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CSS-07
PHYSICS
Q. 1. (Distance between Celestial Bodies)
1. The maximum distance of the earth from the
sun is called
(1) Apogee (2) Perigee
(3) Aphelion (4) Perihelion
2. The minimum distance of the satellite from the The gravitational potential at the origin due to
earth is called the masses is
(1) Apogee (2) Perigee (1) – 3G (2) – 2G
(3) Aphelion (4) Perihelion (3) – 4G (4) – G/4
3. The maximum distance of the satellite from the 4. There are infinite number of particles placed on
earth is called circumference of a circle of radius 2 m centered
at the origin. The sum of masses of the particles
(1) Apogee (2) Perigee
is equal to 1 kg. The gravitational potential at
(3) Aphelion (4) Perihelion the origin is
4. Helios, the Greek word on which various words (1) – G2 (2) –G
like Helium, Perihelion, Aphelion are derived
(3) – 4G (4) – 0.5G
refers to
5. An infinite number of particles of equal mass m
(1) Sun God (in Greek Culture) each are kept at (1,1), (2, 2), (4, 4), (8, 8),... The
(2) Earth gravitational potential at x = 0 is
(3) Moon (all the coordinates are in m)

(4) Mars (1) – 2Gm (2) – Gm

Q9. (Gravitational Potential) (3) – 2 Gm (3) – Gm/2

1. An infinite number of particles of equal mass m Q.19. (Moduli of Elasticity)

are kept at x = +1 m, +2 m, +4 m, +8 m…The 1. Which one of the following substances possess
gravitational potential at x = 0 is the highest elasticity?
(1) – 2 Gm (2) – 4 Gm (1) Rubber (2) Glass

(3) Zero (4) – Gm/4 (3) Steel (4) Copper

2. Among the following, the material which has
2. Gravitational potential is a
lowest tensile strength is
(1) Scalar Quantity (1) Copper (2) Iron (wrought)
(2) Vector Quantity (3) Steel (4) Bone
(3) Always Positive 3. Among the following, the one which has lowest
(4) Always Zero shear moduli is for
(1) Brass (2) Glass
3. Four particles of are placed on x axis with their
masses and locations indicated in the following (3) Lead (4) Nickel
figure.

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CSS-07 Physics

4. Among the following given liquids, the one and its weight is negligible. The surface tension
which has least bulk modulus is of liquid film is
(1) Water (2) Ethanol
(3) Glycerine (4) Mercury
Q.12. (Gravitational Potential)
1. Four masses each of m are placed at the
vertices of a square of side l. The gravitational
potential at the intersection of diagonals is

(1) 0.2 Nm–1 (2) 0.5 Nm–1

(3) 0.05 Nm–1 (4) 0.25 Nm–1
2. The force required to pull a circular light flat
plate of radius 5 cm on the surface of water is
(Surface tension of water 75 dyne/cm)
– 2 G(m) – 4G ( m ) (1) 250 dyne (2) 750  dyne
(1) (2)
l l (3) 500  dyne (4) 300  dyne
− 32 G ( m ) – G (m) 3. Two glass plates are separated by water. Its
(3) (4)
l 4l surface tension is 72 dyne per cm and area of
2. A particle of mass m is placed at the centre of plate wetted by water is 10 cm2 and distance
uniform shell of mass 2m and radius R. The between the plates is 0.12 mm, then force
gravitational potential on the surface of the shell applied to separate two plates is.
is (1) 1.2 × 105 dyne (2) 1.5 × 105 dyne
2Gm − 3Gm (3) 0.6 × 105 dyne (4) 3.2 × 105 dyne
(1) (2)
R R 4. A needle is 7.5 cm long. Assuming that needle
– Gm is not wetted by water, how heavy can it be and
(3) (4) Zero
2R still floated on water?
3. A particle of mass 2M is placed at centre of a
(S.T. of water 70 dyne/cm)
spherical shell of mass M and radius R. The
gravitational potential at a point situated at R/2 (1) 1.9 g wt (2) 1.07 g wt
distance from the centre will be (3) 1.05 g wt (4) 1.42 g wt
– 2 GM – 5GM 5. A square wire frame of side L is dipped in a
1) (2)
3R R liquid. On taking out a membrane is formed. If
–5GM 3 GM surface tension of liquid is S, the force acting on
(3) (4) – one arm of the frame will be
2R R
4. Two small masses m and 4m are separated by (1) 2 SL (2) 4 SL
a distance r. Gravitational potential on line (3) 8 SL (4) 5 SL
joining them where gravitational intensity is Q.37. (Refrigerator coefficient of performance)
zero, will be 1. Theory of refrigerator is based on
9Gm 6Gm
(1) – (2) − (1) Joule Thomson effect
r r (2) Newton’s particle theory
Gm 5Gm (3) Joule’s effect
(3) − (4) –
5r r
(4) Clausius’s statement
5. Infinite number of particles each of mass 2 kg
2. A refrigerator has coefficient of performance 3.
are situated on x axis at distance ± 1 m, ± 2m,
How much work must be supplied to refrigerator
± 4 m, ± 8 m, …… respectively, from the origin.
in order to remove 300 joule of heat from its
The resulting gravitational potential due to this
interior.
system at the origin will be
(1) 900 J (2) 600 J
4 8G
(1) − G (2) − (3) 100 J (4) 50 J
3 3
(3) – 8 G (4) – 2 G 3. A refrigerator is working between – 9°C and
Q.22. (Surface Tension) 27°C. If energy spent per cycle is 400 J. How
1. A thin liquid film formed between U shaped wire much heat is extracted by refrigerator per cycle.
and light slider support a weight of 2 × 10–2 N, (1) 2934 J (2) 362 J
as shown in figure, the length of slider is 20 cm (3) 512 J (4) 1236 J

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CSS-07 Physics

4. A refrigerator is to maintain eatable kept inside

at 9°C. If room temperature is 30°C, its
coefficient of performance is
(1) 10.6 (2) 13.4 (2)
(3) 12.2 (4) 1.2
1
5. A refrigerator with coefficient of performance
3
releases 200 J of heat to a hot reservoir. The
work done on working substance is
(1) 100 J (2) 120 J
(3) 150 J (4) 90 J
Q.39. (Cyclic Works Thermodynamic Process)
1. The isothermal diagram of gas at three different (3)
temperatures T1, T2, T3 is shown in figure. Then

(4)
(1) T1 < T2 > T3 (2) T2 > T3 > T1
(3) T3 > T1 > T2 (4) T2 > T1 > T3
2. The given P-V diagram is compression of a gas.
which of the following statement is true?
4. P–T diagram during thermodynamic process is
shown below. Choose the corresponding V-T
diagram

(1) A represents isochoric process (1)

(2) B represents adiabatic process and C as
isothermal process
(3) C represents adiabatic process and B
represents isothermal process
(2)
(4) Both B and C are isothermal processes
3. One mole of an ideal gas goes from initial state
A to final state B via two processes. It first
undergoes isothermal expansion from volume V
to 3V and then its volume is reduced from 3 V
to V at constant pressure. The correct PV
diagram is (3)

(1)

(4)

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5. An ideal gas undergoes a thermodynamic cyclic
process as shown in figure. Which of the
following statements is correct.
3. A block is submerged in a vessel filled with
water by a spring attached to the bottom of the
vessel as shown in figure. The vessel now
speed up in downward direction with
acceleration a (a < g). The buoyant force of the
block

(1) During process BC, work done by gas is

positive
(2) During process AB, temperature decreases
(1) Increase
while during process BC it increases
(2) Decrease
(3) During process CA, work is done by the gas
(3) Remains same
and heat energy is released by gas
(4) First increase then decrease
(4) Work done during cyclic process ABCA is
negative 4. A block is submerged in a vessel filled with
water by a spring attached to the bottom of the
Q.16. (Archimedes' Principle)
vessel as shown in figure. The vessel now
1. A block is submerged in a vessel filled with speed up in upward direction with acceleration
water by a spring attached to the bottom of the a. The buoyant force of the block
vessel as shown in figure. In equilibrium, spring
is compressed. The vessel now speed up in
upward direction with an acceleration a. The
length of the spring will

(1) Increase
(2) Decrease

(1) Increase (3) Remains same

(2) Decrease (4) First increase then decrease

(3) Remains unchanged
(4) First increase then decrease
2. A block is submerged in a vessel filled with
water by a spring attached to the bottom of the
vessel as shown in figure. In equilibrium, spring
is compressed. The vessel now moving
downward with constant velocity V. The length
of the spring well
5. A block is submerged in a vessel filled with
water by a spring attached to the bottom of the
vessel as shown in figure. In equilibrium, spring
is compressed. The vessel now starts moving
upward with constant velocity V. The buoyant
force on the block will

(1) Increase

(1) Increase (2) Decrease

(2) Decrease (3) Remains unchanged
(3) Remains same
(4) First increase then decrease
(4) First increase then decrease

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Q.42. (Cyclic Process) 4. A thermodynamic system is taken through the

cycle ABCD as shown in figure. Total heat
1. N mole of diatomic gas undergoes a reversible
exchanged by the gas during the cyclic process
cyclic process ABCDA as shown in the diagram.
is
The temperature at A is T0, the work done by
the gas will be

(1) 4P0V0 (2) 2P0V0

(1) 2P0V0 (2) P0V0
(3) 3P0V0 (4) 6P0V0
(3) 4P0V0 (4) 3P0V0 5. A cyclic process for a gaseous system is shown
2. N moles of a monoatomic gas undergoes a in the figure. Work done by the gas during
reversible cyclic process as shown in the isobaric expansion is
diagram. The temperature at A is To, The heat
absorbed by the system in cyclic process is

(1) 1600 J (2) 100 J

(3) 400 J (4) 600 J
Q.36. (Adiabatic Process)
1. If an inflated car tyre bursts, the air escaping out
13P0V0 11P0V0 is cooled. This is due to
(1) (2) (1) Isothermal expansion
2 2
(2) Isobaric expansion
5 PV
0 0 (3) Adiabatic expansion
(3) (4) 4P0V0
2 (4) Isochoric & expansion

3. Helium gas goes through a cycle ABCDA as 2. Two cylinder A and B of equal capacity are
shown in the figure. The efficiency of this cycle connected to each other via a stop valve. A
is nearly contains a gas at standard temperature and
pressure. B is completely evacuated. The entire
system is thermally insulated. If the stop valve
is opened The pressure of the gas in cylinder A
will
(1) Increase (2) Decrease
(3) Remain same (4) May be increase
3. In the above question gas is expanding by the
(1) Isothermal process
(2) Isochoric process
(1) 60% (2) 50% (3) Isobaric process
(3) 25% (4) 17% (4) Adiabatic process

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET
CSS-07 (Physics)
Answer Key
Q. 1. (Distance between Celestial Bodies) Q.37. (Refrigerator coefficient of performance)
1. (3) 1. (4)
2. (2) 2. (3)
3. (1) 3. (1)
4. (1) 4. (2)
Q9. (Gravitational Potential) 5. (3)
1. (1) Q.39. (Cyclic Works Thermodynamic Process)
2. (1) 1. (3)
3. (3) 2. (3)
4. (4) 3. (4)
5. (3) 4. (3)
Q.19. (Moduli of Elasticity) 5. (4)
1. (3) Q.16. (Archimedes' Principle)
2. (4) 1. (2)
3. (3) 2. (3)
4. (2) 3. (2)
Q.12. (Gravitational Potential) 4. (1)
1. (3) 5. (3)
2. (2) Q.42. (Cyclic Process)
3. (2) 1. (2)
4. (1) 2. (1)
5. (3) 3. (4)
Q.22. (Surface Tension) 4. (1)
1. (3) 5. (3)
2. (2) Q.36. (Adiabatic Process)
3. (1) 1. (3)
4. (2) 2. (2)
5. (1) 3. (4)

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

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ZOOLOGY

Q.143 (Mechanism of hormone action) (2) Brunner’s gland

1. Hormones which interact with membrane bound (3) Crypts of Lieberkuhn
receptors, (4) Liver
(1) Normally do not enter into the target cells 2. Identify the function of secretin hormone
(2) Are lipophilic in nature (1) Stimulates the secretion of gastric juice from
(3) Generally, do not generate secondary gastric glands
messengers (2) Stimulate the gall bladder to secrete bile juice
(4) Are steroids in nature (3) Stimulate the endocrine part of pancreas to
2. Hormones which interact with intracellular secrete insulin and glucagon
receptors are (4) Stimulate the exocrine part of pancreas to
(1) Protein hormones secrete water and bicarbonate ions
(2) Steroids in nature 3. The hormone CCK acts on both
(3) Amino-acids derivatives (1) Pancreas and gall bladder
(4) Hydrophilic in nature (2) Gastric glands and pancreas
3. Read the following statements and choose the (3) Liver and gall bladder
correct answer (4) Pancreas and liver
Statement-A : Hormone receptors present on the 4. Read the following statements and choose the
cell membrane of the target cells are called correct answer.
membrane bound receptors and the receptors Statement-A : The hormone CCK and secretin
present inside the target cell are called intracellular both act on pancreas.
receptors.
Statement-B : Endocrine cells present in different
Statement-B : Each receptor is hormone specific. parts of the gastro-intestinal tract secrete four
(1) Both statements are correct major peptide hormones, namely gastrin, secretin,
(2) Both statements are incorrect cholecystokinin and gastric inhibitory peptide.
(3) Only statement A is correct (1) Both statements are correct
(4) Only statement B is correct (2) Both statements are incorrect
4. Which of the following hormone forms complex (3) Only statement A is correct
with their receptor inside the cell? (4) Only statement B is correct
(1) Glucagon (2) Cortisol 5. Which of the following hormone inhibits gastric
(3) Insulin (4) Epinephrine secretion and motility?
5. Which of the following hormone generates (1) Gastrin
secondary messenger cAMP? (2) Enterocrinin
(1) FSH (2) Thyroxine (3) Cholecystokinin
(3) Testosterone (4) Estradiol (4) Gastric inhibitory peptide
Q.171 (GI tract) Q.179 (Forebrain)
1. Gastrin acts on the __A__ and stimulates the 1. Limbic lobe or limbic system is a group of
secretion of hydrochloric acid and enzyme associated deep structures like
pepsinogen. Choose the option to fills the blank A (1) Amygdala and hippocampus
(1) Gastric glands (2) Corpora quadrigemina and pons

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 CSS-07 Zoology

(3) Cerebellum and medulla Q.161 (Midbrain)

(4) Pons and cerebellum 1. Midbrain is present between the __A__ of the
2. Amygdala is a structural part of all except __B___ and ___C___ of the ___D___. Choose the
(1) Limbic lobe option that correctly fill the blanks
(2) Forebrain A B C D
(3) Central nervous system
(1) Hypothalamus Forebrain Pons Hindbrain
(4) Hindbrain
(2) Pons Forebrain Thalamus Forebrain
3. The neurons of the olfactory epithelium extend
directly into a pair of broad bean sized structure, (3) Thalamus Hindbrain Pons Forebrain
called ___A___ which are extensions of the brain’s
__B___. (4) Medulla Forebrain Pons Hindbrain

Choose the option that correctly fill the blanks A 2. Midbrain is located between
and B
(1) Forebrain and hindbrain
(1) Olfactory receptors, Limbic system
(2) Corpora quadrigemina and corpus callosum
(2) Olfactory bulb, Limbic system
(3) Hippocampus, Limbic system (3) Corpus callosum and medulla
(4) Hippocampus, Amygdala (4) Medulla oblangata and pons varolli
4. Which of the following statement is incorrect for 3. Mainly four round swellings called corpora
hippocampus? quadrigemina are present on the
(1) Structural part of limbic system (1) Dorsal portion of midbrain
(2) Involved in expression of emotional reactions (2) Ventral portion of midbrain
(3) Present in forebrain (3) Lateral portion of hindbrain
(4) Attach with medulla oblongatta
(4) Dorsal portion of forebrain
5. Select the structure of forebrain which are involved
in emotion along with hypothalmus 4. A canal called cerebral aqueduct passes through
(1) Corpus callosum (2) Cerebrum (1) Forebrain (2) Midbrain
(3) Thalamus (4) Limbic system (3) Hindbrain (4) Medulla
Q.163 (Parathyroid gland) 5. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. brain part and
1. Select the hormone that are antagonistic w.r.t. its location
blood calcium level (1) Hypothalamus - Forebrain
(1) TCT and PTH (2) Corpora quadrigemina - Midbrain
(2) Insulin and glucagon
(3) Medulla oblongata - Hindbrain
(3) Adrenaline and ANF
(4) Pons - Midbrain
(4) Aldosterone and ANF
2. Which of the following vitamin increases Q.142
absorption of calcium in gastrointestinal tract? 1. Select a peptide hormone
(1) Vitamin D (2) Vitamin A (1) Parathormone (2) Cortisol
(3) Vitamin B2 (4) Vitamin B7 (3) Thyroxine (4) Adrenaline
3. Select a hypercalcemic hormone 2. What is the chemical nature of hormone secreted
(1) PTH (2) TSH by pineal gland?
(3) ACTH (4) PRL (1) Protein
4. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. deficiency of (2) Amino acid derivative
given vitamins (3) Steroid
(1) Vitamin A - Night blindness (4) Peptide
(2) Vitamin C - Rickets 3. Adrenaline and nor-adrenaline are derived from
(3) Vitamin D - Osteomalacia which amino acid?
(4) Vitamin E - Reproductive failure (1) Tyrosine (2) Tryptophan
5. Enhanced blood levels of ___A____ and (3) Alanine (4) Glycine
___B____ are responsible for increased level of 4. Which hormone is derived from tryptophan amino
calcium in blood. acid?
Choose the option that correctly fill the blanks A (1) T3 (2) Adrenaline
&B (3) T4 (4) Melatonin
A B 5. Thyroxine hormone is derived from which amino
(1) Calciferol PTH acid?
(2) Tocopherol Retinol (1) Tryptophan (2) Tyrosine
(3) Retinol Riboflavin (3) Threonine (4) Valine
(4) Nicotinic acid Biotin

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 CSS-07 Zoology

Q.180 Q.162 (Human eye)

1. Sexual desire centre is present in 1. During darkness, photoreceptor cells show
(1) Hypothalamus (2) Spinal cord opening of
(1) Na+ channels (2) K+ channels
(3) Cerebellum (4) Olfactory lobes
(3) Cl– channels (4) Ca+2 channels
2. Select the correct statement +
2. Influx of Na ions in photoreceptors during
(1) Limbic system alongwith the hypothalamus is darkness causes
involved in regulation of sexual behaviour (1) Depolarisation (2) Hyperpolarisation
(2) Limbic system is present in hindbrain (3) Repolarisation (4) Polarised stage
(3) Receptors for androgens and estrogen are 3. When impulse during depolarization reaches at
absent in CNS synaptic terminals of rods and cones, it causes
(4) Hypothalamus is part of midbrain release of
(1) Acetylcholine
3. Libido in males is due to the effect of which
hormone? (2) Adrenaline
(3) Excitatory neurotransmitters
(1) Androgens (2) GnRH
(4) Inhibitory neurotransmitters
(3) LH (4) FSH
4. In the presence of light, photoreceptors get
4. Key target of estradiol to regulate sex drive is (1) Depolarised (2) Repolarised
(1) Hypothalamus (2) Superior colliculus (3) Hyperpolarised (4) Polarised
(3) Inferior colliculus (4) Medulla oblongata 5. Fovea in retina of human eye contains
5. Which part of the adult human brain is commonly (1) Only rods
called emotional brain? (2) Only cones
(1) Limbic system (2) Pons (3) both rods and cones in equal ratio
(3) Cerebellum (4) Medulla oblongata (4) More cones and lesser rods
Q.178 (Reflex action)
Q.144 (Disorder of skeletal and muscular system)
1. How many connecting neurons are present in
1. Sustained contraction of group of muscles due to between sensory and motor neuron in a
low Ca+2 in blood is called monosynaptic reflex action?
(1) Tetanus (2) Tetany (1) One (2) Two
(3) Tonus (4) Clonus (3) Three (4) Zero
2. Isolated and single contraction of a muscle fibre by 2. In which type of reflex action, sensory neuron
threshold stimulus is called directly synapse with motor neuron?
(1) Monosynaptic reflex
(1) Tetanus (2) Twitch
(2) Withdrawal reflex
(3) Tonus (4) Fatigue
(3) Polysynaptic reflex
3. Skeletal muscle of the body remains in slightly (4) To withdraw hands away from fire
contracted state during resting condition. This
3. Path travelled by an impulse during a reflex action
state of muscle is called
is called
(1) Twitch (2) Tonus (1) Reflex action (2) Synapse
(3) Clonus (4) Tetanus (3) Reflex arc (4) Muscle spindle
4. Involuntary repeated muscle contraction due to 4. Which of the following is not included in a reflex
neurological disorder is called arc?
(1) Tetanus (2) Clonus (1) Sensory neuron (2) Motor neuron
(3) Tonus (4) Fatigue (3) CNS (4) Ligaments
5. Stimulus from CNS reaches to effector organs
5. During strenuous exercise, muscles perform
(muscles or glands) through motor neurons
anaerobic respiration and produce lactic acid. As a
passing through
result, painful contraction of muscle occurs which
leads to complete impairment of muscle (1) Anterior root of spinal nerve
contraction called (2) Posterior root of spinal nerve
(1) Tetany (2) Tetanus (3) Dorsol root of spinal nerve
(4) Dorsal horn of spinal cord
(3) Fatigue (4) Tonus

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ZOOLOGY
ANSWER

Q.143 Q.142
1. (1) 1. (1)
2. (2) 2. (2)
3. (1) 3. (1)
4. (2) 4. (4)
5. (1) 5. (2)
Q.171 Q.180
1. (1) 1. (1)
2. (4) 2. (1)
3. (1) 3. (1)
4. (1) 4. (1)
5. (4) 5. (1)
Q.179 Q.144
1. (1) 1. (2)
2. (4) 2. (2)
3. (2) 3. (2)
4. (4) 4. (2)
5. (4) 5. (3)
Q.163 Q.162
1. (1) 1. (1)
2. (1) 2. (1)
3. (1) 3. (4)
4. (2) 4. (3)
5. (1) 5. (2)
Q.161 Q.178
1. (1) 1. (4)
2. (1) 2. (1)
3. (1) 3. (3)
4. (2) 4. (4)
5. (4) 5. (1)

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

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BOTANY
Q.113 (Plant Kingdom: Plant life cycle and alternation 3. Sphagnum shows
of generation) (1) Gametic meiosis (2) Zygotic meiosis
1. Which amongst the following is not an (3) Sporic meiosis (4) Somatic meiosis
archegoniate plant? 4. The type of alternation of generation seen in
(1) Equisetum (2) Pisum Sphagnum is
(3) Sphagnum (4) Pinus (1) Haplontic (2) Diplontic
2. Zygotic meiosis occurs in plants that show (3) Haplo-diplontic (4) Both (1) & (2)
(a) Haplo-diplontic life cycle
5. Sphagnum is called ‘peat moss’ or ‘ bog moss ‘
(b) Haplontic life cycle
which is of commercial value in horticulture
(c) Diplontic life cycle
because of its
Correct one(s) is/are
(1) Acidic nature
(1) (a) & (b) (2) (c) only
(2) High water retaining capacity
(3) (b) & (c) (4) (b) only
(3) Basic nature
3. The first embryophytes of plant kingdom
(4) Monoecious condition
(1) Do not form seeds
Q.92 (Anatomy of Flowering plants: Meristematic
(2) Have free-living sporophyte stage
tissues)
(3) Form seeds but not fruits
1. Which of the given is partially primary and partially
(4) Have xylem and phloem as vascular tissues
secondary in origin?
4. In the life cycle of Spirogyra, reduction division
occur in (1) Phelloderm
(1) Diploid plant body (2) Spore mother cell (2) Secondary xylem in roots
(3) Zygote (4) Embryo cells (3) Phellem
5. All of the following are the similarities amongst (4) Vascular cambium in dicot stem
pteridophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms, 2. Read the given statement and select the correct
except Option.
(1) Main plant body is sporophytic Statement A: In dicot stem vascular cambium is
(2) Presence of vascular tissues partially primary and partially secondary in origin.
(3) Diploid plant body is differentiated into stem, Statement B: Secondary phloem in stem is
leaves and roots
formed by vascular cambium out side of it.
(4) Ovules become transformed into seeds
(1) Only statement A is correct
Q.133 (Plant Kingdom: Bryophytes-Economic
(2) Only statement B is correct
Importance))
(3) Both statements are correct
1. In Sphagnum the antheridia and archegonia are
always borne on (4) Both statements are incorrect
(1) Same branch (2) Separate branches 3. Which of the given are produced by cork
(3) Same plant body (4) Different plant body cambium?
2. In Sphagnum fertilization takes place by (1) Phelloderm
(1) Chemotaxis (2) Zooidogamy (2) Phellem
(3) Chemotropic movement (3) Epidermis
(4) Both (1) & (2) (4) Both (1) & (2)

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4. In roots, which of the given is completely 5. Which of the following is correctly matched?
secondary in origin? (1) Root hairs - Preventing water
(1) Vascular cambium loss
(2) Pith (2) Trichomes - Absorption of water
(3) Pericycle & minerals
(4) Cortex (3) Root epidermis - Absence of cuticle
Q.104 (Anatomy of Flowering plants: Anatomy of (4) Epidermal hairs - Always secretory
stem)
1. Read the given statements and select the correct Q.107 (Anatomy of flowering plants: Secondary
option. Growth)
Statement A: Maize is a monocot plant 1. Alburnum is also called
Statement B: Monocot do not show secondary (1) Sap wood (2) Heart wood
growth. (3) Late wood (4) Soft wood
(1) Only statement A is correct 2. All of the following are true for sap wood, except
(2) Only statement B is correct
(1) Lighter is colour
(3) Both statements are correct
(2) Has low density as compared to heart wood
(4) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Occurs in peripheral region
2. Which of the given plants lack secondary xylem?
(4) Does not conduct water
(1) Maize (2) Mango
(3) Gram (4) Pea 3. Tracheal plugs are seen in
3. Centrifugal orientation of xylem is seen in (1) Sap wood (2) Heart wood
(1) Monocot stem (2) Monocot root (3) Early wood (4) Spring wood
(3) Dicot stem (4) Both (1) & (3) 4. Which of the following will be nearest to vascular
4. Which of the given is not found in maize stem? cambium of its inner side?
(1) Centripetal xylem (2) Protoxylem (1) Primary xylem (2) Primary phloem
(3) Phloem fibre (4) Endarch xylem (3) Secondary xylem (4) Secondary phloem
Q.99 (Anatomy of Flowering plants: Tissue system- 5. In dicot stem, the primary phloem will be present
Epidermal tissue system) (1) Inner to secondary phloem
1. Epidermal appendages in the shoot system are/do (2) Out side to secondary phloem
not
(3) Inner to primary xylem
(1) Always unicellular
(4) Just next to vascular cambium
(2) Prevent water loss
Q.132 (Plant Kingdom: Red Algae)
(3) Usually multicellular and protective
(4) Always non-secretory 1. Red algae lack
2. Epidermal cells are (1) Motile gametes & spores
(1) Parenchymatous with a large amount of
(2) Sexual reproduction
cytoplasm
(2) Collenchymatous with a small amount of (3) Cell wall
cytoplasm (4) Chlorophyll pigment
(3) Parenchymatous with a large vacuole 2. Which is not a component of cell wall of red algae?
(4) Dead with a large vacuole (1) Cellulose (2) Algin
3. Choose the wrong statement regarding guard (3) Carageen (4) Pectin
cells
3. Type of stored food material in brown algae is
(1) They may be dumb-bell shape
(2) They posses chloroplasts (1) Starch (2) Glycogen
(3) They regulate the opening and closing of (3) Mannitol (4) Amylopectin
stomata
4. Common mode of vegetative reproduction in red &
(4) The walls of guard cells towards the stomatal brown algae is by
pore are thin and elastic (1) Zoospores
4. Find the odd one w.r.t stomatal apparatus (2) Fragmentation
(1) Subsidiary cells (2) Bulliform cells (3) Motile gametes
(3) Stomatal pore (4) Guard cells (4) Sporangiospores

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CSS-07 (Based on AIATS-07)_OYM Botany

Q.97 (Anatomy of flowering plants: Permanent b) Dedifferentiate

tissue) c) Form secondary tissues
1. The phloem element which is absent in most of the (1) a only (2) b & c only
monocots is (3) c only (4) All a, b & c
(1) Bast fibres 4. Pericycle is absent in
(2) Phloem parenchyma (1) Dicot stem (2) Monocot stem
(3) Sieve tubes (4) Companion cells (3) Dicot root (4) Monocot root
2. Phloem parenchyma helps / involved in 5. In dicot roots, pericycle forms
(1) Transport of water (1) Lateral roots only
(2) Storage of food (2) A part of cambial ring & lateral roots
(3) Providing strength to phloem (3) Medullary rays
(4) Maintaining pressure gradient of sieve tubes (4) Root hairs
Q.118 (Plant Kingdom: Bryophytes-Mosses)
3. The phloem element known as bast fibres are
1. Predominant stage of the life cycle of a moss
(1) Phloem parenchyma
(1) Is a gametophyte consisting of protonema and
(2) Phloem fibres
leafy stage
(3) Sieve tube
(2) Is sporophyte
(4) Companion cell
(3) Consists of foot, seta and capsule
4. A. Phloem parenchyma are elongated cells with (4) Produces the spores
tapering ends. 2. First stage of gametophytic phase of mosses
B. Phloem parenchyma also helps in transport of (1) Is called protonema stage
food. (2) Develops directly from a spore
Choose the correct option. (3) Contains spores forming capsule
(1) Only A is correct (4) Both (1) and (2)
(2) Only B is correct 3. Select the incorrect statement about protonema
(3) Both A & B are correct stage
(4) Both A & B are incorrect (1) It develops directly from a spore
(2) It is a creeping, green, branched and
5. Choose the odd one for phloem parenchyma.
filamentous
(1) Storing of food
(3) It develops from zygote
(2) Thick lignified wall
(4) It is also known as juvenile stage
(3) Pitted cell wall 4. Second stage of gametophyte in mosses
(4) Presence of plasmodesmata (1) Is a leafy stage
Q.101 (Anatomy of flowering plants: ground tissue (2) Is branched and frequently filamentous
system) (3) Bears sex organs
1. The outermost portion of stele is (4) Both (1) & (3)
(1) Endodermis (2) Pericycle 5. Which of the following is correct about protonema
(3) Cortex (4) Pith of mosses?
2. Pericycle cannot be (1) It is the part of sporophytic phase
(1) Thick walled (2) Photosynthetic (2) It is more elaborate than that of liverworts
(3) Parenchymatous (4) Thin walled (3) It gives rise to mature leafy gametophyte
3. In stem, pericycle does not (4) Arises from the zygote and produce the spores
a) Provide mechanical support

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

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BOTANY
ANSWERS

Q.113 (Plant Kingdom: Plant life cycle and alternation Q.107 (Anatomy of flowering plants: Secondary
of generation) Growth)
1. (2) 1. (1)
2. (4) 2 (4)
3. (1) 3 (2)
4. (3) 4 (3)
5. (4) 5 (2)
Q.133 (Plant Kingdom: Bryophytes - Economic Q.132 (Plant Kingdom: Red Algae)
Importance)) 1. (1)
1. (2) 2. (2)
2. (4) 3. (3)
3. (3) 4. (2)
4. (3) Q.97 (Anatomy of flowering plants: Permanent
5. (2) tissue)
Q.92 (Anatomy of Flowering plants: Meristematic 1. (2)
tissues) 2. (2)
1. (4) 3. (2)
2. (3) 4. (3)
3. (4) 5. (2)
4. (1) Q.101 (Anatomy of flowering plants: ground tissue
Q.104 (Anatomy of flowering plants: Anatomy of system)
stem) 1. (2)
1. (3) 2. (2)
2. (1) 3. (2)
3. (4) 4. (2)
4. (1) 5. (2)
Q.99(Anatomy of Flowering plants: Tissue system- Q.118 (Plant Kingdom: Bryophytes-Mosses)
Epidermal tissue system) 1. (1)
1. (3) 2. (4)
2. (3) 3. (3)
3. (4) 4. (4)
4. (2) 5. (3)
5. (3)

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CHEMISTRY
Q.77. (Lattice Energy) 4. On acidifying an aqueous solution of borax,
1. Lattice energy is maximum for compound of boron formed is
(1) LiF (2) NaF (1) B2O3 (2) B2H6
(3) CsF (4) RbF (3) B(OH)3 (4) HBO2
2. lattice energy is minimum for 5. Hydrolysis of B2H6 gives
(1) MgF2 (2) MgCl2 (1) H2(g) only (2) HBO2 only
(3) MgBr2 (4) MgI2 (3) H3BO3 only (4) Both (1) and (3)
3. Thermally most stable compound among the Q.90. (Chemical properties of carbon family)
following is 1. SiCl4 on hydrolysis gives
(1) MgO (2) Mg3N2 (1) H4SiO3 (2) H4SiO4
(3) Na2O (4) K2O (3) H2SiCl6 (4) H2SiCl4
4. Correct order of thermal stability is 2. Among the following which species does not exist
(1) LiF < NaF < KF < RbF < CsF (1) SiF62– (2) [Sn(OH)6]2–
(2) NaF < KF < RbF < CsF < LiF (3) [GeCl6]2– (4) [SiBr6]2–
(3) CsF < RbF < KF < NaF < LiF 3. Sn decomposes steam to form
(4) CsF < LiF < NaF < Kf < RbF (1) H2SnO3 (2) H2[Sn(OH)6]
5. Lattice energy generally (3) H2SnCl6 (4) SnO2
(1) Increases with increase of size of cation 4. On reaction of 1 equivalent of Sn(OH)4 with 4
(2) Increases with increase of size of anion equivalents of HCl, products formed contains
(3) Increases with increase of charge on cation (1) SnO2 (2) SnCl2
(4) Increases with decrease of charge on anion (3) SnCl4 (4) H2SnO3
Q.87. (Compounds of Boron)
5.
1. When diborane (B2H6) burns in oxygens, it
Oxidation state and co-ordination number of Sn in
produces _____ as one of the product
product B respectively are
(1) B2O3 (2) H3BO3
(1) +4 and 4 (2) +2 and 6
(3) HBO3 (4) H2
(3) +4 and 6 (4) +2 and 4
2. B2H6 on reaction with CO produces
Q.73. (Some important compounds of Na)
(1) B2O3 (2) HBO3
1. Crystallisation of brine solution gives crude sodium
(3) BH3•CO (4) B2H4(CO)2
chloride which contain following compounds as
3. B2H6 on reaction with N(CH3)3 produces
impurities
(1) B3N3H6 (2) BN
(1) Na2SO4, MgCl2 and CaCl2
(3) BH3.N(CH3)3 (4) [BH2(NH3)2]+ [BH4]–
(2) MgCO3, NaOH and CaCl2

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CSS-07 Chemistry

(3) Na and NaOH 5. Which of the following statement does not justify
(4) CaCO3, CaCl2 and Mg(OH)2 the anomalous behaviour of Be?
2. During the manufacture of NaOH by castner- (1) Beryllium abruptly reacts with hot water
Kellner cell, substance produced at cathode is (2) Be is harder than rest of the members of family
(1) Hg (2) Na amalgam (3) Beryllium carbide (Be2C) reacts with water to
(3) Cl2 (4) O2 produce CH4
3. Which of the following is not a characteristic of (4) Be forms covalent compounds
NaOH? Q.83. (Silica (SiO2))
(1) It is white and translucent solid 1. SiO2 exists as giant crystalline structure having
(2) It is deliquescent (1) Eight membered rings of alternate Si and O
(3) Its melting point is 591 K atoms
(4) It is almost insoluble in water (2) Six-membered rings of alternate Si and O
4. Table salt gets wet in rainy season due to atoms
(1) Hygroscopic nature of NaCl (3) Four membered rings of alternate Si and O
(2) Deliquescent nature of impurities atoms
(3) Deliquescent nature of NaCl (4) Eight membered rings of randomly arranged Si
(4) Higher solubility of NaCl in water and O atoms
5. Which of the following compounds is used as fire 2. Which of the following is not a use of silica?
extinguishers? (1) As drying agent
(1) Washing soda (2) Caustic soda (2) As support for chromatographic materials
(3) Baking soda (4) Sodium metal (3) Lubricant in surgical and cosmetic plants
Q.74. (Anomalous behaviour of Be) (4) As abrasive in filtration plants
1. Oxides and hydroxides of Be are 3. HF cannot be stored in glass bottles due to the
(1) Acidic (2) Basic formation of
(3) Neutral (4) Amphoteric (1) Na2SiO3 (2) H2SiF6
2. Which of the following does not represent the (3) SiO2 (4) SiO2.2H2O
anomalous behaviour of Be? 4. Silica is relatively inert and high melting as
(1) Be does not exhibit coordination number more (1) It has giant network structure with very strong
than four Si–O bonds
(2) It forms covalent compounds (2) It is a covalent molecule
(3) Be forms acidic oxide (3) It is an ionic compound
(4) It forms bridged chloride (4) It has polymeric structure with strong Si–Si
3. Similarities between Al and Be are due to bonds
(1) Similar charge to radius ratio 5. SiO2 is
(2) Similar first ionization enthalpy (1) Ionic solid (2) Covalent solid
(3) Having d-orbitals (3) Molecular solid (4) Metallic solid
(4) Similar melting point Q.51. (Silicones)
4. Beryllium differs from rest of the members of its 1. Which of the following give straight chain silicones
family due to on hydrolysis followed by polymerization?
(1) Absence of d-orbitals (1) CH3SiCl3 (2) (CH3)4Si
(2) Exceptionally small ionic size (3) (CH3)2SiCl2 (4) (CH3)3SiCl
(3) Low ionization enthalpy 2. Repeating structural unit of silicones is
(4) Both (1) and (2) (1) SiO2 (2) R2SiO
(3) R2SiO2 (4) R4Si

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CSS-07 Chemistry

3. Which of the following is not correct as use of 2. In a 1000 mL sample of water contains 1 mg CaCl2
silicones? and 1 mg MgCl2. The degree of hardness of water
(1) Silicones are used for making water proof is
papers (1) 2 pm (2) 1.95 ppm
(2) Silicones are used as lubricants (3) 1 ppm (4) 0.95 ppm
(3) Silicones are used in surgical and cosmetic 3. 111 g CaCl2 hardness is equivalent to how many g
implants of CaCO3?
(4) Silicones are used as catalysts in (1) 10 g (2) 100 g
petrochemical industries (3) 1000 g (4) 1 g
4. Find out the correct statement 4. Which of the following is not responsible for
(1) Silicones are hydrophobic in nature hardness of water?
(2) Silicones are highly reactive towards organic (1) CaCl2 (2) MgSO4
reagents (3) Ca(HCO3)2 (4) NaCl
(3) Silicones are natural organosilicon polymers 5. Which process is not used for removal of hardness
having –Si–O–O–Si– linkages of water?
(4) Silicones show high changes in viscosities (1) Solvay process
with temperature. (2) Calgon process
5. Product of the following polymerization reaction is (3) Permutit process
(4) Ion-exchange process
Product Q.58. (Standard electrode potentials)
1. Standard electrode potentials of three metals A, B
and C respectively are –2.93V, +0.79V and –
(1) 0.74V. The reducing power of these metals will be
(1) A > B > C (2) A > C > B
(3) B > A > C (4) B > C > A
2. Standard reduction potentials of the half reactions
(2)
are given below:
F2(g) + 2e– ⎯→ 2F– (aq); E° = 2.85 V
Cl2(g) + 2e– ⎯→ 2Cl–(aq); E° = +1.32 V
(3) O2(g) + 4H+ + 4e– ⎯→ 2H2O(l); E° = +1.23 V
I2(s) + 2e– ⎯→ 2I–(aq); E° = 0.54 V
The strongest oxidizing and reducing agents

(4) respectively are

(1) O2 and I– (2) F2 and I–
(3) Br2 and Cl– (4) O2 and Br–
Q.48. (Degree of Hardness)
3. °
If EMg2+ = –2.37 V, E°Cr3+ /Cr = –0.74 V and EHg
°
2+
1. 1000 mL of a sample of water contains 2 mg of /Mg /Hg

MgCl2. The degree of hardness of water is = +0.79 V then select the correct statement among
(1) 2.10 ppm the following
(2) 0.95 ppm (1) Hg can reduce both Mg2+ and Cr3+
(3) 1.20 ppm (2) Mg can reduce both Cr3+ and Hg2+
(4) 1.80 ppm (3) Cr can reduce Mg2+ but not Hg2+
(4) Mg2+ can reduce Cr but not Hg

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CSS-07 Chemistry

4. Oxidation potential for the following half cell 3. Alkali metal of highest negative standard reduction
reactions are potential is
Zn ⎯→ Zn2+ + 2e–; E° = +0.76 V (1) Na (2) K
Cu ⎯→ Cu2+ + 2e–; E° = –0.34 V (3) Rb (4) Li
The emf for the cell reaction 4. Select the correct statement

Zn + Cu2+ ⎯→ Zn2+ + Cu will be (1) Higher is the value of standard reduction

(1) 1.10 V (2) –1.10 V potential of species more will be its reducing

(3) –0.42 V (4) +0.42 V nature

5. If E° of Ag+/Ag = 0.8 V and Fe2+/Fe = –0.44 V then (2) Higher is the value of standard oxidation

select the correct statement among the following potential of a species less will be its reducing

(1) Fe is better reducing agent than Ag nature

(2) Fe is better oxidizing agent than Ag (3) Lesser is the value of standard reduction

(3) Ag undergoes oxidation at anode potential of a species more will be its reducing

(4) Fe undergoes reduction at cathode nature

Q.72. (Electrode potential) (4) Standard reduction potential and standard

1. Element having highest reducing nature in oxidation potential of a species are never

aqueous solution among the following is equal to each other (in magnitude)

(1) Li (2) Na 5. If a cell is made up of silver and copper electrodes

(3) K (4) Rb then for spontaneous cell reaction

2. The correct order of reducing nature in aqueous (1) Silver should act as anode
solution is (2) Copper should act as cathode
(1) Be > Mg > Ca > Sr > Ba
(3) G° of cell reaction must be positive
(2) Ba > Sr > Ca > Mg > Be
(3) Ca > Sr > Mg > Ba > Be (4) Flow of electrons take place from copper to
(4) Ba > Mg > Sr > Be > Ca silver electrode

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-07 (Chemistry)
Answers Key

Q.77. (Lattice Energy) Q.83. (Silica (SiO2))

1. (1) 1. (1)
2. (4) 2. (3)
3. (2) 3. (2)
4. (3) 4. (1)
5. (3) 5. (2)
Q.87. (Compounds of Boron) Q.51. (Silicones)
1. (1) 1. (3)
2. (3) 2. (2)
3. (3) 3. (4)
4. (3) 4. (1)
5. (4) 5. (2)
Q.90. (Chemical properties of carbon family) Q.48. (Degree of Hardness)
1. (2) 1. (1)
2. (4) 2. (2)
3. (4) 3. (2)
4. (3) 4. (4)
5. (3) 5. (1)
Q.73. (Some important compounds of Na) Q.58. (Standard electrode potentials)
1. (1) 1. (2)
2. (2) 2. (2)
3. (4) 3. (2)
4. (2) 4. (1)
5. (3) 5. (1)
Q.74. (Anomalous behavior of Be) Q.72. (Electrode potential)
1. (4) 1. (1)
2. (3) 2. (2)
3. (1) 3. (4)
4. (4) 4. (3)
5. (1) 5. (4)

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