Solution to HW#3

Yucheng Tu and Sean Curry

May 6, 2019

Problem 1.
(a) Proof: Suppose F is an antiderivative for f . Let G : (2, 3) → R be defined
by G(x) = 4x. Then G0 (x) = F 0 (x) = f (x) = 4 for all x ∈ (2, 3). It follows from
the Identity Criterion that F and G differ by a constant on (2, 3), i.e. there
exists c1 ∈ R such that F (x) = G(x) + c1 = 4x + c1 for all x ∈ (2, 3). The value
of F at the endpoints of the interval (2, 3) are then determined by continuity, in
particular, F (2) = limx→2 F (x) = limx→2 4x + c1 = 8 + c1 . So F (x) = 4x + c1
for all x ∈ [2, 3). Similarly, since F 0 (x) = f (x) = 0 for all x ∈ (3, 6), it follows
from the Identity Criterion that F is a constant function on (2, 3), i.e. there
exists c2 ∈ R such that F (x) = c2 for all x ∈ (3, 6). Since F is continuous, it
follows that F (x) = c2 for all x ∈ [3, 6]. 

(b) Proof: We have already argued by the continuity of F that F (3) = c2 . This
is because F (3) = lim x→3+ F (x) = lim x→3+ c2 = c2 (here we are taking the
limit from the right). Again using the continuity of F , now taking the limit
from the left, we obtain F (3) = lim x→3− F (x) = lim x→3− 4x + c1 = 12 + c1 .
Hence 12 + c1 = c2 . 

(c) Proof: Since

F (x) − F (3) c2 − c2
lim+ = lim+ =0
x→3 x−3 x→3 x−3
whereas
F (x) − F (3) 4x + c1 − (12 + c1 ) 4(x − 3)
lim− = lim− = lim− = 4,
x→3 x−3 x→3 x−3 x→3 x−3
F is not differentiable at 3. So f does not have an antiderivative. 

Problem 2. See the lecture notes on Section 6.6.

Problem 3*.
Proof. Given cos x ≤ 1 if x ≥ 0, we can replace x by t and integrate both sides
from 0 to x:
Z x Z x
cos tdt ≤ 1dt =⇒ sin x − sin 0 ≤ x − 0
0 0

1
Therefore sin x ≤ x if x ≥ 0. Again replacing x by t and integrating gives
Z x Z x
1
sin tdt ≤ tdt =⇒ − cos x + cos 0 ≤ x2 − 0
0 0 2

We have 1 − cos x ≤ 21 x2 if x ≥ 0. Now the same manipulation gives

Z x Z x
1 2 1
(1 − cos t)dt ≤ t dt =⇒ x − sin x − (0 − sin 0) ≤ x3 − 0
0 0 2 6

So finally we have x − 61 x3 ≤ sin x if x ≥ 0.

Problem 4. For a counterexample see the discussion handout on week 4,
where I put several examples showing necessity of each assumption in FTC1.
Such continuity at the end points is used when apply Mean Value Theorem to F .

Problem 5*.
(a)
Z x
  Z x 
d d
x2 t2 dt = x2 t2 dt
dx dx
Z x0 Z x
0
d 
=2x t2 dt + x2 t2 dt
0 dx 0
x3
=2x · + x2 · x2
3
5x4
=
3

(b)
Z ex 
d d x
ln tdt = ln(ex ) · e = xex
dx 1 dx

(c)
Z x 
d 2
et dt
dx −x
Z x   Z −x 
d 2 d 2
= et dt − et dt
dx 0 dx 0
x2 d 2
=e − (−x) · e(−x)
dx
2
=2ex

2
 (d)
Z x 
d
cos(x + t)dt
dx 1
d h i
= sin(x + x) − sin(x + 1)
dx
=2 cos(2x) − cos(x + 1)

Problem 6.
Rx
Proof. Define g(x) = f (0) + f 0 (0)x + 0 (x − t)f 00 (t)dt. First we check that
g 0 (x) = f 0 (x) for all x ∈ R. We have
d h x
Z i
g 0 (x) = f 0 (0) + (x − t)f 00 (t)dt
dx 0
d h x 00 d h x 00
Z i Z i
= f 0 (0) + xf (t)dt − tf (t)dt
dx 0 dx 0
Z x
d  x 00 d h x 00
h d Z i Z i
0 00
= f (0) + (x) · f (t)dt + x · f (t)dt − tf (t)dt
dx 0 dx 0 dx 0
Z x
= f 0 (0) + f 00 (t)dt + xf 00 (x) − xf 00 (x) (FTC2)
Z0 x
= f 0 (0) + f 00 (t)dt
0
= f 0 (0) + f 0 (x) − f 0 (0) (FTC1)
= f 0 (x)
R0
and we can also check that g(0) = f (0) + f 0 (0) · 0 + 0 (0 − t)f (t)dt = f (0). Thus
by identity criterion, g and f must be the same function for all x ∈ R.
Problem 7*.
Proof. We have
d h x
Z i
0
G (x) = (x − t)f (t)dt
dx 0
d h x d h x
Z i Z i
= xf (t)dt − tf (t)dt
dx 0 dx 0
Z x
d  x d h x
h d Z i Z i
= (x) · f (t)dt + x · f (t)dt − tf (t)dt
dx 0 dx 0 dx 0
Z x
= f (t)dt + xf (x) − xf (x) (FTC2)
Z0 x
= f (t)dt
0
Rx
Therefore G00 (x) = d
dx 0
f (t)dt = f (x).

3
Problem 8.
Proof. We have that
Z 1 n Z 1 n n
X
k
X ak k+1 1 X ak
p(x)dx = ak x dx = x  = =0
0 0 k+1 0 k+1
k=1 k=1 k=1

by the given equation of a1 , · · · , aRn . Therefore by MVT for integrals, there is

1 1
x0 ∈ (0, 1) such that p(x0 ) = 1−0 0
p(x)dx = 0.
Problem 9.*

(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 4

(e) 1
(f) 2
(g) 199. Let h = g − f . Then h(x) = (x − 1)200 for all x ∈ (0, ∞) and it is
straightforward to show by induction that

h(k) (x) = 200 × 199 × · · · × (200 − k + 1)(x − 1)200−k

for all x ∈ R and k ∈ {1, 2, . . . , 200}. In particular, h(k) (1) = 0 for all k ∈
{1, 2, . . . , 199} and h(200) (1) = 200! 6= 0. It follows that f (k) (1) = g (k) (1)
for all k ∈ {1, 2, . . . , 199} and f (200) (1) 6= g (200) (1). Therefore f and g
have contact of order 199 at 1, but not of order 200 or higher. 
Problem 10*. We only give detailed solution for (a).
Rx 1 0 1 00 2x
(a) For x ∈ R we have f (x) = 0 1+t 2 dt, f (x) = 1+x2 , f (x) = (1+x2 )2 and
2(1+x2 )2 −8x2 (1+x2 ) 2
f 000 (x) = (1+x2 )4
2−6x
= (1+x 0
2 )3 . So f (0) = 0, f (0) = 1, f (0) = 0
00
000
and f (0) = 2. Hence, the third order Taylor polynomial for f centered
at 0 is
2 x3
p3 (x) = x − x3 = x − .
3! 3
x3
(b) p3 (x) = x − 6 .

x3
(c) p3 (x) = x − 6 .

(d) p3 (x) = 1 − 12 (x − 1) − 18 (x − 1)2 − 1

16 (x − 1)3 .

Problem 11*.

4
Proof. From p3 (x) we know that f (0) = 1 > 0, f 0 (0) = 4 > 0 and f 00 (0) = −2 <
0. From the existence of f 000 we have that f, f 0 and f 00 are all differentiable
functions, hence they are all continuous. Hence there exists δ1 > 0 such that
f (x) > 0 if x ∈ I1 := (−δ1 , δ1 ), similarly there are δ2 , δ3 > 0 such that f 0 (x) >
0 if x ∈ I2 := (−δ2 , δ2 ), and f 00 (x) < 0 if x ∈ I3 := (−δ3 , δ3 ). Let δ =
min{δ1 , δ2 , δ3 } and I = (−δ, δ). We have I = I1 ∩ I2 ∩ I3 , therefore we have all
f (x) > 0, f 0 (x) > 0 and f 00 (x) < 0 on I. Lastly f 0 (x) > 0 implies by MVT that
f is strictly increasing on I, f 00 (0) < 0 implies that f 0 is strictly decreasing on
I.
Problem 12*.
√
Proof. Denote f (x) = 1 + x, we are able to check that 1 + x2 is p1 (x) of f at
2
x0 = 0, and 1 + x2 − x8 is p2 (x) of f at x0 = 0. Hence we want to show for
x > 0,
p2 (x) < f (x) < p1 (x)
f 00 (c1 ) 2
To do this we use Lagrange remainder theorem: R1 (x) = 2 x and R2 (x) =
f 000 (c2 ) 3
6 x for some c1 , c2 strictly in between 0 and x. We have

1 3
f 00 (c1 ) = − (1 + c1 )− 2 < 0 =⇒ R1 (x) < 0
4
and
3 5
f 000 (c2 ) =
(1 + c2 )− 2 > 0 =⇒ R2 (x) > 0
8
Hence f (x)−p1 (x) < 0 and f (x)−p2 (x) > 0 and the original two-sided inequality
holds.
Problem 13*.

Proof. Corollary 8.9 implies that if we find the n-th order Taylor Polynomial of
p at x0 , we will find it equal to p(x). That is,
n n
X p(k) (x0 ) p(x0 ) X p(k) (x0 )
p(x) = (x − x0 )k = (x − x0 )0 + (x − x0 )k
k! 0! k!
k=0 k=1

Since p(x0 ) = 0, the first term on the right hand side drops, and then we can
factorize one copy of (x − x0 ) from the remaining summation and get
n n
X p(k) (x0 ) X p(k) (x0 )
p(x) = (x − x0 )k = (x − x0 ) · (x − x0 )k−1
k! k!
k=1 k=1

Pn p(k) (x0 )
Let q(x) = k=1 k! (x − x0 )k−1 , we have q is a polynomial and p(x) =
(x − x0 )q(x).
Problem 14.

5
Proof. Forward implication: Suppose f and g have contact of order n at 0.
Then the nth order Taylor polynomial for h = f − g centered at 0 is zero. So,
by the Lagrange Remainder Theorem, for any x ∈ R \ {0} there exists a point
c(x) strictly between x and 0 such that

h(n+1) (c(x)) n+1

h(x) = x . (∗)
(n + 1)!

Since f (n+1) and g (n+1) are continuous, h(n+1) is continuous, and therefore
bounded on the interval [−1, 1]. So we may fix M > 0 such that |h(n+1) (t)| ≤ M
for all t ∈ [−1, 1]. By (∗) it follows that
 
M n+1
 h(x)  M
|h(x)| ≤ |x| and hence  xn  ≤ (n + 1)! |x|
 
(n + 1)!

for x ∈ [−1, 1] \ {0} (since c(x) in (∗) is between x and 0). So, by the Squeeze
Theorem,
f (x) − g(x) h(x)
lim n
= lim n = 0.
x→0 x x→0 x
Reverse implication: Suppose now instead that limx→0 f (x)−g(x)
xn = 0. Suppose
further, with a view to obtaining a contradiction, that f and g do not have
contact of order n at 0. This is equivalent to saying that the nth order Taylor
polynomial for h = f − g centered at 0, pn (x), is not the zero polynomial. Note
that, by assumption limx→0 h(x)
xn = 0. On the other hand, by the Lagrange
Remainder Theorem, for any x ∈ R \ {0} there exists a point c(x) strictly
between x and 0 such that
h(x) pn (x) h(n+1) (c(x))
= + x.
xn xn (n + 1)!

h(n+1) (c(x))
Since h(n+1) is continuous, arguing as before one has that limx→0 (n+1)! x =
(n+1)
0 (i.e. one can again use the Squeeze Theorem, noting that h is bounded
on [−1, 1]). It follows that limx→0 pnx(x)
n = 0. But pn (x) is a nonzero polynomial
of degree at most n. To see that this gives a contradiction, first note that this
implies limx→0 pnx(x)k = limx→0 pnx(x)
n x
n−k
= 0 for all k ∈ {0, 1, . . . , n}. Now
n
write pn (x) = a0 + a1 x + · · · + an x and let k ∈ {0, 1, . . . , n} be the smallest
number such that ak 6= 0. Then

pn (x)
lim = lim ak + ak+1 x · · · + an xn−k = ak 6= 0,
x→0 xk x→0

a contradiction. We conclude that f and g must have contact of order n at

0.

Problem 15.

6
(a) Proof. By Lagrange remainder theorem, we have, for all x 6= x0 a c strictly
in between x0 and x such that

f (n+1) (c) f (n+1) (c)

f (x) = pn (x) + (x − x0 )n+1 = f (x0 ) + (x − x0 )n+1
(n + 1)! (n + 1)!

since f (k) (x0 ) = 0 for k = 1, · · · , n. Since f (n+1) (x0 ) > 0 and f (n+1) is
continuous, there is a neighborhood I of x0 such that f (n+1) (x) > 0 for
all x ∈ I. We have for all x ∈ I, then c ∈ I, and f (n+1) (c) > 0. On the
other hand n + 1 is even, so (x − x0 )n+1 > 0. hence we have

f (n+1) (c)
f (x) − f (x0 ) = (x − x0 )n+1 > 0 ∀x ∈ I
(n + 1)!

Therefore x0 is a local minimizer of f .

(b) This is similar to (a) with a sign flipping.

(c) Once (x − x0 )n+1 can switch sign when x < x0 is passed to x > x0 , the
sign of f (x) − f (x0 ) must also switch. Therefore x0 is neither a local
minimizer nor maximizer.