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ADVANCE -FULL TEST-18

Sec: SR’s_All & LT-Prog-I&II_INDIA_e-TEST_SERIES Date: 21-09-2020


Time: 02:00 P.M To 05:00 P.M JEE-ADV-2018-PAPER-2 Max. Marks: 180
SYLLABUS:
Physics : Total Syllabus
Chemistry : Total Syllabus
Mathematics : Total Syllabus

Name of the Student: ___________________ H.T. NO:


Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 21-09-2020_ Sr.ICON ALL&LT-Prog-I&II,All_INDIA_e-TEST_SERIES _Jee-ADV(2018-P2)_AFT-18_Q.P
JEE-ADVANCE-2018-P2-Model
Time: 3H IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS Max Marks: 180
PHYSICS:
+Ve - Ve
Section Question Type No.of Qs Total marks
Marks Marks
Questions with Multiple Correct Choice
Sec – I(Q.N : 1 – 6) +4 -2 6 24
(partial marking scheme) (+1,0)
Sec – II(Q.N : 7 – 14) Questions with NV Integer Answer Type +3 0 8 24
Sec – II(Q.N : 15-18) Matrix Matching Type +3 -1 4 12
Total 18 60

CHEMISTRY:
+Ve - Ve
Section Question Type No.of Qs Total marks
Marks Marks
Questions with Multiple Correct Choice
Sec – I(Q.N : 19 – 24) +4 -2 6 24
(partial marking scheme) (+1,0)
Sec – II(Q.N : 25 –32) Questions with NV Integer Answer Type +3 0 8 24
Sec – II(Q.N : 33-36) Matrix Matching Type +3 -1 4 12
Total 18 60

MATHEMATICS:
+Ve - Ve
Section Question Type No.of Qs Total marks
Marks Marks
Questions with Multiple Correct Choice
Sec – I(Q.N:37 – 42) +4 -2 6 24
(partial marking scheme) (+1,0)
Sec – II(Q.N :43–50) Questions with NV Integer Answer Type +3 0 8 24
Sec – II(Q.N : 51-54) Matrix Matching Type +3 -1 4 12
Total 18 60

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PHYSICS
SECTION 1
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options for correct answer(s). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these
four option(s) is (are) correct option(s). For each question, choose the correct option(s) to answer the question. Answer to each question will be
evaluated according to the following marking scheme: Full Marks: +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen. Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct
but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are correct options. Partial Marks +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option
is chosen and it is acorrect option. Zero Marks: 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered). Negative Marks: -2 In all
other cases. For Example: If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with second option being an incorrect
option; selecting only all the three correct options will result in +4 marks. Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth
options),without selecting any incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks. Selecting only one of the three correct
options (either first or third or fourth option) ,without selecting any incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting
any incorrect option(s) (second option in this case), with or without selection of any correct option(s) will result in -2 marks.

1. The atomic nucleus is flying at a speed v = 4 km/s. It splits into two identical
fragments. Determine the maximum possible angle α and speed of the fragment
in that case, if it is known that the decay of stationary nucleus results into each of
them acquiring a velocity u = 3 km/s.

B) α max = cos −1 
7 
A) α max = 37°  C) v ' = 5 km / s D) v ' = 7 km / s
 25 

2. A charged parallel-plate capacitor is kept in a magnetic field that is perpendicular


to the plates (Figure). The distance between the plates is d. The magnetic field is
B. Inside the capacitor near the negatively charged plate is source of slow
electrons which is emitting electrons in different directions with same speed v.
Assume that vertically below the source there is origin on the other plate. Neglect
gravity. Mass of electron = m, Charge on electron = q, Electric field = E

y
d

B+ x

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A) The electrons form a circular patch on the positively charged plate
2mv
B) The radius of circular patch can be
qB

mv
C) The radius of circular patch can be
qB

2mdv 2
D) The radius of circular patch can be approx
qE

3. A projectile is thrown with velocity U = 20 m / s ± 5% at an angle 60° . If the projectile


falls back on the ground in the same level then find out the range of the projectile
as R = ..........X....... m ± .......Y.........% . Consider g = 10 m / s2 .
A) X = 34.6 B) X = 25.3 C) Y = 5 D) Y = 10
4. Mass of 73 Li = 7.01600 amu
Mass of 74 Be = 7.01693 amu
Mass of electron = 0.00055 amu
The is no other nuclide with atomic mass number 7. Select the correct
statement(s)
A) 73 Li can undergo β− decay to 74 Be
B) 73 Li can undergo β+ decay to 74 Be
C) 74 Be can undergo β+ decay to 73 Li
D) 74 Be can undergo k shell capture to 73 Li
5. H atom in groun state is moving towards a stationary deuterium atom. After the
head on collision takes place, the H atom comes to rest and the deuterium atom
comes into motion. If the deuterium was in the ground state and it goes to first
excited state after the collision then

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A) the initial KE of the H atom is 1.5 × 13.6 eV
B) the final KE of the deuterium atom is 6 × 13.6 eV
C) the initial KE of the H atom is 6 × 13.6 eV
D) the final KE of the deuterium atom is 0.75 × 13.6 eV
6. Choose the CORRECT option(s) :
A) Waves from two coherent sources may always be in same phase at some
points
B) Waves from two incoherent sources always have fixed phase difference at a
point
C) Initial phase differnce between the waves emitted by two coherent sources may
vary with time
D) Waves from two coherent sources may always be in opposite phase at some
points
SECTION 2
This section contains EIGHT (08) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the correct numerical value
(in decimal notation, truncated/rounded -off to the second decimal place; e.g. 6.25, 7.00, -0.33, -.30, 30.27, - 127.30) using the mouse and the on- screen
virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking
scheme: Full Marks: +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered as answer. Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

7. A metallic plate is of the shape of an pentagon. Its thickness is d. It is kept in a


uniform magnetic field B perpendicular to the plate as shown. The ends of the
plate are connected to a battery of emf ε . If the density of the material of the plate
is r, find its acceleration (in m / s 2 ). The surface on which plate rests is smooth and
connecting wires do not exert any force on the plate. The battery is ideal.
Resistivity of material is ρ . Take
B = 0.77 T, ε = 2.7 V, ρ = 10 −3 Ωm, r = 2 × 103 kg / m3 , D = 1 mm, L = 1m . [Take : ℓn 2 = 0.693 ]

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2L
L L

L L

8. In the circuit shown, the AC source has a voltage of amplitude 100 V. The
resistance R is 100 Ω . The inductor is ideal. The phase difference between the
current through the source and the voltage across it is π / 4 . What is the amplitude
of the current (in A) through the source ?

9. In the diagram shown, 12 complete threads of the spindle are visible from every
angle. 56th CSD (Circular scale division) coincides with the reference line. Initially,
35 complete threads were present and visible on the spindle. Initially means where
there was no object between the stud and screw. 1msd = 100CSD = 1mm. Length
of the body is ……… mm.
Spindle

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10. The figure shows an oscillatory system (a compound pendulum with an elastic
string). The system oscillates in vertical plate shown here. The rubber cord is in
natural length when rod is vertical. What is the time period of oscillation (in sec).
Take kℓ = mg, g = π2 , ℓ = 6m .


Rubber
m
cord

11. Determine the average density of the planet for which the length of day is 6 hrs.
When we weight a body using spring balance at its equator, the scale shows
ρ
weight 10% less weight than that at the pole. Fill in kg / m3 in OMR sheet.
104

12. Find the deviation of light ray (in degree)

40°
53°

µ = 4/3

13. Consider a rod of length 1m. One of the ends of the rod is maintained at 100°C .
The other end is at 0°C . At the distance of 25 cm from the end at higher
temperature, there is a heat source giving heat at a constant rate of 80 W to the
rod. The area of the rod is 100 cm2 and coefficient of thermal conductivity is 50
W/mK. What is the temperature of the heat source ? (in °C )

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14. A light cylinder of radius R = 5 cm with a horizontal axis of rotation is wound by
weightless inextensible thread on which we hung a mass M = 3 kg & M ' = 5 kg as
shown. The spokes are massless. There are four spokes of a length 20 cm
attached to the surface of the cylinder with a ball of mass m = 1 kg at the other
ends (Fig.). Initially, the mass M and M ' are suspended at a height h = 1 m above
the floor. Then the system is released and the system starts moving without any
friction. What is the angular acceleration of the cylinder (in rad/ s 2 ) after it is
released ?
m m
ℓ ℓ

ℓ ℓ
m m
3 kg 5 kg

SECTION 3
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has TWO (02) matching lists: LIST-I and LIST-II. FOUR options are given representing
matching of elements from LIST-I and LIST-II. ONLY ONE of these four options corresponds to a correct matching.For each question, choose the option
corresponding to the correct matching. For each question, marks will be awarded according to the following marking scheme: Full Marks: +3 If ONLY
the option corresponding to the correct matching is chosen. Zero Marks:0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks: -1 In all other cases.

15. Bodies A and B are rolling without slipping on a rough inclined plane, starting from
rest. Match the following :
List – I List – II
P) Velocity of A and B after travelling 1) Difference if A and B have same
the same distance will be side but different shape and mass
Q) Time taken by A and B to reach the 2) Different if A and B have same
bottom of the plane from the size and same mass but having
same height will be different shapes
R) Acceleration of centre of mass of 3) Same if A and B have same shape
A and B will be and same size but of different
materials
S) During rolling motion, frictional 4) Same if A and B have same size
force experienced by A and B will but different shape and mass
be
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A) P → 1, 2, 3; Q → 2, 3, 4; R → 1, 2, 3; S → 1, 2
B) P → 1, 2, 3; Q → 1, 2, 3; R → 1, 2; S → 1, 2, 4
C) P → 1, 2, 3; Q → 2, 3, 4; R → 1, 2; S → 1, 2
D) P → 1, 2, 3; Q → 1, 2, 3; R → 1, 2, 3; S → 2
16. Match the statements in List-I with the results in List-II and indicate your answer
by darkening appropriate bubbles in the 4 × 4 matrix given in the OMR.
List – I List – II
P) A variable resistor is connected across a non 1) First increases for
ideal cell. As the variable resistor is continuously some time and then
increased from zero to a very large value, the decrease
electric power consumed by the variable
resistor
Q) A circular ring lies in space having uniform and 2) First decreases for
constant magnetic field which is parallel to some time and then
plane of the ring. Keeping the centre of ring increases
fixed, the ring is rotated by 180° about the one
of its diameter which is perpendicular to
magnetic field with constant angular speed. For
the duration the ring rotates, the magnitude of
induced emf in the ring
R) A thin rod of length 1 cm lies along principal axis 3) is always constant
of a convex lens of focal length 5 cm. One end
of rod is at a distance 10 cm from optical center
of the lens. The convex lens is moved (without
rotation) perpendicular to initial principal axis by
5 mm and brought back to its initial position.
Length of image of the rod
S) A bulb (of negligible inductance) and a capacitor 4) Increases or may
in series are connected across an ideal source increase over some
of constant peak voltage and variable time interval
frequency. As frequency of ac source is
continuously increased, the brightness of bulb
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A) P → 1, 4; Q → 2, 4; R → 3; S → 4 B) P → 1, 4; Q → 2, 4; R → 1, 4; S → 4
C) P → 1, 4; Q → 2, 4; R → 1, 2; S → 2, 4 D) P → 1; Q → 2, 4; R → 3, 4; S → 1, 4
17. A block P of mass m is placed on smooth horizontal surface and connected with a
spring. Another block Q of same mass is placed on the block P. The two blocks are
pulled by a distance A and released. The blocks oscillates without slipping on each
other. Then match the matrix.

List – I List – II
P) Friction force on the block Q, when both the 1) Towards right
blocks are coming towards equilibrium
position from left
Q) Friction force on the block Q when both block 2) Towards left
going right from equilibrium position (exclude
the equilibrium position)
R) Friction force will be maximum on Q 3) At equilibrium position
S) Friction force on P when both blocks are 4) At extreme position
coming towards the equilibrium position
from right
5) None of these
A) P → 1; Q → 2; R → 4; S → 1 B) P → 2; Q → 1; R → 4; S → 5
C) P → 1; Q → 2; R → 3; S → 5 D) P → 5; Q → 2; R → 4; S → 3

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18. In the given circuit, match the statements of List-I and List-II
i1 R1

R3

R2
i i2 i

E
List – I List – II
P) Current i depends upon 1) E, R1, R 2 , R 3
Q) Current i1 depends upon 2) E, R1, R 2

R) Ratio ( i1 / i 2 ) depends upon 3) E, R 3

S) Ratio ( i / i1 ) depends upon 4) R 1, R 2

A) P → 1, 2, 3, 4; Q → 1, 2, 3, 4; R → 4; S → 4
B) P → 1, 2; Q → 1, 2, 3, 4; R → 3; S → 2
C) P → 1, 2, 3, 4; Q → 4; R → 1, 2, 3, 4; S → 3
D) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 2; S → 1, 2, 3, 4

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CHEMISTRY
SECTION 1
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options for correct answer(s). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these
four option(s) is (are) correct option(s). For each question, choose the correct option(s) to answer the question. Answer to each question will be
evaluated according to the following marking scheme: Full Marks: +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen. Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct
but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are correct options. Partial Marks +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option
is chosen and it is acorrect option. Zero Marks: 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered). Negative Marks: -2 In all
other cases. For Example: If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with second option being an incorrect
option; selecting only all the three correct options will result in +4 marks. Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth
options),without selecting any incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks. Selecting only one of the three correct
options (either first or third or fourth option) ,without selecting any incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting
any incorrect option(s) (second option in this case), with or without selection of any correct option(s) will result in -2 marks.

19. For the process:


H 2 O ( ℓ, 100°C,1atm ) 
→ H 2 O ( g, 100°C,5atm )
(Assume ideal behaviour of gas, ∆H vap of H 2 O ( ℓ ) at 100°C and 1 atm = 540 cal/gm,
ln 5 = 1.6). The correct values for the changes in state function is/are-
A) ∆H = 9.72 kcal / mol B) ∆S = 22.859 cal / K − mol
C) ∆G = 1193.6 cal / mol D) ∆U = 0
20. A first order reaction : A ( g ) → 3B ( g ) is performed in a cylinder piston arrangement,

at constant temperature and pressure, starting with 2 moles A(g) and 1 mole of
B(g). After 90 minutes from start of reaction, the molar ratio of A(g) to B(g)
becomes 1 : 25. The initial volume of system was 12 litre. The correct
information(s) related is/are-
A) t1/ 2 of reaction = 30 min B) Volume of system at t = 90 min is 26 L
1 25
C) At t = 90 min, [ A ] = M D) At t = 90 min, [ B] = M
48 104

21. Choose the CORRECT match.


A) O +2 < O 2 : Bond length order
B) N +2 = N −2 : Order of bond order
C) N −2 > N +2 : Order of energy of electron in H.O.M.O
D) CO+ < CO : Bond length order

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22. When SO 2 is dissolved in water, it is majorly existing in the form of:
A) SO2 .6H 2O B) H 2SO3 C) H + + HSO3− D) 2H + + SO32−
23. Which of the given sequences are correctly matched with their final major product:
O

CH2 NH2
HCl + NaNO2
 →
OH
A)
+
H3O+

( NH3 )2  OH−
H2C O CH2 
→ (P)  Ag
→ CH3COO −


B)
CrO3
H2C CH3 
→ SeO 2
( L) N
( M ) 2 4
H 2O 2
→ N H
H3C
O

C)

H3C H H3C H

Nain


Liq.NH3
D)
24. Which of the following order(s) is/are correct?
NH 2 CH 3
CH 3

> ( Basic strength )


A)

> ( W ater solubility )


B)
H 3C CH 3 H 3C CH 3
>
( Heat of combustion )
C) H 3C CH 3 H 3C

> ( Resonance energy )

D)
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SECTION 2
This section contains EIGHT (08) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the correct numerical value
(in decimal notation, truncated/rounded -off to the second decimal place; e.g. 6.25, 7.00, -0.33, -.30, 30.27, - 127.30) using the mouse and the on- screen
virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking
scheme: Full Marks: +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered as answer. Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

25. Vapour pressure of A and B mixture at 80°C is given by P (in m Hg) = 100 + 200 x A ,
where x A is mole fraction of A. Solution is prepared by mixing 2 mol of A and 3
mol of B and if the vapours are removed and condensed into liquid and again
brought to the temperature of 80°C , If the ratio of mole fraction of A in vapour state
and mole fraction of B in vapour state above the condensate is x:1, find value of ‘x’
is-
26. A gas obeys the equation : P ( V − nb ) = nRT . At what pressure (in atm) and 27°C ,
the density of gas becomes 8.0 g/L? The molar mass of gas is 80 g/mol and b =
0.4 L/mol.
(R = 0.08 L-atm/K-mol)
27. In a sample of H-atoms, all the atoms are in 3rd excited state. They de-excite to the
ground state in one or more transitions but no photon is observed in Paschen
series. The ratio of longest and shortest wavelengths of emitted photons is x : 1.
The value of ‘x’ is.
28. How many of the following are the correct characteristics for the following
complex.
OH

Cr Cr ( NH3 )4 Br6

OH
3

(i) It is a chelating complex


(ii) It is optically active in nature
OH

( NH3 )3 Cr ( OH ) Cr ( NH 3 )3 Cl3

(iii) It is the polymerisation isomer of OH

(iv) It has total three unpaired electrons


(v) There are four octahedron in the complex
(vi) All electrons of central metal atoms are present in non-axial d-orbitals
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29. Molecular formula of an alum is given below.
Tℓ Al ( SO 4 ) 2 ⋅12H 2 O
1
Find the value of ( x + y − z)
4
Where,
Number of water molecule is more loosely held per molecule of alum = x
Total number of sp3 hybridised central atoms per molecule of alum = y
Oxidation state of Tℓ = z
30. Consider all possible isomeric ketones including stereoisomers of molecular
formula 'C5 H10O ' . All these isomers are independently reacted with LiAlH 4 ( NOTE:
stereoisomers are also reacted separately) The, total number of ketones that give
a racemic product(s) is/are.
31. Find number of reactions where correct major product is given:
CH3 CH3
H3C Cl + MeO− H3C OMe
CH3
(i) CH3

18
O + 18

H 3O
→ OH + MeOH
(ii)
OH Cl

→ SOCl2 


KCN

Pyridine CN
(iii) (iv) Cl

Ph − CH − CH 3 + CH3OH Ph − CH − CH 3

OTs OCH 3

(v) ( racemic )
Cl

Aq.KOH
→ OH

(vi) Cl
Cl OH


HOH

(vii)
HI
(viii) Ph − O − Me → PhOH + Me − I

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32.
HI
Glycerol 
excess
→ CH 3 − CH − CH 3
I
Number of moles of HI consumed per mole of glycerol to form the above product
is….
SECTION 3
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has TWO (02) matching lists: LIST-I and LIST-II. FOUR options are given representing
matching of elements from LIST-I and LIST-II. ONLY ONE of these four options corresponds to a correct matching.For each question, choose the option
corresponding to the correct matching. For each question, marks will be awarded according to the following marking scheme: Full Marks: +3 If ONLY
the option corresponding to the correct matching is chosen. Zero Marks:0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks: -1 In all other cases.

33. Match the list type:


List-I List-II
P) As 2S3 sol 1) Negatively charged
Q) Fe2O3 .xH 2O sol 2) Positively charged
R) Starch sol 3) Coagulation near cathode during
electrophoresis
S) AgI / I− : K + sol 4) Coagulation near anode during
electrophoresis
5) May be coagulated by adding Na 2SO 4

6) May be coagulated by adding gold sol.


The correct option is
A) P → 1, 3, 5; Q → 2, 4, 5, 6; R → 1, 4, 6; S → 1, 4, 5
B) P → 1, 4, 5; Q → 2, 3, 5, 6; R → 1, 4, 5; S → 1, 4, 5
C) P → 1, 4, 5; Q → 2, 4, 6; R → 1, 3, 5; S → 1, 4, 6
D) P → 2, 3, 5, 6; Q → 1, 4, 5; R → 1, 4, 5; S → 2, 3, 5, 6

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34.
List-I List-II
P) H 2O 2 1) Bleaching agent
Q) Ca ( OCl ) Cl 2) Absorbs PH 3 gas

R) CuSO 4 3) Colourless/white in colour


S) SiO 2 4) Paramagnetic in nature
5) Acidic in nature
Code:
The CORRECT option is
A) P → 1, 2, 4; Q → 3, 5; R → 1, 3; S → 4, 5
B) P → 2, 4, 5; Q → 1, 2; R → 3, 4; S → 1, 2, 3
C) P → 1, 3, 5; Q → 1, 3; R → 2, 4; S → 3, 5
D) P → 4, 5; Q → 1, 5; R → 2, 3, 4; S → 1, 5
35.
List-I List-II

P) Br − 1) Can be confirmed by Brown ring test

Q) I− 2) Can be confirmed by Layer test

R) S2 − 3) Can be confirmed by methylene blue test

S) NO 3− 4) On reaction with conc. H 2SO 4 , oxidation takes place

5) All salts are soluble

Code:

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 21-09-2020_ Sr.ICON ALL&LT-Prog-I&II,All_INDIA_e-TEST_SERIES _Jee-ADV(2018-P2)_AFT-18_Q.P
The CORRECT option is
A) P → 2, 4; Q → 2, 4; R → 3, 5; S → 1, 5
B) P → 1, 4; Q → 2, 3; R → 3, 5; S → 1, 5
C) P → 2, 4; Q → 2, 4; R → 3, 4; S → 1, 5
D) P → 2, 4; Q → 1, 4; R → 3, 4; S → 2, 5
36. Match the following question:
List-I List-II
(Reaction) (Products)
P) CH3 1) Diastereomers
HOOC COOH

H D  →
C2H5

Q) CH3 2) Racemic mixture



HOOC COOH 

Ph

R) HOOC COOH 3) Meso compound


 →
CH3

S) COOH 4) CO2 gas will evolve



 →
COOH

Select CORRECT code for your answer:


A) P → 1, 4; Q → 2, 4; R → 1, 4; S → 3
B) P → 1, 4; Q → 2, 4; R → 1, 4; S → 3, 4
C) P → 1, 4; Q → 2, 3, 4; R → 1, 4; S → 3
D) P → 1, 4; Q → 2, 4; R → 1, 3; S → 3
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 21-09-2020_ Sr.ICON ALL&LT-Prog-I&II,All_INDIA_e-TEST_SERIES _Jee-ADV(2018-P2)_AFT-18_Q.P

MATHEMATICS
SECTION 1
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options for correct answer(s). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these
four option(s) is (are) correct option(s). For each question, choose the correct option(s) to answer the question. Answer to each question will be
evaluated according to the following marking scheme: Full Marks: +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen. Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct
but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are correct options. Partial Marks +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option
is chosen and it is acorrect option. Zero Marks: 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered). Negative Marks: -2 In all
other cases. For Example: If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with second option being an incorrect
option; selecting only all the three correct options will result in +4 marks. Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth
options),without selecting any incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks. Selecting only one of the three correct
options (either first or third or fourth option) ,without selecting any incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting
any incorrect option(s) (second option in this case), with or without selection of any correct option(s) will result in -2 marks.

 3 1
37. Circumcircle of triangle ABC is x 2 + y 2 = 1 .If AB = AC = 2 and A  ,  , then
 2 2
A) equation of side BC is 3x + y = 0
B) area of triangle ABC is 1 sq. unit
 6 − 3 2 −1 
C) incentre of triangle ABC is  , 
 2 2 

D) equation of side BC is 3x − y = 0

cos ( nθ )
38. If I n = ∫0
cos θ
, where n ∈ N , then.

A) I 4k +1 = 2π , k ∈ W B) I 4k −1 = −2π , k ∈ N
C) I 4k + 2 = 0, k ∈ W D) I 4k = 0, k ∈ N
(where W denotes set of whole numbers)
39. Normal to the circle S ≡ x 2 + y 2 − 4x − 8y − 5 = 0 intersect the coordinate axes at point
P and Q. Locus of point R such that quadrilateral OPRQ is rectangle, is denoted by
L, where O is origin. If slope of normal to L at any point R ' is m1 and slope of
normal to the circle S = 0 at R ' is m 2 , then
A) equation of L is 4x + 2y = xy B) equation of L is 2x + 4y = xy
C) m1m 2 = 1 D) m1m 2 = −1
40. Let x 2 + 3y 2 = 3 and m, M denote smallest and greatest value of expression
( x + y + 3)
2
− 9 respectively, then
A) m = −9 B) M = 16 C) m = −8 D) M = 12

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 x +1  
41. Let f ( x ) = cos −1  ℓn    , then which of the following statement(s) is/are correct
  x 
A) Domain of f(x) contains ( −∞, −1) ∪ (1, ∞ )

B) Range of f(x) contains 0,


1 
 e − 1 

C) Domain of f(x) is  −∞,


e   1 
 ∪ ,∞
 1 − e   e − 1 
D) Range if f(x) is ( −∞, −1] ∪ (1, ∞ )
42. Let f1 : ( −∞, 0 ) → R,f 2 : ( −∞, 0 ) → R and f3 : (1, ∞ ) → R be functions defined by
f1 ( x ) = e x − − x , f 2 ( x ) = − x + | x | and f3 ( x ) = e1− x − x − 1 . Then choose the correct
option(s)
A) f1 ( x ) is increasing function but f 2 ( x ) and f3 ( x ) are decreasing functions
B) f1 ( x ) is decreasing function but f 2 ( x ) is increasing function
C) f 2 ( x ) and f3 ( x ) are decreasing functions
D) f 2 ( x ) is decreasing function but f1 ( x ) and f3 ( x ) are increasing functions
SECTION 2
This section contains EIGHT (08) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the correct numerical value
(in decimal notation, truncated/rounded -off to the second decimal place; e.g. 6.25, 7.00, -0.33, -.30, 30.27, - 127.30) using the mouse and the on- screen
virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking
scheme: Full Marks: +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered as answer. Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

43. Value of 1.20 C0.30 C0 + 2.20 C1.30 C1 + 3.20 C2.30 C2 + ...... + 21.20 C20.30 C20 is 50 C20 + 20.49 Cq (where q is
q
even number), then is equal to
q +1

dy
44. For the differential equation − y = 1 − e x , y ( 0 ) = y0 , where y 0 is a finite number and
dx

y is finite for x → ∞ then value of y0 is equal to


45. f : R → R + be a differentiable function and satisfies 3f ( x + y ) = f ( x ) .f ( y ) ∀x, y ∈ R with

6
f (1) = 6 , then value of 2
is equal to
∫ f ( x ) dx
1

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46. If α , β , γ are distinct integers, then maximum value of ∆ is equal to,
3α 2 α 2 + αβ + β2 α 2 + αγ + γ 2
where ∆ = β2 + αβ + α 2 3β2 β2 + βγ + γ 2
γ 2 + αγ + α 2 γ 2 + βγ + β2 3γ 2

x −2 y+ 2 z −5
47. The line L : = = intersect the plane 2x − 3y + 4z = 163 at point P and
1 −3 2

intersect the yz-plane at point Q. If the length of PQ is a b where a, b ∈ N and a > 3 ,


a
then value of is equal to
b

48. Pyramid OABCD has square ABCD as base. Edges OA, OB, OC and OD are equal in
length and ∠AOB = 45° . If length of the side of the square base is 2 2 and volume
9V 2
of pyramid is V, then is equal to
256

49. The length of focal chord of the parabola y 2 − 8x − 2y − 7 = 0 which passes through

the point P  , 0  is equal to


7
4  

50. Let A, B and C are pairwise independent events where A ∩ B ∩ C = φ (Null set) and
1 1
P ( C ) > 0 . If P ( A ) = , P ( B ) = , then P ( ( A ∪ B ) | C ) is equal to
3 2

(where P(X) denotes probability of occurrence of event X)


SECTION 3
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has TWO (02) matching lists: LIST-I and LIST-II. FOUR options are given representing
matching of elements from LIST-I and LIST-II. ONLY ONE of these four options corresponds to a correct matching.For each question, choose the option
corresponding to the correct matching. For each question, marks will be awarded according to the following marking scheme: Full Marks: +3 If ONLY
the option corresponding to the correct matching is chosen. Zero Marks:0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks: -1 In all other cases.
π
51. If a curve f ( x, y, a, b ) = 0 is given by sin −1 x + cos −1 ay + cos −1 ( bxy ) =
2

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below
the list

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 21-09-2020_ Sr.ICON ALL&LT-Prog-I&II,All_INDIA_e-TEST_SERIES _Jee-ADV(2018-P2)_AFT-18_Q.P
List – I List - II
P) if a = 1, b =2, then 1) (1 − x )(1 − y ) = x y
2 2 2 2

Q) if a = 2, b = 1, then 2) a + b = 8
R) if a = 0, b = 1, then 3) dy  y2 + 1 
= −  , x, y ∈ R 0
dx  xy 

S) if a = b and area bounded by 4) x 2 + 4y 2 = 1 + 3x 2 y 2


rectangle formed by f(x,y,a,b) = 0 is
1 sq. unit, then
A) P → 1; Q → 4; R → 2; S → 1 ; B) P → 1; Q → 4; R → 3; S → 2;
C) P → 4; Q → 1; R → 3; S → 2 ; D) P → 4 ; Q → 1 ; R → 3 ; S → 1 ;
52. Let A and B are non singular square matrices of order 3 × 3 such that B is adjoint of
A and A −1A T =| A | B−1
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given
below the list.
List – I List - II
P) A is equal to 1) 1

Q) B is equal to 2) A = I

R) If A is symmetric matrix then 3) A 3 = I


S) If A is orthogonal matrix then 4) B = I
5) B3 = I
6) −1
where X denote determinant of matrix X and I is identity matrix

A) P → 1 ; Q → 6 ; R → 2,4 ; S → 3,5 ; B) P → 6; Q → 6; R → 4,5 ; S → 2,3 ;


C) P → 6; Q → 6 ; R → 2,3 ; S → 4,5 ; D) P → 1; Q → 1; R → 2,3,4,5 ; S → 3,5 ;
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2 2
x y
53. Let H : − = 1 , where a, b > 0 be a hyperbola in the xy-plane whose centre is C,
a 2 b2

one of the foci is F1 . Foot of perpendicular from F1 upon line L : bx − ay = 0 is P.

Triangle CF1P is isosceles triangle whose area is 8 sq. units.

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below

the list.

List – I List - II

P) The length of transverse axis of H is 1) 4 2

Q) The eccentricity of H is 2) 1

R) The slope of L is 3) 4

S) The distance between directrices of 4) 2

H is

5) 8

A) P → 4; Q → 5 ; R → 2; S → 1 ; B) P → 5; Q → 4; R → 2; S → 1 ;

C) P → 5; Q → 4; R → 2 ; S → 3 ; D) P → 5; Q → 3 ; R → 2; S → 1;

54. Let z = x + iy be a complex number such that z = 1, where i = −1

Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given

below the list.

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 21-09-2020_ Sr.ICON ALL&LT-Prog-I&II,All_INDIA_e-TEST_SERIES _Jee-ADV(2018-P2)_AFT-18_Q.P
List - I List - II
P)  iz 
Re  is equal to 1) 0
2 
 1+ z 

Q)  iz 
Im  can be equal to 2) 1
2 
 1+ z 

R) Number of integers NOT in the range of Im  


is
iz 3) 1
2 
 1+ z  2

equal
S) 1  iz 
arg  is equal to where −π < arg ( z ) ≤ π ) 4) − 1
2 
2π  1+ z  2

5) − 1
4

6) 1
4

A) P → 1; Q → 2,3,4; R → 2; S → 5,6 ;
B) P → 1; Q → 3,4 ; R → 3 ; S → 6 ;
C) P → 1; Q → 2; R → 2; S → 4,5,6;
D) P → 2; Q → 2,3,4; R → 2; S → 5,6 ;

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