1. Which of the following antibiotic acts by inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis?

A. Penicillin
B. Quinolones
C. Sulphonamides
D. Cephalosporins

2. Following are the second-generation Quinolones except

A. Gatifloxacin
B. Enoxacin
C. Sparfloxacin
D. Ciprofloxacin

3. The mechanism of action of Trimethoprim is

A. Inhibition of enzyme Dihydropteroate Synthetase
B. Activation of enzyme Dihydrofolate Reductase
C. Inhibition of enzyme Dihydrofolate Reductase
D. Activation of enzyme Dihydrofolate Reductase

4. All of the following combinations are true except:

A. Ciprofloxacin: Inhibition of DNA Gyrase
B. Polymyxin B: Inhibition of 50s protein synthesis
C. Erythromycin: Inhibition of 50s protein synthesis
D. Sulphonamide: Inhibition of folic acid

5. Co-trimoxazole is a combination of drugs

A. Sulphonamide + Chloramphenicol

B. Sulphonamide + Lincomycin

C. Sulphonamide + Trimethoprim

D. Sulphonamide + Tetracycline

6. Following adverse effects are shown by the corresponding drugs are true except
A. Chloramphenicol: gray baby syndrome
B. Cefoperazone: Disulfiram-like reactions
C. Tetracycline: Fanconi syndrome

D. Sulphonamide: Red man syndrome

7. Prolonged therapy of ............................................. leads to the development of Pseudo

membranous Colitis
A. Amikacin
B. Clindamycin
C. Streptomycin
D. Vancomycin

8. Which of the following drug acts by binding to the fungal ergosterol and altering its
cellular permeability?
A. Ketoconazole
B. Griseofulvin
C. Clotrimazole
D. Amphotericin B

9. Which antifungal acts by non-competitive inhibition of squalene epoxidase thereby

inhibition of ergosterol synthesis?
A. Flucytosine
B. Griseofulvin
C. Terbinafine
D. Ketoconazole

10. Gynaecomastia and menstrual irregularities are the adverse effects of ………………
A. Terbinafine
B. Flucytosine
C. Griseofulvin
D. Ketoconazole

11. Flucytosine acts by

A. Inhibition of Thymidylate Synthetase leading to inhibition of DNA synthesis
B. Disruption of the mitotic spindle during metaphase by interacting with fungal
microtubules
C. Inhibition of squalene epoxidase and blocks ergosterol formation in the cell membrane
D. Binding with the fungal DNA Gyrase enzyme

12. Following actions related to cytotoxicity of Alkylating agents are true except :

A. Breakage of DNA strand

B. Cross linking of DNA strands

C. Abnormal pairing of Purine and Pyrimidine bases

D. Inhibition of DNA Isomerase

13. Vinca alkaloids exert Anti-cancer activity by:

A. Activating Topoisomerase II to cause breaks in DNA strands

B. Cross linking DNA strands

C. Inhibiting DNA mediated RNA synthesis

D. Inhibiting polymerization of tubulin to form intracellular microtubules

14. The mechanism of action of Rifampicin involve

A. Inhibition of bacterial DNA directed RNA polymerase

B. Inhibition of Mycolic acid synthesis

C. Inhibition of protein synthesis

D. Inhibition of Transpeptidase

15. Select the drug which is used exclusively in organ transplantation and Auto-immune
diseases, but not in cancers:

A. Cyclophosphamide

B. Cyclosporine

C. Methotrexate

D. 6-Mercaptopurine

16. Which one of the following agents is not used in oral or implantable contraceptives?

A. Clomiphene
B. Ethinyl estradiol

C. Mestranol

D. Norethindrone

17. The thyroid gland normally secretes which of the following substances into the serum?

A. Diiodothyronine (DIT)

B. Thyrotropin (Thyroid-stimulating Hormone)

C. Thyroxine (T4)

D. Thyroglobulin

18. The drug used for cervical smoothing to facilitate labour is:

A. Oxytocin

B. Stilboestrol

C. Progesterone

D. Prostaglandin
19. Which one of the following drugs is recommended as a single agent for oral treatment of
uncomplicated malaria due to Chloroquine–resistant P falciparum strains?

A. Doxycycline

B. Iodoquinol

C. Primaquine

D. Quinine

20. Which of the following Anti-malarial drugs causes a dose–dependent toxic state that
includes flushed and sweaty skin, dizziness, nausea, diarrhoea, tinnitus, blurred vision,
and impaired hearing?

A. Amodiaquine
B. Sulfadoxine
C. Pyrimethamine
D. Quinine

21. Metronidazole is used for:

A. Giardiasis

B. Hook worm infestation

C. Kala-azar

D. Round worm infestation

22. Intravenous injection of quinine produces:

A. Rise in blood pressure

B. Neuromuscular block
C. Hyperglycaemia
D. Hypoglycaemia
23. Which of the following classes of compounds stimulates the release of insulin from
pancreatic β-cells?
A. Sulfonylureas
B. Biguanides
C. α-Glucosidase inhibitors
D. Thiourylenes

24. Insulin preparations that contain a modifying protein include:

A. Lente Insulin
B. Regular Insulin
C. Isophane Insulin (NPH)
D. Semilente Insulin

25. Which of the following Glucocorticoids produces the least sodium retention?

A. Corticosone
B. Hydrocorticosone
C. Prednisolone
D. Dextramethasone

26. Which of the following Antibiotics acts by inhibition of Peptidoglycan synthesis in

bacteria?
A. Trimethoprim
B. Cephalosporin
C. Primaquine
D. Chloramphenicol
27. One of the following Anti-microbial agents is associated with the adverse effect called
Ototoxicity:
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Isoniazid
C. Streptomycin
D. Linezolid

28. Which one of the following drugs is a Beta Lactamase Inhibitor?

A. Clavulanic Acid
B. Nitrofurantoin
C. Clindamycin
D. Streptogramin

29. Isoniazid is used in the treatment of:

A. Typhoid Fever
B. Amoebiasis
C. Tuberculosis
D. Influenza

30. Vitamin B-12 is used in the treatment of:

A. Thrombocytopenia
B. Megaloblastic Anaemia
C. Polycyathemia
D. Haemophilia

31. The Anti-viral activity of Saquinavir is due to:

A. Inhibition of viral Protease Enzyme
B. Binding with Viral Neuraminidase Enzyme
C. Prevention of viral attachment to host cell
D. Inhibition of viral uncoating
32. Which of the following is a first choice drug in the treatment of Pulmonary Embolism?
A. Warfarin
B. Heparin
C. Streptokinase
D. Menadione

33. Insulin Receptor is a type of:

A. Nuclear Receptor
B. Ligand Gated Ion Channel
C. Tyrosine Kinase Linked Receptor
D. G- Protein Coupled Receptor

34. The active drug present in Progestin-only type of Oral Contraceptives is:
A. Norethindrone
B. Medroxy-Progesterone
C. Estradiol
D. Levo-Norgestrel

35. The active form of Vitamin D is called as:

A. Calcitriol
B. Calmodulin
C. Calcitonin
D. Calsequestrin

36. The Anthelmintic Activity of Albendazole is due to:

A. Inhibition of Nucleic acid Synthesis
B. Binding with Protein -Beta-Tubulin
C. Activation of Haem-Polymerase
D. Inhibition of DNA Gyrase
 37. Oxytocin binds with the Receptors located in:
A. Ovarian Follicles
B. Myometrium
C. Fallopian Tubes
D. Hypothalamus

38. The Immuno-suppressant activity of Tacrolimus is associated with:

A. Inhibition of De-Novo Purine Synthesis
B. Blockade of Interleukin-2 Receptors
C. Binding with FKBP and Inhibition of Calcineurin
D. Formation of false Nucleotide to impair DNA Replication

39. Which of the following Drugs have Anti-Platelet activity?

A. Aspirin
B. Urokinase
C. Vitamin B 12
D. Warfarin

40. Which one of the Following drugs is used in the treatment of Leprosy?
A. Sulphadiazine
B. MetronidazolC
. Clofazimine
D. Primaquine

ANTIVIRAL AGENTS. AGENTS FOR CHEMOTHERAPY OF CANCER

All of the following antiviral drugs are the analogs ofnucleosides, EXCEPT:

a) Acyclovir

b) Zidovudine

c) Saquinavir

d) Didanozine

Tick the drug, a derivative of adamantane:

 a) Didanozine

b) Rimantadine

c) Gancyclovir

d) Foscarnet

Tick the drug, a derivative of pyrophosphate:

a) Foscarnet

b) Zidovudine

c) Vidarabine

d) Acyclovir

Tick the drug, inhibiting viral DNA synthesis:

a) Interferon

b) Saquinavir

c) Amantadine
 d) Acyclovir
Tick the drug, inhibiting uncoating of the viral RNA:

a) Vidarabine

b) Rimantadine

c) Acyclovir

d) Didanozine

Tick the drug, inhibiting viral reverse transcriptase:

a) Zidovudine

b) Vidarabine

c) Rimantadine

d) Gancyclovir
Tick the drug, inhibiting viral proteases:

a) Rimantadine

b) Acyclovir

c) Saquinavir

d) Zalcitabine

Tick the drug of choice for herpes and cytomegalovirusinfection treatment:

a) Saquinavir

b) Interferon alfa

c) Didanozine

d) Acyclovir

136
Tick the drug which belongs to nonnucleoside reversetranscriptase inhibitors:

a) Zidovudine

b) Vidarabine

c) Nevirapine

d) Gancyclovir

All of the following antiviral drugs are antiretroviral agents,EXCEPT:

a) Acyclovir

b) Zidovudine

c) Zalcitabine

d) Didanozine

Tick the drug used for influenza A prevention:

a) Acyclovir

b) Rimantadine

c) Saquinavir

d) Foscarnet

Tick the drug used for HIV infection treatment, a derivative ofnucleosides:

a) Acyclovir

b) Zidovudine

c) Gancyclovir

d) Trifluridine

Tick the antiviral drug which belongs to endogenous proteins:

a) Amantadine
 b) Saquinavir

c) Interferon alfa

d) Pencyclovir

Tick the drug which belongs to nucleoside reversetranscriptase inhibitors:

a) Didanosine

b) Gancyclovir

c) Nevirapine

d) Vidarabine

All of the following antiviral drugs are anti-influenza agents,EXCEPT:

a) Acyclovir

b) Amantadine

c) Interferons

d) Rimantadine

Tick the unwanted effects of zidovudine:

a) Hallucinations, dizziness

b) Anemia, neutropenia, nausea, insomnia

c) Hypertension, vomiting

d) Peripheral neuropathy
Tick the unwanted effects of intravenous acyclovir infusion:

a) Renal insufficiency, tremors, delerium

b) Rash, diarrhea, nausea

c) Neuropathy, abdominal pain

 d) Anemia, neutropenia, nausea, insomnia

Tick the drug that can induce peripheral neuropathy and oralulceration:

a) Acyclovire

b) Zalcitabine

c) Zidovudine

d) Saquinavir
Tick the unwanted effects of didanozine:

a) Hallucinations, dizziness, insomnia

b) Anemia, neutropenia, nausea

c) Hypertension, vomiting, diarrhea

d) Peripheral neuropathy, pancreatitis, diarrhea,

hyperuricemia

Tick the unwanted effects of indinavir:

a) Hypotension, vomiting, dizziness

b) Nephrolithiasis, nausea, hepatotoxicity

c) Peripheral neuropathy, pancreatitis, hyperuricemia

d) Anemia, neutropenia, nausea

Tick the drug that can induce nausea, diarrhea, abdominalpain and rhinitis:

137

a) Acyclovire

b) Zalcitabine

c) Zidovudine

d) Saquinavir
All of the following effects are disadvantages of anticancerdrugs, EXCEPT:

a) Low selectivity to cancer cells

b) Depression of bone marrow

c) Depression of angiogenesis

d) Depression of immune system

Rational combination of anticancer drugs is used to:

a) Provide synergism resulting from the use of anticancerdrugs with

different mechanisms combination

b) Provide synergism resulting from the use of anticancer drugs with the same
mechanisms combination

c) Provide stimulation of immune system

d) Provide stimulation of cell proliferation

Tick the anticancer alkylating drug, a derivative ofchloroethylamine:

a) Methotrexate

b) Cisplatin

c) Cyclophosphamide

d) Carmustine

Tick the anticancer alkylating drug, a derivative ofethylenimine:

a) Mercaptopurine

b) Thiotepa

c) Chlorambucil

d) Procarbazine

Tick the group of hormonal drugs used for cancer treatment:

 a) Mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids

b) Glucocorticoids and gonadal hormones

c) Gonadal hormones and somatotropin

d) Insulin
Tick the anticancer alkylating drug, a derivative ofalkylsulfonate:

a) Fluorouracil

b) Carboplatin

c) Vinblastine

d) Busulfan
Tick the anticancer drug of plant origin:

a) Dactinomycin

b) Vincristine

c) Methotrexate

d) Procarbazine

Action mechanism of alkylating agents is:

a) Producing carbonium ions altering protein structure

b) Producing carbonium ions altering DNA structure

c) Structural antagonism against purine and pyrimidine

d) Inhibition of DNA-dependent RNA synthesis

Tick the anticancer drug, a pyrimidine antagonist:

a) Fluorouracil

b) Mercaptopurine

c) Thioguanine
 d) Methotrexate
Methotrexate is:

a) A purine antagonist

b) A folic acid antagonist

c) An antibiotic

d) An alkylating agent

Tick the antibiotic for cancer chemotherapy:

a) Cytarabine

b) Doxorubicin

c) Gentamycin

d) Etoposide
Fluorouracil belongs to:

a) Antibiotics

b) Antimetabolites

c) Plant alkaloids

d) Bone marrow growth factor

Tick the action mechanism of anticancer drugs belonging toplant alkaloids:

a) Inhibition of DNA-dependent RNA synthesis

b) Cross-linking of DNA

c) Mitotic arrest at a metaphase

d) Nonselective inhibition of aromatases

ANTIVIRAL AGENTS. AGENTS FOR CHEMOTHERAPY OFCANCER

General contraindications for anticancer drugs are:

a) Depression of bone marrow

b) Acute infections

c) Severe hepatic and/or renal insufficiency

d) All of the above

Action mechanism of methotrexate is:

a) Inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase

b) Activation of cell differentiation

c) Catabolic depletion of serum asparagine

d) All of the above

Tick the anticancer drug belonging to inorganic metalcomplexes:

a) Dacarbazine

b) Cisplatin

c) Methotrexate

d) Vincristine

Tick the indication for estrogens in oncological practice:

a) Leukemia

b) Cancer of prostate

c) Endometrial cancer

d) Brain tumors
Enzyme drug used for acute leukemia treatment:

a) Dihydrofolate reductase

b) Asparaginase
 c) Aromatase

d) DNA gyrase

All of the following drugs are derivatives of nitrosoureas,EXCEPT:

a) Carmustine

b) Vincristine

c) Lomustine

d) Semustine

Tick the group of drugs used as subsidiary medicines in cancertreatment:

a) Cytoprotectors

b) Bone marrow growth factors

c) Antimetastatic agents

d) All of the above

Tick the estrogen inhibitor:

a) Leuprolide

b) Tamoxifen

c) Flutamide

d) Anastrozole

Tick the antiandrogen drug:

a) Flutamide

b) Aminoglutethimide

c) Tamoxifen

d) Testosterone
Tick the drug belonging to aromatase inhibitors:

a) Octreotide

b) Anastrozole

c) Flutamide

d) Tamoxifen

Tick the drug belonging to gonadotropin-releasing hormoneagonists:

a) Leuprolide

b) Tamoxifen

c) Flutamide

d) Anastrozole

1. Anticancer drugs weaken host defence by:

A. Damaging respiratory and gut epithelia

B. Inducing granulocytopenia

C. Altering resident microbial flora

D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Answer: [ D ]

2. Practically all antineoplastic drugs can produce the following toxic effects except:

A. Depression of leucocyte count

B. Mucositis

C. Cardiomyopathy

D. Oligozoospermia

Answer: [ C ]
3. Alkylating agents exert cytotoxic action by inducing:

A. Breakage of DNA strand

B. Cross linking of DNA strands

C. Abnormal pairing of purine and pyrimidine bases

D. All of the above

Answer: [ D ]

4. The following is true of cyclophosphamide except:

A. It is highly reactive and a vesicant on contact

B. It is a prodrug

C. It has marked immunosuppressant property

D. It frequently causes alopecia and cystitis

Answer: [ A ]

5. The most important target of action of chlorambucil is:

A. Myeloid tissue

B. Lymphoid tissue

C. Neural tissue

D. Skin

Answer: [ B ]

6. Which of the following neoplastic diseases is almost curable by chemotherapy:

A. Bronchogenic carcinoma
B. Choriocarcinoma

C. Malignant melanoma

D. Colorectal carcinoma

Answer: [ B ]

7. The following anticancer drug has high emetogenic potential:

A. Vincristine

B. Chlorambucil

C. 6-Mercaptopurine

D. Cisplatin

Answer: [ D ]

8. The following is true of cancer chemotherapy:

A. Anticancer drugs increase the risk of developing leukaemias and lymphomas several years later

B. All anticancer drugs are highly emetogenic

C. Growth fraction of cancers is higher than any nomral tissue of the body

D. All of the above are correct

Answer: [ A ]

9. Methotrexate has the following attributes except:

A. It is cell cycle specific and kills cells in the S phase

B. Its toxicity primarily affects bone marrow and epithelial structures

C. Folic acid reverses its toxic effects

D. It is the drug of choice for choriocarcinoma

Answer: [ C ]

10. The following antineoplastic drug is a mitotic inhibitor and causes metaphase arrest:

A. Busulfan

B. Vincristine

C. Cytarabine

D. Procarbazine

Answer: [ B ]

11. Vinca alkaloids exert antitumor activity by:

A. Activating topoisomerase II to cause breaks in DNA strands

B. Crosslinking DNA strands

C. Inhibiting DNA mediated RNA synthesis

D. Inhibiting polymerization of tubulin to form intracellular microtubules

Answer: [ D ]

12. The following cytotoxic drug acts by inhibiting depolymerization of tubulin and thus
producing abnormal arrays of microtubules:

A. Paclitaxel

B. Vinblastine

C. Etoposide

D. Mitoxantrone

Answer: [ A ]
1. Choose the antimicrobial which acts by interfering with DNA function in the bacteria:

A. Chloramphenicol

B. Ciprofloxacin

C. Streptomycin

D. Vancomycin

ANSWER: [ B ]

2. Which antibiotic is primarily bacteriostatic but becomes bactericidal at higher

concentrations:

A. Erythromycin

B. Tetracycline

C. Chloramphenicol

D. Ampicillin

ANSWER: [ A ]

3. Select the antibiotic that has a high therapeutic index:

A. Streptomycin

B. Doxycycline

C. Cephalexin

D. Vancomycin

ANSWER: [ C ]

4. The following organism is notorious for developing antimicrobial resistance rapidly:

A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Meningococcus

C. Treponema pallidum

D. Escherichia coli

ANSWER: [ D ]

5. Widespread and prolonged use of an antibiotic leads to emergence of drug resistant strains
because antibiotics:

A. Induce mutation in the bacteria

B. Promote conjugation among bacteria

C. Allow resistant strains to propagate preferentially

D. All of the above

ANSWER: [ C ]

6. The most important mechanism of concurrent acquisition of multidrug resistance among

bacteria is:

A. Mutation

B. Conjugation

C. Transduction

D. Transformation

ANSWER: [ B ]

7. Drug destroying type of bacterial resistance is important for the following antibiotics except:

A. Cephalosporins

B. Tetracyclines

C. Chloramphenicol
D. Aminoglycosides

ANSWER: [ B ]

8. Acquisition of inducible energy dependent efflux proteins by bacteria serves to:

A. Secrete exotoxins

B. Enhance virulance

C. Lyse host tissue

D. Confer antibiotic resistance

ANSWER: [ D ]

9. Methicillin resistant staphylococci do not respond to β -lactam antibiotics because:

A. They produce a β-lactamase which destroys methicillin and related drugs

B. They elaborate an amidase which destroys methicillin and related drugs

C. They have acquired penicillin binding protein which has low affinity for β-lactam antibiotics

D. They are less permeable to β-lactam antibiotics

ANSWER: [ C ]

10. The following strategy will promote rather than curb emergence of antibiotic resistant
micro-organisms:

A. Whenever possible use broad spectrum antibiotics

B. Prefer a narrow spectrum antibiotic to a broad spectrum one if both are equally effective

C. Prefer short and intensive courses of antibiotics

D. Use antibiotic combinations for prolonged therapy

ANSWER: [ A ]
11. Superinfections are more common with:

A. Use of narrow spectrum antibiotics

B. Short courses of antibiotics

C. Use of antibiotics that are completely absorbed from the small intestines

D. Use of antibiotic combinations covering both gram positive and gram negative bacteria

ANSWER: [ D ]

1. Histamine H2 blockers attenuate the gastric secretory response to acetylcholine and

pentagastrin as well because:

A. H2 blockers block gastric mucosal cholinergic and gastrin receptors as well

B. H2 blockers inhibit the proton pump in gastric mucosa

C. Acetylcholine and gastrin act partly by releasing histamine in gastric mucosa

D. Histamine, acetylcholine and gastrin all act through the phospholipase C-IP3:DAG pathway in
gastric mucosa

ANSWER: [ C ]

2. For healing duodenal ulcer the usual duration of H2 blocker therapy is:

A. 4 weeks

B. 6 weeks

C. 8 weeks

D. 12 weeks

ANSWER: [ C ]

3. What is true of acid control therapy with H2 blockers:

A. It generally heals duodenal ulcers faster than gastric ulcers

B. It checks bleeding in case of bleeding peptic ulcer

C. It prevents gastroesophageal reflux

D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

ANSWER: [ A ]

4. In the intact animal H2 receptor antagonists potentiate the following action of histamine:

A. Cardiac stimulation

B. Fall in blood pressure

C. Uterine relaxation

D. Bronchospasm

ANSWER: [ D ]

5. Gynaecomastia can occur as a side effect of:

A. Bromocriptine

B. Cimetidine

C. Famotidine

D. Levodopa

ANSWER: [ B ]

6. Which histamine H2 blocker has most marked inhibitory effect on microsomal cytochrome P-
450 enzyme:

A. Cimetidine

B. Ranitidine

C. Roxatidine

D. Famotidine

ANSWER: [ A ]

7. Choose the correct statement about H2 receptor blockers:

A. They are the most efficacious drugs in inhibiting gastric acid secretion

B. They cause fastest healing of duodenal ulcers

C. They prevent stress ulcers in the stomach

D. They afford most prompt relief of ulcer pain

ANSWER: [ C ]

8. Ranitidine differs from cimetidine in the following respect:

A. It is less potent

B. It is shorter acting

C. It does not have antiandrogenic action

D. It produces more CNS side effects

ANSWER: [ C ]

9. Compared to H2 blockers, omeprazole affords the following:

A. Faster relief of ulcer pain

B. Faster healing of duodenal ulcer

C. Higher efficacy in healing reflux esophagitis

D. All of the above

ANSWER: [ D ]

10. Choose the drug which blocks basal as well as stimulated gastric acid secretion without
affecting cholinergic, histaminergic or gastrin receptors:

A. Famotidine

B. Loxatidine

C. Omeprazole

D. Pirenzepine

ANSWER: [ C ]

11. Omeprazole exerts practically no other action except inhibition of gastric acid secretion
because:

A. It transforms into the active cationic forms only in the acidic pH of the gastric juice
B. Its active forms have selective affinity for the H+K+ATPase located in the apical canaliculi of
gastric parietal cells

C. Its cationic forms are unable to diffuse out from the gastric parietal cell canaliculi

D. All of the above

ANSWER: [ C ]