2 U P C A T 2 0 1 5 – S e t B 2

SECTION 2: SCIENCE PROFICIENCY NAME: _________________________________

Time -– 50 minutes SCHOOL: _______________________________
60 Questions (86 – 145) SIMULATED EXAM – SET B

For each question, decide which is the best answer choice, and darken the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

86. Which among the following reasons why does 89. According to the Dust-Cloud theory, the earth
biodegradable waste should not be thrown into and other planets formed within the large
the sea? rotating disk of gas and dust which produced the
A. Marine life will die from odoriferous smell. sun as its center. In the earliest stage of earth, it
B. Garbage takes out the nutrients in the sea. is a smaller disk of dust and gas rotating within
C. Eutrophic abundance of nutrients among the larger cloud. In some time, this cloud began
algae. to shrink and condensed. This is also the theory
D. Carbon compounds will be placed in of other terrestrial planet as these gases were
reverbed systems. compressed by a gravitational force. What is the
proof that Earth’s core is hotter than Mercury’s?
87. What geologic structure is formed when a A. Distance of earth in the sun is greater as
tectonic plate converges another plate, after compared to mercury
which magma erupts to the surface? B. Presence of active volcano in earth is greater
A. ridge as compared to mercury
B. fault C. Presence of atmospheric ice in earth
C. mountain D. Earth’s rotational speed is lesser than
D. volcano mercury

88. Solar winds or solar flares are violent events in 90. A farmer is planning to invest in buying land in
the sun. They are sudden eruptions which sprays an arid area. Which among the following should
fountains of hot gases 100,000 miles or more the farmer consider if he is planning to build a
out into space. Which of the following is a business in that area?
manifestation of solar winds? A. Build state of the art irrigation system
A. Gases circulating in mars B. Convert hills into plains
B. Comets revolve around the sun C. Buy arid area adapting plants
C. Brilliant displays of auroras in the north and D. Make the area for mineral and coal mining
south polar
D. Concave lens can concentrate sun’s energy
and can burn objects in earth

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91. Geothermal power stations are similar to other
steam turbine thermal power stations wherein A.
heat from a fuel source, such as the Earth’s core,
is used to heat water or another working fluid.
The working fluid is then used to turn a turbine
of a generator, thereby producing electricity. The B.
fluid is then cooled and returned to the heat
source. Resources of geothermal energy range
from the shallow ground to hot water and hot
rock found a few miles beneath the Earth's C.
surface, and down even deeper to the extremely
high temperatures of molten rock called magma.
Where would be a good area to put a geothermal
plant, aside from near an active volcano? D.
A. sedimentary basin
B. under seawater
C. on top of a mountain
D. along the shoreline 94. Given the Moh’s Scale:
Mineral Scale Number
92. Which of the rock formations in the diagram is Talc 1
the youngest? Gypsum 2
Calcite 3
Fluorite 4
Apatite 5
Orthoclase 6
C
B Quartz 7
Topaz 8
Corundum 9
A
D E Diamond 10

A finger nail has an index of 2.3 while a window

A. A glass has an index of 5.8. What mineral can a
B. B fingernail scratch?
C. C A. Gypsum
D. D and E B. Calcite
C. Topaz
D. Window Glass
95. Weathering is the natural disintegration and
93. Which among the sun-earth-moon position will decomposition of rocks and minerals. Why is
give a maximum high-tide at night? weathering not possible in the moon?

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A. Moon’s gravity is 1/6 of the earth. will hit the Philippines even before Typhoon
B. Moon revolves around the earth and not in Yolanda entered the country but they did not
the sun. expect the damages to be that massive. The
C. Moon has no atmosphere. storm surge that accompanied Yolanda was
D. Moon has large and dark craters. described as tsunami-like. This is somehow
reminiscent of the tsunami that hit Japan in the
96. Cloud seeding can be done by dispersing Silver year 2011. Tsunamis can be created when there
Iodide or dry ice (solid carbon dioxide) into is a sudden disturbance on the Earth’s crust and
clouds to induce precipitation. Cloud seeding has deformation on the sea floor. This deformation
also been used to dissipate fog, modify vertically displaces the overlying water and
hurricanes, and decrease lightning and hail in creates violent underwater disturbance. What is
thunderstorms. The results have been the main characteristic of tsunamis that
remarkable but never guaranteed increase differentiates it from a storm surge?
precipitation on all trials. The Beijing Weather A. Tsunamis are tidal waves.
Modification Office has researched on the B. Tsunamis are created when a body of water
application of cloud seeding to control weather. is displaced usually by an earthquake.
During the 2008 Beijing Olympics, the Chinese C. Tsunamis are always accompanied by
governments executed cloud seeding to clear the typhoons and other forms of weather
air of pollutants and to keep it from raining over disturbances.
the Bird’s Nest stadium while the games were D. Tsunamis are single waves that only hit the
going on. They managed to deliver as they have shorelines by the Pacific Ocean.
promised. What could be an obvious negative
effect of cloud seeding in China? 98. Global climate change is being attributed to the
A. Excessive precipitation and unanticipated atmospheric increase in which two gases
drought produced as by-products of human activities?
B. Significant increase of Silver contamination A. nitrous oxide and sulfur dioxide
on crops and water B. methane and carbon dioxide
C. Unpredictable weather C. ozone and carbon dioxide
D. Increase in thunderstorms and typhoons that D. ozone and methane
may hit the country within the same year of
cloud seeding in the area

99. Stars are self-luminous celestial bodies

97. Storm surge is an abnormal rise of water
generated by a storm. It creates a change in the
water level due to the presence of the storm. The
rise may come rapidly, flooding coastal lowlands
in the process. PAGASA predicted a storm surge
consisting of a mass of gas held together by its
own gravity. On the other hand, planets and
moons do not produce their own light. Both
Jupiter and Venus are described as the two most
luminous planets because they appear as bright
stars with the unaided eye on certain times of the

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year. What would be the best explanation for this
occurrence?
A. Jupiter and Venus have bright moons that
illuminate them.
B. The gases of Jupiter and Venus are in
continuous combustion on their surface,
therefore giving off a bright appearance.
C. Jupiter and Venus created an impact from
collision with asteroids from space, thus
formation of visible fireballs.
D. They both reflect sunlight efficiently which
make them stand out from the other planets.
100. The Law of Superposition states that
undisturbed strata of sedimentary rock, the
oldest rock layer is at the bottom, the youngest
at the top. If geologists can determine which way
was originally “up” in a stack of layers, they can
put those strata in the correct historical order.
Rarely, after a sequence of layers has been
deposited and compressed to form rock, it may
be literally overturned by the thrusting of the
Earth’s crust as continental plates collide. In rare
cases like this, how can the original sequence of
the rocks be determined?
A. Collect samples in near-by undisrupted
areas.
B. They cannot be determined.
C. Carbon-date the fossils that are formed
within the sedimentary rock layers
D. They are totally in the reverse order of oldest
to youngest
101. The following star colors are arranged from
highest to lowest temperature:
Blue >> White >> Yellow >> Orange >> Red
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This is a picture of the different layers of a star:
Image from: buffonescience7.wikispaces.com
The star’s core is where the light and energy-
producing reactions take place. Stars are fuelled
in by the nuclear fusion reactions at their core. In
most stars, the core is the hottest part unless the
star runs out of its current fuel and starts fusing
elements in a shell around its core out to the
surface or the photosphere. While these shells
are burning they are the temporary hotspots of
the star, while the core gets hotter and hotter.
Given that the following stars have sufficient fuel,
which is the hottest?
A. Core of a young blue star
B. Core of the Sun
C. Corona of the Sun
D. Photosphere of a white dwarf star
102. Which statement best explains why the same side
of the Moon is viewed from Earth as the Moon
goes through its phases?
A. The Moon does not rotate as it revolves
around Earth.
B. The Moon’s period of rotation equals Earth’s
period of rotation.
C. The Moon’s period of rotation equals Earth’s
period of revolution around the Sun.
D. The Moon’s period of rotation equals the
Moon’s period of revolution around Earth.
103. Plate tectonic movement stretch, bend and strain
rocks. Most rocks resist these forces brought by
contact. There is a possibility that the crust,
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which is made up of rocks, snaps when too much A. Nucleus  RER  Lysosomes  Golgi-
force from contact occurs and earthquake can complex
materialize. Which of the following best explains B. RER  Nucleus  Lysosomes  Golgi-
this phenomenon? complex
A. All rocks have an elastic limit. C. Nucleus  RER  Golgi-complex 
B. Human activities increase surface temperature Lysosomes
of Earth which loosens the crust and allows D. Lysosomes  Nucleus  RER  Golgi-
movement to occur complex
C. Rapid decrease of underground water that
stiffens the Earth’s mantle 106. A man affected with Hemophilia, a genetic
D. Deep ground oil drilling induces vibration disease that manifests with defective blood
that loosens the rocks on the crust. clotting mechanism. He is married to a carrier
woman who is 60 years old. They have a son, 20
104. Nitrates occur in small amounts and are required years old and daughter who is 30 years old. What
for proteins to function. Nitrates, in excess is the probability of the daughter having that
concentration in streams and other surface disease?
waters can accelerate aquatic plant growth A. 0%
causing rapid oxygen depletion. In addition to B. 25%
that, nitrates at high concentrations in surface C. 50%
and groundwater used for human consumption D. 75%
are toxic for the children. Children could have
the blue-baby syndrome which affects the ability 107. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

of the blood to carry oxygen. This syndrome is A. DNA has thymine while RNA has uracil.

very fatal and may increased susceptibility to B. DNA is a helical structure while RNA is a

illness and may even result to death. Which straight chain structure.

among the following is an advantage of having C. DNA does not have “oxygen” component in

nitrates? the 2-carbon ribose while RNA has.

A. Nitrates, in high percentages of D. DNA can only be found in nucleus while RNA

concentration, are used by plants to make can only found in ribosomes.

food.
B. Nitrates can cure the so-called blue-baby
syndrome.
C. Nitrates maintain sustainability of life.
D. All of the above

105. A genetic code for an enzyme will be transcribed 108. Fungal spores germinate to form haploid hyphae.

and translated to synthesize it. What is the In some fungi, such as mushrooms, the fusion of

correct pathway in order to manufacture an hyphae results in a unique dikaryotic phase in

enzyme? their life cycles, in which each cell contains two

haploid nuclei from different parents. The

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dikaryotic mycelium forms a fruiting body - the
mushroom – in which the specialized cell will
fuse. These diploid cells will produce new
generation of spores. Which of the following
statement is TRUE about the reproduction of
fungi?
A. The cells in the mushroom will undergo
mitosis to form the new generation of
spores.
B. The cells in the mushroom will undergo
meiosis to form the new generation of
spores.
C. Spores produced are diploid.
D. The cells in the fruiting body have haploid
chromosomes.
109. Some flowers are wind pollinated and some are
insect pollinated. Which of the following is the
characteristic of a wind pollinated flower most
likely to have?
A. Produce large fruits
B. Small flowers with inconspicuous petal
C. Flowers with large ovules and ovary
D. Less allergies related to pillar grains
110. Tadpoles eat algae while frogs eat insects. What
is the possible effect on the morphological
difference of tadpole and insects?
A. Tadpoles have gills while frog have lungs
B. Tadpoles have fins while frogs have arms and
legs.
C. Tadpoles has longer intestines while have
shorter one.
D. Tadpoles have slimy skin while frog have
porous skin.
111. Which among the following is a correct
description of an artery and veins?
A. Arteries have thinner walls compared to
veins.
B. Arteries carry oxygenated hemoglobin blood.
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C. Arteries carry blood away from the heart.
D. Arteries receive less blood pressure compare
to veins.
112. Which of the following ideas does NOT support
the theory of evolution?
A. The characteristics of part passes down to
the offspring.
B. Animals that seem related have similar base
genes and DNA.
C. Animals of similar genetics are formed in the
same areas.
D. Fossils of some animals show resemblance
among its structure and function.
113. Given the gene: 5’–GCCTACGGC–3’. Which of the
following is FALSE?
A. This gene is composed of DNA.
B. The complementary strand is
3’-CGGATGCCG–5’.
C. The mRNA produced from this gene is
3’–CGGATCGGC–5’.
D. The ratio of A:T and C:G is 1:1.
114. If ants suddenly stray away from its colony to
gather food, which mechanism can they find their
way back?
A. They can sense their colony through thermal
cells found in skin.
B. Their brain can process a memory in order to
memorize the trails.
C. They leave chemical marks on the trail of
their environment.
D. They can detect other ants’ motion signals
through their antennae.
115. A pea pod with yellow seeds and purple flower
has been hybrid to a pea pod with green seeds
and white flower. This hybrid gave rise to a pea
pod with yellow seed and purple flower. If plant
is self-pollinated, what is the probability of
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getting a white flower with yellow seeds? Yellow B. Infants or offspring can be born in optimal
seed and purple flower is dominant. conditions
1 C. For the maturation and growth of an animal
A.
4 before it can reproduce again

1 D. For the perpetration of their species.

B.
25
118. A new vaccine was discovered as a treatment for
3
C. a certain viral chicken disease. What should a
16
scientist do in order to test for the effectivity of
3
D. the vaccine?
4
A. Administer the vaccine to 50 chickens and
expose all of them to the disease.
116. The apparatus was set up as shown in the B. Administer the vaccine to 25 of 50 chickens
diagram. After some time had elapsed, the and expose all 50 chickens to the disease.
Visking Tubing containing liquid Y collapsed C. Expose 25 of 50 chickens to the disease then
while the tubing containing liquid Z was firm and vaccinate all 50 chickens.
hard. Which of the options (A, B, C, D) could be D. Expose all 50 chickens to the disease then
the correct description of the liquids at the start vaccinate 25 of them.
of the experiment?

119. The mRNA codon for some amino acids are listed
below.
VVV: phenylalanine
AUG: methionine
CCU: proline
AAA: lysine
GGC: glycine
Liquid X Liquid Y Liquid Z
A. 10% NaCl water 25% NaCl
What is the correct DNA code for an amino acid
solution solution
of methionine --- lysine --- proline ?
B. 25% NaCl 10% NaCl water
solution solution
A. 5’ – TAC – TTT – GGA – 3’
C. water 25% NaCl 10% NaCl
B. 5’- AUG – AAA – CCU – 3’
solution solution
C. 5’ – AGG – TTT – TAC – 3’
D. 10% NaCl 25% NaCl water
D. 5’ – CCU – AAA – AUG – 3’
solution solution
120. Two vessels contain different gases. Gas A has a
greater molecular weight than Gas B. What would
117. Most animals go through a reproduction cycle. happen if the value in the tube is kept open for
What is the best reason for this? 30 minutes?
A. Males can mate with many females during
breeding season

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122. Which of the following pair will form an ionic and

covalent bonding
A. Ionic: A and B; Covalent: G and H
B. Ionic: A and F; Covalent: F and G
A. C. Ionic: G and D; Covalent: B and D
D. Ionic: A and C; Covalent: B and G

B. 123. Which among the following compounds will give

a correct ionic formula?
A. B2C3
C. B. BF
C. F3E2
D. C3A
D.
124. Which of the following is true about the element
below?
19
121. The following is a chemical reaction of ethane.
10
X
A. Ratio of proton to neutron is 1:1
C2H6 + 85kJ  2C(S) + 3H2
B. The number of neutrons is 19.

2C(S) + 2O2  2CO2 + 788 kJ

C. 19 +2 : the number of electrons is 8.
10
X
Which of the following is TRUE?
D. 19 +2 gains two more electrons.
A. 703 kJ is released in the environment. 10
X
B. 703 kJ is absorbed by the total system.
125. A radioactive material represented as X has a
C. 873 kJ is released in the environment.
half-life which is 100 days. How much of the
D. 873 kJ is absorbed by the total system.
original will be left after 300 days?
A. one-third of the original
B. one-fourth of the original
C. one-eighth of the original
D. one-tenth of the original
126. Which of the following electron configurations in
For questions 122 – 123, refer to the figure below
ground state is possible?
A. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 3p7
IA IIA IIIA IVA VA VIA VIIA VIIIA
B. 1s1 2s2 2p5
A H
C. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s2
B C D F G I
E D. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d1

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I. Ice creams have salts
127. Which of the following illustrates a physical II. A boiling water has common table salt
change? III. Water is kept boiling for 60 minutes
A. A clothe is bleached during hot summer day IV. Putting glass of water in a freezer
B. White sugar solution when heated at 100C
turns to brown A. I and II only
C. Benzoic acid (C2H202) melted at 122C in a B. III and IV only
capillary tube C. I, III, III only
D. Plants increase in height and diameter after 7 D. All of the above.
days
131. Refer to the diagram below.
128. Which among the following is correctly paired?
A. cheddar cheese : heterogeneous
B. liquid soap : homogeneous
C. sugar : element
D. orange juice : compound
Which among the following chemical equations
129. The diagram shows a compressed 15-L gas at best describes the diagram?
300K. A. 9M + 5N  M6N + 2N2
B. 9M + 5N  3M3N + N2
C. 9M + 5N  3NM3 + 2N
D. 9M + 5N  M9N + N2
300K
15 L
132. Which compound has the most oxygen atoms?
What will happen to the final volume if the A. 3 mol H2O
pressure is halved at constant pressure? B. 1 mol Ca3(PO4)2
A. Vfinal = Vinitial × 2 C. 2 mole Al(OH)3
B. Vfinal = Vinitial + 2 D. 4 mol CO
C. Vfinal = Vinitial ÷ 2
D. Vfinal = Vinitial – 2

133. The following are gases with their respective

130. Colligative properties are physical properties of mass.
solutions that depend in the number but not in CO2 44 g/mole
the kind of solute particles which are present. O2 32 g/mole
Examples of which are boiling paint elevation, NO 30 g/mole

freezing point depression, vapor pressure H2 2 g/mole

What can you hypothesize about the rate of their
lowering, and increase in osmotic pressure.
effusion?
Which of the following is an application of
A. CO2 will travel faster that O2.
colligative properties?

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B. H2 travels the fastest.
C. CO2 travels the fastest. 136. You are spear fishing in waist-deep water when
D. NO will travel at slower rate that O2. you spot a fish. If you are standing behind the
fish, where should you aim the spear to catch the
134. This graph shows a salt solution in a varying fish?
pressure and temperature. A. You should aim it right behind the fish.
B. You should aim it right in front of the fish.
C. You should aim it exactly where the fish
seems to be.
D. You should aim it a bit to the side of the fish.
1 atm
137. Mark travels to four different moons. He notices
that his weight is different for every moon he
0.006 atm
travels to. The table below shows the
acceleration due to gravity to four different
-36C -50C
moons.
Which of the following is TRUE? Moon Acceleration due to gravity
A. NaCl solution freezes at 0C at 0.006 atm. Alpha 11 m/s2
B. NaCl solution freezes at 0C at 1 atm. Beta 13 m/s2

C. NaCl solution melts at -36C at 1 atm. Gamma 15 m/s2

Omega 17 m/s2
D. NaCl solution melts and boils at -36C at
0.006 atm.
In which moon will he able to jump the highest in
one jump? Assuming Mark leaves the ground
with the same speed.
A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. Gamma
D. Omega
138. The table below shows the velocity of the car per
second.
135. When butane burns, it forms carbon dioxide and
Time (s) Velocity (m/s)
water. This is the unbalanced chemical reaction:
0 0
C4H10 + O2  CO2 + H2O
1 2
2 4
If 20 moles of butane was reacted to excess
3 6
oxygen, how many moles of CO2 are formed?
4 8
A. 8 moles CO2
5 8
B. 20 moles CO2
6 8
C. 80 moles CO2
D. 160 moles CO2

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Which one of the following DOES NOT describe B. 115 g
the motion of the car? C. 130 g
A. constant acceleration then constant velocity D. 145 g
B. increasing speed then zero acceleration
141. The graph below shows the speed versus time
C. 2 m/s2 acceleration then zero acceleration
graph of a complete parachute jump from a small
D. increasing acceleration then constant velocity
aircraft.

139. Acceleration is defined as the rate of change in

speed (m/s)
velocity. The formula for acceleration is:
B

∆ v v final−v initial
a= = A
t t C

Newton’s second law states that, “The D

acceleration of an object is directly proportional

time (s)
to the net force acting on it and inversely
proportional to its mass.” This law is also known At what portion in the graph is the diver falling
as the Law of Acceleration. In formula: with decreasing acceleration?
A. A
F B. B
a=
m C. C
D. D
A 25-kg box, initially at rest, is acted upon by a
net force of 200 N for 8 s and causes it to 142. Starting from rest, an airplane requires 20
accelerate uniformly. What is the final velocity of seconds and 400 meters of runway to become
the box after 8 s? airborne. Its velocity when it leaves the ground is
A. 50 m/s A. 20 m/s
B. 64 m/s B. 30 m/s
C. 75 m/s C. 40 m/s
D. 80 m/s D. 80 m/s
140. A 65-g mass is placed at the 20-cm mark of a 143. Which of the diagrams could represent the path
uniform meter stick as shown in the figure. If a of a light through a glass block in air?
pivot is placed at the 40-cm mark and the meter A. C.
stick remains horizontal, determine the mass of
the meter stick?

0 20 40 60 80 10
0

65 B. D.
g

A. 65 g

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B. A truck speeding down the hill
C. A man on top of the hill
144. In the following circuit, when four identical bulbs D. A man on his mountain bike speeding down
are connected to a dry cell, bulb 3 does not light the hill
up and the rest light up.

bulb 2

bulb 1
m2 m4
bulb 3

m1 m3
bulb 4

Which of the following is(are) insulator?

A. m2 only
B. m3 only
C. m2 and m3 only
D. m3 and m4 only
145. Gravitational potential energy is energy an object
possesses because of its position in a
gravitational field. Which of the following has the
most gravitational potential energy?
A. A truck at the top of a hill

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