SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA.

A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
OUTGOING SR ELITE, AIIMS S60, MPL, MEDICON & LTC DATE : 22-07-2021
SUB : BOTANY NEET GRAND TEST - 3 Max.Marks : 720

Guidelines :
In every subject :
(a) In section – A, 35 questions will be given. Answer all 35 questions from section – A
(b) In section – B, 15 questions will be given. Out of which Answer 10 questions only.

BOTANY
SECTION – A
01. Which of the following statements given below is NOT true regarding secondary growth in dicot
stem ?
(1) Annual ring is combination of spring wood and autumn wood produced in a year
(2) Annual rings are formed in cortex region of stem
(3) The amount of heart wood in a plant gradually increases year by year
(4) Phellem is formed by activity of phellogen
02. Study the following sequence

51 AGCTATGCATTGCCC 31
One of the following options does not cause/lead to frame shift mutation.
(1) Insertion of ‘T’ at 3rd position
(2) Deletion of T, G at 6th and 7th position
(3) Deletion of TTG at 10, 11, 12 positions
(4) Insertion of ‘A’ at 8th position
03. Experimental verification of chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by
(1) T H Morgan (2) Sutton and Boveri
(3) Alfred Sturtevant (4) G.J. Mendal
04. Concanavalin-A is
(1) Lectin (2) Pigment (3) Alkaloid (4) Essential oil
05. Indentify the incorrect match regarding post fertilization changes
(1) Fertilized ovule - Fruit (2) Zygote develops into embryo
(3) Outer integument - Testa (4) Micropyle of ovule – Seed pore
06. Which among the following is NOT a physiological effect of Auxins ?
(1) Cause apical dominance (2) Break bud and seed dormancy
(3) Xylem differentiation (4) Parthenocarpy in tomato

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07. Which of the following is a source of immunosuppressive agent?
(1) Streptococcus (2) Monascus purpureus
(3) Trichoderma polysporum (4) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
08. Activity of enucleated sieve tube element of phloem is controlled by
(1) Phloem parenchyma (2) Xylem parenchyma
(3) Companion cells (4) Tracheids
09. Formation of seed without fertilization is called
(1) Apogamy (2) Apospory (3) Apomixis (4) Parthenocarpy
10. Cell organelle producing Golgi complex is
(1) Plastids (2) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Mitochondria (4) Nucleolus
11. Without exception a defining feature of living organisms
(1) Growth (2) Metabolism
(3) Reproduction (4) Self consciousness
12. During the development of female gametophyte in Angiosperms, cell walls are formed around _____
number of nuclei
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 3 (4) 6
13. Which of the following statement is NOT correct?
(1) Synthesis of glycoprotein and glycolipids is function of golgi complex
(2) Nucleolus is site for rRNA synthesis
(3) Metacentric chromosome has one long arm and one short arm
(4) Hydrolytic enzymes of Lysosomes are active under acidic pH
14. Match the following :
(A) ss DNA (I) T-even bacteriophage
(B) ss RNA (II) HIV
(C) ds DNA (III) φ ×174 bacteriophage
A B C A B C
(1) I II III (2) II I III
(3) III II I (4) I III II
15. Biochemical characterization of transforming principle was carried out by
(1) Alfred Hershey, Martha Chase
(2) Oswald Avery, Colin Macleod, Maclyn McCarty
(3) Frederick Griffith
(4) Jacob, Monad

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16. Incorrect regarding restriction endonucleases is
(1) They break phosphodiester bonds
(2) The name is given as they restrict multiplication of viruses in bacterial cells
(3) The enzyme recognizes a specific palindromic sequence and acts on it
(4) They belong to class Lyases and are present in all living organisms
17. The activated toxin of Bacillus thuringenesis binds to the surface of insect
(1) Hind gut epithelial cells (2) Mid gut epithelial cells
(3) Foregut epithelial cells (4) Eye of corn borer
18. Girdling experiments are carried out
(1) To measure root pressure in plants
(2) To prove transport of food is through phloem
(3) Guttation process in grasses
(4) Transpiration process in plants
19. Epigynous flowers are seen in
(1) Datura (2) Allium cepa (3) Mustard (4) Cucumber
20. (A) : Cofactor may be organic or inorganic in nature.
(B) : Biological catalyst (enzymes) present inside the cells are always organic
(1) (A) is true but (B) is false (2) (A) is false but (B) is true
(3) (A) and (B) are false (4) (A) and (B) are true
21. Pusa Gaurav is variety of
(1) Okra (Bhindi) (2) Rapeseed (Mustard)
(3) Flat bean (4) Chilli
22. Perisperm is present in seed of
(1) Dolichos (2) Orchids (3) Blackpepper (4) Pisum
23. Match the following :
I II
(A) Lichens I. Pollution indicators
(B) Mycorrhizae II. Symbiosis
(C ) Viroid III. Free RNA
(D) Prion IV. CJD
A B C D A B C D
(1) I II III IV (2) II I IV III
(3) II I III IV (4) IV II III I
24. Monocyclic and heterocyclic nitrogen base found in RNA only is
(1) Uracil (2) Cytosine (3) Thymine (4) Adenine

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25. What is the direction of movement of water in xylem?
(1) Unidirectional /Upward (2) Bi-directional
(3) Multi-directional (4) None of these
26. Duplication of centrioles and DNA replication occurs in following sub-phase of cell cycle
(1) G1 phase (2) ‘S’ phase (3) G phase (4) Metaphase
2
27. Formation of PGAL and DHAP from fructose 1,6 diphosphate in glycolysis is catalysed by
(1) Aldolase (2) Pyruvate kinase (3) Enolase (4) Hexokinase
28. The separated DNA fragments can be visualized after staining the DNA with a compound called
(1) Acetocarmine (2) Crystal violet (3) Fast green (4) Ethidium bromide
29. In Antirrhinum (Snapdragon), the following cross was carried out Rr x Rr; choose the incorrect
statement regarding the above cross
(1) Homozygous Red and Homozygous Pink colour plants are produced
(2) Red and White flowered plants are produced in 1 : 1 ratio
(3) Phenotypic and genotypic ratios are 1 : 2 : 1
(4) 1/2 plants are homozygous
30. Which of the following is NOT an example for biocontrol agent ?
(1) Baculovirus (2) Trichoderma (3) Nostoc (4) Bacillus thuringiensis
.31. Chief conducting elements of water and minerals in xylem of Angiosperms are
(1) Xylem fibres (2) Vessels
(3) Xylem parenchyma (4) Sieve cells
32. The spores germinate to produce dioecious (Unisexual) thalloid gametophytes in
(1) Funaria (2) Spirogyra (3) Marchantia (4) Pteris
33. Xylem of dicot leaf is present towards
(1) Abaxial surface (2) Dorsal surface (3) Adaxial surface (4) Lower surface of leaf
34. Aseptate coenocytic mycelium is observed in
(1) Phycomycetes (2) Ascomycetes (3) Basidiomycetes (4) Deuteromycetes
35. Which of the following is incorrect statement regarding Protista ?
(1) It forms a link with plants, animals and fungi
(2) Organisms have membrane bound cell organelles
(3) Their locomotary organs may be cilia, flagella or pseudopodia
(4) All members of this kingdom are decomposers
SECTION – B
36. Which one among the following lack a helical structure ?
(1) Collagen (2) Starch (3) Cellulose (4) DNA
37. Which tissue is absent in the vascular bundle of a dicot stem ?
(1) Meristem (2) Parenchyma (3) Collenchyma (4) Sclerenchyma
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38. A ensures the production of haploid phase in the life cycle of sexually reproducing organisms where as
B restores the diploid phase in such organisms. A and B respectively are
(1) Mitosis and meiosis (2) Meiosis and fertilisation
(3) Mitosis and fertilisation (4) Fertilisation and meiosis
39. Kranz anatomy is typical of
(1) C4 plants (2) C3 (3) CAM plants (4) Gymnosperms
40. “Something from a dead bacteria organism could change the physical form of living bacteria”
The above statement is related to experimental findings of
(1) Griffith (2) Avery, Mc.leoad (3) Herchay and Chase (4) Watson and Crick
41. Assertion (A) : Endosperm in angiospermic seed is triploid and is a post fertilisation product
Reason (R) : The male gamete fuse with two polar nuclei located in the central cell to produce
primary endosperm nucleus which later develop into endosperm
(1) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are correct and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are correct but the reason does not explain assertion
(3) Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is incorrect
(4) Assertion (A) is incorrect and Reason (R) is correct
42. DNA independent RNA polymerase enzyme is
(1) Enzyme catalyzing DNA replication
(2) Enzyme catalysing transcription
(3) Enzyme catalyzing reverse transcription
(4) Ochoa enzyme
43. Discovery of triple helical structure of collagen was published in
(1) Anatomy of Seed plants (2) Systema Naturae
(3) Micrographia (4) Nature
44. Synapsis is pairing of
(1) Any two chromosomes (2) Non-homologous chromosomes
(3) Homologous chromosomes (4) Two maternal chromosomes
45. Which of the following is true for golden rice?
(1) It is Vitamin A enriched with a gene from daffodil
(2) It has pest resistant gene from Bacillus thuringiensis bacterium
(3) It has yellow grains, because of a gene introduced from a primitive variety of rice
(4) It is drought resistant rice variety
46. Incorrect statement regarding mitochondrial electron transport system
(1) Number of ATP molecules synthesized depend on nature of electron donor
(2) Ubiquinone receives reducing equivalents via FADH 2 also

(3) Cytochrome ‘c’ is a immobile carrier lipid attached to inner mitochondrial membrane
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 (4) Complex IV has two copper centers
47. Examples of secondary succession are
(1) Newly created pond, Lands have been flooded
(2) Bare rock, newly created reservior
(3) Burnt or cut forests, lands that have been flooded
(4) Bare rock, newly cooled lava
48. Atmospheric nitrogen is regenerated and biologically fixed respectively by
(1) Nitrobacter, Rhizobium (2) Rhizobium, Nitrosomonas
(3) Pseudomonas, Rhizobium (4) Thiobacillus, Bacillus ramosus
49. Which of the following is not a product of redifferentiation?
(1) Cork (2) Phelloderm (3) Secondary xylem (4) Cork Cambium
50. Identify the incorrect statement regarding signal peptide
(1) Signal sequences are located on the N-terminus of some proteins
(2) They prompt a cell to translocate a protein
(3) Signal sequences are cleaved on cisternae of Golgi complex
(4) It is cleaved by signal peptidase
ZOOLOGY
SECTION - A
51. What is common to Silkworm, Filarial worm and Tapeworm?
(1) Double ventral nerve cord (2) Complete gut
(3) Bilateral symmetry (4) Sexual dimorphism
52. All the given below features of birds are useful for them to fly except
(1) Air sacs connected to lungs (2) Pneumatisation of bones
(3) Forelimbs are modified into wings (4) Heart is completely four chambered
53. From the below mentioned sexually transmitted diseases, identify the one which does not specially
affect the sex organs
(1) Syphilis (2) AIDS (3) Gonorrhoea (4) Genital warts
54. Members of which phylum of the following can live in all kinds of habitats?
(1) Eichnodermata (2) Arthropoda (3) Porifera (4) Cnidaria
55. Neurons with only one axon and without dendrites are usually found in
(1) Retina of eye (2) Embryonic stage
(3) Cerebral cortex (4) Dorsal root ganglion
56. Seminal plasma does not include the secretions of
(1) Seminal vesicles (2) Bartholin’s glands
(3) Prostate gland (4) Bulbourethral glands

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57. In the ovary of female human, degeneration of a large number of primary follicles occurs during
which phase?
(1) From menarch to menopause (2) From birth to puberty
(3) From foetal stage to birth (4) From menopause to death
58. Which of the following hormonal combination is associated with normal lactation?
(1) Prolactin + Oxytocin (2) Estrogen + Progesterone
(3) Somatomammotropin + Cortisol (4) Oxytocin + Relaxin

59. In a vertebrate myelinated neuron, the number of voltage-gated Na + and K + channels per square
micrometer is maximum at
(1) Axon terminal (2) Dendritic zone
(3) Node of Ranvier (4) Cell body
60. Which of the following is a diploid stage ?
(1) Secondary spermato cycle (2) Polar body
(3) Spermatid (4) Oogonia
61. ADA is an enzyme which is deficient in the genetic disorder called SCID. The site of production of
ADA in the body is
(1) Lymphocytes (2) Erythrocytes (3) Platelets (4) Mast cells
62. Highly poisonus cardiac glycosides are produced by
(1) Acasia (2) Casia (3) Arabadopsis (4) Calotropis
63. The interaction between sea anemone and clown fish that lives among stinging tentacles of sea
anemone is an example of
(1) Commensalism (2) Mutualism (3) Parasitism (4) Predation
64. Verhulst – Pearl logistic growth equation is
dN  K-N 
(1) = rN (2) dN / dt = rN 
dt  K 
dN
(3) N t = N 0 e rt (4) = (b-d)N
dt
65. One green house gas contributes 14% and another contributes 6% to total global warming. These
gases respectively are
(1) Methane and CO2 (2) CFCs and N 2O

(3) N 2O and CO2 (4) O3 and wáter vapour

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66. High levels of species richness and high degree of endemism can be observed in
(1) Indo-Burma and Himalaya biodiversity hotspots
(2) Keoladeo Ghana National park
(3) Sacred grooves of Khasi and Jaintia Hills in Meghalaya
(4) Nanda Devi Bisphere Reserve
67. “The Evil Quartet” is the sobriquet used to describe
(1) Conservation of biodiverstiy (2) Causes of biodiversity losses
(3) Causes of distribution of biodiversity (4) Patterns of regaining lost biodiverstiy
68. Which of the following is a fresh water fish ?
(1) Hilsa (2) Pomfret (3) Rohu (4) Sardine
69. As per Allen’s rule mammals residing in colder climates have
(1) Shorter ear lobes and shorter limbs (2) Longer ear lobes and longer limbs
(3) Shorter ear lobes and longer limbs (4) Longer ear lobes and shorter limbs
70. Study the following and choose the incorrect
(1) Morphin and Heroin are opioids
(2) Marijuana and Hashish are cannabinoids
(3) Crack and Smack are coca alkaloids
(4) Atropa and Datura are plants with hallocinogenic properties
71. Milk containing human alpha-lactalbumin is produced by a transgenic cow
(1) Trassy (2) Andi (3) Dolly (4) Rosie
72. Choose the option in which the disease, its mode of infection and symptom are correctly matched
Disease Mode of Infection Symptom
(1) Diphtheria Through contaminated food Intestinal perforation
(2) Pneumonia Through blood transfusion Alveoli get filled with fluid
(3) Common cold Through droplets from infected person Sore throat
(4) Amoebiasis Bite of female mosquito Mucus and blood in stool
73. Method of sex determination in poultry birds is
(1) ZO-ZZ type (2) ZW-ZZ type (3) XO-XX type (4) XX-XY type
74. Which enzyme of the following is not involving in the digestion of food stuffs ?
(1) Pepsin (2) Lysozyme (3) Aminopeptidase (4) Nucleosidase
75. Peripheral chemoreceptors associated with aortic arch and carotid artery recognise changes in CO2

and H + concentration and send necessary signals to

(1) Pneumotaxic centre (2) Respiratory rhythm centre
(3) Cental chemoreceptors (4) Apneustic centre

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76. Which genetic disorder is not the resultant of aneuploidy ?
(1) Edward’s syndrome (2) Myotonic dystrophy
(3) Turner’s syndrome (4) Klinefelter’s syndrome
77. Smooth muscles and elastic fibres are present in this layer of artery
(1) Tunica externa (2) Tunica interna
(3) Tunica media (4) Endothelium
78. Which of the following is not a component of thin filament ?
(1) Tropomyosin (2) Actin (3) Troponin (4) Meromyosin
79. Hormone that enhances cellular glucose uptake and utilization is secreted by
(1) β - cells of Islets of Langarhans (2) α - cells of Islets of Langarhans
(3) δ - cells of páncreas (4) f - cells of páncreas
80. Joints present between carpals are
(1) Cartilaginous joints (2) Gliding joints
(3) Fibrous joints (4) Saddle joints
81. Human brain is covered by cranial meninges, the thin middle layer is called
(1) Arachnoid (2) Dura mater
(3) Piamater (4) Menix primitiva
82. What is the point with greatest visual acuity ?
(1) Macula (2) Fovea (3) Crista (4) Sclera
83. Which of the following used hides to protect their body and buried their dead ?
(1) Dryopithecus (2) Homo habilis (3) Neanderthal man (4) Homoerectus
84. Flippers of penguins and dolphins are the example of
(1) Analogy (2) Homology
(3) Divergent evolution (4) Stabilising selection
85. In HGP, the sequence of chromosome 1 was completed in
(1) April 2001 (2) March 2009 (3) May 2006 (4) June 2003
SECTION – B
86. Follow the features
a) Fibres and fibroblasts are compactly packed
b) It is mesodermal in origin
c) Many fibres are oriented differently
Where do you find the connective tissue with the above features?
(1) Skin (2) Tendons (3) Elastic ligaments (4) Nephrons
87. Identifty the correct reaction

(1) Starch → Glucose + Glucose

Maltase

(2) Fats 

→ Glycerol + Fatty acids
Amylase

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 (3) Peptones 
→ Depeptides
Trypsin

(4) Nucleic acids → Sugars + Base

Nucleosidase

88. Choose the incorrect combination

Organ Hormone Enzyme
(1) Kidney Erythropoietin Renin
(2) Stomach Gastrin Pepsinogen
(3) Pancreas Insulin Amylase
(4) Liver Cholecystokinin Bilirubin
89. Functional Residual Capacity is represented as
(1) IRV +RV (2) ERV + RV (3) TV + ERV (4) IRV + TV
90. Among the following which is the best indicator of water pollution caused due to mixing of human
faeces ?
(1) Trypanosoma (2) Bacillus (3) E. coli (4) Paramecium
91. In a standard ECG, the depolarization of atria is represented by
(1) P – wave (2) Q – wave (3) R – wave (4) S – wave
92. Given below are four matchings of an animal and its kind of respiratory organs
A) Dolphin – Gills B) Locusta – Trachea
C) Lancelet – Lungs D) Crab – Gills
The correct matchings are
(1) B and D (2) A and C (3) B, C and D (4) A, B and C
93. Which of the following is not a bone of cranium ?
(1) Sphenoid (2) Ethmoid (3) Hyoid (4) Occipital
94. High threshold substances are
(1) Glucose, creatinine and sodium (2) Urea, uric acid and amino acid
(3) Creatinine, urocrome and hippuric acid (4) Glucose, amino acids and vitamins
95. Hypercalcemic hormone is
(1) TCT (2) FSH (3) MSH (4) PTH
96. Identify the one related to fishery industry
(1) White revolution (2) Green revolution
(3) Industrial revolution (4) Blue revolution
97. Assertion –(A) : Induced abortions are considered relatively safe during the first trimester i.e., up to
12 weeks of pregnancy.
Reason-(R) : MTPs are always surgical.
(1) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are correct and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are correct but the reason does not explain assertion
(3) Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is incorrect
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 (4) Assertion (A) is incorrect and Reason (R) is correct
98. Consider the following statements on ecological pyramids and pick out the correct statements
A) Pyramid of energy can never be inverted, because when energy flows from a particular trophic
level to the next trophic level, some energy is always lost as heat at each step.
B) In all ecosystems, the pyramids of number and of biomass are upright.
C) The pyramid of biomass of sea is generally inverted because the biomass of fishes far excedes
that of phytoplankton.
(1) Only A (2) A and B only (3) A and C only (4) All A, B and C
99. A haemophilic father passes the defective gene
(1) to all his daughters (2) either to his son or to his daughter
(3) to all his sons (4) neither to his sons nor to his daughters
100. Lymph collected from limbs never reaches the blood without passing through at least one lymph
node. This is for
(1) Filtration of micro organisms (2) Absorption of glucose
(3) Absorption of fatty acids (4) Separation of waste materials
PHYSICS
SECTION – A
101. Read the following statements and Identify the correct statement/s.
A: A choice of change of different units change the number of significant digits.
B: To remove ambiguities in determining the number of significant figures, the best way is to report
the measurement in scientific notation.
C: Solid angle made by a hemisphere at its centre is 4 π steradian.
(1) Only A is true (2) Only B is true
(3) Both A and B are true (4) A, B and C are true
102. An aeroplane is to go along straight line from A to B, and back again. The relative speed of
aeroplane with respect to wind is V. The wind blows perpendicular to line AB with speed v. The
distance between A and B is l. The total time for the round trip is

2l 2vl 2Vl 2l
(1) (2) 2 2
(3) 2 2
(4)
V 2 − v2 V −v V −v V 2 + v2
103. A ball is thrown with a velocity of 6m/s vertically downwards from a height H=3.2m above a

horizontal floor. If it rebounds back to same height then coefficient of restitution e is [ g = 10m / s 2 ]
(1) 0.5 (2) 0.6 (3) 0.7 (4) 0.8
104. A sonometer is set on the floor of a lift. When the lift is at rest, the sonometer wire vibrates with
9g
fundamental frequency 256 Hz. When the lift goes up with acceleration a = , frequency of
16
vibration of the same wire changes to
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 (1) 512 Hz (2) 320 Hz (3) 256 Hz (4) 204 Hz
105. When a ceiling fan is switched on, it makes 10 rotations in the first 3 seconds. How many rotations
will it make in the next 3 seconds? (Assume uniform angular acceleration.)
(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 30 (4) 40
106. A convex glass lens ( µ g = 1.5) has a focal length of 8 cm when placed in air. What is the focal

 4
length of the lens when it is immersed in water  µ g = 
 3
(1) 32 cm (2) 6 cm (3) 16 cm (4) 30 cm
107. A particle undergoes SHM with a time period of 2 seconds. In how much time will it travel from its
mean position to a displacement equal to half of its amplitude?
1 1 1 1
(1) s (2) s (3) s (4) s
2 3 4 6
108. Two waves travelling in a medium in the x-direction are represented by y1 = Asin (α t − β x ) and

y 2 = A cos ( β x + α t − π / 4) , where y1 and y 2 are the displacements of the particles of the

medium, t is time, and α and β are constants. The two waves have different
(1) Speeds (2) Directions of propagation
(3) Wavelenghts (4) Frequencies
109. An astronaut of mass m is working in a satellite orbiting the earth at a distance h from the earth’s
surface. The radius of the earth is R, while its mass is M. The gravitational pull FG on the astronaut
is
GMm GMm
(1) Zero since astronaut feels weightlessness (2) < FG <
( R + h) 2 R2
GMm GMm
(3) FG = (4) 0 < FG <
2
( R + h) R2
110. A point charge 7.5 µC is kept at the origin. The magnitude of strength of electric field at (4m, 3m)
is

(1) 1.8 × 103 NC−1 (2) 2.1× 103 NC−1 (3) 2.7 × 103 N C (4) 0
111. A raindrop reaching the ground with terminal velocity has momentum p. Another drop of twice the
radius, also reaching the ground with terminal velocity, will have momentum
(1) 4p (2) 8p (3) 16p (4) 32p
112. The emf of a battery A is balanced by a length of 80 cm on a potentiometer wire. The emf of a
standard cell 1 V is balancd by 50 cm. The emf of A is
(1) 2 V (2) 1.4 V (3) 1.5 V (4) 1.6 V

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113. In a p-n junction, the depletion region is 400nm wide and an electric field of 5x105V/m exists in it.
What should be the minimum kinetic energy of a conduction electron which can diffuse from the n-
side to the p-side ?
(1) 0.1 eV (2) 0.3 eV (3) 0.2 eV (4) 0.4 eV
114. In the figure the volume of flask Y is twice that of flask X and is connected by a narrow tube as
shown. The system is filled with an ideal gas and the flasks X and Y are kept at 200 K and 400 K
respectively. If the mass of the gas in X is “m”, the mass of the gas in Y is
400 K
200 K
(1) m/4 (2) 2m y (3) m
x (4) m/2

115. An electron of mass m and charge q is travelling with a speed v aong a circular path of radius r at
right angles to a uniform magnetic filed B. If speed of the electron is double and the magnetic field is
halved, then resulting path would have a radius of
(1) r/4 (2) r/2 (3) 2r (4) 4 r
116. Two spherical black bodies made of same material and with the same surface finish have masses
M1 and M2 and are at temperatures T1 and T2. If they are radiating the same power, M1 / M2 must
be
(1) (T1 / T2 ) 6 (2) (T1 / T2 ) 4 (3) (T2 / T1 )6 (4) (T2 / T1 ) 4
117.

The valve V in the bent tube is initially kept closed. Two soap bubbles A (smaller) and B (larger) are
formed at the two open ends of the tube. V is now opened, and air can flow freely between the
bubbles.
(1) There will be no change in the sizes of the bubbles
(2) The bubbles will become of equal size
(3) A will become smaller and B will become larger.
(4) The sizes of the two bubbles will become interchanged.
118. A weight is hung over a pulley and attached to a string composed of two parts, each made of the
same material but one having four times the diameter of the other. The string is plucked so that a
pulse moves along it, moving at speed v1 in the thick part and at speed v2 in the thin part. What is
v1/v2 ?

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 (1) 1/1 (2) 1/2 (3) 1/4 (4) 2/1
119. In a Young’s double-slit experiment, the central bright fringe can be identified
(1) As it has greater intensity than the other bright fringes
2) As it is wider than the other bright fringes
3) As it is narrower than the other bright fringes
4) By using white light instead of monochromatic light
120. For a closed surface through which the net flux is zero, each of the following four statements could
be true. Which of the statements must be true ?
a) There are no charges inside the surface
b) The net charge inside the surface is zero
c) The electric field is zero everywhere on the surface
d) The number of electric field lines entering the surface equals the number leaving the surface
(1) a, c (2) b, d (3) b, c (4) a, d
121. Infinite conducting rings each having current I in the directions shown are placed concentrically in
the same plane as shown in the figure (currents in successive coils are in opposite directions of rings).

The radii are r , 2r , 22 r , 23 r ,....∞. The total magnetic induction at their common centre is

µoi µoi µoi

(1) zero (2) (3) (4)
r 2r 3r
122. A charged particle moves undeflected in a region of crossed electric and magnetic fields. If the
electric field is switched off, the particle has an initial acceleration a. If the magnetic field is switched
off, instead of the electric field, the particle will have an initial acceleration
(1) Equal to 0 (2) > a (3) Equal to a (4) < a
123. Find the de-Broglie wavelength for electrons which passed through a potential difference of 100 V ?

 h = 6.625 × 10−34 J-sec 

 
0 0 0 0
(1) 1.228 A (2) 2.228 A (3) 3.228 A (4) 4.228 A
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124. A bar magnet is demagnetized by inserting it inside a solenoid of length 0.2m, 100 turns, and
carrying a current of 5.2 A. The coercivity of the bar magnet is:
(1) 1200 A/m (2) 2600 A/m (3) 520 A/m (4) 285 A/m
125. A small ball is projected with initial speed u and at an angle θ with horizontal from ground. The de –
Broglie wave length of ball at the moment its velocity vector becomes perpendicular to initial
velocity vector is
h h  h  h
(1) (2) (3)   tan θ (4)
mu mu sin θ  mu  mu cos θ

126. When a belt moves horizontally at a constant speed of 1.5 ms -1 , grv el I falling on it at 5 kg s -1 .
Then the extra power needed to drive the belt is
(1) 7.5 W (2) 0.3 W (3) 37.5 W (4) 11.25 W
127. A ball of mass m moving the velocity V collides head on with another ball of the same mass at rest.
If e is coefficient of restitution, their velocities after collision are
(1 − e)V (1 + e)V (1 + e)V (1 − e)V
(1) , (2) ,
2 2 2 2
V V eV
(3) , (4) ,0
(1 + e) (1 − e) 2
128. The radius of the nucleus of the atom with A=216 is (take R0 = 1.3fm)
(1) 7.2 fm (2) 7.8 fm (3) 280 fm (4) 19 fm
129. In a uniform magnetic field of 10 −5 T in free space, the energy density is u. The electric field which
will produce the same energy density in free space is
(1) 105 V / m (2) 3 × 103 V / m (3) 10V / m (4) 9 × 10 −3 V / m
130. The force acting on the block is given by F = 5 - 2t . The frictional force acting on the block at time t

= 2s will be (µ = 0.2) ( g = 10 ms −2 )

(1) 2N (2) 3N (3) 1N (4) zero

131. A hollow sphere having mass m and radius R is rolling as shown in the figure. If the speed of centre
V
of mass of sphere is V0 and angular speed is ω0 = 0 The angular momentum of the sphere about
R
point O is

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 5 MV0 R MV0 R
(1) MV0 R (2) MV0 R (3) (4)
3 2 3
132. A car is moving with a uniform speed on a level road. Inside the car there is a balloon filled with
helium and attached to a piece of string tied to the floor. The string is observed to be vertical. The car
now takes a left turn maintaining the speed on the level road. The balloon in the car will (Here the car
is supposed to be air tight)
(1) Continue to remain vertical (2) Burst while taking the curve
(3) Be thrown to the right side (4) Be thrown to the left side
133. One mole of an ideal monatomic gas performs a cyclic process indicated by ABCDA. The
temperatures of the gas at A, B, C and D are respectively T, 2T,6T and 3T. If R is universal gas
constant, the work done by the gas in the cyclic process is

(1) 4RT (2) 6RT (3) 2RT (4) RT

134. Ice, water and steam co-exist at triple point temperature 273.16K and pressure 4.6mm Hg. In a
system in which the triple point conditions of temperature and pressure exist, the pressure is
increased a little while keeping the temperature constant, then the system contains
(1) ice only (2) water only (3) steam only (4) water and ice
135. A capacitor of capacitance C is given charge Q and then connected in parallel to a coil of inductance
L. There is no resistance in the circuit. When the charge on the capacitor becomes zero, the current in
the coil will be
L Q C
(1) Q (2) (3) Q (4) Zero
C LC L
SECTION – B
136. An energy of 24.6 eV is required to remove one of the electrons from a neutral helium atom. The
energy (in eV) required to remove both the electrons from a neutral helium atom is
(1) 51.8 (2) 38.2 (3) 49.2 (4) 79.0
137. At t = 0, a radioactive substance has a mass m. Its half-life is 10 minutes. When t = t1, the amount of
substance disintegrated is m/5 and when t = t2, the amount of substance disintegrated is 3m/5. Then
the time interval (t2 - t1) is
(1) 10 minutes (2) 20 minutes (3) 5 minutes (4) 7 minutes

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138. The gravitational force of attraction between two bodies is F1 . If the mass of each body is doubled

and the distance between them is halved, then the gravitational force between them is F2

(1) F1 = F2 (2) F2 = 4F1 (3) F2 = 8F1 (4) F2 = 16F1

139. Velocity of a simple harmonic oscillation is given by V = 144 − 16 x 2 ms −1 where x is

displacement in metre. Then maximum velocity of that oscillator is

(1) 6 ms −1 (2) 12 ms −1 (3) 16 ms −1 (4) 8ms −1

140. Two wires of the same material and same mass are stretched by the same force. Their lengths are in
the ratio 2 : 3. Then their elongations are in the ratio
(1) 3 : 2 (2) 2 : 3 (3) 4 : 9 (4) 9 : 4
141. Three identical bulbs are connected as shown in figure. When switch S is closed, the power
consumed in bulb B is P. What will be the power consumed by the same bulb when switch S is
opened ?

9P 16P 9P 4P
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 9 16 9
142. An electron (mass m) with an initial velocity v = vo ˆi is in an electric field E = E o ˆj . If initial

wavelength λ 0 = h / mvo , then its de Broglie wavelength at time t is given by

e2 E 02 t 2 λ0 λ0
(1) λ 0 (2) λ 0 1 + (3) (4)
m 2 v02 e E 02 t 2
2 eEt
1+ 1+
m 2 v02 mv0

143. Into a transverse uniform magnetic field of induction 6.5 G an electron is projected with a speed

4.8 × 106 m/s, at angle 90 0 to the boundary. The time elapsed by the electron in the field in nano
second is
(1) 56.25 (2) 65.2 (3) 28.1 (4) infinity
144. In the circuit shown in figure, if ammeter and voltmeter are ideal, then the power consumed in 9 Ω
resistor will be
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 (1) 3.33 W (2) 4 W (3) 1.44 W (4) 500 W
2
145. Three plates A,B,C each of area 50cm have separation 3mm between A and B and 3mm between B
and C. The energy stored when the plates are fully charged is

(1) 1.6x10-9 J (2) 2.1x10-9 J (3) 5x10-9 J (4) 7x10-9 J

146. A prism shaped imaginary structure is given. A point charge ‘q’ is kept as given in figure. The
electric flux passing through the prism is

q q q q
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 ∈0 8 ∈0 16 ∈0 32 ∈0
147. A narrow stream of electrons of energy 100eV is fired at two parallel slits very close to each other.
The distance between the slits is 10A. The electron waves after passing through the slits interfere on
a screen, 3m away from slits. The fringe width is
(1) 0.36m (2) 0.48m (3) 0.62m (4) 0.75m
148. A ray of light travels from an optically denser to a rarer medium. Maximum possible deviation is θ .
Maximum possible deviation if light travels from rarer to denser is
θ θ
(1) 2θ (2) (3) θ (4)
2 4
2
149. The force which must be exerted to prevent a uniform rod of cross sectional area 2 mm from

expanding when it is heated from 5°C to 25°C is

(1) 4.8 N (2) 48 N (3) 480 N (4) 4800 N
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150. A body of mass ‘M’ is moving on a circular track of radius ‘r’ in such a way that its kinetic energy
‘k’ depends on the distance travelled by the body ‘s’ according to relation k = β s , where β is a
constant. The angular acceleration of the particle is

βr βr M 2r β
(1) (2) (3) (4)
M2 M β Mr

CHEMISTRY
SECTION – A
151. Identify the correct statements from the following
I) Among chalcogens oxygen is least electron affinity
II) In lanthanides Europium has largest atomic radius
III) The strongest acidic oxide is formed by chlorine
IV) Among Si, Be, Mg, Na, P the most metallic element is Mg.
(1) All (2) I, II only (3) I, II, III only (4)II, III only
152. Positive electron gain enthalpy is highest for
(1) Xe (2) Kr (3) Ne (4) Ar
153. Piezoelectric substance of the following is
(1) Fullerence (2) Quartz (3) Graphite (4) Charcoal
154. Wrong match is
(1) MnO - antiferromagnetism (2) GaAs - Insulator
(3) MgFe2O4 - Ferrimagnetism (4) CrO2 - Ferromagnetism

155. For a first order reaction X (g) → Y(g) + Z(g) . The half – life period is 6.93 min. The time required for

the completion of 99% of the chemical reaction will be

(1) 230.3 min (2) 23.03 min (3) 46.06 min (4) 460.6 min
156. Which of the following is incorrect
(1) SO 2 is oxidizing while TeO2 is reducing agent

(2) In vapour state S2 molecule is paramagnetic like O 2

(3) Oleum has S – O – S linkage
VO
(4) The key step in contact process of manufacture of H 2SO4 is 2SO2( g ) + O2( g ) ‡
ˆ ˆˆ ˆ2ˆ ˆ†
5
ˆˆ 2SO3( g )
157. Wrong match is
(1) Cu > Au > Ag – Melting point
(2) Cr ( +6 ) > Mo ( +6 ) > W ( +6 ) - stability of oxidation state

(3) VO+2 < Cr2O7−2 < MnO 4− - oxidizing power

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 (
(4) Co >Mn> Fe – Electrode potential M +3 / M +2 )
O O

H−C−NH−CH2 −CH3 and CH3 −C−NH−CH3

158. The compounds are
(1) Optical isomers (2) Tautomers (3)Metamers (4) Chain Isomers
159. 6.90 grams of metal carbonate was completely decomposed by 50 ml of 2N HCl. The equivalent
weight of metal is
(1) 39 (2) 45 (3)72 (4) 52
160. Which of the following statements is not true about glucose?
(1) It is an aldohexose. (2) On heating with HI it forms n-hexane.
(3) It is present in furanose form. (4) It does not give 2,4-DNP test.

161. For a galvanic cell, the cell notation is Zn ( s ) / Zn +2 ( x ) / /Cl− ( y ) / Cl2(1atm) , pt To produce highest

EMF, the values of x and y should be

x y
(1) 1M 1M
(2) 0.01M 0.01M
(3) 0.01M 1M
(4) 1M 0.01M

162. Solubility ofAgClin 0.05MNaCl (aq) solution is: [Ksp of AgCl is 10−10 M 2 ]

(1) 10 −5 M (2) 10 −9 M (3) 2 ×10−9 M (4) 10 −8 M

163. Which statement about aspirin is not true?
(1) Aspirin belongs to narcotic analgesics. (2) It is effective in relieving pain.
(3) It has anti blood clotting action. (4) It is a neurologically active drug.
164. Polyethene, PVC, Teflon and neoprene are all
(1) Condensation homopolymers (2) Addition homopolymers
(3) Biodegradable polymers (4) Addition copolymers
165. Which of the following acids is a vitamin?
(1) Aspartic acid (2) Ascorbic acid (3) Adipic acid (4) Saccharic acid
166. Holme’s signals can be obtained by using
(1) CaC2 + CaCN 2 (2) CaC2 + Ca 3P2 (3) CaC2 + CaCO3 (4) Ca 3P2 + CaCN 2
167. Salt with which one of the following cation produce yellow colour precipitate with potassium
chromate

(1) Ca +2 (2) Na+ (3) Ba +2 (4) NH4+1

168. Zone refining is based on the principle that ___________.
(1) impurities of low boiling metals can be separated by distillation.
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 (2) impurities are more soluble in molten metal than in solid metal.
(3) different components of a mixture are differently adsorbed on an adosrbent.
(4) vapours of volatile compound can be decomposed in pure metal.
169. Maximum limit of nitrate in drinking water is ____ ppm and its excess concentration causes ____
(1) 50 ppm, kidney damage (2) 50 ppm, blue baby syndrome
(3) 10 ppm, tooth decay (4) > 500 ppm, Laxative effect
170. One litre of an aqueous solution contain 0.15 moles of CH3COOH (pka = 4.8) and 1.5 mole of

CH3COONa . The pH of solution is:

(1) 4.5 (2) 4.8 (3) 5.8 (4) 5.4
171. The final product of hydrolysis of XeF6 is

(1) XeOF4 (2) XeO 4 (3) XeO 3 (4) XeO 2 F2

172. “C” is
(1) Primary amine (2) Acid amide (3) Ketone (4) Secondary amine
173. Which one of the following on hydrolysis gives the corresponding metallic hydroxide, H2O2 and O 2

(1) Li2 O (2) Na 2O2 (3) KO 2 (4) BeO

174. Neils Bohr’s atomic model is not applicable to:

(1) He + (2) Be +2 (3) H (4) Li +2

175. The value of Vander Waal’s constant (a) is minimum for
(1) He (2) SO 2 (3) NH 3 (4) CO 2
176. In which of the following molecule/ion all the bonds are not equal?
(1) XeF4 (2) BF4-1 (3) C2H4 (4) SiF4
177. General decreasing order of stability of oxides is
(1) Br >Cl> I (2) I >Cl> Br (3)Cl> Br > I (4) I > Br >Cl
178. Among the following pair of complexes, in which case ∆o value is higher for the second one
+3 −3 −3 +3
(1) Co ( NH3 )6  and [ CoF6 ] (2) Co ( CN )6  and Co ( NH3 )6 

+3 +3 +3 +2
(3) Co ( H2O )6  and Rh ( H2O )6  (4) Co ( H2O )6  and Co ( H2O )6 

179. In the reaction C 2 H 6   → A 

(CH 3 COO) 2 Mn

NaOH
→ B ,the correct statement about B is

(1) On decarboxylation with soda lime it gives Methane

(2) On Kolbe’s electrolysis it gives Ethane
(3) On decarboxylation with soda lime it gives Ethane
(4) Both 1 and 2
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180. 3 grams of activated charcoal was added to 50ml of acetic acid solution (0.06N) in a flask. After an
hour it was filtered and strength of the filtrate was found to be 0.042 N. The amount of acetic acid
adsorbed (per gram of charcoal) is
(1) 18 mg (2) 36 mg (3) 42 mg (4) 54 mg
181. In which of the following compound, C – O bond length is maximum
− +
(1) Fe ( CO )5  (2)  Ni ( CO )4  (3) Cr ( CO )6  (4) Mn ( CO )5 

182.
Cl2

AlCl
→B
3
VO
n − Hexane 
2 5
∆
→ A
CH Cl
3
AlCl
→C
3

Among A, B and C which is more reactive towards electrophilic substitution.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) n-hexane
183. Statement-I :At equilibrium ∆ G ° always zero.
Statement-II :At STP active masses of 11.2 L of O 2 (g) and 5.6 L of N 2 (g) are equal.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is wrong
(3)Both Statement I and Statement II are wrong
(4) Statement I is wrong, Statement II is correct
184. Correct order of basic nature of the following species
O

N N N

A) H B)
N
C) H D) H

(1) A > B > C > D (2) D > A> B > C (3) A > D > B > C (4) B > C> A > D
185. When 36 grams of a solute having the empirical formula CH 2O is dissolved in 1.2 kg of water, the

solution freezes at - 0.93°C what is the molecular formula of solute ? ( K f = 1.86°C.kg.mol−1 )

(1) C2 H4O (2) C2 H 2O2 (3) C2 H 4O3 (4) C2 H 4O2

SECTION - B
186. Which reacts with Heinsberg’sreagent and gives a compound insoluble in NaOH due to lack of acidic
hydrogen is
(1) Aniline (2) N, N-dimethyl aniline
(3) N-Methyl aniline (4) O-Toluidine

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187. The enthalpy changes for two reactions are given by the equations
3
2Cr(s) + O 2(g) → Cr2 O3(g) , ∆H = −1130kJ
2
1
C (s) + O 2(g) → CO (g) , ∆H = −110kJ
2
What is the enthalpy change (in kJ) for the reaction ?
3C(s) + Cr2O3(s) → 2Cr(s) + 3CO(g)
(1) -1460kJ (2) + 800kJ (3)-800kJ (4) -450kJ
188. Highest oxidation state exhibited by an actinoid is
(1) +5 (2) +3 (3) +6 (4) +7
189. The correct order of e.c.e. of Sodium, Magnesium and Aluminium is
(1) Na > Mg > Al (2) Na < Mg < Al (3) Na > Al > Mg (4) Na = Mg = Al
190. The configuration of the chiral carbon and the geometry of the double bond in the following
molecule can be described by

(1) R and E (2) S and E (3) R and Z (4) S and Z

191. 2 moles of an ideal gas at 27°C temperature is expanded reversibly from 2L to 20L. Find
entropy change (R=2cal/mol K).
1) 78.1 2)0 3) 4 4) 9.2
192. If there is no S-P mixing then the bond order and magnetic character in C2 molecule are
(1) 1 and paramagnetic (2) 1 and diamagnetic
(3) 2 and paramagnetic (4) 2 and diamagnetic
193. Which of the following is a globular protein
(1) Keratin (2) Insulin (3) Myosin (4) Both 1 and 3
194. The number of electrons transferred (lost or gained) during the reactions
Fe + H 2 O  
→ Fe3O4 + H 2 is

1) 8 2) 6 3) 4 4) 2
195. 1, 2 Dibromopropane on treatment with ‘x’ moles of NaNH2 followed by treatment with C2 H5Br
gives a 2-pentyne. The value of ‘x’ is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

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196. The correct sequence of decreasing number of π -bonds in the structures of
H2SO3 ,H2SO4 and H2S2O7 is

(1) H2SO3 > H2SO4 > H2S2O7 (2) H2SO4 >H2S2O7 >H2SO3

(3) H2S2O7 > H2SO4 > H2SO3 (4) H2S2O7 > H2SO3 .H2SO4
197. Read the following statements
A. Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is used to prepare all 10 amines
B. C 6 H 5 Cl  Na

dry ether
→ C 6 H 5 − C 6 H 5 is known as Wurtz reaction

C. In SN1 mechanism there is more inversion than retention leading to partial racemization
D. All aldehydes give red precipitate with Fehling’s solution
E. Reactivity order of alkyl halides towards SN2 reaction is 10> 20> 30
Number of correct statements among these
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 3
th
198. 13 group element with least melting point is:
(1) Ga (2) B (3) In (4) Al
199. Assertion (A): Coagulation power of Al+3 ion is more than Na+ ion.
Reason (R) : Greater the valency of the flocculating ion added, greater is its power to cause
precipitation.
(1) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are correct and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are correct but the reason does not explain assertion
(3) Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is incorrect
(4) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R ) are incorrect
200. Anisole is subjected to nitration to give ‘x’ as major product. ‘X’ on bromination gives ‘Y’ as major
product then ‘Y’ is
OCH3 OCH3

OCH 3 OCH3 Br

NO 2 NO2
Br

Br NO2 NO2
(1) (2) Br (3) (4)

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