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FORMAL EXAMINATION PERIOD: SESSION 1, JUNE 2018

Unit Code: BIOL257

Unit Name: Neurophysiology

Duration of Exam 2 hours and 30 minutes (plus 10 minutes reading time)

(including reading time if applicable):

Total No. of Questions: 48

Total No. of Pages 9

(including this cover sheet):

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS TO STUDENTS:

• Students are required to follow directions given by the Final Examination Supervisor and must refrain from communicating in any way with another student once they have entered
the final examination venue.
• Students may not write or mark the exam materials in any way during reading time.
• Students may only access authorised materials during this examination. A list of authorised material is available on this cover sheet.
• All watches must be removed and placed at the top of the exam desk and must remain there for the duration of the exam. All alarms, notifications and alerts must be switched off.
• Students are not permitted to leave the exam room during the first hour (excluding reading time) and during the last 15 minutes of the examination.
• If it is alleged you have breached these rules at any time during the examination, the matter may be reported to a University Discipline Committee for determination.

EXAMINATION INSTRUCTIONS:

This examination consists of:

• 40 multiple choice questions (MCQ) worth one mark each.
Please enter your answer to each multiple choice question into the computer-readable multiple
choice answer sheet provided.
• Two sections of short answer questions (SAQ). Each section contains 4 questions and you must
answer 3 of these for each section, i.e. you will answer 6 questions in total. Each question is worth
10 marks each.
Answers to short answer questions should be completed in the examination booklet provided. You
may use diagrams in your answer but these should supplement and not replace a full written
answer.

Grand total = 40 (MCQ) + 60 (SAQ) = 100 marks

AIDS AND MATERIALS PERMITTED/NOT PERMITTED:

Dictionaries: No dictionaries permitted
Calculators: Non-programmable calculators with no text storage/retrieval capacity permitted
Other: Closed book – No notes or textbooks permitted
Multiple choice questions:

1) If an action potential takes 100 milliseconds to travel 20 centimetres along an axon, what is the
conduction velocity of the axon in metres per second (m s-1)?
a. 200
b. 20
c. 2
d. 0.2
e. 0.02

2) What would be the equilibrium potential EX (to the nearest mV) of monovalent cation X+ if it had an
extracellular concentration of 4mM and an intracellular concentration of 120mM at body temperature
(36°C)?
61.3 [X]
NB: The simplified Nernst Equation for a system at body temperature (36°C) is: EX = log10 � [X]OUT �
𝑧𝑧 IN

a. -91
b. -66
c. -9
d. +15
e. +66

3) The __________ phase of the action potential is triggered by the delayed closure of voltage-gated
___________ channels and the delayed opening of voltage-gated __________ channels.
a. depolarisation; sodium; potassium
b. repolarisation; potassium; sodium
c. depolarisation; calcium; sodium
d. repolarisation; sodium; potassium
e. hyperpolarisation; potassium; sodium

4) When a neurotransmitter binds to a typical metabotropic receptor, the receptor protein activates what
type of intracellular signalling protein to bring about a cellular response?
a. M-protein
b. G-protein
c. L-protein
d. Z-protein
e. B-protein

5) The opening of ionotropic non-specific cation channels typically causes ___________ of a neuron
because ___________ ions enter the cell faster than ___________ ions leave the cell through these
channels, due to the difference in the electrochemical forces operating on each ion.
a. hyperpolarisation; potassium (K+); sodium (Na+)
b. depolarisation; chloride (Cl-); potassium (K+)
c. hyperpolarisation; sodium (Na+); calcium (Ca2+)
d. depolarisation; potassium (K+); sodium (Na+)
e. depolarisation; sodium (Na+); potassium (K+)

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6) Sensitisation of the gill withdrawal reflex in Aplysia is a classic example of pre-synaptic facilitation that
increases the strength of the synapse between the sensory neuron and the motor neuron, and involves
which of the following?
a. Modulation of the sensory nerve by a serotonergic facilitatory interneuron
b. Phosphorylation of voltage-gated potassium (K+) channels in the synaptic terminal of the sensory
neuron that keeps them open longer and prolongs the depolarisation caused by an action potential
c. Reduced release of neurotransmitter from the sensory neuron onto the motor neuron
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c

7) Paired-pulse facilitation is a form of short-term homosynaptic plasticity that results in an increase in the
amplitude of the post-synaptic potential to successive action potentials because of an accumulation of
which ion in the presynaptic nerve terminal?
a. Calcium (Ca2+)
b. Chloride (Cl-)
c. Sodium (Na+)
d. Potassium (K+)
e. Magnesium (Mg2+)

8) Long term depression is a form of homosynaptic plasticity that reduces the strength of a synapse by
causing which type of ionotropic receptor/ion channel to be removed from the postsynaptic membrane?
a. MGluR6
b. AMPA
c. NMDA
d. PX2
e. GABAA

9) Which term describes the anatomical plane that separates the body or a structure into its left and right
halves?
a. Coronal
b. Transverse
c. Axial
d. Sagittal
e. Radial

10) Which structure in the hypothalamus is connected to the hippocampus via the fornix and is thought to
be involved in emotion and memory?
a. Suprachiasmatic nucleus
b. Paraventricular nucleus
c. Mammillary body
d. Supraoptic nucleus
e. Arcuate nucleus

11) The primary visual cortex (V1) is in which lobe of the brain?
a. Occipital
b. Frontal
c. Insula
d. Parietal
e. Temporal

3
12) Which limbic structure is thought to be particularly important in creating and storing implicit
(unconscious) memories of emotional events, especially those involving fear and anxiety?
a. Fornix
b. Hippocampus
c. Cingulate gyrus
d. Amygdala
e. Thalamus

13) Taste buds on the tongue are located on and around small raised bumps called:
a. Ampullae
b. Setae
c. Papillomas
d. Mushroom bodies
e. Papillae

14) Primary sensory afferents carrying taste signals from the tongue and palate synapse with secondary
afferent nerves in the gustatory area of the nucleus of the solitary tract in which part of the brainstem?
a. Pons
b. Medulla
c. Tectum
d. Midbrain
e. Hypothalamus

15) Which area of the forebrain is involved in the perception of flavour through the integration of various
sensory modalities including taste, smell, vision, and touch?
a. Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex
b. Orbitofrontal cortex
c. Ventrolateral prefrontal cortex
d. Medial prefrontal cortex
e. Caudal prefrontal cortex

16) Taste receptors that detect sour tastants work by detecting high concentrations of which ion dissolved
in the saliva?
a. H+
b. Na+
c. K+
d. Cl-
e. Ca2+

17) Which of the following statements about retinal bipolar cells is false?
a. There are both on-centre and off-centre subtypes
b. They respond to changes in the rate of glutamate released by photoreceptors
c. They have a centre-surround opponent receptive field
d. The generate action potentials when depolarised
e. They synapse with ganglion cells

4
18) In a visual pigment, which molecule embedded within the opsin protein undergoes a conformational
change when it absorbs a photon of light and thus initiates the visual process?
a. Inositol-3-phosphate
b. Cyclic GMP
c. Transducin
d. Phosphodiesterase
e. Retinal

19) When a photoreceptor is stimulated by light it becomes ___________ and the amount of _________
neurotransmitter released at the synaptic terminal ___________.
a. hyperpolarised; GABA; decreases
b. depolarised; GABA; increases
c. hyperpolarised; glutamate; decreases
d. hyperpolarised; glutamate; increases
e. depolarised; serotonin; decreases

20) Deflection of hair cell stereocilia towards the longest stereocilium causes which type of ion channels in
their membrane to open and bring about depolarisation of an auditory hair cell?
a. Voltage-gated sodium channels (VGSCs)
b. Mechano-electrical transduction (MET) channels
c. Ligand-gated potassium channels
d. Voltage-gated calcium channels (VGCCs)
e. Transient receptor Potential (TRP) channels

21) The semicircular canals in the bony labyrinth of the inner ear detect __________ motion of the head
through displacement of hair cells located on the ____________?
a. linear; macula
b. rotational; striola
c. vertical; matrix
d. rotational; crista ampullaris
e. linear; utricle

22) The ‘cochlear amplifier’ that helps to increase the sensitivity of the ear to sound depends on the
electromotility of which structure(s) in the inner ear?
a. Inner hair cells
b. Outer hair cells
c. Basilar membrane
d. Tympanic membrane
e. Otic ossicles

23) Local anaesthetics such as Lidocaine work by blocking which type of membrane channel in
nociceptors?
a. Transient Receptor Potential (TRP) channels
b. Voltage-gated potassium (KV) channels
c. Ionotropic glutamate receptor (MGluR6) channels
d. Ligand-gated chloride (GABAA) channels
e. Voltage-gated sodium (NaV) channels

5
24) What term describes a painful sensation in response to a normally non-painful stimulus?
a. Synaesthesia
b. Allodynia
c. Hypoalgesia
d. Parodynia
e. Hyperalgesia

25) Which of the following statements about cutaneous nociceptors is/are true?
a. They have a steady spontaneous firing rate
b. They have a lower activation threshold compared to non-nociceptive receptors
c. They are free nerve endings
d. both a and c
e. both b and c

26) Non-nociceptive mechanoreceptors in the skin send predominantly which type of fibre (axon) to the
spinal cord?
a. A-alpha
b. A-beta
c. A-delta
d. B
e. C

27) The primary somatosensory cortex is located on which gyrus?

a. Postcentral gyrus
b. Parahippocampal gyrus
c. Precentral gyrus
d. Cingulate gyrus
e. Superior temporal gyrus

28) Which of the following body regions is likely to have the greatest tactile acuity (i.e. the smallest two-
point discrimination threshold)?
a. Inner thigh
b. Palm of hand
c. Lips
d. Lower back
e. Finger tips

29) Which cranial nerve is the principal somatosensory nerve of the head and conveys somatic sensory
information from the face, nose, and teeth?
a. Trochlear (IV)
b. Trigeminal (V)
c. Abducens (VI)
d. Facial (VII)
e. Glossopharyngeal (IX)

6
30) A Renshaw loop is a negative feedback circuit that serves to modulate the activity of which type of
neuron found in the grey matter of the spinal cord?
a. Upper motor neurons
b. Primary sensory afferents
c. Lower motor neurons
d. Inhibitory interneurons
e. Secondary sensory afferents

31) During an isotonic muscle contraction which of the following is constant?

a. Muscle length
b. Muscle tension
c. The amount of overlap of the actin and myosin filaments
d. both a and b
e. both a and c

32) In the somatic motor system, which neurotransmitter is released by lower motor neurons at the
neuromuscular synapse?
a. Acetylcholine
b. Glutamate
c. GABA
d. Dopamine
e. Glycine

33) Slow oxidative (Type I) muscle fibres are generally _________ in diameter, have a ________force
generating capacity, and are _______ resistant to fatigue than fast glycolytic (Type IIb) muscle fibres.
a. smaller; higher; less
b. larger; lower; more
c. larger; higher; less
d. smaller; lower; more
e. smaller; lower; less

34) Twitch summation occurs when:

a. A build-up of lactic acid causes spontaneous contraction of a muscle fibre.
b. A single upper motor neuron stimulates multiple motor units simultaneously.
c. A single muscle fibre is stimulated again shortly after it has completely relaxed following a previous
stimulus.
d. A single lower motor neuron stimulates multiple muscle fibres simultaneously.
e. A single muscle fibre is stimulated again before it has completely relaxed after a previous stimulus.

35) Sympathetic stimulation of the cardiovascular system causes:

a. increased vasoconstriction
b. increased heart rate
c. increased arterial blood pressure
d. both b and c
e. a, b, and c

7
36) Parasympathetic outflow from the cardiovascular centres in the medulla that regulate blood pressure
as part of the baroreceptor reflex travels to the heart via which nerve?
a. Glossopharyngeal nerve
b. Vagus nerve
c. Cardiac accelerator nerve
d. Hypoglossal nerve
e. Accessory nerve

37) Which part of the hypothalamus regulates autonomic outflow to the body by coordinating the activities
of the central autonomic network?
a. Supraoptic nucleus
b. Pulvinar
c. Paraventricular nucleus
d. Medial geniculate nucleus
e. Arcuate nucleus

38) Parasympathetic postganglionic neurons release which neurotransmitter onto their target cells?
a. Serotonin
b. Norepinephrine
c. Epinephrine
d. Acetylcholine
e. Dopamine

39) Which of the following hormones is released from the posterior pituitary gland?
a. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH / vasopressin)
b. Prolactin
c. Growth hormone (GH)
d. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
e. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)

40) Which of the following types of neuroendocrine hormone are synthesised by the adrenal cortex?
a. Mineralocorticoids
b. Catecholamines
c. Glucocorticoids
d. both a and b
e. both a and c

8
Short answer questions

Answer 3 questions from a choice of 4 for each of the 2 sections, i.e. 6 questions in total

Section 1 – Answer 3 from a choice of 4 questions in this section:

1) Explain how the resting membrane potential of a neuron is established and maintained. Include in your
answer a discussion of the functional properties of the cell membrane and the composition of the
intracellular and extracellular fluids.

2) Describe the two different types of hearing loss that may occur in the human auditory system and
explain some of the potential causes of each type of hearing loss. Include in your answer a description
of some simple tests that can be conducted to assess and diagnose the type and location of the hearing
loss.

3) Explain the different factors that influence the acuity (resolution) of tactile perception and the ability to
localise tactile stimuli. Include in your answer a discussion of the different types of tactile receptor in the
skin, the mechanism of lateral inhibition as it relates to tactile acuity, and a simple test that can be used
to measure the tactile acuity of different parts of the body.

4) Explain how an odour stimulus is transduced into a neural signal and how this signal is transmitted to
the olfactory areas of the brain. Include in your answer a discussion of the receptors involved, the
transduction process and the associated neural pathways.

Section 2 – Answer 3 from a choice of 4 questions in this section:

5) Explain how a non-painful thermal stimulus is transduced into a neural signal, coded, and transmitted to
the brain. Include in your answer a discussion of the receptors involved, the transduction process and
the associated neural pathways.

6) Compare and contrast the mechanisms of stimulation and excitation-contraction coupling in skeletal and
cardiac muscle fibres.

7) Explain the role of the striatum and basal ganglia in coordinating motor activity. Include in your answer
a discussion of the direct and indirect basal ganglia circuits that control movement.

8) Compare and contrast the mechanisms of action of lipophilic and hydrophilic hormones on
neuroendocrine target cells in terms of the type of receptors activated and the cellular signalling
pathways involved.