 115 A 148 D 181 B
17 C 50 A 83 A 116 D 149 C 17 B 50 A 83 C 116 A 149 B 182 C
18 D 51 C 84 C 117 A 150 D 18 B 51 B 84 A 117 B 150 B 183 B
19 C 52 B 85 D 118 B 19 D 52 D 85 C 118 C 151 A 184 A
20 B 53 C 86 C 119 C 20 A 53 A 86 D 119 D 152 A 185 B
21 A 54 C 87 A 120 D 21 D 54 C 87 C 120 D 153 A 186 C
22 B 55 B 88 B 121 B 22 B 55 D 88 C 121 D 154 B 187 A
23 D 56 D 89 A 122 B 23 C 56 C 89 D 122 B 155 B 188 A
24 C 57 B 90 B 123 A 24 D 57 B 90 C 123 C 156 C 189 B
25 B 58 A 91 C 124 B 25 D 58 A 91 C 124 B 157 B 190 A
26 D 59 C 92 B 125 C 26 B 59 D 92 C 125 D 158 B 191 A
27 B 60 B 93 A 126 B 27 B 60 B 93 C 126 A 159 A 192 C
28 A 61 A 94 D 127 B 28 D 61 B 94 C 127 D 160 C 193 B
29 A 62 D 95 C 128 B 29 C 62 D 95 D 128 A 161 C 194 C
30 C 63 D 96 B 129 C 30 A 63 A 96 D 129 B 162 D 195 A

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31 B 64 D 97 C 130 D 31 A 64 A 97 B 130 B 163 B 196 C
32 A 65 A 98 D 131 D 32 A 65 C 98 B 131 A 164 C 197 B
33 C 66 B 99 A 132 A 33 B 66 C 99 A 132 C 165 C 198 A

REVIEWER

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CRIMINOLOGY POINTERS FREE CRIMINOLOGY Q AND A

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CRIMINOLOGY POINTERS FREE CRIMINOLOGY Q AND A

CRIMINOLOGY POINTERS FREE CRIMINOLOGY Q AND A

CRIMINOLOGY POINTERS FREE CRIMINOLOGY Q AND A

20. Which of these is requisite of self defense?

CRIMINOLOGY POINTERS FREE CRIMINOLOGY Q AND A

CRIMINOLOGY POINTERS FREE CRIMINOLOGY Q AND A

41.Those who directly force or induce others to commit it is a principal by what?

50. A fine, shall be considered an afflictive penalty, if it exceeds 6,000 pesos; a

CRIMINOLOGY POINTERS FREE CRIMINOLOGY Q AND A

54. Offenders who have undergone preventive imprisonment shall be credited in

CRIMINOLOGY POINTERS FREE CRIMINOLOGY Q AND A

59. Which of this is effect of presidential pardon?

60. Which of these is pecuniary liability of the offender?

CRIMINOLOGY POINTERS FREE CRIMINOLOGY Q AND A

67. Aggravating circumstances which in themselves constitute a crime specially

68. There is no increase in the penalty with respect to any aggravating

73: Which of these is a rule regarding computation of penalty of indivisible

CRIMINOLOGY POINTERS FREE CRIMINOLOGY Q AND A

d. When both mitigating and aggravating circumstances attended the

74. Which of these is a rule to be followed in the application of penalties which

CRIMINOLOGY POINTERS FREE CRIMINOLOGY Q AND A

86. Which of these is a total mode of extinguishment of criminal liability?

CRIMINOLOGY POINTERS FREE CRIMINOLOGY Q AND A

h. By pardon by offended party

87. Crimes punishable by death, reclusion perpetua or reclusion temporal shall

92. Criminal liability is extinguished partially:

CRIMINOLOGY POINTERS FREE CRIMINOLOGY Q AND A

99. The (subsidiary) civil liability shall include:

CRIMINOLOGY POINTERS FREE CRIMINOLOGY Q AND A

b. Reparation of the damage caused;

105. Those grounds for exemption from punishment because there is

109. The exempting circumstance presupposes that the accused is compelled by

CRIMINOLOGY POINTERS FREE CRIMINOLOGY Q AND A

116. It is a circumstance characterized by trickery or cunning resorted to by the

CRIMINOLOGY POINTERS FREE CRIMINOLOGY Q AND A

120. This aggravating circumstance takes place when an entrance is affected by a

124. It means a group of two or more persons collaborating, confederating, or

CRIMINAL LAW BOOK TWO

CRIMES AGAINST NATIONAL SECURITY

CRIMINOLOGY POINTERS FREE CRIMINOLOGY Q AND A

128. No person shall be convicted of treason unless on the testimony of two

132. Which of these is an act of “espionage”?

133. Who is the father of organized military espionage?

134. Which of these is Provoking war and disloyalty in case of war?

CRIMINOLOGY POINTERS FREE CRIMINOLOGY Q AND A

142. When is a piracy qualified? (Penalty Reclusion perpetua to death)

CRIMINOLOGY POINTERS FREE CRIMINOLOGY Q AND A

c. Whenever the crime is accompanied by murder, homicide, physical injuries

145. Which of these is a legal ground to detain another?

CRIMINOLOGY POINTERS FREE CRIMINOLOGY Q AND A

152. Which of these is qualified violation of domicile?

155. The crime of Prohibition, interruption and dissolution of peaceful meetings is

CRIMINOLOGY POINTERS FREE CRIMINOLOGY Q AND A

156. Which of these is Crimes against religious worship?

158. What is qualified interruption of religious worship?

159. This is committed by anyone who, in a place devoted to religious worship or

161. This crime is a swift attack accompanied by violence, intimidation, threat,