Engineering Chemistry Que.

When water is becoming hard due to

the salts other than carbonates then the
UNIT IA type of hardness is ________.
A. Carbonate
Que. Suspended impurities can be B. Non-carbonate
separated by__________. C. Sulphate
A. Zeolite process D. Nitrate
B. Ion Exchange process Ans. B
C. Filtration
Boiled
D. Osmosis Que. MgCO3 + H2O Mg(OH)2
Ans. C + CO2 The hardness removed by above
method is ________ hardness.
Que. The impurities in water having A. Mild
particle size greater than _________ are B. Temporary
suspended particles. C. Non-carbonate
A. 1000 A° D. Permanent
B. 10 A° Ans. B
C. 0. 1 A°
D. 1 A°
Ans. A Que. Rain water is ________ water.
A. Hard
Que. The impurities like bacteria, fungi B. Soft
etc. and other small size aquatic animals C. Impure
are coming in the category of _________ D. Double distilled
impurities. Ans. B
A. Suspended
B. Biological Que. Commonly used unit of hardness is
C. Colloidal ________.
D. Dissolved A. ml
Ans. B B. Kg
C. ppm of CaCO3
D. cm
Que. Water which does not form lather Ans. C
readily with soap is called as _________.
A. Soft water Que. In EDTA vs hard water titration, the
B. Pure water indicator used is _______.
C. Impure water A. Phenolpthalein
D. Hard water B. EBT
Ans. D C. Methyl orange
D. Fluoroscien
Que. The water which contains impurities Ans. B
like Ca(HCO3)2 , Mg(HCO3)2, MgCO3 is
the type of _________ hardness. Que. The colour of the metal-EDTA
A. Carbonate complex is ________.
B. Non-carbonate A. Colourless
C. Permanent B. Wine red
D. Mild C. Blue
Ans. A D. Yellow
Ans. A
Que. The colour of metal-EBT complex is Que. In alkalinity titration, second end
________. point is called as ________ end point.
A. Colourless A. Phenolpthalein
B. Wine red B. EBT
C. Blue C. Methyl orange
D. Yellow D. Fluoroscien
Ans. B Ans. C

Que. Na2EDTA is ________dentate Que. In alkalinity experiment, methyl

ligand. orange end point is _________.
A. Bi A. Colourless to pink
B. Tri B. Pink to colourless
C. Tetra C. Yellow to red
D. Hexa D. None of these
Ans. D Ans. C

Que. In EDTA-hard water titration along Que. If P = 0, then _________ alkalinities

with indicator ________ is added. are present.
A. HCl A. OH¯
B. Buffer B. HCO3¯
C. NaOH C. CO3¯ ¯
D. HNO3 D. OH¯ and CO3¯ ¯
Ans. B Ans. B

Que. In EDTA titration by adding buffer Que. If P = ½ M, then

solution _______ maintained. ________alkalinities are present.
A. Alkalinity A. OH¯
B. Acidity B. HCO3¯
C. pH C. CO3¯ ¯
D. Neutrality D. OH¯ and CO3¯ ¯
Ans. C Ans. C

Que. In alkalinity titration, first end point Que. If P = M, then

is called as _________ end point. _________alkalinities are present.
A. Phenolpthalein A. OH¯
B. EBT B. HCO3¯
C. Methyl orange C. CO3¯ ¯
D. Fluorosciene D. OH¯ and CO3¯ ¯
Ans. A Ans. A

Que. In alkalinity experiment, Que. If P < ½ M, then

phenolphthalein end point is _________. ________alkalinities are present.
A. Colourless to pink A. OH¯
B. Pink to colourless B. HCO3¯
C. Yellow to red C. CO3¯ ¯
D. None of these D. HCO3¯ and CO3¯ ¯
Ans. B Ans. D

Que. If P > ½ M, then

_________alkalinities are present.
A. OH¯ C. mg/lit
B. HCO3¯ D. mg/ml
C. CO3¯ ¯ Ans. C
D. OH¯ and CO3¯ ¯
Ans. D Que. In EDTA method, buffer solution
used to make water alkaline is a mixture of
Que. Determination of Alkalinity is _____ + _____.
________type of titration. A. NH4Cl + NH4OH
A. Precipitation B. NH4Cl + H2O
B. Redox C. NH4OH + KCl
C. Complexometric D. All of these
D. Acid-base Ans. A
Ans. D
Que. In EDTA method, pH of the buffer
Que. Hardness determination is solution is ______.
_______type of titration. A. 5
A. Precipitation B. 8
B. Redox C. 10
C. Complexometric D. 7
D. Acid-base Ans. C
Ans. C
Que. 1 M Na2EDTA =
Que. Alkalinity of water is due to _______CaCO3.
_______. A. 10 g
A. OH¯ B. 100 g
B. CO3¯ ¯ C. 1000 g
C. HCO3¯ D. None of these
D. All of these Ans. B
Ans. D
Que. Salts responsible for permanent
Que. Salts responsible for hardness are in hardness are ___________.
______ form. A. Calcium sulphate and calcium
A. Insoluble bicarbonate
B. Soluble B. Sodium sulphate and calcium
C. Partly soluble bicarbonate
D. None of these ((C )) Sodium sulphate and Magnesium
Ans. B chloride
D. Calcium sulphate and Magnesium
Que. Carbonate hardness =__________ chloride
hardness. Ans. D
A. Permanent
B. Mild Que. Salts responsible for temporary
C. Temporary hardness are ___________.
D. None of these A. Calcium carbonate and magnesium
Ans. C bicarbonate
B. Sodium sulphate and calcium
bicarbonate
Que. Unit for hardness is _______ ppm. ((C )) Sodium sulphate and Magnesium
A. gm / lit chloride
B. lit/gm
D. Calcium sulphate and Magnesium B. Soap consuming capacity
chloride ((C ))Soap forming capacity
Ans. A D. Soap dissolving capacity
Ans. B
Que. Temporary hardness of water is
removed by _________. Que. Magnesium bicarbonate on boiling
A. Filtration of water forms _________.
B. Sedimentation of water A. MgCO3+CO2+H2O
((C ))Boiling of water B. MgCO3+CO2
D. All of these ((C )) Mg(OH)2+CO2
Ans. C D. MgCO3+Mg(OH)2
Ans. C
Que. Permanent hardness of water is
removed by _________. Que. Hardness of water is determined by
A. Filtration of water _________.
B. Sedimentation of water A. EDTA Method
((C ))Boiling of water B. Volhard’s Method
D. Chemical treatment ((C ))Mohr’s Method
Ans. D D. Iodometric titration Method
Ans. A
Que. On boiling hard water temporary
hardness is removed by forming Que. In the determination of hardness of
precipitates of _________. water Na2EDTA is used instead of EDTA
A. Calcium and magnesium chloride because _________.
B. calcium and magnesium carbonate ((A) Na2EDTA)is tetradentate and EDTA
((C ))Calcium carbonate and magnesium is bidentate
hydroxide B. Na2EDTA is cheap than EDTA
D. Calcium hydroxide and magnesium ((C )) Na2EDTA is colourless and EDTA
carbonate is coloured
Ans. C D. Na2EDTA is easily soluble in water
than EDTA
Que. Molecular weight of calcium Ans. D
carbonate is _________.
A. 100 Que. M-EDTA complex is _________.
B. 50 A. Neutral
((C ))25 B. Negatively charged
D. 200 ((C ))Positively charged
Ans. A D. None of these
Ans. B
Que. Degree of hardness is _________.
A. Amount of hardness present in the Que. Hard water---------
sample water A. Forms lather readily
B. Amount of hardness B. Does not form lather easily
((C ))Amount of hardness imparting C. Precipitates out on to soap
impurities in sample water D. Dissolves the soap completely
D. Amount of sample water Ans. B
Ans. C
Que. Temporary hardness of water is due
Que. Hardness of water is its _________. to------
A. Soap releasing capacity A. Chlorides
B. Bicarbonates and some soluble C. 1 ppm of hardness causing salts per
carbonates litre
C. Nitrates and some soluble gases D. 100 mg CaCO3 per 1000ml
D. Heavy metal salts Ans. D
Ans. B
Que. The alkalinity in water cannot be due
Que. The hardness causing salts are to
expressed in terms of---------- A. OH- ions
A. MgCO3 B. CO32-
B. CaCl2 C. CO32- and HCO3- both
C. CaCO3 D. OH- and HCO3
D. Ca(HCO3)2 Ans. D
Ans. C
Que. When Phenolphthalein alkalinity = 0
Que. EDTA means--------- A. Phenolphthalein should be used
A. Eriochrome diethylene tetraacetic acid B. Phenolphthalein and methyl orange
B. Ethyl diacetate acetic acid both should be used
C. Eriochrome diamine tetraethyl acetic C. Methyl orange only
acid D. No indicator is required
D. Ethylene diammine tetra acetic acid Ans. C
Ans. D
Que. 1M Na2EDTA =-------------------
Que. Complex formation in EDTA method CaCO3
involves----- A. 10 g
A. Formation of ionic bonds with cations B. 100g
and ligands C. 1000g
B. Formation of a ring like compound D. None of these
with ligands Ans. B
C. Formation of a ring like structure with
cations and donating species Que. A method of water softening that
D. Formation of a structure with metal in removes hardness ions and replaces them
the centre and ligands with sodium ions that does not affect soap
Ans. D is
A. Washing soda addition
Que. Temporary hardness in water can be B. Calgon conditioning
removed due to boiling because C. Zeolite method
A. The hardness causing salts get D. All of the above
decomposed Ans. D
B. They can become non-hardness
causing Que. 1 ppm CaCO3 equivalent hardness is
C. The salts can evaporate along with meant by
water A. 10 mg/lit CaCO3 eq.
D. The salts get converted to permanent B. 100 mg/lit CaCO3 eq.
hardness causing salts C. 1 mg/lit CaCO3 eq.
Ans. A D. 103 mg/lit CaCO3 eq.
Ans. C
Que. Standard hard water means water
containing
A. 1 mg of hardness causing salts per ml
B. 1 mg of hardness causing salts per litre
Que. Hardness of water for high pressure D. 2P-M
boilers in term of ppm CaCO3 eq. should Ans. B
be
A. 0-10
B. 10-25 Que. In determination of alkalinity
C. 25-50 using dual indicator method, if P=0,
D. above 50 HCO3- alkalinity is equal to___________.
Ans. A A. 2P
B. M
Que. Total hardness is sum of C. M-2P
A. Concentrations of all the salts present D. 2P-M
B. Concentrations of calcium and Mg salts Ans. B
present
(( C))Temporary hardness and permanent
hardness Que. In determination of alkalinity
D. Concentrations of impurities present in using dual indicator method, if P=1/2M,
the water CO3-- alkalinity is equal to___________.
Ans. C A. 2P
B. M
Que. In EDTA titration addition of buffer C. M-2P
solution maintains D. 2P-M
A. Alkalinity Ans. A
B. Acidity
C. pH
D. Neutrality Que. In determination of alkalinity
Ans. C using dual indicator method, if P < 1/2M,
CO3-- alkalinity is equal to___________.
A. 2P
Que. The combinations of alkaline salts B. M
present in water can not be C. M-2P
A. OH- and CO3-2 D. 0
B. OH- and H CO3- Ans. A
C. H CO3- and CO3-2
D. None of these Que. In determination of alkalinity
Ans. B using dual indicator method, if P > 1/2M,
CO3-- alkalinity is equal to___________.
Que. OH- ions imparts _____________ to A. 2P
water. B. 2 (M-P)
A. Permanent Hardness C. M-2P
B. Temporary hardness D. 0
C. Alkalinity Ans. B
D. Colour
Ans. C Que. In determination of alkalinity
using dual indicator method, if P > 1/2M,
Que. In determination of alkalinity HCO3- alkalinity is equal to___________.
using dual indicator method, if P=M, OH- A. 2P
alkalinity is equal to___________. B. 2 (M-P)
A. 2P C. M-2P
B. M D. 2P-M
C. M-2P Ans. D
Que. In determination of alkalinity Que. 100 ml of water sample requires
using dual indicator method, if P < 1/2M, 15 ml of 0.05N HCl for the end point
OH- alkalinity is equal to___________. using phenolphthalein and methyl orange
A. 2P indicator. Find the total alkalinity of water.
B. 2 (M-P) A. 250ppm
C. M-2P B. 275ppm
D. 2P-M C. 300ppm
Ans. C D. 375ppm
Ans. D

Que. 1 ppm hardness is one part of Que. If the total hardness of water is
CaCO3 equivalent hardness present 380ppm and non-carbonate hardness of
in___________. water is 300ppm then permanent hardness
A. 10-6 parts of water of water is ___________.
B. 106 parts of water A. 80ppm
C. 103 parts of water B. 300ppm
D. 10-3 parts of water C. 680ppm
Ans. B D. None of these
Ans. B
Que. Match the following.
1. Foamig P. Boilers Que. 50 ml of water sample requires
2. EDTA Q. Sticky 10 ml of 0.01N HCl for the end point
3. Scales R. EBT using phenolphthalein and another 5ml for
4. Priming S. Castor methyl orange indicator. Find the total
oil alkalinity of water.
A. 1-S ,2-R , 3-Q , 4-P A. 150 ppm
B. 1-R ,2-S , 3-P , 4-Q B. 200 ppm
C. 1-S ,2-R , 3-P , 4-Q C. 250 ppm
D. 1-S ,2-P , 3-Q , 4-R D. 300 ppm
Ans. Ans. A

Que. 50 ml of water sample requires 6

Que. Upon boiling hard water ml of 0.01N HCl for the end point using
bicarbonatese decomposed to phenolphthalein and another 4 ml for
yield___________. methyl orange indicator. Find the total
A. insoluble chlorides alkalinity of water.
B. soluble chlorides A. 100 ppm
C. insoluble carbonates or hydroxides B. 200 ppm
D. soluble carbonates or hydroxides C. 300 ppm
Ans. B D. 400 ppm
Ans. A

Que. 10mg/lit is equal to Que. Which indicator is used in the

____________. determination of alkalinity of water
A. 0.1ppm A. phenolphthalein and methyl orange
B. 1ppm B. starch
C. 10ppm C. EBT
D. 100ppm D. all of these
Ans. C Ans. A
 C. sodium thiosulphate
Que. Unit of hardness of water is ____ D. ferrous ammoniu sulphate
A. ppm Ans. A
B. ppb
C. mg/litre Que. Hardness of water is expressed in
D. all of them terms of equivalent of ----
Ans. A. calcium chloride
B. magnesium chloride
Que. Permanent hardness is due to C. calcium carbonate
dissolved calcium and magnesium salts of D. magnesium carbonate
_____ Ans. C
A. chlorides
B. nitrates UNIT IB
C. sulphates
D. all of them Que. To avoid corrosion due to dissolved
Ans. D oxygen, water is treated with ______.
A. CaCO3
B. CuSO4
C. Na2SO3
D. KMnO4
Ans. C

Que. Permanent hardness is not imparted Que. Dissolved CO2 from water is
to water due to _____ removed by adding suitable amount of
A. chlorides _______.
B. sulphates A. NH3
C. bicarbonates B. CO2
D. nitrates C. H2S
Ans. C D. H2O
Ans. A
Que. Soap consuming capacity of water is
called as ----
A. corrosion Que. To prevent corrosion due to acid
B. Softness of water formation the pH of the boiler feed water
C. Hardness of water is maintained in between _______.
D. alkalinity A. 2 to 4
Ans. C B. 8. 5 to 9
C. 3. 5 to 7
Que. Alkaline hardness is also called as---- D. 11. 5 to 14
A. non-carbonate hardness Ans. B
B. carbonate hardness
C. permanent hardness Que. Galvanic corrosion can be avoided
D. none of these by suspending _________ plates.
Ans. B A. Steel
B. Chromium
Que. Alkalinity is measured volumetrically C. Silver
by titration of sample water against a D. Zinc
standard solution of ----- Ans. D
A. Sulphuric acid
B. silver nitrate
Que. When boiler produces steam rapidly, Ans. B
some water droplets are carried along with
steam. This process of wet steam Que. Normally sludge formation is
formation is called as ________. towards the ________ parts of the boiler
A. Carry over tube.
B. Foaming A. Hotter
C. Priming B. Bottom
D. Sludge formation C. Cooler
Ans. C D. Middle
Ans. C
Que. Foaming is formation of continuous
________ on the surface of water. Que. The fast corrosion of boiler caused
A. Steam by highly alkaline condition of water is
B. Sludge called as ________.
C. Droplets A. Osmosis
D. Foam B. Evaporation
Ans. D C. Precipitation
D. Caustic embitterment
Que. Priming and foaming reduces Ans. D
________.
A. Efficiency of machines. Que. Caustic embrittelment can be
B. Hardness of water. avoided by treating boiler feed water with
C. Alkalinity of water. _______.
D. Chloride content in water. A. Sodium carbonate
Ans. A B. Sodium phosphate
C. Sodium chloride
Que. The slimy and loose deposits of D. Sodium sulphate
precipitated salts in a boiler tube is known Ans. B
as _______.
A. Scale Que. Scales are generally formed at
B. Sludge ________ parts of the boiler tube.
C. Priming A. Upper
D. Carry over B. Side
Ans. B C. Hotter
D. Middle
Que. Carry over is the alternative name Ans. C
for _________.
A. Sludge formation Que. Scale forming salts like CaSO4,
B. Corrosion Mg(HCO3)2 in the boiler water can be
C. Scale formation converted into highly soluble complexes
D. Priming and foaming by adding __________.
Ans. D A. Calgon
B. MgSO4
Que. The hard and strong coating formed C. Na2CO3
inside the boiler tube by chemical reaction D. CuSO4
is called as _______. Ans. A
A. Sludge
B. Scale Que. By adding _______ at a boiler
C. Carry over temperature, it is possible to form
D. Hard water
gelatinous precipitate of scale and sludge A. Minimize scale formation
forming salts. B. Maximize sludge formation
A. Sodium carbonate C. Form a coating on scales
B. Sodium sulphate D. Prevent scales and sludges
C. Sodium aluminate Ans. C
D. Sodium hydroxide
Ans. C
Que. Caustic embrittlement is the boiler
Que. By using _______ chelating phenomenon in which
compound scales and sludges can be A. Corrosion of boiler due to sodium
converted into soluble complexes. phosphate occurs
A. Na2CO3 B. Corrosion of boiler due to calgon
B. EDTA occurs
C. Na2PO4 C. Corrosion of boiler due to sodium
D. CaCO3 aluminate occurs
Ans. B D. Corrosion of boiler due to sodium
hydroxide and soda lime occurs
Que. Due to scale and sludge deposition Ans. D
in boiler efficiency of boiler ______.
A. Increases Que. The type of phosphates used for
B. Decreases acidic water is:
C. Remains same A. NaH2PO4
D. All of these B. Na2PO4
Ans. B C. Na3PO4
D. NaHPO4
Que. Sludge’s are formed by substances Ans. C
which have
A. More solubility in cold water Que. Presence of silica in boiler water
B. More solubility in acidic water causes
C. More solubility in hot water A. Sludge formation
D. More solubility in alkaline water B. priming
Ans. A C. foaming
D. scale formation
Que. The permitted hardness for water Ans. D
used in high pressure boilers is
A. 10-20 ppm Que. Buffer solution is added during
B. 2-3 ppm complexometric titration to maintain
C. 0-10 ppm pH=10
D. 15-50 ppm A. Since EBT shows a blue colour at such
Ans. B pH
B. The metal EDTA complex is stable
Que. Blow-down operation means C. The H+ ions released during complex
A. Replacing salt water with fresh air formation are balanced by the buffer
B. Replacing salt water with fresh water solution
C. Blowing air strongly through boiler D. All the above reasons
D. Blowing down hot and hard water Ans. D
Ans. B
Que. Dissolved oxygen in water
Que. Organic substances like tannin are A. Promotes corrosion
added to B. Increases boiler life
C. Reacts with salts in water Ans. B
D. Reduces the hardness of water
Ans. A Que. The use of Na2CO3 in boilers leads
to
Que. Hydrazine reacts with dissolved A. Formation of NaHCO3
oxygen to form B. Formation of NaOH
A. Ammonia C. Formation of Na3PO4
B. Nitrogen gas and water D. All the above
C. Sodium sulphite Ans. B
D. Ammonium hydroxide
Ans. B Que. Corrosion of boiler is caused by feed
water containing
Que. To remove CO2 from boiler feed A. O2
water B. CO2
A. Ammonia is used C. salts of weak base-strong acid
B. Sodium sulphide is used D. all of these
C. N2H4 is used Ans. D
D. Sodium carbonate is used
Ans. A Que. The preferred chemical for removing
O2 gas dissolved in boiler feed water is
Que. Wet steam means A. Na2SO4
A. Priming B. N2H4
B. Foaming C. Na2S
C. Steaming D. NH3
D. Deaerating Ans. B
Ans. A
Que. The chemical used for removing
Que. At high temperatures of water dissolved O2 in boiler feed water is
A. CaSO4 dissolves sufficiently A. Hydrazine
B. CaSO4 precipitates out as a scale B. Sodium alluminate
C. CaSO4 delocalizes as sludge C. alum
D. MgCl2 does not hydrolyze D. sodium phosphate
Ans. B Ans. A

Que. Water Analysis is an important topic Que. Removal of dissolved CO2 from the
of study since boiler feed water is done by adding
A. Water is available everywhere A. soda
B. Water has numerous industrial B. ammonia
applications C. oxygen
C. The nature of water affects all living D. NaAlO2
beings Ans. B
D. All of the above
Ans. D Que. Presence of salt of weak base-strong
acid in the boiler feed water causes the
Que. At the cooler portions of the main problem
boiler__________ are formed/occurred. A. caustic embrittlement
A. Scales B. priming
B. Sludges C. sludges formation
C. Corrosion D. scale formation
D. Caustic embrittlement Ans. A
 Que. Decomposition of bicarbonates is
Que. Priming in boilers can be prevented responsible for _____
by A. sludge formation
A. adding anti foaming agent in boiler B. boiler corrosion
feed water C. priming foaming
B. maintaining low level of water in boiler D. scale formation
C. avoiding changes in steam generation Ans. D
rate & pressure
D. all of the above Que. Efficiency of boiler decrease due to
Ans. A ____
A. scale formation
Que. Blow down operation is used to B. use of soft water
minimize C. antifoaming agents
A. scale formation in boiler D. sodalime treatment
B. sludge’s deposition in boiler Ans. A
C. avoiding fast corrosion of boiler
D. avoiding wet steam formation Que. Formation of NaOH in boiler water
Ans. A results into _____
A. priming
Que. Caustic embrittlement in high B. phosphate conditioning
pressure boiler is caused by C. boiler corrosion
A. use of higher hardness in water D. caustic embrittlement
B. presence of soda in feed water Ans. D
C. presence of weak base – strong acid
salts in feed water
D. all of the above Que. Caustic embrittlement can be avoided
Ans. B by using _____
A. sodium phosphate
Que. Scales are removed B. sodium bicarbonate
by______________. C. sodium sulphate
A. Wire brushes D. sodium chloride
B. Hammer and chisel Ans. A
C. Shock treatment
D. All of these Que. Boiler troubles are---
Ans. D A. Priming and Foaming
B. scale and sludge formation
Que. Priming occurs due to ____ C. Boiler corrosion
A. high steam velocity D. all of them
B. improper boiler design Ans. B
C. sudden increase in steam rate
D. all of them Que. Blow down operation is carried out
Ans. D to remove----
A. accumulated sludge
Que. Scales are formed due to ____ B. accumulated acid
A. presence of silica C. distilled water
B. presence of nitrogen D. exhausted zeolite
C. presence of oxygen Ans. A
D. presence of carbon
Ans. A UNIT IC
Que. The following treatment of water is B. Anion Exchange
internal treatment. C. Water Exchange
A. Zeolite D. Ion Exchange
B. Ion Exchange process Ans. A
C. Calgon conditioning
D. Osmosis Que. Zeolite process can not be used for
Ans. C water containing _______ impurities.
A. Dissolved
Que. The other name of zeolite process is B. Biological
________ process. C. Suspended
A. Ion exchange D. Colloidal
B. Permutit Ans. D
C. Demineralization
D. Coagulation Que. 8 % NaCl solution means
Ans. B _______.
A. 8 g/lit
B. 80 g/lit
Que. Sodium zeolite is actually _______. C. 0. 8 g/lit
A. Sodium Silicate D. 0. 08 g/lit
B. Aluminium Silicate Ans. B
C. Calcium Silicate
D. Hydrated Sodium Alumino Silicate Que. Other name of Ion Exchange process
Ans. D is _________.
A. Permutite
Que. Exhausted zeolite bed can be B. Zeolite
regenerated by _______. C. Deionization
A. 5% NaCl D. Osmosis
B. 10 % NaCl Ans. C
C. 100 % NaCl
D. 20 % NaCl Que. By using Ion Exchange process
Ans. B ________ can be exchangeD.
A. Cations
B. Anions
Que. Brine is nothing but ________. C. Cations and anions both
A. 5% NaCl D. None of these
B. 10 % NaCl Ans. C
C. 100 % NaCl
D. 20 % NaCl Que. The exhausted cation exchanger can
Ans. B be regenerated by _______.
A. NaCl
Que. Zeolites are ________ like B. Dil. HCl
structures. C. KCl
A. Square D. CaCl2
B. Triangular Ans. B
C. Honey Comb
D. Pyramid
Ans. C Que. The exhausted anion exchange resins
can be regenerated by _______.
Que. Zeolite is basically _______ process. A. Dil. NaOH
A. Cation Exchange B. Ca(OH)2
C. Conc. KOH B. Very low
D. CaSO4 C. Greater
Ans. A D. None of these.
Ans. C
Que. The process of removing
_______from water is called Desalination. Que. In osmosis process, after completion,
A. KCl in the tank _______ is present.
B. NaCl A. Pure water
C. CaCl2 B. Mixture
D. BaCl2 C. Contaminated water
Ans. B D. None of these
Ans. C
Que. In _______method concentration of
brine decreases by applying direct electric Que. In reverse osmosis, _______.
current. A. Sewage water is purified
A. Ion exchange B. Industrial waste water is purified
B. Zeolite C. Sea water is purified
C. Electrodialysis D. River water is purified
D. Osmosis Ans. C
Ans. C
Que. Reverse osmosis is also known as
Que. Desalinated brine is removed from ______.
_______compartment. A. Super filtration
A. Central B. Hyper filtration
B. First C. Pressure filtration
C. Last D. Molecular sieve filtration
D. None of these Ans. B
Ans. A
Que. Electrodialysis is a method adopted
Que. In osmosis flow of liquid is from to _______.
_______ solution. A. Remove high concentration of ions in
A. Dilute to concentrated saline water
B. Concentrated to dilute B. Remove pathogenic bacteria
C. Top to bottom C. Remove salts
D. None of these D. Purify water
Ans. A Ans. A

Que. To remove ______ impurities from

Que. In reverse osmosis flow of liquid is water internal/external treatments are to be
from ______ solution. given.
A. Dilute to concentrated A. Colloidal
B. Concentrated to dilute B. Suspended
C. Top to bottom C. Biological
D. None of these D. Dissolved
Ans. B Ans. D

Que. In reverse osmosis the direction of Que. Zeolite process cannot be used for
the flow is getting reversed as hydrostatic _____salts.
pressure is _______than osmotic pressure. A. Ca
A. Low B. Mg
C. Ca/Mg
D. Mn/Fe Que. To regenerate a cation exchange resin
Ans. D A. Dil HCl is added
B. Dil NaOH is added
Que. Zeolite process can only be used for C. Fresh 10% brine is added
_____. D. Soft water is blown down
A. Colourless water Ans. A
B. Yellow coloured water
C. Blue coloured water Que. Regeneration of cation exchanger
D. All of these resin reaction is
Ans. A A. H2R + 2Na+ Na2R + 2H+
B. RCl2 + 2 NaOH R (OH)2 + 2
Que. Calgon conditioning means to add NaCl
A. Scale forming salts in water C. Na2R + 2 HCl H2R + 2NaCl
B. (NaPO3)6 D. H2R + 2Ca CaR + 2H+
C. NaHPO4 Ans. C
D. Na2HPO4
Ans. B Que. Water is passed through a cation
exchange resin first because
Que. Zeolites work on the principle of A. It is easier to use
A. Cation exchange B. It is cost effective
B. Anion exchange C. It produces acidic water
C. Silicate exchange D. Water from here does not spoil anion
D. Iron exchange exchange beads
Ans. A Ans. D

Que. Zeolites are Que. In the fig. given below, identify what
A. Hydrated iron silicates could be present at locations 1 and 2 in the
B. Hydrated sodium alumino silicates zeolite process
C. Hydrated magnesium oxides
D. Hydrated alumino hydroxides
Ans. B
1
Que. Regeneration of zeolite bed can be
done by
A. Running CaCl2 solution through it
B. Running 10% CaCl2 solution through 2
it
C. Running NaCl solution through it
D. Running CaCl2 solution through it
then pure water
Ans. C

Que. The cation exchanger resins are A. 1-NaHPO4 ,2- NaCl

sulphonated or carboxylated so as to
A. Get them in a bead like form
B. Have loosely held H+ ions on to them
C. Have exchange cations on them
D. Make long chain polymers of them
Ans. C
B. 1-Na3PO4 , 2-NaCl
C. 1-Sodium aluminosilicate, 2- NaCl
D. 1-NaCl,2- Sodium aluminosilicate
Ans. D
Que. Reverse Osmosis works in the
A. Molecular range Que. RO process involves
B. Ionic range A. solvent moves from solution of higher
C. Particle range conc. to lower conc. through
D. Macromolecular range semipermeable membrane
Ans. D B. solute molecules move from solution
of higher conc. to lower conc. through
Que. Osmosis describes the semipermeable membrane
A. Movement of solutions having C. solvent moves from lower conc. to
different concentration higher conc.
B. Movement of solution from high to low D. solute molecules move from solution
concentration of lower conc. to solution of higher conc.
C. Movement of solvent between two through semipermeable membrane
solutions having different concentrations Ans. C
D. Movement of solvent between two
solutions having similar concentrations Que. Internal treatment method involves
Ans. C A. Zeolite treatment
B. Phosphate conditioning
Que. Electrodialysis process requires ((C ))Ion exchange method
A. Number of cell pairs with electrodes D. None of the above
and semipermeable membrane Ans. D
B. Only a semipermeable membrane
C. Pressure and electric field Que. The demineralization process
D. Electrodes only involves treatment of water with
Ans. A A. Cation exchanger
B. Anion exchanger
Que. Brackish water means (( C ))Both cation and anion exchanger
A. Salty water D. Adsorbents
B. Pure water Ans. C
C. Distilled water
D. Ion-free water
Ans. A Que. How many litres of NaCl will be
required to regenerate a zeolite bed which
Que. Reverse Osmosis removes has capacity of softening 2500 L of water
A. Ionic matter of 400 mg CaCO3 equivqlent hardness per
B. Non-ionic matter litre. Concentration of NaCl = 50,000 ppm
C. High molecular wt. organic matter of CaCO3 equivqlent.
D. All of the above A. 2 L
Ans. D B. 200 L
C. 20 L
D. 0.2 L
Ans. C
Que. In phosphate conditioning scales are
converted into Que. How many litres of NaCl will be
A. loose ppt required to regenerate a zeolite bed which
B. soluble complex has capacity of softening 1000 L of water
C. gases of 250 mg CaCO3 equivqlent hardness per
D. silicates litre. Concentration of NaCl = 25,000 ppm
Ans. A of CaCO3 equivqlent.
A. 0.1 L
B. 1 L
C. 10 L 4) electrodialysis is bases on reverse
D. 100 L osmosis phenomenon
Ans. C
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
Que. Zeolite softener was completely C. 1 and4
exhausted and was regenerated by passing D. 2 and 3
90 L of NaCl solution containing 585 Ans. D
mg/L NaCl. How many litres of sample
water of hardness 100 ppm can be soften Que. If 5 % NaCl solution is used for
by this softener ? regeneration of zeolite.Calculate the
A. 400 L amount of CaCO3 equivalent hardness
B. 450 L which can be removed by 1 litre of NaCl
C. 475 L solution
D. 540 L A. 42.735 mg
Ans. B B. 42735 mg
C. 4.2735 gm
Que. Zeolite softener was completely D. 42735 gm
exhausted and was regenerated by passing Ans. B
60 L of NaCl solution containing 1170
mg/L NaCl. How many litres of sample Que. Electrodialysis is usually applied for
water of hardness 200 ppm can be soften ____
by this softener ? A. sea water desalination
A. 60 L B. drinking water production C.
B. 66 L recycling of industrial waste
C. 600 L D. all of these
D. 660 L Ans. D
Ans. C

Que. A zeolite bed gets exhausted by Que. Reverse osmosis is a process in

softening 2500 L of water sample and which ___
requires 10 L of 5 % NaCl for A. contaminants are removed from water
regeneration. Find the hardness of water B. water is separated from its
sample. contaminants
A. 177 ppm C. hardness of water is removed
B. 711 ppm D. dissolved gases from water is removed
C. 117 ppm Ans. B
D. 171 ppm
Ans. D Que. The process used to decrease
concentration of salts in water by applying
Que. Which of the following direct electric current is ____
statement is true for the electrodialysis A. Ion exchange
process B. Reverse osmosis
1) electrodialysis uses semipermeable C. Electrodialysis
membrane to remove contaminants D. osmosis
2) electrodialysis uses an electric current to Ans. C
remove contaminants
3) in the process cell pair consists of Que. The process of removing salts from
membranes that will either allow cations or brackish water is ____
anions to passs through A. desalination
B. demineralisaion A. phosphate conditioning
C. distillation B. zeolite conditioning
D. de-ionisation C. colloidal conditioning
Ans. A D. carbonate conditioning
Ans. B
Que. Cation exchange resin is denoted as
____ Que. Reverse osmosis is used to separate
A. R(OH)2 ____
B. RH2 A. Pure water from less pure solution
C. ROOH B. impure water from river water
D. RCOH C. impure water mixed in pure water none
Ans. B of these
D. A
Ans.
Que. Anion exchange resin is denoted as
____
A. R(OH)2 Que. In reverse osmosis, two solutions are
B. RH2 separated by ____
C. ROOH A. sand filter
D. RCOH B. salt bridge
Ans. A C. semi permeable membrane
D. permeable membrane
Ans. C
Que. External water treatments include
____
A. lime-soda process Que. Reverse osmosis membranes are
B. zeolite process prepared from ____
C. ion exchange process A. cellulose acetate
D. all of these B. polyamide
Ans. D C. polysulphonate
D. all of them
Ans. D
Que. Preferred pH range for zeolite
treatment is _____
A. 1 Que. The meaning of Zeolite is---
B. 4 A. Freezing stone
C. 7 B. Boiling stone
D. 10 C. Sand stone
Ans. D D. melting stone
Ans. B
Que. Colloidal conditioning can be done
by using _____ Que. When zeolite is completely converted
A. agar agar into calcium and magnesium zeolite it is---
B. tannin A. exhausted
C. lignin B. tired
D. all of them C. expired
Ans. D D. drained
Ans. A
Que. Internal treatment does not include
______
Que. Brackish water mostly contains A. Benzene
dissolved--- B. Chlorobenzene
A. Ca salts C. Glucose
B. Mg salts D. None of these
C. NaCl salts Ans. C
D. Suspended impurities
Ans. C
Que. In urathanes, isocynates and
polycarbonate synthesis traditionally
Que. The process of removing common _______is used
salt from water is called---- A. Chloride
A. desalination B. Phosgene
B. demineralization C. H2S
C. deactivation D. CO2
D. de-aeration Ans. B
Ans. A
Que. By green chemistry route,
polycarbonates are prepared by using
Que. In electrodialysis concentration of ______.
brine in the central compartment---- A. Chloride
A. remains constant B. Phosgene
B. decreases C. H2S
C. increases ((D)DPC
D. none of these Ans. D
Ans. B

Que. Traditional way of synthesizing

Que. In electrodialysis concentration of indigo dye is with _______as starting
brine in the two side compartments---- material.
A. increases A. Benzene
B. decreases B. Aniline
C. remains constant C. Chlorobenzene
D. none of these D. None of these
Ans. A Ans. B

Que. In green chemistry approach, aniline

UNIT ID is replaced by _______in the preparation
of indigo.
Que. In the preparation of adipic acid A. Chlorobenzene
traditionally _______is useD. B. Benzene
A. Benzene C. L-tryptophan
B. Chlorobenzene D. Aniline.
C. Glucose Ans. C
D. None of these
Ans. A
Que. The concept of Green Chemistry was
developed by _______.
Que. In the preparation of adipic acid by A. Bragg
using green and clean technology B. Paul Anestas
_______useD. C. Mendeleef
D. Dalton Que. Match the following.
Ans. B 1. Green chemistry P.
Frost
Que. Which of the following is not one of 2. Atom economy Q.
the principles of green chemistry Komiya Et al.
A. Prevent waste 3. Adipic acid R.
B. Use renewable feedstocks Paul Anastas
C. Use protecting groups 4. Polycarbonate S.
D. Design reactants and products to resist Trost
degradation A. 1-R ,2-Q , 3-P , 4-S
Ans. D B. 1-R ,2-S , 3-P , 4-Q
C. 1-P ,2-Q , 3-R , 4-S
D. 1-S ,2-P , 3-R , 4-Q
Que. Which of the following is not a goal Ans. B
of Green Chemistry
A. To achieve better atom economy Que. Match the following.
B. To develop products which are less 1 Adipic acid
toxic U. Calcium carbonate
C. To study mechanism of reactions 2. Polycarbonate
D. to improve energy efficiency of V. Cyclohexanol
reactions 3. Indigo dye
Ans. C W. Phosgene
4. Standard hard water
X. Chloroacetic acid
Que. Green chemistry research is for A. 1-W ,2-U , 3-V , 4-X
A. alternative renewable feed stock B. 1-V ,2X- , 3W- , 4-U
B. alternative conditions of reaction C. 1-V ,2-W , 3-X , 4-U
C. alternative reagents & transformations D. 1-V ,2-U , 3-W , 4-X
D. all of these Ans. C
Ans. D
Que. Match the following.
1 D-Glucose
Que. Benzene as starting material is nor M. Aniline
preferred for production of adipic acid 2. Tryptophan
because it is N. Phosgene
A. non renewable 3. Diphenyl Carbonate
B. Carcinogenic O. E-coli
C. costly 4. Metal Catalyst, high
D. all of these pressure P. Benzene
Ans. D A. 1-N ,2-M , 3-P , 4-O
B. 1-O ,2-M , 3-N , 4-P
Que. Number of principles proposed by C. 1-N ,2-O , 3-M , 4-P
Paul Anastis in green chemistry concept D. 1-P ,2-M , 3-N , 4-O
are Ans. D
A. 4
B. 8 Que. Match the following.
C. 12 1 D-Glucose
D. 16 M. Aniline
Ans. C 2. Tryptophan
N. Phosgene
 3. Diphenyl Carbonate 2. process can be used for highly acidic
O. E-coli and alkaline water sample
4. Metal Catalyst, high 3. no impurities are precipitated, so no
pressure P. Benzene sludge formation
A. 1-N ,2-M , 3-P , 4-O 4. process can be used for water containing
B. 1-O ,2-M , 3-N , 4-P iron and manganese salts
C. 1-N ,2-O , 3-M , 4-P A. 1 and 2
D. 1-P ,2-M , 3-N , 4-O B. 2 and 3
Ans. D C. 2 and 4
D. 1 and 4
Que. The formula of phosgene is Ans. C
________.
A. CaCl2 Que. The reaction efficiency parameter
B. COBr2 which considers the waste produced is ___
C. CONH2 A. % conversion
D. COCl2 B. environmental load factor
Ans. D C. % yield
D. all of these
Que. Which of the following Ans. B
statement is true for the synthesis of
polycarbonate Que. Good atom economy means______
1) monomer phosgene is used for synthesis A. lesser problems of waste treatment
2) phosgene is not toxic B. better quality of product
3) process is relatively less energy C. less quantity of reactants
intensive D. process bassed on nonrenewable
4) methylene chloride is used as a solvent resources
A. 1 and 4 Ans. A
B. 3 and 4
C. 2 and 3 Que. The catalyst used to synthesise
D. 1 and 3 adipic acid in green pathway is ____
Ans. A A. Bacteria
B. E-coli
Que. Which of the following C. tenericutes
statement is true for the synthesis of indigo D. actiono bacteria
dye Ans. B
1) use of non toxic aniline
2) use of chlorinated hydrocarbons Que. Safer solvents for green chemistry
3) production of very less amount of waste are ___-
salts A. Regenerative
4) use of toxic aniline B. non inflammable
A. 1 and 3 C. non carcinogenic
B. 2 and 3 D. all of these
C. 2 and 4 Ans. D
D. 1 and 2
Ans. C
Que. Green chemistry eliminates waste
Que. Choose the correct statement of ____
zeolite process A. at the end of the process
1.equipment used is compact B. at source
C. somewhere in the middle of the process
D. nothing to do the waster remediation D. all of these
Ans. B Ans. D

Que. Ideal synthesis should be ____ Que. The E-factor in a reaction should
A. atom efficient be ____
B. safe one step A. maximum
C. involving no wasted reagents B. minimum
D. all the above are correct C. average
Ans. D D. none of these
Ans. B
Que. Green chemistry is _____
A. Chemistry of green matter in nature
B. details of chemical reaction Que. Greener pathways _____
C. chemistry for safety and wellbeing of A. utilizes non renewable inputs
man kind B. eliminates hazardous by-products
D. mechanism and kinetic study of C. utilize more disposal cost
reaction D. none of these
Ans. C Ans. B

Que. Green chemistry provides best

opportunity to carry out work in _____ Que. E-factor ignores _____
A. quantitative and qualitative analysis A. recycle solvents
B. economical and environmentally B. reused catalysts
beneficial way C. both a and b
C. both a and b D. none of these
D. none of these Ans. C
Ans. C

Que. Green chemistry is also known as

Que. The synthesis of indigo by green ____
pathway involves ___ A. Environmental science
A. Enzymatic transformation B. Ecology science
B. catalytic transformation C. Environmental chemistry
C. cyclic transformation D. none of these
D. synthetic transformaiton Ans. D
Ans. A

Que. Which of the following is a green

fuel? UNIT IIA
A. Petrol
B. Power alocohol Que. Electrolytic cell is capable of
C. Diesel converting ----------------
D. Biodiesel A. Electrical energy into chemical energy
Ans. D B. Thermal energy into chemical energy
C. Electrical energy into thermal energy
Que. The Principle of green chemistry is D. Chemical energy into Electrical energy
______ Ans. A
A. design for energy efficiency
B. new analytical method
C. reducing toxicity of products
Que. Galvanic cell is capable of converting A. Anion
---------------- B. Cation
A. Electrical energy into chemical energy C. Electron
B. Thermal energy into chemical energy D. Nucleus
C. Electrical energy into thermal energy Ans. B
D. Chemical energy into Electrical energy
Ans. D Que. In glass electrode response is
relatively indifferent to----------------
Que. For spontaneous cell reaction A. Cation
ΔG0= -nFE0where Δ G0 must be B. Anion
A. Zero C. H+ ion
B. Negative D. None of the above
C. Positive Ans. B
D. Half
Ans. B Que. In glass electrode response is not
dependent upon concentration of -----------
Que. ----------------- is a primary reference --
electrode. A. Cation
A. Calomel electrode B. Anion
B. Standard Hydrogen electrode C. H+ ion
C. Ag-AgCl electrode D. None of the above
D. Glass electrode Ans. B
Ans. B

Que. Reference electrode is the electrode Que. HgHgCl2 , KCl (saturated) is

with --------------- representation of
A. Potential A. Calomel electrode
B. Known and constant EMF B. Standard Hydrogen electrode
C. Zero current C. Ag-AgCl electrode
D. Equal resistance D. Glass electrode
Ans. B Ans. A

Que. Calomel electrode is ---------------- Que. Degree of selectivity and order

A. Primary reference electrode of selectivity of ions in ion selective
B. Secondary reference electrode electrode can be changed with an
C. Indicator electrode appropriate adjustment in ----------------.
D. Standard electrode A. Internal solution
Ans. B B. Composition of membrane
C. External solution
D. None of the above
Que. Glass electrode is ---------------- Ans. B
A. Primary reference electrode
B. Secondary reference electrode
C. Indicator electrode Que. The glass electrode comprise of thin
D. Standard electrode bulb of ------------------------ glass.
Ans. C A. Anion responsive
B. High resistivity
Que. The Glass electrode comprise of the C. Cationresponsive
thin walled bulb of ---------------- D. High conductivity
responsive glass at the bottom. Ans. C
 B. Ten
C. Zero
Que. The part of glass electrode that D. Hundred
directly participate in the equilibrium is Ans. C
……………
A. Internal reference electrode Que. In glass electrode, glass membrane
B. The gel layer of the glass acts as a
C. External reference electrode A. Membrane filter
D. None of the above B. Adsorbing membrane
Ans. B C. Ion exchange resin
D. Separating membrane
Que. The potential developed across Ans. C
the ion selective membrane is related to----
----------- Que. Potential of ion selective electrode
A. H+ ion concentration of solution only depends upon ------
B. Activities of ion of interest in the A. Concentrations of selected ions
internal gel and sample solution B. Type of ions
C. Concentration of ion of interest in C. H+ ion concentration
sample solution only D. Proportion of ionised and non- ionised
D. H+ ion and ion of interest in sample species
solution of only Ans. A
Ans. B

Que. Ion selective electrode measured ----- Que. The measure of tendency of metallic
--------- electrode to lose or gain electrons when it
A. Activity rather than potential is in contact with solution of its own salt is
B. Concentration rather than Activity called
C. Potential rather than activity A. Electromotive force
D. Activity rather than concentration B. Electrical conductance
Ans. D C. Electrode potential
D. None of the above
Que. Cells which produce electricity are Ans. C
called
A. Galvanic cells Que. In case of calomel electrode,
B. Electrochemical cells potential decreases with
C. Electrolytic cells A. Increase in concentration of KCl
D. None of the above B. Decrease in concentration of KCl
Ans. A C. Increase in concentration of Hg Cl2
D. Decrease in concentration of Hg Cl2
Que. Cells which use electric energy are Ans. B
called
A. Galvanic cells Que. Choose the correct option with
B. Electrochemical cells respect to reference electrode
C. Electrolytic cells A. It has a stable and reproducible
D. None of the above electrode potential
Ans. C B. Obeys Nernst’s equation
C. It has high electrode potential stability
Que. The emf of primary reference via a redox system or oxidation-reduction
electrode is arbitrarily fixed at reactions
A. One D. All of these
Ans. D
Que. Calomel is made by using
A. Hg with mercurous chloride
B. Hg with mercuric chloride
C. Zn with mercurous chloride
D. Ca with mercurous chloride
Ans. A
Que. Electrolysis involves -------- at
anode and ------------ at cathode
A. Deposition, dissolution
B. Dissolution, oxidation
C. Reduction, oxidation
D. Oxidation, reduction
Ans. D

Que. Inert platinum electrode is used

Que. Secondary reference electrode is as -------- electrode in the
A. Hydrogen electrode potentiometric titrations
B. Hydrogen chloride electrode A. Redox, acid-base
C. Glass electrode B. Indicator, redox
D. Silver electrode C. Reference, precipitation
Ans. C D. Primary, complexometric
Ans. B
Que. In glass electrode, the potential
produced across the membrane is used to Que. Glass electrode is represented as-
measure -------. The main advantage of
A. pH of the solution glass electrode is---
B. Pressure of the solution A. Ag, AgCl 1M HCl, portable and
C. Concentration of the solution compact
D. Temperature of the solution B. Ag, AgCl 0.01M HCl, cheaper than
Ans. A calomel
C. Ag, AgCl 0.1M HCl, can be used in
Que. Calomel is an example of presence of oxidizing and
A. Primary reference electrode reducing agents
B. Secondary reference electrode D. Ag, AgCl 0.001M HCl, easily
C. Galvanic electrode available
D. None of these Ans. A
Ans. B
Que. Which is the characteristics of
Que. Potential of calomel electrode for cell EMF from the following
1 N KCl at 250C is properties:
A. 0.280 V 1. It is the maximum voltage the
B. 0.380 V cell can deliver
C. 0.480 V 2. It is not responsible for the
D. 0.580 V steady flow of current in the cell
Ans. A 3. It is always less than the
maximum value of voltage
Que. Potential of calomel electrode 4. It is the potential difference
for 0.1 N KCl at 250C is between the two electrodes when
A. 0.3080 V no current is flowing in the circuit
B. 0.3338 V A. 1 and 2
C. 0.3480 V B. 2 and 3
D. 0.3580 V C. 1 and 4
Ans. B D. 1 and 3
Ans. C
Que. Match the following terms with Que. In electrolytic cell electrode at which
their units reduction takes place is known as -----------
1 Specific L Mho.cm2.gm ----
resistance ol-1 A. Anode
2 Cell M Mho.cm-1 B. Cathode
constant C. Oxielectrode
3 Molar N Ohm.cm D. None of the above
conductan Ans. B
ce
4 Specific O cm-1 Que. Oxidation is -----------------
conductan A. Loss of electron
ce B. Gain of electron
C. Transfer of electron
A. 1-N, 2-O, 3-L, 4-M D. Excitation of electron
B. 1-M, 2-O, 3-N, 4-L Ans. A
C. 1-L, 2-N, 3-M, 4-O
D. 1-O, 2-L, 3-M, 4-N
Ans. A Que. Reduction is -----------------
A. Loss of electron
Que. The equivalent conductance of an B. Gain of electron
electrolyte solution is equal to the sum of C. Transfer of electron
the conductivities of constituent cation Λ+ D. Excitation of electron
and an anion Λ-.This is the statement of -- Ans. B
--------------
A. Lambert’s law Que. The metal with half -cell reactions
B. Beer’s law which gives negatives E0 value with
C. Kohlrausch law respect SHE is -------
D. Beer’s –Lambert’s law A. Powerful reducing agent than H2
Ans. C B. Powerful Oxidising agent than H2
C. Mild reducing agent than H2
Que. The ratio of specific conductance of D. None of the above
the solution and its measured conductance Ans. A
is known as --------
A. Specific resistance Que. E0 value of Cu which is placed below
B. Cell constant H2 in ECS is observed to be--------------
C. Conductance A. Positive
D. Equivalent conductance B. Negative
Ans. B C. Zero
D. Any one of the above
Que. In electrolytic cell electrode at which Ans. A
oxidation takes place is known as -----------
---- Que. The analytical technique in which
A. Anode two identical inert electrodes are used
B. Cathode along with electrolyte is -----------.
C. Oxielectrode A. Potentiometry
D. None of the above B. Conductometry
Ans. A C. pHmetry
D. None of the above
Ans. B
 B. S cm-1
C. mhos
D. None of the above
Que. The traditional instrument used for Ans. A
measuring electrolytic conductance is ------
--------- Que. Unit of Molar conductance is ---------
A. Potentiometer -----.
B. Conductometer A. mhos cm-1
C. pH meter B. S cm-1
D. None of the above C. mhos
Ans. B D. None of the above
Ans. C
Que. In voltaic cell the salt bridge-----------
---- Que. Unit of Cell constant is --------------.
A. Is not essential A. mhos cm-1
B. Allows mechanical mixing B. S cm-1
C. Allows charge balance C. mhos
D. Is plugged firmly to avoid mixing of D. None of the above
ion Ans. D
Ans. C
Que. Unit for specific conductance is
((Q))_2//Which of the following statement A. Ώ
hold true for an operating galvanic cell----- B. mho
---------- C. Ώ cm
A. Δ G> 0 and Ecell< 0 D. Ώ-1cm-1
B. Δ G= 0 and Ecell< 0 Ans. D
C. Δ G= 0 and Ecell = 0
D. Δ G< 0 and Ecell> 0 Que. unit for molar conductivity is
Ans. D A. Ώcm2mol-1
B. Ώ-1cm2mol
((Q))_2//Which of the following statement C. Ώ-1cm2mol-1
hold true for operating electrolytic cell----- D. Ώ-1cmmol-1
--------- Ans. C
A. Δ G> 0 and Ecell< 0
B. Δ G= 0 and Ecell< 0 Que. Cell constant of a conductivity cell is
C. Δ G= 0 and Ecell = 0 given as
D. Δ G< 0 and Ecell> 0 A. Ratio of distance between the
Ans. B electrodes and cross sectional area of the
electrodes
Que. Cell constant × Observed B. Ratio of specific conductance and
conductance =----------------------- measured conductance
A. Specific conductance C. Both A and B
B. Molar conductance D. None of these
C. Equivalent conductance Ans. C
D. None of the above
Ans. A Que. A conductivity cell consists of
A. Two parallel electrodes one made of Ag
Que. Unit of Specific conductance is ------- and the other of Pd
-------. B. Two parallel electrodes one made of Pt
A. mhos cm-1 and the other of Pd
C. Two perpendicular electrodes one made
of Pt Que. The reciprocal of specific resistance
D. Two parallel electrodes made of Pt is called-----
Ans. D A. Conductance
B. Specific Conductance
Que. electrodes in a conductivity cell are C. Molar Conductance
coated with layer of finely divided D. Equivalent Conductance
platinum black Ans. B
A. to reduce ionization
ᴧ
B. to reduce depolarization Que. For weak electrolyte gives the value
ᴧ0
C. to reduce chromatization
of----
D. to reduce polarization
A. Dissociation constant
Ans. D
B. Degree of dissociation
C. Degree of hydrolysis
Que. Distance between electrodes in a
D. Dissociation of ions
conductivity cell
Ans. B
A. Can be altered according to the reaction
B. Is kept fixed
Que. Equivalent conductance of a
C. Can be altered as per the requirement
solution is----
D. Alters as reaction proceeds
A. Specific conductance x volume in cc
Ans. B
containing 1 g mole of electrolyte
B. Specific conductance x volume in cc
Que. Molar conductance of a solution
containing 1 g equivalent of electrolyte
is
C. Molar conductance x volume in cc
A. Specific conductance x volume in cc
containing 1 g equivalent of electrolyte
containing 1 gm mole of electrolyte
D. Equivalent conductance x volume in cc
B. Specific conductance x volume in cc
containing 1 g equivalent of electrolyte
containing 1 gm equivalent of electrolyte
Ans. B
C. Molar conductance x volume in cc
containing 1 gm equivalent of electrolyte
Que. Conductance of strong acid- strong
D. Equivalent conductance x volume in cc
base titration increases because of
containing 1 gm equivalent of electrolyte
conductivity of-
Ans. A
A. Excess of OH – ions
B. Neutralized H+ions
Que. A pair of electrodes used for
C. Heavy alkali metal
measurement of conductometric titration
D. Heavy halide ions
are made up of
Ans. A
A. Pt
B. Ag
Que. The conductance remains almost
C. Hg
constant till equivalence point in
D. Graphite
conductometric precipitation titration of
Ans. A
AgNO3vsNaCl as ionic conductance of
A. Ionic conductance of Ag + has high
Que. The reciprocal of resistance is called-
value
----
B. Ionic conductance of Na + has high
A. Conductance
value
B. Potential
C. Ionic conductance of Ag + & Na + has
C. Current
almost similar value
D. Cell constant
D. Ionic conductance of Ag +& Na + is
Ans. A
zero
Ans. C Que. The measurement of conductance is
based on the principle ---------------
Que. Unit of Equivalent conductance is --- A. Closed end circuit
-----------. B. Wheatstone bridge circuit
A. mhos cm-1 C. Open end circuit
B. S cm-1 D. None of the above
C. mhos Ans. B
D. None of the above
Ans. D Que. ᴧ0(AB)=ᴧ0(A+)+ᴧ0(B+)is the
mathematical statement for----
Que. The conductance of volume of A. Nernst law
solution containing one gram equivalent of B. Faraday law
electrolyte when distance between two C. Kohlrausch law
parallel electrode is 1 cm is called as------- D. Helmholtz law
----------. Ans. C
A. Molar conductance
B. Equivalent conductance Que. The specific conductance of a
C. Specific conductance solution falls on dilution because
D. Molecular conductance A. Ions present per cm3 of the solution
Ans. B become less
B. Electrons present per cm3 of the
Que. The conductance of a conductor of solution become less
one meter in length with uniform cross C. H+ ions present per cm3 of the solution
sectional area of 1m2 is called as ----------- become less
------. D. OH- ions present per cm3 of the solution
A. Molar conductance become less
B. Equivalent conductance Ans. A
C. Specific conductance
D. Molecular conductance Que. According to Kolhrausch’s law, “the
Ans. C equivalent conductance of an electrolyte at
inifinite dilution is equal to----
Que. Conductance of solution depends A. Contribution of equivalent conductance
upon -----------------------. of cations - equivalent conductance of
A. Concentration of solution. anions
B. Temperature. B. Contribution of equivalent conductance
C. Mobility of ions of cations + equivalent conductance of
D. All above anions
Ans. D C. Contribution of equivalent conductance
of cations x equivalent conductance of
Que. Titration curve of conductometric anions
titration consist of two intersecting lines D. Contribution of equivalent conductance
the intersection point is known as----------- of cations /equivalent conductance of
------. anions
A. Conductivity point Ans. B
B. End point
C. Break curve point Que. According to Kohlrausch’s law, ions
D. None of the above of an electrolyte move independently at----
Ans. B -
A. Any concentration
B. Infinite dilution
C. Infinite concentration
D. None of these
Ans. B
Que. In case of weak electrolyte, on
dilution, there is increase in conductance
which is due to--
A. Decreased dissociation
B. Moderate dissociation
C. Increased dissociation
D. None of these
Ans. C
Que. The conductance of solution
increases with increase in temperature, due
to----
A. Increase in the velocity of ions
B. Decrease in the viscosity of the medium
C. Decrease in the interaction between the
ions
D. All of these
Ans. D
Que. In case of strong electrolyte, on
dilution, increase in conductance is due to
A. Increase in the mobility of ions
B. Decrease in the mobility of ions
C. Increased dissociation
D. Decreased dissociation
Ans. A
Que. At infinite dilution ions move
independently in electrolyte according to--
--
A. Ohm’s law
B. Faraday’s law
C. Kohlrausch’s law
D. Nernst law
Ans. C
Que. /Equivalent, molar and specific
conductance-----
A. Decrease with increase in temperature
B. Increase with increase in temperature
C. Increase with decrease in temperature
D. Remains constant with increase in
temperature
Ans. B
Que. The relationship between equivalent
conductance and specific conductance is
A. ᴧ = k.1000/C
B. k= ᴧ.100/C
C. ᴧ = k.C
D. k= ᴧ/C
Ans. A
Que. According to Kohlrausch’s law, the
equivalent conductance of an electrolyte at
infinite dilution is equal to
A. ᴧ0a. ᴧ0c
B. ᴧ0a+ ᴧ0c
C. ᴧ0c- ᴧ0a
D. ᴧ0a- ᴧ0c
Ans. B
Que. When concentrated solution of an
electrolyte is diluted
A. Its specific conductance increases
B. Its specific conductance decreases
C. Its specific conductance increases and
equivalent conductance decreases
D. Its specific conductance decreases and
equivalent conductance increases
Ans. D
Que. In conductometric strong acid-
strong base titration the conductance of the
solution
A. Decreases upto end point and then
increases
B. Increases upto end point and then
decreases
C. Increases upto end point and then
remains constant
D. Decreases upto end point and then
remains constant
Ans. A
Que. In conductometric strong base-weak
acid titration the conductance of the
solution
A. Decreases upto end point and then
increases
B. Increases very slowly upto end point
and then increases rapidly
C. Increases upto end point and then
decreases
D. remains constant upto end point and
then increases Que. Which of the following relation is
Ans. B true for molar conductivity of a solution?
A. μ =K.1000/V
Que. In conductometric strong acid- B. μ = K/V
weak base titration the conductance of the C. μ =V.1000/K
solution D. μ =K.V
A. Increases upto end point and then Ans. D
decreases
B. Remains constant upto end point and Que. Which of the following does not
then decreases conduct electricity?
C. Remains constant upto end point and A. KCl
then increases B. NaOH
D. Decreases upto end point and then C. CH3COOH
remains constant D. Acetone
Ans. D Ans. D

Que. When a strong acid is titrated against Que. Advantage of conductometric

a strong base, the end point of the titration titration is-----
is the point of A. Can be used for colored solution
A. Zero conductance B. Can be used for weak acid-weak base
B. Minimum conductance titration
C. Maximum conductance C. Can be used for mixture of acids
D. None of these D. All of these
Ans. B Ans. D

Que. In conductivity cell a pair of platinum Que. Conductometric titrations of

electrodes are coated with mixture of acids versus strong
A. Platinum chloride base is possible only if
B. KCl A. Dissociation constants of the two acids
C. Silver chloride are the same
D. Platinum black B. Dissociation constants of the two acids
Ans. D differ by more than 104
C. Dissociation constants of one acid is
zero
Que. Which of the following solution has D. Dissociation constants of both the acids
highest equivalent conductance? is zero
A. NaCl Ans. B
B. LiCl
C. HCl UNIT IIB
D. KCl
Ans. C ((Q))1_1//Buffer solution is one which
resist the change in ---------------
Que. Conductivity of a solution is directly A. pH
proportional to B. volume
A. Distance between the electrodes C. pressure
B. Number of ions per cubic centimetre D. temperature
C. Molecular weight of electrolyte Ans. A
D. Volume of solution
Ans. B
Que. Acidic buffer is a mixture of ---------- Que. Addition of small amount of either
---------- base or acid to a buffer solution causes
A. Strong acid and its salt with weak base. only small changes in pH because buffer
B. Weak acid and its salt with strong base. solution ------------------
C. Strong base and its salt with weak acid. A. Doesn’t contain H3O+ or OH-
D. Weak base and its salt with strong acid. B. Contains large amount of both H3O+ or
Ans. B OH-
C. Reacts with added acid or base
Que. Basic buffer is a mixture of ----------- D. contains strong base and salt of strong
--------- base
A. Strong acid and its salt with weak base. Ans. C
B. Weak acid and its salt with strong base.
C. Strong base and its salt with weak acid. Que. In buffer solution prepared by mixing
D. Weak base and its salt with strong acid. sodium formate to formic acid pH of the
Ans. D solution becomes equal to pKa value of
formic acid if------------------
Que. Which of the following mixture will A. [HCOOH< HCOO-]
not form buffer solution. B. [HCOOH= HCOO-]
A. HCl +NH4 OH C. [HCOOH> HCOO-]
B. CH3COOH +CH3COONa D. None of the above
C. NH4 OH +NH4Cl Ans. B
D. NH3 +NH4 OH
Ans. A
Que. Acidic buffer can be obtained by
Que. An acidic buffer can be prepared by mixing
mixing--------------- A. Weak acid with salt of weak acid and
A. ammonium acetate in acetic acid strong base
B. ammonium chloride in ammonium B. Strong acid with salt of weak acid and
hydroxide strong base
C. sodium acetate in acetic acid C. weak acid with salt of weak acid and
D. sodium chloride in Hydrochloric acid weak base
Ans. C D. weak base with salt of weak acid and
weak base
Que. pH of acidic buffer is related to pKa Ans. A
as------------------
A. pH= pKa + log ([salt] / [acid]) Que. Example of acidic buffer is
B. pH= pKa + log ([acid] / [salt]) A. NH4OH + NH4Cl
C. pH= ½ pKa - log ([acid] / [salt]) B. HCl + NaCl
D. pH= log pKa + log ([acid] / [salt]) C. CH3COOH + CH3COONa
Ans. A D. NH4Cl + CH3COOH
Ans. C

Que. pH of basic buffer is related to pKa Que. Basic buffer can be prepared by
as------------------ mixing
A. pH= pKb + log ([salt] / [acid]) A. Weak acid with salt of weak acid and
B. pH= 14-pKb - log ([salt] / [base]) strong base
C. pH= ½ pKb - log ([base] / [salt]) B. Weak base with salt of weak base and
D. pH= log pKb + log ([base] / [salt]) strong acid
Ans. B C. Weak acid with salt of weak acid and
weak base
D. Weak base with salt of weak acid and A. NH4OH + NH4Cl
weak base B. CH3COO NH4+ H2O
Ans. B C. CH3COOH + CH3COONa
D. Borax + Boric acid
Que. Example of basic buffer is Ans. B
A. NH4OH + NH4Cl
B. NH4OH + CH3COOH Que. When a few drops of NaOH are
C. CH3COOH + CH3COONa added to the basic buffer, the OH- ions
D. NH4Cl + CH3COOH combine with
Ans. A A. Excess NH4+ ions
B. Excess H+ ions
Que. In acidic buffer, due to acetate ions C. Excess K+ ions
A. ionization of NaCl is inhibited D. Excess Na+ ions
B. ionization of CH3COOH is suppressed Ans. A
C. ionization of CH3COOH is accelerated
D. ionization of CH3COONa is accelerated Que. When a few drops of acid are added
Ans. B to the basic buffer, the H+ ions combine
with
Que. On addition of small amount of acid A. Cl- ions
in the solution containing buffer, the pH of B. OH- ions
the solution C. Excess NH4OH
A. Increases D. Excess CH3COO-
B. Decreases Ans. B
C. Remains unaltered
D. Attains pH 7 Que. A few drops of HCl added to the
Ans. C basic buffer leads to the formation of
A. Completely ionized water molecules
Que. Acid buffer consists of a solution of B. Nearly unionized NH4OH
A. Weak acid and its salt with strong base C. Completely ionized NH4OH
B. Weak acid and its salt with weak base D. Nearly unionized water molecules
C. Strong acid and its salt with weak base Ans. D
D. Strong acid and its salt with strong acid
Ans. A
Que. Acidic solution have-------pH
Que. The solution of pH 7 signifies A. Less than 7
A. Pure solution B. greater than 7
B. Neutral solution C. equal to 7
C. Basic solution D. equal to 14
D. Acidic solution Ans. A
Ans. B
Que. Formation of buffer before end point
Que. An aqueous solution of pH=1 is is observed in which of the following
A. Neutral solution titration
B. Basic solution A. Redox titration
C. Acidic solution B. strong acid and strong base titration
D. Amphoteric solution C. weak acid and strong base titration
Ans. C D. Precipitation titration
Ans. C
Que. Which of the following is not a
buffer solution?
Que. Which of the following solution has D. L shaped
pH=11? Ans. A
A. 1 x 10-11 M NaOH
B. 1 x 10-3 M HCl
C. 1 x 10-3 M NaOH Que. In differential plot of Potentiometric
D. 1 x 103 M NaOH titration, following variables are
Ans. C considered
A. On X-axis Δ V &Y-axis Δ E
Que. which of the following solution B. On X-axis Δ E/ Δ V &Y-axis Δ V
has the highest pH value? C. On X-axis V& Y-axis Δ E/ Δ V
A. 0.1 N HCl D. On X-axis V& Y-axis E cell
B. 0.01 N HCl Ans. C
C. 0.1 N NaOH
D. 0.01 N NaOH
Ans. C Que. In mixture of strong acid (HCl) and
weak acid (H3PO4 ) Vs strong base
Que. Which of the following solution has (NaOH) first neutralization point
the highest pH value? corresponds to ------------.
A. 0.01 M KCl A. Neutralisation of HCl and 1/3
B. 0.01 M HCl neutralisation of (H3PO4 )
C. 0.01 M KCl B. Partial neutralization of HCl and NaOH
D. 0.001 M KCl C. Complete neutralization of HCl and
Ans. C (H3PO4 )
D. Neutralization of (H3PO4 )
Que. To prepare a buffer solution with Ans. A
a specific pH equation used is
(𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑗𝑢𝑔𝑎𝑡𝑒 𝑎𝑐𝑖𝑑)
A. 𝑝𝐻 = 𝑝𝐾𝑎 + 𝑙𝑜𝑔
(𝑎𝑐𝑖𝑑) Que. Titration of mixture of acidsvs
(𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑗𝑢𝑔𝑎𝑡𝑒 𝑏𝑎𝑠𝑒)
B. 𝑝𝐻 = 𝑝𝐾𝑎 + 𝑙𝑜𝑔 strong base is possible only if-------------
(𝑏𝑎𝑠𝑒)
(𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑗𝑢𝑔𝑎𝑡𝑒 𝑏𝑎𝑠𝑒)
A. Dissociation constants of two acids are
C. 𝑝𝐻 = 𝑝𝐾𝑎 + 𝑙𝑜𝑔 same
(𝑎𝑐𝑖𝑑)
(𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑗𝑢𝑔𝑎𝑡𝑒 𝑏𝑎𝑠𝑒) B. Dissociation constants of two acids
D. 𝑝𝐻 = 𝑝𝐾𝑏 + 𝑙𝑜𝑔 differ by more than 104
(𝑎𝑐𝑖𝑑)
Ans. C C. Dissociation constant of one acid is zero
D. None of the above
Que. Potentiometry is used for Ans. B
determination of end point in analytical
titration involves measurement of ______ Que. In potentiometric titration,
A. current developed concentration ratio changes rapidly
B. EMF at……………
C. Resistance A. Intermediate state
D. Potential energy of titrant B. At initial stage
Ans. B C. At equivalence point
D. None of the above
Que. A plot of measured Ecell as a function Ans. C
of titrant in Potentiometric redox titration
of 1:1 mole ratio is --------- Que. In potentiometry, calomel electrode
A. S shaped is used as
B. T shaped A. Indicator electrode
C. V shaped B. Primary electrode
C. Related electrode Que. An electrolyte is one
D. Reference electrode A. That conducts electric current
Ans. D B. That is capable of ionization by passing
electric current
Que. Silver electrode is used in which type C. That dissociate into ions by dissolving
of potentiometric titration? in a suitable solvent
A. Redox titration D. None of these
B. Precipitation titration Ans. C
C. Complexometric titration
D. Acid-Base titration Que. Electrolyte when dissolved in water
Ans. B dissociate into ions because
A. They are unstable
Que. In potentiometric titration, end point B. The water dissolves it
from the graph of EMF of cell versus C. The force of repulsion increases
volume of titrant is determined by D. The force of electrostatic attraction is
considering broken by water
A. The maxima Ans. D
B. The minima
C. The point of inflection
D. The point of intersection with Y-axis Que. In an electrochemical cell the flow of
Ans. C electron is from
A. Cathode to anode in solution
Que. As H+ ion concentration decreases, B. Cathode to anode through internal
EMF of the cell supply
A. Decreases C. Anode to cathode through external
B. Increases supply
C. Remains zero D. Anode to cathode through internal
D. Remains constant supply
Ans. B Ans. C

((Q))_2//Reduction potential of a reducing Que. In potentiometric redox titration

agent---- with rise of temperature and ---- between Fe2+ and Ce4+, if the ratio
with increase in concentration of reducing [𝐹𝑒 3+ ]
of = 1, then the electrode potential
solution. [𝐹𝑒 2+ ]
A. Increases, increases (Ecell) is equal to
B. Decreases, decreases A. E0Fe + 0.0591
C. Increases, decreases B. 0.0591
D. Decreases, increases C. E0Fe
Ans. D D. E0Fe + E0Ce
Ans. C
Que. An electrolyte
A. Forms complex ions in solution Que. In potentiometric redox titration
B. Gives ions only when electricity is between Fe2+ and Ce4+, the overall cell
passed reaction is
C. Possess ions even in solid state A. Fe2+ +Ce4+ Fe3+ +Ce3+
D. Gives ions when dissolved in suitable B. Fe3+ +Ce4+ Fe2+ +Ce3+
solvent C. Fe2+ +Ce3+ Fe3+ +Ce4+
Ans. D D. Fe3+ +Ce3+ Fe2+ +Ce4+
Ans. A
 Que. The first differential derivative plot
Que. The law of electrolysis was given by of a potentiometric titration gives a sharp
A. Newton end point from the graph as
B. Faraday A. Point of intersection on Y-axis
C. Arrhenius B. Minima of the curve
D. Ostwald C. Point on inflection
Ans. B D. Maxima of the curve
Ans. D
Que. In galvanic cell
A. Electrical energy is converted to Que. which of the following is not a
chemical energy characteristic of membrane used in ion
B. Electrical energy is converted to heat selective electrodes
C. Chemical energy is converted to A. it should not get affected by oxidizing
electrical energy or reducing agents
D. Chemical energy is converted to heat B. it should not get attacked by organic
Ans. C solvents
C. it should have high electric resistance
Que. The calomel electrode is made from D. it should have sufficient mechanical
which of the following strength
A. ZnCl2 Ans. C
B. CuCl2
C. HgCl2 Que. In potentiometric redox titration
D. Hg2Cl2 between Fe2+ and Ce4+, at equivalence
Ans. D point
A. [Fe3+] and [Fe2+] ions are present
Que. Stronger the oxidizing agent B. [Ce3+] and [Fe3+] ions are present
A. Greater is the reduction potential C. [Ce3+] and [Ce4+] ions are present
B. Greater is the oxidation potential D. [Fe3+] and [Ce4+] ions are present
C. Smaller is the reduction potential Ans. C
D. Smaller is the oxidation potential
Ans. A Que. When a salt bridge is removed
between the two half cells, then
A. voltage suddenly drops to zero due to
Que. In potentiometric titration, cell is loss in connection
constructed, in which B. voltage is unaltered as the concentration
A. Reference electrode is always calomel in each half cell is unaltered
and platinum is always indicator electrode C. voltage increases gradually due to rise
B. Reference electrode is always calomel in temperature
and glass electrode is always indicator D. voltage increases due to fall in
electrode temperature
C. Reference electrode is always calomel Ans. A
and indicator electrode is always reversible
with respect to one of the ions involved in Que. When mixture of (HCl + H3PO4)
the titration is titrated against NaOH the second
D. Reference electrode is always calomel equivalence point indicates neutralization
and silver electrode is always indicator of
electrode A. [𝐻3 𝑃𝑂4 ]
Ans. C B. [𝐻𝐶𝑙 + 2/3𝐻3 𝑃𝑂4 ]
C. [𝐻𝐶𝑙 + 1/3 𝐻3 𝑃𝑂4 ]
D. [𝐻𝐶𝑙 + 𝐻3 𝑃𝑂4 ] D. initially decreases slowly and at
Ans. B equivalence point, increases sharply
Ans. B

Que. Select the correct equation used Que. In potentiometric titration, potential
for calculating cell EMF after equivalence of the oxidation-reduction electrode is
point when Fe+2 ions are titrated with given by--
standard solution of Ce+4 ions A. Hittoff’s equation
potentiometrically B. Ohm’s equation
0.0591 [𝐹𝑒 3+ ]
A. 𝐸 = 𝐸 0 𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙 + . log C. Nernst equation
𝑛 [𝐹𝑒 2+ ]
0.0591 [𝐹𝑒 2+ ]
D. Faraday’s equation
B. 𝐸 = 𝐸 0 𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙 + . log Ans. C
𝑛 [𝐹𝑒 3+ ]
0.0591 [𝐶𝑒 3+ ]
C. 𝐸 = 𝐸 0 𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙 + . log
[𝐶𝑒 4+ ]
𝑛
0.0591 [𝐶𝑒 4+ ] Que. For oxidation-reduction electrode,
D. 𝐸 = 𝐸 0 𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙 + 𝑛
. log [𝐶𝑒 3+] potential is given by-----
𝑅𝑇 [𝐹𝑒 3+ ]
Ans. D A. 𝐸𝑒𝑙 = 𝐸 0 𝑒𝑙 + 𝑙𝑛
[𝐹𝑒 2+]
𝐹
𝑅𝑇 [𝐹𝑒 3+ ]
Que. In potentiometric redox titration B. 𝐸 0 𝑒𝑙 = 𝐸𝑒𝑙 + 𝑙𝑛
𝐹 [𝐹𝑒 2+]
when 100 ml of 0.1 N Fe2+ ions is titrated 𝑅𝑇 [𝐹𝑒 3+ ]
C. 𝐸𝑒𝑙 = 𝐸 0 𝑒𝑙 − 𝑙𝑛
with 120 ml of 0.1 N Ce+4 ions, calculate 𝐹 [𝐹𝑒 2+]
the cell EMF, if E0cell is 1.45 V D. None of these
A. 1.1V Ans. A
B. 1.4V
C. 1.31V Que. At 25⁰C potential of oxidation-
D. 1.43V reduction electrode is given by----
Ans. B [𝐹𝑒 3+ ]
A. 𝐸𝑒𝑙 = 𝐸 0 𝑒𝑙 − 0.0591𝑙𝑜𝑔
[𝐹𝑒 2+]
Que. In the plot of  E/ V vs V,
2 2 [𝐹𝑒 3+ ]
B. 𝐸 0 𝑒𝑙 = 𝐸𝑒𝑙 − 0.0591𝑙𝑜𝑔
[𝐹𝑒 2+]
steeper portion of the curve joining the
[𝐹𝑒 3+ ]
maximum and minimum value of 2E/ C. 𝐸 0 𝑒𝑙 = 𝐸𝑒𝑙 + 0.0591𝑙𝑜𝑔
[𝐹𝑒 2+]
V2 indicates------------ [𝐹𝑒 3+ ]
A. Incomplete titration D. 𝐸𝑒𝑙 = 𝐸 0 𝑒𝑙 + 0.0591𝑙𝑜𝑔
[𝐹𝑒 2+]
B. completion of the titration reaction Ans. D
C. pH of titration mixture
D. Zero EMF value
Ans. B Que. In redox titration, if ratio of
[Fe3+]/[Fe2+] is 0.01, the electrode
Que. In potentiometric acid-base potential is-----
titrations, EMF of the cell---------- A. Eel = E0 -0.0591
A. initially decreases slowly and at B. Eel = E0 -0.1182
equivalence point, decreases sharply C. Eel = E0 -0.01
B. initially increases slowly and at D. Eel = E0 -0.01182
equivalence point, increases Ans. B
sharply
C. initially increases slowly and at
equivalence point, decreases Que. In redox titration, electrode potential
at equivalence point is given by------
sharply
A. 𝐸𝑒𝑞 = (𝐸 01 + 𝐸 0 2 )/2
 [𝐹𝑒 3+ ] Ans. D
B. 𝐸𝑒𝑙 = 𝐸 0 1 − 0.0591𝑙𝑜𝑔
[𝐹𝑒 2+]
C. 𝐸𝑒𝑞 = 2(𝐸 01 + 𝐸 0 2 )
[𝐹𝑒 3+ ] Que. In Fe/Ce redox titration, before
D. 𝐸𝑒𝑙 = 𝐸 0 1 + 0.0591𝑙𝑜𝑔 [𝐹𝑒 2+]
equivalence point, one of the half- cell
Ans. A reactions is
A. Fe3+ + e- Fe2+
B. Ce3+Ce4+ +e-
Que. In potentiometric redox titration C. Fe2+  Fe3+ + e-
between Fe2+ and Ce4+, at equivalence D. none of these
point------ Ans. C
A. [Ce3+]=[Fe2+] and [Ce4+]=[Fe3+]
B. [Fe2+] = [Ce4+] and [Fe3+] = [Ce3+]
C. [Fe2+] = [Fe3+] and [Fe3+] = [Ce4+] Que. one of the half -cell reactions in the
D. [Ce3+] = [Ce4+] and [Ce3+] = [Fe3+] Fe/Ce titration, before equivalence point
Ans. B is----
A. Fe3+ + e- Fe2+
B. Ce4++e- Ce3+
Que. At equivalence point in redox C. Fe4++ e- Fe3+
titration between Fe+2 and Ce+4,----- D. Ce3+Ce4+ +e-
A. [Fe2+] = [Fe3+] Ans. B
B. [Ce3+] = [Ce4+]
C. [Fe2+] = [Ce4+]
D. [Fe3+] = [Ce4+] Que. For the Fe/Ce redox titration, the
Ans. C overall reaction is-------
A. Fe2+ +Ce4+ Fe3+ + Ce3+
B. Fe4+ +Ce2+ Fe3+ + Ce3+
Que. For the reaction Fe3+ (aq) + e-Fe2+ C. Fe3+ +Ce3+ Fe2+ + Ce4+
(aq) D. all of these
A. E0=0.47 V Ans. A
B. E0=1.61V
C. E0=0.74V
D. E0=0.77V
Ans. D
Que. Potentiometric titrations are
preferred over volumetric titrations
Que. For the reaction Ce4+ (aq) + e- Ce3+ because----
(aq) A. Indicators are not required
A. E0=6.11 V B. They can be carried out above 200⁰C
B. E0=1.61V C. They require calomel electrode
C. E0=0.161V D. End point is always pink
D. E0=0.77 V Ans. A
Ans. B

Que. Advantages of potentiometric

Que. In the Fe/Ce redox titration, at
equivalence point EMF of the cell is
A. E=0.24 + 0.77 + 1.61/2
B. E=(1.61 +0.24)/2 + 0.77
C. E=(0.77 +0.24)/2 + 1.61
0.77+1.61
D. E=
2
− 0.24
titration is
A. There are no calculations as
N1V1>N2V2
B. Colored solutions can be titrated
C. Solid mixtures can be titrated
D. Only one indicator is required
Ans. B

Que. End-point of potentiometric titration
is indicated in the plot of E/V vs
volume of titrant--
A. By the minima
B. By the point of inflection
C. By the point where color changes to
blue
D. By the maxima
Ans. D
Que. The nature of graph shown for
the potentiometric titration curve is plot
between
A. EMF of cell and volume of titrant
B. E/V and volume of titrant
C. 2E/V2and volume of titrant
D. E/V2 and volume of titrant
Ans. B
Que. Potentiometric titration curve of the
type shown is obtained if graph is plotted
between
Potentiometric titration curve of the above
type is obtained if graph is plotted
between----
A. E/V and volume of titrant
B. 2E/V2 and volume of titrant
C. None of these
D. EMF of cell and volume of titrant
Ans. D
Que. the following curve is obtained in
potentiometric titration, if graph is plotted
between----
A. EMF of cell and volume of titrant
B. E/V and volume of titrant
C. 2E/V2 and volume of titrant
D. pH and conductance
Ans. C
Que. In potentiometric titration, if
graph is plotted between E/V and
volume of titrant, its nature is
A.
 Que. In potentiometric titrations, as pH of
the solution increases , EMF of the cell-----
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains zero
D. Remains constant
Ans. A

Que. The advantage of potentiometric

titration is that it can be used for solutions
A. Where precipitation occurs during the
B. reaction
B. Where gases liberate during the reaction
C. Where heat is liberated during the
reaction
D. None of these
Ans. A

C. Que. The advantage of potentiometric

titration is that it can be used for
A. Titration of calcium salt solutions
B. Titration of charcoal solutions
C. Titration of colored solutions
D. Titration of calomel solutions
Ans. C

Que. In potentiometric titration cell is

D.
Ans. A
Que. In potentiometric titrations, more
accurate equivalence point is obtained if
graph is of
A. EMF of cell and volume of titrant
B. E/V and volume of titrant
C. pH and volume of titrant
D. EMF of cell and pH of acid
Ans. B
constructed in which
A. Reference electrode is always calomel
and platinum is always indicator electrode
B. Reference electrode is always calomel
and glass is always indicator
electrode
C. Reference electrode is always calomel
and indicator electrode is always reversible
with respect to one of the ions involved in
the titration
D. Reference electrode is always calomel
and silver is always indicator electrode
Ans. C
Que. The first differential derivative
plot of a potentiometric titration gives a
sharp end point from the graph as
A. Point of intersection on Y-axis
B. Minima of the curve
C. Point of inflection
D. Maxima of the curve C. Thermal energy of substance
Ans. D D. Electrical conductivity of absorbing
substance
Ans. B
UNIT IIC
Que. Lambert’s law states that the rate of
Que. If It is intensity of transmitted light I0
decrease in intensity of monochromatic
is intensity of incident light, K is the
light passing through transparent medium
constant for wavelength, l is thickness and
with thickness of medium is proportional
c is concentration It = I0 . e-kl is--------------
to ---------------
-
A. Wavelength of incident light.
A. Beer’s law
B. Intensity of incident light.
B. Lambert’s law
C. Wavelength of transmitted light.
C. Kohlrausch’s law
D. Intensity of visible light
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Ans. B

Que. Beer’s law states that the intensity of

Que. Visible spectrophotometer has
monochromatic light passing through
operational range………….
transparent medium decreases as -----------
A. 400nm-800nm
----of the absorbing substance increases
B. 200nm-400nm
arithmetically
C. 200nm-800nm
A. Volume
D. 500nm-1500nm
B. Concentration
Ans. A
C. Cost
D. Standard oxidation potential
Que. The solution of substance that
Ans. B
appears coloured to human eyes absorbs in
the range…………
Que. Operating range of uv-
A. 400nm-800nm
spectrophotometer is ----------------------.
B. 200nm-400nm
A. 400nm-800nm
C. 200nm-800nm
B. 200nm-400nm
D. 500nm-1500nm
C. 200nm-800nm
Ans. A
D. 500nm-1500nm
Ans. B
Que. The solution of substance that
absorbs in UV region appears ………. to
Que. Operating range of uv- visible
human eyes
spectrophotometer is ---------------------.
A. Coloured
A. 400nm-800nm
B. Transparent
B. 200nm-400nm
C. Turbid
C. 200nm-800nm
D. None of the above
D. 500nm-1500nm
Ans. B
Ans. C

Que. The magnitude of molar absorption

Que. In UV visible spectrophotometer
coefficient is dependent on the wavelength
measurement of absorbs is preferred over
of incident beam of radiation and------------
% transmittance because---------
--------
A. UV visible spectrophotometer is
A. Physical state of absorbing substance
equipped to measure absorbance
B. Chemical nature of absorbing substance
B. Absorbance is α C while %
transmittance is not
C. % transmittance can’t be measured with
100 % accuracy
D. % transmittance is dependent on the
power of incident radiations
Ans. B
Que. absorption of radiation by a molecule
depends upon
A. The structural features of molecule
B. The environmental features of molecule
C. the physical features of molecule
D. None of these
Ans. A

Que. According to Beer’s Lamberts law Que. The total energy possessed by the
A= εcl molecule is
Where ε is A. E=Eel x Evib x Erot
A. Absorbance B. E=Eel / Evib / Erot
B. Molar absorptivity C. E=Eel + Evib + Erot
C. Path length D. E=Eel - Evib - Erot
D. Transmittance Ans. C
Ans. B

Que. Spectroscopy deals with the study of Que. Choose the correct relation
A. interaction of electrical waves with between the energy possessed by the
magnetic waves molecule
((B)interaction of electrical waves with A. Evibration>Erotational>Eelectronic
matter B. Erotational>Eelectronic>Evibration
C. interaction of electromagnetic waves C. Eelectronic>Evibration>Erotational
with matter D. Eelectronic>Erotational>Evibration
D. interaction of magnetic waves with Ans. C
waves
Ans. C
Que. Rotational energy level transitions
Que. In electromagnetic wave, reciprocal occur
of wavelength is A. In infrared region of electromagnetic
A. Frequency spectrum
B. Velocity B. In microwave region of electromagnetic
C. Wave number spectrum
D. Amplitude C. In UV region of electromagnetic
Ans. C spectrum
D. In visible region of electromagnetic
Que. When atoms or molecules are spectrum
exposed to radiations they absorb only Ans. B
those wavelength of radiation that
A. have exactly the energy necessary for Que. Vibrational energy level transitions
the transition occur
B. cause temporary or permanent A. In infrared region of electromagnetic
excitations spectrum
C. Both A and B B. In microwave region of electromagnetic
D. None of these spectrum
Ans. C C. In UV region of electromagnetic
spectrum
D. In visible region of electromagnetic
spectrum
Ans. A Que. Absorbance is
A. A=ln(1/T)
Que. Electronic energy level transitions B. A=log10(1/T)
occur C. A=log10(T)
A. In infrared region of electromagnetic D. A=loge(1/T)
spectrum Ans. B
B. In microwave region of electromagnetic
spectrum
C. In UV-visible region of electromagnetic Que. Laws that govern colorimetry are
spectrum A. Lambert’s law
D. In gamma region of electromagnetic B. Beer’s law
spectrum C. Both A and B
Ans. C D. None of these
Ans. C

Que. Spectroscopy helps to Que. Any isolated covalently bonded

A. Determine molecular structure of a functional group that shows a
compound characteristic absorption in uv-visible
B. Quantitative determination of both region is known as --------------
organic and inorganic compounds A. Auxochrome
C. Qualitative determination of both B. Chromophore
organic and inorganic compounds C. Phosphoresce
D. All of these D. Chromatophore
Ans. D Ans. B

Que. Any group which does not itself act

Que. The most common solvent fo UV- as a functional group but whose presence
visible spectroscopy is brings about a shift in absorption band
A. Ethyl alcohol towards longer wavelength is known as ---
B. Hexane -----------------
C. Water A. Auxochrome
D. All of these B. Chromophore
Ans. D C. Phosphoresce
D. Chromatophore
Que. Cuvette used for sample, in UV Ans. A
spectroscopy
A. is transparent to UV light Que. The energy required for the transition
B. do not absorb UV light is highest in case of -----------------------
C. Both A and B transition.
D. None of these A. π-σ*
Ans. C B. σ-σ*
C. σ-n
Que. Cuvette used for sample, in UV D. n-σ
spectroscopy is made up of Ans. B
A. Glass
B. Quartz Que. Substitution of group if shifts
C. Ceramic absorption to the longer wavelength the
D. SS shift is known as ----
Ans. B A. chromophoric shift
B. bathochromic shift
C. blue shift Que. ----------------------- is known as
D. yellow shift colour enhancing group.
Ans. B A. Auxochrome
B. Chromophore
Que. Absorption shifted to shorter C. Chromatophor
wavelength due to substitution of group is D. None of the above
known as ---------- Ans. A
A. chromophoric shift
B. bathochromic shift
C. blue shift
D. red shift Que. Transition which requires highest
Ans. C energy in uv-visible spectrophotometer is
---------------- transition.
Que. An effect accompanied by increase in A. π-σ*
the intensity of absorption maxima is B. σ-σ*
known as ------ C. σ-n
A. Hypsochromic shift D. n-σ
B. Hypochromic shift Ans. B
C. Hyperchromic shift
D. None of the above Que. Transition which requires lowest
Ans. C energy in uv-visible spectrophotometer is
---------------- transition.
Que. An effect accompanied by decrease A. π-σ*
in the intensity of absorption maxima is B. σ-σ*
known as ----------- C. σ-n
A. Hypsochromic shift D. n- π *
B. Hypochromic shift Ans. D
C. Hyperchromic shift
D. None of the above Que. Transition which requires radiation
Ans. B of shortest wavelength in uv-visible
spectrophotometer is ----------------
Que. An effect due to which absorption transition.
maxima is shifted towards shorter A. π-σ*
wavelength known as B. σ-σ*
A. Hypsochromic shift C. σ-n
B. Hypochromic shift D. n- π *
C. Hyperchromic shift Ans. B
D. None of the above
Ans. A Que. Transition which requires radiation
of longest wavelength in uv-visible
Que. Benzene absorbs at 255nm while spectrophotometer is ----------------
aniline absorbs at 280nm because ---------- transition.
------- A. π-σ*
A. Bezene is auxochrome B. σ-σ*
B. -NH2 is auxochrome C. σ-n
C. -NH2 is chromophpre D. n- π *
D. None of the above Ans. D
Ans. B
Que. The relative energy changes D. Hypsochrome
involved in the transition has order---------- Ans. A
------
A. n- π * < σ-σ* < π- π * Que. If absorption of molecule is shifted
B. n- π * > σ-σ* > π- π * towards longer wavelength due to solvent
C. n- π * < π- π * < σ-σ* effect then it is called ------
D. n- π * > π- π *> σ-σ* A. Hypsochromic shift
Ans. C B. Hypochromic shift
C. Bathochromic shift
Que. Transition which requires radiation D. Hyperchromic shift
of longest wavelength in uv-visible Ans. C
spectrophotometer is ----------------
transition. Que. Maximum energy is required for
A. π-σ* transition of
B. σ-σ* A. σ-σ*
C. σ-n B. π- π *
D. n- π * C. n- π *
Ans. D D. n-σ*
Ans. A
Que. Electron transition is allowed
transition or forbidden depends upon ------ Que. Minimum energy is required for
------ transition of
A. The geometry of the molecular orbital A. σ-σ*
in ground state B. π- π *
B. The geometry of the molecular orbital C. n- π *
in excited state D. n-σ*
C. The orientation of the electric dipole of Ans. C
the incident light responsible for including
the transition Que. In electromagnetic spectrum, the
D. On appropriate symmetry relationship visible region is-----
between the above three factors A. 200-400 nm
Ans. D B. 400-800 nm
C. 800-900 nm
Que. Conjugated enone shows UV D. 100-200 nm
visible absorption maxima for π- π * at Ans. B
245nm if hexane is used as solvent. If
ethanol is used as solvent absorption Que. A group of atoms in a molecule
maxima of same enone will-------- responsible for absorption of radiation is
A. Shift to longer wavelength called as
B. Remain unaffected A. Chromophore
C. Disappeared B. Auxochrome
D. Shift to shorter wavelength C. Chromosome
Ans. A D. Parent molecule
Ans. A
Que. An isolated functional groups capable
of absorbing radiations above 200 nm are Que. π- π * transitions are associated with
called compound containing-----
A. Chromophore A. Alkenes
B. Auxochrome B. Aromatic compounds
C. Hypochrome C. Alkynes
D. All of these D. Any of the above
Ans. D Ans. D

Que. Which of the following is a Que. The parts of spectrophotometer is

chromophore? used to obtain a light rays with single
A. C-OH wavelength is known as --------------
B. C-Br A. Monochromator
C. C=O B. Source of light
D. C-NH2 C. Slit
Ans. C D. Detector
Ans. A
Que. For the study of UV/visible
spectroscopy, spectrophotometers used are Que. In Photomultiplier tube sensitivity of
namely---- photometric cell--------------
A. Double and triple beam A. Is considerably decreased
B. Single and double bond B. Is kept constant
C. Single and double beam C. Is considerably increased
D. Double and triple bond D. None of the above
Ans. C Ans. C

Que. Which of the following is not a

chromophore? Que. The essential component of
A. C=C monochromator are entrance exit slit and--
B. C=O ------------
C. -N=N- A. Dispersing element like prism
D. C-OH B. Photovoltaic cell
Ans. D C. Galvanometer
D. None of the above
Que. A module which provides a beam of Ans. A
light of given single wavelength is known
as ---------- Que. Cuvettes used in uv-visible
A. window spectrophotometer are made up of ----------
B. monochromator -----.
C. selector A. Glass
D. spectrometer B. Quartz
Ans. B C. Metal
D. None of the above
Que. Detector used in uv- visible Ans. B
spectrophotometer is ----------------------.
A. Photomultiplier tube Que. UV – Visible spectrophotometer has
B. Electric buzzer application in --------------------
C. Null point detector A. Detection of function group
D. None of the above B. Determination of conjugation
Ans. A C. Identification of unknown compound
D. All above
Que. Source used in uv-visible Ans. D
spectrophotometer is ---------------.
A. Incandescent lamp Que. uv spectroscopy helps in the
B. Hydrogen lamp study of
C. Duterium lamp A. Kinetics of chemical reaction
B. Kinetics of physical reaction wavelen
C. Kinetics of stable reaction gth
D. Kinetics of colored reaction
Ans. A A. 1-E, 2-F, 3-H,4-G
B. 1-H,2-E, 3-G, 4-F
Que. Match the following C. 1-F, 2-G, 3-H, 4-E
D. 1-G,2-E,3-H, 4-F
1 Uv A Wheatston Ans. C
spectroscopy e bridge
Que. Match the following and choose
2 conductometr B No visual the correct option:
y indicators 1. Beer’s law M. A=εl
3 pH metry C Colored 2. Lambert’s N. A=εCl
law
solutions 3. Beer- O. A=εC
4 potentionmetr D Electronic Lambert’s
law
y transitions
A. 1-O, 2-M, 3-N
A. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C B. 1-M, 2-O, 3-N
B. 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D C. 1-N, 2-M, 3-O
D. 1-O, 2-N, 3-M
C. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D Ans. A
D. 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B
Que. Which of the following
Ans. A molecules has maximum absorption? What
is the reason?
Benzaldehyde, Benzene, Aniline
Que. Match the following: A. aniline, presence of auxochrome
1 Bathochromic E Absorpt B. Benzene, presence of auxochrome
. shift . ion C. Benzaldehyde, presence of
intensit chromophore
y D. Aniline, presence of chromophore
decreas Ans. A
es
2 Hyperchromi F λmax Que. Identify the components ‘X’ and
. c shift . shifts to ‘Y’ in the following schematic diagram of
longer single beam spectrophotometer.
wavelen
gth
3 Hypsochromi G Absorpt
. cshift . ion
intensit
y
increase
s
4 Hyperchromi H λmax
. c shift . shifts to
shorter
 . mic shift solvent
3 Hypsochro G Presence
. mic shift . of
auxochro
me
4 Hyperchro H Removal
. mic shift . of
conjugati
on

A. 1-F, 2-H, 3-E,4-G

B. 1-F, 2-G 3-H,4-E
C. 1-H, 2-G, 3-F,4-E
A. X: Source, Y:Detector D. 1-G, 2-E, 3-F,4-H
B. X: Sample cell, Y:amplifier Ans. B
C. X: Lens, Y:Detector
D. X: Monochromator, Y:amplifier
Ans. A
Que. Select the correct option showing
Que. Identify the components ‘X’ and relative energies for various electronic
‘Y’ in the following schematic diagram of excitations
double beam spectrophotometer A. nπ*> ππ*> σ π*> σσ*> nσ*

B. nσ*>nπ*> ππ*> σ π*> σσ*

C. σ π*> ππ*> σσ*> nπ*>nσ*
D. σσ*> σ π*>ππ*> nσ*> nπ*
Ans. B

Que. In case of naphthalene due to

introduction of methyl group---- shift
occurs which is ---shift.
A. Hyperchromic , absorption
B. Bathochromic, absorption
A. X: Monochromator, Y:Detector C. Hypsochromic, intensity
B. X: Sample, Y:Detector D. Hypochromic, intensity
C. X: Reference, Y:Detector Ans. D
D. X: water, Y:Detector
Ans. C Que. Aniline in acidic medium shows-
-- due to-----
Que. Match the following absorption A. Blue shift, loss of conjugation
and intensity shifts with their reason. B. Red shift, loss of conjugation
1 Bathochrom E Introducti C. Red shift, presence of conjugation
. ic shift . on of D. Hyperchromic shift, presence of
group that conjugation
distorts Ans. A
the
geometry
2 Hyperchro F. Change of
Que. Ans. C

Que. Following is the unique property of

polymeric materials.
A. Elasticity
B. Viscoelasticity
C. Plasticity
D. None
Ans. B

Que. Which one of the following is

The graph which is more convenient to natural polymer?
interpret is ----- A. Polyisoprene
A. graph (i)
B. Nylon - 6
B. graph (ii)
C. Both (i) and (ii) C. Neoprene
D. none of these D. SBR
Ans. B Ans. A

Que. Limitation of Beer-Lambert law

is----
Que. Which of the following is
A. it governs absorption behaviour of
solutions at high temperature homopolymer?
B. it governs absorption behaviour of A. SBR
solutions at low temperature B. LDPE
C. it governs absorption behaviour of C. Epoxy resin
dilute solutions only D. Buna-S
D. it governs absorption behaviour of Ans. B
concentrated solutions only
Ans. C
Que. Which type of polymer is Nylon-6?
A. Polyester
UNIT IIIA B. Polyamide
C. Polyether
Que. The word ‘polymer’ meant for
material made from …….. D. none of these
A. Single entity Ans. B
B. Two entities
C. Multiple entities
D. Any entity Que. Which of the following statements
Ans. C are correct for Linear polymer?
A. Linear polymers may be condensation
as well as addition polymers
Que. Polymers are ……. in nature. B. Structure is well packed in nature
A. Organic C. Linear polymers have higher density,
B. Inorganic higher m.p. and higher tensile strength.
C. Both (a) and (b) D. All are correct
D. None Ans. D
 C. Glassy
Que. Which of the following cannot be D. Semi liquid
monomer? Ans. B
A. Propanol
B. Ethylene diamine Que. Increasing cross linking of polymer
C. Adipic acid Tg value…...
D. Ethylene glycol A. increases
Ans. A B. decreases
C. fluctuates
Que. Which is not true about polymer? D. remain unaffected
A. Polymers do not carry any charge Ans. A
B. Polymers have high viscosity
C. Polymers scatter light Que. Glass transition temperature of
D. Polymers have low molecular weight polymer …….with increase in molecular
Ans. D weight.
A. increases
Que. Polymer attains….state below B. decreases
Tg and……state above Tg. C. fluctuates
A. Viscoelastic; Glassy D. remain unaffected
B. Viscofluid; Glassy Ans. A
C. Glassy; Viscoelastic
D. Semi liquid; Viscofluid Que. In order to form Polymer, monomers
Ans. C must be at least……
A. monofunctional
Que. Polymer exists in……..state between B. bifunctional
Tg and Tf value. C. trifunctional
A. Viscoelastic D. polyfunctional
B. Viscofluid Ans. B
C. Glassy
D. Semi liquid
Ans. A Que. Polymer crystallinity can be
measured by ……
Que. Due to addition of plasticizers, Tg A. potentiometer
value of polymer………. B. CRO
A. increases C. X-ray diffraction
B. decreases D. Electrodialysis
C. fluctuates Ans. C
D. remain unaffected
Ans. B Que. The relation between Tg and Tm for
symmetrical polymers is……
Que. Polymer attains…….state above Tm A. Tg = 3/2 Tm
value. B. Tg = 2/3 Tm
A. Viscoelastic C. Tg = 1/2 Tm
B. Viscofluid D. Tm= 1/2 Tg
Ans. B Ans. B

Que. Knowledge of Tg value is important Que. Polystyrene has more Tg value than
because…. Polyethylene due to
A. It gives idea about working A. presence of double bond
temperature range of particular polymer B. absence of functional group
B. It gives idea of choosing right C. presence of bulky side group
temperature for polymer D. absence of polarity
C. It is a measure of flexibility of polymer Ans. C
D. None of the above
Ans. A Que. ……..is Vinylic monomer and
……..is functional group monomer.
A. Glycol and Ethylene diamine
Que. An example of trifunctional B. Vinyl chloride and Styrene
monomer is C. Propylene and Adipic acid
A. Styrene D. Benzene and Terephthalic acid
B. Glycerol Ans. C
C. Ethylene glycol
D. 1, 4-dimethyl Benzene Que. A high molecular weight material
Ans. B that can be easily moulded into desired
shape is..
Que. An example of tetra functional A. graphite
monomer is B. plastic
A. Ethyl benzene C. glass
B. Glycerol D. metal
C. Urea Ans. B
D. 1, 4-dimethyl Benzene
Ans. C Que. Degree of polymerization is,
A. Total number of monomer molecules
joined in polymer molecule
Que. Factors affecting crystallinity of a B. Minimum number of monomer
polymer are…… molecules joined in polymer molecule
A. intermolecular forces C. Maximum number of monomer
B. Bulky side groups molecules joined in polymer molecule
C. Rate of cooling during crystallization D. Average number of monomer
D. All of the above molecules joined in polymer molecule
Ans. D Ans. D

Que. As the polymer molecule in a

Que. Highly crystalline polymers will have polymeric chain differs in its length and
A. Low density sizes, the molecular weight of a polymer is
B. High Tg value always…..
C. Low softening temperature A. approximation
D. All of the above B. average
C. sharp value Que. The denser packing of polymer
D. all of these chains is observed when the polymer is….
Ans. B A. Partially crystalline
B. Amorphous
Que. …can be measured by C. Highly crystalline
Colligative property and….is by light D. Independent of its crystallinity
scattering method. Ans. C
̅̅̅̅ ; ̅̅̅̅
A. 𝑀𝑛 𝑀𝑣
̅̅̅̅̅ ; ̅̅̅̅
B. 𝑀𝑤 𝑀𝑛 Que. The extent to which polymer
C. ̅̅̅̅̅
𝑀𝑤 ; 𝑀𝑣 ̅̅̅̅ molecules are arranged in an ordered
D. ̅̅̅̅
𝑀𝑛 ; ̅̅̅̅̅
𝑀𝑤 fashion is called..
Ans. D A. Functionality
B. Crystallinity
C. Polymerizability
Que. The weight average molecular weight D. None of these
of a polymer is determined by…… Ans. B
A. light scattering
B. ultracentrifugation method Que. Branched polymers are…..
C. both A and B A. amorphous in nature
D. none of these B. having regular arrangement of polymer
Ans. C molecules
C. crystalline in nature
Que. Identify the correct statement D. mechanically strong
A. Polymer above Tg is rigid and below Ans. A
Tg is brittle
B. Polymer above Tg is flexible and UNIT IIIB
below Tg is brittle
Que. In propagation step the reaction
C. Polymer above Tm is rigid and below
intermediate of radical polymerization is
Tg is brittle
A. Carbanion
D. Polymer above Tg is rigid and above
B. Carbocation
Tm is viscous
C. Carbene
Ans. B
D. free radical
Ans. D
Que. General relation of Tg and Tm for
Vinylic polymers is, approximately
Que. Which monomer will undergo
A. Tg = 3⁄2 Tm radical polymerization most readily?
B. Tg = 2⁄3 Tm A. Ethylene
C. Tg = 1⁄2 Tm B. Styrene
C. Propene
D. Tm = 1⁄2 Tg D. 2-methyl 1-propene
Ans. B Ans. B
Que. Which of the following monomers Que. In which technique, monomer is
can undergo radical, cationic as well as uniformly dispersed in aqueous phase but
anionic not in the form of discrete droplets?
polymerization with equal ease? A. Solution
A. Acrylonitrile B. Emulsion
B. iso-butylene C. Suspension
C. Styrene D. Bulk
D. Ethylne Ans. B
Ans. C
Que. Micelles of surfactants shows
Que. Free radical polymerization can be ….nature to inner side and ……..end
initiated by remain outward.
A. Hydrogen peroxide A. non polar - polar
B. Benzoyl peroxide B. polar - non polar
C. Azo bis-isobutyronitrile C. non polar - non polar
D. all of these D. polar - polar
Ans. D Ans. A

Que. Out of following polymers which Que. Micelles are related to which
one is addition copolymer? technique of polymerizations?
A. Neoprene A. Solution
B. Buna-S B. Emulsion
C. Nylon 6,6 C. Suspension
D. PVC D. Bulk
Ans. B Ans. B

Que. By which polymerization technique Que. Styrene divinyl benzene copolymer

almost 100% pure polymer is obtained? resin is prepared by ……..technique of
A. Solution polymerization.
B. Emulsion A. Solution
C. Suspension B. Emulsion
D. Bulk C. Suspension
Ans. D D. Bulk
Ans. A
Que. Which polymerization technique is
used exclusively for preparation of block Que. Which polymerization technique is
copolymers? also known as bead or pearl
A. Solution polymerization technique?
B. Emulsion A. Solution
C. Suspension B. Emulsion
D. Bulk C. Suspension
Ans. A D. Bulk
Ans. C
 1. Bulk polymerization
Que. Expandable polystyrene beads are P. Tiny bulk reactor
polymerized by which polymerization 2. Solution polymerization
technique? Q. Surfactant
A. Solution 3. Emulsion polymerization R. Ta
B. Emulsion 4. Suspension polymerization
C. Suspension S. Pure polymer
D. Bulk A. 1-R, 2-P, 3-S, 4-Q
Ans. C B. 1-S, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-P
C. 1-P, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-S
Que. Bis-Phenol A and Epichlorohydrin D. 1-Q, 2-S, 3-P, 4-R
are the monomers of …….. Ans. B
A. PF resin
B. Epoxy resin Que. Match the following:
C. Melamine formaldehyde resin 1. Functionality of monomer
D. Buna -S P. Step growth polymerization
Ans. B 2. Condensation polymerization
Q. One saturated and other unsaturated
Que. Which of the following polymers are polymer
condensation polymers? 3. Coupling
A. Bakelite R. Number of reactive sites in the
B. Teflon monomer
C. ABS 4. Disproportination
D. PS S. Two growing polymers form a
Ans. A macromolecule
A. 1-R, 2-P, 3-S, 4-Q
Que. Choose the reaction that occurs B. 1-S, 2-Q, 3-P, 4-R
as addition copolymerization. C. 1-P, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-S
A. n (Vinyl chloride) PVC D. 1-R, 2-S, 3-P, 4-Q
B. n (HMDA) + n (Adipic acid) Nylon Ans. A
C. n (Butadiene) + n (Styrene)  SBR
D. n (3-hydroxy butyric acid) + n (3- Que. Which of the following is not a free-
hydroxy valeric acid)  HBHV radical catalyst?
Ans. C A. Diazobenzene
B. H2O2
Que. Choose the reaction that occurs C. Benzene
as condensation polymerization. D. Benzoyl peroxide
A. n (Vinyl chloride) PVC Ans. C
B. n (HMDA) + n (Adipic acid) Nylon
C. n (Butadiene) + n (Styrene)  SBR Que. The free radical initiator for a chain
D. n (Propylene)  Polypropylene reaction is formed by…..
Ans. B A. Homolytic fission
B. Chain transfer
Que. Match the following: C. Disproportion
D. Termination Que. A polymer with “Live” ends on both
Ans. A side is,
A. Polypropylene
Que. ………is a catalyst for free radical B. Polystyrene
polymerization mechanism. C. PVC
A. HCl D. Polycarbonate
B. H2O2 Ans. D
C. BF3
D. Zeigler-Natta Que. Which of the following is not
Ans. B true for chain growth polymerization….
A. Molecular weight of polymer is
Que. Addition reaction of polymerization integral multiple of monomer
is……. B. Polymer chains are not active after
A. Exothermic termination
B. Slow C. Average molecular weight increases
C. Endothermic with reaction time
D. Noncatalytic D. It is endothermic reaction
Ans. A Ans. D

Que. Initiator used in addition Que. Order of ease of heat and mass
polymerization is….. transfer for technique of polymerization
A. Benzoyl peroxide with the progress is,
B. Hydrogen peroxide A. Bulk > Suspension > Solution
C. Acetyl peroxide B. Suspension > Bulk > Solution
D. All of these C. Solution > Bulk > Suspension
Ans. D D. Solution > Suspension > Bulk
Ans. D
Que. Free radical addition polymerization
is terminated by Que. For suspension polymerization
A. coupling initiator should be
B. disproportionation A. Water soluble
C. chain transfer B. Monomer soluble
D. all of these C. Soluble in both water and monomer
Ans. D D. Insoluble in water and monomer
Ans. B
Que. Feature of addition polymerization is
A. monomer contains single bond Que. Initiator used in emulsion
B. initiator is required to start polymerization should be….
polymerization reaction A. Soluble in monomer
C. reactions is endothermic B. Soluble in water
D. by products are formed C. Soluble in monomer-solvent mixture
Ans. B D. None of these
Ans. A
Que. By solution polymerization Que. Which type of polymer the
technique the polymer obtained is in the Melamine Formaldehyde is?
form of.. A. Thermoplastic
A. Beads B. Thermosetting
B. Latex C. both a and b
C. Adhesive D. none of these
D. None of these Ans. B
Ans. C
Que. Monomers of PF resin are
Que. The technique of polymerization that A. Phenol and methanol
uses surfactants to its critical concentration B. Phenol and Methanal
is…… C. Phenol and Ethylene glycol
A. Bulk D. Both b and c
B. Solution Ans. B
C. Suspension
D. Emulsion Que. In which polymer strength of
Ans. D intermolecular forces is highest?
A. Elastomer
UNIT IIIC B. Thermoplastic
C. Fibre
Que. These polymers cannot be recycled D. Cross-linked polymer
A. Thermoplasts Ans. D
B. Thermosets
C. Elastomers Que. Out of following polymers, which is
D. All polymers
not Thermosoftening polymer?
Ans. B A. PE
B. PVC
Que. In general, strongest polymer group C. Nylon
is _______ D. Urea formaldehyde resin
A. Thermoplasts Ans. D
B. Thermosets
C. Elastomers Que. Out of following polymers, which is
D. All polymers thermosetting polymer?
Ans. B A. PE
B. PVC
Que. Strong covalent bonds exists C. Nylon
between polymer chains in ______ D. PF resin
A. Thermoplasts Ans. D
B. Thermosets
C. Elastomers Que. Which polymer can be recycled?
D. All polymers
A. Thermosetting
Ans. B B. Thermo softening
C. Cross linked
D. None of these
Ans. B C. 1-P, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-S
D. 1-Q, 2-S, 3-P, 4-R
Ans. D
Que. Bakelite is a product of reaction
between…… and ……. Que. Which of the following is linear
A. Phenol; Formaldehyde polymer?
B. Formaldehyde; NaOH A. LDPE
C. Aniline; Formaldehyde B. HDPE
D. Urea ; Formaldehyde C. PF resin
Ans. A D. none
Ans. B
Que. Which is an example of
thermosetting polymer? Que. Zeigler-Natta Catalyst is
A. Polyethylene A. triethyl aluminium
B. Neoprene B. titanium tetrachloride
C. Bakelite C. triethyl aluminium & titanium
D. Isoprene tetrachloride
Ans. C D. triethyl borane and titanium dichloride
Ans. C
Que. Which of the following are
characteristics of thermosetting polymers? Que. HDPE has which type of structure?
i. Heavily branched cross linked polymers A. Linear
ii. Linear slightly branched long chain B. Highly Branch-chain
molecules C. Cross-linked
iii. Become infusible on moulding so D. Any one of these
cannot be reused iv. Soften on heating Ans. A
and harden on cooling, can be reused.
A. i and iii Que. Which of the following is strong
B. ii and iv adhesive?
C. only i A. Epoxy resin
D. i, ii and iii B. Melamine formaldehyde resin
Ans. A C. Bakelite
D. PVC
Que. Match the following: Ans. A
1. Thermoplastic polymer
P. Barium Sulphate Que. Bis-Phenol A and Epichlorohydrin
2. Cross-linked polymers are the monomers of ……..
Q. Polystyrene A. PF resin
3. Fillers B. Epoxy resin
R. Urea formaldehyde C. Melamine formaldehyde resin
4. Thermosetting polymer D. Buna -S
S. Increased Tg Ans. B
A. 1-R, 2-P, 3-S, 4-Q
B. 1-S, 2-Q, 3-P, 4-R Que. The structural formula of HDPE is
A. - (CH=CH)n- C. nCH 2 = CH2 -- -----Zeigler -Natta / 4.5
B. - (CH2 =CH2)n X 103 Pa, 50-700C-------> -(CH2-CH2)n-
C. - (CH-CHCl)n- D. nCH 2 = CH2 -- -----Zeigler -Natta / 4.5
D. - (CH2-CH2)n- X 102 Pa, 50-4000C-------> -(CH2-CH2)n-
Ans. D Ans. B

Que. Zeigler-Natta catalyst required for Que. The High density polyethylene
preparation of ……. synthesis reaction can be given as:
A. LDPE A. nCH 2 = CH2 --------H2O2 / 4.5 X 105
B. HDPE Pa, 50-700C-------> -(CH2-CH2)n-
C. PVC B. nCH 2 = CH2 -------H2O2 / 1.5 X 108
D. Epoxy resin Pa, 180-2500C-----> -(CH2-CH2)n-
Ans. B C. nCH 2 = CH2 -- -----Zeigler -Natta / 4.5
X 105 Pa, 50-700C-------> -(CH2-CH2)n-
D. nCH 2 = CH2 -- -----Zeigler -Natta /
Que. For paper coating……….is used. 180-2500C-------> -(CH2-CH2)n-
A. LDPE Ans. C
B. HDPE
C. SBR Que. An epoxy resin is…...
D. All of these A. Polyester
Ans. A B. Polyamide
C. Polyether
D. Polycarbonate
Que. Araldite is composed of …polymer. Ans. C
A. PS
B. PPF Que. In the synthesis of epoxy resin, the
C. Epoxy Resin catalyst used is……..
D. Buna –S A. AlCl3
Ans. C B. NaOH
C. HCl
Que. Out of following, which one used as D. H2O2
curing agent for Epoxy resin? Ans. B
A. Diols
B. Diacids
C. Diamines Que. A thermoplastic is formed generally
D. None of these by,
Ans. C A. condensation polymerization
B. Nitration
Que. The Low density polyethylene C. Addition polymerization
synthesis reaction can be given as: D. Cross linking of chains of polymers
A. nCH 2 = CH2 --------H2O2 / 4.5 X 105 Ans. C
Pa, 50-700C-------> -(CH2-CH2)n-
B. nCH 2 = CH2 -------H2O2 / 1.5 X 108
Pa, 180-2500C-----> -(CH2-CH2)n-
Que. A plastic which softens on heating Que. Which one of the following is
and hardens on cooling reversibly is natural polymer?
known as A. Polyisoprene
A. Thermo elastic B. Nylon - 6
B. Thermoplastic C. Neoprene
C. Thermosetting D. SBR
D. Thermo stable Ans. A
Ans. B
Que. Which type of polymer the
Que. Ethylene polymerization using free Vulcanized rubber is?
radical catalyst results in A. Linear
A. LDPE B. Cross-linked
B. HDPE C. Branch-chain
C. Epoxy Resin D. none of these
D. All of these Ans. B
Ans. A
Que. Which one of the following
Que. Crystallinity of LDPE and HDPE compound is monomer of Natural rubber?
are …..& …… respectively. A. 1, 3 - Butadiene
A. 40%; 50% B. 2- methyl 1-Butene
B. 40%: 90% C. 2-methyl 1,3-butadiene
C. 90%; 40% D. 2-Chloro 1, 3-butadiene
D. 50%; 40% Ans. C
Ans. B
Que. Which one of the following contains
Que. Epoxy resin is an example of… Isoprene units?
A. Thermosoftening resin A. Natural rubber
B. Thermosetting resin B. Nylon - 6,6
C. Elastomer C. PE
D. Fibre D. Neoprene rubber
Ans. B Ans. A

Que. Who has discovered Vulcanization

Que. The density and crystallinity of process of rubber?
LDPE is…. gm/cm3 and…… A. Christopher Columbus
%respectively B. Du Pond
A. 0.94; 40 C. Pristley
B. 0.91; 90 D. Thomas Hancock and Charles
C. 0.95; 70 Goodyear
D. 0.91; 40 Ans. D
Ans. D
Que. Natural Rubber is ……..type of
UNIT IIID polymer.
A. polyamide
B. polyester B. isoprene and butadiene
C. polyether C. vinyl chloride and sulphur
D. polyene D. butadiene and ethylene
Ans. D Ans. A

Que. Out of following which can be used Que. GR-S is a common name of which
as vulcanizing agent? polymer?
A. Zeigler- Natta catalyst A. Neoprene rubber
B. Sulphuryl chloride B. Silicone rubber
C. Sulphur C. Natural rubber
D. Both b and c D. SBR
Ans. D Ans. D

Que. Which of the following are examples

Que. In vulcanization of rubber…… of synthetic rubber?
A. sulphur reacts to form new compound A. Polychloroprene
B. sulphur crosslinks are introduced B. Polyisoprene
C. sulphur forms very thin protective layer C. SBR
on rubber D. both a and c
D. None of these Ans. D
Ans. B
Que. Which of the following polymer is
Que. Natural rubber is a polymer of….. not elastomer?
A. Trans- isoprene A. Buna-S
B. Cis- isoprene B. Neoprene
C. Cis-trans isoprene C. LDPE
D. Cis-chloroprene D. Polyisoprene
Ans. B Ans. C

Que. Which one of the following Que. Vulcanization makes rubber ……..
statements is not true? A. more elastic
A. Natural rubber has the Trans B. soluble in inorganic solvent
configuration at every double bond C. with more tackiness
B. Buna-S is a copolymer of butadiene D. more stiff and hard
and styrene Ans. D
C. Natural rubber is a 1, 4-polymer of
isoprene Que. Match the following:
D. In vulcanization, the sulphur crosslinks 1. Neoprene rubber
makes rubber harder and stronger. P. Swells in organic solvent
Ans. A 2. Raw rubber
Q. Buna -S
Que. The monomers of Buna-S rubber 3. Synthetic rubber
are…. R. Vulcanizing agent
A. styrene and butadiene
 4. Sulphuryl chloride
S. Oil action resistant rubber Que. Choose the correct option giving
A. 1-R, 2-P, 3-S, 4-Q the drawbacks of raw rubber
B. 1-S, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-R 1. Low plasticity
C. 1-P, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-S 2. Tensile strength is only 20
2
D. 1-Q, 2-S, 3-P, 4-R Kg/cm
Ans. B 3. Large water absorption capacity
4. Soluble in non-polar solvents
Que. Choose the correct option giving like oils, benzene, CCl4
the properties of SBR 5. Attacked by reducing agents like
1. Readily oxidized by oxygen in chromic acid, sodium hypochlorite
atmosphere 6. High tackiness
2. High resilience, resistance to A. 2,3,4
heat B. 1,3,4
3. High abrasion resistance C. 3,5,6
4. Swells in water and polar D. 3,4,6
solvents Ans. D
5. High load bearing capacity
6. Cannot be vulcanized Que. Mastication of natural rubber
A. 1,2,4 involves .
B. 2,3,5 A. Cross linking of chains
C. 3,4,6 B. Coiling of chains
D. 1,4,5 C. Reducing the molecular weights of
Ans. B chains
D. Raising of molecular weights of chains
Que. Choose the correct option giving Ans. C
the applications of SBR
1. Manufacture of vehicle tyres Que. Natural rubber is obtained from the
2. Used in making of floor tiles, tree named .
shoe soles, gaskets, tank linings A. Hevea brazilensis
3. Impregnated on fabric for crease B. Mangifera Indica
resistant and shrinkage control C. Hevea crailensis
4. Used in making conveyor belts D. None of these
5. Used to manufacture panels and Ans. A
wings for fighter jets
6. Used as an adhesive Que. During vulcanization of rubber the
A. 1,2,4 cross links introduced are
B. 2,3,5 A. –S-S-
C. 3,4,6 B. –C-C-
D. 1,4,5 C. –C-O-
Ans. A D. -O-O-
Ans. A
Que. The weight percentage of styrene in
SBR is . Que. Rubber is kept in smokehouse
A. 25% for 3 days at 500C to….
B. 50% A. increase tensile strength
C. 75% B. increase impact resistance
D. None of these C. increase resilience
Ans. A D. increase resistance to attack by
microorganisms.
Que. The weight percentage of Butadiene Ans. D
in SBR is .
A. 25% Que. Select the property of natural
B. 50% rubber from the following :
C. 75% A. Working temperature range is 10-600C
D. None of these B. High water absorption capacity
Ans. C C. Low chemical resistance
D. All of these
Que. Tackiness of rubber is . Ans. D
A. Its ability to absorb water
B. Its ability to stick together Que. Select the property of vulcanized
C. Its ability to stretch rubber from the following:
D. Its ability to undergo slippage A. Working temperature range is -40 to
Ans. B 1000C
B. Low water absorption capacity
Que. Tensile strength of vulcanized rubber C. High chemical resistance
is about D. All of these
A. 2000 Kg/cm2 Ans. D
B. 200 Kg/cm2
C. 20 Kg/cm2 Que. Vulcanization of natural rubber is
D. 2 Kg/cm2 carried out with Sulphur at temperature
Ans. A range of
A. 50 to 700C
Que. The two C=C bond in cis- B. 70 to 1000C
isoprene at 1,2 and 3,4 positions undergo C. 110 to 1300C
change after polymerization into natural D. 150 to 1700C
rubber, can be expressed as Ans. C
A. both double bonds used for
polymerization Que. Process of vulcanization of natural
B. Double bond at 1,2 position used and rubber makes it,
other double bond remains unchanged A. more tacky
C. Double bond at 3,4 position used and B. softer
other double bond remains unchanged C. stronger
D. Due to delocalization of π electrons D. more elastic
new double bond created at 2,3 position. Ans. C
Ans. D
 C.
Que. The fact that vulcanized natural
rubber has better ageing resistance; is due
to,
A. Number of C=C increases on
vulcanization D.
B. Presence of S atoms in vulcanized
rubber
C. Number of C=C decreases on
vulcanization Ans. D
D. Vulcanization is a physical process
Ans. C
Que. Structure of Polyisoprene
Que. Styrene is copolymerized with polymer can be written as:
butadiene to form
A. SBR
B. Butyl rubber
A.
C. Neoprene rubber
D. Vulcanized rubber
Ans. A
B.

Que. SBR used for…

A. making of crates, tubes, troughs, water
tanks, pipes, drums, etc C.
B. packaging, laminations, flexible pipes,
insulation of wires
C. making adhesive like araldite
D. making of vehicle tyres, floor tiles, D.
shoe soles Ans. D
Ans. D

Que. Choose the correct reaction

showing polymerization of isoprene: UNIT IIIE
A. Que. Kevlar is commercial name for
_______.
A. Glass fibers
B. Carbon fibers
B. C. Aramid fibers
D. Cermets
Ans. C

Que. Which of the following is not

biodegradable?
A. Protein D. Caprolactum; Ethylene glycol
B. Nucleic acid Ans. A
C. PVC
D. Cellulose
Ans. C Que. Polycarbonates are……
A. Polyamides
Que. Which polymer is also known as B. Polyethers
'Synthetic Metals'. C. Polyenes
A. Kevlar D. Polyesters
B. PE Ans. D
C. Polycarbonate
D. Polyacetylene
Ans. D Que. BIOPOL is common name of
………polymer.
Que. Polyacetylene is used in ….. A. PPF
A. insulating material B. PHBV
B. biodegradable articles C. PPV
C. printed circuit boards D. Both of A & B
D. all of these Ans. B
Ans. C

Que. Out of following polymers which Que. n- doping and p-doping of

one is used as electroluminescent conducting polymer is done by……
polymer? &……respectively.
A. Polystyrene A. I2 & FeCl3
B. Polyacetylene B. I2 & Li
C. SBR C. FeCl3 & I2
D. Polyphenylene vinylene D. Na & I2
Ans. D Ans. D

Que. Out of following which one acts as

LCP? Que. Polyacetylene in undoped state acts
A. Polyacetylene as…….
B. Polyphenylene vinylene A. good conducting polymer
C. Kevlar B. insulator
D. Polycarbonate C. semiconductor
Ans. C D. none of these
Ans. C
Que. Monomers……..and…….. form
biodegradable polymer-HBHV.
A. 3-hydroxybutanoic acid ; 3- Que. Out of following which one acts as
hydroxypentanoic acid plasticizer?
B. Ethylene glycol ; HMDA A. Phenol
C. Ethylene glycol ; Phthaleic acid B. Tricresyl phosphate
C. Phthalate esters Ans. D
D. Both b and c
Ans. C
Que. Which of the following is not true
Que. In OLED of polyphenylene for PPV?
vinylene ……acts as anode and ……acts A. It is diamagnetic material
as cathode. B. It shows yellow-green fluorescence
A. Calcium; Indium tin oxide C. Its conductivity increases on doping
B. Magnesium; Indium tin oxide D. It is water soluble
C. Aluminium; Calcium Ans. D
D. Indium tin oxide; Calcium
Ans. D Que. Electroluminescence of PPV is due
to……..
A. Conjugated pi bond system
Que. Trans-polyacetylene has B. Doping
……conductivity than its cis isomer. C. Combination of holes and electrons
A. higher D. None of these
B. less Ans. C
C. equal
D. very less Que. Which of the following application
Ans. A does not belong to PHBV (HB-HV-
Copolymer)?
A. Structural material
Que. Lexan is nothing but……. B. Drug delivery
A. PPV C. Internal suture
B. Polyisoprene D. Packing
C. Kevlar Ans. A
D. Polycarbonate
Ans. D Que. Match the following:
1. Functionality of monomer
P. Ordinary arithmetic mean
Que. CDs and DVDs can be made by 2. Number average MW
using…… Q. Kevlar
A. Polycarbonate 3. Conducting polymer R. Number o
B. PPV 4. Lyotropic LCP
C. PHBV S. Polyacetylene
D. Kevlar A. 1-R, 2-P, 3-S, 4-Q
Ans. A B. 1-S, 2-Q, 3-P, 4-R
C. 1-P, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-S
Que. Kevlar is……type of liquid crystal. D. 1-R, 2-S, 3-P, 4-Q
A. Smectic Ans. A
B. Cholesteric
C. Thermotropic Que. Match the following:
D. Lyotropic
 1. Carborandum A. Vegetable oils
P. Heat stabilizer B. Saw dust
2. Sodium stearate C. Zinc oxide
Q. Soaps D. All of these
3. Camphor Ans. B
R. Plasticizer
4. Vinylidene chloride Que. The accelerator added during
S. Extra hardness compounding of plastics can be.
A. 1-R, 2-P, 3-S, 4-Q A. Vegetable oils
B. 1-S, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-P B. Saw dust
C. 1-P, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-S C. Zinc oxide
D. 1-Q, 2-S, 3-P, 4-R D. All of these
Ans. B Ans. C

Que. Structure of PHBV is: Que. The lubricant added during

A. –[O-CH(CH3)-CH2-CO]x-[O- compounding of plastics can be.
CH(C2H5)-CH2-COO]y- A. Vegetable oils
B. –[O-CH(C2H5)-CH2-CO]x-[O- B. Saw dust
CH(C2H5)-CH2-COO]y- C. Zinc oxide
C. –[O-CH(CH3)-CH2-COO]x-[O- D. All of these
CH(C2H5)-CH2-COO]y- Ans. A
D. –[O-CH(CH3)-CH2-CO]x-[O-
CH(C2H5)-CH2-CO]y- Que. The mica added as a filler during
Ans. D compounding of plastics also imparts .
A. Extra hardness to the plastic
Que. The plasticizers added during B. Heat, flame resistance to the plastic
compounding of plastics can be C. Heat, flame and corrosion resistance to
A. Vegetable oils the plastic
B. Phthalate form of esters D. All of these
C. Tricresyl phosphate Ans. A
D. All of these
Ans. D Que. Synthetic polymer can be
biodegraded by blending with polymer like
.
Que. The plasticizers added during A. Starch
compounding of plastics can be . B. Polycarbonate
A. Vegetable oils C. Polyethylene
B. Saw dust D. Adipic acid
C. Zinc oxide Ans. A
D. All of these
Ans. A Que. Biopol is the commercial name of .
A. Polyhydroxybutyrate
Que. The Fillers added during B. Polyhydroxyvalarate
compounding of plastics can be . C. Polyhydroxybutyrate-hydroxyvalarate
D. Hydroxybutyrate-hydroxyvalarate Que. Materials that are used for
Ans. C reinforcement can be in the form of
A. Fibres
Que. Electroluminescent polymers . B. Powders
A. Emit light in response to the passage of C. Sheets
an electric current D. All of these
B. Emit light in response to the passage of Ans. D
an magnetic field
C. Absorb light in response to the passage Que. In a polymer composite the resin and
of an electric current the reinforcing material are held together
D. Emit light in response to the passage of by
an heat A. Strong bonding at the interface
Ans. A B. Strong bonding at the surface
C. strong bonding at the interior of a face
D. None of these
Que. First reported electroluminescent Ans. A
polymer is
A. Polyamide Que. It is desirable that biodegradable
B. Poly-phenylene-vinylene polymer polymer should be………
C. Polyacetylene A. Conducting
D. Poly vinyl chloride B. Hydrophilic
Ans. B C. Epoxy resin
D. Heterotrophic
Ans. B
Que. In a polymer light emitting diode, for
generation of light . Que. Clay and BaSO4 can be used in
A. Thin HBHV film is sandwiched compounding of plastic as……
between two electrodes A. accelerators
B. Thin PPV film is placed in liquid B. stabilizers
C. Thin PPV film is sandwiched between C. lubricants
two electrodes D. fillers
D. None of these Ans. D
Ans. C
Que. CDs, and DVDs can be made
Que. Composite materials are made up of from…..
two phases namely . A. Polycarbonates
A. Matrix and suspended phase B. Polypropylene
B. Matrix and dispersed phase C. PHBV
C. Matter and dispersed phase D. Kevlar
D. None of these Ans. A
Ans. B
Que. Polycarbonate is not used for….
A. Ultra light sunglasses
B. Substitute for window glasses
C. Camera/ binocular bodies
D. Surgical implants and sutures
Ans. D Que. Match the following:
1. Trans-Polyacetylene L. Synthetic
Que. Which of the following are rubber
correct applications for PHBV 2. PPV M.
1. High strength fibres 2. Antistatic Semiconductor
coating 3. Drug delivery 4. Electrode 3. SBR N.
material Electroluminescent
5. Internal sutures 6. LED A. 1-L, 2-N, 3-M
A. 1 & 5 B. 1-M, 2-N, 3-L
B. 3 & 5 C. 1-N, 2-M, 3-L
C. 4 & 6 D. 1-N, 2-L, 3-M
D. 2 & 5 Ans. B
Ans. B
Que. The polymer backbone that shows
Que. Which of the following polymer is conductivity is
easily biodegradable? A. -(CH2-CH2)n-
A. Vinylic polymer B. –(CH2-COO)n-
B. Highly crystalline polymer C. –(CH2-CH2-O)n-
C. Hydrophilic polymer D. –(C6H4)n-
D. Hydrophobic polymer Ans. D
Ans. C
Que. The correct order for
Que. The Biodegradable polymer is conductivity of polyacetylene is
A. HBHV A. doped trans- PA > trans-PA = cis-PA
B. Cellulose B. doped trans- PA > trans-PA > cis-PA
C. PVC C. trans-PA > cis-PA > doped trans- PA
D. Both A and B D. doped trans- PA = trans- PA > cis- PA
Ans. D Ans. B

Que. Choose the correct option giving Que. Polyacetylene is doped with ….to
the applications of Biopol. increase conductivity
1. Useful for electric and electronic A. Germanium
appliances 2. Useful for components of B. Silicon
camera, projector housing 3. Useful for C. Iodine
surgical sutures 4. Useful for packaging, D. Benzene
lamination 5. Useful for making Ans. C
disposable bottles 6. Used for photodiodes
A. 1,2,5
B. 2,4,6 Que. On polymer backbone, P-doping
C. 3,4,5 creates
D. 1,5,6 A. Positive charge
Ans. C B. Negative charge
C. Neutral state B. 1.7S/cm
D. None of these C. 4.0 X 105 S/cm
Ans. A D. 1.4 X 10-9 S/cm
Ans. A

Que. An intrinsically conducting polymer

has Que. Cis- Polyacetylene has
A. delocalized n electrons in the polymer conductivity…..
backbone A. 400S/cm
B. delocalized sigma electrons in the B. 1.7S/cm
polymer backbone C. 4.0 X 105 S/cm
C. localized pi electrons in the polymer D. 1.4 X 10-9 S/cm
backbone Ans. D
D. delocalized pi electrons in the polymer
backbone Que. The polymer, trans –Polyacetylene
Ans. D in its original form is….
A. Highly conducting
Que. N-doping of Polyacetylene is a B. Semiconductor
reaction of the type C. Insulator
A. oxidation D. None of these
B. reduction Ans. B
C. hydrolyis
D. degradation Que. Trans –PA is an example of
Ans. B A. Biodegradable polymer
B. Semiconducting polymer
C. Electroluminescent polymer
Que. An example of n-dopant is D. LCP
A. Bromine Ans. B
B. FeCl3
C. Iodine
D. Sodium metal Que. Which is not doping agent for
Ans. D making PA conducting?
A. Iodine
B. Sodium Metal
Que. Conductive polymers are used for C. HClO4
A. Photodiodes D. Fe
B. Photovoltaic cell Ans. D
C. Electromagnetic screening materials
D. All of these Que. Polyaniline is easily doped with…
Ans. D A. Reducing agent
B. Acid
Que. Trans- Polyacetylene has C. Oxidizing agent
conductivity….. D. Alkali
A. 400S/cm Ans. B
 C. concentration of the fibres in the matrix
Que. p-doping of conducting polymer is D. all of these
done by… Ans. D
A. Iodine
B. Sodium metal Que. Polymer composites exhibit the
C. Lithium metal properties
D. SnCl4 A. of the matrix phase
Ans. A B. of dispersed phase
C. other than the matrix and dispersed
phases
Que. Matrix phase of polymer composite D. of both matrix and dispersed phases
is formed by Ans. D
A. Fibres
B. Particulars
C. Polymer Que. The shredded cloth added as a filler
D. Flakes during compounding of plastics also
Ans. C impart
A. extra hardness to the plastic
B. heat, flame, resistance to the plastic
Que. Match the polymer and applications C. corrosion resistance to the plastic
1. Kevlar P. Film based uses D. mechanical strength
2. SBR Q. Ropes, landline Ans. D
communication
3. LDPE R. Tyres of vehicles Que. Which is not function of matrix
A. 1-Q, 2-P, 3-R phase of a FRP
B. 1-R, 2-Q, 3-P A. Binds dispersed phase
C. 1-R, 2-P, 3-Q B. Causes increase in strength of FRP
D. 1-Q, 2-R, 3-P C. Holds fibres with orientation
Ans. D D. Prevents propagation of cracks
Ans. B
Que. In a polymer composite the resin and
the reinforcing material are held together Que. Properties of fibre reinforced
by composite depend on….
A. strong bonding at the interface A. Nature of fibres
B. strong bonding at the surface B. Orientation of fibres
C. strong bonding at the interior of a face C. Distribution of fibres
D. None of these D. All of these
Ans. A Ans. D

Que. The properties of fibre reinforced Que. The polymer which can exhibit
plastics are influenced by liquid crystal property is…
A. length of the fibres A. Epoxy resin
B. orientation of the fibres relative to one B. Kevlar
another C. PVC
D. PE
Ans. B Que. Kevlar has very high strength due
to…
Que. The polymers which have tendency A. intramolecular hydrogen bond between
to align their chain over large distance >CO group and >NH group
during crystallization from melt is B. intermolecular hydrogen bond between
called…. >CO group and >NH group
A. Thermotropic liquid crystal polymers C. intramolecular hydrogen bond between
B. Lyotropic liquid crystal polymers aromatic ring and >NH group
C. Either of these D. intramolecular hydrogen bond between
D. None of these CO and aromatic ring
Ans. A Ans. B

Que. ……is aromatic polymer and

….is aliphatic polymer. Que. Kevlar is a …
A. HDPE; Epoxy resin A. smectic Lyotropic LCP
B. Kevlar; Natural rubber B. nematic Lyotropic LCP
C. Kevlar; Epoxy resin C. smectic thermotropic LCP
D. LDPE; Kevlar D. nematic thermotropic LCP
Ans. B Ans. B

Que. The examples of LCP are Que. The chemical composition of Kevlar
A. Nomex and PE is
B. Kevlar and PS A. para poly phenylene terephthalene
C. Nomex and PS B. poly phenyl para terephthalamide
D. Kevlar and Nomex C. poly para phenylene terephthalamide
Ans. D D. poly terephthalene para phenylene
Ans. C
Que. In the structure of Kevlar, all the
amide groups are separated by
A. para-phenylene Que. The backbone chain of Kevlar
B. meta-phenylene polymer contains regular repetition of …..
C. ortho-phenylene A. ester linkages
D. none of these B. ether linkages
Ans. A C. amide linkages
D. anhydride linkages
Ans. C
Que. The thermal stability of Kevlar is
due to… Que. The fibre of highest tensile strength
A. amide group is
B. aramid ring structure A. Kevlar
C. long chain B. Polyester
D. all of these C. Nylon
Ans. B D. Acrylic fibre
Ans. A
Que. Polypara-phenylenevinylene
shows…..fluorescence
Que. Polypara phenylenevinylene is A. Red
……polymer B. Yellow-green
A. Biodegradable C. Blue
B. Conducting D. Orange
C. Electroluminescent Ans. B
D. Liquid crystal
Ans. C Que. Electroluminescence is observed
because of ….
Que. Electroluminescent polymers…. A. Conjugated π bonds in structure
A. emit light in response to the passage of B. Doping of the polymer
an electric current C. Recombination of holes and electrons
B. emit light in response to the passage of D. all of these
a magnetic field Ans. C
C. absorb light in response to the passage
of an electric current Que. In which of the following
D. emit light in response to the passage of polymers is bisphenol-A is present as a
heat monomer unit:
Ans. A 1. Polycarbonate 2. Polypara
phenylenevinylene 3. Epoxy resin 4.
Que. In an electroluminescent polymer Kevlar
colour and wavelength of emitted light A. Only 1
depend on B. Both 1 and 2
A. energy gap between forbidden band C. Both 1 and 3
and conduction band D. Both 1 and 4
B. energy level between valence band and Ans. C
conduction band
C. energy gap between valence band and
conduction band Que. Compounding of plastic is the
D. energy gap above valence band and process of …
conduction band A. Formation of complex with polymer
Ans. C B. Mixing various ingredients into
polymer matrix to develop required
Que. In a polymer light emitting diode properties
for generation of light C. Moulding or remolding of plastic
A. Thin HBPV film is sandwiched D. Fabrication of plastic
between two electrodes Ans. B
B. Thin PPV film is placed in a liquid
C. Thin PPV film is sandwiched between
two electrodes Que. Stabilizers are added to plastics to
D. None of these A. reduce thermal stability
Ans. C B. improve strength
C. reduce weight Ans. A
D. improve thermal stability
Ans. D Que. Ethylene diamine is ……monomer.
A. Monofunctional
Que. Accelerators added during B. Bifunctional
compounding of plastics can be C. Trifunctional
A. Vegetable oils D. None of these
B. Saw dust Ans. B
C. Zinc oxide
D. All of these Que. Adipic acid is a type of monomer
Ans. C which can form…..type of polymer
A. Chain
Que. Crushed asbestos added as a filler B. Step
during compounding of plastics also C. Both A and B
impart…. D. None of these
A. extra flexibility to the plastic Ans. B
B. heat, flame resistance to the plastic
C. heat, flame resistance and tensile Que. Melamine Formaldehyde is …..type
strength to the plastic of polymer
D. all of these A. Thermoplastic
Ans. C B. Thermosetting
C. Either of these
Que. Polyglycolic acid is an example of D. None of these
……polymer Ans. B
A. Conducting
B. Biodegradable Que. A plastic is compounded with…..to
C. LCP make it impervious to X-rays.
D. Electroluminescent A. Sodium salt
Ans. B B. Potassium salt
C. Barium salt
Que. Controlled release of fertilizers and D. Organic compounds
pesticides is a use of ….polymer Ans. C
A. Conducting
B. Biodegradable Que. Which of the following chemical,
C. LCP stabilizes the plastic at the moulding
D. Electroluminescent temperature?
Ans. B A. Glass fibre
B. Lubricant
Que. Polyaniline and Polypyrrole are the C. Barium salt
examples of……polymer D. Benzoyl peroxide
A. Conducting Ans. C
B. Biodegradable
C. LCP
D. Electroluminescent
Que. The chain structure of the polymer C. Propanol
having low strength, flexibility and D. Propylene
amorphous nature is…. Ans. C
A. Linear
B. Branched Que. Out of following which one is not
C. Cross linked rubber?
D. Vulcanized A. GRS
Ans. B B. Neoprene
C. PE
Que. Match the following: D. All of these
1. Synthetic rubber P. Ans. C
cis-1,4-polyisoprene
2. Natural rubber Q. Que. The mixture of Triethyl aluminium
trans-1,4-polyisoprene and Titanium tetrachloride is called as…
3. Gutta percha R. A. Polymer composite
Sulphur cross linked rubber B. GRP
4. Vulcanized rubber S. C. Zeigler –Natta catalyst
SBR D. Haber’s Catalyst
A. 1-Q, 2-P, 3-R, 4-S Ans. C
B. 1-S, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-R
C. 1-R, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-S Que. Match the following:
D. 1-Q, 2-S, 3-P, 4-R 1. GRS P.
Ans. B Step polymerization
2. Condensation polymerization Q.
Que. Which one of the following is Synthetic rubber
Elastomer? 3. HDPE R.
A. PVC Hydrogen peroxide
B. Epoxy resin 4. LDPE S.
C. Nylon Zeigler-Natta catalyst
D. Poly-cis-isoprene A. 1-Q, 2-P, 3-S, 4-R
Ans. D B. 1-S, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-R
C. 1-R, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-S
Que. Which of the following is D. 1-Q, 2-S, 3-P, 4-R
trifunctional monomer? Ans. A
A. Glycerol
B. Butadiene Que. Match the following:
C. Propylene 1. Bulk P.
D. Ethylene Pearl or Bead like appearance of polymer
Ans. A 2. Solution Q.
Micelle formation
Que. Which of the following is not a 3. Suspension R.
monomer? Block copolymer
A. 1,3-Butadiene 4. Emulsion S.
B. Adipic acid Purity of Polymer
A. 1-Q, 2-P, 3-S, 4-R
B. 1-S, 2-R, 3-P, 4-Q Que. Full form of GCV is _________.
C. 1-R, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-S A. Ground calorific value
D. 1-Q, 2-S, 3-P, 4-R B. Grace calorific value
Ans. B C. Gross Calorific value
D. Gram calorific Value
Que. A transparent plastic used for Ans. C
making camera projector lenses, a bullet
proof Que. Relation between GCV & NCV is
Vests, etc is… ________
A. PPV A. GCV + NCV = 0.09H× (Latent heat of
B. PHBV water vapour)
C. Polycarbonate B. GCV= NCV +0.09H × (Latent heat of
D. PA water vapour)
Ans. C C. 0.09H (Latent heat of water vapour)=
NCV − GCV
D. None of the above
UNIT IVA Ans. B

Que. A good fuel is _________.

A. Moderate ignition temperature Que. Biogas is produced by anaerobic
B. Cheap and readily available fermentation of biological materials. The
C. High calorific value main constituent of biogas is _______.
D. All of the above A. Propane
Ans. D B. Ethane
C. Butane
D. Methane
Que. Unit of Calorific value of a solid fuel Ans. D
in MKS system is _________.
A. Cal/g Que. Which of the following is a non
B. Kcal/Kg renewable energy resource?
C. J/Kg A. Solar energy
D. Cal/lit B. Wind energy
Ans. B C. Hydroelectric
D. Coal
Ans. D
Que. Calorific value of a good fuel is
_________.
A. High Que. Bomb calorimeter is used for finding
B. low calorific value of ________ Fuels.
C. Mild A. Nonvolatile liquid fuel
D. None of the above B. Gaseous fuel
Ans. A C. solid fuel
D. Both a and c above
Ans. D eliminated by known mass of water in
calorimeter
Que. Boy’s calorimeter gives the calorific C. Total heat liberated by complete
value of ________. combustion of known amount of fuel is
A. Volatile liquid Fuel absorbed by known mass of kerosene in
B. Gaseous fuel calorimeter
C. Both a and b D. None of the above
D. None of the above Ans. A
Ans. C
Que. In Boy’s gas calorimeter, burner is
Que. The texture of anthracite coal is surrounded by chimney called as _______
_________. A. Combustion chamber
A. Brown fibrous B. Upper chamber
B. Lustrous black C. Burning chamber
C. Lustrous green D. None of the above
D. Dull grey Ans. A
Ans. B
Que. Which of the following gas has
Que. Which type of coal contains C = 92- highest calorific value?
95 % ? A. Sulphur
A. Peat B. Nitrogen
B. Lignite C. Oxygen
C. Anthracite D. Hydrogen
D. Bituminous Ans. D
Ans. C
Que. Value of (L) latent heat of
Que. Which of the following constituent condensation of water vapour in cal/gm is
of a fuel does not contribute to its calorific _____
value on combustion? A. 758
A. Hydrogen B. 875
B. Nitrogen C. 587
C. Carbon D. 857
D. Sulphur Ans. C
Ans. B
Que. Gross and Net calorific value of a
Que. Principle of Bomb calorimeter is fuel will be the same _________.
_________. A. If its ash content is zero.
A. Total heat liberated by complete B. If its carbon content is very low
combustion of known amount of fuel is C. If its hydrogen/hydrogen compound
absorbed by known mass of water and content is zero.
copper calorimeter vessel D. None of the above
B. Total heat liberated by complete Ans. C
combustion of known amount of fuel is
 Que. A coal contains 4% hydrogen and
Que. Main constituent of natural gas is shows GCV = 7800 cal/gm then its NCV
_____. is ___
A. CH4 (up to 90%) A. 8875 cal/gm
B. C2H6 B. 7588 cal/gm
C. C3H8 C. 5788 cal/gm
D. H2 D. 3005.8 cal/gm
Ans. A Ans. B

Que. Which of the following has Que. A coal has NCV = 7000 cal/gm
lowest calorific value ? and 5 % hydrogen, its gross calorific value
A. Solid Fuel is ____
B. Liquid fuel A. 7400 cal/gm
C. Gaseous fuel B. 6736 cal/gm
D. All of the above C. 7936 cal/gm
Ans. A D. 7264 cal/gm
Ans. D
Que. 1 Calorie = ________ Joules
A. 4.887 Que. If 0.5 gm of solid fuel on
B. 4.187 combustion in bomb calorimeter raises the
C. 4.817 temperature by 1.5 °C. If total water
D. 4.008 equivalence of calorimeter set including
Ans. B water is 2400 gm, the gross calorific value
will be ______
Que. Beckmann’s thermometer is A. 3600 cal/gm
capable of reading temperature up to B. 7200 cal/gm
________°C. C. 4800 cal/gm
A. 1/100 D. none of these
B. 1/10 Ans. B
C. 1/1000
D. none of the above Que. A good fuel should have
Ans. A _________moisture content.
A. very high
Que. In Boy’s gas Calorimeter, spiral B. high
tube enclosed in a fully insulated jacket is C. moderate
made up of ________ D. low
A. Brass Ans. D
B. Zn
C. Cu Que. A good fuel should have
D. Alloy _________ash content.
Ans. C A. very high
B. high
C. moderate
D. low
Ans. D
Que. A coal contains 5 % hydrogen,
Que. A good fuel should have its net calorific value is 5320 cal/gm then
_________volatile matter content. the gross calorific value will be _____
A. very high A. 4561 cal/gm
B. high . 5108 cal/gm
C. moderate C. 5584 cal/gm
D. low D. 4967 cal/gm
Ans. D Ans. C

Que. Calorific value of a fuel is the total Que. A coal gas GCV = 7800 cal / gm
quantity of _____ liberated by complete and 4 % hydrogen, its net calorific value
combustion of unit mass/volume of the ______
fuel A. 8857 cal / gm
A. heat B. 7588 cal / gm
B. colour C. 5788 cal / gm
C. light D. 3005 cal / gm
D. combustion gases Ans. B
Ans. A
Que. A liquid fuel 10 % H and latent
Que. Gross calorific value is the total heat of water is 2450 KJ/Kg.The
amount of heat liberated, when unit difference between higher and lower
mass/volume of the fuel is burnt calorific values of the fuel is _____
completely and __________ A. 2205 KJ/Kg
A. products of combustion are allowed to B. 220 KJ/Kg
escape C. 22 KJ/Kg
B. products of combustion are allowed to D. 245 KJ/Kg
cool to room temperature Ans. A
((C) products of combustion are filtered
D. none of these Que. GCV of a gaseous fuel was
Ans. B found to be 15000 kcal/m3.If the mass of
condensed steam is 0.02 Kg and the
volume of gas used is 0.1 m3 at STP then
Que. Net calorific value is the total amount NCV will be _____
of heat liberated, when unit mass/volume A. 14882 kcal/m3
of the fuel is burnt completely and B. 13046 kcal/m3
__________ C. 12053 kcal/m3
A. products of combustion are allowed to D. 11185 kcal/m3
cool to room temperature Ans. A
B. products of combustion are allowed to
escape Que. If 0.5 gm of solid fuel on
C. products of combustion are filtered combustion in bomb calorimeter raises the
D. none of these temperature by 1.5 °C If total water
Ans. B equivalence of calorimeter set including
water is 2400 gm, the gross calorific value C. acid correction
will be ______ D. all of these
A. 3600 cal/gm Ans. D
B. 7200 cal/gm
C. 4800 cal/gm Que. The thermometer used to record
D. none of these temperature in a bomb calorimeter is ____
Ans. B A. Beckmann’s thermometer
B. Berkmand’s thermometer
Que. Choose the correct options that is C. Bercker’s thermometer
true for a good fuel D. all of these
A. It should have low moisture content Ans. A
B. It should have low volatile matter
content Que. While calculating GCV by a
C. It should have low ash content bomb calorimeter, fuse wire correction
D. All of these should be ___
Ans. D A. multiplied
B. neglected
Que. A coal contains 60 % carbon,7 % C. substracted
hydrogen,5 % sulphur,1 % nitrogen and D. added
remaining ash. If its NCV is 3230 Ans. C
cal/gm, then GCV is ____
A. 3556.98 cal/gm Que. While calculating GCV by a
B. 3599.8 cal/ gm bomb calorimeter, cooling correction
C. 3292.83 cal/gm should be ___
D. 3262.72 cal/gm A. multiplied
Ans. B B. neglected
C. substracted
D. added
Que. A fuel containing 8 % hydrogen Ans. D
has GCV 5937 cal/gm, hence the net
calorific value of the fuel will be ____
A. 230.8 KJ/gm
B. 23.08 KJ/gm Que. The calorific value is measured
C. 26.09 KJ/gm by ______
D. 25.1 KJ/gm A. colorimeter
Ans. B B. galvanometer
C. calorimeter
D. thermometer
Que. To get more accurate results the Ans. C
corrections considered while calculating
the calorific value of a fuel by bomb
calorimeter are ____ Que. The relation used to find gross
A. cooling correction calorific value by Bomb calorimeter is
B. fuse wire corretion
 (𝑊−𝑤)(𝑡2−𝑡1) complete combustion of unit mass of the
A. 𝑐𝑎𝑙/𝑔𝑚
𝑋
fuel
(𝑊+𝑤)(𝑡2+𝑡1)
A. heat
B. 𝑋
𝑐𝑎𝑙/𝑔𝑚 B. products
C. only oxygen
(𝑊−𝑤)(𝑡2+𝑡1)
C.
𝑋
𝑐𝑎𝑙/𝑔𝑚 D. combustion gases
Ans. A
(𝑊+𝑤)(𝑡2−𝑡1)
D. 𝑐𝑎𝑙/𝑔𝑚 Que. Types of calorific values are
𝑋
______
Ans. D A. GCV and HCV
B. GCV and NCV
C. NCV and LCV
Que. The corrected formula of gross D. none of these
calorific value by bomb calorimeter is Ans. B
(𝑊+𝑤)(𝑡2−𝑡1−𝑡𝑐)−(𝑡𝑎+𝑡𝑓)
A. 𝐺𝐶𝑉 = 𝑐𝑎𝑙/
𝑋
𝑔𝑚
(𝑊+𝑤)(𝑡2−𝑡1+𝑡𝑐)+(𝑡𝑎+𝑡𝑓) Que. Ignition temperature of a fuel
B. 𝐺𝐶𝑉 = 𝑐𝑎𝑙/
𝑋 should be _____
𝑔𝑚 A. very low
(𝑊+𝑤)(𝑡2−𝑡1−𝑡𝑐)+(𝑡𝑎+𝑡𝑓)
C. 𝐺𝐶𝑉 = 𝑐𝑎𝑙/ B. very high
𝑋
𝑔𝑚 C. moderate
(𝑊+𝑤)(𝑡2−𝑡1+𝑡𝑐)−(𝑡𝑎+𝑡𝑓) D. none of these
D. 𝐺𝐶𝑉 = 𝑐𝑎𝑙/
𝑋 Ans. C
𝑔𝑚
Que. A good quality of fuel should have
Ans. D low moisture content because it ______
A. increases the weight of fuel
B. decreases calorific value
Que. In the calculation of GCV of a C. becomes tedious for storage and
fuel by bomb calorimeter, cooling transportation
correction is ___ D. all of these
A. added in the actual rise in temperature Ans. D
B. substracted from the actual rise in
temperature.
C. multiplied from the actual rise in Que. Example of secondary fuel is
temperature. ______
D. divided from the actual rise in A. coke
temperature. B. Diesel
Ans. A C. kerosene
D. all of these
Que. Calorific value of a fuel is the Ans. D
total quantity of _____ liberated by
Que. A good fuel should have _____
A. moderate calorific value Que. Copper calorimeter is surrounded by
B. high calorific value air and water jackets to avoid _______
C. low calorific value A. heat losses due to radiation
D. no calorific value B. water losses
Ans. B C. fuel looses
D. heat looses due to evaporation
Ans. A
Que. A good quality of fuel should have
low moisture content because it ______
A. increases the weight of fuel Que. Acid corrections in bomb calorimeter
B. decreases calorific value occurs due to ____
C. becomes tedious for storage and A. CH3COOH and HCOOH
transportation B. H2SO4 and HNO3
D. all of these C. NaOH and H2SO4
Ans. D D. HCl and KCl
Ans. B

Que. Which of the following is not

expected from a good quality fuel?
A. high ash content
B. easy storage and transportation
C. very high velocity of combustion
D. moderate ignition temperature
Ans. C
Que. Which is not the requirement to
determine GCV using Boy’s calorimeter?
A. quantity of water (W)
B. initial temperature (t 1)
C. water equivalent of calorimeter (w)
D. final temperature (t 2)
Ans. C

Que. Gaseous fuels are better than solid

fuels because ____ UNIT IVB
A. they have very high ignition
Que. Bituminous coal burns with
temperature
………..
B. air requirement is very high
A. Long smoky flame
C. they produce ash
B. Smoky yellow flame
D. they do not produce smoke
Ans. D C. Short non- smoky blue
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Que. Oxygen pressure in bomb pot is
about _______ Que. Anthracite has _________of %
A. 2.5 atm Carbon.
A. 55-65%
B. 0.25 atm
C. 252 atm B. 60-75%
D. 25 atm C. 78-90 %
Ans. D D. 92-96%
Ans. D C. 110 °C, 1 hour
D. 925° C, 1/2 hour
Que. Proximate analysis involves Ans. C
_________.
A. % Ash + %VM+% moisture
B. % C + % H + % O of coal Que. For determination of % ash, coal
C. only % H of coal sample is kept in muffle furnace for
D. only % C ________.
Ans. A A. 500° C, 30 min
B. 750 °C, 30 min
C. 100 °C, 30 min
((Q))_1// Moisture, ash content, volatile D. 925° C, 30 min
matter and fixed carbon are measured for Ans. B
quality of coal is/are part of ___.
A. Proximate analysis
B. Proximate analysis & Ultimate Analysis Que. For determination of % Volatile
C. Ultimate Analysis Matter , coal sample is kept in muffle
D. None of the above furnace for ________.
Ans. A A. 200° C, 7 min
B. 300 °C, 7 min
C. 100 °C, 7 min
Que. The texture of anthracite coal is D. 900° C, 7 min
_________. Ans. D
A. Brown fibrous
B. dark and lustrous black Que. For determination of % moisture
C. Lustrous green , coal sample is kept in an oven for
D. Dull grey ________.
Ans. B A. 500° C, 1 hour
B. 725 °C, 1 hour
C. 110 °C, 1 hour
Que. For determination of % Volatile D. 925° C, 1 hour
Matter , coal sample is kept in muffle Ans. C
furnace for ________.
A. 500° C, 5 min Que. For determination of % ash, coal
B. 725 °C, 5 min sample is kept in muffle furnace for
C. 100 °C, 8 min ________.
D. 925° C, 7 min A. 500° C, 20 min
Ans. D B. 750 °C, 30 min
C. 100 °C, 20 min
Que. For determination of % moisture D. 925° C, 30 min
, coal sample is kept in an oven for Ans. B
________.
A. 500° C, 1 hour
B. 725 °C, 1/2 hour
((Q)) 2_ //1.4 gm of coal sample in Que. If 2.02 g of coal is combusted in
Kjeldahl’s experiment liberate ammonia combustion tube. After passing the CO2,
absorbed in 50 ml 0.1N H2SO4. The increase in weight of KOH tube is 5.88
resultant solution required 14 ml of 0.1 N gm. Hence % C present in coal is ____
NaOH for complete neutralization If blank A. 71.39
titration reading is 25ml,find %N in B. 74.39
coal_______. C. 79.39
A. 0.11 (D))77.39
B. 0.011 Ans. D
C. 1.1
D. 1.01 Que. A coal sample weighing 1 gm,
Ans. C looses 0.09 gm weight on heating at 110 °
C for 1 hour. The moisture in the coal will
Que. % S estimation in a mass of coal be _______
is given by ________. A. 0·9
16×𝑊𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝐵𝑎𝑆𝑂4 ×100 B. 9
A. %𝑆 =
233×𝑊
12×𝑊𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝐵𝑎𝑆𝑂4 ×100 C. 9·1
B. %𝑆 = D. 91
233×𝑊
32×𝑊𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝐵𝑎𝑆𝑂4 ×100
C. %𝑆 = Ans. B
233×𝑊
D. None of the above
Ans. C
Que. 1.0 gm of coal is heated to
remove all moisture. Then the residual
Que. In Ultimate Analysis, % of coal looses 0.21 gm weight when heated in
Oxygen is given by ________ muffle furnace at 950° C. The % of
A. % O = 100 − (% C +% H+% S+% volatile matter in the coal is _____
N+% Ash) A. 41.6
B. % O = 100− (% C +% H) B. 21
C. % O = 100− (% C +% S+% N) C. 55
D. % O = 100− (%H) D. 56
Ans. A Ans. B

Que. In ultimate analysis, method Que. 1 gm of coal containing 10 %

used for determination of % S is known as moisture and if it looses 0.3 gm weight on
A. Kjeldahls Method heating at 950 °C. The % of volatile matter
B. Eschka Method in the coal will be ____
C. Dumas Method A. 30
D. None of the above B. 20
Ans. B C. 50
D. 40
Ans. B
Que. Analysis of coal is necessary for Que. In ultimate analysis of coal,
_____ sulphur is determined by converting it to
A. commercial classification ___
A. CaSO4
B. price fixation
B. ZnSO4
C. industrial utilisation C. MgSO4
D. all of these D. BaSO4
Ans. D Ans. D

Que. A coal that burns with blue and Que. Amongst the various ranks of coal,
intense flame is _____ carbon content is lowest in ______
A. Peat A. Peat
B. Lignite B. semi-bituminous coal
C. bituminous C. bituminous coal
D. anthracite D. anthracite
Ans. D Ans. A

Que. In ultimate analysis, in case of Que. The following rank of coal has
% of Hydrogen,the gaseous products highest moisture content
coming out of combustion tube are A. lignite
allowed to pass through ______ B. petrol
A. preweighed U-tube containing C. peat
anhydrous CaCl2 D. ethanol
B. preweighed U-tube containing Ans. C
magnesium perchlorate
C. both a and b
D. none of these Que. The highest rank of coal is _____
Ans. C A. anthracite
B. lignite
C. peat
Que. In ultimate analysis, in case of D. all of these
% of carbon, the gaseous products coming Ans. A
out of combustion tube are allowed to pass
through ______
A. preweighed U-tube containing sodium Que. Properties of anthracite are _____
hydroxide A. it is hard, dense and lustrous in nature
B. preweighed U-tube containing B. it has very high calorific value
potassium hydroxide C. it burns without smoke
C. both a and b D. all of these
D. none of these Ans. D
Ans. C
Que. Increase in the weight of anhydrous
CaCl2 U-tube indicates the weight of Que. Estimation of nitrogen by kjeldahl’s
______ method involves absorption of (NH4)2SO4
A. HCl formed into ________
B. H2O formed A. carbon
C. CO2 formed B. alkali
D. H2SO4 formed C. acid
Ans. B D. water
Ans. B

Que. Increase in the weight of KOH U-

tube indicates the weight of ______ Que. In nitrogen estimation by kjeldahl’s
A. CO formed method, the unused acid is determined
B. H2O formed using NaOH by _______
C. H2O2 formed A. blank titration
D. CO2 formed B. black titration
Ans. D C. big titration
D. back titraton
Ans. D
Que. The U-tube that absorbs CO2
contains solution of ______
A. NaCl Que. Which precipitate is obtained in
B. KOH Eschka method?
C. KCl A. BaCl2
D. H2SO4 B. CaCl2
Ans. B C. CaSO4
D. BaSO4
Ans. D
Que. The U-tube which absorbs H2O
formed during combustion, contains ____
A. KOH Que. When coal sample is kept in open lid
B. anhydrous CaCl2 crucible in muffle furnace at about 750° C
C. Magnesium perchlorate temperature for half an hour, the
D. both b and c component determined will be _____
Ans. D A. % moisture
B. % volatile matter
C. % ash
Que. For ultimate analysis of nitrogen in a D. % fixed carbon
coal sample, the method used is _____ Ans. C
A. combustion method
B. kjeldahl’s method
C. Eschka method Que. Match the following
D. Nernst’s method 1. Bomb calorimeter a.
Ans. B cetane number
2.boy’s calorimeter b. A. high moisture content (90 %)
solid and liquids B. high carbon content (57 %)
3.gasoline c. C. very high calorific value
volatile liquids D. all of these
4. diesel d. Ans. A
octane number
A. 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c
B. 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a Que. C = 57 %, H = 6 %, O = 35 %, ash
C. 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a = 3.6 % is composition of ____
D. 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b A. lignite
Ans. B B. bituminous
C. peat
Que. A sample of coal showed D. anthracite
analysis results as follows - % M = 20, % Ans. C
VM = 8, % A = 22, % FC = 50,which type
of analysis is this?
A. Ultimate anlysis Que. Very low percentage of volatile
B. physical analysis matter is observed in _____
C. proximate analysis A. semi-bituminous
D. none of these B. bituminous
Ans. C C. lignite
D. anthracite
Que. A coal sample was analysed by Ans. D
Kjeldahl’s method and Eschka method for
determination of certain elements. Which
type of analysis is this? Que. Use of anthracite is ___
A. Perfect analysis A. metallurgical fuel
B. Absolute analysis B. making electrodes
C. Proximate analysis C. high temperature heating
D. ultimate analysis D. all of these
Ans. D Ans. D

Que. Analysis of a fuel sample Que. Types of coal analysis are ____
showed the following results -% N = 5,% A. primary and secondary
S = 8, % C = 65 ,% O = 1, % H = 19, % B. nature and derived
ash = 2.This type of analysis is ______ C. proximate and ultimate
A. absolute analysis D. addition and condensation
B. Ultimate analysis Ans. C
C. perfect analysis
D. proximate analysis
Ans. B Que. Which of the following is not a part
of proximate analysis?
Que. Peat is an uneconomical because A. % moisture
_____ B. % N
C. % ash A. muffle furnace
D. % V.M. B. an oven
Ans. B C. bomb calorimeter
D. boy’s calorimeter
Ans. A
Que. Which of the following comes
under proximate analysis?
A. % hydrogen Que. If a coal sample is kept in a muffle
B. % nitrogen furnace at 750° C, for half an hour, we
C. % fixed carbon can determine its ____
D. % Sulphur A. % FC
Ans. C B. % N
C. % S
D. % ash
Que. To determine % moisture of a coal Ans. D
sample , the sample is heated in ____
A. burner
B. an oven Que. In a good quality of coal, % ash
C. furnace should be minimum because of _____
D. all of these A. It increases Calorific value of fuel
Ans. B B. Its disposal is a problem
C. It reduces % M of fuel
D. It produces smoke
Que. Quality of coal is better if its Ans. B
moisture content is
A. lower
B. higher Que. For ultimate analysis of nitrogen in a
C. as high as % C coal sample, the method used is ______
D. as low as % C A. combustion method
Ans. A B. kjeldahl’s method
C. Eschka method
D. Nernst’s method
Que. The content of which of the Ans. B
following is not determined in ultimate
analysis of coal?
A. carbon Que. For determination of sulphur, the
B. nitrogen coal is burnt
C. sulphur A. in bomb calorimeter
D. volatile matter B. by Eschka method
Ans. D C. in Boy’s calorimeter
D. by kjeldahl’s method
Ans. A
Que. For ash content determination of a
coal sample, it is kept in _____
Que. Which precipitate is obtained in C. % ash
Eschka method? D. % fixed carbon
A. BaCl2 Ans. C
B. CaCl2
C. CaSO4
D. BaSO4 Que. In Kjeldahl’s method, 1.4 gm of
Ans. D coal sample gave (V2-V1) = 10 ml for 0.1
N NaOH.% N of this coal sample is ____
A. 1 %
Que. % ash of a coal sample is ____ when B. 1.4%
2 gm of coal sample in muffle furnace at C. 2.8 %
750°C leaves 0.25 gm ash D. 14 %
A. 1.2 % Ans. A
B. 1.25 %
C. 12.5 %
D. 125% Que. Calculate % S in coal sample
Ans. C when 3.2 g of coal sample is combusted in
bomb calorimeter, solution from bomb pot
on treatment with BaCl2 forms 2.33 gm of
Que. If a coal sample contains 15 % BaSO4
moisture, 9 % volatile matter and 17 % A. 0.1 %
ash, its FC is _____ B. 1 %
A. 41.5 % C. 10 %
B. 59 % D. 100 %
C. 4.1 % Ans. C
D. 5.9 %
Ans. B
Que. If a coal sample contains C = 85
%, H = 5 %, N = 1.5 %, S = 2.3%, its O is
Que. Calorific value of a sample of coal is ____
high if _____ A. 2.6
A. fixed carbon is high B. 6.2
B. moisture content is high C. 26
C. ash content is high D. 62
D. volatile matter is high Ans. B
Ans. A

Que. The first stage of coalification gives

Que. When coal sample is kept in open lid brown, fibrous jelly like mass called _____
crucible in muffle furnace at about 750°C A. lignite
,for half an hour, the component B. sub-bituminous
determined will be _____ C. peat
A. % moisture D. semi-bituminous
B. % volatile matter Ans. C
 D. Isopropyl alcohol
Ans. C
Que. Proximate analysis of a better
quality coal shows ______ Que. CNG is _________.
A. lower % M, higher % V.M. A. Compressed natural gas about 1000
B. lower % V.M, higher % M atm.
C. lower % A, higher % V.M. B. Substitute of gasoline
D. lower % V.M., higher % FC C. 88% CH4 + 10-11 % C2-C4 + 0.5-1%
Ans. D CO
D. All of the above
Ans. D
UNIT IVC
Que. Biodiesel is produced via
Que. Octane no. of petrol is ________.
percentage of ________. A. Neutralisation process
A. Pentane and isopentane B. Transesterification process.
B. Butane and isobutane C. Etherification Process.
C. n heptane and iso-octane D. None of the above
D. none of the above Ans. B
Ans. C
Que. Composition of LPG is
Que. In petrol engine, knocking is _______.
due to ________. A. 40% butane+60% Propane+ traces of
A. Slow combustion propene and butene.
B. Moderate combustion
B. Only methane
C. Spontaneous combustion C. Only butane
D. None of the above D. All of the above
Ans. C Ans. A

Que. α methyl naphthalene has Que. The Chemical name of cetane

Cetane no. _______ .
is________
A. 0
A. n heptane
B. 100
B. n hexadecane
C. 90
C. Octane
D. 28 D. Decane
Ans. A Ans. B

Que. _______when mixed with petrol in Que. Addition of Ethyl Alcohol to

proper proportion is called as power petrol ___
alcohol.
A. Increases the octane no.
A. Propanol B. Decreases the octane no.
B. Butanol C. Makes the combustion fast
C. Ethanol D. Knocks badly
Ans. A
Que. Dry alcohol is ________
Que. Which of the following has the A. absolute alcohol
highest octane no.? B. 100% alcohol
A. Iso-octane C. 50% water + 50% alcohol
B. Cyclohexane D. Both a and b above
C. Toluene Ans. D
D. n- Heptane
Ans. A Que. Adding ________ to gasoline
leads to Lead Pollution.
Que. Which of the fuels has highest A. CFC
heat of combustion? B. TEL
A. Petrol C. CCl4
B. Diesel D. Tetrahydrofuran
C. Kerosene Ans. B
D. Hydrogen
Ans. D
Que. The refining of crude oil is done
by passing hot vapours of oil in a
Que. The quality of diesel is fractionating tower at the temperature of
expressed in terms of _______ ______
A. Octane-number A. 400° C
B. Cetane number B. 600° C
C. Index number C. 800° C
D. Viscosity D. 1000° C
Ans. B Ans. A

Que. Which of the following Que. Knocking in diesel engine is

petroleum fractions has lowest boiling because of ____
point? A. ignition delay
A. Diesel B. ignition
B. Kerosene C. preignition
C. Petroleum ether D. none of these
D. Petrol Ans. A
Ans. C
Que. In an internal combustion engine,
knocking depends on _____
Que. The addition of TEL to gasoline A. the air-fuel ratio
_______ ((B) design of the engine
A. Decreases the octane no. C. chemical nature of fuel
((B) Increases the octane no. D. all of these
C. Makes the combustion fast Ans. D
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Que. Power alcohol is B. reformation
disadvantageous because _____ C. destructive distillation
A. It’ s highly volatile D. demineralisation
B. it gives starting trouble Ans. A
C. it causes corrosion of engine parts
D. all of these Que. The first step in refining of
Ans. D petroleum is _____
A. removal of sulphur
Que. Biodiesel is ___ B. fractional distillation
A. non renewable C. removal of water
B. renewable fuel / biofuel D. removal of NaCl
C. a toxic fuel Ans. C
D. none of these
Ans. B
Que. To remove harmful sulphur
compounds from petroleum, it is treated
Que. Biodiesel is obtained by with _____
transesterification of ____ A. sodium oxide
A. Soyabean oil B. copper oxide
B. rapeseed oil/ canola seed oil C. Concentrated H2SO4
C. sunflower oil D. dilute NaOH
D. all of these Ans. B
Ans. D
Que. Which is not obtained as a fraction
Que. The byproduct obtained in the in fractional distillation of petroleum?
preparation of biodiesel is ____ A. kerosene
A. ethanol B. naphtha
B. glycerol C. lignite
C. methanol D. wax
D. glycol Ans. C
Ans. B
Que. The chemical process of breaking
Que. Molar ratio of alcohol to down higher hydrocarbon molecules to
triglyceride required to complete smaller molecules is called ____
transesterification reaction is _____ A. breaking
A. 1: 3 B. cracking
B. 3 : 1 C. destruction
C. 1 : 1 D. fracture
D. 1 : 5 Ans. B
Ans. B

Que. Fractional distillation of petroleum is Que. Using the process of catalytic

called _______ cracking, heavy oils can be converted into
A. refining ______
A. petrol and diesel B. BTX
B. methanol and ethanol C. MTBE
C. biodiesel and power alcohol D. all of them
D. acid and ester Ans. D
Ans. A

Que. The sharp metallic rattling noise in Que. which of the following is not an
the IC engine is ______ additive for improving octane number?
A. antiknocking A. TEL
B. knocking B. BTX
C. sound pollution C. ETBE
D. cetane number D. acetone peroxide
Ans. B Ans. D

Que. If a petrol sample shows as much Que. n-hexadecane is ______

knocking as the mixture of 70 % of iso- A. Iso-octane
octane and 30 % of n-heptane, its octane B. cetane
number is ______ C. BTX
A. 30 D. benzoyl peroxide
B. 40 Ans. B
C. 65
D. 70 Que. Cetane number of n-hexadecane is
Ans. D _____
A. 10
B. 35
Que. As compared to straight chain C. 65
alkane, octane number of cylcoalkane is D. 100
_______ Ans. D
A. lower
B. higher Que. Delayed combustion of diesel in
C. same diesel engine causes ______
D. none of these A. knocking
Ans. B B. antiknocking
C. cracking
Que. 2,2 4 trimethyl pentane is ____ D. reformation
A. n-heptane Ans. A
B. cetane
C. Iso-octane
D. BTX Que. Ethyl alcohol is manufactured by
Ans. C fermentation of _______
A. proteins
Que. Octane number of petrol cane be B. molasses
increased by addition of ____ C. vitamins
A. tetraethyl lead D. wood
Ans. B Ans. C

Que. What is the advantages of using Que. Biodiesel can be blended with ____
power alcohol? A. petrol
A. reduces emission of harmful gases B. power alcohol
B. removes traces of moisture in the petrol C. diesel
C. reduces dependency on foreign D. none of the above
countries for petrol Ans. C
D. all of the above
Ans. D Que. Biodiesel cannot be used as such in
conventional diesel engine because it has
Que. At 30°C,sucrose is converted into _____
glucose and fructose due to enzyme A. high viscosity
______ B. high flash point
A. maltase C. low calorific value
B. invertase D. all of the above
C. zymase Ans. D
D. none of these
Ans. B Que. What is the advantage of using
biodiesel?
Que. Which enzyme converts glucose and A. reduces dependency on foreign
fructose into ethyl alcohol and CO2 by countries
fermentation? ((B) it is non toxic and free from sulphur
A. Invertase C. it has higher cetane number
B. lignin D. all of these
C. Zymase Ans. D
((D) all of these
Ans. C
Que. Match the following
Que. Chemically, biodiesel is a mixture of 1. Eschka method a.
methyl esters of ______ petrol
A. very short chain carboxylic acid 2.Fractional distillation b.
B. long chain of carboxylic acid PEMFC
C. long chain of carbohydrates 3.Transesterification c. %
D. long chain of aromatic compounds of sulphur
Ans. B 4. hydrocarbon d.
biodiesel
A. 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c
Que. Vegetable or animal oils are mainly B. 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a
____ C. 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b
((A) alcohols D. 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b
((B ethers Ans. C
C. triglycerides
D. fatty acids Que. Match the following
1. Combustion a. Que. Which of the following is not a
presence of oxygen product of fractional distillation of crude
2. proximate analysis b.% oil
N and % S A. petrol
3. lignite c. B. coke
primary fuel C. diesel
4. ultimate analysis d. D. kerosene
% M,% V.M. Ans. B
A. 1-a, 2-d, 3-c, 4-b
B. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d Que. The process of obtaining biodiesel is
C. 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b ______
D. 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a A. transesterification
Ans. A B. transetherification
C. transacification
Que. Match the following D. transalcoholification
1. Petrol a. Primary fuel Ans. A
2.Diesel b. derived fuel
3.Peat c. Spark
ignition UNIT IVD
4. LPG d. Delayed
ignition Que. What is the percentage of oxygen by
A. 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a volume in the atmosphere?
B. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d A. 14
B. 23
C. 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
C. 21
D. 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c
Ans. C D. 79
Ans. C
Que. Match the following
1. Bomb calorimeter a. Que. Theoretical oxygen required for a
fractional distillation solid fuel has composition C-86%, H-
11.75%, O-2.25 % is 2.995 kg. Calculate
2.petrol b.
theoretical air supplied per kg of fuel.
gaseous fuel
A. 130.02
3.boy’s calorimeter
B. 13.02
c.cooling correction
4. crude oil d. C. 1.302
TEL D. 0.01302
A. 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b Ans. B
B. 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a
C. 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d Que. Calculate % O if % C = 79%,%
D. 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c H = 7%,% S =3.5%,% N= 2.1% and %
Ash = 4.4.
Ans. B
A. 2%
B. 3%
C. 4%
D. 1%
Ans. C Que. Phosphoric acid fuel cell
operates at ______
Que. Air contains 21% of _______ A. 200 °C
by volume B. 100°C
A. nitrogen C. 350°C
B. sulphur dioxide D. 425°C
C. hydrogen Ans. A
D. oxygen
Ans. D Que. The ________ of oxygen is the
rate determining factor for the
Que. Combustion of methane is given performance of the fuel cell.
by the following reaction A. Reduction
B. Oxidation
A. CH4(s) + 2O2(g) CO2(g) + C. both a and b
2H20(g) +∆H D. None of the above
B. CH4 (g) + 2O2(g) CO2(g) + Ans. A
2H20(g) +∆H
Que. The fuel used in Phosphoric acid
C. CH4 (g) + 2O2(g) CO2(g) + fuel cell (PAFC) is ________
2H2 (l) +∆H A. Methanol
B. Butanol
D. CH4 (g) CO2(g) +
C. Propanol
2H20(g) +∆H
D. Hexanol
Ans. B Ans. A

Que. The fuel cell was first used in

________.
Que. During combustion of gaseous fuels,
A. Submarine
deficiency of air _______.
B. Commercial Aircraft
A. lengthens the flame
C. Apollo project
B. Tends to shorten the flame.
D. Ship
C. slight changes in flame length
Ans. B
D. does not affect the flame length
Ans. A
Que. Theoretically 25 kg of oxygen is
required for complete combustion of 1 kg
Que. The electrode used in hydrogen of a fuel. If the fuel contains 4 % oxygen,
oxygen fuel cell is ______ then the quantity of air required for
A. Platinum complete combustion of fuel will be
B. Palladium _______
C. Zirconium A. 91.3 kg
D. Zinc B. 108.7 kg
Ans. A C. 104.6 kg
D. 100 kg
Ans. B
((Q))2_ // 0.25 gm of coal on burning in
Que. Theoretically 15 kg of oxygen is combustion chamber in a current of pure
required for complete combustion of 1 kg oxygen was found to increase in CaCl2 U-
of a fuel. If the fuel contains 2 % oxygen, tube by 0.08 gm. Hence % H present in the
then the quantity of air required for coal is _______
complete combustion of fuel will be A. 3.55
_______ B. 3.1
A. 65.21 kg C. 3.7
B. 65.13 kg D. 3.98
C. 55.26 kg Ans. A
D. 13.00 kg
Ans. B Que. The theoretical amount of
oxygen required for complete combustion
Que. Theoretically 15 m3 of oxygen is of 5 kg of carbon is ________
required for complete combustion of 1 m3 A. 10.10 kg
of a fuel. Calculate the volume of air B. 12.67 kg
required for complete combustion of fuel C. 13.35 kg
A. 71.42 m3 D. 14.41 kg
B. 51.42 m3 Ans. C
C. 61.42 m3
D. 81.42 m3 Que. If a fuel contains CH4 = 60 %
Ans. A and other gases = 40 %, then calculate
volume of oxygen required for complete
Que. The quantity of oxygen required combustion of CH4 gas.
for combustion of 1 kg coal containing 95 A. 1·67 m3
% carbon and remaining sulphur will be B. 1·20 m3
_____ C. 1·81 m3
A. 2.58 kg D. 1·97 m3
B. 2.00 kg Ans. B
C. 3.52 kg
D. 4.1 kg Que. Calculate the weight of air
Ans. A actually supplied if 20 % excess air is
supplied for combustion of 1 kg of carbon
Que. Theoretical amount of Oxygen ((A)11 kg
and air required for complete combustion B. 13.93 kg
of 1 kg of fuel containing 70 % carbon C. 10.3 kg
and remaining nitrogen is _____ D. 14.1 kg
A. 2.4 kg,10.43 kg Ans. B
B. 2.4 kg,11.43 kg
C. 1.87 kg, 8.13 kg Que. If a fuel sample has 10 % CO2
D. 1.83 kg, 10.43 kg and other remaining gases, then volume of
Ans. C air required for the combustion of 1 m3 of
the fuel is ______
A. 0 m3 Ans. B
B. 1 m3
C. 2 m3 Que. The oxygen required for
D. 3 m3 complete combustion of 1 m3 hydrogen
Ans. A gas is ____
A. 0.5 m3
Que. If a fuel sample has 10 % B. 1 m3
Nitrogen and other gases, then volume of C. 1.5 m3
air required for the combustion of 1 m3 of D. 2 m3
the fuel is ______ Ans. A
A. 0 m3
B. 1 m3 Que. The oxygen required for
C. 2 m3 complete combustion of 1mole of sulphur
D. 3 m3 in fuel is ____
Ans. A A. 0.5 mole
B. 1 mole
Que. If a fuel sample contains C2H6 C. 1.5 mole
= 60 % and other gases, then the volume D. 2 mole
of air required for complete combustion of Ans. B
C2H6 is ____
A. 11 m3
B. 10 m3
Que. If a fuel contains CH4 = 44 %,
C. 12 m3
O2 = 4 % and remaining other gases, then
D. 13 m3
the volume of oxygen required to be
Ans. B
supplied for complete combustion of 1 m3
of gaseous fuel = ______
Que. The volume of air required for A. 0.80 m3
complete combustion of 1 m3 of gaseous B. 0.84 m3
fuel containing CH4 = 90 % and N2 = 10 % C. 0.86 m3
D. 0.88 m3
is ____
Ans. B
A. 5.53 m3
B. 6.18 m3
C. 7.45 m3 Que. During the calculation of ‘ oxygen
D. 8.57 m3 required for complete combustion of a fuel
Ans. D ’ the amount of oxygen present in the fuel
is _____
Que. Theoretical volume of oxygen A. multipled with the total amount of
required for complete combustion of 1 m3 oxygen required for complete combustion
B. added to the total amount of oxygen
of gaseous fuel containing C2H6 is ____
required for complete combustion
A. 4 m3
C. substracted from the total amount of
B. 3.5 m3
C. 1 m3 oxygen required for complete combustion
D. 2.5 m3 D. neglected during the calculations
Ans. C m3. If it was burnt in 10 % excess air, then
calculate the actual volume of air supplied
Que. Calculate the weight of air A. 3.66 m3
required for complete combustion of 1 B. 2.30 m3
mole of carbon C. 5.87 m3
A. 100 gm D. 7.21 m3
B. 258.55 gm Ans. B
C. 139.3 gm
D. 150 gm Que. 0.64 m3 of oxygen theoretically
Ans. C required for complete combustion of 1 m3
of a fuel. If it was burnt in 10 % excess
Que. Calculate the weight of air air, calculate the actual volume of air
required for complete combustion of 10 supplied
moles of carbon A. 3.35 m3
A. 1 kg B. 2.30 m3
B. 1.39 kg C. 5.87 m3
C. 1.5 kg D. 7.21 m3
D. 2.58 kg Ans. A
Ans. B
Que. 0.64 m3 of oxygen theoretically
required for complete combustion of 1 m3
Que. For 1 mole of C2H6 ,theoretical of a fuel. If it was burnt in 15 % excess air,
amount of air required for complete calculate the actual volume of air supplied
combustion is 486.96 gm. Calculate actual A. 4.35 m3
amount of air supplied if 30 % excess was B. 2.30 m3
supplied C. 5.87 m3
A. 633.04 gm D. 3.50 m3
B. 550 gm Ans. D
C. 381.54 gm
D. 500 gm Que. Theoretical volume of oxygen
Ans. A required for complete combustion of 1 m3
of fuel with CH4 = 35 % and CO2 = 65 %
Que. For a fuel to burn completely is ______
13.33 kg of oxygen is required. Calculate A. 0.90 m3
actual amount of air supplied if 30 % B. 0.45 m3
excess air was supplied. C. 0.70 m3
A. 35.55 kg D. 2 m3
B. 87.54 kg Ans. C
C. 75.36 kg
D. 54.55 kg Que. Theoretical amount of oxygen
Ans. C required for complete combustion of 2 m3
CH4 is ___
Que. The oxygen required for A. 4 m3
complete combustion of 1 m3 fuel is 0.44 B. 3 m3
C. 2 m3 B. potassium hydroxide
D. 1 m3 C. phosphoric acid
Ans. A D. zirconia
Ans. C
Que. Fuel combustion is a process in
which _____
A. heat is not absorbed nor liberated Que. Operating temperature of PAFC is
B. heat is absorbed _____
C. heat is liberated A. 25 °C
D. none of these B. 100°C
Ans. C C. 200°C
D. 410°C
Ans. C

Que. Which is an application of natural

gas? Que. Electrolyte used in polymer
A. excellent domestic fuel electrolyte membrane fuel cell (PEMFC)
B. used in manufacture of carbon black is ______
and hydrogen A. nafion
C. feedstock for production of ammonia by B. potassium hydroxide
haber’s process C. phosphoric acid
D. all of them D. zirconia
Ans. D Ans. A

Que. Application of LPG is not _____

Que. PEM fuel cell operates at around
A. as domestic and industrial fuel ________
B. as automobile fuel A. 25°C
C. as rocket propellants B. 80°C
D. in refrigeration C. 150°C
Ans. C D. 200°C
Ans. B

Que. Efficiency of phosphoric acid fuel

Que. Practical efficiency of PEM fuel cell
cell (PAFC) is about ____
is _______
A. 100 % A. 50 %
B. 70-75 % B. 60 %
C. 50-66 % C. 70 %
D. 40-45 % D. 80 %
Ans. D
Ans. B

Que. In PAFC, for hydrocarbons fuels,

Que. Electrodes used in PEMFC are _____
electrolyte used is _______ A. Ag-AgCl electrode
A. nafion B. calomel electrode
C. porous carbon
D. all of these
Ans. C

Que. PEMFC are preferred because of

_____
A. low temperature operation
B. reduced emisssion
C. high power and energy
D. all of these
Ans. D

Que. CNG is obtained by compressing

natural gas to a pressure of about _____
A. 0.1 atm
B. 10 atm
C. 100 atm
D. 1000 atm
Ans. D

Que. For complete combustion of 1

m3 of a gaseous fuel, if volume of oxygen
required is 1.05 m3,then the volume of air
required = _____
A. 5 m3
B. 0.25 m3
C. 2.5 m3
D. 0.5 m3
Ans. A
UNIT – V 6. The most preferred mehod of
hydrogen preparation on Industrial
Chemistry of Hydrogen and Carbon scale is __________.
a) Steam Reforming of methane
1. The first element in periodic table is
b) Steam generation of gas
__________.
c) Steam catalysis
a) Hydrogen
d) None of these
b) Carbon
c) Nitrogen Ans. a
d) None of these
7. Hydrogen can be stored in
Ans. a __________form.
a) Compressed
2. In ionic compounds charge on
b) Liquefied
hydrogen is__________.
c) Metal hydride
a) positive d) All of these

b) negative Ans. d

c) negative or positive 8. Hydrogen can be stored in form of

carbon materials like __________.
d) partially negative a) Fullerenes
b) SWCNT
Ans. c c) MWCNT
d) All of these
3. Hydrogen has__________isotopes.
Ans. d
a) 1
b) 3 9. The method which satisfies all aspects
c) 4 of storage and transport of hydrogen
d) 2 is________.
a) Compressed
Ans. b
b) Liquefied
4. Isotopes of hydrogen are _____. c) Metal hydride
a) Protium d) All of these
b) Dueterium
Ans. c
c) Tritium
d) All of these. 10.Hydrogen can be stoared chemically as well
as physically. The statement is
Ans. d
a) True
5. Hydrogen can be prepared in
b) False
laboratory by using_________.
c) Partially true
a) Acid
d) Partially false
b) Base
c) Acid as well as base. Ans. a
d) None of these.
11. Binary compounds of hydrogen are
Ans. c classified into _______classes.
 a) 1 b) Graphite

b) 2 c) Fullerene

c) 3 d) carbon nanotubes

d) 4 Ans. a

Ans. c 15. Softest allotrope of carbon is ___________.

12. Hydrogen is proposes as future fuel a) Diamond

because _________.
b) Graphite
a) its production from renewable source
c) Fullerene
b) clean burning
d) carbon nanotubes
c) high calorific value
Ans.b
d) All of these
16. Bucky ball is __________.
Ans. d
a) Diamond
13. Carbon has ___________ naturally
occurring isotops. b) Graphite

a) 1 c) Fullerene

b) 2 d) carbon nanotubes

c) 3 Ans. c

d) 4 17. Fullerene has ___________.

Ans. c a) 12 pentagons and 20 hexagons

14. _________ is zero dimensional allotrope of b) 14 pentagons and 20 hexagons

carbon.
c) 12 pentagons and 25hexagons
a) Diamond
d) 20 pentagons and 12 hexagons
b) Graphite
Ans. a
c) Fullerene
17. Fullerene has ___________.
d) carbon nanotubes
a) 12 pentagons and 20 hexagons
Ans. C
b) 14 pentagons and 20 hexagons
15. Hardest allotrope of carbon is
c) 12 pentagons and 25hexagons
___________.
d) 20 pentagons and 12 hexagons
a) Diamond
Ans. a
18. ___________ carbon nanotubes are b) Carbon nanofibres
conductive in nature.
c) Fullerene
a) SWCNT
d) Carbon black
b) Arm chair
Ans. b
c) Zigzag
22) element gives highest number of
d) Chiral compounds

Ans. b a) Oxygen,

19. ___________ are stiffer than steel. b) Carbon,

a) CNTs c) Hydrogen
b) Fullerenes Ans. c
c) Carbon nanofibres 23) Most abundant isotope of hydrogen is
d) None of these a) H1,
Ans. a b) H2
20. ___________ Used as a black pigment in c) H3
printer’s ink.
Ans. a
a) SWCNT
24) Most abundant isotope of carbon is
b) MWCNT
a) C12,
c) Fullerene
b) C13,
d) Carbon black
c) C14
Ans. d
Ans. a
21. ___________ Used as an excellent absorber
to absorb poisonous gases.. 25) Compounds of hydrogen with s-block
metals are called as
a) Activated carbon/ charcoal
a) covalent hydrides,
b) MWCNT
b) saline hydrides,
c) Fullerene
c) borderline hydrides
d) Carbon black
Ans. b
Ans. a
26) shows highest hydrogen storage capacity.
21. ___________ Used Tennis rackets.
a) LiH,
a) Activated carbon/ charcoal
 b) LiAIH4, a) stratosphere,

c) Both of the above b) thermosphere

Ans. c Ans. b

27) large scale use of D20is 30) Classic example of hydrogen bridge bonds
is in
a) in nuclear reactor,
a)diborane,
b) to make high density water,
b) electron deficient compounds,
c) to make radioactive materials
c) saline hydrides
Ans. b
Ans. a
28) Industrially hydrogen is manufactured by
31. Saline hydrides have
a) action of metal on acids,
a) covalent character,
b) steam reforming,
b) ionic character,
c) splitting of water
c) bridge bonds
Ans. b
Ans. b
29) Tritium exists in

************

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 Unit VI
Corrosion Science

1. Dry corrosion is also called as

a) Chemical corrosion
b) Electrochemical corrosion
c) Wet corrosion
d) Oxidation corrosion
Answer: a
Explanation: Dry corrosion is also called as the chemical corrosion. The corrosion is divided into two types. They
are dry corrosion and wet corrosion.
2. Anhydrous inorganic liquid metal surface in absence of moisture undergoes
a) Wet corrosion
b) Dry corrosion
c) Galvanic corrosion
d) Pitting corrosion
Answer: b
Explanation: Anhydrous inorganic liquid metal surface in absence of moisture undergoes the dry corrosion.
Atmospheric gases also undergo the dry corrosion.
3. The rusting iron is the
a) Oxidation corrosion
b) Liquid metal corrosion
c) Wet corrosion
d) Corrosion by other gases

Answer: a
Explanation: The rusting of iron comes under the oxidation corrosion. Direct action oxygen at high or low
temperatures will be on metals.
4. Chemical action of flowing liquid metal at high temperatures is
a) Liquid metal corrosion
b) Corrosion by other gases
c) Oxidation corrosion
d) Wet corrosion
Answer: a

Explanation: Chemical action of flowing liquid metal at high temperatures is called liquid metal corrosion.
5. Corrosion between the dissimilar metals is called as
a) Galvanic corrosion
b) Dry corrosion
c) Oxidation corrosion
d) Concentration cell corrosion
Answer: a
Explanation: Corrosion between the dissimilar metals is called as the galvanic corrosion. Dry corrosion also called
as the chemical corrosion.
6. Wet corrosion is also called as
a) Chemical cell
b) Electro chemical cell
c) Oxidation reaction
d) Liquid metal corrosion
Answer: b
Explanation: Wet corrosion is also called as the electro chemical corrosion. Corrosion due to the conducting liquid
in contact with cathodic and anodic areas is called as wet corrosion.
7. Corrosion due to the corrosiveness of the soil is called as
a) Soil corrosion
b) Oxidation corrosion
c) Galvanic corrosion
d) Concentration cell corrosion
Answer: a
Explanation: Corrosion due to the corrosiveness of the soil is called as the soil corrosion. Direct action of the
oxygen on metal causes the oxidation corrosion.
8. Corrosion due to the formation of cavities around the metal is called as the
a) Pitting corrosion
b) Soil corrosion
c) Water line corrosion
d) Galvanic corrosion
Answer: a
Explanation: Corrosion due to the formation of cavities around the metal is called as the pitting corrosion. Corrosion
between the dissimiliar metals is called galvanic corrosion.
9. Corrosion due to the flow of the between the cathodic and anodic areas is called as the
electro chemical corrosion by evolution of hydrogen ad absorption of oxygen.
a) Electron current
b) Proton current
c) Ion current
d) Neutron current
Answer: a
Explanation: Corrosion due to the flow of the electron current between the cathodic and anodic areas is called as the
electro chemical corrosion by evolution of hydrogen ad absorption of oxygen.
10. Corrosion due to difference in water level is
a) Soil corrosion
b) Oxidation corrosion
c) Pitting corrosion
d) Water line corrosion
Answer: d
Explanation: Corrosion due to the difference in water level is water line corrosion. Corrosion due to formation of
varying concentrations of the aeration.
11. Which of the following comes under the wet corrosion?
a) Concentration cell corrosion
b) Oxidation corrosion
c) Liquid metal corrosion
d) Corrosion by other gases
Explanation: Oxidation corrosion, liquid metal corrosion and corrosion by other gases comes under the dry
corrosion and concentration cell corrosion comes under the wet corrosion.
12. Corrosion is uniform in
a) Dry corrosion
b) Wet corrosion
c) Pitting corrosion
d) Water line corrosion
Answer: a
Explanation: In dry corrosion, the corrosion is uniform and in the wet corrosion, the corrosion is not uniform.
Pitting and water line corrosion comes under the wet corrosion.
13. Corrosion along the grain boundaries is called as
a) Stress corrosion
b) Inter granular corrosion
c) Water line corrosion
d) Pitting corrosion
Answer: b
Explanation: Corrosion along the grain boundaries is called as the inter granular corrosion and stress corrosion is due
to the static tensile strength.
14. Dry corrosion takes place in
a) Homogeneous process
b) Heterogeneous process
c) Neither homogeneous nor heterogeneous
d) Both homogeneous and heterogeneous
Answer: d
Explanation: Dry corrosion takes place in the both homogeneous and heterogeneous processes. The wet corrosion
takes place in only heterogeneous process.
15. In wet corrosion are formed at the cathodic areas.
a) Organic compounds
b) Metallic ions
c) Non-metallic ions
d) Inorganic compounds
Answer: c
Explanation: In wet corrosion, non-metallic ions are formed at the cathodic areas. Cathodes are negatively charged
electrodes and attract positive charges or non-metallic ions.
16. Which type of reaction occurs in anodic areas?
a) Oxidation
b) Reduction
c) Displacement
d) Addition
Answer: a
Explanation: Oxidation occurs in anodic areas. Oxidation means the addition of oxygen or removal of hydrogen or
loss of electrons.
17. Rusting of iron in neutral aqueous solution of electrolyte occurs in the presence of oxygen with the evolution
of
a) Nitrogen
b) Chloride
c) Sulphide
d) Hydrogen
Answer: d
Explanation: Rusting of iron in neutral aqueous solution of electrolyte occurs in the presence of oxygen with the
evolution of hydrogen. Only hydrogen gas is evolved in this process.
18. Where does corrosion occurs in the rusting of iron?
a) At cathode
b) At anode
c) In electrolytic solution
d) Outside the solution
Answer: b
Explanation: Corrosion occurs at anode but rust is deposited near cathode.
19. Which of the following cathodic reaction does not occur due to release of electrons at the anode?

a) Oxygen absorption
b) Hydrogen evolution
c) Electrodialysis
d) Electroplating
Answer: c
Explanation: Oxygen absorption, hydrogen evolution and electroplating occur due to the release of electrons at
the anode.
20. Select the incorrect statement about the wet corrosion from the following option.
a) It involves the setting up of large number of galvanic cells
b) It is explained by absorption mechanism
c) It occurs only on heterogeneous metal surface
d) It is a fast process
Answer: b
Explanation: Wet corrosion is explained by the mechanism of electrochemical reaction. All the other options are
correct.
21. Which of the following factor does not contribute to the rusting of iron?
a) Presence of acids and electrolytes
b) Contact with less reactive metal
c) Presence of water and oxygen
d) Contact with more reactive metal
Answer: d
Explanation: Contact with the more reactive metal does not contribute to the rusting of iron whereas all the other
given factors contribute to the rusting of iron.
22. corrosion occurs when a metallic surface is partially immersed in an electrolyte and partially
exposed to air.
a) Concentration cell
b) Dry corrosion
c) both a) and b)
d) None of above
Answer: a
Explanation: Concentration cell corrosion occurs when a metallic surface is partially immersed in an electrolyte and
partially exposed to air. This is due to formation of differtial aeration cell
23. Which of the following does not promote the differential aeration corrosion?
a) Accumulation of dirt
b) Partially covering metals
c) Wire fence kind of structures
d) Accumulation of oxygen
Answer: d
Explanation: Accumulation of dirt, partially covering metals and wire fence kind of structures are the factors which
promote the differential aeration corrosion.
24. Poorly oxygenated part becomes cathode whereas well oxygenated part becomes anode in the
corrosion.
a) Galvanic corrosion
b) Differential aeration
c) Dry corrosion
d) None of above
Answer: b
Explanation: Poorly oxygenated part becomes anode and undergoes oxidation whereas well oxygenated part
becomes cathode in the differential aeration corrosion.
25. Which code is followed by the corrosion of metals?
a) Burger’s vector
b) Pilling–Bedworth
c) Frank-Read mechanism
d) Miller’s theorem
Answer: b
Explanation: The Pilling-Bedworth ratio is the ratio of the volume of the basic cell of a metal oxide to the volume of
the basic cell of an equivalent or standard metal. It is used to find out the likeliness of the metal to corrode or resist
it.
26. Which type of reaction occurs in cathodic areas?
a) Oxidation
b) Reduction
c) Displacement
d) Addition
Answer: b
Explanation: Reduction occurs in catodic areas. Reduction means the addition of hydrogen or removal of oxygen or
gain of electron.
27. Rusting of iron in neutral aqueous solution of electrolyte occurs in the presence of oxygen with the evolution
of
a) Nitrogen
b) Chloride
c) Sulphide
d) Hydrogen
Answer: d
Explanation: Rusting of iron in neutral aqueous solution of electrolyte occurs in the presence of oxygen with the
evolution of hydrogen. Only hydrogen gas is evolved in this process.
28. Where does corrosion occurs in the rusting of iron?
a) At cathode
b) At anode
c) In electrolytic solution
d) Outside the solution
Answer: b
Explanation: Corrosion occurs at anode but rust is deposited near cathode.
29. Which of the following cathodic reaction does not occur due to release of electrons at the anode?

a) Oxygen absorption
b) Hydrogen evolution
c) Electrodialysis
d) Electroplating
Answer: c
Explanation: Oxygen absorption, hydrogen evolution and electroplating occur due to the release of electrons at
the anode.
30. Select the incorrect statement about the wet corrosion from the following option.
a) It involves the setting up of large number of galvanic cells
b) It is explained by absorption mechanism
c) It occurs only on heterogeneous metal surface
d) It is a fast process
Answer: b
Explanation: Wet corrosion is explained by the mechanism of electrochemical reaction. All the other options are
correct.
31. Which of the following factor does not contribute to the rusting of iron?
a) Presence of acids and electrolytes
b) Contact with less reactive metal
c) Presence of water and oxygen
d) Contact with more reactive metal
Answer: d
Explanation: Contact with the more reactive metal does not contribute to the rusting of iron whereas all the other
given factors contribute to the rusting of iron.
32. In wet corrosion are formed at the cathodic areas.
a) Organic compounds
b) Metallic ions
c) Non-metallic ions
d) Inorganic compounds
Answer: c
Explanation: In wet corrosion, non-metallic ions are formed at the cathodic areas. Cathodes are negatively charged
electrodes and attract positive charges or non-metallic ions.
33. Which of the following does not promote the differential aeration corrosion?
a) Accumulation of dirt
b) Partially covering metals
c) Wire fence kind of structures
d) Accumulation of oxygen
Answer: d
Explanation: Accumulation of dirt, partially covering metals and wire fence kind of structures are the factors which
promote the differential aeration corrosion.
34. Poorly oxygenated part becomes whereas well oxygenated part becomes in the
differential aeration corrosion.
a) anode, cathode
b) cathode, anode
c) anode, anode
d) cathode, cathode
Answer: a
Explanation: Poorly oxygenated part becomes anode and undergoes oxidation whereas well oxygenated part
becomes cathode in the differential aeration corrosion.
35. Which of the following factor influences the rate and extent of corrosion?
a) Nature of metal only
b) Nature of the environment only
c) Both nature of metal and environment
d) Nature of reaction
Answer: c
Explanation: Both nature of metal and environment influence the rate and extent of corrosion as corrosion is a
natural process, which converts a refined metal to a more stable form, such as its oxide, hydroxide, or sulfide.

36. Which of the following is not associated with the nature of metal?
a) Nature of oxide film
b) Nature of electrolyte
c) Purity
d) Physical state
Answer: b
Explanation: Nature of metal includes its purity, physical state, nature of oxide film, position in galvanic series, etc
and hence it is not associated with the nature of electrolyte.
37. Which of the following oxide film is protective?
a) Porous
b) Non porous
c) Volitile
d) None of above
Answer: b
Explanation: Non porous oxide film does not conains pores or holes and hence forms protective layer
38. Which of the following is not associated with the nature of the environment?
a) Humidity
b) Temperature
c) Effect of pH
d) Volatility of corrosion products
Answer: d
Explanation: Nature of the environment includes temperature, humidity, effect of pH, nature of electrolyte, etc and
hence volatility of corrosion product is not associated with it.
39. Lesser is the purity of the percentage of metal, is the rate of corrosion.
a) faster
b) slower
c) moderate
d) slowest
Answer: a
Explanation: Lesser is the purity of the percentage of metal, faster is the rate of corrosion. Pure metals does not
corrose easily whereas impure metals corrode easily.
40. Rate of corrosion of anodic region is directly proportional to the
a) Cathodic area
b) Anodic area
c) Product of anodic area and cathodic area
d) Sum of anodic area and cathodic area
Answer: a
Explanation: Rate of corrosion of the anodic region is directly proportional to the cathodic area. Greater will be the
cathodic area, faster will be the corrosion at an anode. (Reduction occurs at cathode…Reduction means gain of
electron so greater cathodic area will demand more elecrons and rate of corrosion is fast.)

41. Corrosion of zinc can be minimized by increasing the pH to

a) 9
b) 10
c) 11
d) 12
Answer: c
Explanation: Corrosion of zinc can be minimized by increasing the pH to 11. pH 11 means it will be basic in nature
and hence will be less prone to corrosion.
42. Which of the following medium is most corrosive?
a) Acidic
b) Alkaline
c) Neutral
d) Both acidic and basic
Answer: a
Explanation: Acidic medium is more corrosive than alkaline and neutral media. In acidic medium, metals are more
reactive and more prone to corrosion.
43. Non Protective oxide film is
a) Porous
b) Non porous
c) Volitile
d) Unstablel
Answer: d
Explanation: Porous oxide film conains pores or holes and hence oxygen can pentrate through this fiim.
44. Excessive corrosion of metal takes place if corrosion product is
a) Volatile
b) Non-volatile
c) Both volatile as well as non-volatile
d) Initially volatile and then non-volatile
Answer: a
Explanation: Excessive corrosion of metal takes place if corrosion product is volatile. When the corrosion product is
volatile it easily escapes with gases and hence allowing more metal to corrode.
45. The specific volume ratios of W, Cr and Ni are 3.6, 2.0 and 1.6 respectively. Which of them will have the least rate
of corrosion?
a) Ni
b) Cr
c) W
d) All will have the same rate of corrosion
Answer: c
Explanation: W will have the least rate of corrosion, even at higher temperatures because the specific volume ratio is
inversely proportional to the rate of corrosion.
46. Which of the following statement is incorrect about the anodic coating?
a) Protects the metal from corrosion sacrificially
b) Base metal is not corroded
c) Example- coating of tin on iron
d) No negative consequence
Answer: c
Explanation: Example- coating of zinc on iron. All the other options are correct.
47. Electrochemical protection is
a) Anodic protection
b) Sacrificial Anodic protection
c) Impressed current cathodic protection
d) Cathodic protection
Answer: d
Explanation: Electrochemical protection is cathodic protection(CP). It is a technique used to control the corrosion of
a metal surface by making it the cathode of an electrochemical cell.
48. Which of the following metal is not used as a sacrificial anode?
a) Zinc
b) Copper
c) Magnesium
d) Aluminium
Answer: b
Explanation: Zinc, aluminium, magnesium are used as a sacrificial anode. Copper is not used as a sacrificial anode.

49. The protective coatings are used to

a) Corrode the metal
b) Prevent from corrosion
c) Increase the corrosion
d) Slightly increase the corrosion
Answer: b
Explanation: The protective coatings are used to prevent the corrosion of the metal. The protective layers are thin
layer on the surface of the metal.
50. The resistance is given by the protective coatings.
a) oxidation
b) Reduction
c) both a) and b)
d) None of above
Answer: a
Explanation: The protective layer is used to provide the oxidation resistance to the metal and to give thermal
insulating properties of the metal.
51. The cleaning methods before applying the protective coating are of types.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
Answer: d
Explanation: The cleaning methods before applying the protective coating are of 6 types. They are: solvent cleaning,
alkali cleaning, mechanical cleaning, flame cleaning, sand blasting and pickling and etching.

52. In anodic coatings, the coating metals possess reduction potential than base
metal.
a) Higher
b) Lower
c) 0
d) Cannot be said
Answer: b
Explanation: In anodic coating, the coating metals possess the lower reduction potential than base metal. The
coating metals possess the higher reduction potential than base metal.
53. Tinning is the example of
a) Anodic coatings
b) Cathodic coatings
c) Neither anode nor cathode
d) Both anode and cathode
Answer: b
Explanation: Tinning is an example of the cathodic coatings. The galvanisation comes under the anodic coatings.

54. The process of coating iron or steel sheet with a thin coat of zinc to prevent iron from rusting is called

a) Tinning
b) Galvanisation
c) Metal cladding
d) Electroplating
Answer: b
Explanation: The process of coating iron or steel sheet with a thin coat of zinc to prevent iron from rusting is called
galvanisation. The process of depositing the coating metal on the surface of base metal by electrolysis is called
electroplating.
55. Which of the following coatings has a glass composition?
a) Paint
b) Galvanized
c) Enamel
d) Anodized
Answer: c
Explanation: Enamel (vitreous) is a protective coating composed of glass containing a metal substrate. Paint is
composed of organic material, whereas galvanized coating has anodic metal, both of which contain metal substrate.
The anodized coating has an Al composition with an aluminum substrate.
56. Which of the following is not a type of protective coating?
a) Metallic
b) Non-metallic
c) Organic
d) Inorganic
Answer: b
Explanation: A protective coating is generally defined as a layer of an inert substance which is applied to a material
to prevent the chemical and electrochemical attack. These are classified into metallic, organic, and inorganic
coatings.
57. An example of an anodic coating is
a) Zinc
b) Copper
c) Nickel
d) Chromium
Answer: a
Explanation: The anodic coating is a classification of a metallic coating of metals which are anodic to the base metal.
Zinc, aluminum, and cadmium are examples of anodic coatings. Cathodic coatings include Cu, Ni, Ag, etc.

58. The method of immersing a material into a molten bath for coating is known as
a) Electroplating
b) Hot dipping
c) Cladding
d) Cementation
Answer: b
Explanation: Hot dipping is a method of metallic coating in which the product to be coated is dipped into a molten
bath of the coating metal. Water pipe fittings coated with by the method of hot dipping.
59. Which of these methods uses a filler wire at a high-temperature flame?
a) Hot dipping
b) Metal spraying
c) Vapor plating
d) Cementation
Answer: b
Explanation: In metal spraying, the surface to be coated is sprayed with the coating metal from a filler wire or powder
at a high-temperature flame using a spray gun. A few materials like Al, Cu, Pb, Sn, and Zn can be coated by a spraying
method.
60. The veneering of metals for coating is known as
a) Electroplating
b) Vapor plating
c) Cladding
d) Cementation
Answer: c

Explanation: Veneering of two or metals under a pressure is described as the cladding method of metallic coatings.
The metal which needs to be applied the protective coating on is kept between two layers of the coating metal. This
is then rolled into the required thickness, producing a protective coating.
61. Alclad is the cladding method where is coated with pure aluminum.
a) Duralumin
b) Molybdenum
c) Tin
d) Silver
Answer: a
Explanation: When two materials are veneered by pressure, it is defined as the cladding process. The cladding of
duralumin with pure aluminum is called Alclad.
62. Which method uses the powdered form of a coating to form the protective layer?
a) Electroplating
b) Hot dipping
c) Vapor plating
d) Cementation
Answer: d
Explanation: Cementation is the process of alloying powdered coating metal with the base metal below melting
point temperatures. Carburizing and sherardising are types of cementation processes. Al, Zn, Cr, and W are only a
few metals used for cementation.
63. Phosphate coating and Chromate coating are classifications of coatings.
a) anodic
b) cathodic
c) chemical
d) vitreous
Answer: c
Explanation: Chemical or electrochemical conversion is a form of an inorganic coating. They are used to improve
corrosion resistance and for decoration. Phosphate, chromate, anodized, and chemical oxide coating are the various
classifications of inorganic coatings.
64. The mixture of oil and a pigment is known as
a) Varnish
b) Paint
c) Lacquer
d) Enamel
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Paint is a form of an organic coating which is applied to protect against corrosion and to beautify
surfaces. Oil is the wet component, whereas pigment is the dry material which adds color. The oil oxidizes to form a
protective layer of the dry pigment.
65. A varnish is a mixture of and oil.
a) Resin
b) Pigment
c) Turpentine
d) Soybean
Answer: a
Explanation: A mixture of natural or thermosetting resin and drying oil is used to form varnishes. These coatings do
not contain pigments. However, reduced viscosity is obtained by adding turpentine to the mixture.

66. A mixture of oil and pigment in water is known as

a) Enamel
b) Emulsion
c) Shellac
d) Lacquer
Answer: b
Explanation: An emulsion is a suspension of particles of drying oil and pigment in water. It is an organic type of
protective coating. Here, the water evaporates and the mixture of oil and pigment forms the required film. The
emulsions are applied for decoration in household appliances.
67. Which organic coating is made from Lac dissolved in alcohol?
a) Lacquer
b) Shellac
c) Emulsion
d) Enamel
Answer: b
Explanation: Shellac is an organic protective coating which is made from the dissolved Lac in alcohol. It usually dries
by evaporation of the solvent and leaves an organic finish. Lacquers contain nitrocellulose dissolved in the solvent.

68. Which common application do anodizing and galvanizing serve?

a) Corrosion resistance
b) Improved surface
c) Zinc coating
d) Increased strength
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Both anodizing and galvanizing processes are carried out to improve the corrosion resistance of
materials. Additionally, anodizing improves the surface which helps in painting, whereas a layer of zinc is coating in
the galvanizing process.
69. What is the main principle of electroplating?
a) Hydrolysis
b) Neutralization
c) Esterification
d) Saturation
Answer: a
Explanation: Electroplating is the process by which a metal gets deposited over the other in the presence of metal
salt (in aqueous solution). In this process, the water molecule is given out as the end product. Hence the principle
behind electroplating is hydrolysis.
70. The process of modifying a metal’s properties is called
a) Electrolysis
b) Electro deposition
c) Electro less plating
d) Electroplating
Answer: b
Explanation: Electroplating coats a thin layer of metal over the other metals but does not modify its properties. But
electro deposition is the process by which the coating is permanent and the property of
the coated metal changes.
71 Corrosion of metal is -----------
a) Oxidation of metal
b) Destruction of metal
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
Ans: c

72 Dry corrosion is also called as ----------

a. Electrochemical Corrosion
b. Atmospheric Corrosion
c. Wet Corrosion
d. Galvanic Corrosion
Ans : b

73 Rate of Corrosion depends on----------

a. Temperature
b. Chemical affinity
c. Moisture
d. All of these
Ans: d

74 Corrosion occurs due to the attack of atmospheric gases is ----------

a. Wet Corrosion
b. Electrochemical corrosion
c. Dry Corrosion
d. Concentration cell corrosion
Ans: c

75 The rusting of iron is the ------------

a. Reduction
b. Oxidation
c. Electrodeposition
d. Electrolysis
Ans: b

76 Corrosion between the dissimilar metal is called as--------

a. Galvanic Corrosion
b. Concentration cell corrosion
c. Immersed corrosion
d. Wet corrosion
Ans: a
77 The oxide film formed by the metal Na is ----------
a. Porous film
b. Nonporous film
c. Unstable oxide film
d. Volatile oxide film
Ans: a

78 The oxide film formed by the metals like Au, Ag is ----------

a. Porous film
b. Nonporous film
c. Unstable oxide film
d. Volatile oxide film
Ans: c

79 Wet corrosion is also called as -----------

a. Direct Corrosion
b. Electrochemical corrosion
c. Atmospheric corrosion
d. None of these
Ans: b

80 The oxide film formed by the metal Mo is ---------

a. Porous film
b. Nonporous film
c. Unstable oxide film
d. Volatile oxide film
Ans: d

81 Breaking of metal by the H2 accumulation is ------------

a. Reduction
b. Oxidation
c. H2 embrittlement
d. Decarburisation
 Ans – c

82 In stressed and unstressed parts of the same metal, stressed part acts as --------
a. Anodic
b. Cathodic
c. Passive
d. Inactive
Ans – a

83 Corrosion due to the formation of cavities around the metal is called as the ----------
a. Pitting corrosion
b. Water line corrosion
c. Galvanic corrosion
d. Immersed corrosion
Ans- a

84 Corrosion due to the varying O2 concentration is called as ------

a. Pitting corrosion
b. Differential aeration cell corrosion
c. Concentration Cell corrosion
d. Both b & c
Ans- d

85 Reaction at anode is known as --------

a. Reduction
b. Oxidation
c. Displacement
d. Oxygen absorption
Ans- b

86 Reaction at Cathode is known as ----------

a. Reduction
b. Oxidation
c. Displacement
d. Oxygen absorption
Ans-a

87 H2 liberation/evolution takes place in-------------------- medium.

a. Alkaline
b. Neutral
c. Basic
d. Acidic
Ans- d

88 The higher placed metals in galvanic/electrochemical series are ----------------------.

a. Cathodic
b. Anodic
c. Active
d. Both b & c
Ans-d
89 The lower placed metals in galvanic/electrochemical series are ------------------- --.
a. Inactive
b. Cathodic
c. Passive
d. All of these
Ans-d

90 If the metal or alloy is of smaller (grain size), then the rate of corrosion is ---------
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains constant
d. None of these
Ans-a

91 Which of the following is the protective oxide film?

a. Porous
b. Nonporous
c. Unstable
d. All of these
Ans- b

92 Which of the following is/are destructive oxide film/s?

a. Porous
b. Unstable
c. Nonporous
d. Bothe a & b
Ans – d

93 Which of the following ions are more corrosive?

a. Cl-, NO3-
-
b. PO4
-
c. SiO4
d. Oxalates
Ans – a

94 Rate of corrosion increases by increase in ------------

a. Temperature
b. Moisture
c. Conductivity of corroding medium
d. All of these
Ans- d

95 In cathodic protection method, the metal to be protected is forced to behave as -------

a. Cathode
b. Anode
c. Sacrificial anode
d. Oxidant
Ans- a
96 The metals which have wide range of passivity voltage range can be protected by------------
 a. Cathodic protection
b. Anodic protection
c. Sacrificial anodic method
d. Metallic coating
Ans- b

97 If the coating metal is higher placed in galvanic series than the base metal, then the coating is
-------
a. Cathodic coating
b. Anodic coating
c. Hot dipping
d. Electroless coating
Ans- b

98 The process of galvanizing is ------------

a. Coating of Zn on iron
b. Coating of Sn on iron
c. Hot dipping
d. Both a & c
Ans- d

99 Which of the following process is applicable to store the edible material?

a. Galvanising
b. Tinning
c. Electroplating
d. Metallic coating
Ans- b

100 The formation of strong layer of alloy of coating metal and base metal, on the surface of the metal is called as------------
a. Hot dipping
b. Metal cladding
c. Electroplating
d. Cementation
Ans – d

101 Metal cladding is the process in which--------------

a. Thin sheet of the coating metal is bonded to the base metal.
b. Strong alloy layer of coating metal and base metal is formed.
c. Metallic coating is formed.
d. Metal is dipped in hot molten liquid of other metal.
Ans-a

102 Addition of corrosion inhibitors to the aqueous corrosive environment,----------

a. Increases the rate of reaction.
b. Decreases the rate of reaction
c. Doesn’t affect the rate of reaction.
d. First increases and then decreases the rate of reaction.
Ans- b
103 The metals like Cu, Al forms ----------------------oxide film.
a. Porous
b. Nonporous
c. Unstable
d. Volatile
Ans- b

104 The metals like Fe, Mg, Na & K forms ------------------------ oxide film.
a. Porous
b. Nonporous
c. Unstable
d. Volatile
Ans- a

105 Which of the following comes under the wet corrosion?

a. Concentration cell corrosion
b. Galvanic corrosion
c. Corrosion by the atmospheric gasses
d. Both a & b
Ans- d

106 Poorly oxygenated part becomes cathode whereas well oxygenated part becomes anode in ----
------Corrosion.
a. Galvanic
b. Differential aeration
c. Dry
d. Pitting
Ans- b

107 Which ratio is followed by the corrosion of metal?

a. Burger’s vector
b. Frank-Read mechanism
c. Pilling- Bedworth
d. Miller’s theorem
Ans – c

108 Which of the following is not associated with the nature of metal?
a. Nature of oxide film
b. Nature of electrolyte
c. Purity
d. Physical state
Ans-b

109 Rate of corrosion is directly proportional to the -----------

a. Cathodic area
b. Anodic area
c. Product of anodic and cathodic area
d. Sum of anodic and cathodic area
Ans-a
110 Which of the following medium is most corrosive?
a. Acidic
b. Basic
c. Neutral
d. Both acidic and basic
Ans- a

111 Which of the following metal is not used as a sacrificial anode?

a. Zinc
b. Copper
c. Magnessium
d. Aluminium
Ans- b

112 The process of coating iron or steel sheet with a thin coat of tin to prevent iron from rusting is called as -----------
a. Tinning
b. Galvanising
c. Metal cladding
d. Electroplating
Ans- a

113 The method of immersing a material into a molten bath for coating is known as --------
a. Electroplating
b. Hot dipping
c. Cladding
d. Cementation
Ans- b

114 Which method uses the powdered form of a coating to form the protective layer?
a. Electroplating
b. Hot dipping
c. Metal cladding
d. Cementation
Ans- d
 **************

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