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FORMAL EXAMINATION PERIOD: SESSION 1, JUNE 2019

Unit Code: BIOL257

Unit Name: Neurophysiology

Duration of Exam 2 hours and 30 minutes (plus 10 minutes reading time)

(including reading time if applicable):

Total No. of Questions: 48

Total No. of Pages 9

(including this cover sheet):

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS TO STUDENTS:

• Students are required to follow directions given by the Final Examination Supervisor and must refrain from communicating in any way with another student once they have entered
the final examination venue.
• Students may not write or mark the exam materials in any way during reading time.
• Students may only access authorised materials during this examination. A list of authorised material is available on this cover sheet.
• All watches must be removed and placed at the top of the exam desk and must remain there for the duration of the exam. All alarms, notifications and alerts must be switched off.
• Students are not permitted to leave the exam room during the first hour (excluding reading time) and during the last 15 minutes of the examination.
• If it is alleged you have breached these rules at any time during the examination, the matter may be reported to a University Discipline Committee for determination.

EXAMINATION INSTRUCTIONS:

This examination consists of:

• 40 multiple choice questions (MCQ) worth one mark each.
Please enter your answer to each multiple-choice question into the computer-readable multiple-
choice answer sheet provided.
• Two sections of short answer questions (SAQ). Each section contains 4 questions and you must
answer 3 of these for each section, i.e. you will answer 6 questions in total. Each question is worth
10 marks each.
Answers to short answer questions should be completed in the examination booklet provided. You
may use diagrams in your answer, but these should supplement and not replace a written answer.

Grand total = 40 (MCQ) + 60 (SAQ) = 100 marks

AIDS AND MATERIALS PERMITTED/NOT PERMITTED:

Dictionaries: No dictionaries permitted
Calculators: No calculators permitted
Other: Closed book – No notes or textbooks permitted
Multiple-choice questions

1) Which of the following is responsible for the absolute refractory period of a patch of membrane during
the generation of an action potential?
a) Rapid opening of voltage-gated chloride channel activation gates
b) Closure of voltage-gated sodium channel inactivation gates
c) Closure of voltage-gated potassium channel activation gates
d) Closure of voltage-gated sodium channel activation gates
e) Closure of potassium leak channels

2) In the short term, what would happen to a spiking neuron if the concentration of potassium ions in the
extracellular fluid was increased while the concentration inside the cell stayed the same?
a) The resting membrane potential would become more negative
b) The electrochemical force driving potassium out of the cell would increase
c) Voltage-gated potassium channels would close
d) The permeability of the membrane to potassium would decrease
e) The resting membrane potential would become more positive and move closer to threshold

3) Ligand-gated ion channels are also known as ____________ receptors.

a) Ionotropic
b) Allotropic
c) Isotropic
d) Metabotropic
e) Neurotropic

4) A drug that is similar enough to an endogenous neurotransmitter that it binds to the receptor on the
postsynaptic membrane, but is not similar enough to activate the receptor and instead blocks it, is
known as a what?
a) agonist
b) antagonist
c) synergist
d) protagonist
e) aniconist

5) Which of the following would result in an increase in the conduction velocity of an axon?
a) An increase in axon diameter
b) A decrease in internal resistance
c) A decrease in membrane resistance
d) Both a and b
e) Both b and c

6) Axons that cross the midline of the brain and allow communication between the left and right cerebral
hemispheres are known as what type of fibre?
a) Projection fibres
b) Association fibres
c) Arcuate fibres
d) Longitudinal fasciculi
e) Commissural fibres

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7) Which tract conveys pain and temperature information from the body to the brain that is perceived
consciously?
a) Dorsal column-medial lemniscal tract
b) Cuneate fasciculus
c) Anterior spinothalamic tract
d) Lateral spinothalamic tract
e) Spinocerebellar tract

8) Non-nociceptive thermoreceptors located in the skin are ____________ and are __________
receptors that adapt ___________ to a constant thermal stimulus.
a) free nerve endings; phasic; rapidly
b) encapsulated endings; tonic; rapidly
c) free nerve endings; tonic; slowly
d) encapsulated endings; phasic, slowly
e) free nerve endings; tonic; rapidly

9) Which of the following taste sensations is triggered when hydrogen (H+) ions block potassium (K+)
channels on the apical membrane of type III pre-synaptic taste cells?
a) Sweet
b) Sour
c) Salty
d) Bitter
e) Umami

10) The primary olfactory cortex that is responsible for odour recognition is also known as the piriform
cortex and is located on the _________ lobe of the forebrain.
a) frontal
b) occipital
c) parietal
d) insular
e) temporal

11) Which of the following types of retinal neuron are spiking neurons that generate action potentials?
a) Photoreceptors
b) Bipolar cells
c) Ganglion cells
d) Amacrine cells
e) Horizontal cells

12) Centre-surround opponent receptive fields in the retina are generated when _____________ provide
lateral inhibition by releasing the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA onto photoreceptor synaptic
terminals.
a) Ganglion cells
b) Horizontal cells
c) Müller cells
d) Amacrine cells
e) Bipolar cells

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13) Detection of small differences in visual stimulus contrast would be worst at which of the following
temporal frequencies?
a) 5 Hz
b) 10 Hz
c) 15 Hz
d) 20 Hz
e) 35 Hz

14) Weak electric fields are detected by sharks using which structures?
a) Photoreceptors
b) Ampullae of Lorenzini
c) Ossicles
d) Cryptochromes
e) Neuromasts

15) In cetaceans (dolphins, whales, etc.), during echolocation the returning echo is captured initially by
which structure?
a) Lower jaw
b) Melon
c) Inner ear
d) Swim bladder
e) Nasal sac

16) The semicircular canals of the dynamic labyrinth in the inner ear detect ____________ motion of the
head using hair cells located on the ____________ at the base of each canal.
a) linear; saccule
b) rotational; striola
c) vertical; matrix
d) rotational; crista ampullaris
e) linear; utricle

17) Which of the following is not true of the static labyrinth in the inner ear?
a) Sensory hair cells are borne on a structure called the macula
b) The apical stereocilia of sensory hair cells are embedded in a calcareous gelatinous mass
c) Sensory hair cells are arranged in patches with opposing directional sensitivity
d) Displacement of the hair cell stereocilia towards the kinocilium causes hyperpolarisation of the
hair cell and a reduction in neurotransmitter release
e) The hair cells synapse with primary sensory afferent neurons that travel via CN VIII to the brain

18) Sensory afferent fibres from the dynamic and static labyrinths travel to which structure in the
brainstem that coordinates balance and equilibrium?
a) Vestibular nucleus
b) Superior olive
c) Inferior colliculus
d) Rostral ventrolateral medulla
e) Dentate nucleus

4
19) The recognition of objects by their shape, size and texture using touch alone is called:
a) Stenosis
b) Sclerosis
c) Stereognosis
d) Selenosis
e) Semiosis

20) The _____________ is important for the formation and storage of explicit spatial memories and is
significantly enlarged in London black cab taxi drivers who are required to memorize hundreds of
distinct road routes as part of their job.
a) Amygdala
b) Cingulate gyrus
c) Medulla
d) Epithalamus
e) Hippocampus

21) The structures that anchors the thin filaments and define the boundaries of each sarcomere within a
skeletal muscle myofibril are called what?
a) Z-discs
b) M-lines
c) Intercalated discs
d) T-tubules
e) Terminal buttons

22) Which ion species is responsible for regulating excitation-contraction coupling and cross-bridge
binding in skeletal muscle?
a) Sodium (Na+)
b) Potassium (K+)
c) Magnesium (Mg2+)
d) Chloride (Cl-)
e) Calcium (Ca2+)

23) The thick filaments found in skeletal muscle are made of which protein?
a) Titin
b) Nebulin
c) Actin
d) Myosin
e) Troponin

24) The concept of the Final Common Pathway applies to which neuronal type in the somatic motor
system?
a) Lower motor neurons
b) Renshaw cells
c) Sensory afferent fibres
d) Upper motor neurons
e) Inhibitory interneurons

5
25) During the crossbridge cycle of muscle contraction, the binding of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to
the globular myosin head first causes which of the following?
a) Movement of tropomyosin to expose the myosin binding site on the actin molecule
b) Myosin head to bind to actin
c) Myosin head to swing forward pulling actin toward the M-line
d) Myosin head to detach from actin
e) Myosin head to be cocked into its high-energy state

26) Which of the following muscle types is myogenic?

a) Skeletal muscle
b) Single unit smooth muscle
c) Multi-unit smooth muscle
d) a and c
e) b and c

27) The Achilles tendon or ankle-jerk reflex can be used as a simple test of the integrity of the somatic
motor reflex loop that involves predominantly which spinal cord segment?
a) C5
b) C6
c) C7
d) L4
e) S1

28) The primary motor cortex is located in which part of the telencephalon?
a) Parietal lobe
b) Temporal lobe
c) Frontal lobe
d) Occipital lobe
e) Insular lobe

29) Which of the following descending motor pathways is primarily responsible for voluntary control of
distal muscles to provide fine motor skills of the hands?
a) Corticobulbar tract
b) Reticulospinal tract
c) Tectospinal tract
d) Vestibulospinal tract
e) Corticospinal tract

30) Which cells are the sole source of output from the cerebellar cortex and provide inhibitory feedback to
the deep nuclei?
a) Granule cells
b) Basket cells
c) Spiny cells
d) Purkinje cells
e) Golgi cells

6
31) Concerning the role of basal ganglia circuits in the control of movement:
a) Excitation of the direct pathway inhibits movement
b) Dopaminergic inputs to the striatum decrease activation of the motor cortex
c) Feedback from the basal ganglia is relayed to the motor cortex via the thalamus
d) Excitation of the indirect pathway stimulates movement
e) The basal ganglia are not involved in the control of movement

32) Which excitatory neurotransmitter is released by preganglionic neurons in the autonomic nervous
system?
a) Glutamate
b) Serotonin
c) Acetylcholine
d) Norepinephrine
e) Glycine

33) The cell bodies of autonomic preganglionic neurons are located in which part of the nervous
system?
a) Dorsal horn of the spinal cord
b) Lateral horn of the spinal cord
c) Ventral horn of the spinal cord
d) Sympathetic chain ganglia
e) Prevertebral ganglia

34) At the neuroeffector junctions of the autonomic nervous system, the influx of which ion into the
presynaptic varicosity causes exocytosis of neurotransmitter onto target organs?
a) Sodium (Na+)
b) Chloride (Cl-)
c) Potassium (K+)
d) Calcium (Ca2+)
e) Magnesium (Mg2+)

35) Increased sympathetic outflow would cause which of the following?

a) Increased respiration rate
b) Decreased heart rate
c) Increased gastrointestinal activity
d) Decreased blood pressure
e) Constriction of airways to reduce water loss

36) To modulate cardiac output in response to changes in blood pressure, parasympathetic outflow from
the cardiovascular centres in the medulla travels to the heart via which cranial nerve?
a) CN V (trigeminal)
b) CN IX (glossopharyngeal)
c) CN X (vagus)
d) CN XI (accessory)
e) CN XII (hypoglossal)

7
37) Catecholamine-releasing chromaffin cells are located in which neuroendocrine gland?
a) Thyroid gland
b) Pituitary gland
c) Thymus gland
d) Adrenal gland
e) Pineal gland

38) Which of the following is not true of hydrophilic hormones released by neuroendocrine glands in the
human body?
a) Dissolve freely in the aqueous blood
b) Cross the plasma membrane via simple diffusion to bind to DNA hormone response elements in
target cells
c) Are secreted from synthesising cells via exocytosis
d) Cause a relatively short-lived effect compared to lipophilic hormones
e) Usually result in the opening or closure of membrane ion channels via metabotropic receptors

39) Which structure in the diencephalon releases tropic hormones that control the release of tropic
hormones by the anterior pituitary gland?
a) Nucleus of the solitary tract
b) Striatum
c) Superior colliculus
d) Hypothalamus
e) Tegmentum

40) Which of the following hormones is not released from the anterior pituitary gland?
a) Thyroid-stimulating hormone
b) Prolactin
c) Growth hormone
d) Follicle-stimulating hormone
e) Oxytocin

8
Short answer questions

Answer 3 questions from a choice of 4 for each of the 2 sections, i.e. 6 questions in total

Section 1 – Answer 3 from a choice of 4 questions in this section:

1) Explain how an action potential is generated at the axon hillock of a spiking neuron and how it is
propagated along a myelinated axon without decrement. Include in your answer a detailed description
of the ionic mechanisms involved in this process.

2) Describe 3 different ways in which the strength of an individual synapse between two neurons can be
altered (i.e. become weaker or stronger).

3) Describe the processes behind sensitization in pain receptors and pain pathways.

4) Explain how a light stimulus falling on the retina is transduced into a neural signal and transmitted to
the higher centres of the brain. Include in your answer a description of the receptors and neural
pathways involved.

Section 2 – Answer 3 from a choice of 4 questions in this section:

5) Starting at the cochlea, explain how a sound stimulus is transduced into a neural signal and transmitted
to the brain. Include in your answer a description of the biomechanical properties of the cochlea, the
receptors involved, and the unusual ionic mechanisms involved in the process.

6) Describe the structure and function of the neuromuscular junction.

7) Explain (a) the difference between Upper Motor Neurons (UMN) and Lower Motor Neurons (LMN) in
terms of their anatomical location and function; and (b) the difference in clinical symptoms that arise
from damage or lesions to either UMNs or LMNs.

8) The HPA axis is critical for managing our response to stress. Explain how this neuroendocrine axis is
activated, the key structures and pathways involved, and the physiological outcomes that result.