2ND Year Advanced Paper

SHIVANI JUNIOR COLLEGES
BHEEMARAM, HANAMKONDA
JEE ADAVANCED - SUPER - 60 - MPC - II - PAPER – II

Date :21/07/2019 GRAND TEST - I
Time : 03:00:00Hrs Marks : 183
PART I: PHYSICS – PAPER – II

SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 21)
• This section contains SEVEN questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
• For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
• For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks :+ 3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks : – 1 In all other cases.
1. The magnetic needle of a vibration magnetometer makes 12 oscillations per minute in the horizontal
component of earth’s magnetic field. When an external short bar magnet is placed at some distance along
the axis of the needle in the same line, it makes 15 oscillations per minute. If the poles of the bar magnet
are interchanged, the number of oscillations it makes per minute is
a) √61 b) √63 c) √65 d) √67
2. The magnetic needle of a tangent galvanometer is deflected at angle of 30° due to a current in its coil. The
horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field is 0.34 × 10−4 T, then magnetic field at the center of the
coil due to current
a) 1.96 × 10−5 T b) 1.96 × 10−4 T c) 1.96 × 104 T d) 1.96 × 105 T
3. The length of a magnet is large compared to its width and breadth. The time period of its oscillation in a
vibration magnetometer is 2 s. The magnet is cut along its length into three equal parts and three parts are
then placed on each other with their like poles together. The time period of this combination will be
a) 2 s b) 2/3 s c) 2√3s d) 2/√3s
4. Two short magnets ABandCDare in the X-Y plane and are parallel to X-axis and co-ordinates of their
centers respectively are (0, 2) and (2, 0). Line joining the north-south poles of CDis opposite to that of
ABand lies along the positive X-axis. The resultant field induction due to AB and CD at a point P(2, 2) is
100 × 10−7 T. When the poles of the magnet CDare reversed, the resultant field induction is 50 × 10−7 T.
The value of magnetic moments of AB and CD(in Am2 ) are
a) 300; 200 b) 600; 400 c) 200; 100 d) 300; 150
5. A vibration magnetometer consists of two identical bar magnets placed one over the other such that they
are perpendicular and bisect each other. The time period of oscillation in a horizontal magnetic field is
25/4 second. One of the magnets is removed and if the other magnet oscillates in the same field, then the
time period in second is
a) 21/4 b) 21/2 c) 2 d) 25/4
6. Ferromagnetic materials used in a transformer must have
a) Low permeability and high hysteresis loss b) High permeability and low hysteresis loss
c) High permeability and high hysteresis loss d) Low permeability and low hysteresis loss
7. Two short bar magnets of equal dipole moment 𝑀 are fastened perpendicularly at their centers, figure.
The magnitude of resultant of two magnetic field at a distance 𝑑 from the center on the bisector of the
right angle is
Page|1
μ0 2√2𝑀 μ0 2𝑀 μ0 𝑀 μ0 2√2𝑀
a) b) c) d)
4𝜋 𝑑3 4𝜋 𝑑3 4𝜋 𝑑3 4𝜋 𝑑3

• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options
is (are) correct.
• For each question, darken the bubble (s) corresponding to the all the correct option (s) in the ORS.
Full Marks : + 4 If only the bubble (s) corresponding to all the correct option (s) is (are)
darkened.
Partial Marks : +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided
NO incorrect option is darkened.
• For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three
will get +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will get +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will
get – 2 marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.
8. Susceptibility is positive for

a) Para-magnetics b) Non- magnetic c) Dia- magnetic d) Ferro- magnetic
9. In a cassette player, materials used for coating magnetic tapes are
a) Cobalt b) CoFe2 O4 c) NiFe2 O4 d) Nickel
10. A horizontal circular loop carries a current that looks anti-clockwise when viewed from above. It is
replaced by an equivalent magnetic dipole 𝑁 − 𝑆. Which of the following is true?
The line 𝑁 − 𝑆 should be along a diameter of the The line 𝑁 − 𝑆 should be perpendicular to the
a) b)
loop plane of the loop
c) South pole should be below the loop d) North pole should be below the loop
11. Earth’s magnetic field always has a horizontal component except at
a) Equator b) Magnetic pole c) A latitude of 60° d) An inclination of 60°
12. Atomic weight of Boron is 10.81 and it has two isotopes 5 B10and 5 B11 . Then the ratio would be
a) 19: 81 b) 10: 11 c) 15: 16 d) 81: 12
13. The energy, the magnitude of linear momentum and orbital radius of an electron in a hydrogen atom
corresponding to the quantum number 𝑛 are 𝐸, 𝑃 and 𝑟respectively. Then according to Bohr’s theory of
hydrogen atom,
a) 𝑃 𝑟is proportional to 𝑛 b) 𝑃/𝐸 is proportional to 𝑛
c) 𝐸𝑟 is constant for all orbits d) 𝐸𝑃𝑟 is proportional to 1/𝑛
14. In an electron transition inside a hydrogen atom, orbital angular momentum may change by (ℎ =Planck
constant)
ℎ ℎ ℎ
a) ℎ b) c) d)
π 2π 4π
Page|2
• This section contains TWO paragraphs.
• Based on each paragraph, there are TWO questions.
Full Marks :+ 3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
Zero Marks :0In all other cases.
This section contain(s) 1 paragraph(s). Based upon each paragraph, multiple choice questions have to be
answered. Each question has atleast 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 15 to -16
Atomic number (𝑍) of an element is the number of protons present in the nucleus of an atom of the
element.Mass number (𝐴) is total number of protons and neutrons present in the nucleus of the atom of the
element. The size of nucleus is given by
𝑅 = 𝑅0 𝐴1/3 ,where 𝑅0 =a constant
3𝑚
= 1.2 × 10−15 m. Nuclear density ρ = =constant
4𝜋𝑅03
= 2.29 × 1077 kgm−3
15. Number of neutrons in a gold nucleus with 𝐴 = 197 and 𝑍 = 79 is

a) 79 b) 197 c) 118 d) None of these
16. The density of hydrogen nucleus with 𝑍 = 1 is 2.29 × 10 kgm
17 −3
.The density of gold nucleus with 𝑍 =
79 would be
2.29
a) × 1017 kgm−3 b) 2.29 × 79 × 1017 kgm−3
79
2.29
c) 2.29 × 1017 kgm−3 d) × 1017 kgm−3
√79
All nuclei consist of two types of particles-protons and neutrons. Nuclear force is the strongest
force. Stability of nucleus is determined by the neutron-proton ratio or mass defect or binding
energy per nucleus or packing fraction. Shape of nucleus is calculated by quadrupole moment. Spin
of nucleus depends on even or odd mass number. Volume of nucleus depends on the mass number.
Whole mass of the atom (nearly 99%) is centered at the nucleus. Magnetic moment of the nucleus is
measured in terms of the nuclear magnetons
17. The correct statements about nuclear force is/are

a) Charge independent b) Short-range force
c) Non-conservative force d) Spin-dependent force
18. Binding energy per nucleon is maximum
a) For lighter order element (low mass number)
b) For heavier order elements (high mass number)
c) For middle order elements
d) Equal for all order elements
Page|3
PART II: CHEMISTRY – PAPER – II
Full Marks : + 3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
19. The thermal decomposition of a compound is of first order. If 50% of a sample of the compound is
decomposed in 120 min how long will it take for 90% of the compound to decompose?
a) 399 min b) 410 min c) 250 min d) 120 min
20. If the concentration is measured in mol L and time in minutes, the unit for the rate constant of a third
−1
order reaction is
a) mol L−1 min−1 b) L2 mol−2 min−1 c) L mol−1 min−1 d) min−1
21. 90% of a first order reaction was completed in 100 min. How much time it will take for 80% completion of
a reaction
a) 90 min b) 80 min c) 70 min d) 60 min
22. In a first order reaction, 75% of the reactants disappeared in 1.386 hr. What is the rate constant?
a) 3.6 × 10−3 s−1 b) 2.7 × 10−4 s−1 c) 72 × 10−3 s−1 d) 1.8 × 10−3 s−1
23. Carbylamine test is performed in alc. KOH by heating a mixture of:
a) Chloroform and silver powder
b) Trihalogenated methane and a primary amine
c) An alkyl halide and a primary amine
d) An alkyl cyanide and a primary amine
24. Among the following, the strongest base is:
a) C6 H5 NH2 b) 𝑝-NO2 C6 H4 NH2 c) 𝑚-NO2 . C6 H4 NH2 d) C6 H5 CH2 NH2
25. Gabriel synthesis is used for the preparation of:
a) 1° amine b) 2° amine c) 3° amine d) All can be prepared

is (are) correct.
darkened.
Page|4
26. Which of the following is/are examples of pseudo unimoleclar reactions?
⊕
b)
a) CH CO C H + H O →H CH CO H + C H OH
3 2 2 5 2 3 2 2 5
d)
c) CH3 COCl + H2 O → CH3 CO2 H + HCl
27. Taking the reaction, A + 2B → Products, to be of second order, which of the following is/are the correct
rate law expression(s)?
𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑥
a) = 𝑘[A]2 b) = 𝑘[A][B]2 c) = 𝑘[A][B] d) = 𝑘1 [A] + 𝑘2 [B]2
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡
28. Which of the following statements are correct?
a) Ethanenitrile on partial hydrolysis gives acetamide
b) Ethanenitrile on complete hydrolysis gives acetic acid and NH3
c) Cyanides are hydrolysed with aqueous mineral acids or alkali
d) Isocynides are hydrolysed with dilute acids and not by alkali
In gas phase, the basic character of amine is 3° > 2° > 1°. Due to the +I effect of (R−), the availability of
a)
LP 𝑒's on N increases
b) In aqueous medium, the basic character of amines is Me2 NH > Me3 N > MeNH2 > NH3
In aqueous medium, the addition of protons increases crowding and thus strains setup, which being the
c)
highest in 3° amine decreases its basic character
d) In aqueous medium, the ammonium ions in solution are stabilised not only by alkyl groups but also by
H-bond donation to the solvent
a) on partial hydrolysis gives 𝑁-methyl methanamide
b)
on complete hydrolysis gives CH3 NH2 and HCOOH
c) In an isocyanide, first an electrophile and then a nucleophile add at the same C atom bearing negative
charge
d) In an isocyanide, first a nucleophile and then an electrophile add at the same C atom bearing negative
charge
31. Which of the following are paramagnetic
a) [Ni(CN)4 ]2− b) [NiCl4 ]2− c) [CoF6 ]3− d) [Co(NH3 )6 ]3+
32. Which of the following can show coordination isomerism
a) [Cu(NH3 )4 ][PtCl4 ] b) [Fe(NH3 )6 ]2 [Pt(CN)6 ]3
c) [Co(NH 3 )6 ][Cr(C 2 O4 )3 ] d) [Pt(en3 )](SO4 )2

• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options
is correct.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
This section contain(s) 1 paragraph(s). Based upon each paragraph, multiple choice questions
have to be answered. Each question has atleast 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY
Page|5
ONE is correct.
Consider the following elementary reaction,
2A + B + C → Products. All reactants are present in the gaseous state and reactant C is taken in
excess
33. What is the unit of rate constant of the reaction?

a) mol L−1 time−1 b) time−1 c) mol−1 L2 time−1 d) mol−2 L2 time−1
34. How will the rate change if the concentration of A is doubled and that of B is tripled?
a) The rate increases 12 times of original value
b) The rate increase 8 times of original value
c) The rate reduces 12 times of original value
d) The rate reduces 8 times of original value
For the reaction: X(g) → Y(g) + Z(g), the following data were obtained at 30℃:
Experiment [X] (mol L−1 ) Rate (mol L−1 hr −1 )
I 0.17 0.05
II 0.34 0.10
III 0.68 0.20
35. The rate constant of the above reaction is
a) 0.588 hr −1 b) 0.294 hr −1 c) 0.123 hr −1 d) 0.210 hr −1
36. In experiment (I), what time will reactant (X) take to be reduced into 0.0425 M?
a) 2.4 hr b) 0.48 hr c) 3.1 hr d) 4.7 hr
PART III: MATHEMATICS – PAPER - II

37. The number of ways in which we can select four numbers from 1 to 30 so as to exclude every selection of
four consecutive number is
a) 27378 b) 27405 c) 27399 d) none of these
38. There are three copies each of four different books. The number of ways in which they can be arranged in
a shelf is
12! 12! 21! 12!
a) (3!)4 b) (4!)3 c) (3!)4 4!
d) (4!)3 3!
39. Numbers greater than 1000 but not greater than 4000, which can be formed with the digits 0,1,2,3,4
(repetition of digits is allowed), are
a) 375 b) 374 c) 450 d) 576
40. If 𝛼 = 𝑚 𝐶2 , then 𝛼 𝐶2 is equal to
a) 𝑚+1 𝐶4 b) 𝑚−1 𝐶4 c) 3 𝑚+2 𝐶4 d) 3 𝑚+1 𝐶4
Page|6
41. In how many ways can a team of 11 players be formed out of 25 players, if six out of them are always to be
included and five always to be excluded
a) 2020 b) 2002 c) 2008 d) 8002
42. The coefficient of 𝑥 in the expansion of (𝑥 − 𝑥 − 2) is
5 2 5
a) −83 b) −82 c) −86 d) −81

43. If the sum of the coefficients in the expansion of (𝑎 + 𝑏) is 4096, then the greatest coefficient in the
𝑛
expansion is
a) 924 b) 792 c) 1594 d) None of these

is (are) correct.
darkened.
44. If √5 − 12𝑖 + √−5 − 12𝑖 = 𝑧, then principle value of arg 𝑧 can be

𝜋 𝜋 3𝜋 3𝜋
a) − b) c) d) −
4 4 4 4
45. If |𝑧 − (1/𝑧)| = 1 then
1 + √5 −1 −2 √5 − 1
a) |𝑧|max = b) |𝑧|min = √5 c) |𝑧|max = √5 d) |𝑧|min =
2 2 2 √2
46. The extremities of latus rectum of a parabola are (1,1) and (1,−1), then the equation of the parabola can be
a) 𝑦 2 = 2𝑥 − 1 b) 𝑦 2 = 1 − 2𝑥
c) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 − 3
2 d) 𝑦 2 = 2𝑥 − 4
47. 𝑥2
+
𝑦2
= 1 will represents the ellipse, if 𝑟 lies in the interval
𝑟 2 −𝑟−6 𝑟 2 −6𝑟+5
a) (−∞, −2) b) (3, ∞)
c) (5, ∞) d) (1, ∞)
48. If (5,12)and (24,7)are the foci of a conic passing through the origin the eccentricity of conic is
a) √386 b) √386
12 13
c) √386 d) √386
25 38
49. 𝑥𝑑𝑥+𝑦𝑑𝑦 1−𝑥 2 −𝑦 2
The solution of 𝑥𝑑𝑦−𝑦𝑑𝑥
=√ 𝑥 2 +𝑦 2
is
a) √𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 = sin{tan−1(𝑦/𝑥) + 𝐶} b) √𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 = cos{tan−1(𝑦/𝑥) + 𝐶}
c) √𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 = (tan(sin−1 𝑦/𝑥) + 𝐶) d) 𝑦 = 𝑥 tan(𝑐 + sin−1 √𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 )
Page|7
50. 𝑦 = 𝑎𝑒 −1/𝑥 + 𝑏 is a solution of 𝑑𝑦 = 𝑦 , then
𝑑𝑥 𝑥2
𝑎 takes finite number of
a) 𝑎 ∈ 𝑅 b) 𝑏 = 0 c) 𝑏 = 1 d)
values
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is
correct.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
This section contain(s) 1 paragraph(s). Based upon each paragraph, multiple choice questions have to
be answered. Each question has atleast 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Consider the parabola whose focus is at (0,0) and tangent at vertex is 𝑥 − 𝑦 + 1 = 0

51. The length of latus rectum is
a) b)
4√2 2√2
c) d)
8√2 3√2
52. Tangents drawn to the parabola at the extremities of the chord 3𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 0 intersect at an angle
a) 𝜋 b) 𝜋
6 3
c) 𝜋 d) None of these
2
Let 𝑃(𝑥, 𝑦) is a variable point such that

|√(𝑥 − 1)2 + (𝑦 − 2)2 − √(𝑥 − 5) + (𝑦 − 5)2 | = 3 which represents hyperbola
53. The eccentricity 𝑒′ of the corresponding conjugate hyperbola is
a) 5 b) 4
3 3
c) 5 d) 3
4 √7
54. Locus of intersection of two perpendicular tangents to the hyperbola is
a) 7 2 55 b) 7 2 25
(𝑥 − 3)2 + (𝑦 − ) = (𝑥 − 3)2 + (𝑦 − ) =
2 4 2 4
c) 7 2
7 d) None of these
(𝑥 − 3)2 + (𝑦 − ) =
2 4
Page|8
SHIVANI JUNIOR COLLEGES
JEE ADAVANCED - SUPER - 60 - MPC - II - PAPER – II

Date :21/07/2019 GRAND TEST - I
Time : 03:00:00Hrs Marks : 183
: ANSWER KEY :
1) b 2) a 3) b 4) a 33) d 34) a 35) b 36) d
5) c 6) b 7) a 8) a,d 37) a 38) a 39) b 40) d
9) b,c 10) b,c 11) b 12) a 41) b 42) d 43) a 44)a,b,c,d
13) a,b,c,d 14) b,c 15) c 16) c 45) a,b 46) a,c 47) a,c 48) a,d
17) a,b,c,d 18) c 19) a 20) b 49) a,d 50) a,b 51) b 52) c
21) c 22) b 23) b 24) d 53) c 54) d
25) a 26) a,b,c 27) a,c 28)a,b,c,d
29) a,c,d 30) a,b,c 31) b,c 32) a,c
Page|9
SHIVANI JUNIOR COLLEGE
NEET / JEE / EAMCET

Date :16/07/2019 TEST ID: 50
Time : 00:42:00Mins
Marks : 42
: HINTS AND SOLUTIONS :

19 (a) 0.693 0.693 1
0.6932 𝑘= = = 1 hr −1 =
𝑘= …(i) 𝑡1 0.693 3600 s
120 2
2.303 𝑎 = 2.7 × 10−4 s−1
𝑘= log
𝑡 0.10𝑎 24 (d)
2.303
= log 10 ….(ii) (d) is an aliphatic amine; so it is stronger base
𝑡
Equating (i) and (ii), than aromatic amine. Moreover, EWG
0.6932 2.303 [(−NO2 )at 𝑜, 𝑚, or 𝑝] decreases the basic
= character. The basicity order is:
120 𝑡
𝑡 = 399 min (d)>(a)>(c)>(b)
20 (b) 25 (a)
𝑘 = [conc]1−𝑛 min−1 1° amine or 1° aromatic amine containing EWG at
For third order reaction = [mol L−1 ]1−3 min−1 𝑜-and 𝑝-positions
= L2 mol−2 min−2 26 (a,b,c)
21 (c) All statements are self explanatory
100 27 (a,c)
𝑡90% = log = log 10 = 1
100 − 90 For second order reaction, order is 2
100 29 (a,c,d)
𝑡80% = log = log 5 = 0.7
100 − 80 b. The order is: Me2 NH > MeNH2 > Me3 N >
𝑡80% 0.7
= NH3 (2° > 1° > 3° > NH3 ). Statements (a), (c),
𝑡90% 1
and (d) are correct
∴ 𝑡80% = 100 × 0.7 = 70 min
22 (b)
𝑡75% = 2𝑡1/2
1.386 hr
∴ 𝑡1/2 = = 0.693 hr
2
P a g e | 10

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SHIVANI JUNIOR COLLEGES

JEE ADAVANCED - SUPER - 60 - MPC - II - PAPER – II

PART I: PHYSICS – PAPER – II

SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 28)

8. Susceptibility is positive for

15. Number of neutrons in a gold nucleus with 𝐴 = 197 and 𝑍 = 79 is

17. The correct statements about nuclear force is/are

SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 28)

SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 12)

33. What is the unit of rate constant of the reaction?

Paragraph for Question Nos. 35 to -36

PART III: MATHEMATICS – PAPER - II

a) −83 b) −82 c) −86 d) −81

SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 28)

44. If √5 − 12𝑖 + √−5 − 12𝑖 = 𝑧, then principle value of arg 𝑧 can be

Paragraph for Question Nos. 51 to -52

Consider the parabola whose focus is at (0,0) and tangent at vertex is 𝑥 − 𝑦 + 1 = 0

Let 𝑃(𝑥, 𝑦) is a variable point such that

53. The eccentricity 𝑒′ of the corresponding conjugate hyperbola is

JEE ADAVANCED - SUPER - 60 - MPC - II - PAPER – II

NEET / JEE / EAMCET

: HINTS AND SOLUTIONS :

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