Double Page - Target UPSC 2020 Prelims - January 2020 - Shankar IAS Academy - Current Affairs

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Civilspedia Team - Powered by Shankar IAS Academy
Target 2020 Prelims Series – January 2020 – List of Topics

1. Project Starlink 11. GISAID – COVID19 21. E-Kuber, eBkray
2. Convention on Migratory Species 12. Ecological Flow 22. Carbon Declaration Project
3. Scheme of Fund for Regeneration of
13. Raisina Dialogue 23. Global Climate Risk Index
Traditional Industries
14. Shanghai Cooperation
4. Atal Bhujal Yojana 24. Integrated Road Accident Database
Organisation
5. National Infrastructure Pipeline 15. Eurasian Economic Union 25. National Investigation Agency
6. Rashtriya Arogya Nidhi 16. Hormuz Peace Initiative 26. Project Replan
7. CAA 2019 17. Sirimavo – Shastri Pact 27. TOI 700 Star System
8. Blue Flag Certification 18. Dedicated Freight Corridor 28. SnowEx
9. Future Skills PRIME 19. PM Rojgar Protsahan Yojana 29. Special Wildlife Operations
20. Nat. Strategy for Financial
10. Island Development Agency 30. Yada Yada Virus
Inclusion Civilspedia Team - Powered by Shankar IAS Academy
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Target 2020 Prelims Series – January 2020 – List of Topics

31. Spitzer Space Telescope 41. PARIVESH
51. Asian Waterbird Census
42. Medical Termination of
32. PM JI-VAN
Pregnancy
33. Indian Data Relay Satellite System 43. Hybrid Annuity Model
52. FCRA
34. Makran Subduction Zone 44. Bhima Koregaon
35. Vanilla Islands 45. Farmers Science Congress

53. Serious Fraud Investigation Office
36. Green Credit Scheme 46. State Energy Efficiency Index
37. National Space Challenge 47. Yuelu Declaration

54. National Election Watch
38. Blue Dot Network 48. Pneumosil
39. Cheetah 49. Preventive Detention

55. WAVES
40. MSME Portals 50. India Economic Summit Civilspedia Team - Powered by Shankar IAS Academy
Space for additional notes
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Starlink Mission
Practice Question – Prelims  Program of SpaceX.
 To provide fast, reliable internet to locations where

Q1. What is Starlink Mission, sometimes seen in access has been unreliable, expensive, or completely
news? unavailable.
(a) A near-Earth asteroid mission by NASA.  2020 – Northern US, Canada.
(b) A satellite constellation development  2021 – Near global coverage.
project by SpaceX to deploy the world's  SpaceX will launch a series of batch of satellites to
most advanced broadband internet form a satellite constellation in space.
system.
(c) An upgrade of the Large Hadron Collider
of CERN.
(d) A network of stratospheric balloons
designed to bring Internet
connectivity to rural and remote
communities worldwide.
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Practice Question – Prelims

Q2. With reference to Convention on the Conservation
of Migratory Species of Wild Animals, consider the
following statements:
1. It is an environmental treaty under the aegis of
the United Nations Environment Programme.
2. It aims to protect terrestrial, aquatic and avian
migratory species throughout their ranges.
3. It is the only global convention specializing in
the conservation of migratory species, their
habitats and migration routes.
4. India is a party to this Convention.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2, and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species

of Wild Animals (CMS)  Only global convention specializing in the conservation of
 Environmental treaty of the United Nations under the aegis migratory species, their habitats and migration routes.
of United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
 Two appendices in this convention.
 Also known as the Bonn Convention.
 Appendix 1 - Migratory species threatened with
 Aims to conserve terrestrial, aquatic and avian migratory extinction.
species throughout their range.  strictly protecting the migratory species;
 Brings together the States through which migratory  conserving or restoring the places where they
animals pass and the Range States- lays the legal live;
foundation for internationally coordinated conservation  mitigating obstacles to migration;
measures throughout a migratory range.  controlling other factors that might endanger
them.
"Range" means all the areas of land or water that a  Appendix II - Migratory species that need or would
migratory species inhabits, stays in temporarily, crosses significantly benefit from international co-operation.
or overflies at any time on its normal migration route.
 A migratory species may be listed both in Appendix I
“Range State” means any state that exercises jurisdiction and Appendix II, if the circumstances warrant so.
over any part of the range of a migratory species.
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CMS – Organizational Structure
• Entered into force – 1st November 1983; India – party

since 1983.
• Secretariat – Bonn, Germany.
• Scientific Council - provides advice to the Conference of

Parties on scientific matters.
• Conference Of the Parties – COP:
 decision making organ of CMS.
 meets once every three years.
 COP – 13 – Gandhinagar, India
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Scheme of Fund for Upgradation and Regeneration of

Practice Question – Prelims Traditional Industries (SFURTI):
Q3. Consider the following statements with reference to  Launched by the Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium
‘Scheme of Fund for Upgradation and Regeneration of Enterprises in 2005-2006.
Traditional Industries’.
 Objectives of the Scheme:
1. The scheme envisages to organize the traditional
industries and artisans into clusters to make them  To organize the traditional industries and artisans into
competitive and provide support for their long clusters to make them competitive and provide
term sustainability and economy of scale. support for their long term sustainability and
sustained employment.
2. The scheme covers three types of interventions  To enhance marketability of products of such clusters.
namely soft interventions, hard interventions and
thematic interventions.  To improve the skill and capabilities of traditional
artisans through training and exposure visits.
3. A Non-Governmental Organization with expertise  To strengthen the cluster governance systems with
to undertake cluster development can be an the active participation of the stakeholders.
implementing agency under the scheme.
 To tap E-Commerce as a major marketing channel.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only  Three types of clusters
b) 2 and 3 only 1. Heritage clusters (1001 to 2500 artisans)
c) 1 and 2 only 2. Major clusters (501 – 1000 artisans)
d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Mini clusters (Up to 500 artisans)
Thematic interventions
Soft Interventions Hard interventions In addition to the above mentioned
1. General awareness, counselling, 1. Multiple facilities for multiple hard components and soft components,
motivation and trust building; products and packaging wherever the scheme will also support cross-
needed; cutting thematic interventions at the
2. Skill development and capacity sector level including several clusters in
building/ for the entire value 2. Common facility centres (CFCs); the same sector with emphasis on both
chain different skills need to be domestic and international markets.
3. Raw material banks (RMBs);
imparted; These will primarily include:
4. Up-gradation of production
3. Institution development; 1. Brand building and promotion
infrastructure;
Exposure visits; campaign
5. Tools and technological up-gradation
4. Market promotion initiatives; 2. New media marketing
such as charkha up-gradation, toolkit
5. Design and product distribution, etc. 3. e-Commerce initiatives
development;
6. Warehousing facility; vii. Training 4. Innovation
6. Participation in seminars, center;
workshops and training 5. Research & development initiatives
7. Value addition and processing
programmes on technology up- 6. Developing institutional linkages
center/multi-products.
gradation, etc. with the existing & proposed
clusters
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 Implementing Agencies: NGOs, institutions of the Central

and State Governments, semi-Government institutions,
Panchayati Raj institutions (PRIs), Private sector,
Corporates and corporate Responsibility (CSR)
foundations with expertise to undertake cluster
development.
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Q4. Consider the following statements with
reference to Atal Bhujal Yojana.
1. It is a central sector scheme.
2. The scheme is to be implemented for a
three year period from 2020-21 to
2022-23.
3. One of the components is incentivizing
the States for achievements in
improved groundwater management
practices.
Which of the statement(s) given above
is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 3 only
Atal Bhujal Yojana

 To address the criticality of ground water resources
The National Water Mission, under the National
 To improve ground water management in priority areas through
Action Plan for Climate Change envisages the
community participation
following five goals :
 Identified districts: 78 districts - Gujarat, Haryana,
Karnataka, M. P., Maharashtra, Rajasthan & Uttar Pradesh • Goal 1: Comprehensive water data base in
public domain and assessment of the impact
 To promote panchayat-led ground water management and of climate change on water resource,
behavioural change with primary focus on demand side
management • Goal 2: Promotion of citizen and state actions
for water conservation, augmentation and
 Two components:
preservation
1. Institutional Strengthening and Capacity Building
Component • Goal 3: Focused attention to vulnerable areas
including over-exploited areas
2. Incentive Component for incentivizing the States for
achievements in improved groundwater management • Goal 4: Increasing water use efficiency by 20%
practices
• Goal 5: Promotion of basin level integrated
 To be implemented for a 5-year period - 2020-21 to 2024-25 water resources management.
 A Central Sector Scheme – Total outlay – Rs. 6000 Crores -
50% support from World Bank through loans -
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National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP):
Q5. Consider the following statements regarding
the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP):  A Task Force under the Secretary of Department of Economic Affairs
was constituted to draw up a National Infrastructure Pipeline.
1. It aims to invest more than Rs. 100 lakh
crore in infrastructure, both economic and  NIP is an investment plan with a corpus of Rs102 lakh crore, for a
social. period of 6 years from FY 2019-20 to FY 2024-25.
2. Under NIP, investment can be made in  To achieve the target of $5 trillion economy by 2025
projects under construction, proposed
greenfield projects, brownfield projects  Facilitate generic and sectoral reforms in regulation and
and projects at the conceptualisation stage. administration of public infrastructure services as per global
best practice
3. The total capital expenditure under NIP is
shared between Centre and States on  To push India up in global rankings in public infrastructure.
50:50 basis.  Emphasis will be given to projects on Safe drinking water, access to
Which of the statements given above is/are clean and affordable energy, healthcare for all, modern railway
correct? stations, airports, bus terminals and world-class educational
a) 1 only institutes. (Investment in both economic and social infrastructure)
b) 2 only  Includes projects under construction, proposed greenfield projects,
c) 1 and 2 only brownfield projects and those at the conceptualisation stage.
d) 2 and 3 only
Share of Centre, states and the

private sector in the NIP
Source: Report on NIP of the Task Force Department of Economic Affairs Ministry of Finance,
Government of India
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Practice Question – Prelims Rashtriya Arogya Nidhi Scheme

Q6. Which of the following are components of  Financial assistance is provided to patients - families living
Rashtriya Arogya Nidhi, an umbrella scheme below State/UT-wise threshold poverty lines and who are
implemented by the Union Ministry of suffering from major life threatening diseases/cancer/rare
Health and Family Welfare? diseases, for medical treatment at Government hospitals.
1. Rashtriya Arogya Nidhi  The scheme has three components

1. Rashtriya Arogya Nidhi (RAN) – to provide financial
2. Health Minister’s Cancer Patients Fund assistance to patients suffering from life threatening
3. Health Minister’s Discretionary Grant diseases other than Cancer
2. Health Minister’s Cancer Patients Fund (HMCPF) - to
4. Scheme for financial assistance for provide financial assistance to patients suffering from
patients suffering from specified rare Cancer; and
diseases.
3. Scheme for financial assistance for patients suffering from
Select the correct answer from the codes specified rare diseases.
given below:  Health Minister’s Discretionary Grant (HMDG)
a) 1, 2 and 3  a maximum amount of Rs.1,25,000/- is provided to
b) 2, 3 and 4 patients whose annual family income does not exceed
c) 1, 2 and 4 Rs.1,25,000/-, to defray a part of the expenditure on
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 hospitalization/treatment in Government Hospitals.
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Practice Question – Prelims The Citizenship Amendment Act, 2019

Q7. Consider the following statements with reference  Deals with two sets of persons
to the Citizenship Amendment Act, 2019.
1. Any eligible person belonging to Hindu, 1. Any person belonging to Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi
Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi or Christian or Christian community - Afghanistan, Bangladesh or
community from Afghanistan, Bangladesh Pakistan, entered into India on or before the 31 Dec 2014.
or Pakistan, who entered into India on or • Shall not be treated as illegal migrants - Fast-tracks
before the 31st day of December, 2015, citizenship - by relaxing the ‘aggregate period of
shall not be treated as illegal migrant. residence’ under the qualifications for naturalization.
2. The special provisions of Citizenship for • Shall not apply to tribal area of Assam, Meghalaya,
above-mentioned eligible persons is also Mizoram or Tripura as included in the Sixth Schedule to
applicable to the tribal areas of Assam, the Constitution and the area covered under "The Inner
Meghalaya, Mizoram or Tripura as included Line" notified under the Bengal Eastern Frontier
in the Sixth Schedule to the Constitution. Regulation, 1873.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are 2. Overseas Citizen of India Cardholders
correct?
• Registration to be cancelled also for violation of any of
a) 1 only
the provisions of Citizenship Act or provisions of any
b) 2 only
other law specified by C. Govt, in addition to other
c) Both 1 and 2
reasons for cancellation for registration
d) Neither 1 nor 2
The Citizenship Amendment Act, 2019

 Deals with two sets of persons
1. Any person belonging to Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi
or Christian community - Afghanistan, Bangladesh or
Pakistan, entered into India on or before the 31 Dec 2014.
• Shall not be treated as illegal migrants - Fast-tracks
citizenship - by relaxing the ‘aggregate period of
residence’ under the qualifications for naturalization.
• Shall not apply to tribal area of Assam, Meghalaya,
Mizoram or Tripura as included in the Sixth Schedule to
the Constitution and the area covered under "The Inner
Line" notified under the Bengal Eastern Frontier
Regulation, 1873.
2. Overseas Citizen of India Cardholders
• Registration to be cancelled also for violation of any of
the provisions of Citizenship Act or provisions of any
other law specified by C. Govt, in addition to other
Source: http://ncwapps.nic.in/ reasons for cancellation for registration
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Practice Question – Prelims Blue Flag certification
Q8.In the context of Blue Flag Certification for  an internationally recognized eco-
beaches, consider the following statements: label awarded by Foundation for
Environmental Education (FEE)
1. It is a permanent certification awarded by
 awarded to beaches, marinas, and to
Foundation for Environmental Education.
sustainable boating tourism
2. Recently, Government of India relaxed the operators
requirement of prior clearance under CRZ  For beaches based on 33 stringent
notification for some activities, for all criteria under 4 areas/heads
beaches to attain this certification.
1. Environmental Education and
Which of the statements given above is/are Information
not correct? 2. Bathing Water Quality Source: blueflag.global
(a) 1 only
3. Environment Management and
(b) 2 only
Conservation and
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 4. Safety and Services.
Source: MoEF&CC, GoI

Source: From Order dated 9th Jan 2020, MoEF&CC, GoI
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Q9.Consider the following statements with Future Skills Initiative
respect to Future Skills PRIME initiative.  An initiative of NASSCOM in collaboration with MEITY.
1. It aims to train school children in the
 Announced by Prime Minister in February 2018, at
age group of 6 to 14 years to equip them
Hyderabad. Objective: to reskill the IT industry workforce in
with learning skills required for better emerging technologies and emerging job roles by using the
performance in the future. Future Skills digital learning platform.
2. It is a joint initiative of NASSCOM and
 It currently offers reskilling/ upskilling in 10 emerging
the Government of India. technologies across 70 new job roles and 155 new skills.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are
correct?  Artificial Intelligence, Cyber Security, Blockchain, Big
a) 1 only Data Analytics, Cloud Computing, Internet of Things,
Virtual Reality, 3D Printing, Mobile Technology and
b) 2 only
Robotic Process Automation.
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Salient Features of Future Skills PRIME:

 It will offer diagnostics for learner preference and skill gaps leading to
Future Skills PRIME identification of relevant courses.
 It will help in building digital fluencies in emerging technologies.
 December 2019 - Future Skills Initiative was
 It will offer online upskilling in identified skill competencies.
expanded to Future Skills PRIME.
 It will offer blended programmes with online and classroom trainings.
 Goal: To train 4 lakh professionals in next three  It will enable assessment and certification of learners in line with
years – Govt. to invest Rs. 436 Crore on this industry needs and Government standards.
initiative, over a period of three years.
 Each learner will get a Skills Passport where competencies acquired
 Training under Future Skills PRIME would be by the learner will get accumulated.
extended to industry professionals across  Every learner will get a Skills Wallet where s/he will have the
different segments, higher education students opportunity to get up to Rs. 12,000 from the Government of India as
and government officials. an incentive upon certification.
 Programme for Reskilling/ Upskilling of IT  This digital platform is being developed in strong partnership with the
Manpower for Employability. IT Industry, academia and government.
 Apart from industry, the existing infrastructure of CDAC and NIELIT
 NASSCOM: One of the largest Government-led centers will also be leveraged as resource centers in hub and spoke
digital skilling initiatives in the world. model.
 The data center for this digital platform will be kept in India.
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Practice Question – Prelims Island Development Agency

Q10.Consider the following statements with  Initiative of the Central Government under the chairmanship
reference to ‘Island Development Agency of Minister of Home Affairs.
(IDA)’:
 Established in 2017 - for the purpose of sustainable
1. It develops World Heritage activities in development of Islands with people’s participation - to
Small Island Developing States, providing oversee the comprehensive development of Islands.
support for new nominations to the
 Mandated NITI Aayog to steer Holistic Development of Islands
UNESCO’s World Heritage List, and
program
sustainable conservation and management
practices for sites already inscribed.  Development Plans –
2. The Agency was constituted at the UN  prepared and implemented in four islands of Andaman
Conference on Environment and & Nicobar and five islands of Lakshadweep in the first
phase
Development in 1992.
 focus on creation of jobs for the islanders through
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are tourism promotion and export of seafood and coconut-
correct? based products
(a) 1 only
 Infrastructure development – Improving air, sea and
(b) 2 only digital connectivity – setting up of IT based and MSME
(c) Both 1 and 2 enterprises – with incentives through LANIDS scheme.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
COVID-19
 Coronavirus Disease -2019
 Coronaviruses belong to a large family of viruses, some
Q11. Consider the following statements. causing illness in people and others that circulate among
1. ‘Nosocomial transmission’ recorded in animals, including camels, cats, bats, etc. Rarely, animal
COVID19 refers to transmission of an corona viruses may evolve and jump species to infect
infection in hospital, to a patient people and then spread between people.
admitted for a reason other than the  Contagious / Infectious disease – transmission of SARS-CoV-2
transmitted infection. can occur via respiratory secretions (directly through droplets
from coughing or sneezing, or indirectly through contaminated
2. The SARS outbreak of 2003 was much objects or surfaces.
less infectious than COVID-19. GISAID
Which of the above statement(s) is/are  Promotes the international sharing of all influenza virus
correct? sequences, data associated with human viruses, and
geographical as well as species-specific data associated with
a) 1 only
avian and other animal viruses. (EpiFlu Database)
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2  To help researchers understand how the viruses evolve, spread
d) Neither 1 nor 2 and potentially become pandemics.
 The GISAID platform was launched on the occasion of the Sixty-
first World Health Assembly in May 2008 (Germany – Host)
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Practice Question – Prelims Ecological flows

Q12. Consider the following statements about the
 October 2018 – Order on E-flows – Specifies the
ecological flow in River Ganga. minimum environmental flows to be maintained in river
1. Some of the existing projects have been Ganga in the identified stretches.
given a time period of three years to 1. Upper Ganga River Basin Stretch
ensure compliance of desired
2. Stretch of main stem of River Ganga
environmental flow norms.
 Central Water Commission shall be the designated
2. The mini and micro projects which do not authority and the custodian of the data and shall be
alter the flow characteristics of the river responsible for supervision, monitoring, regulation of
or stream significantly are exempted flows.
from the environmental flows.  The mini and micro projects which do not alter the flow
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are characteristics of the river or stream significantly are
exempted from these environmental flows.
correct?
a) 1 only  The existing projects, which currently do not meet the
norms of these environmental flows, shall comply and
b) 2 only ensure that the desired environmental flow norms are
c) Both 1 and 2 complied before 15th December 2019.
d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Practice Question – Prelims Raisina Dialogue

Q13.Consider the following statements regarding  India’s flagship global Conference engaging with geopolitics
the ‘Raisina Dialogue’. and geo-economics.
1. It is India’s flagship geopolitical and  Committed to address the most challenging issues facing
geostrategic conference. the global community.
2. It is held at biennial intervals.  Involves participation of heads of state, cabinet ministers
3. The first edition of Raisina Dialogue was and local government officials, as well as major private
held in 2016. sector executives, members of the media and academics.
4. The theme of the dialogue this year is  Hosted in New Delhi every year by the Observer Research
“21 @ 20 Navigating the Alpha Century.” Foundation (ORF) in collaboration with the Union Ministry
of External Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?  First edition – 2016, then held in annual intervals, fifth
(a) 1 only edition in 2020.
(b) 1 and 2 only  The theme of Raisina 2020 is 21 @ 20 Navigating the Alpha
(c) 1 and 3 only
Century.
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Shangri La dialogue
 Asia’s premier defence summit

 Hosted by an international think tank called as
International Institute for Strategic Studies.
 Held annually in Singapore, usually in May or June with
the support of Government of Singapore.
 This year’s dialogue cancelled due to COVID-19.
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Shanghai Cooperation Organisation

 A permanent intergovernmental international
Q14.Consider the following statements regarding the organisation - Announced in 2001 in Shanghai (China)
‘Shanghai Cooperation Organisation.’
 Heads of State Council (HSC) is the highest
1. It is an intergovernmental international decision-making body in the SCO.
organization with its secretariat based in  The Charter of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
Shanghai. was signed at the St. Petersburg Summit of the Heads
2. It comprises eight-member states with latest of State of the SCO in June 2002 and entered into force
on 19 September 2003.
additions being India and Pakistan.
 HQ - Beijing
3. It has observer status in UN General Assembly.
 In Astana summit of 2017, India and Pakistan were given
4. Russian and Chinese languages are the official full membership, raising total membership to eight.
working languages of the SCO.
 SCO has observer status in the UN General Assembly
Which of the statements given above is/are since 2005.
correct?
 The Organisation has two permanent bodies — the
(a) 1 only Secretariat in Beijing (China) and the Regional Anti-
(b) 1 and 3 only Terrorist Structure (RATS) in Tashkent
(c) 2, 3 and 4  SCO Business Council – founded in 2006 – HQ in
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Moscow.
Eurasian Economic Union (EAEU)

 An international organization for regional economic integration
comprises countries located in northern Eurasia
Q15. Consider the following:  Established by the “Treaty on the Eurasian Economic Union” –
signed: 2014 – came in to force: 1st Jan 2015.
1. Russia  Founding members - The Republic of Belarus, the Republic of
2. Armenia Kazakhstan and the Russian Federation
 Member states - The Republic of Armenia, the Republic of
3. Kazakhstan Belarus, the Republic of Kazakhstan, the Kyrgyz Republic and the
Russian Federation.
4. Kyrgyzstan
 The EAEU provides for free movement of goods, services, capital
5. Uzbekistan and labour between the member states.
6. Ukraine
Which of the countries given above
is/are member states of Eurasian
Economic Union (EAEU)?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Civilspedia Team - Powered by Shankar IAS Academy Source: http://www.eaeunion.org/
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Hormuz Peace Initiative
Practice Question – Prelims  Proposed by Iran, led by Iran for intra-regional security
arrangement for security of Strait of Hormuz.
Q16.Consider the following statements
with reference to ‘Hormuz Peace
Initiative’.
1. It is an initiative led by United
States of America.
2. Strait of Hormuz connects the
Persian Gulf with the Gulf of
Aden.
Which of the above statement(s)
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Source: https://globalnews.ca/
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Sirimavo- Shastri Pact, 1964:

 The Agreement on Persons of Indian Origin in Ceylon,
Q17. With reference to the ‘Agreement on Persons 30th October, 1964.
of Indian Origin (PIOs) in Ceylon, 1964’,
consider the following statements.  Objective of 1964 Pact:
1. The Agreement allows for according  All persons of Indian origin in Ceylon who have not
been recognised either as citizens of Ceylon or as
citizenship in Sri Lanka (Ceylon) for some
citizens of India should become citizens either of
of the Persons of Indian Origin, while Ceylon or of India.
some PIOs are to be repatriated to India.
 Agreement reached: Out of the 975,000 persons and the
2. It was signed during the Prime natural increase in this number, India would accept the
Ministership of Lal Bahadur Shastri. repatriation of 5,25,000 of these persons and associated
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are natural increase in number and Ceylon would grant
citizenship to 3,00,000 and associated natural increase in
correct?
that number.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only  The status of the remaining 150,000 of these persons were
c) Both 1 and 2 to be determined by a separate agreement.
d) Neither 1 nor 2  Sirimavo-Indira Gandhi Pact, 1974.
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Q18. In which of the following state(s), both the
eastern and western Dedicated Freight
Corridors pass through?
1. Uttar Pradesh
2. Punjab
3. Haryana
4. Bihar
5. Rajasthan
Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 5
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Dedicated Freight Corridors (DFCs)

 Railway corridors under construction in India by
Indian Railways to enable the smooth transport of
cargoes from and to the hinterland.
Western Dedicated Freight Corridor
 Distance of 1504 km
 From JNPT to Dadri via Vadodara-Ahmedabad-
Palanpur-Phulera-Rewari
 Passes through 5 states
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Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor
 Route length of 1856 km
 From Ludhiana in Punjab to Dankuni in West
Bengal
 Passes through 6 states
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Pradhan Mantri Rojgar Protsahan Yojana
(PMRPY):
1. The scheme provides financial support for
the eligible employees for being rendered
unemployed.
2. It is targeted for employees earning wages
less than or equal to Rs 15,000/- per
month.
correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Pradhan Mantri Rojgar Protsahan Yojana (PMRPY):

 Aim: To incentivise employers for generation of new
employment.  Eligibility criteria: All establishments registered with
Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO), subject
 Government of India will pay the full employer's to:
contribution towards Employee Pension Scheme (EPS) and
 Registered establishments should have a Labour
Employees' Provident Fund (EPF): for the first three years
Identification Number (LIN) allotted to them under
of their employment.
the Shram Suvidha Portal.
 Implemented by the Ministry of Labour & Employment.  Eligible employer must have added new employees
 Benefits: to his establishment.
 The employer is incentivised for increasing the  New Employee must have an Aadhaar seeded
employment base of workers in the establishment. Universal Account Number
 A large number of workers will find jobs and they will  It targets employees earning wages less than or
have access to social security benefits of the equal to Rs. 15, 000 per month.
organized sector.
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National Strategy for Financial Inclusion 2019-2024:

Practice Question – Prelims  Objectives:
Q20. Consider the following statements regarding • To make financial services available, accessible, and affordable
the National Strategy for Financial Inclusion to all the citizens in a safe and transparent manner.
2019-2024: • To leverage technology and adopt a multi-stakeholder approach
for sustainable financial inclusion.
1. It aims to make financial services
available, accessible, and affordable to all  Prepared by RBI under the aegis of the Financial Inclusion Advisory
the citizens in a safe and transparent Committee
manner and to adopt a multi-stakeholder
approach for sustainable financial
inclusion.
2. It was prepared by NITI Aayog with an aim
to make India a $5 trillion economy by
2024-2025.
correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Practice Question – Prelims e-Kuber:
Q21. Consider the following statements: • The core banking solution of the Reserve Bank of India.
1. E-Kuber is the core banking solution of • Provides a single current account for each bank across the
country, with decentralised access to this account from
the State Bank of India, which provides a
anywhere-anytime.
single current account for all its branches
across the country. • Core Banking Solutions (CBS):
2. eB-kray is an e-auction platform, which • A network of branches of a bank, which enables bank to
offer a multitude of customer-centric services on a 24x7
provides single-window access to
basis from a single location.
information on properties up for e-
auction by the Public Sector Banks. • Customers can access their accounts from any branch,
anywhere, irrespective of where they have physically
Which of the statements given above is/are opened their accounts.
correct? eBKray:
a) 1 only
• An e-auction platform launched by the Ministry of Finance.
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 • Purpose: To enable online auction of attached assets by
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Public Sector Banks.
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Q22.Consider the following statements with
reference to Carbon Disclosure Project (CDP).
1. CDP is a not-for-profit charity that runs the
global disclosure system for investors,
companies, cities, states and regions to
manage their environmental impacts.
2. As per the CDP India Annual Report 2019,
India is the first developing economy with
the maximum number of companies
committing to science-based targets to
reduce Green House Gas emissions.
correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
 India secured 5th spot in the 2019 report: India is the first
Carbon Disclosure Project (CDP): developing economy with the maximum number of
 A UK based not-for-profit charity, which runs a global companies (38) committing to science-based targets.
disclosure system for investors, companies, cities, states
and regions to manage their environmental impacts.
 Objective: To help investors, companies and cities on
taking action to build a truly sustainable economy by
measuring and understanding their environmental
impact.
CDP India Annual Report 2019:
 It surveys corporate commitments to science-based
targets and evaluates the climate change risk that they
are exposed to.
 Targets adopted by companies to reduce GHG emissions
are considered “science-based” if they are in line to
meet the goals of the Paris Agreement. Source: CDP India Annual Report 2019
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Q23. Global Climate Risk Index is
published by
(a) United Nations Environment
Programme
(b) UN Habitat
(c) Germanwatch
(d) Maplecroft
Global Climate Risk Index

 Published by Germanwatch.
 Analysis on the impacts of extreme weather events

and associated socio-economic data.
 Published once in a year.
 Purpose: to contextualize ongoing climate policy

debates – especially the international climate
negotiations – looking at real-world impacts over
the last year and the last 20 years.
 4 indicators:
 Number of deaths; Source: germanwatch.org
 Number of deaths per 1,00,000 inhabitants;  India related findings:

 Absolute losses in US dollars in purchasing  Ranking for 2018 – 5/181 countries and territories.
power parity;  Recorded highest death tolls in 2018.
 Losses per unit gross domestic product in %.  Monsoon floods in Kerala;
 Heatwaves across India;
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Practice Question – Prelims Integrated Road Accident Database (IRAD)

Q24. Consider the following statements with  A central accident database management system
reference to “Integrated Road Accident
 Objective : To analyse causes of road crashes and helps in
Database (IRAD)”: devising safety interventions to reduce such accidents in
1. It is an Internet-based central accident the country
database management system.  Developed by Indian Institute of Technology, Madras
2. It is developed by National Highways  Will be implemented by National Informatics Centre (NIC)
Authority of India.
 Supported by the world Bank
Which of the statement(s) given above  Aims to develop and implement ‘data-led’ road safety
is/are correct? interventions in order to reduce the road accidents
(a) 1 only
 This system shall be first launched in the six States :
(b) 2 only Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Tamil
(c) Both 1 and 2 Nadu and Uttar Pradesh.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
How IRAD works?

• IRAD mobile application will enable police personnel
National Informatics Centre (NIC)
to enter details about a road accident, along with
photos and videos, following which a unique ID will be  A premiere Science and Technology Institution
created for the incident.
 Under the Ministry of Electronics and Information
• Subsequently, an engineer from the Public Works Technology
Department or the local body will receive an alert on
 Established in 1976
his mobile device.
 Through its ICT network, “NICNET”, has institutional
• He or she will then visit the accident site, examine it,
linkages with all the Ministries/Departments of the Central
and feed the required details, such as the road design.
Government, State Governments/UTs and about 720+
• Data thus collected will be analyzed by a team at IIT- District Administrations of India
M, which will then suggest if corrective measures in
road design need to be taken.
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National Investigation Agency
Q25.In the light of recent amendment to National
Investigation Agency (NIA) Act, 2008, and NIA,  Constituted by NIA Act, 2008 to investigate and
consider the following statements: prosecute offences affecting the sovereignty, security
and integrity of India, security of State, and friendly
1. The NIA functions as Central Counter relations with foreign States and other scheduled
Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency in India. offences.
2. Both Central and State Governments can  Central Counter Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency in
designate Special Courts for the trial of India.
scheduled offences.  Superintendence of the Agency is vested in the Central
Government.
3. The amendment enhances the NIA's
jurisdiction to investigate scheduled offences  The NIA (Amendment) Act 2019
against Indians and Indian interests beyond  Enhancement of Jurisdiction
India.
 More offences added to the Schedule
correct?  Power of C. Govt. and State Govts. to constitute
a) 1 only Special Courts modified as Power of C. Govt. and
b) 1 and 2 only State Govts. to designate Court of Session as
Special Courts.
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 Civilspedia Team - Powered by Shankar IAS Academy
Project REPLAN
 “REducing PLAstic in Nature”
Practice Question – Prelims  By the Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC)
Q26. “Project REPLAN”, sometimes seen in  Objective: To reduce the plastic wastes in nature
news, is related to  By manufacturing of plastic-mixed handmade paper carry
bags in the ratio of 80 % (pulp) and 20% (plastic waste)
a) New technology for soft landing
on moon Khadi and Village Industries Commission
b) To reduce the plastic wastes in  A statutory body

nature  Under Khadi and Village Industries
Commission Act, 1956
c) Safe Recovery of crew module in  Three broad objectives:
case of any exigency before
1. The social objective of providing
launch in human spaceflight employment.
program 2. The economic objective of
d) Introduction of African Cheetah producing saleable articles.
in Indian forests 3. The wider objective of creating self-
reliance amongst the poor and
building up of a strong rural
community spirit. Civilspedia Team - Powered by Shankar IAS Academy
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TOI 700:
• TOI 700: A small, cool M- type dwarf star, located just over
100 light-years away in the Southern constellation Dorado.
Practice Question – Prelims • It is roughly 40% of the Sun’s mass and size and about half its surface
temperature - This star has 3 planets – TOI 700 b, TOI 700 c, TOI 700 d
Q27.Recently, NASA’s Transiting
Exoplanet Survey Satellite (TESS) has • TOI 700 d: The only planet in the habitable zone of TOI 700 star.
discovered the ‘TOI 700 d ’. It is: • All of the planets are thought to be tidally locked to their star.
a) A double-asteroid system in the • Habitable zone or Goldilocks zone of a planet: The area around its star
Solar system. where it is not too hot and not too cold for liquid water to exist on the
surface.
b) A Sun-like star in another
galaxy.
c) An exoplanet in the habitable
zone of its star
d) An interstellar object found in
our Solar system.
Civilspedia Team - Powered by Shankar IAS Academy Source: nasa.gov
• NASA’s Transiting Exoplanet Survey Satellite

(TESS):
 Launched in 2018 for searching for
exoplanets.
 It will find exoplanets that periodically
block part of the light from their host
stars (transits).
 TESS will survey 200,000 of the
brightest stars near the sun to search
for transiting exoplanets.
This animation shows how a dip in the observed
brightness of a star may indicate the presence of
a planet passing in front of it, an occurrence
known as a transit.
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SnowEx
Q28.“SnowEx”, sometimes seen in news is
related to,  Background
a) A program to conserve the snow  More than one-sixth of the world’s population (1.2 billion
people) relies on seasonal snowpack and glaciers
Leopard population in the High-Altitude
Himalayas.  Snow- reflects up to 80 percent of the sun’s energy,
acting to cool the planet
b) An Arctic research expedition using the
research vessel Polarstern.  Snow water equivalent (SWE) is the most critical metric
for water resources
c) Securing livelihoods, conservation,
 A five-year program initiated and funded by the NASA
sustainable use and restoration of High
Terrestrial Hydrology Program (THP)
Range Himalayan Ecosystems.
 Objective: To address the most important gaps in snow remote
d) A program launched by NASA Terrestrial sensing knowledge
Hydrology Program to address
important gaps in snow remote sensing  Geographical focus – “North America”.
knowledge.
Practice Question – Prelims Wildlife Crime Control Bureau

Q29. Consider the following:
 A statutory multi-disciplinary body established by the C.
Wildlife Operations Objective/Purpose Govt. under the Ministry of Environment and Forests, to
combat organized wildlife crime in the country - HQ in
1. SAVE KURMA A multispecies New Delhi
operation by INTERPOL
 Operation Save KURMA – poaching, transportation and
2. THUNDERSTORM To protect live turtles and illegal trade of live turtles and tortoises - December 2016
tortoises and January 2017.
3. SOFT GOLD To protect Tibetan  Operation Thunderbird (Feb 2017) & Operation
Antelope Thunderstorm (Oct 2017)
4. BIRBIL To protect Birds and Cat  An INTERPOL Operation - multi-national and multi-
species species enforcement operation.
Which of the pairs(s) given above is/are correctly
matched?  Operation Soft Gold - illegal wildlife trade in Tibetan
a) 1 and 2 only antelope or Chiru species – Oct 2018 to March 2019.
b) 2 and 3 only  Operation Birbil - intelligence pertaining to the illegal trade
c) 3 and 4 only in all Birds and (Big) cat species – Nov 2017.
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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Practice Question – Prelims Yada Yada Virus (YYV):

Q30. Recently, a group of researchers have  It was detected in mosquitoes trapped as part of the
discovered a virus called the ‘Yada Yada Victorian Arbovirus Disease Control Programme, in
Virus’ in Australia. Which of the following is Victoria, Australia, in 2016.
correct regarding the virus?  It is an alphavirus, which belong to the family Togaviridae.
(a) They belong to the family of Alphaviruses:
Coronaviruses.
 A small, single-stranded positive-sense RNA viruses, which
(b) They usually circulate among animals, includes species important to human and animal health
and the infected animals act as the such as Chikungunya virus and Eastern equine encephalitis
vectors. virus.
 The vector for most alphaviruses are arthropods, typically
(c) The virus strain has more than 95%
mosquitoes.
similarity with the Nipah virus.
 Unlike other alphaviruses, Yada Yada does not pose a
(d) It is an alphavirus, discovered recently threat to human beings.
among mosquitoes.
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Practice Question – Prelims NASA's Great Observatories Program

Q31. It was one of NASA’s four Great Observatories,  a family of four space-based observatories, each
designed to detect infrared radiation. After observing the Universe in a different kind of light.
more than 16 years studying the universe in - visible-light Hubble Space Telescope (HST),
infrared light, its mission has come to an end.
The above description suits which of the - Compton Gamma-Ray Observatory (CGRO),
following? - Chandra X-Ray Observatory (CXO)
a) Event Horizon Telescope - Spitzer Infrared Space Telescope
b) Spitzer Space Telescope • Launched in 2003; ended in January 30, 2020
c) Astrosat • Aim: To study the early universe in infrared
part of the electromagnetic spectrum
d) Hubble Space Telescope
 Important Discoveries of Spitzer Space Telescope Scientific objectives of ASTROSAT mission are:
 First telescope to see light from a planet outside  To understand high energy processes in binary star systems
our solar system containing neutron stars and black holes,
 Important discoveries about comets, stars,  Estimate magnetic fields of neutron stars,
exoplanets and distant galaxies
 Study star birth regions and high energy processes in star
 Found a previously unidentified ring around Saturn systems lying beyond our galaxy,
 It also studied star and planet formation, the  Detect new briefly bright X-ray sources in the sky,
evolution of galaxies from the ancient universe to
today, and the composition of interstellar dust  Perform a limited deep field survey of the Universe in the
Ultraviolet region.
 Detected five of the seven Earth-size planets in the
TRAPPIST-1 system – the largest number of  AstroSat is the first dedicated Indian astronomy mission
terrestrial planets ever found orbiting a single star aimed at studying celestial sources in X-ray, optical and
UV spectral bands simultaneously.
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regarding the "Pradhan Mantri JI-VAN
Yojana".
1. The scheme aims to provide basic civic
amenities to improve the quality of life
for forest dwellers.
2. The scheme is an initiative of Ministry
of Tribal Affairs.
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Pradhan Mantri JI-VAN Yojana Objectives of the Scheme:

 Pradhan Mantri Jaiv Indhan - Vatavaran Anukool fasal a) Establish commercially viable projects for 2G Ethanol
awashesh Nivaran (JI-VAN) Yojana production.
 Scheme for providing Financial support to Integrated b) Provide remunerative income to farmers for their
otherwise waste agriculture residues.
Bioethanol Projects using Lignocellulosic Biomass & other
Renewable feedstock. c) Address concerns of environmental pollution caused
by burning of biomass/ agriculture residues.
 Viability Gap Funding (VGF) to Second Generation bio-
ethanol manufacturing projects to increase availability of d) Help in meeting the targets envisaged in Ethanol
Blended Petrol (EBP) programme promoted by
ethanol for Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) programme.
Government of India & Government of India vision of
 ‘2G Bioethanol’: Ethanol produced from biomass and 10% reduction in import dependence by way of
cellulosic materials such as bagasse, wood waste, reducing the use of fossil fuels.
agricultural & forestry residues, grasses etc. e) To create rural & urban employment opportunities.
 Under EBP programme, OMCs are to blend up to 10% of f) To contribute to Swacch Bharat Mission by supporting
ethanol in Petrol by 2022. the aggregation of non-food biofuel feedstocks such as
waste biomass and urban waste.
 Centre for High Technology (CHT), a technical body under
g) Indigenisation of second generation biomass to
MoP&NG, is the implementation Agency for JI-VAN Yojana.
ethanol technologies.
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Q33. In the context of Indian Data Relay Satellite
System, consider the following statements.
1. The relay satellites help the ground
stations to communicate with satellites in
space.
2. Relay satellites launched in Low Earth
Orbits, give better coverage to satellites in
Geosynchronous orbit.
3. ISRO launched IDRSS in 2014 to stay in
touch with all Indian Satellites.
correct?
(a) 1 only
Source: ISRO
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Civilspedia Team - Powered by Shankar IAS Academy
Indian Data Relay Satellite System

 Planned to track and be constantly in touch
with Indian satellites, especially those in low
earth orbits.
 Low Earth Orbit (LEO) - An orbit around Earth

with an altitude above Earth’s surface from 160
kms to 2,000 Kilometres.
 Will be launched in 2020-21 in Geostationary

orbit.
Civilspedia Team - Powered by Shankar IAS Academy https://nasa.gov
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reference to ‘Makran Subduction Zone’:
1. This subduction zone is also known
as Andaman-Nicobar-Sumatra island
subduction zone.
2. This subduction zone is due to the
divergence of Arabian plate from
Eurasian plate.
is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
 Indian Ocean is likely to be affected by tsunamis

generated by earthquakes at two potential source
regions
Indian Ocean Tsunami Warning and Mitigation system
1. Andaman-Nicobar-Sumatra Island subduction zone (IOTWMS)
2. Makran subduction zone (MSZ)  Established by the Intergovernmental Oceanographic
Commission (IOC) of UNESCO
Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services
(INCOIS)  In response to the tragic tsunami of 26 December 2004
of the Indian Ocean
 Established as an autonomous body in 1999 at
Hyderabad under the Ministry of Earth Sciences  Funded by UNESCAP Trust Fund (for your reference
United Nations Economic and Social for Asia and the
 It is a unit of the Earth System Science Organization
Pacific) for Tsunami, Disaster and Climate Preparedness
 Objective: To provide the ocean information and
 The IOTWMS became operational in 2013
advisory services to society, industry, government
agencies and also to the scientific community – based on
continuous ocean observations
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Andaman-Nicobar-Sumatra island subduction zone

Makran Subduction Zone (MSZ)
 Also known as Indonesia Subduction zone
 Off the coasts of Iran and Pakistan
 Indo-Australian plate is sub ducting or moving down against the
 Arabian plate which is denser is dipping or Eurasian plate – known for high magnitude earthquakes which can
sub ducting against the Eurasian plate – trigger killer tsunami waves – Tsunami of 26th Dec 2004 in Indian Ocean.
potential source for the generation of the
earthquakes
Civilspedia Team - Powered by Shankar IAS Academy Source: nroer.gov.in
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Q35.Consider the following with reference to
‘Vanilla Islands’ recently seen in news:
1. It includes Seychelles, Mauritius,
Maldives, Madagascar and Comoros.
2. They are situated in South West region
of Indian Ocean.
correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
“Operation Vanilla”
 Humanitarian assistance provided by the Indian Navy to
Madagascar that has been affected heavily by Cyclone
Diane
Madagascar
 An island country in the Indian Ocean.
 Situated off the southeast coast of Africa.
 Tropic of Capricorn passes through it.
 Due to its location, the island is exposed to periodic
cyclones and droughts.
Vanilla Islands
 Seychelles, Mauritius, Madagascar, Comoros, Mayotte
(French), Reunion (French)
 Seychelles, Mauritius, Madagascar, Comoros – Source: http://arnobrosi.tripod.com/
Members of African Union, Indian Ocean Commission,
Indian Ocean Rim Association, International Solar
Alliance.
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Practice Question – Prelims Forest Advisory Committee (FAC)

Q36. Consider the following statements regarding  A statutory body under Section 3 of Forest Conservation
the proposed "Green Credit Scheme". Act 1980 - of Union Ministry of Environment, Forests and
Climate Change.
1. The scheme will allow private agencies  Objective - To grant approval for using forest land for non-
to grow plantations which can be forest purpose such as mining, infrastructure, etc., and also
purchased and handed over to Govt. by to advise the Centre on any matter referred to it in
forest-land user agencies as a connection with the conservation of forests.
compensation for the diverted forests. Green Bonds
2. The Green Credit refers to the amount  Bonds used to raise money to generate environmental
paid by the user agency for the benefits, climate change adaptation, renewables and other
acquisition of forest land for diversion to environment-friendly projects.
non-forest uses. European Green Deal
Which of the statements given above is/are  To achieve zero net emissions of greenhouse gases by 2050
– to become first climate-neutral continent
correct?
Green Protocol – under Suchitwa Mission of Kerala
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only  a set of measures which results in significant reduction of
(c) Both 1 and 2 waste with primary focus on prevention of use of
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 disposables and using reusable alternatives
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Q37. Consider the following statements
regarding the ‘National Space Challenge
2020.’
1. It provides an opportunity to school
students to design, explore and
innovate in making own satellites.
2. It is organized by National Children's
Science Congress.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
National Space Challenge 2020
 An exclusive competition for school students studying

Institution of Engineers (India)
8th to 12th standard all over India.
 A statutory body to promote and advance the
 An opportunity to students to design, explore and
engineering and technology – established in 1920.
innovate in making own satellites.
 IEI has been recognized as Scientific and Industrial
 Guided by National Design Research Forum (NDRF) and
Research Organization (SIRO) by the Ministry of
Space Kidz India
Science & Technology.
 The finished payloads will be launched into Near Space
 IEI has its headquarters in Kolkata.
in a High Altitude Balloon.
 SIRO - A recognition under Department of Scientific
 The payloads/ data will be retrieved and given back to
and Industrial Research.
the respective teams for further study.
 Promote activities in the area of scientific and
 NDRF is an autonomous forum of the Institution of
industrial research, design and development of
Engineers (India).
indigenous technology to achieve technological
 Promotes Research, Design, Development, self-reliance and minimize foreign inputs.
Productization and Innovation through
collaborative efforts.
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Blue Dot Network

 An initiative led by US, Japan and Australia.
 Certify infrastructure projects that demonstrate and
regarding the ‘Blue Dot Network’.
uphold global infrastructure principles.
1. It will bring together governments, the
private sector and other organizations  Certification to serve as a globally recognized seal
behind a set of high-quality global of approval for major infrastructure projects, which
infrastructure development standards. are sustainable and not exploitative.
2. India along with US, Japan and Australia  Brings together governments, the private sector
is a founding member. and other organizations behind a set of high-quality
Which of the statements given above is/are global infrastructure development standards.
correct?  Aligns with the G20’s Principles for Quality
(a) 1 only Infrastructure Investment, particularly on
(b) 2 only governance, environmental standards and
(c) Both 1 and 2 transparency.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
 India is not a member to this network (as of now).
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Q39.Consider the following statements regarding
the ‘Cheetah’:
1. Cheetah is extinct in their natural
habitats in India.
2. At present, Cheetahs are spread across
North America, Australia, Africa and
India in their natural habitat.
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only Cheetah presence in the World
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Introduction of African Cheetahs
 A non-native species to India.
 North-East African Cheetah and South-East African Cheetah.

Cheetah
 Wildlife Institute of India, has short-listed three sites, Shahgarh area
 Asiatic Cheetah and African Cheetah.
in Rajasthan, Kuno Palpur and Nauradehi Sanctuaries in Madhya
 Fewer than 7100 remain, almost all of Pradesh.
them in Africa and a few (around 50) in
 Supreme Court allowed to introduce African Cheetahs in Kuno-
Iran.
Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary or any other part of India after a detailed
 Extinct in India as early as in 1950s and study.
1960s.
Conservation
/Protection IUCN Red List CITES WPA, 1972
Status
Cheetah Vulnerable
Asiatic Critically Appendix I Schedule I
Cheetah Endangered
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Q40. Consider the following:
Portal Objectives
1. MSME SAMADHAN A digital platform to
connect jobseekers and  MSME SAMADHAN - For empowering MSMEs to directly
recruiters
register their cases by filing online application related to
2. MSME SAMBANDH For empowering MSMEs to delayed payments against the buyer of goods/services.
directly register their cases
relating to delayed  MSME SAMBANDH - To monitor the implementation of
payments public procurement policy for MSMEs.
3. MSME SAMPARK To monitor the  MSME SAMPARK – A digital platform to bridge the gap
implementation of public between recruiters and job-seekers (passed out
procurement policy for trainees/students of 18 MSME Technology Centres)
MSMEs
Which of the pairs(s) given above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) None
PARIVESH
• Pro-Active and Responsive facilitation by Interactive,
Virtuous and Environmental Single-window Hub for online
Practice Question – Prelims submission and monitoring of the proposals seeking for
Q41. PARIVESH, sometimes seen in news, is related to Environment, Forest, Wildlife and CRZ Clearances.
(a) A scheme of Ministry of Environment, Forest • Enhances efficiency, transparency and accountability in
Environment, Forest, Wildlife and CRZ Clearance process.
and Climate Change to promote sustainable
development in Metro cities.
(b) An initiative of Ministry of Human Resources
& Development and UNESCO to create
awareness on environment among school
children.
(c) An NGO working for the protection and
conservation of environment.
(d) A single window integrated system for
Environment, Forest, Wildlife and CRZ
Clearances.
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Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the
Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971.
1. Medical termination is allowed under
normal circumstances, if the maximum
length of pregnancy is 24 weeks.
2. The Act explicitly provides for the
prohibition of sex selection, before or after
conception.
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
For termination, the practitioner(s) to opine

MTP Amendment Bill,
Subject MTP Act, 1971
2020 1. the continuance of the pregnancy would
involve a risk to the life of the pregnant
woman or of grave injury to her physical or
One Registered If length of Pregnancy is If length of Pregnancy mental health; or
Medical Practitioner not more than 12 is not more than 20 2. there is a substantial risk that if the child
to give opinion weeks weeks were born, it would suffer from such
At least two physical or mental abnormalities as to be
more than 12 weeks more than 20 weeks seriously handicapped.
Registered Medical
but not more than 20 but not more than 24
Practitioners to give Exception:
weeks weeks
opinion
 if the termination of the pregnancy is
Name and particulars immediately necessary to save the life of
of the woman shall not the pregnant woman
Protection of privacy No provision be revealed except to
person authorised by Exception proposed:
law
 termination is necessitated by the
Medical Board to diagnosis of any of the substantial foetal
Medical Board at the No provision abnormalities diagnosed by the Medical
diagnose substantial
level of State/UT Board.
foetal abnormalities
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Q43. Consider the following statements about the
Public-Private Partnership (PPP) in terms of road
projects in India:
1. Part of the Project Cost is to be provided by
the Government as Construction Support
and the remaining part will be given as
annuity payments over a specified period to
the developer.
2. Revenue collection is not the responsibility
of the private developer.
Which of the below PPP models best describe
both the above statements?
(a) BOT (Build-Operate-Transfer) – Toll
(b) BOT (Build-Operate-Transfer) – Annuity
(c) EPC (Engineering-Procurement-Construction)
(d) HAM (Hybrid-Annuity) model
Hybrid Annuity Model

 A mix of EPC model and BOT-Annuity model
EPC (Engineering-Procurement-Construction) model  The responsibility of design, implementation, and
 Under the EPC model, the Govt. pays private players to operation and maintenance of the project is given to
build projects the private sector developer.
 The private player has no role in the road’s ownership,  The Govt. will give either 40% or 60% of the total
toll collection or maintenance project cost during construction - in tranches - linked
to completion milestones.
BOT (Build-Operate-Transfer) model
 The remaining part of the project cost is arranged by
 Private players have an active role – they build, operate the developer in the form of equity and commercial
and maintain the road for a specified number of years, debt.
say 10-15 years, before transferring the asset back to
the government.  The government will repay the financial investment
made by the developer over a specified number of
 Finances for the project is arranged by the developer. years in the form of annuity.
 In BOT-Toll, the developer collects toll revenue; In BOT-  This model spreads the risk between the developers
Annuity, the developer receives annuity payments from and the Government.
Govt.
 The ownership of the project, after completion is with
the Government and hence, the revenue risk is not on
the part of the developer.
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First Anglo- (1775–1782) Treaty of Salbai.

Maratha War Peace for 20 years
Second Anglo- (1803–1805) Treaty of Bassein.

Practice Question – Prelims Maratha War Marathas lost many
Q44. Bhima Koregaon, sometimes seen in news, is territories.
related to: Third Anglo- (1817–1818) Maratha Confederacy
Maratha War dissolved.
(a) A battle fought between Marathas and British
East India Company in the 19th century.
Bhima-Koregaon Battle
(b) The birthplace of Dr. Bhimrao Ramji
Ambedkar. • A part of the 3rd Anglo-Maratha war at the Bhima-
Koregaon village on the banks of the Bhima river.
(c) A battle fought between Peshwa led
• Between the forces of the Peshwa and the British East
Marathas and Dalit dominated Mughals.
India Company on 1st January 1818.
(d) Series of plundering raids by the Afghan ruler • In this battle, the Dalit-dominated British troops
Ahmad Shah Abdali. defeated the Peshwa army.
• A victory pillar Koregaon Ranstambh was built in Bhima-
Koregaon to commemorate the victory.
Farmers Science Congress
 Organised for the first time in 2020, at the 107th Indian

Practice Question – Prelims Science Congress at the University of Agricultural
Q45. Consider the following statements regarding the Sciences (UAS) in Bengaluru of Karnataka.
"Farmers Science Congress".  Farmers Innovation Fund and Innovation Centres - To
1. It was organised as a part of Indian Science scientifically validate, upscale and propagate innovations
Congress. by farmers.
2. It was conducted for the first time in Indian Indian Science Congress
Science Congress in 2020.
 Professor J. L. Simonsen and Professor P.S. MacMahon.
 The first meeting of the Congress was held from January
correct?
15-17, 1914 at the premises of the Asiatic Society,
(a) 1 only Calcutta
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2  A professional body under Department of Science &
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Technology, Ministry of Science & Technology.
 Theme – 107th ISC - “Science & Technology: Rural

Development”.
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reference to ‘State Energy Efficiency
Index 2019’:
1. It was developed by Bureau of Energy
Efficiency (BEE) in association with
Alliance for an Energy Efficiency
Economy (AEEE).
2. Haryana, Kerala and Karnataka are in
the ‘Front runner’ category.
is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Source: State Energy Efficiency Index 2019
State Energy Efficiency Index 2019

• Developed jointly by the
 Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE)
 Alliance for an Energy Efficiency Economy (AEEE)
• The Index incorporates qualitative, quantitative and
outcome-based indicators to assess energy efficiency
initiatives, programs and outcomes
• Covered sectors – buildings, industry, municipalities,
transport, agriculture, DISCOMS
• The 2019 index has included new indicators like
the adoption of Energy Conservation Building Code (ECBC)
2017, energy efficiency in MSME clusters, etc.
• The States/UTs are grouped into four groups based on
aggregated Total Primary Energy Supply (TPES) required to
meet the state’s actual energy demand (electricity, coal,
oil, gas, etc.) across sectors
 Front Runner, Achiever, Contender, Aspirant
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Q47. Yuelu Declaration, sometimes seen in news,
is related to:
(a) Climate Change Mitigation, adopted in
25th COP of UNFCCC.
(b) Upholding Women rights by UN
Women.
(c) Protection and Promotion of Linguistic
Diversity.
(d) Elimination of TB by 2050.
Yuelu Proclamation
 Adopted at 1st World Language Resources Protection
Conference, jointly organized by the China and
Languages Included In Eighth Schedule
UNESCO, in Changsha, China, in 2018.
Assamese Konkani Punjabi Bodo
 About the protection and promotion of linguistic
Bengali Malayalam Sanskrit
diversity in the world.
Gujarati Manipuri Sindhi Urdu
 Recognises that the protection and promotion of
linguistic diversity is crucial to the achievement of the Hindi Marathi Tamil
Odia
Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
Kannada Nepali Telugu
 Requires proactive, accountable and measurable Maithili Dogri
participation of all sectors of the international Kashmiri Santhali
community.
 An important supporting document for the “UN

International Year of Indigenous Languages 2019”.
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Q48. Which of the following correctly describes
PNEUMOSIL?
(a) Near-microscopic animals with long,
plump bodies and scrunched-up heads.
(b) A private Israeli Space Mission to Moon.
(c) A vaccine against a leading cause of
deadly childhood disease pneumonia.
(d) An invasive species causing destruction in
Eastern Himalayas.
Gavi, the Vaccine Alliance

PNEUMOSIL  Formerly Global Alliance for Vaccines and Immunisation
 A vaccine against the pneumococcus bacterium - a (GAVI).
leading cause of deadly childhood pneumonia.  An international alliance started in the year 2000.
 Developed though a collaboration between Serum  To improve access to new and underused vaccines for
Institute of India, Pvt., Ltd. and PATH, with funding from children who are living in the world’s poorest countries.
the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation.
Electronic Vaccine Intelligence Network (eVIN)
 To provide protection for children and more affordable
for low- and middle-income countries.  Digitizes vaccine stocks and monitors the storage
temperatures by installation of temperature loggers.
 Achieved prequalification by the World Health
Organization - allows PNEUMOSIL to be procured by  Aims to support the Government’s Universal
United Nations agencies and Gavi, the Vaccine Alliance. Immunization Programme
 Implemented jointly by the United Nations Development

Programme (UNDP) and Ministry of Health and Family
Welfare.
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reference to the Constitution of India:
1. The Constitution of India has explicit
provisions regarding Preventive detention.
2. The maximum period for which a person
can be detained without obtaining the
opinion of an advisory board is three
months.
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
33rd India Economic Summit

 Organised jointly by Ministry of Commerce and Industry, World
Practice Question – Prelims Economic Forum & Confederation of Indian Industry
 Theme :“Innovating for India: Strengthening South Asia,
Q50. Consider the following statements. Impacting the World”
1. India Economic Summit, 2019, was  Medicines from the sky Project - Government of Telangana in
organized by the Government of collaboration with Apollo Hospitals and WEF has formalised the
India in partnership with the World pilot project in Telangana.
Economic Forum. World Economic Forum
2. World Economic Forum releases  An International Organization for Public-Private Cooperation -
Global Competitiveness Report. Established in 1971
Which of the statement(s) given above  Headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland

is/are correct?  Objective: To improve the state of the world by engaging
(a) 1 only business, political, academic and other leaders of society to
(b) 2 only shape global, regional and industry agendas.
(c) Both 1 and 2  Publications: Global Competitiveness report, Global Gender Gap
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Report, Travel and Tourism Competitiveness Report, Regional
Risks for Doing Business Report, Social Mobility Index, and Global
Risks Report.
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Practice Question – Prelims Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS)

Q51. Consider the following statements with • A pan-India wildlife research organization
reference to ‘Asian Waterbird Census (AWC)’:
• One of the oldest scientific organisations in India
1. It is jointly coordinated by the Bombay
• Working for nature conservation since 1883
Natural History Society (BNHS) and
Wetlands International, in India. • Aim: To spread awareness about nature through science-
based research, conservation advocacy, education,
2. It is a citizen science programme that scientific publications, nature tours and other
focusses on monitoring the status programmes
of waterbirds and wetlands.
Wetlands International
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
• A global not-for-profit organisation
correct?
• Aim: Conservation and restoration of wetlands
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only • Supported by government and NGO membership from
(c) Both 1 and 2 around the world
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
 Objectives
Asian Waterbird Census (AWC)
 To obtain information on an annual basis of
 An integral part of the global waterbird monitoring waterbird populations at wetlands in the region
programme – the International Waterbird Census (IWC) during the non-breeding period of most species
(January)
 In India, AWC is jointly coordinated by Wetlands International
and the Bombay Natural History Society  To monitor on an annual basis the status and
condition of wetlands
 The census covers the entire East Asian – Australasian Flyway
and a large part of the Central Asian Flyway  To encourage greater interest in waterbirds and
wetlands amongst citizens
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the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010
2010 and the Foreign Contribution  Regulates the acceptance and utilisation of foreign
(Regulation) Rules, 2011: contribution or foreign hospitality by certain individuals or
1. The Act regulates the acceptance and associations or companies.
utilisation of foreign contribution or  Prohibits acceptance and utilisation of foreign contribution
foreign hospitality by certain individuals or foreign hospitality for any activities that are detrimental
or associations or companies. to the national interest.
2. All gift articles received for personal use
Recent development
are exempted from the definition of
foreign contribution.  Jan 30, 2020 - Institutions/organisation setup under a
Central Act or a State Act or and required to have their
accounts compulsorily audited by the Comptroller and
correct?
Auditor General of India (CAG) or any of the agencies of the
(a) 1 only CAG are exempted from Foreign Contribution (Regulation)
(b) 2 only Act, 2010.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Serious Fraud Investigation Office

 Naresh Chandra Committee – recommended “Corporate Serious
Practice Question – Prelims Fraud Office” as a multi-disciplinary agency.
Q53. Consider the following statements with  In 2003, the Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) was
reference to ‘Serious Fraud established through Resolution - to investigate corporate frauds
Investigation Office (SFIO)’:  Given Statutory status under Section 211 of the Companies Act,
1. It is a statutory body under the 2013, later.
Ministry of Corporate Affairs.  As per Section 212 (1) of the Companies Act, 2013, the Central
Govt. may assign the investigation into the affairs of a company to
2. Its purpose is to investigate
the SFIO,
corporate frauds assigned to it by
the Central Government.  on receipt of report of the Registrar or Inspector under section
208;
is/are correct?  on intimation of a special resolution passed by a company
requesting an investigation into its affairs;
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only  in public interest;
(c) Both 1 and 2  on the request of any Department of Central Government or
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 State Government.
 HQ – New Delhi – Under Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
50
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Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR)

Practice Question – Prelims  An Indian non-partisan, non-governmental organization
which works in the area of electoral and political reforms
Q54. It is a nationwide campaign comprising of more
than 1200 NGOs and other citizen led  Established in August 1999 by a group of Professors from
organizations working together on electoral the Indian Institute of Management (IIM), Ahmedabad.
reforms, improving democracy and governance National Election Watch (NEW)
in India. The above description best describes
 A nationwide campaign comprising of more than 1200
(a) Association of Democratic Reforms NGOs and other citizen led organizations working together
on electoral reforms, improving democracy and
(b) SVEEP Programme of Election governance in India – since 2002
Commission of India
 Election Watch activities comprise of collecting data from
(c) India International Institute of the affidavits filed by the contesting candidates in the
Democracy & Election Management elections, collating this information in an easy way for the
voters to understand and then disseminating this
(d) National Election Watch information via media and other channels.
Wealth Accounting and the Valuation of Ecosystem Services

Practice Question – Prelims (WAVES):
Q55. Consider the following statements with reference to  A World Bank-led global partnership, which brings together a
the Wealth Accounting and the Valuation of broad coalition of UN agencies, governments, international
Ecosystem Services (WAVES): institutes, nongovernmental organizations and academics.
1. It is a World Bank-led global partnership that
 It was launched at 10th CoP to the Convention on Biological
aims to promote sustainable development by
Diversity in Nagoya, Japan.
ensuring that natural resources are
mainstreamed in development planning and  Now a part of the broader World Bank umbrella initiative-
national economic accounts. the Global Program for Sustainability (GPS).
2. It was launched at COP18 to the UN Framework  It aims to promote sustainable development by ensuring that
Convention on Climate Change, 2012. natural resources are mainstreamed in development planning
3. It brings together a broad coalition to and national economic accounts.
implement Natural Capital Accounting (NCA),  WAVES is the global partnership to implement Natural Capital
with internationally agreed standards. Accounting (NCA), where there are internationally agreed
Which of the statements given above is/are standards.
correct?
 Core Implementing Partners of WAVES: 10 countries – Zambia,
a) 1 only Rwanda, Uganda, Botswana, Madagascar, Colombia, Costa Rica,
b) 1 and 2 only Guatemala, Indonesia, Phillipines.
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only  India is not yet a partner in this partnership.
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Target 2020 Prelims Series – January 2020 – Answers

Option – b - A satellite constellation development project by SpaceX
1. Project Starlink
to deploy the world's most advanced broadband internet system.
2. Convention on Migratory Species Option – d – 1, 2, 3, 4
3. Scheme of Fund for Regeneration of
Option – d – 1, 2 and 3
Traditional Industries
4. Atal Bhujal Yojana Option – a – 1 and 3 only
5. National Infrastructure Pipeline Option – c – 1 and 2 only
6. Rashtriya Arogya Nidhi Option – c – 1, 2 and 4
7. CAA 2019 Option – d – Neither 1 nor 2
8. Blue Flag Certification Option – c – Both 1 and 2
9. Future Skills PRIME Option – b – 2 only
10. Island Development Agency Option – d – Neither 1 nor 2 Civilspedia Team - Powered by Shankar IAS Academy

11. GISAID – COVID19 Option – c – Both 1 and 2
12. Ecological Flow Option – b – 2 only
13. Raisina Dialogue Option – d – 1, 3 and 4
14. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation Option – c – 2, 3 and 4
15. Eurasian Economic Union Option – c - 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
16. Hormuz Peace Initiative Option – d - Neither 1 nor 2
17. Sirimavo – Shastri Pact Option – c – Both 1 and 2
18. Dedicated Freight Corridor Option – b – 1 and 3
19. PM Rojgar Protsahan Yojana Option – b – 2 only
20. Nat. Strategy for Financial Inclusion Option – a – 1 only Civilspedia Team - Powered by Shankar IAS Academy
52
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21. E-Kuber, eBkray Option – b – 2 only
22. Carbon Declaration Project Option – c – Both 1 and 2
23. Global Climate Risk Index Option – c - Germanwatch
24. Integrated Road Accident Database Option – a – 1 only
25. National Investigation Agency Option – d – 1, 2 and 3
26. Project Replan Option – b - To reduce the plastic wastes in nature
27. TOI 700 Star System Option – c - An exoplanet in the habitable zone of its star
Option – d - A program launched by NASA Terrestrial Hydrology Program to
28. SnowEx
address important gaps in snow remote sensing knowledge.
29. Special Wildlife Operations Option – c – 3 and 4 only Civilspedia Team - Powered by Shankar IAS Academy
30. Yada Yada Virus Option – d - It is an alphavirus, discovered recently among mosquitoes.

31. Spitzer Space Telescope Option – b - Spitzer Space Telescope
32. PM JI-VAN Option – d – Neither 1 nor 2
33. Indian Data Relay Satellite System Option – a – 1 only
34. Makran Subduction Zone Option – d – Neither 1 nor 2
35. Vanilla Islands Option – b - 2 only
36. Green Credit Scheme Option – a – 1 only
37. National Space Challenge Option – a – 1 only
38. Blue Dot Network Option – a – 1 only
39. Cheetah Option – a – 1 only
40. MSME Portals Option – d - None Civilspedia Team - Powered by Shankar IAS Academy
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Option – d - A single window integrated system for
41. PARIVESH
Environment, Forest, Wildlife and CRZ Clearances
42. Medical Termination of Pregnancy Option – d – Neither 1 nor 2
43. Hybrid Annuity Model Option – d - HAM (Hybrid-Annuity) model

Option – a - A battle fought between Marathas and British
44. Bhima Koregaon
East India Company in the 19th century.
45. Farmers Science Congress Option – c – Both 1 and 2
46. State Energy Efficiency Index Option – b - 2 only

Option – c - Protection and Promotion of Linguistic
47. Yuelu Declaration
Diversity
Option – c - A vaccine against a leading cause of deadly
48. Pneumosil
Civilspedia Team - Powered by Shankar IAS Academy childhood disease pneumonia.
49. Preventive Detention Option – c – Both 1 and 2
50. India Economic Summit Option – c – Both 1 and 2

51. Asian Waterbird Census Option – c – Both 1 and 2
52. FCRA Option – a – 1 only
53. Serious Fraud Investigation Office Option – c – Both 1 and 2
54. National Election Watch Option – d – National Election Watch
55. Wealth Accounting and Valuation of Ecosystem Services Option – c – 1 and 3 only
54

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Target 2020 Prelims Series – January 2020 – List of Topics

8. Blue Flag Certification 18. Dedicated Freight Corridor 28. SnowEx

Target 2020 Prelims Series – January 2020 – List of Topics

35. Vanilla Islands 45. Farmers Science Congress

37. National Space Challenge 47. Yuelu Declaration

39. Cheetah 49. Preventive Detention

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Practice Question – Prelims  Program of SpaceX.

 To provide fast, reliable internet to locations where

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Practice Question – Prelims

Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species

CMS – Organizational Structure

• Entered into force – 1st November 1983; India – party

• Secretariat – Bonn, Germany.

• Scientific Council - provides advice to the Conference of

• Conference Of the Parties – COP:

 decision making organ of CMS.

 meets once every three years.

 COP – 13 – Gandhinagar, India

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Scheme of Fund for Upgradation and Regeneration of

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 Implementing Agencies: NGOs, institutions of the Central

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Atal Bhujal Yojana

Practice Question – Prelims

Share of Centre, states and the

Practice Question – Prelims Rashtriya Arogya Nidhi Scheme

1. Rashtriya Arogya Nidhi  The scheme has three components

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Practice Question – Prelims The Citizenship Amendment Act, 2019

The Citizenship Amendment Act, 2019

Practice Question – Prelims Blue Flag certification

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Source: MoEF&CC, GoI

Practice Question – Prelims

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Salient Features of Future Skills PRIME:

Practice Question – Prelims Island Development Agency

Practice Question – Prelims Ecological flows

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Practice Question – Prelims Raisina Dialogue

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 Asia’s premier defence summit

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Shanghai Cooperation Organisation

Eurasian Economic Union (EAEU)

Hormuz Peace Initiative

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Sirimavo- Shastri Pact, 1964: