e-Prac-CAT-01 - Test

PracCAT # 01
(Part of the 24 All-India Mock Tests provided by PT)
TEST FORM NUMBER TEST BOOKLET SR. NO.
111 Test Code: CT 21
INSTRUCTIONS
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1. This is the pdf version of the ePracCAT # 01 which you may have attempted in PT's APCL. O
D This pdf file is available to you for reference and further practice. P
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E
N 2. While solving this test keep only the pencil, eraser and sharpener with you. DO NOT KEEP with N
O you books, rulers, slide rules, drawing instruments, calculators (including watch calculators),
T pagers, cellular phones, stop watches or any other device or loose paper.
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P 3. This test contains two sections which examine various abilities. There are 30 questions in
E each section. There will be sectional time limits of 70 minutes for each section.
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4. Directions for answering the questions are given before each group of questions. Read these
G
F
R directions carefully and answer the questions by darkening the appropriate circles on the Answer
O Sheet. There is only one correct answer to each question. T
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T 5. Each question carry three marks each. Each wrong answer attracts a penalty of one I
H mark. S
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6. Revising and analysing your performance is critical to your improved performance in the next E
PT Education, All rights reserved.
test(s). A positive attitude to revise, analyse and learn from mistakes will be a great plus.
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The CTs (1) of (39)
(Comprehensive Tests) and ePracCATs provided by PT represent a simulation of the CAT observed over last few years. These tests are an attempt at preparing aspirants for the actual Test. The complete test
series comprises 268 All India Tests, with All India Rankings (AIR) being generated for most of them. The AIRs generated for these tests provide a classic benchmarking tool.
SECTION I
Quantitative Ability and Data Interpretation
DIRECTIONS: For the following questions, four options are given. Choose the correct option.
1. In the given figure, EB is parallel and equal in length to DC, the length of B C
ED is equal to the length of DC, the area of DADC is 8 units, the area of
DBDC is 3 units and ÐDAB is a right angle. Then the area of DAEB is
O
(1) 3 units (2) 5 units A D
(3) 2 units (4) 8 units E
2. Laden and Bush are playing a game. Laden rolls two 20sided dice and Bush rolls one 20sided die. If Bush rolls
a number on his die between the two numbers Laden rolled, then Bush wins otherwise Laden wins (including
ties). The probability that Bush will win is
(1) 27/200 (2) 57/200
(3) 57/500 (4) 27/500
3. A rectangular box can be completely filled with unit cubes. If one places as many cubes as possible, each with

volume 2 cubic units in the box with their edges parallel to the edges of the box, one can fill exactly 40% of the
box. The possible dimensions of the box is
(1) 2 × 3 × 5 or 2 × 5 × 6 (2) 2 × 5 × 8 or 2 × 6 × 7
(3) 2 × 4 × 8 or 1 × 6 × 5 (4) 1 × 2 × 4 or 2 × 4 × 5
4. C is the only working partner amongst A, B, C in a firm. A’s contribution is 10 percentage point more than B’s. C
received a working commission of Rs.15000, which was deducted from the total profit of Rs.315000, before being
1
shared amongst the partners. C would have earned of total profit with commission. The ratio in which the
3
partners have contributed in the firm is
(1) 2 : 3 : 4 (2) 1 : 1 : 1
(3) 4 : 3 : 3 (4) None of these
5. abcd is a fourdigit perfect square number. If ab + cd = 100, then the sum of digits of the root of the given number is
(1) 19 (2) 18
(3) 16 (4) 17
1 2 1
e j
6. How many integral values satisfy the equation x 3 - 6 186 3 = - y 3 , where 0 < x < y
(1) None (2) 1

(3) 2 (4) 3
7. a, b, c, are positive integers forming an increasing geometric sequence with b–a being a perfect square, and
log 6 a + log 6 b + log 6 c = 6, then a + b + c equals
(1) 183 (2) 158
(3) 111 (4) Cannot be determined
(2) of (39) IC : PTpnrpc01

8. The sum of all possible integers n, where n = 2 a ×3 b (a, b ³ 0) and n 6 does not divide 6 n is
(1) 48 (2) 45
(3) 42 (4) 36
9. There are blue vessels with known volumes v 1 , v 2 , ....., v m , arranged in ascendi ng order of volum e, v 1 > 0.5 litre

and v m < 1 litre. Each of these is full of water initially. The water from each of these is emptied into a minimum
number of empty white vessels, each having volume 1 litre. The water from a blue vessel is not emptied into a
white vessel unless the white vessel has enough empty volume to hold all the water of the blue vessel. The number
of white vessels required to empty all the blue vessels according to the above rules was n. Among the values given
below, which is the least upper bound on e, where e is the total empty volume in the white vessels at the end of the
above process ?
(1) mv m (2) m(1 – v m )
(3) mv 1 (4) m(1 – v 1 )
DIRECTIONS: Sudoku It requires no calculation or arithmetic skills. It is essentially a game of placing numbers in
squares, using very simple rules of logic and deduction. The objective of the game is to fill all the blank squares in a
game with the correct numbers. There are three very simple constraints to follow. In a 9 by 9 square Sudoku game
Ø Every row of 9 numbers must include all digits 1 through 9 in any order
Ø Every column of 9 numbers must include all digits 1 through 9 in any order
Ø Every 3 by 3 subsection of the 9 by 9 square must include all digits 1 through 9
Please complete the Sudoku provided and answer the questions that follow
A B C D E F G G H I
1 6 1 4 5 8
2 7 8 3 5 6
3 2 3 1
4 8 4 7 6
5 9 6 3
6 7 3 5 9 1 8 4
7 5 6 2
8 7 2 6 9
9 4 5 8 7
10. What will be the number in cell B4?
(1) 2 (2) 1
(3) 4 (4) None of these
11. What will be the number in cell E9?
(1) 9 (2) 1
(3) 7 (4) 3
IC : PTpnrpc01 (3) of (39)

12. If N be a positive integer not equal to 1, then note that none of the numbers 2, 3, ..... N is a divisor of (N! 1). From
this, we can conclude that
(1) (N! 1) is a prime number
(2) at least one of the numbers N + 1, N + 2, ....., N! 2 is a divisor of (N! 1)
(3) the smallest number between N and N! which is a divisor of (N! 1), is a prime number
(4) None of these
13. In the figure given, ABCD is a square of side 12 cm and APQR is a square of side 4 cm. What is the area of the shaded
region, given that BOC = 80°
A P B
R O
Q
D C
1
(1) 35 cm 2 (2) 36 cm 2
3
2
(3) 35 cm 2 (4) None of these
3
14. Macroplus Ltd., a dynamic company with an impeccable brand equity, produces silicon chips, 1000 at a time in a
batch. The company has to ensure that it does not supply defective chips, as they are critical to the functioning of
computers. If a buyer receives a defective chip, Macroplus has to pay the buyer a penalty of Rs.150 per chip.
Macroplus wants to test its chips' quality before shipping them to its buyers. It can use any of two tests for a
quality control. Test 1 costs Rs.6 per chip but it detects only 80% of all defective chips. Test 2 costs Rs.9 per chip
and can detect all defective chips. Macroplus can rework defective chips at a cost of Rs.75 per chip to ensure that
the buyer does not receive any defective chip. (Let 'n' be the number of defective chips per batch). Macroplus Ltd.
should not use any quality control test, if it is expected that
(1) n < 100 (2) 100 £ n £ 200
(3) n > 200 (4) None of these
15. The range of values of X for x - x 2 + 12 ³ 0 which is valid, is

(1) –3 £ X £ 4 (2) 3 £ X £ 5
(3) –4 £ X £ 3 (4) –3 £ X £ –1
16. Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) If the sum of the exterior angles of a polygon is equal to the sum of the interior angles, the polygon must
have four and only four sides.
(2) The measure of the angle between the hands of a clock at 2.30 is 120°.
log 3 81
(3) = 243
log 3 1 / 3
(4) If X² + 5 kX + 16 = 0 has no real roots, then k must be < 2.

17. Sarah cannot completely remember her fourdigit ATM pin number. She does remember the first two digits, and she
knows that each of the last two digits is greater than 5. The ATM will allow her three tries before it blocks further
access. If she randomly guesses the last two digits, what is the probability that she will get access to her account?
(1) 1/2 (2) 1/4
(3) 3/16 (4) 1/32
18. The area of the segment of a circle of perimeter P and the arc of which subtends an angle of 120° at the centre is
C
A B
R
O
e j
3 P 2 4 p - 3 3
(1) e
2
9 P 4 p + 3 j (2)
e p + 3 3 j
4 2
2
e j
3 P 2 4 p + 3 3
(3)
e p - 3 j (4) None of these
2
4 2
19. The duration of a rail journey varies directly as the distance covered and inversely as the speed of the train. The
speed varies directly as the square root of the quantity of coal used per km and inversely as the number of carriages
in the train. In a journey of 25 km, in half an hour with 18 carriages, 100 kg of coal is required. How much of coal will
be required in a journey of 21 km in 28 minutes with 16 carriages?
(1) 40.00 kg (2) 30.04 kg
(3) 53.76 kg (4) 98.25 kg
20. The scorer in a cricket match accidentally inverted the two digits in the correct score. A maths wizard in the
spectators noticed that the difference in the correct and the incorrect score could have represented the average
runs scored by each of the eleven batsman, if the total score were to be the sum of the correct and the incorrect
scores, the average is
(1) divisible by 9 (2) divisible by 9 but not by 11
(3) divisible by 11 and 9 (4) divisible by 11
21. A, B, C, D, E and F are 6 villages situated orderly in a line. Yuvraj has to go from A to F. He can walk at 1 kmph
between A to B and D to E, between B to C at 3 kmph but C to D and E to F at 5 kmph. The distance between B & E
is 51 km, A & C is 29 km which is equal to the distance between B & D. The distance between C & E is 42 km and the
distance between D & F is 37 km. How long would it take for Yuvraj to go from A to F, assuming he will not take any
rest during the journey?
(1) 41 hours (2) 47 hours
(3) 52 hours (4) 75 hours
22. A milkman saves milk from two vessels a cuboid and the other a cylindrical. The capacity of the cuboidal vessel is
20 litres more than the cylindrical one. When 30 litres of milk are drawn from each of the two full vessels, the amount
left in the cuboidal vessel is twice that left in the cylindrical vessel. The capacity of the cuboidal vessel is
(1) 30 litres (2) 70 litres
(3) 130 litres (4) 50 litres

DIRECTIONS: Refer to the following information and answer the questions that follow.
Intellect Inc. produces a total of 1000 copper chips. The company has to ensure that it does not supply defective
chips, as they are critical to the functioning of computers. If a buyer receives a defective chip, Intellect Inc. has to
pay a penalty of Rs.150 per chip. Intellect Inc. wants to test its chips’ quality before supplying them to its buyers.
It can use anyone of two tests available for quality check. Test X costs Rs.6 per chip but it detects only 800 of all
defective chips. Test Y costs Rs.9 per chip and can detect all defective chips. The company can rework defective
chips at a cost of Rs.75 per chip to ensure that the buyer does not receive any defective chip. The company either
does not go for a test, or selects either of the test X or Y so that its expenses are the least. Note that if it goes for
a test, then it also has to correct all the defective chips detected. Let ‘n’ be the number of defective chips produced
out of these 1000.
23. When should Intellect Inc. not use any quality check test?
(1) n < 100 (2) 100 £ n £ 200
(3) n > 200 (4) None of these
24. If 200 <n <400, then Intellect Inc. should use
(1) Test X (2) Test Y
(3) Test X or Test Y (4) None of these
25. If n = 300. Intellect Inc. should use
26. If n = 170. Intellect Inc. Should use :
DIRECTIONS: The following problems contain a question and two statements giving certain data labelled A & B. You
have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Mark your answer as :
(1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered by using the other
statement alone.
(2) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
(3) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by using either
statement alone.
(4) if the question cannot be answered even by using both statements together.
27. Is the number completely divisible by 99?
A. The number is divisible by 9 and 11 simultaneously.
B. If the digits of the number are reversed, the number is divisible by 9 and 11.
28. What is the area bounded by the two lines and the coordinate axes in the first quadrant?
A. The lines intersect at a point which also lies on the lines 3x – 4y = 1 and 7x – 8y = 5.
B. The lines are perpendicular and one of them intersects the y–axis at an intercept of 4.

29. Is the product of four integers a, b, c and d negative?
A. a – b = b – c = c – d = d – a
B. a – b = b – c = c – a
30. The six members of the student council of Boys' High School were asked to serve on three special committees. Each
member of the student council volunteered to serve on at least one committee. How many students volunteered to
serve on all three committees?
A. Given below are the number of students who volunteered to serve on each committee.
Number of volunteers
Activities committee 3
Homecoming committee 2
Welcoming committee 4
B. Two students volunteered to serve on both the activities committee and the welcoming committee
DIRECTIONS: For each of the following question, four options are given. Choose the correct option.
31. The sum of n(n + 2) terms of an arithmetic progression with the first term as a and common difference as d is 0. If the
series is extended backwards by m terms (i.e., if a – d, a – 2d, a – 3d, a – 4d, ...... a – (m – 1)d are also included) and
a – (m – 1)d is designated as the first term, then what is the sum of n 2 + 2n + 2m terms of the series?
(1) a (2) a + d
DIRECTIONS: For each of the following question, four options are given. Choose the correct option.
32. D 1 , D 2 , D 3 and D 4 are recurring decimals given by
D 1 = 0 . q 1 q 2 q 3 q 4 , D 2 = 0 . q 1 q 2 q 3 q 4 , D 3 = 0 . q 1 q 2 q 3 q 4 and D 4 = 0 . q 1 q 2 q 3 q 4 where q 1 , q 2 , q 3 , q 4 are
any four digits from 1 to 9. Which of the following numbers when multiplied by at least one of the above mentioned
decimals will always result in an integer?
(1) 1800 (2) 19980
(3) 198 (4) 1111
DIRECTIONS: For the following question, five options are given. Choose the correct option.
33. At 7:57 am, Flight 501 is at an altitude of 6 miles above the ground and is on a direct approach (i.e., flying in a direct
line to the runway) towards the Airport, which is located exactly 8 miles due north of the plane's current position.
Flight 501 is scheduled to land at the Airport at 8:00 am, but, at 7:57 am, the control tower radios the plane and
changes the landing location to an airport 15 miles directly due east of The Airport. Assuming a direct approach
(and negligible time to shift direction), by how many miles per hour does the pilot have to increase her speed in
order to arrive at the new location on time?
(1) 100Ö 26 – 100 (2) 100Ö 13 – 200
(3) 100Ö 13 – 100 (4) 100Ö 26 – 200
(5) None of these

DIRECTIONS: For the following question, five options are given. Choose the best option.
34. The figure below represents a track with identical semicircular ends used for a 4lap relay race involving two 4
person teams (where each team member runs one complete lap around the track). The table below shows the lap
times for each runner on Team A and Team B. Assuming that each runner runs at a constant rate, Team A wins the
race by how many meters?
180 meters
120 meters
(straight portion)
Runner Team A Team B

1 42 sec 45 sec
2 46 sec 50 sec
3 49 sec 48 sec
4 41 sec 42 sec
Total 178 sec 185 sec
(1) 40 p meters (2) (40 + 10 p ) meters

(3) (40 + 20 p ) meters (4) (20 + 10 p ) meters
(5) (20 + 20 p ) meters
35. Two congruent regular tetrahedrons of edge length 2 are positioned such that their heights (vertex to center of

base) coincide but the tetrahedrons themselves do not. Find the volume of the region in which they overlap.
(1) Ö 5/8 (2) Ö 2/3
(3) Ö 5/6 (4) Ö 2/5
(5) Ö 5/2
36. “At the party there were 14 adults, 17 children, 12 males, and 19 females. Then I arrived and the number of different
manwoman couples possible became equal to the number of different boygirl couples possible. (If there were 8
men and 5 women at the party, then there would have been 8 × 5 or 40 manwoman couples possible.)”
Who can be the speaker?
(I) A man (II) A woman
(III) A boy (IV) A girl
(1) Only three of I, II, III or IV can be possible speakers.
(2) Only two of I, II, III or IV can be possible speakers.
(3) Only one of I, II, III or IV can be a possible speaker.
(4) All I, II, III and IV can be possible speakers.
(5) The speaker is lying.
DIRECTIONS: For the following question, four options are given. Choose the correct option.
37. Ravi’s watch is 10 minutes slow and Ravi is under the impression that it is five minutes fast. Raju’s watch is five
minutes fast and Raju think it is 10 minutes slow. They both plan to catch a train at 4 O'clock. Who gets there first?
(1) Raju (2) Both will reach at same time
(3) Ravi (4) They both would not catch the train
(5) Cannot be determined
38. A long strip of paper is wound tightly round a cylinder of 10 cm in diameter and overall diameter of the roll is 30 cm.
What would be the overall diameter if the same strip is wound round a cylinder of diameter 30 cm?
(1) 60 cm (2) 41.23 cm
(3) 45.25 cm (4) 48.78 cm
(5) 54 cm
39. Find the product of inradius and circumradius of a triangle whose sides are equal to the roots of the equation, X 3 –
17X 2 + 53X – 13 = 0.
(1) 23 (2) 13/17
(3) 15/23 (4) 13/34
(5) 15/46
40. Consider the function represented by |x| + |y| = k, where k is a positive integer. Find the sum of areas enclosed by the
function in the x–y plane for k varying from 1 to 10.
(1) 770 (2) 840
(3) 1040 (4) 1120
41. A clock has 60 hands. Hand 1 moves 360° in 1 sec, Hand 2 moves 360° in 2 sec ….. Hand 60 moves 360° in 60 seconds
or 1 minute. If Hand 4 meets Hand 9 once in 2 minutes then how frequently do Hand 48 and Hand 58 meet?
(1) 4 min. (2) 24 min.
(3) 5 sec. (4) 30 sec.

DIRECTIONS: For the following question, five options are given. Choose the correct answer.
42. A man sells certain number of eggs in a basket. 1st customer comes and tells him that he is going to take half the number of eggs
in the basket, and a half of one egg. The customer is given his share and he walks away happy. 2nd customer comes and tells him
that he is going to take half the number of eggs in the basket, and a half of one egg. The customer is given his share and he walks
away happy. 3rd customer comes and tells him that he is going to take half the number of eggs in the basket, and a half of one egg.
The customer is given his share and he walks away happy. The basket is now EMPTY. The difference between the number of eggs
1 st gets and 3 rd person gets is
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5
(5) 6
DIRECTIONS: The radar graph shows the attendance in a class on 6 working days of a particular week. Refer to the
graph to answer the question that follow.
Monday
100
80
60
Saturday Tuesday
40
20
0
Friday Wednesday
Thursday
43. What is the average attendance (approx.) for the six given days?
(1) 74 (2) 49
(3) 77 (4) 81

Monday
100
80
60
Saturday Tuesday
40
20
0
Friday Wednesday
Thursday
44. The number of days on which the attendance was higher than the average for the six given days, is
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4

Monday
100
80
60
Saturday Tuesday
40
20
0
Friday Wednesday
Thursday
45. If the total number of registered students is 120, then on which day was the percentage turnout maximum?
(1) Tuesday (2) Friday
(3) Wednesday (4) Saturday

Monday
100
80
60
Saturday Tuesday
40
20
0
Friday Wednesday
Thursday
46. The percentage increase in attendance on Wednesday compared to Tuesday is (approximately)
(1) 30% (2) 56%
(3) 64% (4) 50%

Monday
100
80
60
Saturday Tuesday
40
20
0
Friday Wednesday
Thursday
47. By what percent is the number of students on present on Saturday is more/less than the average number of students
for the given six days?
(1) 3.26% (2) 4.26%
(3) 4.93% (4) 3.88%

DIRECTIONS: Refer to the graphs given below and answer the question that follows.
The following bar graph shows the Expenditure and Revenue for Government of India during the 3 given years (19911993).
Revenue and Expnditures ( In '000 crores)
1600
Expenditure Revenue
1400
1200
1000
Value
800
600
400
200
0
1991 1992 1993
Year
The following graph gives the distribution of Expenditure of Government of India for the 3 given years (19911993).
State Expenditures
Roads and Transport
20%
Calamities
21% 22%
Others
12% 18%
27%
1991
1992
Expenditure 25%
1993
30%
26% 33%
30% 36%
The following graph gives the distribution of Revenues of Government of India for the 3 given years (19911993).

Corporate Tax
Income Tax
Customs Tax
11%
26% Union Tax
10% Excise Tax
24% 14% 23%
28%
28%
25%
Revenues
1991
1993
21%
1992
25% 12%
28% 13% 12%
48. Given – Corporate Tax and Income Tax constitute the Direct Taxes. What is the maximum percentage increase in Direct taxes
collection over previous year for the given data?
(1) 11% (2) 9.5%
(3) 12.8% (4) 10.55%
(5) 14.06%

1600
Expenditure Revenue
1400
1200
1000
Value
800
600
400
200
0
1991 1992 1993
Year
State Expenditures
Roads and Transport
20%
Calamities
21% 22%
Others
12% 18%
27%
1991
1992
Expenditure 25%
1993
30%
26% 33%
30% 36%

Corporate Tax
Income Tax
Customs Tax
11%
26% Union Tax
10% Excise Tax
24% 14% 23%
28%
28%
25%
Revenues
1991
1993
21%
1992
25% 12%
28% 13% 12%
49. Identify the correct statement.
(1) In terms of percentage variation over the previous year, Union Tax is most consistent.
(2) The allocation for Calamities (in absolute terms) has gone down from 1991 to 1993.
(3) The total amount spent on State Expenditures in year 1991 and 1992 is closest to revenue from Income Tax 1993.
(4) The money spent under the head “Others” has gone up consistently over the years 199193.
(5) None of these

1600
Expenditure Revenue
1400
1200
1000
Value
800
600
400
200
0
1991 1992 1993
Year
State Expenditures
Roads and Transport
20%
Calamities
21% 22%
Others
12% 18%
27%
1991
1992
Expenditure 25%
1993
30%
26% 33%
30% 36%

Corporate Tax
Income Tax
Customs Tax
11%
26% Union Tax
10% Excise Tax
24% 14% 23%
28%
28%
25%
Revenues
1991
1993
21%
1992
25% 12%
28% 13% 12%
50. If a pie chart is made using the amount received as Union Taxes for the years 1991, 1992 and 1993, the angle subtended at the
centre (in degrees) by the amount in 1992 will be
(1) 95 (2) 114
(3) 127 (4) 145
(5) 108

SECTION II
Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning
DIRECTIONS: Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
Five files in the UN records about bombings in different countries were intermingled and the person in charge of
putting the things in order had noted down the following things:
Of the five files, one of the files was a 68 pager, one had mentioned 52 fatalities, another one had quoted 169
injuries, one was dated 12 Sep 1984 and the remaining one was a 112 pager file.
There were 70 fatalities shown in the 4 January 1988 file.
The file which mentioned 169 injuries did not cite 70 fatalities.
The file that mentioned 64 fatalities referred to the bombing that had occurred earlier than the bombing mentioned
in the file with 69 fatalities.
The file that had mentioned 120 injuries, referred to the bombing that had occurred earlier than the one mentioned
in the file with 58 pages.
Of the 75 pager file and the file quoting 64 fatalities, one mentioned 14 injuries and the other 120 injuries.
The 12 Sep 1988 file was not the 112 pager one.
The file which quoted 100 injuries did not have 68 pages.
The file which cited 120 injuries referred to the bombing that had occurred later to the one mentioned in the file
with 75 pages.
Either the 6 Aug 1974 bombing file or the 12 Sep 1984 bombing file had cited a thousand injuries.
The file on 4 Jan 1987 bombing didn't have 100 injuries.
The file on 6 Aug 1974 bombing had 60 pages
51. Which was the file with 69 fatalities?
(1) The one with 112 pages (2) The one dated 12 Sep 1988
(3) The one with 120 injuries (4) Cannot be determined
52. What was the date on the file with 112 pages?
(1) 6 Aug 1974 (2) 4 Jan 1987
(3) 4 Jan 1988 (4) None of these
53. How many fatalities were caused in the bombing that occurred on 12 Sep 1984?
(1) 52 (2) 64
Japan has suffered a major earthquake followed by an equally destructive tsunami. Because of the earthquake,
Fukushima nuclear reactor has been damaged and has started leaking radiation. There are 690 identical tubes of
chemical material out of which one tube contains radioactive chemical X, which, if spreads in the air, has the
potential to seriously endanger human and animal life. The scientists know this and have decided to find the lethal
chemical tube in spite of any danger to their own lives. It is known that whoever comes in contact of the chemical
X (even when experimenting on it in secure conditions), will be dead within 58 hours. The scientists have only
10 hours to separate chemical X before it leaks in the environment. There is a high chance that the experimentation
will not be successful in isolating chemical X in such a short timeframe. This has pushed the scientists to take a
dreadful decision. They have decided to risk their lives and identify the horrible chemical by observing who is
dead after 5 to 8 hours. Because of this, only a minimum number of scientists will conduct the experiments.

54. How many scientists will conduct the tests?
(1) 1 (2) 690
(3) 10 (4) 11
55. What is the maximum number of tubes that one scientist will come in contact with?
(1) 1 (2) 690
(3) 10 (4) 345
56. What is the minimum number of scientists who can die?
(1) 0 (2) 1
There are six classmates, Firoz, Bijoy, Gaurav, Dheeraj, Eiti and Bittu, who hail from three different Indian states
including Bengal. Firoz and Bijoy do not belong to the same state. Firoz is not a Bengali. Bijoy and Eiti are not
Gujaratis. Dheeraj is not a Rajasthani. Firoz and Dheeraj are not Gujaratis either.
57. Who is from Bengal?
(1) Bijoy (2) Gaurav
(3) Bittu (4) Eiti
58. Which two belong to the same state?
(1) Bijoy and Eiti (2) Eiti and Bittu
(3) Bittu and Firoz (4) Firoz and Eiti
There are five red balls: R1, R2, R3, R4 and R5 and six Black balls: B1, B2, B3, B4, B5 and B6. A person has to pick six
balls from amongst these keeping in mind that B1 and B4 must be kept together; B3 must not be chosen with R4; R4
and R5 must be together; B2 must not be kept with B5; B4 cannot be picked with R1; R3 and B2 must be picked
together and similarly, B3 and R2 should be picked together.
59. If five black balls were picked up, then the only red ball will be
(1) R1 (2) R2
(3) R3 (4) R4
60. If the person must pick up B5 and has picked up only four black balls, then which of the following can be a correct
group?
(1) B 1 B 2 B 3 B 5 R 2 R 3 (2) B 1 B 4 B 5 B 6 R 4 R 5
(3) B 2 B 3 B 5 B 6 R 2 R 3 (4) B 1 B 3 B 4 B 5 B 6 R 2

DIRECTIONS: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
The current debate on intellectual property rights (IPRs) raises a number of important issues concerning the strategy
and policies for building a more dynamic national agricultural research system, the relative roles of public and
private sectors, and the role of agribusiness multinational corporations (MNCs). This debate has been stimulated
by the international agreement on Trade Related Intellectual Property (TRIPs), negotiated as part of the Uruguay
Round. TRIPs for the first time, seeks bring innovations in agricultural technology under a new worldwide IPR
regime. The agribusiness MNCs (along with pharmaceutical companies) played a leading pact in lobbying for such
a regime during the Uruguay Round negotiations. The argument was that incentives are necessary to stimulate
innovations and that this calls for a system of patents which gives innovators the sole right to use (or sell/lease the
right to use) their innovations for a specified period and protects them against unauthorized copying or use. With
strong support of their national governments, they were influential in shaping the agreement on TRIPs which
eventually emerged from the Uruguay Round.
The current debate on TRIPs in Indiaas indeed elsewhereechoes wider concerns about 'privatisation' of research
and allowing a free field for MNCs in the sphere of biotechnology and agriculture. The agribusiness corporations,
and those with unbounded faith in the power of science to overcome all likely problems, point to the vast potential
that new technology holds for solving the problems of hunger, malnutrition and poverty in the world. The
exploitation of this potential should be encouraged and this is best done by the private sector for which patents are
essential. Some, who do not necessarily accept this optimism argue, that fears of MNC domination are exaggerated
and that farmers will accept their products only if they decisively outperform the available alternatives. Those
who argue against agreeing to introduce an IPR regime in agriculture and encouraging private sector research are
apprehensive that this will work to the disadvantage of farmers by making them more dependent on monopolistic
MNCs. A different, though related apprehension is that extensive use of hybrids and genetically engineered new
varieties might increase the vulnerability of agriculture to outbreaks of pests and diseases. The larger, longerterm
consequences of reduced biodiversity that may follow from the use of specially bred varieties are also another
cause for concern. Moreover, corporations, driven by the profit motive, will necessarily tend to underplay, if not
ignore, potential adverse consequences, especially those which are unknown and which may manifest themselves
only over a relatively long period. On the other hand, highpressure advertising and aggressive sales campaigns
by private companies can seduce farmers into accepting varieties without being aware of potential adverse effects
and possibility of disastrous consequences for their livelihood. If these varieties happen to fail, there is no provision
under the laws, as they now exist for compensating users against such eventualities.
Excessive preoccupation with seeds and seed material has obscured other important issues involved in reviewing
the research policy. We need to remind ourselves that improved varieties by themselves are not sufficient for
sustained growth of yields. In our own experience, some of the early high yielding varieties (HYVs) of rice and
wheat were found susceptible to widespread post attacks; and some had problems of grain quality. Further research
was necessary to solve these problems. This largely successful research was almost entirely done in public research
institutions. Of course, it could in principle have been done by private companies, but whether they choose to do
so depends crucially on the extent of the loss in market for their original introductions on account of the above
factors and whether the companies are financially strong enough to absorb the 'losses', invest in research to correct
the deficiencies and recover the lost market. Public research, which is not driven by profit, is better placed to take
corrective action. Research for improving common poll resource management, maintaining ecological health and
ensuring sustainability is both critical and also demanding in terms of technological challenge and resource
requirements. As such research is crucial to the impact of new varieties, chemicals and equipment in the farmer's
field private companies should be interested in such research. But their primary interest is in the sale of seed
materials, chemicals, equipment and other inputs produced by them. Knowledge and techniques for resource
management are not "marketable' in the same way as those inputs. Their applications to land, water and forests has
a long gestation and their efficacy depends on resolving difficult problems such as designing institutions for
proper and equitable management of common pool resource. Public or quasipublic research institutions informed
by broader, longterm concerns can only do such work.

public institutions (universities research organisation). Moreover, as is increasingly recognised, accumulated stock
of knowledge does not reside only in the scientific community and its academic publications but is also widely
diffused in traditions and folk knowledge of local communities all over.The public sector must therefore continue to
play a major role in the national research system. It is both wrong and misleading to pose the problem in terms of
public sector versus private sector or of privatisation of research. We need to address problems likely to arise on
account of the publicprivate sector complementarily, and ensure that public research system performs efficiently.
Complementarity between various elements of research raises several issues in implementing an IPR regime. Private
companies do not produce new varieties and inputs entirely as a result of their own research. Almost all technological
improvement is based on knowledge and experience accumulated from the past, and the results of basic and applied
research in public and quasipublic institutions (universities research organisation). Moreover, as is increasingly
recognised, accumulated stock of knowledge does not reside only in the scientific community and its academic
publications but is also widely diffused in traditions and folk knowledge of local communities all over.The deciphering
of the structure and functioning of DNA forms the basis of much of modem biotechnology. But this fundamental
breakthrough is 'public good', freely accessible in the public domain and usable free of any charge. Varieties/
techniques developed using that knowledge can however be, and are, patented for private profit. Similarly, private
corporations draw extensively, and without any charge, on germ plasm available in varieties of plants species (neem
and turmeric are now famous examples). Publicly funded gene banks as well as new varieties bred by public sectors
research stations can also be used freely by private enterprises for developing their own varieties, and seek patent
protecting them. Should private breeders be allowed free use of basic scientific discoveries? Should the repositories
of traditional knowledge and germ plasm be collected which are maintained and improved by publicly funded
institutions? Or should users be made to pay for such use? If they are to pay, what should be the basis of
compensation? Should the compensations be for individuals or for communities/institutions to which they belong?
Should individuals/institutions be given the right of patenting their innovations? These are some of the important
issues that deserve more attention than they now get and need serious detailed study to evolve reasonably
satisfactory, fair and workable solutions. Finally, the tendency to equate the public sector with the government is
wrong. The public space is much wider than government departments and includes cooperatives, universities,
public trusts and a variety of non governmental organisations (NGOs). Giving greater autonomy to research
organisations from government control and giving nongovernment public institutions the space and resources to
play a larger, more effective role in research, is therefore an issue of direct relevance in restructuring the public
research system.
61. Which one of the following statements describes an important issue, or important issues, not being raised in the
context of the current debate on IPRs?
(1) The role of MNCs in the sphere of biotechnology and agriculture.
(2) The strategy and policies for establishing an IPR regime for Indian agriculture.
(3) The relative roles of public and private sectors.
(4) Wider concerns about 'privatisation' of research.
62. In debating the respective roles of the public and private sectors in the national research system, it is important to
recognise
(1) that the private companies do not produce new varieties and inputs entirely on their own research.
(2) that almost all technological improvements are based on knowledge and experience accumulated from the past.
(3) the complementary role of public and private sector research.
(4) that knowledge repositories are primarily the scientific community and its academic publications.
63. Which one of the following may provide incentives to address the problem of "potential adverse consequences" of
biotechnology?
(1) Include IPR issues in the TRIPs agreement.
(2) Nationalised MNCs engage in private research in biotechnology.
(3) Encourage domestic firms to patent their innovations.
(4) Make provisions in the law for user compensation against failure of newly developed varieties.

DIRECTIONS : There are two gaps in the following sentences. From the pairs of words given, choose the one which
fills the gap most appropriately. The first word in the pair should fill the first gap.
64. The ..... of his life is to improve the lot of the economically ..... and the socially oppressed.
(1) purpose, extorted (2) mission, deprived
(3) objective, dispossessed (4) intention, bereaved
65. It is so ..... to work in factories that a moment's ..... can lead to tragedy.
(1) risky, aversion (2) venturesome, indifference
(3) fortuitous, carelessness (4) hazardous, negligence
DIRECTIONS: In the following sentences a part of the sentence is underlined. Beneath the sentence, four different
ways of phrasing the underlined part are indicated. Choose the best alternative from among the four.
66. Democratic choice was created in November 2001 by senior government officials and leading bankers were disgruntled

over the increasing power of the president's soninlaw, Rakhat Aliev.
(1) Democratic choice was created in November 2001 by senior government officials
(2) In November 2001, the officials of senior government created the democratic choice
(3) In November 2001, the creation of democratic choice was done by the officials of senior government
(4) Senior government officials are creating the democratic choice in November 2001
67. Moreover, seeing the Shias flex thin muscles, the Kurds have responded in kind, demanded their own legal system,
government and national guard.
(1) demanded their own legal system, government and national guard.
(2) demanding their own legal system, government and national guard.
(3) and have made the demand of their own legal system, government and national guard.
(4) had been demanding the legal system, government and national guard of their own.
DIRECTIONS: These questions consist of a CAPITALISED word and its meaning, followed by four possible illustrations
of the meaning. Choose the one which is not a suitable illustration.
68. CONDITIONING : To modify so that an act or response previously associated with one stimulus becomes associated
with another.
(1) repeated advertising of a particular slogan or symbol.
(2) rushing to the fireescape on noticing that the room is on fire.
(3) brainwashing experiments.
(4) None of the above
69. GRATUITOUS : Without recompense, uncalled for.
(1) unsolicited advice given by a senior to a junior.
(2) a village busybody meddling in others' affairs.
(3) a grateful person sending a thankyou note.
(4) a punch on the face of a knockeddown boxer.

DIRECTIONS: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
In terms of its prevalence, obesity is the leading disease in the United States. Obesity may be defined as a condition
of excess adipose tissue, as fatness beyond cultural aesthetic norms, or as adipose tissue tending to disrupt good
health of mind and body. A common rule of thumb is that people more than 20 pounds above their desirable weight
are obese. By this measure, 30 percent of men and 40 percent of women in America are obese. Despite the prevalence
of the disease, curative measures are almost impossible for those presently obese; future generations may be
spared.
Adipose tissue is a triumph of evolution. Fat yields 9.0 calories per gram, while carbohydrates and protein each
yield 4.0 calories per gram, and fat contains much less water than does protein. It is, therefore, much more efficient
to store excess energy as fat than as protein. Primitive man, with uncertain food sources, had great need for excess
fat, but modern Western man, with predictable food supply and sedentary lifestyle, is burdened by this evolutionary
vestige. This is not to say that modern man has no need at all for adipose tissue; on the contrary, he needs it for
important purpose like insulation from cold and protection of organs. The problem Americans face is losing excess
adipose tissue, and they turn from one fat diet to another. Despite a billiondollar diet industry, the five year cure
rate for obesity is almost zero. Cancer is more curable. The reasons for this are psychological as well as physiological.
From a physical standpoint, losing a pound or two a week or for a few weeks is not difficult, for most of the loss is
in the form of protein and water, and protein carries with it four times its weight in water. However, when the body
has been in negative nitrogen balance for too long, it acts to correct the situation by baking in as much or more
nitrogen than it excretes. Since protein is the only source of nitrogen in the diet, any future weight loss must come
from adipose tissue, the very compactness which makes the loss of weight a slow and tedious task. If caloric
expenditure exceeds the intake by 500 calories, only 62 grams of adipose tissue can be lost as compared with 620
grams of protein and associated water. The body's tendency to return to nitrogen balance can be so strong that the
dieter may actually gain weight while still expending more calories than that he is ingesting. Faced with discontinuance
of weight loss, or even a weight gain while still adhering to a previously successful diet, the dieter tends to suffer
from depression, hunger, decreased metabolic rate inactivity and weakness, which in turn lead to the diet's
abandonment. The strong tendency then is for rapid weight gain, probably from numerous psychological factors as
well as such physiological ones as increased lipid synthesis.
Obese people tend to be hypertensive and diabetic because they are relatively insensitive to insulin's effects
hyperinsulinemic. Weight loss is associated with improvement in all these categories. Further, obesity is correlated
with increased serum lipids {such as cholesterol), a condition which is additionally significant because of its role
in atherosclerotic heart disease, by far the leading cause of death in the United States.
Among the vigorous attempts made to reduce obesity in America, the most successful efforts are likely to be those
directed towards children. If the advertising and food industries stop trying to sell high caloric and low nutritive
value food to children, if parents reserve sweets as treats for special occasions, and if mothers and fathers are
successfully educated to understand that the feeding patterns they impose on their infants and children can
determine the adolescent and adult eating habits which those children will develop, the future generation may not
be as ours is.
70. According to the passage, evolution
(1) resulted in the creation of adipose tissue .
(2) disenabled modern man from using large amounts of energy.
(3) led to the development of a sedentary lifestyle and encouraged the ingestion of reduced calories.
(4) Both (2) and (3).
71. The statement which is neither supported nor contradicted by the passage is that
(1) dieters need four times as much water as protein for every pound of adipose tissue they wish to expend.
(2) adipose tissue is still needed by modern man for certain important purposes.
(3) obesity, as a disease, is the numberone cause of death in America.
(4) the diet industry in the United States has made little progress toward curing obesity.

72. The statement below that is neither expressed nor implied in the passage is that
(1) the food industries have contributed to the incidence of obesity in America.
(2) psychological and physiological factors may lead to rapid weight gain.
(3) more than onethird of American men and women are obese.
(4) till now obesity has been cured, but future generations may be afflicted by it.
DIRECTIONS: The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each

sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct
a coherent paragraph.
73. (1) "Movement to be perpetuated in art, must be of a special kind.

(A) It was to be found, perfectly exemplified, in flowing gestures, floating draperies, curling or rippling hair.
(B) It must be the visible expression of grace.
(C) An abrupt transition was brutal; the graceful was continuous.
(D) Although Renaissance writers left no formal definition of that word, they would all have agreed that it implied
a series of smooth transitions.
(6) Michael inherited this tradition of movement and grace in parts and extended it to the whole."
(1) BCAD (2) BDCA
(3) DCAB (4) DBCA
74. (1) Baby ducks learn to survive by imitating their mothers.

(A) We can also consciously choose new models to replace the ones we outgrow.
(B) Learning through imitation is fundamental to many species, including humans.
(C) It makes sense, therefore, to choose the best "role models" to guide and inspire us towards the realisation of
our potential.
(D) As we become adults, we have a unique advantage : we can choose whom and what to imitate.
(6) So if you want to become a better golfer, study Ben Hogan, Jack Nicklaus and Tiger Woods.
(1) BACD (2) BADC
(3) DBAC (4) BDAC
DIRECTIONS: In the following questions, the word at the top of the table is used in four different ways, numbered 1
to 4. Choose the option in which the usage of the word is INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE.
75. Accept
1 Her motherinlaw would never accept her.
2 The hotel accepts traveller's cheques.
3 It's devastating and barbaric act that accepts all comprehension.
4 I accept the responsibility of getting the work done on time.
76. Penetrate
1 His vision could not penetrate the fog.
2 She kept trying to penetrate a little fun into their relationship.
3 The bullet was able to penetrate the thick metal sheet.
4 The scientist penetrated the tissue with a needle.

DIRECTIONS: From the short passages given below, select the option that best represents the theme of the passage..
77. But it was Arundhati Roy's own surprise unmasked and untutored that came through most starkly. On hearing
that she had won English fiction's biggest sweepstakes, Roy's first words were a singularly unliterary "Gosh". She
went on a bit better, recalling the mindset of one of the characters in her book and saying that she had learnt
similarly to "control my hopes", and had therefore, neglected to prepare a speech. Later Roy came over all modest
and said her's was the "luckier" book of all the others shortlisted; she did stress that hers was hardly the "best" of
the lot. On the home ground, Roy will be the next heroine up with other worldbeater pinups like, say, Sushmita
Sen. Despite the obvious trivialisation in this comparison, it is a fact that many analysts decry the growing trend
for the literary prizes to become less of an island. Many say, they are increasingly influenced by political events,
which may be one reason that Bernard MacLaverty's Grace Notes on life in Northern Ireland was the hot favourite
to win when Ulster is high on the agenda of Britain's new Labour government.
The passage is
(1) talking about Arundhati Roy's reaction in the wake of winning the award.
(2) emphasising the politicisation of literary awards in the context of Arundhati Roy's award.
(3) drawing a comparison between Arundhati's and Bernard MacLaverty's writings.
(4) analysing the existing situation which is highly deplorable for upcoming writers.
78. Relations between India's Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and its South African
counterpart may be blossoming. The speculation that India might sooner or later will be benefitted from the
advance ballistic missile capability which South Africa had achieved quite some time ago, may not just be
speculation a few years from now. But, the real significance of the defence relations between India and South
Africa lies in the reason for their fostering. First, the two countries find in each other political, economic and
military capabilities that are broadly at par with each other, something that they do not share with their traditional
friends or allies.
The passage is
(1) highlighting the significance of Indian economic relations with South Africa.
(2) pointing towards the new horizons being captured by India and South Africa.
(3) establishing a framework for the future talks between Indian and South African Defence personnel.
(4) highlighting the deliberations carried out in certain fields due to similarities between Indian and South African
structure.
79. Advocates of a largescale spacedefense research project conclude that it will represent a net benefit to civilian
business. They say that since government sponsored research will have civilian applications, civilian businesses
will reap the rewards of governmentdeveloped technology.
Each of the following, if true, raises a consideration arguing against the conclusion above, except that
(1) the development of costefficient manufacturing techniques is of the highest priority for civilian business and
would be neglected if resources go to military projects, which do not emphasize cost efficiency.
(2) scientific and engineering talent needed by civilian business will be absorbed by the large scale project.
(3) many civilian businesses will receive subcontracts to provide materials and products needed by the research
project.
(4) if government research money is devoted to the space project, then it will not be available for specifically
targeted needs of civilian business, where it could be more efficiently used.Directions : Read the short passages
given below and answer the question that follows it.
DIRECTIONS: In the following question out of four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the
given word/sentence.
80. To issue a thunderous verbal attack
(1) Languish (2) Animate
(3) Fulminate (4) Invigorate

DIRECTIONS: Identify the incorrect sentence or sentences. Check grammar, usage, mechanics, redundancy, punctuation,
spelling and style elements.
81. (A) I therefore walked back by the horse way which was five miles round.

(B) Leaders with a socialised power orientation and a high level of cognitive moral development use their influence to build
commitment to idealised goals and they seek to empower subordinates by sharing information and using more consulta
tion delegation and development of subordinate skills and confidence.
(C) We listened to the weather report, but the forecast was ambiguous, we couldn't tell if the day was going to be rainy or
sunny.
(D) Milton the great poet was blind.
(1) A only (2) B and C
(3) A and D (4) All the above
DIRECTIONS: Identify the incorrect sentence or sentences. Check grammar, usage, mechanics, redundancy, punctuation,
spelling and style elements.
82. (A) A person's motivation and personality influence the desire to learn new skills, the willingness to take

risks in trying new approaches and the readiness to accept feedback about deficiencies.
(B) Cats are often said to be aloof because they usually mind their own business and don't crave the
affection of people.
(C) Magnets and iron have an affinity for each other that is each is attracted to the other.
(D) As a novelist Jane Austen is superior than Mrs. Henry Wood.
(1) A and B (2) B only
(3) C and D (4) A, B and C
DIRECTIONS: In these question, eight sentences/paragraphs are given. Out of the given eight sentences/paragraphs,
choose the five (from the given options) that form a logical and coherent paragraph/passage.
83. A. Can the values of a consumer society be applied to societies with nothing to consume?

B. The first objection argues that all rights and values are defined and limited by cultural perceptions; there is no
universal culture, therefore there are no universal human rights.
C. The fact is that a number of serious objections exist to the concept of universal human rights, which its
defenders need to acknowledge honestly if only to refute them.
D. Even in our globalizing world, the question as to whether “human rights” is an essentially Western concept,
which ignores the very different cultural, economic and political realities of the South, persists.
E. At the risk of sounding frivolous: when you stop a man in traditional dress from beating his wife, are you
upholding her human rights or violating his?
F. Whereas nonWestern societies often espouse a communitarian ethic that sees society as more than the sum
of its individual members, and considers duties to be more important than rights.
G. Then there is the usual North/South argument, with “human rights” cast as a cover for Western intervention
in the developing world.
H. Some philosophers object that the concept of human rights is founded on an individualistic view of man as an
autonomous being whose greatest need is to be free from interference by the state, imbued, as it were, with the
right to be left alone.
(1) HFGBC (2) HGFAC
(3) DAECB (4) DBEAF
(5) ACDGF

DIRECTIONS: The question has a word (capitalized) and five sentences that may use the word in its original form or
in a different way. Indicate your responses using the following instructions:
Mark (1) if none of the given five sentences incorrectly or inappropriately uses the capitalized word.
Mark (2) if exactly one of the given five sentences incorrectly or inappropriately use the capitalized word.
Mark (3) if exactly two of the given five sentences incorrectly or inappropriately use the capitalized word.
Mark (4) if exactly three or four of the given five sentences incorrectly or inappropriately use the capitalized
word.
Mark (5) if all of the given five sentences incorrectly or inappropriately use the capitalized word.
84. NEAR
(A) The time for his retirement was drawing near.
(B) She gave a tiny smile, brave but near to tears.
(C) Make a shape nearer to the original.
(D) An allelectric future was near at hand.
(E) The loss of a near relative led to the plight of family members.
DIRECTIONS: The sentences given in the question, when arranged in the proper sequence, form a coherent paragraph.
Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to
construct a meaningful paragraph.
85. (A) He reacted to his guilt in the same way that many of us do.

(B) Although sidelined by guilt, he didn't let his mistake permanently keep him from the life God had planned for
him.
(C) First, he tried to deny his mistake and cover up what he had done.
(D) However, before he was able to begin his comeback, he made two false starts.
(E) We know that Moses eventually made an incredible comeback.
(1) DCABE (2) EBDAC
(3) EDBCA (4) CBDAE
DIRECTIONS: The sentences given in the question, when arranged in the proper sequence, form a coherent paragraph.
Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to
construct a meaningful paragraph.
86. (A) Bottom line: Bharti's got money coming its way, so what if it's not foreign.

(B) "I expect it to help them generate free cash from FY 06 onwards, and thereafter they will start paying off debt,"
says Ganesh Duvvuri, a telecom analyst with Motilal Oswal securities.
(C) In fact, some analysts expect this model to come handy as Bharti fights the recent price wars in the industry.
(D) No doubt, foreign equity is theoretically cheaper than bank borrowings, but Bharti's outsourced business
model has also made its operation much less of a cash log.
(1) DACB (2) BCDA
(3) BACD (4) DCBA

DIRECTIONS: Read the following passage carefully and answer the question that follows.
PASSAGE
A nation with a population in excess of a billion is clearly not abstaining from sex. But India refuses to speak about the
birds and bees openly. We'd rather refer to it obliquely and shroud the discourse in halftruths instead of discussing it
as a matter of fact. When it comes to sex, hypocrisy rules in India. The opposition to the introduction of sex education
in schools starting the current academic session comes from several quarters, united by a misplaced notion of
morality.
The BJP and its brain, the RSS, claim that it is against Indian culture. The BJP is an indefatigable champion of India's
cultural ethos but it is not the only one. Its warped argument finds resonance in the protests of political parties across
the spectrum and other selfappointed custodians of the nation's social mores. The Karnataka government, led by JD(S),
has opposed sex education on the ground that it is antisocial. Ditto governments in Kerala, Maharashtra, Gujarat,
Rajasthan, Uttarakhand, Chhattisgarh, Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.
Former HRD minister Murli Manohar Joshi, in his infinite wisdom, recently exhorted parents to withdraw their children
from CBSE schools because the syllabus included lessons on sexual health. He is of the opinion that sex education will
encourage sexual activity among youngsters and undermine the foundations of the great Indian family. If only he and
his political ilk did not have the kind of say they have in shaping public policy, we could have ignored their ridiculous
opinions. Thankfully, the minister for women and child development, Renuka Chowdhury, is willing to stick her neck out
on this issue. In her somewhat edgy style, she has loudly spoken up in favour of sex education.
The argument that talking about sex is antithetical to Indian tradition is nonsense. Historical accounts and texts establish
that sex was not taboo in Indian society; the advent of alien, especially Victorian, mores was largely responsible for
reshaping our sensibilities about sex. A revision of our outlook is long overdue. HIV/AIDS and other sexually transmitted
diseases and unwanted pregnancies are on the rise, largely due to unsafe sexual behaviour. It is an inescapable fact of
our times that Indian youth are becoming sexually aware and active at a much younger age than before. It is imperative
that they are equipped to take responsibility for their reproductive health. To that end sex education, shorn of morality
and informed by fact, must be easily accessible in schools. The longer we hang on to our outdated attitude towards sex,
the dearer the price we will pay for coming generations.
87. What does the author think about the opposition to promoting sex education in Indian schools and colleges?
(1) He considers the opposition inspiring.
(2) He considers the opposition mandatory.
(3) He considers the opposition unnecessary.
(4) He considers the opposition awful.

DIRECTIONS: Read the following passage carefully and answer the question that follows.
PASSAGE
A nation with a population in excess of a billion is clearly not abstaining from sex. But India refuses to speak about the
birds and bees openly. We'd rather refer to it obliquely and shroud the discourse in halftruths instead of discussing it
as a matter of fact. When it comes to sex, hypocrisy rules in India. The opposition to the introduction of sex education
in schools starting the current academic session comes from several quarters, united by a misplaced notion of
morality.
The BJP and its brain, the RSS, claim that it is against Indian culture. The BJP is an indefatigable champion of India's
cultural ethos but it is not the only one. Its warped argument finds resonance in the protests of political parties across
the spectrum and other selfappointed custodians of the nation's social mores. The Karnataka government, led by JD(S),
has opposed sex education on the ground that it is antisocial. Ditto governments in Kerala, Maharashtra, Gujarat,
Rajasthan, Uttarakhand, Chhattisgarh, Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.
Former HRD minister Murli Manohar Joshi, in his infinite wisdom, recently exhorted parents to withdraw their children
from CBSE schools because the syllabus included lessons on sexual health. He is of the opinion that sex education will
encourage sexual activity among youngsters and undermine the foundations of the great Indian family. If only he and
his political ilk did not have the kind of say they have in shaping public policy, we could have ignored their ridiculous
opinions. Thankfully, the minister for women and child development, Renuka Chowdhury, is willing to stick her neck out
on this issue. In her somewhat edgy style, she has loudly spoken up in favour of sex education.
The argument that talking about sex is antithetical to Indian tradition is nonsense. Historical accounts and texts establish
that sex was not taboo in Indian society; the advent of alien, especially Victorian, mores was largely responsible for
reshaping our sensibilities about sex. A revision of our outlook is long overdue. HIV/AIDS and other sexually transmitted
diseases and unwanted pregnancies are on the rise, largely due to unsafe sexual behaviour. It is an inescapable fact of
our times that Indian youth are becoming sexually aware and active at a much younger age than before. It is imperative
that they are equipped to take responsibility for their reproductive health. To that end sex education, shorn of morality
and informed by fact, must be easily accessible in schools. The longer we hang on to our outdated attitude towards sex,
the dearer the price we will pay for coming generations.
88. What opinion does the author hold for Renuka Chowdhury's style?
(1) Skeptical. (2) Nervous.
(3) Confident. (4) Vociferous.

DIRECTIONS: Read the information given in the paragraph and answer the following question.
89. The city government should invest surplus funds in improving the city's transportation network. Most of the
network was put in place at a time when the city was much smaller in both area and population. The subway system
is outdated and understaffed. The buses rarely run on schedule and their routes are inconvenient. If the city does
not make changes soon to the network, it will see many of its prized industries relocate to more convenient cities
and, as a result, the city's financial health will be jeopardized.
In the argument above, the two highlighted portions play which of the following roles?
(1) The first is an explanation of a current state of affairs; the second is a prediction based on that state of affairs.
(2) The first is a statement of fact in support of the author's conclusion; the second is that conclusion.
(3) The first emphasizes an existing problem; the second offers a proposal to solve that problem.
(4) The first is information the author suggests has been overlooked in the situation at hand; the second describes
that situation
(5) The first is a justification of an impending problem; the second describes the consequences of that problem
DIRECTIONS: The sentences given in the question below, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence
is labeled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from the given choices to construct a coherent para
graph.
90. (A) As a result of educated predictions, Thayer never enters a conference nervously or leaves one angrily.

(B) If it is a day when opposing points of view will be presented, he weighs what the arguments may be, reviews his own
stand.
(C) Walter Thayer, president of the New York Herald Tribune, never enters a conference without having made as good a
prediction as he can of what is likely to happen.
(D) If it is up to him to try to sway a meeting, he forecasts the possible challenges and makes his position as sound as he
can.
(1) BACD (2) DABC
(3) CBDA (4) CDAB
DIRECTIONS: For the following sentences, a part of the sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, four different ways of
phrasing the underlined part are indicated. Choose the best option from the four.
91. In virtually all types of tissue in every animal species, dioxin induces the production of enzymes that the organisms trying to

metabolise, or render harmless, the chemical that is irritating it.
(1) trying to metabolise, or render harmless, the chemical that is irritating it.
(2) trying that it metabolise, or render harmless, the chemical irritant.
(3) attempt to try to metabolise, or render harmless, such a chemical irritant.
(4) attempt to metabolise, or to render harmless chemical irritant.
DIRECTIONS: Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate option.
92. The ..... of mystics and saint poets the world over has been one of love – between all living creatures – and the
Omniscient Being which ..... them.
(1) mainstay, sustains (2) question, creates
(3) aim, maintains (4) credo, animates
(5) core, inhabits

DIRECTIONS: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.
Here are various predictions on the ‘order’ in which some contestants in a race would finish, together with a
summary of how correct each prediction was.
Number of contestants finishing in first
Predictions on the contestant finishing through fifth position that were predicted
S. No.
in the
First Second Third Fourth Fifth right position wrong position
A Ram Veer Jaya Sita Simi 2 1
B Rimi Rita Riya Simi Sita 0 1
C Rita Jaya Simi Rati Jay 0 2
D Rimi Rita Kimi Veer Rati 1 2
E Rita Rimi Simi Ram Jaya 1 1
93. Who finished first in the race?
(1) Sita (2) Rati
(3) Rimi (4) Jaya
(5) Veer
Here are various predictions on the ‘order’ in which some contestants in a race would finish, together with a
summary of how correct each prediction was.
Number of contestants finishing in first
Predictions on the contestant finishing through fifth position that were predicted
S. No.
in the
First Second Third Fourth Fifth right position wrong position
A Ram Veer Jaya Sita Simi 2 1
B Rimi Rita Riya Simi Sita 0 1
C Rita Jaya Simi Rati Jay 0 2
D Rimi Rita Kimi Veer Rati 1 2
E Rita Rimi Simi Ram Jaya 1 1
94. Who finished fifth in the race?
(1) Kimi (2) Rimi
(3) Ram (4) Simi
(5) Jay

95. Six puppies – K, L, M, S, T, U – must each be scheduled for examination by a veterinarian. The puppies are to be
examined one at a time in six consecutive time slots on the same day according to the following conditions.
Ø M cannot be examined immediately before or immediately after S.
Ø L must be examined immediately before U.
Ø K must be examined fourth.
If S is examined sixth, then which of the following is a complete and accurate list of the time slots where M could be
examined?
(1) First (2) First or second
(3) First or third (4) First or second or third
According to the Hawking equation: The age of a Redwood tree is directly proportional to the sum of the square
roots of its weight in kg and its height in metres. A 10year old Redwood tree had a height of 16 metres. After one
year the height of the tree remained the same while the weight increased by 13 kg, where a – age, h – height, w –
weight of the tree.
96. What will be the weight of a 14year old tree with a height of 36 m?
(1) 8 kg (2) 100 kg
(3) 36 kg (4) 64 kg
(5) None of these

Ten surgeons, Abhay, Aditi, Akash, Amit, Amol, Anand, Ankita, Anshuman, Apurv and Ashish from Bombay Hospital
decided to start a Health camp in the nearby four villages, Mhow, Rau, Sanwer and Depalpur. It was decided that
during the Health camp each doctor will make exactly two visits to the villages, one visit for Physical Check Up
and the other one for Surgery. The village visited maximum number of times by the doctors is finally adjudged as
the Bug Village.
After the Health camp was over, it was found that:
(I) No two villages were visited the same number of times for Surgery and the same was the case for
Physical Check Up visits. However, every village was visited at least once for Surgery and Physical
Check Up.
(II) No two villages experienced equal visits during the Health camp and Sanwer emerged as the Bug Village.
(III) Akash and Amit visited the villages in pairs. However, the same cannot be said to be true for any other
pair of doctors.
(IV) No other doctor visited for the same purpose to those villages where Aditi visited during the Health
camp.
(V) Except Anand, who visited Sanwer for Physical Check Up as well as Surgery, and Apurv, who visited
Mhow both the times, no other doctor visited the same village twice.
(VI) Abhay did not visit Sanwer for the Physical Check Up.
(VII) Amol and Ankita visited the same village for Surgery.
(VIII) Only Ankita and Anshuman visited Depalpur for Physical Check Up, while Akash visited Mhow for
Physical Check Up.
97. Which village did Ashish visit for Physical Check Up during the Health camp?
(1) Depalpur (2) Sanwer
(3) Rau (4) Mhow

the Bug Village.
Check Up.
pair of doctors.
camp.
Physical Check Up.
98. Which village did Anshuman visit for Surgery during the Health camp?
(1) Depalpur (2) Sanwer
(3) Rau (4) Mhow

the Bug Village.
Check Up.
pair of doctors.
camp.
Physical Check Up.
99. Which of the following pairs of doctors visited the same village for Surgery during the Health camp?
(l) Anand and Abhay (2) Abhay and Anshuman
(3) Anand and Amol (4) Ashish and Ankita
(5) Abhay and Amol

the Bug Village.
Check Up.
pair of doctors.
camp.
Physical Check Up.
100.Which of the following pairs of doctors visited Mhow for Physical Check Up during the Health camp?
(1) Abhay and Akash (2) Abhay and Amol
(3) Ashish and Apurv (4) Amit and Amol
(5) Ashish and Amit

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Prac­CAT # 01

(Part of the 24 All-India Mock Tests provided by PT)

TEST FORM NUMBER TEST BOOKLET SR. NO.

111 Test Code: CT 21

3. A rectangular box can be completely filled with unit cubes. If one places as many cubes as possible, each with

(1) None (2) 1

(2) of (39) IC : PTpnrpc01

9. There are blue vessels with known volumes v 1 , v 2 , ....., v m , arranged in ascendi ng order of volum e, v 1 > 0.5 litre

IC : PTpnrpc01 (3) of (39)

15. The range of values of X for x - x 2 + 12 ³ 0 which is valid, is

(4) of (39) IC : PTpnrpc01

IC : PTpnrpc01 (5) of (39)

(6) of (39) IC : PTpnrpc01

A. a – b = b – c = c – d = d – a

B. a – b = b – c = c – a

32. D 1 , D 2 , D 3 and D 4 are recurring decimals given by

IC : PTpnrpc01 (7) of (39)

Runner Team A Team B

(1) 40 p meters (2) (40 + 10 p ) meters

35. Two congruent regular tetrahedrons of edge length 2 are positioned such that their heights (vertex to center of

IC : PTpnrpc01 (9) of (39)

(10) of (39) IC : PTpnrpc01

IC : PTpnrpc01 (11) of (39)

(12) of (39) IC : PTpnrpc01

IC : PTpnrpc01 (13) of (39)

(14) of (39) IC : PTpnrpc01

The following graph gives the distribution of Expenditure of Government of India for the 3 given years (1991­1993).

The following graph gives the distribution of Revenues of Government of India for the 3 given years (1991­1993).

IC : PTpnrpc01 (15) of (39)

(16) of (39) IC : PTpnrpc01

The following graph gives the distribution of Expenditure of Government of India for the 3 given years (1991­1993).

The following graph gives the distribution of Revenues of Government of India for the 3 given years (1991­1993).

IC : PTpnrpc01 (17) of (39)

(18) of (39) IC : PTpnrpc01

The following graph gives the distribution of Expenditure of Government of India for the 3 given years (1991­1993).

The following graph gives the distribution of Revenues of Government of India for the 3 given years (1991­1993).

IC : PTpnrpc01 (19) of (39)

(20) of (39) IC : PTpnrpc01

IC : PTpnrpc01 (21) of (39)

(22) of (39) IC : PTpnrpc01

IC : PTpnrpc01 (23) of (39)

(24) of (39) IC : PTpnrpc01

66. Democratic choice was created in November 2001 by senior government officials and leading bankers were disgruntled

IC : PTpnrpc01 (25) of (39)

(26) of (39) IC : PTpnrpc01

DIRECTIONS: The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each

73. (1) "Movement to be perpetuated in art, must be of a special kind.

74. (1) Baby ducks learn to survive by imitating their mothers.

IC : PTpnrpc01 (27) of (39)

(28) of (39) IC : PTpnrpc01

81. (A) I therefore walked back by the horse way which was five miles round.

82. (A) A person's motivation and personality influence the desire to learn new skills, the willingness to take

83. A. Can the values of a consumer society be applied to societies with nothing to consume?

IC : PTpnrpc01 (29) of (39)

85. (A) He reacted to his guilt in the same way that many of us do.

86. (A) Bottom line: Bharti's got money coming its way, so what if it's not foreign.

(30) of (39) IC : PTpnrpc01

IC : PTpnrpc01 (31) of (39)

(32) of (39) IC : PTpnrpc01

90. (A) As a result of educated predictions, Thayer never enters a conference nervously or leaves one angrily.

91. In virtually all types of tissue in every animal species, dioxin induces the production of enzymes that the organisms trying to

IC : PTpnrpc01 (33) of (39)

(34) of (39) IC : PTpnrpc01

IC : PTpnrpc01 (35) of (39)

PracCAT # 01

The following graph gives the distribution of Expenditure of Government of India for the 3 given years (19911993).

The following graph gives the distribution of Revenues of Government of India for the 3 given years (19911993).

The following graph gives the distribution of Expenditure of Government of India for the 3 given years (19911993).

The following graph gives the distribution of Revenues of Government of India for the 3 given years (19911993).

The following graph gives the distribution of Expenditure of Government of India for the 3 given years (19911993).

The following graph gives the distribution of Revenues of Government of India for the 3 given years (19911993).