e-Prac-CAT-03 - Test

PracCAT # 03
DIRECTIONS: The following pie chart shows Small scale exports at current prices (20042005) in Rs. crores.Refer to
the information and answer the questions that follow.
SMALL SCALE EXPORTS AT CURRENT PRICES
D
E
2°
84°
B
4°
A
7°
C
7° H
24° F
G 226°
6°
Notes:
1. The volume of marine products exports is the least at Rs.70 crores approximately.
2. The approximate difference between autoparts and industrial plant and machinery exports is Rs.106 crores.
3. Leather footwear and products account for the second highest volume of small scale exports at Rs.2947
crores.
4. The share of bicycle parts at 246 crores is less than that of processed food at Rs.840 crores and more than
that of knitwear at Rs.208 crores.
5. Due to government initiative the small scale exports of autoparts has recently increased from Rs.63 crores
to Rs.140 crores
6. Readymade garments account for the highest volume of small scale exports at current prices.
1. If the share of sector B is increased to be approximately equal to sector G then which product would have an
immediately higher volume than that of sector B
(1) Readymade Garments (2) Autoparts
(3) Industrial palnt & machinery (4) Kintwear
IC : PTpnrpc03 (1) of (45)

DIRECTIONS: The following pie chart shows Small scale exports at current prices (20042005) in Rs. crores.Refer to
the information and answer the questions that follow.
SMALL SCALE EXPORTS AT CURRENT PRICES
D
E
2°
84°
B
4°
A
7°
C
7° H
24° F
G 226°
6°
Notes:
1. The volume of marine products exports is the least at Rs.70 crores approximately.
2. The approximate difference between autoparts and industrial plant and machinery exports is Rs.106 crores.
3. Leather footwear and products account for the second highest volume of small scale exports at Rs.2947
crores.
4. The share of bicycle parts at 246 crores is less than that of processed food at Rs.840 crores and more than
that of knitwear at Rs.208 crores.
5. Due to government initiative the small scale exports of autoparts has recently increased from Rs.63 crores
to Rs.140 crores
6. Readymade garments account for the highest volume of small scale exports at current prices.
2. The difference between the volume of small scale exports at current prices between product A and product G is
(1) Rs.35 crores (2) Rs.125 crores
(3) Rs.47 crores (4) Rs.198 crores
DIRECTIONS: For the following questions, four options are given. Choose the correct option.
3. The largest interval for which x 18 – x 15 + x 10 – x 7 + 1 > 0 is

(1) –3 < x < 0 (2) 0 < x < 1
(3) –18 < x < 18 (4) –¥ < x < ¥
(2) of (45) IC : PTpnrpc03

4. Side AC of right triangle ABC is divided into 8 equal parts. Seven line segments parallel to BC are drawn to AB from
the point of division. If BC = 10, then the sum of the lengths of the seven line segments
B
A C
(1) cannot be found from the given information (2) is 33
(3) is 34 (4) is 35
DIRECTIONS: The following line graph refers to the engine life (in percent) at various speeds. (e.g., if a vehicle is
usually driven at 20 mph, the life span of engine then will be 200% of its normal life span.)
250
200
Engine Life (in percent)
150
100
50
0
20 30 40 50 60 70 80
Speed (in miles per hour)
5. Given that the normal lifespan of an engine is 60,000 miles, what was the lifespan of an engine which was driven for
20,000 miles at a speed of 60 miles per hour and later at a speed of 30 miles per hour?
(1) 40,000 miles (2) 28,000 miles
(3) 43,000 miles (4) 49,000 miles

DIRECTIONS: The following line graph refers to the engine life (in percent) at various speeds. (e.g., if a vehicle is
usually driven at 20 mph, the life span of engine then will be 200% of its normal life span.)
250
200
Engine Life (in percent)
150
100
50
0
20 30 40 50 60 70 80
Speed (in miles per hour)
6. If the engine is bored when it has completed 75% of its life span, its lifespan is extended by 50% of its normal

lifespan. If the normal lifespan of a engine is 60,000 miles and it is being run at a usual speed of 50 miles per hour and
bored in time, how many more miles can it be run at the same speed after boring?
(1) 63,000 miles (2) 23,000 miles
(3) 31,500 miles (4) 20,000 miles
DIRECTIONS: Refer to the following information and answer the questions that follow.
The table given below lists the participation from four zones in All India Top Adventurer Contest, organized by the
National Adventure Sports Organization.
Adventure Sport Zone 1 Zone 2 Zone 3 Zone 4

Mountain Climbing 525 733 685 791
Paragliding 391 364 428 449
Bungee Jumping 519 612 639 548
White water Rafting 272 426 387 416
Para shoot Jumping 316 343 392 364
Total participants 642 896 753 837
7. What was the percentage participation in Para gliding at all India level?
(1) 28% (2) 36%
(3) 44% (4) 52%


8. Which event had the least participation?
(1) White water Rafting (2) Para shoot Jumping
(3) Paraglidin (4) Bungee Jumping

9. At the all India level, compared to Bungee Jumping, Mountain climbing had a participation that was how many times
the participation in bungee jumping?
(1) 1.82 (2) 1.67
(3) 1.18 (4) 1.04


10. In Zone 1, at least how many participants took part in both mountain climbing and white water rafting?
(1) 155 (2) 174
(3) 236 (4) 259
11. If both a and b belong to the set {1, 2, 3, 4}, then the number of equations of the form ax 2 + bx + 1= 0 having real roots

is
(1) 10 (2) 7
(3) 6 (4) 12
12. x and y are real numbers satisfying the conditions 2 < x < 3 and –x < y < –y, then which of the following expressions
will have the least value?
(1) x 2 y (2) xy 2
(3) 5xy (4) None of these
13. Every ten years the Municipal Corporation of Indore counts all the people living in the city. Suppose that the
director of the census has reported the following data on two neighbouring areas named Pancham ki phel and Goma
ki phel
Pancham ki phel has 4,522 fewer males than Goma ki phel.
Goma ki phel has 4,020 more females than males.
Pancham ki phel has twice as many females as males.
Pancham ki phel has 2,910 fewer females than Goma ki phel
What is the total number of males in Pancham ki phel?
(1) 11264 (2) 14174
(3) 5632 (4) 10154

14. The figure below shows the network connecting cities A, B, C, D, E and F. The arrows indicate permissible direction
of travel. The number of distinct paths from A to F is
B C
A F
D E
(1) 9 (2) 10

(3) 11 (4) None of these
15. In the given diagram, the radius of the circle with centre O is 2cm. The radius of the
outermost concentric circle is 1cm, the next one 1/2 cm and the innermost one 1/4
cm. The total area of the two shaded portions is O
13 p 2
(1) 3 p cm 2 (2) cm
4
47 p 51 p
(3) cm 2 (4) cm 2
16 16
DIRECTIONS: Question given below is followed by various steps. Some or all the steps may be required to find the
correct answer. Decide the steps which are both correct and necessary to answer the question and accordingly choose
your answer.
16. A trader sells two articles at the same selling price. On one of the articles, he makes a profit of 20% while on the
other, he makes a loss of 15%. If the sales price of both the articles is Rs.10200 each, then what is the overall profit
/ loss made by the trader?
(a) Calculate the profit earned on the first article and the loss incurred on the second article.
(b) Calculate the cost price for both the articles.
(c) Deduct the sum of the cost prices of both the articles from Rs.20400.
(1) All (a), (b) and (c) are correct and necessary.
(2) Only (b) and (c) are correct and necessary.
(3) Only (a) and (c) are correct and necessary.
(4) Only (a) and (b) are correct and necessary.

17. There are 25 drugs which a firstaid team uses in injection for casualties. You are given the task of finding out which
two different drugs, selected from these 25, injected in a specified order (with a 20 minutes gap between them) have
the most beneficial effect on the blood pressure of white mice. You are to conduct one trial per day making two
injections on a mouse. How many days will you need to complete the task?
(1) 450 (2) 500
(3) 600 (4) 550
18. ABCDE is a pentagon. In the given figure all the circles have their centres at the
2 r
vertices and all have equal radius r. The sum of areas of the shaded sectors is
O
(1) pr 2 (2) 2pr 2

(3) 5pr 2 /4 (4) 7pr 2 /2
DIRECTIONS: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
A = { x : | x | < 10; xÎI}
B = {y 2 : | y | < 10; yÎI}
19. The maximum and the minimum value of B – A and the minimum and the maximum value for A × B respectively is
(1) (18, –18) and (81, – 81) (2) (90, – 9) and (– 729, 729)
(3) (90, –9) and (729, – 729) (4) (18, – 18) and (– 81, 81)
DIRECTIONS: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
A = { x : | x | < 10; xÎI}
B = {y 2 : | y | < 10; yÎI}
20. What is the minimum value for x 2 –2xy 2 + 1 + y 4 where x and y are as above?

(1) 1 (2) 10
(3) 82 (4) –8
21. In Socktie (a company produces socks and ties) one machine produces only socks at the rate of 100 socks per
minute and needs to be cleaned for 5 minutes after production of every 1000 socks. Another machine produces only
ties at the rate of 75 ties per minute and needs to be cleaned for 10 minutes after production of every 1500 ties. If
both the machines start production at the same time, what is the minimum duration required for producing 9000 pairs
of socks and ties (one pair is one sock and one tie)?
(1) 130 minutes (2) 135 minutes
(3) 170 minutes (4) 180 minutes

22. Kunal and Amit run a 100metre race, where Kunal beats Amit by 10 metres. To do a favour to Amit. Kunal starts 10
metres behind the starting line in a second 100metre race. They both run a their earlier speeds. Which of the
following is true in connection with the second race?
(1) Kunal and Amit reach the finishing line simultaneously.
(2) Amit beats Kunal by 1 metre.
(3) Amit beats Kunal by 11 metres.
(4) Kunal beats Amit by 1 metre.
23. In a number system the product of 44 and 11 is 1034. The number 3111 of this system, when converted to the decimal
number system, becomes.
(1) 406 (2) 1086
(3) 213 (4) 691
24. A set of consecutive positive integers beginning with 1 is written on the blackboard. A student came along and
erased one number. The average of the remaining numbers is 35 7 / 17 . What was the number erased?
(1) 7 (2) 8
25. How many different ways are there to write the number 1998 as sum of 2 or more consecutive positive even numbers?
(e.g. 1998 = 998 + 1000, 1998 = 664 + 666 + 668).
(1) 8 (2) 9
(3) 6 (4) 5
DIRECTIONS: A number (written in base 10) is said to be weakly prime if it is prime but all the numbers obtained by
changing its first digit (not the units digit) by a number lower than the one given are not prime. For example, 17 is not
weakly prime, since changing the first digit to 0 gives 07 which is prime. There are other weakly prime numbers.
26. What is the smallest weakly prime number in base 10?
(1) 17387 (2) 294001
(3) 342101 (4) 220597
27. A chess grand master participates in exhibit game series. He plays few games each with different participants, but
does not lose a single one. In all he makes 0.75 points per game. (1 point for a game won and 0.5 points for a game
drawn). He shakes hands with his competitors before and after every game. All those who have drawn the game, get
a prize. At that time, he again shakes hands with them (those who got prize). An observer counts the number of
handshakes as between 61 and 68. What is the actual number of handshakes?
(1) 65 (2) 63
(3) 64 (4) 66

28. ABCD is a parallelogram in which AB = 6 Ö3 cm, BC = 6 cm and Ð ABC =120°. The D C

bisectors of angles A, B, C & D form a quadrilateral PQRS. The area of PQRS is P
(cm 2 ) Q
S
(1) 18 Ö 3 (2 – Ö3) (2) 18Ö3 A R

B
(3) 36/ Ö3 (4) 18 (2 – Ö3)
29. Three vertices of a regular hexagon are randomly selected. What is the probability that an isosceles triangle would
be formed by connecting these three vertices?
(1) 1/2 (2) 2/5
(3) 4/5 (4) 3/5
30. A candidate must secure 40% of the total aggregate to pass an examination in which each question has equal marks.
He attempts only 8 questions out of every 10 questions. On 75% of his answers, he secures only 26% of the marks
and on the remaining of the answers, 100% of the marks. Thus he gets 22 marks too few to pass. The maximum marks
is
(1) 425 (2) 500
(3) 380 (4) 620
DIRECTIONS: For each of the following question, four options are given. Choose the correct option.
31. Gyandeep Society had put a rectangular plot of area 4320 sq. m for sale. Since no individual member came forward
for purchasing it, the plot was divided into three square shaped plots by fencing parallel fences to the smaller side.
However, some area of land was still left as a square could not be formed. So, three more squareshaped plots were
formed by fencing parallel to the longer side of the original plot. (No area in the plot was then left for sale). The
dimensions of the original plot was
(1) 216 m × 20 m (2) 108 m × 40 m
(3) 120 m × 36 m (4) 144 m × 30 m
32. A task is assigned to a group of n men, not all of whom have the same capacity to work. Every day exactly two men
out of the group work on the task, with no same pair of men working together twice. Even after all the possible pairs
have worked once, all the men together had to work for exactly one day more to finish the task. Find the number of
days that will be required for all the men working together to finish the task.
(1) 2n – 1 (2) 2n + 1
(3) n 2 – 1 (4) n
DIRECTIONS: For the following question, four options are given. Choose the correct option.
33. The remainder when x = 1! + 2! + 3! + 4! + ......... + 100! is divided by 240, is
(1) 153 (2) 33
(3) 73 (4) 187

34. One day, an enterprising ant starts its own colony by giving birth to two enterprising ants. Every ant of this colony,
as soon as it is one day old, starts to give birth to exactly two offspring each day, which in turn continue the
process. As a natural phenomenon, every such colony splits up into five equal groups after exactly eight weeks of
its inception. The remaining ants if any, commit mass suicide for having been left out. How many ants commit
suicide after one such split?
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 5 (4) 1
25 x 5 x
35. If 5 3125 = 3125 25 , then what is the value of x + 1?
F G - 6 I J F G + 6 I J

(a) 1 + 6 (b) 1 - 6 (c) H
log 1
K (d)
H
log 1
K
log5 log5
(1) Both (c) & (d) (2) Both (a) & (b)
(3) Only (a) (4) Only (d)
36. The sum of 2n + 1 consecutive even integers is zero. In how many ways can we choose xcoordinates of vertices of
a triangle from these integers such that the centroid always lies on the yaxis?
n 2 n 2 + 1

(a) (b) (c) n
2 2
(1) Both (a) and (b) (2) Either (a) or (b)
(3) Either (b) or (c) (4) Either (a) or (c)
37. The ratio of the circumference of a circle to the perimeter of the inscribed regular polygon with n sides is
p p
(1) 2p : 2n sin (2) 2p : n sin
n n
2p 2p
(3) 2p : 2n sin (4) 2p : n sin
n n

38. Given graph represents
(1) f (x) = 3f (–x) 2
(2) f (x) = f (–x)
(3) f (x) = –f (–x) 1
(4) f (x) = 2f (–x)
–2 –1 1 2
39. What can be said about the following numbers: 2006 2007 2008 , 2007 2006 2008 , 2007 2008 2006 , 2006 2008 2007

2008 2008 2006
I. 2006 2007 < 2007 2006 < 2007 2008
2006 2007 2008
II. 2007 2008 < 2006 2008 < 2006 2007
III. 2006 2008 2007 is the largest number out of all the numbers.
2006
IV. 2007 2008 is the smallest number out of all the numbers.
(1) Only I and IV are correct. (2) Only II and IV are correct.
(3) Only II is correct. (4) IV is wrong but II is correct

DIRECTIONS: The area graph shows the number of copies sold of five leading newspapers during five consecutive
years (in hundred thousand). The piechart shows the percentagewise breakup of sales of total number of newspapers
to persons of different professions. (Assume that this breakup remains same throughout). Refer to the area graph and
piechart to answer the question that follows.
The Hindustan Times The Hindu Economic Times

Indian Express Times of India
100
90
80
70
60
50
40
30
20
10
0
1991 1992 1993 1994 1995
Students
Engineers 15%
24%
Teachers
11%
MBA Doctors
25% 15%
Lawyers
10%
40. The approximate difference (in thousands) between the number of doctors reading The Economic Times in 1993 and
the number of engineers reading The Hindu in 1995 is
(1) 90 (2) 310
(3) 140 (4) 280


100
90
80
70
60
50
40
30
20
10
0
1991 1992 1993 1994 1995
Students
Engineers 15%
24%
Teachers
11%
MBA Doctors
25% 15%
Lawyers
10%
41. If the total sales of newspapers show the same percentage growth in 1996 from its previous year as it has shown in
1995 from its previous year and the increment in sales is equally distributed among the other newspapers (given the
sales of Times of India and Indian Express are stuck at the same value as in year 1995), then what is the percentage
increase in the sales of the Hindu from 1994 to 1996?
(1) 40% (2) 60%
(3) 80% (4) Indeterminable


100
90
80
70
60
50
40
30
20
10
0
1991 1992 1993 1994 1995
Students
Engineers 15%
24%
Teachers
11%
MBA Doctors
25% 15%
Lawyers
10%
42. If the increase in the number of copies sold of Indian Express in 1996 is equal to the number of copies sold of The
Hindu and Economic Times in 1995 and there is the same overall percentage growth in total number of copies sold
as compared to previous year, then the percentage share of the number of copies of Indian Express sold in the total
number of copies sold of all the newspapers in 1996 is
(1) 44% (2) 35.63%
(3) 52% (4) 33%

DIRECTIONS: In the question, there are two statements A and B, either of which can be true or false on the basis
of the information given below.
A company has the following data regarding various financial traits
ITEM 198889 198990 199091

Turnover 13.64 15.93 25
Gross Profit 1.08 1.44 2.62
Depreciation 0.4 0.48 0.91
Taxation 0.1 0.12 0.21
Net Profit 0.59 0.84 1.5
Equity Capital 2.08 2.08 2.08
Debt 4.86 1.84 12.62
Choose (1), if only statement (A) is true.
Choose (2), if only statement (B) is true.
Choose (3), if both statements (A) and (B) are true.
Choose (4), if neither statement (A) nor (B) is true.
43. Gross profit margin (GPM) = Gross Profit + Turnover,
EPS = (10 × Net profit) ÷ (Equity capital).
Statement A : In the year 198990, the GPM grow by more than 50%.
Statement B : The EPS for the year 198990 is 4.038.
DIRECTIONS: In the question, there are two statements A and B, either of which can be true or false on the basis
of the information given below.
A company has the following data regarding various financial traits
ITEM 198889 198990 199091

Turnover 13.64 15.93 25
Gross Profit 1.08 1.44 2.62
Depreciation 0.4 0.48 0.91
Taxation 0.1 0.12 0.21
Net Profit 0.59 0.84 1.5
Equity Capital 2.08 2.08 2.08
Debt 4.86 1.84 12.62
Choose (1), if only statement (A) is true.
Choose (2), if only statement (B) is true.
Choose (3), if both statements (A) and (B) are true.
Choose (4), if neither statement (A) nor (B) is true.
44. Statement A : The percentage growth rate in net profit from 198889 to 199091 is 72%.
Statement B : The percentage growth rate in turnover from 198889 to 199091 is 83%.

DIRECTIONS: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.
In Achal School of Geeks, we follow a practice of organizing fun games fortnightly for students' refreshment. On
one such fun weekend, games were organized among the various departments in the school, and "hats" were
distributed based on the performances in each event. Based on the color of the hats, integral points were then
awarded to each team. One hat was awarded to only one person in any event. The hats were of three colors: Black,
Red and White and were distributed in the following order: Black to the winner, Red to the first runnerup and White
hat to the second runnerup. The tally of top ten departments (not necessarily in order) after the event is given in
the following table:
Department Black Hats Red Hats White Hats Total Points

Aryabhatta’ s Den 6 3 4
Bayes’ s Den 10 8 9
De’ Broglie’ s Den 2 5 1 37
Euclid’ s Den 8 5 16
Euler’ s Den 12 13 9 129
Fourier’ s Den 2 2 7 37
L’Hospital’s Den 14 17 6
La’ Place’ s Den 4 4 2
Ptolemy’ s Den 6 5 12
Ramanujan’ s Den 3 5 1
The ranking of a department is based on the following (rank 1 being the highest):
(1) Total points (more points, higher rank)
(2) Alphabetic order of the department's name.
First, total points will be considered. In case, we have a tie, then the alphabetical order of ranking will be followed.
After all the events were over, the participants were taken through an Elope test. Those who were unable to pass
the test were forced to forfeit their hats and these hats were then passed to the participants who were next to them
in the events in which they had won the hats. If the person to whom this hat was given, already had a hat, then his
hat was passed to the next person and so on.
(1) In all, nine hatwinners failed the Elope test.
(2) In a particular event, at most one hatwinner failed the test.
45. What is the highest possible rank of Aryabhatta's Den after the Elope tests?
(1) 4 (2) 5
(3) 2 (4) 3


Euler’ s Den 12 13 9 129
46. If all the Red and White snatched hats are distributed among these 10 departments only, what could be the maximum
possible number of points that a department other than these departments may have after the Elope test?
(1) 52 (2) 46
(3) 48 (4) 81

Red and White and were distributed in the following order: Black to the winner, Red to the first runnerup and
White hat to the second runnerup. The tally of top ten departments (not necessarily in order) after the event is
given in the following table:

Euler’ s Den 12 13 9 129
47. Suppose that at the most one hat was snatched from each department and the total number of hats won by each
department increased by not more than 1. Also, at least 3 Red and 3 White hats were snatched. Then, which of the
following is definitely false?
(1) Maximum change in the difference of points between any two departments after and before the test is 12.
(2) A minimum of 3 departments retained their original rank
(3) The 10 listed departments can only be the ones that won hats in the event.
(4) None of these


Euler’ s Den 12 13 9 129
48. If only two Red hats and two White hats were snatched at the most, what can be the minimum rank of Baye's Den?
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 6

Shown here is the graph of one time investment in (Rs.) on mining of coal against the quality of coal:
145324786
Fixed Cost
133654683
126582198
Category 1 Category 2 Category 3
Given below is the recurring cost of production of per tonne of different kinds of coals:
Recurring Cost
1500
1450
Recurring Cost
1400
1350
1300
1250
1200
1150
Category
Given below is the selling price (per ton) of these kind of coals in India:
Category 1 1530
Category 2 1325
Category 3 1375
49. Assuming that recurring cost remains the same year after year and if same quantity of coal is produced, which
category of coal will cover its capital cost first
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) Data insufficient

Shown here is the graph of one time investment in (Rs.) on mining of coal against the quality of coal:
145324786
Fixed Cost
133654683
126582198
Given below is the recurring cost of production of per tonne of different kinds of coals:
Recurring Cost
1500
1450
Recurring Cost
1400
1350
1300
1250
1200
1150
Category
Given below is the selling price (per ton) of these kind of coals in India:
Category 1 1530
Category 2 1325
Category 3 1375

ADDITIONAL DIRECTIONS: Given below is the pie chart depicting the % of coal mined of a particular category.
Production
1st Category 2nd Category 3rd Category
30%
32%
38%
50. If recurring cost remains constant over the time and the total production is 24000 ton, then in how many years the
coal company will recover all its cost and will start earning profit
(1) 70 (2) 140
(3) 210 (4) 280

DIRECTIONS: The sentences given in each question, when arranged in the proper sequence, form a coherent
paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given
choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
51. (A) But categorisation schemes are not always helpful in determining what one can do with or about organisational

culture.
(B) Much of the literature on organisational culture is focused on categorising types of cultures.
(C) It has taken the understanding of corporate culture far beyond what used to be called ‘the informal
organisation’.
(D) This literature is both interesting and informative.
(1) BDCA (2) BADC
(3) BCDA (4) DABC
52. (A) Much of the argument that goes on around the alternative solution occurs because people hold different
perceptions of the problem.
(B) One of the reasons that Japanese managers are perceived as making superior decisions as compared to Western
managers is that they spend a great deal of effort and time in determining that the problem is correctly
defined.
(C) Unfortunately, too often in the West, managers assume that the initial definition of the situation is correct.
(D) Up to half the time in meetings is spent in asking “Is this the real problem?”
(1) BDCA (2) ABDC
(3) CBDA (4) ACDB
53. (A) Participation involves more than the formal sharing of decisions.

(B) Through anticipation, individuals or organisations consider trends and make plans, shielding institutions
from the trauma of learning by shock.
(C) Innovative learning involves both anticipation and participation.
(D) It is an attitude characterised by cooperation, dialogue and empathy.
(1) BCAD (2) ABCD
(3) CBAD (4) ACBD

DIRECTIONS: Choose the option that represents the most logical sequence of the four sentences labelled (A), (B),
(C) and (D) so as to form a coherent paragraph starting with sentence (1) and ending with sentence (6).
54. 1. But if conformity has its dangers, so has nonconformity.

(A) “There are two methods of faithhealing; one practised by Christ and the other practised by most Christian
scientists.”
(B) This is a delusion; if it were not, truth would be easier to come by than it is.
(C) There are infinite possibilities of error and more cranks take up unfashionable errors than unfashionable
truths.
(D) Some advanced thinkers are of the opinion that anyone who differs from the conventional opinion must be in
the right.
6. These were the first words of an electrical engineer whom I chanced to meet sometime ago.
(1) ABCD (2) DBCA
(3) DCBA (4) BACD
DIRECTIONS: Choose the option that represents the most logical sequence of the four sentences labelled (A), (B),
(C) and (D) so as to form a coherent paragraph starting with sentence (1) and ending with sentence (6).
55. 1. Many of us avoid the exposure of building on our strengths.

(A) Unfortunately, as we just described, patching up your weaknesses will never lead you to excellence.
(B) Instead, we stay in the workroom patching up the cracks.
(C) So what should you do?
(D) It is diligent, it is humble and society respects it.
6. How can you overcome this potent fear of strengthbased failure?
(1) BDAC (2) ABCD
(3) BDCA (4) BCDA
DIRECTIONS: Read the following short passages and answer the questions that follow.
56. Many people believe that gold and platinum are the most valuable commodities. To the true entrepreneur, however,
gold and platinum are less valuable than opportunities that can enable him to further enrich himself. Therefore, in
the world of high finance, information is the most valuable commodity.
The author of the above passage makes which of the following assumptions?
(1) Gold and platinum are not the most valuable commodities.
(2) The value of information is incalculably high.
(3) Information about business opportunities is accurate and will lead to increased wealth.
(4) Only entrepreneurs feel that information is the most valuable commodity.

DIRECTIONS: Read the following short passages and answer the questions that follow.
57. It has recently been proposed that we adopt an allvolunteer army. This policy was tried on a limited basis several
years ago and was a miserable failure. The level of education of the volunteers was unacceptably low, while levels
of drug use and crime soared among army personnel. Can we trust our national defense to a volunteer army? The
answer is clearly “No.”
Which of the following statements, if true, most strengthens the author’s claim that an allvolunteer army should
not be implemented?
(1) The general level of education has risen since the first time when an allvolunteer army was tried.
(2) The first attempt to create a volunteer army was carried out the same way as the plan nowunderproposal and
under the same conditions as those that exist today.
(3) A volunteer army would be less expensive than an army that relies on the draft.
(4) The size of the army needed today is smaller than that needed when a volunteer army was first tried.
DIRECTIONS: Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
There are 6 actors lined up to work in 5 different theatre groups. The following information is available to us:
(A) The actors are Mr. Roshan Siddique, Ms. Jigna Shah, Ms. Falguni Girdhar, Mr. Gautam Seth, Mr. Harshad Baid,
Mrs. Rukmani Sinha.
(B) The theatre groups are Cadence, Rangbaaz, Motley, Ekjute and Sarvanaam.
(C) Two actors employ the Improvisation acting technique and two others employ the Demonstration technique.
(D) Out of six, two actors are associated with the Cadence group and each of the remaining is associated with only
one theatre group.
(E) The Ekjute actor employs the same technique as Gautam does, who is associated with the Cadence group.
(F) Ms. Girdhar and Rukmani, who is employed with Motley, both use the same technique.
(G) Roshan and the Cadence group person employ the same technique.
(I) Mr. Harshad Baid does not work with Rangbaaz
(J) None of the actors who share the same techniques, are from Rangbaaz or Sarvanaam.
58. Which is a correct match?
(1) Gautam Seth Rangbaaz
(2) Rukmani Sinha Falguni Girdhar Improvisation
(3) Mr. Roshan Siddique Ekjute
(4) Jigna Shah Ekjute

Mrs. Rukmani Sinha.
one theatre group.
59. Mr. Harshad Baid acts in which theatre group?
(1) Motley (2) Sarvanaam
(3) Cadence (4) Ekjute
Mrs. Rukmani Sinha.
one theatre group.
60. Who share the same technique?
(1) Roshan and Falguni
(2) Roshan and Gautam
(3) Harshad and Falguni
(4) Harshad and Gautam

In a friendly game of shooting, a certain colonel, a lieutenant, a major, a captain, a soldier and a brigadier were
shooting blinds at each other. The shooting would take place in rounds. In each round, the men would take shots
at each other, choosing gun(s) from their own arsenal. A person can use as many guns and as many bullets as he/
she desires. In the four rounds that followed, there was a lot of shooting. The following tables give the details
about it:
Shots fired
Participants
Round 1 Round 2 Round 3 Round 4
Brigadier 7 1 3 0
Colonel 0 0 5 0
Major 1 1 1 1
Captain 5 1 4 2
Lieutenant 3 2 5 0
Soldier 1 1 4 0
Bullets
.45 mm 3 0 21 0
Shotgun 3 2 0 0
.32 mm 3 0 0 3
9x19 mm 3 2 0 0
.303 mm 3 0 1 0
7.62x39 mm 2 2 0 0
61. What is the maximum number of guns that the Captain can have?
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 6

about it:
Shots fired
Participants
Brigadier 7 1 3 0
Colonel 0 0 5 0
Major 1 1 1 1
Captain 5 1 4 2
Lieutenant 3 2 5 0
Soldier 1 1 4 0
Bullets
.45 mm 3 0 21 0
Shotgun 3 2 0 0
.32 mm 3 0 0 3
9x19 mm 3 2 0 0
.303 mm 3 0 1 0
7.62x39 mm 2 2 0 0
62. In the least, how many guns can the Brigadier have?
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5

about it:
Shots fired
Participants
Brigadier 7 1 3 0
Colonel 0 0 5 0
Major 1 1 1 1
Captain 5 1 4 2
Lieutenant 3 2 5 0
Soldier 1 1 4 0
Bullets
.45 mm 3 0 21 0
Shotgun 3 2 0 0
.32 mm 3 0 0 3
9x19 mm 3 2 0 0
.303 mm 3 0 1 0
7.62x39 mm 2 2 0 0
63. If the Lieutenant used her .303 mm gun in round 3, what is the maximum number of guns the Soldier can have?
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5

DIRECTIONS: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
PASSAGE
It is possible to have HungerGameslike situations where everyone strongly expects everyone to fight until only
one is left standing. And yes, in such situations you are better off hitting first, before they can hit you. But the first
question you should always ask is, just how sure are you that you are in fact, in such a situation.
This is what I think every time, I hear people talk about inevitable future conflicts, be they Earth v. alien, robots v.
humans, human v. animal, west v. east, rich v. poor, liberal v. conservative, religious vs. atheist, smart v. dumb, etc.
Yes, if enough folks will see this as unrestrained war to the death, then you should consider striking first. And yes,
there probably will be some sort of war eventually. But if you are wrong about the war being likely soon, you could
cause vast needless destruction.
Alas, there is an unusually strong temptation to think in terms of inevitable conflict in far mode. In far mode, we
think more using a few sharp categories of us vs. them, we insist more on following basic principles no matter what
the cost, and we think more in terms of dramatic story lines.
Worse, over the very long run, we do in fact expect a lot of winning and losing. Some firms will grow and others will
go bankrupt, some professions will rise and others will fall, some musical genres will be remembered while others are
forgotten, some families and races will have many kids while others have few, etc. This makes it easy to frame the
long run as a noholdsbarred struggle to the death.
But if you are tempted to think this way, you should realize that it will be very hard to preserve everything you like
against future competition. It is very unlikely that you could simultaneously ensure the triumph of your planet,
species, race, language, nation, city, musical tastes, favorite sport and team, preferred style of dress and home
decoration, favorite story genres and characters, favorite school and profession, etc. If you are going to fight to the
death for one thing, you will have to be ready to give up almost everything else you like, if need be, for that one
thing. And by initiating unreserved conflict in the hope of getting a first mover advantage in favor of your one
thing, you may hasten the loss of many other things you treasure.
It seems to me that for most of the things you like and treasure, your best way to promote them is via peaceful trade
and persuasion. Yes, most of them will probably fade away, outcompeted by something else. But your best bet to
extend their duration is usually to compete peacefully, prospering as best you can to gain resources to help you
support the things you like. He who competes but loses, and walks away, may live to fight another day.
64. What is it that the author tells the reader to be weary of?
(1) The fact that whatever one holds dear, will eventually be lost
(2) That one may walk away from a fight, but must never resort to violence
(3) The mistake that one can make of believing that the situation is a deadly fight when in fact it may not be so
(4) Unobstructed pessimism about one's strong beliefs
65. What is the reason provided by the author to justify his/her claim that one should promote the things that (s)he
treasures "via peaceful trade and persuasion"?
(1) Because most of the things that one is competing for will very likely be lost with time
(2) An outright fight benefits no one's cause
(3) If one opts for rash violence to defend one of the life traits, (s)he will have to sacrifice pretty much all others
(4) It is a better way to achieve results because in this case, if thrown back, the person has a chance to come back
later with more resources
66. Why might there be "an unusually strong temptation to think in terms of inevitable conflict in far mode"?
(1) Thinking about the future, everything tends to converge down to simple, basic things and sharp categorization
(2) Because situations like "last man standing" or "fight for struggle" look a lot more likely in the distant future
than tomorrow
(3) Because that is how it will pan out regardless of what the detractors have to say
(4) Man is brutal by instinct and will always think of war in terms of any eventuality

DIRECTIONS: In the following questions, there is a sentence with two blanks in it. Choose the option in which the
given pair of words fits the blanks aptly.
67. In an affidavit, the Centre had told the court that it has decided to (_____) Haj pilgrimage at government (_____) to
Muslims only as a "once in a lifetime" affair as against the existing policy of "once in five years".
(1) increase, tax (2) ban, expense
(3) withhold, centers (4) restrict, subsidy
68. Asserting that there is no (_____) solution in sight, the Petroleum and Natural Gas Ministry is ready to go in for
(_____) against Reliance Industries Limited (RIL) over the KGD6 cost recovery issue.
(1) amiable, infringement (2) peaceful, violation
(3) amicable, arbitration (4) great, guns
69. The United Arab Emirates, Hong Kong and Singapore were able to build welldesigned cities that (_____) and

(_____) millions, in part by persuading foreigners to invest heavily.
(1) sheltered, bred (2) housed, employed
(3) laundered, lost (4) skinned, shred
DIRECTIONS: The following questions present a sentence, part or all of which is underlined. Below each sentence,
there are four ways to phrase the underlined portion. Choose the one that is grammatically correct, eliminates
awkwardness, redundancy and ambiguity.
70. Native Africans had a simple way to measure a man's masculinity. They would ask a man to lift another man; if they
could lift the other person higher, the more he would be thought to be masculine.
(1) when they could lift the other person higher, the more
(2) lifting the other person higher, it is that much more
(3) the higher he could lift the other person, the more
(4) the higher he could lift the other person, it is that much more that
71. Even though the online market has picked up hopes for the Indian business front, but still the options look bleak.
(1) market has picked up hopes for the Indian business front
(2) market did pick hopes for the Indian business front
(3) market have picked up hopes for Indian business front
(4) market for the Indian business front had picked hopes

72. In the long, checkered history of the wars of the world, none maybe is more gruesome than the one that killed 21
million and engulfed almost all continents.
(1) none maybe is more gruesome than the one that
(2) although none is more gruesome than one that
(3) there is none that
(4) perhaps none was more gruesome than the one that
DIRECTIONS: Read the following short passage given below and answer the question that follows.
73. "Choose a blazer that you can wear at personal as well as professional occasions. This way you save money and the
hassles associated with a large wardrobe. But remember that you will have to buy a lot of accessories to make it look
good when you are flaunting it at the parties. Also, while you are choosing it, look for the peach colour. I like it."
Which of the following, if true, provides the strongest reason that the person would buy the blazer even if he is not
buying a lot of accessories with it?
(1) Blazers are suited best for parties and hence, there is no need to look for a dual purpose one
(2) A good blazer will serve its purpose and not be a drag on the wardrobe expense account
(3) The official blazers with this person are tattered and unusable
(4) Old blazers must be replaced with new ones every few years.
74. A new cancer fighting drug has shown great promise. It's still in the theoretical phase, but the idea is great. The
therapy would work thus: BetaM particles function by creating a disruptive magnetic field around them. These
particles will be introduced in the body of the patient in the vicinity of the cancerous cells. The disruptive magnetic
field would reverse the metabolic functions of the organelles of the cells, leading to the death of the cell. Also, the
particles will not stop until all the cells have been targeted, wiping out the whole tumors.
Which of the following, if true, most strongly reveals the flaw in the above logic?
(1) Cancerous cells are sometimes beneficial to the body and a patient might decide to keep them
(2) There is no hard evidence that a theory put to practice will certainly result in a cure
(3) BetaM particles cannot distinguish between cancerous and normal cells
(4) BetaM particles are very hard to create and thus, the cost of the experimentation is going to be a big issue
75. The Mumbai police had decided to crack down the organized crime syndicate functioning in the city. In lieu of this
operation, the cops had hunted down 12 major bosses and a whole corpus of their henchmen. The judges denied
them paroles and hence, the police were hoping that this would reduce the crime on the street. Instead, there has
been a high rise in the city's crime incidences, both reported and unreported ones.
Which of the following could be a possible reason for the problem discussed above?
(1) The crime bosses had anticipated such a move from the police and this was their retaliatory measure to be
followed in such a contingency
(2) The crime bosses used to keep in check a lot of neighboring cities' crime lords who wanted to operate in
Mumbai
(3) The police force itself needs and feeds upon the masses
(4) A lot of youngsters see crime as a lifestyle and feast on the thrilling ride

DIRECTIONS: In the following question, a word is used in four different sentences. Choose the sentence in which the
usage of the word is incorrect.
76. BEAT
(1) The elephants are the ones that beat the paths through the jungle
(2) Why don't you first beat up two eggs in a bowl?
(3) The tax collector was beating his breast, saying "God! Forgive me. For I have sinned."
(4) The sun beat down on us all day
DIRECTIONS: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
You have X identical looking marbles, all of which appear to be the same. However a certain number of them are
made of glass and a certain number of them are made of quartz. The glass marbles are heavier. All the glass
marbles weigh the same and all the quartz marbles weigh the same.
77. If the value of X is 24, then how many weighings, using a balance scale, would be required to determine the number
of glass marbles and the number of quartz marbles?
(1) 23 (2) 12
78. If we take 24 glass marbles only (no quartz please) and if we know that one of the glass marbles is heavier than the
rest, then how many weighings, using a balance scale, would be required to determine the heavier marble?
(1) 3 (2) 4
79. If we take 24 glass marbles only (no quartz please) and we know that one of the marbles is odd (either heavier or
lighter), then how many weighings, using a balance scale, would be required to determine the odd marble, and
whether it is heavier or light?
(1) 3 (2) 4

80. Assume that there are 8 machines (numbered 18) that finish and polish all the quartz marbles. Each of the machine
has a huge supply of marbles finished and polished by it and kept near it. A supervisor is given to see that each of
the machine is producing the marbles of weight 10gm (as desired) except one, which is manufacturing 11gm marble.
How many minimum marbles does he need to collect from all the machines to know which machine is producing the
wrong type marbles. Assume that the supervisor has a spring balance with him to measure that smallest unit of 1gm,
and that he has to do it in one weighing only.
(1) 36 (2) 8
DIRECTIONS: Read the following passages and answer the question that follow.
PASSAGE
The majority of successful senior managers do not closely follow the classical rational model of first clarifying
goals, assessing the problem, formulating options, estimating likelihoods of success, making a decision, and only
then taking action to implement the decision. Rather, in their daybyday tactical manoeuvres, these senior execu
tives rely on what is vaguely termed “intuition” to manage a network of interrelated problems that require them to
deal with ambiguity, inconsistency, novelty, and surprise; and to integrate action into the process of thinking.
Generations of writers on management have recognised that some practising managers rely heavily on intuition. In
general, however, such writers display a poor grasp of what intuition is. Some see it as the opposite of rationality:
others view it as an excuse for capriciousness.
Isenberg’s recent research on the cognitive processes of senior managers reveals that managers’ intuition is nei
ther of these. Rather, senior managers use intuition in at least five distinct ways. First, they intuitively sense when
a problem exists. Second, managers rely on intuition to perform welllearned behaviour patterns rapidly.
This intuition is not arbitrary or irrational, but is based on years of painstaking practice and handson experience
that build skills. A third function of intuition is to synthesise isolated bits of data and practice into an integrated
picture, often in an “Aha!” experience. Fourth, some managers use intuition as a check on the results of more
rational analysis. Most senior executives are familiar with the formal decision analysis models and tools, and those
who use such systematic methods for reaching decisions are occasionally leery of solutions suggested by these
methods which run counter to their sense of the correct course of action. Finally, managers can use intuition to
bypass indepth analysis and move rapidly to engender a plausible solution. Used in this way, intuition is an almost
instantaneous cognitive process in which a manager recognises familiar patterns.
One of the implications of the intuitive style of executive management is that “thinking” is inseparable from acting.
Since managers often “know” what is right before they can analyse and explain it, they frequently act first and
explain later. Analysis is inextricably tied to action in thinking/acting cycles, in which managers develop thoughts
about their companies and organisations not by analysing a problematic situation and then acting, but by acting
and analysing in close concert.
Given the great uncertainty of many of the management issues that they face, senior managers often instigate a
course of action simply to learn more about an issue. They then use the results of the action to develop a more
complete understanding of the issue. One implication of thinking/acting cycles is that action is often part of
defining the problem, not just of implementing the solution.

81. According to the passage, senior managers use intuition in all of the following ways EXCEPT to
(1) speed up of the creation of a solution to a problem.
(2) identify a problem and evaluate possible solutions to the problem.
(3) bring together disparate facts.
(4) stipulate clear goals.
82. Which of the following best exemplifies “an ‘Aha!’ experience” as it is presented in the passage?
(1) A manager performs welllearned and familiar behaviour patterns in creative and uncharacteristic ways to
solve a problem.
(2) A manager suddenly connects seemingly unrelated facts and experiences to create a pattern relevant to the
problem at hand.
(3) A manager rapidly identifies the methodology used to compile data yielded by systematic analysis.
(4) A manager swiftly decides which of several sets of tactics to implement in order to deal with the contingencies
suggested by a problem.
83. As can be inferred from the passage, which of the following would most probably be one major difference in
behaviour between Manager X, who uses intuition to reach decisions, and Manager Y, who uses only formal
decision analysis?
(1) Manager X analyses first and then acts; Manager Y does not.
(2) Manager X checks possible solutions to a problem by systematic analysis; Manager Y does not.
(3) Manager X takes action in order to arrive at the solution to a problem; Manager Y does not.
(4) Manager Y draws on years of handson experience in creating a solution to a problem; Manager X does not.
84. It can be inferred from the passage that “thinking/acting cycles” in managerial practice is likely to result in
which of the following?
(A) A manager analyses a network of problems and then acts on the basis of that analysis.
(B) A manager gathers data by acting and observing the effects of action.
(C) A manager takes action without being able to articulate reasons for that particular action.
(1) B only (2) C only
(3) B and C only (4) B and A only
DIRECTIONS: The following question has a set of four sentences which represent same idea. Out of four options,
choose the one that is grammatically correct and most appropriate.
85. (1) Classical guitar was neither prestigious nor was often played in concert halls until it was revived by Andres

Segovia in the midtwentieth century, having been won over by the instrument’s sound despite its relative
obscurity.
(2) Classical guitar was neither prestigious nor played often in concert halls until it was revived by Andres
Segovia in the midtwentieth century, having been won over by the instrument’s sound despite its relative
obscurity.
(3) Classical guitar was not prestigious and was not often played in concert halls until Andres Segovia revived it
in the midtwentieth century, after he was won over by the sound despite the instrument’s relative obscurity.
(4) Classical guitar did not have prestige nor was it performed often in concert halls until its revival by Andres
Segovia, who in the midtwentieth century was won over by the instrument’s sound despite its relative obscurity.

DIRECTIONS: The stanzas given in the question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent poem. Each stanza is
labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of stanzas to construct a coherent poem. After this, three possible
sequences of stanzas are given in which few letters have been replaced by a question mark (?). You have to look for
those sequences wherein, each letter's position (in the sequence) is same as that of the correct sequence. Then, choose
the most appropriate option.
86. A. The hardest thing for me to comprehend

was why you failed to say goodbye, although
I knew you well and thought you were a friend
B. Is not the way the passingbells pretend –
they ring with falsehood, sonorous and slow.
C. I would have stood beside you to defend
against the fear, though all I really know
is this: the proper way for it to end
D. So brusquely? I had always meant to spend
more time with you. It was a telling blow
from one I knew and thought of as a friend.
E. There was no proper way for it to end
for you who left me, though you were a friend
F. I knew you well and thought you were a friend,
and yet you gave no sign you meant to go.
Is this the proper way for it to end?
G. And never doubted once I could depend
on you. To my regret it was not so.
Is this the proper wayfor it to end
(A) ?A?D??E
(B) F?G?C??
(C) ?A?B?D?
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Only C (4) A and B

DIRECTIONS: When the given statements are arranged in a proper sequence, they make a coherent paragraph.
Choose the best arrangement.
87. A. It is a lifeview where the individual is ultimately responsible for his actions

B. In the existentialism proffered by atheistic philosophers it is a lifeview where the individual, in a universe
without God, and thus without revealed morality, must create his own system of ethics.
C. Existentialism is as much a way of life as it is a philosophy.
D. With man at the centre of all things, it is up to each individual to create an essence out of the fact hood of his
own existence.
(1) CDBA (2) DBCA
(3) CBDA (4) CBAD
DIRECTIONS: The passages given below is followed by a question. Choose the best answer to the question.
PASSAGE
Indian politics has lost the idea of India. While the Buddha might have spoken of the nation as nothing but a speck of
sand in a vast desert, there is little to offer as an alternative at the present moment. To understand how politics will
unfold in the future is to understand correctly the idea of nationalism. From the idea of innerdirectedness, self
government and selfdetermination of an individual, the quest for human autonomy gets magnified into the moral
autonomy of groups and nations. Today’s nationalism is not about a large entity called the nation. Rather, it is nothing
but a “pathological sense of inflammation”, a grievance about the real and imaginary wounds inflicted on people and
collectivities, and a sense of not being able to choose one’s own destiny. This trend of little nationalisms, often without
a sense of moral destiny, will litter the future landscape of the country.
The loss of language is another significant feature of the future politics. It is signified by our inability to invent a new
political vocabulary and experiment with new models and theories. Most political ideologies in circulation today stand
either discredited or ineffective. Promises made in the name of liberalism, socialism and Communism remain unfulfilled.
The inability of governments to deliver has led people to resort to primordial identities that at least promise hope of
redemption and a paradise in the next world, if not the basic elements of human life and dignity in the present life.
Religious, tribal, ethnic and racial identities will assert themselves with greater force in the years to come. A secular
culture has not been able to create its own traditions or emotive anchors. It is a culture that flourishes on a negative
identity – it tells us not to do a great number of things but enlightens us little as to what we ought to do. To know what
we ought to do is to possess a moral core. In the postmodern world, preoccupied with contesting every perceived
centre of power, the severest casualty has been our ability to judge between right and wrong, beautiful and ugly. Moral,
ethical and political relativism will push us into a modernday version of the Hobbesian state of nature, where there will
be a war of all relative truths against all other relative truths.
Power in its most brutal form, armed with the religion of technology and devoid of a moral universe, will determine the
politics of the future. Any primordial entity, be it religion, feudalism, caste or ethnicity, will be able to assert itself if it
manages to impose its will on the polity with the help of technology and managerialism.
88. By saying ‘Indian politics has lost the idea of India’, the author wishes to imply that
(1) with the loss of the language of politics, it has become difficult to identify India as a nation.
(2) present day politics is devoid of all feeling of nationalism, and thus it stands alienated from the entity it was
created to serve.
(3) present day politics is marred by a nonsecular movement that has led to the concept of many small nations
rather than an all encompassing single national identity.
(4) Indian politics is no longer driven by the desire of moral autonomy.

89. The analogy that the author has used to exemplify the concept of nationalism as it is ideally and what it has
become today, is best represented by
(1) Neighbouring villages that hardly knew of each others’ existence were quick to form an alliance against the
new land acquisition act.
(2) The tribes, who earlier were fighting amongst themselves, formed an alliance when an invading army attacked.
(3) The mill labourers had a cooperative society, but after the owner cut their wages, they formed a union and
declared a strike.
(4) The beautiful national monument was razed to the ground to build community housing.
90. Which of the following is not stated by the author as a characteristic of future politics?
(1) The inability to invent and experiment with newer and enlightened modes of governance.
(2) The absence of the ability to decide between the right and wrong.
(3) The driving force being technology and religion rather than a common feeling of selfgovernance.
(4) People being held together by common grievances instead of common goals.
91. Why does the author see the reassertion of religious and ethnic identities imminent?
(1) A secular culture has been unable to take root.
(2) With governments failing to deliver the promised goods, people find solace in religion that at least promises
deliverance in afterlife.
(3) People are happier with a vocabulary of negation and the absence of morality; something that a nonsecular
identity promises.
(4) With modern political thought revolving around centres of power, and the power religious groups wield, it is
the next logical step.
92. What does the author mean by saying ‘loss of language’?
(1) The miscommunication between present day government and the public.
(2) The betrayal of various existing political ideologies.
(3) The loss of the at he ability of people to decide rights and wrong.
(4) The stunted growth of existing governance ideology into a newer, better form.

93. Mr. Timepiece lived in the town of Timeland and prided himself on having all his clocks accurate. However one
morning after a storm which caused a blackout he noticed all three of his electric clocks were slow on an average of
1 hour 30 minutes. The clocks were showing the time 6:40, 5:30 and 4:20. What is the time now?
(1) 6:45 (2) 6:55
(3) 7:00 (4) 6:30
DIRECTIONS: Refer to the following informations and answer the question follow.
An ice producing plant produces certain amount of ice at factory and further transport equally to godowns G 1 , G 2
and G 3 respectively in insulating containers so no ice should melt due to heat.
From these godowns ice is transported equally to all directly connected shops namely S 1 , S 2 , S 3 , S 4 , S 5 , S 6 , S 7 , S 8 ,
S 9 respectively which are located from the godown at the distance as given in the matrix (i.e godown G 1 is located
2 Km away from godown G 2 , and shop S 4 is located 1 Km away from S 6 ). No ice will be transported to the godown
which is not directly connected to the shops.
Further due to unavailability of the heat insulating container while tranporting the ice from godown to shop or
from one shop to another shop for each kilometer it melts 1/10 of its original weight. And it is known that every
godown and shop retain 1/2 of the ice and passes the remainder to the next nearest shop. In case if more than one
shop is directly connected to another shop, ice is equally transported from one shop to all directly connected shop.
G1 G2 G3 S1 S2 S3 S4 S5 S6 S7 S8 S9
G1 2 2
G2 2 1 1 1
G3 2 2 2
S1 1 1
S2 1 1
S3 1
S4 1 1 1
S5 1
S6 1
S7 1
S8 2
S9 2
94. If shop S 9 is receiving 10 Kg, then how much is shop S 1 receiving?

(1) 7.5 kg (2) 8.2 kg
(3) 10.5 Kg (4) None of these

G1 G2 G3 S1 S2 S3 S4 S5 S6 S7 S8 S9
G1 2 2
G2 2 1 1 1
G3 2 2 2
S1 1 1
S2 1 1
S3 1
S4 1 1 1
S5 1
S6 1
S7 1
S8 2
S9 2
95. Approximately how much should factory produce so that S 3 can get 10 kg of ice?

(1) 530 kg (2) 330 kg
(3) 660 kg (4) 460 kg

G1 G2 G3 S1 S2 S3 S4 S5 S6 S7 S8 S9
G1 2 2
G2 2 1 1 1
G3 2 2 2
S1 1 1
S2 1 1
S3 1
S4 1 1 1
S5 1
S6 1
S7 1
S8 2
S9 2
96. Shop S 8 is using a device which decrease the losses in the transport route – directly connected to it by 75%. If S 8

receives 78 kg, then how much is S 7 receiving?
(1) 80 kg (2) 26.66 kg
(3) 24 kg (4) None of these

G1 G2 G3 S1 S2 S3 S4 S5 S6 S7 S8 S9
G1 2 2
G2 2 1 1 1
G3 2 2 2
S1 1 1
S2 1 1
S3 1
S4 1 1 1
S5 1
S6 1
S7 1
S8 2
S9 2
97. If S 6 is receiving 9 kg, then how much is S 7 receiving?

(1) 40 kg (2) 45 kg
(3) 20 kg (4) 25 kg

In a group of tech savvy students, points were awarded based on the color and type of item as shown in the
following table. There are four students each having four items:
Golden Silver Blue Green

Laptop 11 6 15 3
Camcorder 5 8 12 10
Pocket pc 16 1 14 7
Laser 9 2 13 4
i. Priyanka didn't own any of the laptops.
ii. Gayatri's highest point score is that of a blue laptop.
iii. Silver camcorder and Golden Pocket PC belong to the same girl, who is not Sushma.
iv. Sushma does not own any of the golden items.
v. Silver Laser, Silver Laptop, and Blue Laser all belong to the same player.
vi. Golden Pocket PC, Blue camcorder, Green laser all belong to the same player.
vii. Kanupriya's score was 4 points higher than that of Gayatri's.
viii. Three of Gayatri's items are laptops.
ix. Priyanka has just one camcorder, which is golden.
98. What is the difference of total points of Sushma and Priyanka?
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 0 (4) 3

4 members of a famous British family played the final of a cricket tournament. One of the descendent in their
family was interested in knowing about his family’s history in that tournament. He collected some facts from
scorekeepers of that tournament and tried to figure out these questions about the name of person, year in which
match was played, the team name, the name of ground and number of runs scored by that player. The four grounds
were: Sports club ground, The Oval, Gymkhana and Stadium ground. The years in which matches were played
were: 1522, 1688, 1743 and 1817. The information that he was able to gather is:
1. His first attempt led him to the information that four people were – Malcolm, the one who played in 1743, the
one who played for Hampshire and last one who scored 60 at The Oval.
2. The player who scored 40 was the one after a player scored 60.
3. In record books it was found that a player of his family had scored 80 in 1522.
4. One of his family member had score 110 played his innings at The Stadium ground. It was later found that it
was not David.
5. John lived his life before 19 th but not as early as 16 th , He played for Surrey team.
6. Peter started playing after David. David didn’t score 60 in his match and David didn’t play his match at
Gymkhana ground.
7. His family had played for Sussex team before Surrey team, and David had started playing after these players
only.
99. Which player from his family has scored the maximum runs in a match?
(1) David (2) John
(3) Malcolm (4) Peter
4 members of a famous British family played the final of a cricket tournament. One of the descendent in their
family was interested in knowing about his family’s history in that tournament. He collected some facts from
scorekeepers of that tournament and tried to figure out these questions about the name of person, year in which
match was played, the team name, the name of ground and number of runs scored by that player. The four grounds
were: Sports club ground, The Oval, Gymkhana and Stadium ground. The years in which matches were played
were: 1522, 1688, 1743 and 1817. The information that he was able to gather is:
1. His first attempt led him to the information that four people were – Malcolm, the one who played in 1743, the
one who played for Hampshire and last one who scored 60 at The Oval.
2. The player who scored 40 was the one after a player scored 60.
3. In record books it was found that a player of his family had scored 80 in 1522.
4. One of his family member had score 110 played his innings at The Stadium ground. It was later found that it
was not David.
5. John lived his life before 19 th but not as early as 16 th , He played for Surrey team.
6. Peter started playing after David. David didn’t score 60 in his match and David didn’t play his match at
Gymkhana ground.
7. His family had played for Sussex team before Surrey team, and David had started playing after these players
only.
100. Which team did David play for?
(1) Kent (2) Surrey
(3) Sussex (4) Hampshire

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Prac­CAT # 03

IC : PTpnrpc03 (1) of (45)

3. The largest interval for which x 18 – x 15 + x 10 – x 7 + 1 > 0 is

(2) of (45) IC : PTpnrpc03

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6. If the engine is bored when it has completed 75% of its life span, its lifespan is extended by 50% of its normal

Adventure Sport Zone 1 Zone 2 Zone 3 Zone 4

(4) of (45) IC : PTpnrpc03

Adventure Sport Zone 1 Zone 2 Zone 3 Zone 4

Adventure Sport Zone 1 Zone 2 Zone 3 Zone 4

IC : PTpnrpc03 (5) of (45)

Adventure Sport Zone 1 Zone 2 Zone 3 Zone 4

11. If both a and b belong to the set {1, 2, 3, 4}, then the number of equations of the form ax 2 + bx + 1= 0 having real roots

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(1) 9 (2) 10

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(1) pr 2 (2) 2pr 2

20. What is the minimum value for x 2 –2xy 2 + 1 + y 4 where x and y are as above?

(8) of (45) IC : PTpnrpc03

IC : PTpnrpc03 (9) of (45)

28. ABCD is a parallelogram in which AB = 6 Ö3 cm, BC = 6 cm and Ð ABC =120°. The D C

(1) 18 Ö 3 (2 – Ö3) (2) 18Ö3 A R

(10) of (45) IC : PTpnrpc03

F G - 6 I J F G + 6 I J

n 2 n 2 + 1

IC : PTpnrpc03 (11) of (45)

39. What can be said about the following numbers: 2006 2007 2008 , 2007 2006 2008 , 2007 2008 2006 , 2006 2008 2007

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The Hindustan Times The Hindu Economic Times

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The Hindustan Times The Hindu Economic Times

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The Hindustan Times The Hindu Economic Times

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ITEM 1988­89 1989­90 1990­91

ITEM 1988­89 1989­90 1990­91

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Department Black Hats Red Hats White Hats Total Points

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Department Black Hats Red Hats White Hats Total Points

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Department Black Hats Red Hats White Hats Total Points

IC : PTpnrpc03 (19) of (45)

Department Black Hats Red Hats White Hats Total Points

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Category 1 Category 2 Category 3

IC : PTpnrpc03 (21) of (45)

Category 1 Category 2 Category 3

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1st Category 2nd Category 3rd Category

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51. (A) But categorisation schemes are not always helpful in determining what one can do with or about organisational

53. (A) Participation involves more than the formal sharing of decisions.

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54. 1. But if conformity has its dangers, so has nonconformity.

55. 1. Many of us avoid the exposure of building on our strengths.

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IC : PTpnrpc03 (31) of (45)

69. The United Arab Emirates, Hong Kong and Singapore were able to build well­designed cities that (_____) and

PracCAT # 03

ITEM 198889 198990 199091

ITEM 198889 198990 199091

69. The United Arab Emirates, Hong Kong and Singapore were able to build welldesigned cities that (_____) and

87. A. It is a lifeview where the individual is ultimately responsible for his actions