Power Plant Engg English

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1. Heat is generated in a nuclear reactor (thermal) by __________
a) fusion of atoms of uranium
b) absorption of neutrons in uranium atoms
c) combustion of nuclear fuel
d) fission of U-235 by neutrons
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In a nuclear reactor, heat is generated by the fission of U-235 by neutrons.
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2. Thorium-232 is converted into uranium-233 in a/an __________ nuclear reactor.
a) heavy water moderated
b) fast breeder
c) thermal
d) enriched uranium
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The conversion of Thorium-232 into Uranium-233 is done in a fast breeder.
3. An electron has a mass that is approximately __________ that of the proton.
a) 1/1836
b) 1
c) 1836
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The mass of an electron is approx. 1/1836 times that of the mass of proton.

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4. Which of the following may not need a control rod?
a) Candu Reactor
b) Liquid metal cooled reactor
c) Fast breeder reactor
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None of the reactors mentioned above require a control rod.
5. The amount of a radioactive material (having a half-life of 100 years) remaining after 400 years will be
__________ of its original weight.
a) 0.5
b) 0.25
c) 1/8
d) 1/16
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The amount of a radioactive material (having a half-life of 100 years) remaining after 400
years will be 1/16 of its original weight [by using radioactive decay formula].
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6. The amount of a radioisotope remaining un-decayed after a time equal to four times its half-life will
be __________ percent.
a) 3.125
b) 6.25
c) 12.50
d) 25

View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The amount of a radioisotope remaining un-decayed after a time equal to four times its
half-life will be 6.25 percent.
7. The time taken for a radioactive element to reduce to 50% of its original weight is __________ years if
its half-life period is 12 years.
a) 24
b) 6
c) 18
d) 48
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As per the radioactive decay rule, the required time will be 18 years.
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8. Gas cooling as compared to water cooling of nuclear reactors __________
a) cannot attain a high temperature
b) is more efficient as gas has a higher specific heat
c) can produce only saturated steam for feeding to power turbine
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None of the mentioned effects are produced by Gas cooling in comparison to water
cooling.
9. What is the decay product of tritium?
a) Hydrogen
b) Deuterium

c) Lithium
d) Helium
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Tritium decays into a Deuterium & a hydrogen atom.
1. Which of the following may be used to measure the rate of nuclear disintegration?
a) Geiger-Muller Counter
b) Cold Chamber
c) Cyclotron
d) Van De Graph Generator
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Geiger-Muller Counter is used to measure the rate of nuclear disintegration.
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2. The second underground nuclear test was conducted by India at __________
a) Pokhran
b) Narora
c) Jaisalmer
d) Kalpakkam
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pokhran was the place where the second underground nuclear test was conducted by
India.
3. Which of the following may not need a moderator?

a) Candu Reactor
b) Fast Breeder Reactor
c) Homogeneous Reactor
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fast Breeder Reactor may not need a moderator.
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4. The mass number of an element is not changed, when it emits __________ radiations.
a) α & γ
b) α, β, & γ
c) α & β
d) β & γ
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The mass number of an element is not changed when it emits β & γ radiations.
5. Which of the following is not a naturally occurring nuclear fuel?
a) Uranium-238
b) Thorium-233
c) Plutonium-239
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Plutonium-239 is an artificial nuclear fuel.
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6. Which is the most commonly used molten metal for cooling of nuclear reactors?
a) Zinc
b) Sulphur
c) Sodium
d) Manganese
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Sodium is the most commonly used molten metal for cooling of nuclear reactors.
7. One amu is equivalent to?
a) 931 MeV
b) 93.1 eV
c) 9.31 eV
d) 931 J
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: 91 MeV constitutes one amu.
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8. Fast breeder reactors do not __________
a) use molten sodium as coolant
b) use fast neutrons for fission
c) use Th-232 as fissile fuel
d) convert fertile material to fissile material
View Answer
Answer: c

Explanation: Fast breeder reactors do not use Thorium-232 as fuel.
9. A boiling water reactor is the one, in which the __________
a) pressurised water is pumped into the core.
b) coolant water, after being heated in the reactor core, generates steam in a boiler
c) fuel and the coolant are thoroughly mixed to form a homogeneous solution
d) coolant water is allowed to boil in the core of the reactor
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A boiling water reactor is the one, in which the coolant water is allowed to boil in the core
of the reactor.
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10. Commercial power generation from fusion reactor is not yet possible, because __________
a) it is difficult to initiate fusion reaction
b) the fuel required (e.g. deuterium and tritium) is scarce
c) it is difficult to control fusion reaction
d) quantity of fuel required for initiating fusion reaction is prohibitively high
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As fission reactions are hard to be controlled, the commercial power generation is not yet
possible.
11. Which is a fertile nuclear fuel?
a) U-233
b) U-235
c) Pu-239
d) Th-232
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Th-232 is the only fertile nuclear fuel amongst all the mentioned nuclear fuel.
12. Thermal shield is used in high powered nuclear reactors to __________
a) absorb the fast neutrons
b) protect the walls of the reactor from radiation damage
c) slow down the secondary neutrons
d) protect the fuel element from coming in contact with the coolant
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Thermal shield is used in high powered nuclear reactors to protect the walls of the reactor
from radiation damage.
1. What is the function of moderators in nuclear reactor?
a) absorb the secondary neutrons
b) slow down the secondary neutrons
c) control the chain reaction
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The function of moderators in nuclear reactor is to slow down the secondary neutrons.
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2. Which of the following is not used as a nuclear fuel cladding material?
a) Cadmium
b) Zircalloy
c) Ceramics

d) Stainless Steel
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cadmium is not used as a nuclear fuel cladding material.
3. Nuclear fuel complex, Hyderabad is engaged in the job of __________
a) processing of uranium ore
b) manufacture of nuclear fuel elements/assemblies
c) treatment of spent fuel
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Hyderabad complex is involved in the manufacturing of nuclear fuel elements.
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4. Which one is different for the neutral atoms of the isotopes of an element?
a) Number of electrons
b) Atomic weight
c) Atomic number
d) Number of Protons
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The isotopes are atoms of the same element but with a different atomic weight.
5. Thorium can be converted into U-233 in a __________ reactor.
a) fast breeder
b) liquid metal reactor
c) curtis reactor

View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Fast breed reactors are used to convert Thorium into U-233.
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6. A moderator ______ the neutrons.
a) accelerates
b) slows down
c) blocks
d) stops
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The function of a moderator is to slow down fast moving neutrons thus controlling the
extent of fission reaction.
7. __________ nuclear reactor does not require a heat exchanger to supply steam to power turbine.
a) pressurised water
b) boiling water
c) helium cooled
d) molten sodium cooled
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Boiling water nuclear reactor does not require a heat exchanger to supply steam to power
turbine.
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8. If 4 gm of a radioisotope has a half-life period of 10 days, the half-life of 2 gm of the same istotope will
be __________ days.
a) 10
b) 5
c) 20
d) 30
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Applying Radioactive Decay law.
9. Thermal neutrons which are used to cause the fission of U-235 have energy __________ eV.
a) >1
b) <0.025
c) >200
d) 1-25
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Thermal neutrons which are used to cause the fission of U-235 have energy < 0.025 eV.
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10. Pick out the wrong statement.
a) Positron is heavier than a proton
b) A, β-ray particle is identical with an electron
c) The nucleus of a hydrogen atom is identical with a proton
d) Mass of an electron is about 1/1800th of the lightest nucleus
View Answer
Answer: a

Explanation: Positron is lighter than a proton.
11. Specific gravity of uranium and plutonium is about __________
a) 13
b) 9
c) 19
d) 27
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Specific gravity of Uranium & Plutonium is about 19.
12. Which of the following types of nuclear reactors is most prone to radioactive hazards?
a) Gas cooled reactor
b) Molten Sodium Reactor
c) Boiling water reactor
d) Pressurised water reactor
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Boiling water reactor is the most prone to radioactive hazards.
13. The velocity of thermal (slow) neutrons triggering nuclear fission reaction (having energy equal to
0.025 eV) is about __________ metres/second.
a) 1100
b) 2200
c) 3300
d) 4400
View Answer
Answer: b

Explanation: The velocity of thermal (slow) neutrons triggering nuclear fission reaction (having energy
equal to 0.025 eV) is about 2200 m/sec.
14. Radioactive decay is a ________ change.
a) Physical
b) Chemical
c) Nuclear
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Radioactive decay is a nuclear phenomenon.
1. The atomic weight and atomic number of an element are A and Z respectively. What is the number of
neutrons in the atom of that element?
a) Z
b) A
c) A+Z
d) A-Z
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Number of neutrons = Atomic weight – Atomic number.
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2. The time required for half of the __________ of a radioactive isotope to decay is called its half-life.
a) neutron
b) electron
c) proton
d) nuclei

View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The time required for half of the nuclei of a radioactive isotope to decay is called its half
life.
3. Thermal nuclear reactors using enriched uranium as fuel contains a maximum of __________ percent
fissile material i.e. U-235.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Thermal nuclear reactors using enriched uranium as fuel contains a maximum of 6 percent
fissile material i.e. U-235.
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4. __________ moderator is used in a fast breeder reactor.
a) Heavy water
b) Graphite
c) No
d) Beryllium
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A fast breeder reactor doesn’t employ any moderator.
5. Nuclides having the same atomic number are termed as?
a) Isobars
b) Isotones

c) Isotopes
d) Isomers
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Isomers are nuclides having the same atomic number.
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6. Main source of __________ is monazite sand.
a) Uranium
b) Polonium
c) Halfnium
d) Thorium
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Thorium is the main source of Monazite Sand.
7. Emission of β-particles during radioactive decay of a substance is from __________
a) nucleus
b) innermost shell
c) outermost shell
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Emission of β-particles during radioactive decay of a substance is from the nucleus as all
emissions are nuclear phenomenon.
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8. A fertile material is the one, that can be __________
a) converted into fissile material on absorption of neutron
b) fissioned by either slow or fast neutrons
c) fissioned by slow (thermal) neutrons
d) fissioned by fast neutrons
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A fertile material is the one, which can be converted into fissile material on absorption of
neutron.
9. The half-life period of a radioactive element depends on its __________
a) temperature
b) pressure
c) amount
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The half-life is independent of the mentioned factors.
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10. Which is radioactive in nature?
a) Helium
b) Deuterium
c) Tritium
d) Heavy Hydrogen
View Answer
Answer: c

Explanation: Tritium is a radioactive element.
11. Which is the most commonly used nuclear fuel in boiling water reactor?
a) enriched uranium
b) plutonium
c) natural uranium
d) monazite sand
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Enriched uranium is the most commonly used nuclear fuel in boiling water reactor.
12. Enrichment of uranium is done to increase the concentration of __________ in the natural uranium.
a) U-235
b) U-233
c) U-238
d) PU-239
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Enrichment of uranium is done to increase the concentration of U-235 in the natural
uranium.
13. Fuel for a nuclear reactor (thermal) is _____________
a) Uranium
b) Plutonium
c) Radium
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Uranium is the fuel for a thermal reactor.

14. The first underground nuclear test was conducted by India at _____________
a) Pokhran
b) Kalpakkam
c) Jaisalmer
d) Narora
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pokhran had the very first underground nuclear test.
1. Fast breeder nuclear reactors using enriched uranium as fuel may contain upto a maximum of
__________ percent of U-235 (i.e. fissile material).
a) 15
b) 45
c) 65
d) 85
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Fast breeder nuclear reactors using enriched uranium as fuel may contain upto a maximum
of 85 percent of U-235 (i.e. fissile material).
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2. __________ have the same mass number, but different nuclear charge.
a) Isotones
b) Isobars
c) Isotopes
d) Isoemtropic
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Isobars have the same mass number, but different nuclear charge.
3. Atoms with same number of neutrons, but different number of nucleons are called __________
a) Isobars
b) Isotones
c) Isotopes
d) Isoters
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Atoms with same number of neutrons, but different number of nucleons are called
Isotones.
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4. The half-life period of a radioactive substance is best determined by counting the number of alpha
particles emitted per second in a Geiger Muller counter from its known quantity. If the half-life period of
a radioactive substance is one month, then?
a) it will completely disintegrate in two months
b) l/8th of it will remain intact at the end of four months
c) 3/4th of it will disintegrate in two months
d) it will completely disintegrate in four months
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The half-life period of a radioactive substance is best determined by counting the number
of alpha particles emitted per second in a Geiger Muller counter from its known quantity. If the half-life
period of a radioactive substance is one month, then it will completely disintegrate in two months.
5. Which of the following ores contains maximum percentage of uranium?
a) Rescolite

b) Thorium
c) Pitchblende
d) Carnotite
View Answer
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6. Percentage of U-238 in natural uranium is around __________
a) 29.71
b) 99.29
c) 0.015
d) 0.71
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Natural Uranium contains around 0.015% of U-238.
7. Uranium ore is currently mined & concentrated at __________
a) Khetri
b) Alwaye
c) Ghatsilla
d) Jadugoda
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Uranium ore is currently mined & concentrated at Jadugoda.
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8. Graphite is used in nuclear reactor as __________
a) lubricant

b) fuel
c) retarder of neutron velocity
d) insulation lining of the reactor
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Graphite is used in nuclear reactor as retarder of neutron velocity.
9. A fast breeder reactor employs __________
a) U-235 as a fuel
b) water as a coolant
c) graphite as a moderator
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: U-235 is used as a fuel in a fast breeder reactor.
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10. A radioactive isotope undergoes decay with respect to time following __________ law.
a) logarithmic
b) exponential
c) inverse square
d) linear
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A radioactive isotope undergoes decay with respect to time following exponential law.
11. U-235 content in enriched uranium, that is normally used in power reactors (e.g., at Tarapur atomic
power plant), is about __________ percent.

a) 50
b) 3
c) 85
d) 97
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: U-235 content in enriched uranium, that is normally used in power reactors (e.g., at
Tarapur atomic power plant), is about 3 percent.
12. The half-life period of a radioactive element is 100 days. After 400 days, one gm of the element will
be reduced to __________ gm.
a) 1/2
b) 1/4
c) 1/8
d) 1/16
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The half-life period of a radioactive element is 100 days. After 400 days, one gm of the
element will be reduced to1/16 gm.
13. Which of the following is a non-fissile material?
a) Pu-239
b) U-235
c) U-232
d) Th-232
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Of the mentioned fuels, only Th-232 is the fissile nuclear fuel.
14. Fast breeder reactors are most usable in India, because of our largest __________ deposits.

a) Uranium
b) Plutonium
c) Thorium
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Fast breeder reactors are most usable in India, because of our largest Thorium deposits.
15. Which is the main ore of thorium?
a) Magnetite
b) Monazite Sand
c) Pitchblende
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Monazite Sand is the main ore of Thorium
1. Commercial power generation from fusion reactor is not yet possible, because __________
a) it is hard to control fission
b) it is hard to initiate fission
c) it is a non-periodic process
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The inability of controlled fission makes it tough to enable commercial power generation.
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2. First experimental observation of nuclear fission was done by __________
a) Rutherford
b) Hahn & Strassman
c) Plane
d) Fermi
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Fermi made the first experimental observation of nuclear fission.
3. Function of control rod in a nuclear reactor is to control __________
a) pressure
b) temperature
c) fuel consumption
d) absorption of neutrons
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Control rods control the absorption of neutrons.
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4. “Critical mass” is the minimum mass of nuclear fissile material required for the __________
a) sustainment of chain reaction
b) economic power generation
c) power generation on commercial scale
View Answer
Answer: a

Explanation: “Critical mass” is the minimum mass of nuclear fissile material required for the sustainment
of chain reaction.
5. Which of the following nuclear materials is fissile?
a) U-239
b) U-235
c) U-232
d) Pu-239
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Pu-239 is a fissile nuclear material.
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6. Unit of Radioactivity is?
a) Curie
b) Angstrom
c) Fermi
d) Barn
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Curie is the unit of Radioactivity.
7. The ratio of neutrons to protons of an element having a mass number and atomic number of 80 and
40 respectively is?
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Number of neutrons = Atomic weight – Atomic number.
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8. Critical energy should be __________ the neutron binding energy of the atom in order to initiate a
nuclear fission.
a) less than
b) equal to
c) either more or less
d) more than
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Critical energy should be more than the neutron binding energy of the atom in order to
initiate a nuclear fission.
9. Which is the main ore of uranium?
a) cassiterite
b) chalcopyrite
c) pitchblende
d) monazite sand
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Uranium comes from its main ore Pitchblende.
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10. Nucleus of tritium has how many neutrons?
a) 1

b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are 2 neutrons in tritium.
11. Percentage of natural uranium present in uranium ore found in Jadugoda (Jharkhand) is?
a) 2
b) 1
c) 0.1
d) 12
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Percentage of Uranium present in Jadugoda is 0.01%.
12. Coolant present in the primary circuit of a pressurised water reactor is high pressure __________
a) saturated steam
b) superheated steam
c) saturated water
d) sub cooled water
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Coolant present in the primary circuit of a pressurised water reactor is high pressure
saturated water.
13. Candu reactor is a __________ nuclear reactor.
a) natural uranium fuelled heavy water cooled & moderated
b) highly enriched uranium (85% U-235) fuelled

c) homogeneous
d) fast breeder
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Candu reactor is a natural uranium fuelled heavy water cooled & moderated nuclear
reactor.
14. Extraction of uranium from its ore is done using __________ methods.
a) chemical
b) pyrometallurgical
c) electrometallurgical
d) physical benefaction
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Extraction of uranium from its ore is done using chemical methods.
15. Atoms of U-238 and U-235 differ in structure by three __________
a) electrons
b) protons
c) neutrons
d) electrons & three protons
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The two atoms differ in the structure only in the number of neutrons.
1. The immediate products of fission are called?
a) fission splits
b) fission fragments

c) fission products
d) fission scatters
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The immediate outputs of a fission reaction are called fission fragments while the same
when combined with the various by-products are called fission products.
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2. Each neutron produces _________ neutron(s) per fission.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Per fission of one neutron, there is a release of 3 neutrons & hence, fission reactions are
hard to control once started.
3. 1 Curie = _____________
a) 3.615 x 1010 dis/s
b) 3.615 x 100.7 dis.s
c) 3.615 x 1012 dis
d) 3.615 x 10 dis/s
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The unit of radioactivity, Curie is given as,
1 Curie = 3.615 x 1010 dis/s

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4. The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope H3 is?
a) Alpha emission
b) Gamma Emission
c) Beta emission
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope H3 is Beta Emission.
5. The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope Carbon 14 is?
a) Alpha emission
b) Gamma Emission
c) Beta emission
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope Carbon 14 is Beta Emission.
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6. The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope Krypton 87 is?
a) Alpha emission
b) Gamma Emission
c) Beta emission
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope Krypton 87 is Beta Emission.
7. The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope Xenon 135 is?
a) Alpha & Beta emission
b) Gamma & Beta Emission
c) Beta emission
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope Xenon 135 is Gamma & Beta Emission.
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8. The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope Strontium 90 is?
a) Alpha emission
b) Gamma Emission
c) Beta emission
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope Strontium 90 is Beta Emission.
9. The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope Barium 139 is?
a) Alpha & Beta emission
c) Beta emission
View Answer
Answer: b

Explanation: The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope Barium 139 is Gamma & Beta Emission.
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10. The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope Radium 223 is?
a) Alpha & Gamma emission
c) Beta emission
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope Radium 223 is Alpha & Gamma Emission
1. The half-life of H3 radioisotope is?
a) 12.26 yr
b) 5730 yr
c) 76 min
d) 28.1 yr
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Half-life of tritium radioisotope is 12.26 years.
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2. Readily fissile isotopes have ___________ half-lives.
a) short
b) long
c) short & long
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: As the isotopes are fissile, naturally they will have more half-life.
3. The unit superseding Curie as the unit of Radioactivity is?
a) Decibel
b) Hectare
c) Becquerel
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Becquerel signifies number of disintegrations per second, much similar to the unit Curie.
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4. A series of radioactive fissions is called a _____________
a) Fission Row
b) Fission Chain
c) Fission Column
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A series of radioactive fission reactions is called a Fission Chain.
5. Beta decay is usually accompanied by?
a) alpha decay
b) beta decay
c) gamma decay
d) gamma radiation
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The entire beta decay process involves the release of gamma radiation apart from various
factors.
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6. The amount of energy in MW-days produced of each metric tonne of fuel is?
a) fuel ignition
b) fuel burnup
c) fuel Chain
d) fuel Column
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fuel burnup is the amount of energy in MW-days produced of each metric tonne of fuel.
7. The number of newly born neutrons in an uncontrolled fission reaction is?
a) 2
b) 2.5
c) 2.47
d) 2.38
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The number of newly born neutrons in an uncontrolled fission reaction is 2.47.
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8. The process of losing speed of newly born neutrons on collision with other freshly produced neutrons
& other obstacles in the way is called?
a) Dispersion

b) Diversion
c) Deviation
d) Scattering
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The process of losing speed of newly born neutrons on collision with other freshly
produced neutrons & other obstacles in the way is called Scattering.
9. In terms of speed, the newly produced neutrons are classed into how many types?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In terms of speed, the newly produced neutrons are classed in many types which are Fast,
Slow & Intermediate moving neutrons.
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10. The velocity of a fast moving neutron is?
a) 2 m/s
b) 2.4 x 1010 m/s
c) 4.4 x 1010 m/s
d) 4.4 x 106 m/s
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The velocity of the newly produced fast moving neutron is 4.4 x 106 m/s.

1. How can we classify steam generators on the basis of application?
a) utility steam generators
b) industrial steam generator
c) marine steam generator
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Steam generators can be classified in a number of ways, on the basis of application these
three generators are known.
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2. What is the critical pressure of steam?
a) 221.2 bar
b) 220 bar
c) 120 bar
d) 300 bar
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Below 221.2 its sub critical and above 221.2 its super critical.
3. An air preheater is installed _____________
a) between the economiser and chimney
b) before the superheater
c) before the economiser
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Preheater is used to increase the temperature of steam.
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4. What is the length of shell of a Locomotive boiler?
a) 5m
b) 4m
c) 3m
d) 2m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is fixed due to mechanical constraints.
5. Which of the following statement is correct?
a) A simple vertical boiler has one fire tube
b) A fire tube boiler occupies less space than a water tube boiler, for a given power
c) Steam at a high pressure and in large quantities can be produced with a simple vertical boiler
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A typical vertical boiler can have only one fire tube for the flow of fire or heat.
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6. The object of producing draught in a boiler is _________
a) to discharge the gases of combustion to the atmosphere through the chimney
b) all of the mentioned
c) to exhaust the gases of combustion from the combustion chamber
d) to provide an adequate supply of air for the fuel combustion

View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
7. The natural draught is produced by _________
a) team jet
b) chimney
c) centrifugal fan
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When air or flue gases flow due to the difference in density of the hot flue gases and cooler
ambient gases.
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8. Which of the following statement is wrong?
a) Water tube boilers are internally fired
b) Locomotive boiler is a water tube boiler
c) La-mont boiler is a low pressure water tube boiler
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Water tube boilers are externally fired where as fire tube boilers are internally fired.
9. Which of the following boiler is best suited to meet the fluctuating demand of steam?
a) Locomotive boiler
b) Lancashire boiler
c) Babcock and Wilcox boiler

d) Cornish boiler
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Because forced draught is provided in the locomotive boiler by injecting exhausted steam
back into the exhaust via a blast pipe in the smokebox.
1. Which of the following auxiliaries are not used in steam Generators?
a) economiser
b) burner
c) fan
d) stoker
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Burner, fan, stoker, pulverisers, etc. are the various auxiliaries that are used in steam
generators.
An economiser is a part of the steam generation plant.
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2. The formation of scale boiler leads to _________
a) decrease in efficiency of boiler
b) increase in efficiency of boiler
c) increase in heat transfer
d) decrease in maintenance of boiler
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Efficiency of boiler is inversely proportional to the scale formation.

3. What is the pH value of water permissible for boiler?
a) 0
b) 7
c) slightly less than 7
d) slightly more than 7
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The pH value of water used in the boiler is slightly greater than 7 for most of the commonly
used boiler.
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4. Which device used to separate condensate from the steam without letting steam escape?
a) condenser
b) steam valve
c) steam trap
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The steam trap is a device that is used to separate condensate from the steam without
letting steam escape.
5. What is the disadvantage of natural draught?
a) it has less life
b) it has more maintenance cost of cleaning and more capital cost to build the chimney
c) the available draught decreases with increasing outside air temperature
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The only disadvantage of natural draught is that the available draught decreases with
increasing the outside temperature.
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6. The natural draught in the steam generator depends upon _________
a) the air condition outside the chimney
b) the temperature of exhaust gases
c) the air condition outside the chimney & the temperature of exhaust gases
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The natural draught in the steam generator depends upon the air condition outside
chimney & the temperature of the exhaust gases.
7. What is the purpose of super heater in a boiler?
a) to increase the temperature of saturated steam with increase in its pressure
b) to increase the temperature of saturated steam without increase in its pressure
c) to increase the temperature of feedwater for better efficiency
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Superheater in a boiler has the function of increasing the temperature of saturated steam
without increase in its pressure.
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8. How is the natural draught produced for exhaust gases?
a) by using fan
b) by using chimney

c) by using gravity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The natural draught is produced for exhaust gases by using chimney.
9. What is the purpose of using economizer in the boiler?
a) to heat feed water by utilizing heat from exhaust gases
b) to heat feed water by utilizing some heat from superheated steam
c) to superheat steam
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The use of Economiser in a boiler is to heat the feed water by utilizing heat from exhaust
gases.
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10. Comparing fire tube and water tube boilers, which boiler can produce comparatively higher pressure
steam than another for the same capacity?
a) fire tube boiler
b) water tube boiler
c) both can produce steam at same pressure for the same capacity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A water tube boiler can produce comparatively higher pressure steam than another for the
same capacity.

1. The boiler in which the tubes are surrounded by hot gases is called ___________
a) fire tube boiler
b) water tube boiler
c) both fire and water tube boiler
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A water tube boiler is a boiler in which the cool water containing water tubes are
surrounded by hot gases.
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2. Which of these is not a type of steam generator depending upon the kind of applications?
a) utility steam generators
b) marine steam generators
c) agricultural steam generators
d) industrial steam generators
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are three types of steam generators depending upon the type of application which
are utility, industrial & marine steam engines.
3. What is the critical pressure of steam in a utility steam generator?
a) 220.2 bar
b) 221.2 bar
c) 222.2 bar
d) 225.2 bar
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The critical pressure of steam in a utility steam generator is 221.2 bar.
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4. Which of the following are drumless once-through steam generators?
a) Subcritical steam generator
b) Supercritical steam generators
c) Utility steam generators
d) Marine steam generators
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Supercritical steam generators are drumless once-through steam generators while the
subcritical steam generators are the water-tube drum type ones.
5. The subcritical steam generators operate between a pressure ranges of ___________
a) 120-160 bar
b) 100-110 bar
c) 130-180 bar
d) 140- 200 bar
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The subcritical steam generators operate between a pressure range of 130-180 bar.
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6. The supercritical steam generators operate at a pressure range of ___________
a) 200-240 bar
b) 200-220 bar
c) 220- 240 bar

d) >240 bar
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The supercritical steam generators operate at a pressure range of more than 240 bar.
7. Industrial steam generators operate in a pressure range of ___________
a) 5-105 bar
b) 6-106 bar
c) <5 bar
d) >105 bar
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Industrial steam generators operate in a pressure range of 5-105 bar.
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8. Industrial steam generators operate at a steam capacity of ___________
a) 1300 kg/s
b) 1000 kg/s
c) 500 kg/s
d) 125 kg/s
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Industrial steam generators operate at a steam capacity of about 125 kg/s which is lesser
than that of utility steam generators.
9. Marine steam generators are ___________ fired.
a) water
b) oil

c) phenol
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Marine steam generators are oil-fired.
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10. What is the pressure range between which a marine steam generator works?
a) 100-200 bar
b) 60-65 bar
c) 80-100 bar
d) 70-85 bar
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The pressure range between which a marine steam generator works is 60-65 bar.
11. In a fire-tube boiler, the water is in ___________
a) tube
b) shell
c) drum
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A fire-tube boiler is one in which the hot flue gases flow through the tubes surrounded by
water in a shell.
12. In a water-tube boiler, water flows through?
a) drum

b) shell
c) tube
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a water-tube boiler, water from a drum flows through the tubes & hot gases flow over
them.
1. Fire-tube boilers are used in?
a) industrial steam generators
b) utility steam generators
c) marine steam generators
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Industrial steam generators use fire-tube boilers as they suit the most for the quantity of
steam in the industrial steam generators.
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2. Which of the following is not an advantage of a fire-tube boiler?
a) low first cost
b) reliability in operation
c) more draught required
d) quick response to load changes
View Answer
3. Which of these is a type of fire-tube boiler?

a) Externally fired
b) Internally fired
c) Internally & Externally fired
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are two types of a fire-tube boiler which are Internally & Externally fired boilers.
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4. Which of these is an externally fired boiler?
a) Package boiler
b) Scotch-marine boiler
c) Lancashire boiler
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The various types of externally fired boiler include Lancashire boilers, Locomotive type
boilers, HRT boiler, etc.
5. Which of the following is a type of internally fired boiler?
a) Package boiler
b) HRT boiler
c) Lancashire boiler
d) Locomotive type boiler
View Answer
Answer: a

Explanation: The various types of an internally fired boiler include Scotch-marine boiler, Package boiler,
etc.
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6. What is the function of the fusible plug installed in a furnace?
a) to detect excess current
b) to detect excess heat
c) to detect water level in the tube
d) to detect water level in the shell
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Water level in the shell is detected by the fusible plug installed in the crown of the furnace.
7. Which of the following gaseous fuels has the lowest calorific value?
a) Refinery Gas
b) Gobar Gas
c) Converter Gas
d) Blast Furnace Gas
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The lowest calorific value fuel means a fuel which burns most readily. Among all the given
options, the most combustible gas is the blast furnace gas.
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8. Fuel gases containing hydrocarbons (e.g. coke oven gas) are not preheated before burning, mainly
because ____________
a) there are chances of explosion during preheating
b) it reduces its calorific value tremendously
c) the hydrocarbons crack thereby choking and fouling the heat transfer surface by carbon soot

d) it reduces its flame temperature tremendously
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Fuel gases containing hydrocarbons (i.e. coke oven gas) are not preheated before burning,
mainly because the hydrocarbons crack thereby choking and fouling the heat transfer surface by carbon
soot.
9. Flue gas discharge velocity through chimney of a big thermal power plant may be around __________
m/sec.
a) 500
b) 0.5
c) 10
d) 50
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The velocity of discharge of flue gases through the chimney of a big thermal power plant is
around 10 m/sec.
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10. In water tube boilers ___________
a) forced circulation takes place
b) water passes through the tubes which are surrounded by flames and hot gases
c) the flames and hot gases pass through the tubes which are surrounded by water
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In water tube boilers the flames and hot gases pass through the tubes which are
surrounded by water

1. In a glass rube type water indicator for a boiler, one end of the tube is connected to water space and
the other end is connected to ________________
a) chimney
b) water space
c) steam space
d) super heater
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In a glass rube type water indicator for a boiler, one end of the tube is connected to water
space and the other end is connected to the steam space.
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2. The draught produced by a steam jet issuing from a nozzle placed in the ashpit under the fire grate of
the furnace is called ___________
a) chimney draught
b) induced steam jet draught
c) forced steam jet draught
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The draught produced by a steam jet issuing from a nozzle placed in the ashpit under the
fire grate of the furnace is called induced steam jet draught.
3. Willian’s line for the steam engine is a straight line relationship between the steam consumption per
hour and ___________
a) brake power
b) indicated power
c) pressure of steam

d) efficiency
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Willian’s line for the steam engine is a straight line relationship between the steam
consumption per hour and indicated power.
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4. The natural draught is produced by ___________
a) chimney
b) centrifugal fan
c) steam jet
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The natural draught is produced by chimney.
5. Which of the following statement is wrong?
a) Water tube boilers are internally fired
b) Locomotive boiler is a water tube boiler
c) La-mont boiler is a low pressure water tube boiler
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: All the mentioned statement are wrong as water-tube boilers are externally fired,
locomotive boiler isn’t a water-tube boiler & La-mont boiler is a high pressure boiler.
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6. An air preheater is installed ___________
a) between the economiser and chimney
b) before the superheater
c) before the economiser
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The installation of an air pre-heater is between the economiser & the chimney.
7. Which of the following statement is correct for a compound steam engine?
a) The forces in the working parts are increased as the forces are distributed over more parts
b) The cost of the engine, for the same power and economy, is more than that of a simple steam engine
c) The temperature range per cylinder is increased, with corresponding increase in condensation
d) The ratio of expansion is reduced, thus reducing the length of stroke
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When the ratio of expansion is reduced, the length of stroke is reduced in a compound
steam engine.
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8. What is the length of shell of a Locomotive boiler?
a) 2m
b) 3m
c) 4m
d) 6m
View Answer
Answer: c

Explanation: The shell of a locomotive boiler has a length of 4m.
9. What is the function of a flywheel?
a) to convert reciprocating motion of the piston into rotary motion
b) to prevent fluctuation of speed
c) to keep the engine speed uniform at all load conditions
d) to convert rotary motion of the crankshaft into to and fro motion of the valve rod
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Flywheel is employed to prevent fluctuation of speed.
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10. The shell diameter of a Locomotive boiler is?
a) 1.5m
b) 1m
c) 2m
d) 2.5m
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The shell diameter of a Locomotive boiler is 1.5 m.
1. Which of the following is a water tube boiler?
a) Lancashire boiler
b) Cochran boiler
c) Babcock & Wilcox boiler
d) Locomotive boiler
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The Cochran Boiler is a type of water tube boiler.
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2. The number of fire tubes in a Cochran boiler are ___________
a) 75
b) 165
c) 225
d) 175
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The number of fire tubes in a Cochran boiler is 165.
3. The chimney draught varies with?
a) climatic conditions
b) temperature of furnace gases
c) height of chimney
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The chimney draught varies with climatic conditions, temperature of furnace gases, height
of chimney, etc.
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4. The diagram factor is the ratio of ___________
a) area of actual indicator diagram to the area of theoretical indicator diagram
b) actual work done per stroke to the theoretical work done per stroke
c) actual mean effective pressure to the theoretical mean effective pressure

d) any of the above mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The ratio of any of the mentioned factors is called the Diagram factor.
5. The diameter of a cylindrical shell of a Scotch marine boiler varies from ___________
a) 3.5 to 4.5m
b) 1.5 to 2m
c) 2.5 to 3.5m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The diameter of a cylindrical shell of a Scotch marine boiler varies from 2.5 to 3.5m.
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6. A closed vessel made of steel & used for the generation of steam is called a ___________
a) steam condenser
b) steam boiler
c) steam injector
d) steam turbine
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A closed vessel made of steel & used for the generation of steam is called a steam boiler.
7. Lancashire boiler has _____ internal flue tubes.
a) 1
b) 3
c) 2

d) 4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Lancashire boiler has 2 internal flue tubes.
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8. Locomotive boiler is a ___________
a) single tube, vertical, externally fired & stationary boiler
b) single tube, horizontal, internally fired& stationary boiler
c) multitubular, horizontal, externally fired & stationary boiler
d) multitubular, horizontal, internally fired & mobile boiler
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Locomotive boiler is a multitubular, horizontal, internally fired & mobile boiler.
9. Cut-off ratio is the ratio of?
a) cut-off volume to clearance volume
b) clearance volume to cut-off volume
c) volume at cut-off to swept volume
d) swept volume to volume at cut-off
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Cut-off ratio is the ratio of volume at cut-off to swept volume.
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10. The equivalent evaporation is defined as?
a) the ratio of heat actually used in producing the steam to the heat liberated in the furnace

b) the amount of water evaporated or steam produced in kg of fuel burnt
c) the amount of water evaporated from and at 100 degree C into dry & saturated steam
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The equivalent evaporation is defined as the amount of water evaporated from and at 100
degree C into dry & saturated steam.
11. The theoretical indicator diagram of a simple steam engine is based upon the assumption that
___________
a) there is no pressure drop due to condensation
b) steam is admitted at boiler pressure & exhausted at condenser pressure
c) the expansion of the steam is hyperbolic
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The theoretical indicator diagram of a simple steam engine is based upon the assumption
that there is no pressure drop due to condensation, the steam is admitted at boiler pressure &
exhausted at condenser pressure, the expansion of the steam is hyperbolic.
12. The actual power supplied by the engine crankshaft is called?
a) indicated power
b) frictional power
c) brake power
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The actual power supplied by the engine crankshaft is called Brake Power.

13. When steam after doing work in the cylinder passes into a condenser, the engine is said to be a
___________
a) slow speed engine
b) vertical steam engine
c) condensing steam engine
d) no-condensing steam engine
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When steam after doing work in the cylinder passes into a condenser, the engine is said to
be a condensing steam engine.
14. The missing quantity per stroke is equal to?
a) cylinder feed + indicated mass of steam
b) cylinder feed + indicated mass of steam
c) mass of cushion steam + indicated mass of steam
d) mass of cushion steam + cylinder feed
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The missing quantity per stroke is equal to cylinder feed + indicated mass of steam.
15. An economiser is installed in a boiler primarily to ___________
a) increase steam pressure
b) reduce fuel consumption
c) superheat the steam
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An economiser is installed in a boiler primarily to reduce fuel consumption.

1. The relative efficiency is defined as?
a) ratio of thermal efficiency to rankine efficiency
b) ratio of brake power to the indicated power
c) ratio of heat equivalent to indicated power to the energy supplied in steam
d) product of thermal efficiency & Rankine efficiency
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The ratio of thermal efficiency to rankine efficiency is called Relative efficiency.
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2. Lancashire boiler is ___________
a) stationary fire tube boiler
b) horizontal boiler
c) internally fired boiler
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Lancashire boiler is a stationary fire tube, horizontal & internally fired boiler.
3. The heat balance sheet for the boiler shows the ___________
a) steam formed by combustion of hydrogen per kg of fuel
b) moisture present in the fuel
c) complete account of heat supplied by 1 kg of dry fuel & the heat consumed
View Answer
Answer: c

Explanation: The heat balance sheet for the boiler shows the complete account of heat supplied by 1 kg
of dry fuel & the heat consumed.
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4. A compound steam engine in which piston rods of high pressure & low pressure cylinders are
attached to two different crank sets at 1800 to each other, is called ___________
a) Tandem type compound engine
b) Receiver type compound engine
c) Woolf type compound engine
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A compound steam engine in which piston rods of high pressure & low pressure cylinders
are attached to two different crank sets at 1800 to each other, is called Woolf type compound engine.
5. The actual vacuum in a condenser is equal to ___________
a) barometric pressure – actual pressure
b) barometric pressure + actual pressure
c) gauge pressure – atmospheric pressure
d) gauge pressure + atmospheric pressure
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The actual vacuum in a condenser is equal to barometric pressure – actual pressure.
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6. The high steam and low water safety valve is used to blow off steam when the ___________
a) steam pressure exceeds the working pressure
b) water level in the boiler becomes too low
c) none of the mentioned

d) steam pressure exceeds the working pressure & water level in the boiler becomes too low
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The high steam and low water safety valve is used to blow off steam when the steam
pressure exceeds the working pressure & water level in the boiler becomes too low.
7. The performance of a boiler is measured by the ___________
a) dry flue gases
b) steam formation
c) moisture in fuel
d) unburnt carbon
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The performance of a boiler is measured by the amount of dry flue gases exhausted.
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8. Benson boiler requires ___________
a) 2 drums
b) 3 drums
c) 0 drums
d) 1 drum
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Benson boiler requires no drums. It is a drum-less boiler.
9. The cylinder condensation or missing quantity may be reduced by ___________
a) keeping the expansion ratio small in each cylinder
b) superheating the steam supplied to the engine cylinder

c) the efficient steam jacketing of the cylinder walls
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The cylinder condensation or missing quantity may be reduced by keeping the expansion
ratio small, superheating the steam supplied to the engine cylinder, the efficient steam jacketing of the
cylinder walls, etc.
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10. In a Tandem type compound engine, the high pressure and low pressure cylinders ___________
a) have common piston rods
b) have separate piston rods
c) are set at 90 degrees
d) are set in V-arrangement
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a Tandem type compound engine, the high pressure and low pressure cylinders have
common piston rods.
11. A device used in a boiler to control the flow of steam from the boiler to the main pipe and to shut off
the steam completely when required, is known as?
a) fusible plug
b) superheater
c) stop valve
d) blow off cork
View Answer
Answer: c

Explanation: A device used in a boiler to control the flow of steam from the boiler to the main pipe and
to shut off the steam completely when required, is known as Stop Valve.
12. The performance of a boiler is measured by the ___________
a) steam produced in kg/h
b) steam produced in kg/kg of fuel burnt
c) amount of water evaporated per hour
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The performance of a boiler is measured by the rate of steam produced in kg/h, kg/kg &
the amount of water evaporated per hour.
13. The high pressure and low pressure cylinders in a receiver type compound engine are regarded as
having cranks at ___________
a) 180° to each other
b) 90° to each other
c) 0° to each other
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The high pressure and low pressure cylinders in a receiver type compound engine are
regarded as having cranks at 90° to each other.
14. Throttle governing of steam engines is a method of controlling the engine output by varying
___________
a) volume of intake steam
b) pressure of intake system
c) temperature of intake system
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Throttle governing of steam engines is a method of controlling the engine output by
varying pressure of intake system.
15. What is the aim of a compound steam engine?
a) to reduce the ratio of expansion in each cylinder
b) to reduce the temperature range in each cylinder
c) to reduce the length of stroke
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The aim of a compound steam engine is to reduce the ratio of expansion in each cylinder.
1. When the circulation of water, in a boiler, is by a centrifugal pump, then the boiler is known as
_____________
a) forced circulation boiler
b) externally fired boiler
c) naturally circulation boiler
d) internally fired boiler
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When the circulation of water, in a boiler, is by a centrifugal pump, then the boiler is known
as forced circulation boiler.
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2. A single acting steam engine produces __________ power than that of double acting steam engine.
a) equal
b) double

c) half
d) 4 times
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A single acting steam engine produces half power than that of double acting steam engine.
3. Cut-off governing of steam engines is a method of controlling the engine output by varying
__________
a) volume of intake steam
b) pressure of intake steam
c) temperature of intake steam
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cut-off governing of steam engines is a method of controlling the engine output by varying
volume of intake steam.
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4. A device in which some portion of waste heat of flue gases is recovered to heat the air before it
passes to the furnace for combustion purpose is known as __________
a) air preheater
b) superheater
c) injector
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A device in which some portion of waste heat of flue gases is recovered to heat the air
before it passes to the furnace for combustion purpose, is knwon as air-preheater.

5. Which of the following statement is correct?
a) Fire tube boilers are internally fired
b) Lancashire boiler is a fire tube boiler
c) Babcock and Wilcox boiler is a water tube boiler
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: All the mentioned statements are correct.
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6. In a uniflow engine __________
a) steam enters and exhausts through the same port
b) steam enters at one end and exhausts at the centre
c) steam enters at the centre and exhausts at the other end
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Steam enters at one end and exhausts at the centre in a Uniflow engine.
7. A safety valve mainly used with locomotive and marine boilers is __________
a) lever safety valve
b) dead weight safety valve
c) spring loaded safety valve
d) high steam and low water safety valve
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A safety valve mainly used with locomotive and marine boilers is spring loaded safety valve.

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8. The power of a boiler may be defined as __________
a) the amount of water evaporated or steam produced in kg per kg of fuel burnt
b) the ratio of heat actually used in producing the steam to the heat liberated in the furnace
c) the evaporation of 15.653 kg of water per hour from and at 100° C
d) the amount of water evaporated from and at 100° C into dry and saturated steam
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The power of a boiler may be defined as the amount of water evaporated or steam
produced in kg per kg of fuel burnt.
9. Which of the following boiler is best suited to meet the fluctuating demand of steam?
a) Cornish boiler
b) Lancashire boiler
c) Locomotive boiler
d) Babcock & Wilcox boiler
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Locomotive Boiler is the best suited to meet the fluctuating demand of steam.
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10. The diameter of Cornish boiler varies from __________
a) 1 to 2m
b) 0.5 to 1m
c) 1.25 to 2.5m
d) 2 to 3m
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The diameter of Cornish Boiler varies from 1-2 m.
11. Besides mean effective pressure, the data required to determine the indicated power of an engine
include __________
a) piston diameter, length of stroke and calorific value of fuel
b) piston diameter, specific fuel consumption and Calorific value of fuel
c) piston diameter, length of stroke and speed of rotation
d) specific fuel consumption, speed of rotation and torque
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Besides mean effective pressure, the data required to determine the indicated power of an
engine include piston diameter, length of stroke and speed of rotation.
12. A compound steam engine in which the high pressure and low pressure cylinders have common
piston rod is called __________
a) Tandem type compound engine
b) Woolf type compound engine
c) Receiver type compound engine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A compound steam engine in which the high pressure and low pressure cylinders have
common piston rod, is called Tandem type compound engine.
13. What is the average operating pressure of Benson boiler?
a) 200 bar
b) 150 bar
c) 250 bar
d) 100 bar

View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The average operating pressure of Benson boiler is 150 bar.
14. What is the function of a safety valve?
a) to indicate the water level inside the boiler to an observer
b) to measure pressure of steam inside the steam boiler
c) to blow off steam when the pressure of steam inside the boiler exceeds the working pressure
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The function of a safety valve is to blow off steam when the pressure of steam inside the
boiler exceeds the working pressure.
15. What is the rate of steam produced in Benson boiler?
a) 250 tonnes/h
b) 175 tonnes/h
c) 100 tonnes/h
d) 135 tonnes/h
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The rate of steam produced in Benson boiler is 135 tonnes/h.
1. A steam turbine converts the output from a steam generator into ____________
a) Shaft work
b) Turbine work
c) Mechanical work

View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A steam turbine is a device that converts the energy of high-pressure, high-temperature
steam supplied by a steam generator into shaft work.
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2. The energy conversion occurring in a steam turbine is a ______ step process.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The high pressure steam first expands in a nozzle, gains velocity & then loses this velocity
when it impinges on the blades.
3. A steam turbine is basically an assemblage of ____________
a) nozzle & condenser
b) blades & condenser
c) nozzle & blades
d) nozzle & fans
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A steam turbine is a device that converts the energy of high-pressure, high-temperature
steam supplied by a steam generator into shaft work. The high pressure steam first expands in a nozzle,
gains velocity & then loses this velocity when it impinges on the blades.
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4. Depending on whether the back pressure is below or equal to the atmospheric pressure, how many
types of turbines do exist?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Depending on whether the back pressure is below or equal to the atmospheric pressure,
there are two types of turbines that exist- condensing & non-condensing turbines.
5. The overall steam turbine generator arrangement of a power plant is designated as ________
compound on the basis of shaft orientation.
a) tandem
b) cross
c) tandem & cross
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The overall steam turbine generator arrangement of a power plant is designated as tandem
or cross-compound on the basis of shaft orientation.
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6. A ______ is a duct through which velocity of a fluid increases at the expense of pressure.
a) orifice
b) nozzle
c) jet
d) diffuser
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A nozzle is a duct through which the velocity of a fluid increases at the expense of pressure.
7. A duct which decreases the velocity of fluid & causes a corresponding increase in pressure is called?
a) nozzle
b) diffuser
c) jet
d) orifice
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A duct which decreases the velocity of fluid & causes a corresponding increase in pressure
is called a diffuser.
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8. A regenerative steam cycle renders ____________
a) decreased work output per unit mass of steam
b) increased thermal efficiency
c) increased work output per unit mass of steam
d) decreased work output per unit mass of steam as well as increased thermal efficiency
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The decreased work output per unit mass of steam as well as increased thermal efficiency.
9. The reheat factor is the ratio of the ____________
a) total useful heat drop to the total isentropic heat drop
b) cumulative heat drop to the isentropic heat drop
c) isentropic heat drop to the heat supplied

View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The ratio of cumulative heat drop to the isentropic heat drop is called the reheat factor.
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10. Thermal equilibrium means that the flow of steam is ____________
a) hyperbolic
b) isothermal
c) isentropic
d) polytropic
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When the steam flow is isentropic it is thermal equilibrium condition
1. The steam leaves the nozzle at a ____________
a) low pressure and a high velocity
b) high pressure and a high velocity
c) high pressure and a low velocity
d) low pressure and a low velocity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The steam leaves the nozzle at low pressure & a high velocity as the action of steam is best
suited for turbine operations under these conditions.
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2. When the back pressure of a nozzle is below the designed value of pressure at exit of nozzle, the
nozzle is said to be ____________
a) overdamping
b) underdamping
c) chocked
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When the back pressure of a nozzle is below the designed value of pressure at exit of
nozzle, the nozzle is said to be underdamping.
3. De-Laval turbine is a ____________
a) multi rotor impulse turbine
b) impulse reaction turbine
c) single rotor impulse turbine
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A De-Laval turbine is a single rotor impulse turbine.
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4. The supersaturated flow of steam through a nozzle as compared to a stable flow, the available heat
drop ____________
a) increases
b) decreases
c) is unpredictable
d) remains same
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The supersaturated flow of steam through a nozzle as compared to a stable flow, the
available heat drop decreases.
5. A turbine is said to have an axial discharge when the steam leaves the blade tip at __________ to the
direction of the blade motion.
a) 90°
b) 60°
c) 270°
d) 180°
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A turbine is said to have an axial discharge when the steam leaves the blade tip at 60°
to the direction of the blade motion.
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6. The Parsons’ reaction turbine has ____________
a) only moving blades
b) only fixed blades
c) fixed and moving blades of different shape
d) identical fixed and moving blades
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The Parsons’ reaction turbine has identical fixed & moving blades.
7. What is the critical pressure ratio for initially wet steam?
a) 0.582
b) 0.546
c) 0.577

d) 0.601
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The critical pressure ratio for initially wet steam is 0.582.
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8. The ratio of the useful heat drop to the isentropic heat drop is called ____________
a) condenser efficiency
b) nozzle efficiency
c) vacuum efficiency
d) boiler efficiency
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The ratio of the useful heat drop to the isentropic heat drop is called nozzle efficiency.
9. Rateau turbine is ____________
a) pressure-velocity compounded turbine
b) simple reaction turbine
c) velocity compounded turbine
d) pressure compounded turbine
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A Rateau turbine is a pressure compounded turbine.
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10. When the cross-section of a nozzle increases continuously from entrance to exit, it is called a
____________

a) convergent-divergent nozzle
b) divergent nozzle
c) convergent nozzle
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When the cross-section of a nozzle increases continuously from entrance to exit, it is called
a divergent nozzle.
1. Convergent part of the nozzle is usually sharp while the divergent one is?
a) slopy
b) gradual
c) slopy & gradual
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The divergent part of the nozzle is gradual in comparison to the convergent part.
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2. What is another name of converging nozzle?
a) diverging nozzle
b) subsonic nozzle
c) supersonic nozzle
View Answer
Answer: b

Explanation: Another name of converging nozzle is Subsonic Nozzle.
3. Based on the type of applications, the nozzles are divided into?
a) 3 types
b) 4 types
c) 2 types
d) 5 types
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are 2 types of nozzles based on their applications, namely Reamed & Foil nozzles.
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4. Which of the following is used in high pressure impulses stages of steam turbine?
a) Reamed Nozzles
b) Foil Nozzles
c) Reamed & Foil Nozzles
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Reamed nozzle is used in high pressure impulses stages of steam turbine.
5. Angle of divergence in reamed nozzles is?
a) 10 deg
b) 12 deg
c) 14 deg
d) 16 deg
View Answer
Answer: b

Explanation: The angle of divergence in reamed nozzles is approx. 12 degrees.
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6. The nozzle formed by curved airfoil sections is called?
a) Curved nozzle
b) Airfoil Nozzle
c) Foil nozzle
d) Reamed nozzle
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Foil nozzle is the nozzle formed by curved air foil sections.
7. There are mainly _______ types of turbines.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There are mainly two types of Turbines- Impulse & Reaction Turbine.
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8. Moving blades are placed next to ___________
a) Fixed blades
b) Nozzle
c) Nozzle vanes
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Moving blades are positioned next to the nozzle vanes to allow sufficient flow.
9. The incoming steam inside the turbine goes into ___________
a) Steam vanes
b) Steam chest
c) Nozzle vanes
d) Moving blades
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The incoming steam is housed into the steam chest situated just below the steam inlet.
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10. One row of nozzles followed by one row of blades is called?
a) a group of turbine
b) a step of turbine
c) a process of turbine
d) a stage of turbine
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: One row of nozzles followed by one row of blades is called a stage of Turbine.
1. Single stage impulse turbines are also called as?
a) Laval Turbines
b) Lancashire Turbines
c) Cochran Turbines
d) La Del turbines
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Laval Turbines are single-stage impulse turbines.
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2. There are basically ______ Ways of compounding steam turbines.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There are basically 2 ways of compounding steam turbines namely, Rateau staging & Curtis
staging.
3. Rateau staging is another name for?
a) Pressure compounding
b) Velocity compounding
c) Pressure & Velocity compounding
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pressure compounding is also called as Rateau staging.
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4. The another name for Velocity compounding is?
a) Rateau Staging
b) Curtis staging
c) Rateau & Curtis staging

View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The another name for Velocity compounding is Curtis Staging.
5. The Guide vanes remain stationary in?
a) Curtis staging
b) Rateau staging
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The guide vanes remain stationary in velocity compounding to ensure better operating
efficiency.
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6. The pressure drop in reaction turbines occurs in?
a) fixed blades
b) movable blades
c) both in nozzles & fixed blades
d) nozzles
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The pressure drop in reaction turbines occurs in both, the nozzle & in fixed blades.
7. The loss in efficiency from one stage to another is called?
a) Lost efficiency
b) Carry below efficiency

c) Carry-over efficiency
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Carry-over efficiency is defined as the loss in efficiency from one stage to another.
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8. For straight blades, the minimum blade height is __________ of the mean blade ring diameter.
a) 20%
b) 30%
c) 40%
d) 50%
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For straight blades, the minimum blade height is 20% of the mean blade ring diameter.
9. Number of parallel exhausts required for a given steam flow rate of x is?
a) x/63.5
b) x/36.5
c) x/68.5
d) x/56.5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Number of parallel exhausts required for a given steam flow rate of x is, x/63.5.
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10. External loses occur ___________ turbine casing.

a) inside
b) outside
c) inside & outside
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: External loses are those which occur outside the turbine casing.
1. Single stage impulse turbines are also called as?
a) Laval Turbines
b) Lancashire Turbines
c) Cochran Turbines
d) La Del turbines
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Laval Turbines are single-stage impulse turbines.
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2. There are basically ______ Ways of compounding steam turbines.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: a

Explanation: There are basically 2 ways of compounding steam turbines namely, Rateau staging & Curtis
staging.
3. Rateau staging is another name for?
a) Pressure compounding
b) Velocity compounding
c) Pressure & Velocity compounding
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pressure compounding is also called as Rateau staging.
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4. The another name for Velocity compounding is?
a) Rateau Staging
b) Curtis staging
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The another name for Velocity compounding is Curtis Staging.
5. The Guide vanes remain stationary in?
a) Curtis staging
b) Rateau staging
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The guide vanes remain stationary in velocity compounding to ensure better operating
efficiency.
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6. The pressure drop in reaction turbines occurs in?
a) fixed blades
b) movable blades
c) both in nozzles & fixed blades
d) nozzles
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The pressure drop in reaction turbines occurs in both, the nozzle & in fixed blades.
7. The loss in efficiency from one stage to another is called?
a) Lost efficiency
b) Carry below efficiency
c) Carry-over efficiency
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Carry-over efficiency is defined as the loss in efficiency from one stage to another.
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8. For straight blades, the minimum blade height is __________ of the mean blade ring diameter.
a) 20%
b) 30%
c) 40%

d) 50%
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For straight blades, the minimum blade height is 20% of the mean blade ring diameter.
9. Number of parallel exhausts required for a given steam flow rate of x is?
a) x/63.5
b) x/36.5
c) x/68.5
d) x/56.5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Number of parallel exhausts required for a given steam flow rate of x is, x/63.5.
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10. External loses occur ___________ turbine casing.
a) inside
b) outside
c) inside & outside
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: External loses are those which occur outside the turbine casing
1. The steam leaves the nozzle at a ____________
a) low pressure and a high velocity
b) high pressure and a high velocity

c) high pressure and a low velocity
d) low pressure and a low velocity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The steam leaves the nozzle at low pressure & a high velocity as the action of steam is best
suited for turbine operations under these conditions.
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2. When the back pressure of a nozzle is below the designed value of pressure at exit of nozzle, the
nozzle is said to be ____________
a) overdamping
b) underdamping
c) chocked
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When the back pressure of a nozzle is below the designed value of pressure at exit of
nozzle, the nozzle is said to be underdamping.
3. De-Laval turbine is a ____________
a) multi rotor impulse turbine
b) impulse reaction turbine
c) single rotor impulse turbine
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A De-Laval turbine is a single rotor impulse turbine.
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4. The supersaturated flow of steam through a nozzle as compared to a stable flow, the available heat
drop ____________
a) increases
b) decreases
c) is unpredictable
d) remains same
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The supersaturated flow of steam through a nozzle as compared to a stable flow, the
available heat drop decreases.
5. A turbine is said to have an axial discharge when the steam leaves the blade tip at __________ to the
direction of the blade motion.
a) 90°
b) 60°
c) 270°
d) 180°
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A turbine is said to have an axial discharge when the steam leaves the blade tip at 60°
to the direction of the blade motion.
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6. The Parsons’ reaction turbine has ____________
a) only moving blades
b) only fixed blades
c) fixed and moving blades of different shape
d) identical fixed and moving blades

View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The Parsons’ reaction turbine has identical fixed & moving blades.
7. What is the critical pressure ratio for initially wet steam?
a) 0.582
b) 0.546
c) 0.577
d) 0.601
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The critical pressure ratio for initially wet steam is 0.582.
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8. The ratio of the useful heat drop to the isentropic heat drop is called ____________
a) condenser efficiency
b) nozzle efficiency
c) vacuum efficiency
d) boiler efficiency
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The ratio of the useful heat drop to the isentropic heat drop is called nozzle efficiency.
9. Rateau turbine is ____________
a) pressure-velocity compounded turbine
b) simple reaction turbine
c) velocity compounded turbine
d) pressure compounded turbine

View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A Rateau turbine is a pressure compounded turbine.
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10. When the cross-section of a nozzle increases continuously from entrance to exit, it is called a
____________
a) convergent-divergent nozzle
b) divergent nozzle
c) convergent nozzle
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When the cross-section of a nozzle increases continuously from entrance to exit, it is called
a divergent nozzle.
1. If the temperature of intake air in internal combustion engine increases, then its efficiency will
__________
a) remain same
b) increase
c) decrease
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The efficiency of an IC Engine is inversely proportional to the temperature of intake air.
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2. The operation of forcing additional air under pressure in the engine cylinder is known as __________
a) Supercharging
b) Scavenging
c) Turbulence
d) Pre-ignition
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Supercharging is the operation of forcing additional air under pressure in the engine
cylinder.
3. The ignition quality of petrol is expressed by __________
a) Cetane number
b) Octane number
c) Calorific Value
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Octane number estimates the quality of petrol.
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4. The mean effective pressure obtained from engine indicator indicates the __________
a) maximum pressure developed
b) minimum pressure developed
c) instantaneous pressure at any point
d) average pressure
View Answer
Answer: d

Explanation: The mean effective pressure indicates the average pressure on the engine.
5. The probability of knocking in diesel engines is increased by __________
a) high self-ignition temperature
b) low volatility
c) high viscosity
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The probability of knocking in diesel engines is increased by keeping high self-ignition
temperature, low volatility, high viscosity, etc.
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6. Reactors for propulsion applications are designed for__________
a) any form of uranium
b) natural uranium
c) enriched uranium
d) thorium
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Enriched uranium is the material that is used for making reactors for propulsion
application.
7. What is the pour point of fuel oil?
a) Minimum temperature to which oil is heated in order to give off inflammable vapours in sufficient
quantity to ignite momentarily when brought in contact with a flame
b) Temperature at which it solidifies or congeals
c) It catches fire without external aid
d) Indicated by 90% distillation temperature i.e., when 90% of sample oil has distilled off
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The temperature at which fuel oil solidifies or congeals is called pour point of fuel oil.
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8. What is the maximum temperature in the I.C. engine cylinder is of the order of(in degree Celsius)?
a) 500-1000
b) 1000-1500
c) 1500-2000
d) 2000-2500
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The maximum temperature in the I.C. engine cylinder is of the order of(in degree Celsius) is
2000-25000 degree Celsius.
9. In compression ignition engines, swirl denotes a __________
a) Haphazard motion of the gases in the chamber
b) Rotary motion of the gases in the chamber
c) Radial motion of the gases in the chamber
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Swirl in a compression ignition engine denotes rotary motion of the gases in the chamber.
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10. Supercharging is the process of __________
a) Supplying the intake of an engine with air at a density greater than the density of the surrounding
atmosphere

b) Supplying compressed air to remove combustion products fully
c) Providing excess temperature to the sucked in gases
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Supercharging is the process of supplying the intake of an engine with air at a density
greater than the density of the surrounding atmosphere.
11. The object of supercharging the engine is __________
a) to increase the power output of an engine when greater power is required
b) to reduce mass of the engine per brake power
c) to reduce space occupied by the engine
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Supercharging is done to increase the power output of an engine, to reduce mass of the
engine per brake power & to reduce space occupied by the engine.
12. The compensating jet in a carburettor supplies almost constant amount of petrol at all speeds
because the __________
a) jet area is automatically varied depending on the suction
b) the flow from the main jet is diverted to the compensating jet with increase in speed
c) flow is produced due to the static head in the float chamber
d) the diameter of the jet is constant and the discharge coefficient is invariant
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The compensating jet in a carburettor supplies almost constant amount of petrol at all
speeds because the flow is produced due to the static head in the float chamber.
13. The ratio of the volume of charge admitted at N.T.P. to the swept volume of the piston is called?

a) overall efficiency
b) mechanical efficiency
c) relative efficiency
d) volumetric efficiency
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Volumetric Efficiency is the ratio of the volume of charge admitted at N.T.P. to the swept
volume of the piston.
14. A moderator generally used in nuclear power plants is?
a) heavy water
b) concrete
c) graphite & concrete
d) graphite
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A moderator generally used in nuclear power plants is made up of graphite & concrete.
15. In a diesel engine, the duration between the time of injection and ignition is known as?
a) delay period
b) period of ignition
c) burning period
d) pre-ignition period
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a diesel engine, the duration between the time of injection and ignition, is known as the
delay period.

1. What is the air standard cycle for a Gas-Turbine called?
a) Reheat cycle
b) Rankine cycle
c) Brayton cycle
d) Diesel cycle
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Brayton cycle is an ideal air standard cycle for a Gas turbine, which, like the Rankine cycle,
also comprises of two reversible adiabatic & two reversible isobars.
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2. What is the difference between a Rankine cycle & a Brayton cycle?
a) working fluid in a Brayton cycle undergoes phase change while it doesn’t in Rankine cycle
b) working fluid in a Brayton cycle doesn’t undergo phase change while it does in Rankine cycle
c) both are same
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The difference between a Rankine cycle & a Brayton cycle is that the working fluid in a
Brayton cycle doesn’t undergo phase change while it does in Rankine cycle.
3. Which of the following is a type of Gas Turbine Plant?
a) Single Acting
b) Double Acting
c) Open
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Open & Closed Gas Turbine plants are the two types.
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4. Power is produced when the working fluid does some work on the?
a) Shaft
b) Fins
c) Blades
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For the production of power, the working fluid does some work on the blades of the
turbine, thereby producing Power.
5. A Gas Turbine is which type of combustion plant?
a) external
b) open
c) internal
d) cannot say
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Since for the production of power, the working fluid does some work on the blades of the
turbine, thereby producing Power. Hence, it is called an internal combustion plant.
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6. Which among these is the main component of a gas turbine plant?
a) Condenser
b) Compressor

c) Boiler
d) Both Compressor & Boiler
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The main component of a Gas turbine plant is Compressor.
7. Which type of compressor is used in a gas turbine plant?
a) Reciprocating compressor
b) Screw compressor
c) Multistage axial flow compressor
d) Either Reciprocating compressor & Screw compressor
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Multistage axial flow compressor is the compressor in practical usage in a gas turbine plant.
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8. What part or % of power developed is utilised for driving the compressor?
a) 65 %
b) 70 %
c) 55 %
d) 80 %
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A total of 65 % of power developed in the gas turbine is used for driving the compressor.
9. The gas turbine power plant mainly uses which among the following fuels?
a) Coal and Peat
b) Kerosene oil and diesel oil and residual oil

c) Gas oil
d) Natural gas and liquid petroleum fuel
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Natural gas and liquid petroleum fuel are among the two fuels used in a gas turbine.
1. The heating value of gaseous fuels is about _____________
a) 500 kJ/litre
b) 30 kJ/litre
c) 100 kJ/litre
d) 10 kJ/litre
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 30 kJ/litre is the heating value of gaseous fuels.
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2. The compressor has to be started _____________
a) Before starting the gas turbine
b) After starting the gas turbine
c) Simultaneously with starting of gas turbine
d) At any time during the operation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Compressor has to be started before starting the gas turbine as the turbine work is used by
compressor.
3. Which of these is not a part of a Gas Turbine Plant?

a) Compressor
b) Gas Turbine
c) Combustion chamber
d) Boiler
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A Gas Turbine Plant has the following parts:
Compressor, Gas Turbine, Combustion chamber.
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4. What are the major field(s) of application of gas turbine?
a) Aviation
b) Oil and gas industry
c) Marine propulsion
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A Gas Turbine has applications in nearly all fields, the major ones being in the fields of
Aviation, Oil & Gas industry, Marine propulsion.
5. Which of the following is (are) the limitation(s) of gas turbines?
a) They are not self-starting
b) Higher rotor speeds
c) Low efficiencies at part loads
View Answer
Answer: d

Explanation: The limitations in the functioning of a Gas Turbines are inability of self-starting, excess rotor
speeds and inability to adjust to varying loads.
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6. The ratio of heat actually released by 1kg of fuel to heat that would be released by complete perfect
combustion is called ___________
a) Thermal efficiency
b) Combustion efficiency
c) Engine efficiency
d) Compression efficiency
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Combustion efficiency is defined as,” The ratio of heat actually released by 1kg of fuel to
heat that would be released by complete perfect combustion”.
7. What is the percentage of total energy input appearing as network output of the cycle?
a) Thermal efficiency
b) Combustion efficiency
c) Engine efficiency
d) Compression efficiency
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Thermal Efficiency is, “The percentage of total energy input appearing as network output of
the cycle”.
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8. Which of the following method(s) can be used to improve the thermal efficiency of open cycle gas
turbine plant?
a) Inter-cooling

b) Reheating
c) Regeneration
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The various methods to improve the efficiency of open cycles include intercooling the feed
water from the compressor to the turbine and then employing regeneration & reheat to just use the
power of the reheated water in order to maximize the power output.
9. Which of the following is (are) used as starter for a gas turbine?
a) An Internal combustion engine
b) A steam turbine
c) An auxiliary electric motor
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: There are various methods by which a Gas Turbine can be started, they are by the use of an
Internal Combustion engine, a steam turbine, an auxiliary electric motor, etc.
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10. Gas turbine is shut down by ____________
a) Turning off starter
b) Stopping the compressor
c) Fuel is cut off from the combustor
View Answer
Answer: c

Explanation: The only way to stop a running Gas turbine is by cutting off the fuel supply so that the
various processes in the cycle are stopped.
1. In gas turbine, intercooler is placed _____________
a) before low pressure compressor
b) in between low pressure compressor and high pressure compressor
c) in between high pressure compressor and turbine
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The various methods to improve the efficiency of open cycles include intercooling the feed
water from the compressor to the turbine and then employing regeneration & reheat to just use the
power of the reheated water in order to maximize the power output. Here, this is done by placing the
intercooler before any of the above processes.
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2. In gas turbine, what is the function of Re-heater?
a) Heat inlet air
b) Heat exhaust gases
c) Heat air coming out of compressor
d) Heat gases coming out of high pressure turbine
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In order to make a thermodynamic process of larger efficiency, it is shifted towards

isothermal behavior. For this, the output from re-generator, which is at a higher temperature is cooled
to the temperature which is mid-way between the two temperature ranges. Then, it is again heated to
the final temperature thereby increasing the efficiency of the cycle.
3. The ‘work ratio’ increases with _____________
a) increase in turbine inlet pressure

b) decrease in compressor inlet temperature
c) decrease in pressure ratio of the cycle
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The ‘work ratio’ increases when the turbine inlet pressure increases, the compressor inlet
temperature decreases, the pressure ratio of the cycle decreases.
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4. In the centrifugal compressor, total pressure varies _____________
a) directly as the speed ratio
b) square of speed ratio
c) cube of the speed ratio
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The total pressure in a centrifugal compressor is a function of speed ratio. It varies square
of the speed ratio.
5. The efficiency of multistage compressor is _____ than a single stage.
a) lower
b) higher
c) equal to
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The efficiency of multistage compressor is lower than a single stage.

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6. In centrifugal compressor, power input varies as _________
a) directly as the speed ratio
b) the square of speed ratio
c) the cube of the speed ratio
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Power output in a centrifugal compressor varies as the cube of the speed ratio.
7. In the ____________ heat transfer takes place between the exhaust gases and cool air.
a) Intercooler
b) Re-heater
c) Regenerator
d) Compressor
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The process of heat transfer between the exhaust gases and cool air takes place in
Regenerator.
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8. In centrifugal compressor, the diffuser converts _________
a) Kinetic energy into pressure energy
b) Pressure energy into Kinetic energy
c) Kinetic energy into Mechanical energy
d) Mechanical energy into Kinetic energy
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The diffuser of a centrifugal compressor converts Kinetic Energy into Pressure energy.
1. Which of these is a ‘fissile fuel’?
a) Thorium
b) Carbon
c) Potassium
d) Graphite
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A fissile fuel is one that is based on a sustained chain reaction with neutrons of any energy.
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2. Which of these is a ‘working fluid’ in liquid phase?
a) Water
b) Steam
c) Mercury
d) Oxygen
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The working fluid is water in liquid phase & steam in gas phase.
3. Which of these is an output of a ‘Furnace’?
a) Fuel gas
b) Air
c) Flue gases
d) Water Vapor

View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A furnace takes in a Fuel gas, Air & Water Vapour while it gives off Flue Gases.
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4. What kind of energy output is obtained from a ‘Steam Power Plant’?
a) Heat energy
b) Sound energy
c) Electricity
d) Thermal energy
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A ‘Steam Power Plant’ is used primarily for electricity generation.
5. What kind of a process does a ‘Steam Power Plant’ undergoes?
a) Adiabatic
b) Cyclic
c) Irreversible
d) Expansion
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As the internal energy change in the ‘Steam Power Plant’ is ZERO. Hence, the entire plant
obeys a Cyclic Process.
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6. Water that is fed back to the boiler by the pump is called?
a) Adsorbate

b) Absorbate
c) Condenset
d) Condensate
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The water feedback is from condenser & its called condensate.
7. The net change in internal energy in a steam power plant is?
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Zero
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As the steam power plant is based on a cyclic process. A cyclic process has a net change in
internal energy=0.
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8. The product of efficiency & heat transferred to the working fluid is?
a) Net temperature change
b) Net work done
c) Net enthalpy change
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The formula of efficiency of a steam power plant is,
Efficiency = net work done/net heat transferred
9. What are the components of a Steam Power Plant?

a) Evaporator, Condenser, Boiler, Expansion valve
b) Evaporator, Condenser, Boiler, Turbine
c) Boiler, Turbine, Condenser, Pump
d) Boiler, Turbine, Pump, Expansion valve
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A Steam Power Plant has the sequence,
Boiler, Turbine, Condenser, Pump.
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10. Shaft work is fed to __________ for getting an electrical output.
a) Motor
b) Generator
c) Rotor
d) Accelerator
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The flow in a Steam Power Plant follows the sequence,
Source-Shaft-Generator.
1. What is the unit of Heat rate?
a) kJ/KW
b) KW/kJ
c) kJ
d) KW
View Answer
Answer: a

Explanation: Heat rate is the rate of input required to produce unit shaft output.
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2. Rankine cycle operating on low pressure limit of p1 and high pressure limit of p2 ___________
a) has higher thermal efficiency than the Carnot cycle operating between same pressure limits
b) has lower thermal efficiency than Carnot cycle operating between same pressure limits
c) has same thermal efficiency as Carnot cycle operating between same pressure limits
d) may be more or less depending upon the magnitudes of p1 and p2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Area under P-V curve for Rankine will be more as compared to Carnot cycle.
3. Rankine efficiency of a Steam Power Plant ___________
a) improves in Summer as compared to that in Winter
b) improves in Winter as compared to that in Summer
c) is unaffected by climatic conditions
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In winters, the temperature of cooling water is low, which increases Condenser’s efficiency.
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4. Rankine cycle comprises of ___________
a) two isentropic processes and two constant volume processes
b) two isentropic processes and two constant pressure processes
c) two isothermal processes and two constant pressure processes
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Rankine cycle is a reversible cycle which have two constant pressure and two constant
temperature processes.
5. In Rankine cycle, the work output from the turbine is given by ___________
a) change of internal energy between inlet and outlet
b) change of enthalpy between inlet and outlet
c) change of entropy between inlet and outlet
d) change of temperature between inlet and outlet
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Work output(turbine) = h1 – h2.
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6. Which of the following contributes to the improvement of efficiency of Rankine cycle in a Thermal
Power Plant?
a) reheating of steam at intermediate stage
b) regeneration use of steam for heating Boiler feed water
c) use of high pressures
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The regenerative features effectively raise the nominal cycle heat input temperature, by
reducing the addition of heat from the Boiler/fuel source at the relatively low feedwater temperatures
that would exist without regenerative feedwater heating.
7. Match the following:
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i) Boiler A. reversible adiabatic expansion of steam
ii) turbine B. constant pressure heat heat addition
iii) Condenser C. reversible adiabatic compression
iv) pump D. constant pressure heat rejection
a) i-B ii-A iii-D iv-C
b) i-A ii-C iii-D iv-A
c) i-B ii-D iii-C iv-A
d) i-A ii-D iii-B iv-C
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Working fluid in Rankine cycle undergoes 4 processes, expansion in turbine, heat addition
in Boiler, heat rejection in Condenser and compression in pump.
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8. What is the actual turbine inlet temperature in Rankine cycle?
a) 700C
b) 800C
c) 550C
d) 1150C
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The TIT(Turbine Inlet Temperature) is of the range 500-570C.
9. Rankine cycle efficiency of a good Steam Power Plant may be in the range of?
a) 15 to 20%
b) 35 to 45%
c) 70 to 80%

d) 90 to 95%
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Efficiency of Rankine cycle in actual working condition is found to be between 35 to 45%.
10. A simple Rankine cycle operates the Boiler at 3 MPa with an outlet temperature of 350°C and the
Condenser at 50 kPa. Assuming ideal operation and processes, what is the thermal efficiency of this
cycle?
a) 7.7
b) 17.7
c) 27.7
d) 37.7
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Fixing the states; h1 = 340.5 kJ/kg, h2 = h1 + v1 (P2 – P1) = 343.5 kJ/kg, h3 = 3115.3 kJ/kg,
s3 = 6.7428 kJ/kg – K, x4 = 0.869, and h4 = 2343.9 kJ/kg. Thus, η = 1 – Qout / Qin = 1 – (h4 – h1) / (h3 –
h2) = 27.7%.
11. A simple Rankine cycle produces 40 MW of power, 50 MW of process heat and rejects 60 MW of
heat to the surroundings. What is the utilization factor of this co generation cycle neglecting the pump
work?
a) 50
b) 60
c) 70
d) 80
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Application of the first law to the entire cycle gives Qin = Qp + Qreject + W = 150 MW. The
utilization factor is then = (Qp + W) / Qin = 60%.

1. Enriched uranium is required as a fuel in a nuclear reactor, if light water is used as moderator and
coolant, because light water has
(A) High neutron absorption cross-section
(B) Low moderating efficiency
(C) High neutron scatter cross-section
(D) Low neutron absorption cross-section
Correct Answer
2. The efficiency of a nuclear power plant in comparison to conventional and nuclear consideration is
(A) Higher cost of nuclear fuel
(B) High initial cost
(C) High heat rejection in condenser
(D) Lower temperature and pressure conditions
Correct Answer
3. The control rods in the control system of nuclear reactors are used to
(A) Absorb excess neutrons
(B) Control fuel consumption
(C) Control temperature
(D) All of these
Correct Answer
4. Electron volt is the unit of
(A) Atomic power
(B) Energy
(C) Voltage
(D) Radio activity
Correct Answer
5. A moderator, in nuclear power plants, is a medium introduced into the fuel mass in order to
(A) Slow down the speed of fast moving neutrons
(B) Control the reaction
(C) Reduce the temperature

(D) Extracts heat from nuclear reaction
Correct Answer
6. One gram of uranium will produce energy equivalent to approximately
(A) 1 tonne of high grade coal
(B) 4.5 tonnes of high grade coal
(C) 10 tonnes of high grade coal
(D) 100 tonnes of high grade coal
Correct Answer
7. Which of the following type of pump is used in liquid metal cooled reactor for circulation of liquid
metal
(A) Centrifugal
(B) Axial
(C) Reciprocation
(D) Electromagnetic
Correct Answer
8. Where reactor operation is designed with fast neutrons such as in reactors using highly enriched fuel,
the moderator used is
(A) Heavy water
(B) Graphite
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) No moderator is needed
Correct Answer
9. The nuclear energy is measured as
(A) MeV
(B) Curie
(C) Farads
(D) MW
Correct Answer
10. Isotopes of same elements have

(A) Same atomic number and different masses
(B) Same chemical properties but different atomic numbers
(C) Different masses and different atomic numbers
(D) Different chemical properties and same atomic numbers
Correct Answer
11. A boiling water reactor uses following as fuel
(A) Enriched uranium
(B) Plutonium
(C) Thorium
(D) U
Correct Answer
12. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the features of a Breeder reactor?
(A) It produces more fuel than it consumes
(B) It requires highly enriched fuel
(C) It requires liquid sodium metal as moderator
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer
13. In nuclear fission each neutron that causes fission releases
(A) No new neutron
(B) At least one new neutron
(C) One new neutron
(D) More than one new neutron
Correct Answer
14. Artificial radioactive isotopes find application in
(A) Power generation
(B) Nucleonic devices
(C) Nuclear fission
(D) Medical field
Correct Answer

15. Each fission of U₂₃₅ produces on the average _________ fast neutrons as a product of reaction.
(A) 2.46
(B) 24.6
(C) 246
(D) 2460
Correct Answer
View All Answers
(1) Answer: Option B (2) Answer: Option D (3) Answer: Option A (4) Answer: Option B (5) Answer:
Option A (6) Answer: Option B (7) Answer: Option D (8) Answer: Option D (9) Answer: Option A (10)
Answer: Option B (11) Answer: Option A (12) Answer: Option D (13) Answer: Option D (14) Answer:
Option D (15) Answer: Option A
1. The process by which a heavy nucleus is spitted into two light nuclei is known as
(A) Splitting
(B) Fission
(C) Fusion
(D) Disintegration
Correct Answer
2. Which of the following is more appropriate for a moderator? One which
(A) Does not absorb neutrons
(B) Absorbs neutrons
(C) Accelerates neutrons
(D) Eats up neutrons
Correct Answer
3. A nuclear reactor is said to be critical when the neutron population in the reactor core is
(A) Rapidly increasing leading to the point of explosion
(B) Decreasing from the specified value
(C) Reduced to zero
(D) Constant
Correct Answer

4. The most commonly used moderator in nuclear plants is
(A) Heavy water
(B) Concrete and bricks
(C) Graphite and concrete
(D) Graphite
Correct Answer
5. Reactors for propulsion applications are designed for
(A) Any form of uranium
(B) Natural uranium
(C) Enriched uranium
(D) Plutonium
Correct Answer
6. The following present serious difficulty in designing reactor shield
(A) Alpha particles
(B) Beta particles
(C) Thermal neutrons
(D) Fast neutrons and gamma rays
Correct Answer
7. Ferrite material is
(A) The most fissionable material
(B) The basic fuel for nuclear paints
(C) Basic raw material for nuclear plants
(D) The material which absorbs neutrons and undergoes spontaneous changes leading to the formation
of fissionable material
Correct Answer
8. Reflector in nuclear power plants _________ neutron leakage.
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Have no effect on

(D) None of these
Correct Answer
9. Effective moderators are those materials which contain
(A) Light weight atoms
(B) Heavy weight atoms
(C) Critical atoms
(D) Zero weight atoms
Correct Answer
10. The fuel needed, with reflector in nuclear power plant, in order to generate sufficient neutrons to
sustain a chain reaction, would be
(A) More
(B) Less
(C) Same
(D) Zero
Correct Answer
11. Nuclear reactors are used
(A) To produce heat for thermoelectric power
(B) To produce fissionable material
(C) To propel ships, submarines, aircrafts
(D) All of these
Correct Answer
12. The main interest of shielding in nuclear reactor is protection against
(A) X-rays
(B) Infrared rays
(C) Neutrons and gamma rays
(D) Electrons
Correct Answer
13. Breeder reactors employ liquid metal coolant because it
(A) Acts as good moderator

(B) Produces maximum steam
(C) Transfers heat from core at a fast rate
(D) Breeds neutrons
Correct Answer
14. The coolant used in boiling water reactor is
(A) CO2
(B) Pressurised water
(C) Mixture of water and steam
(D) Liquid metal
Correct Answer
15. A moderator
(A) Absorbs neutrons
(B) Does not absorb neutrons
(C) Accelerates neutrons
(D) None of these
Correct Answer
View All Answers
(1) Answer: Option B (2) Answer: Option A (3) Answer: Option D (4) Answer: Option D (5) Answer:
Option C (6) Answer: Option D (7) Answer: Option D (8) Answer: Option B (9) Answer: Option A (10)
Answer: Option B (11) Answer: Option D (12) Answer: Option D (13) Answer: Option C (14) Answer:
Option C (15) Answer: Option B
1. A nuclear fission is initiated when the critical energy as compared to neutron binding energy of the
atoms is
(A) Same
(B) More
(C) Less
(D) There is no such criterion
Correct Answer
2. In a thermal power plant, coal from the coal handling plant is moved to the boiler bunker through a

(A) Belt conveyor
(B) Bucket conveyor
(C) Fork lift truck
(D) Overhead crane
Correct Answer
3. In the breeder reactors the generation of new fissionable atom is
(A) At the lower rate than the consumption
(B) At a higher rate than the consumption
(C) At an equal rate of the consumption
(D) Depends on other considerations
Correct Answer
4. The most practical fuel for a thermonuclear reactor, both from economical and nuclear consideration
is
(A) Plutonium
(B) Uranium
(C) Deuterium
(D) Thorium
Correct Answer
5. A power plant giving least running cost of production of electrical power is
(A) Steam power plant
(B) Gas turbine power plant
(C) Hydro electric power plant
(D) Nuclear power plant
Correct Answer
6. The breeding gain in case of thermal breeder reactor as compared to fast breeder reactor is
(A) Same
(B) Lower
(C) Higher
(D) Unity

Correct Answer
7. The energy produced by a thermal reactor of same size as a breeder reactor is
(A) Almost same
(B) Slightly more
(C) Slightly less
(D) Much less
Correct Answer
8. Which of the following nuclear reactor does not need a heat exchanger for generation of steam?
(A) Gas cooled
(B) Liquid metal cooled
(C) Pressurised water
(D) Boiling water
Correct Answer
9. Reactors designed for propulsion applications are designed for
(A) Natural uranium
(B) Enriched uranium
(C) Pure uranium
(D) Any type of uranium
Correct Answer
10. The primary fuel used in nuclear power plants is
(A) U₂₃₅
(B) U₂₃₈
(C) Pu₂₃₉
(D) Pu₂₃₃
Correct Answer
11. In natural uranium, the constituents of three naturally occurring isotopes are
(A) U₂₃₄ = 0.006%, U₂₃₅ = 0.712% and U₂₃₈ = 99.282%
(B) U₂₃₄ = 0.712%, U₂₃₅ = 0.006% and U₂₃₈ = 99.282%
(C) U₂₃₄ = 99.282%, U₂₃₅ = 0.006% and U₂₃₈ = 0.712%

(D) U₂₃₄ = 0.006%, U₂₃₅ = 99.282% and U₂₃₈ = 0.712%
Correct Answer
12. The commonly used material for shielding is
(A) Lead or concrete
(B) Lead and tin
(C) Graphite or cadmium
(D) Thick galvanized sheets
Correct Answer
13. When a reactor becomes critical, then the production of neutrons is
(A) Infinite
(B) Zero
(C) Exactly balanced by the loss of neutrons through leakage
(D) Initiated
Correct Answer
14. A nuclear unit becoming critical means
(A) It is generating power to rated capacity
(B) It is capable of generating much more than rated capacity
(C) There is danger of nuclear spread
(D) Chain reaction that causes automatic splitting of the fuel nuclei has been established
Correct Answer
15. The predominant isotope of the naturally occurring element is
(A) U₂₃₅
(B) U₂₃₈
(C) Pu₂₃₃
(D) Pu₂₃₉
Correct Answer
View All Answers
(1) Answer: Option B (2) Answer: Option A (3) Answer: Option B (4) Answer: Option C (5) Answer: Option
D (6) Answer: Option B (7) Answer: Option D (8) Answer: Option D (9) Answer: Option B (10) Answer:

Option A (11) Answer: Option A (12) Answer: Option A (13) Answer: Option C (14) Answer: Option D (15)
Answer: Option B
1. The material most commonly used for shielding is
(A) Carbon
(B) Lead
(C) Concrete
(D) All of these
Correct Answer
2. Reactors for propulsion applications use
(A) Natural uranium
(B) Molten lead
(C) Any form of uranium
(D) Thorium
Correct Answer
3. The presence of reflector in nuclear power plants results in
(A) Increased production of neutrons
(B) Complete absorption of neutrons
(C) Controlled production of neutrons
(D) Decreased leakage of neutrons
Correct Answer
4. Gas cooled reactor uses following materials as moderator, and coolant
(A) Graphite, CO2
(B) Graphite, air
(C) Heavy water, CO2
(D) Lead, H2
Correct Answer
5. A moderator generally used in nuclear power plants is
(A) Graphite

(B) Heavy water
(C) Concrete
(D) Graphite and concrete
Correct Answer
6. Which of the following particles is the lightest?
(A) Nucleus
(B) Electron
(C) Proton
(D) Meson
Correct Answer
7. The mass number of a substance represents the sum of total number of
(A) Protons and neutrons in an atom
(B) Protons and electrons in an atom
(C) Neutrons and electrons in an atom
(D) Protons and neutrons in a nucleus
Correct Answer
8. A moderator, apart from its high neutron slowing power, and low non-productive neutron, should be
(A) Stable under nuclear radiation
(B) Corrosion resistant
(C) Good thermal conductor
(D) All of these
Correct Answer
9. A pressurized water reactor employs pressurizes for the following application
(A) To maintain constant pressure in primary circuit under varying load
(B) To Supply high pressure steam
(C) To increase pressure of water in primary circuit
(D) To provide sub cooled water at high pressure
Correct Answer
10. Pressurized water reactor is designed

(A) For boiling pi water in the core
(B) To use liquid sodium metal as coolant
(C) To use intermediate coolant
(D) To prevent the water coolant from boiling in the core
Correct Answer
11. Which of the following are ferrite materials?
(A) U₂₃₃ and Pu₂₃₉
(B) U
(C) U₂₃₈ and Pu₂₃₉
(D) U₂₃₈ and Th₂₃₉
Correct Answer
12. The secondary fuel used in nuclear power plants is
(A) U₂₃₃ and Pu₂₃₉
(B) U₂₃₅ and Th₂₃₂
(C) U₂₃₅ and Pu₂₃₈
(D) U₂₃₃ and Pu₂₃₈
Correct Answer
13. Atomic number of an element in the periodic table represents the numbers of
(A) Protons in the nucleus
(B) Electrons in the nucleus
(C) Neutrons in the nucleus
(D) Electrons in the atom
Correct Answer
14. Pick up the wrong statement fast breeder reactors
(A) Operate at extremely high power densities
(B) Are liquid metal cooled
(C) Produce more fuel than they consume
(D) Use water as coolant
Correct Answer

15. The nuclear radiators produced in a reactor which must be shielded are
(A) Electrons
(B) α, β and γ rays
(C) Neutron and gamma rays
(D) None of these
Correct Answer
View All Answers
(1) Answer: Option C (2) Answer: Option B (3) Answer: Option D (4) Answer: Option A (5) Answer:
Option D (6) Answer: Option B (7) Answer: Option D (8) Answer: Option D (9) Answer: Option A (10)
Answer: Option D (11) Answer: Option B (12) Answer: Option A (13)Answer: Option A (14) Answer:
Option D (15) Answer: Option C
1. Breeder reactor has a conversion ratio of
(A) Unity
(B) More than unity
(C) Less than unity
(D) Zero
Correct Answer
2. In triggering fission, the following types of neutrons are desirable
(A) Fast moving
(B) Slow moving
(C) Critical neutrons
(D) Neutrons at rest
Correct Answer
3. Plutonium (Pu₂₃₉) is produced
(A) Artificially
(B) By fission of Th₂₃₂
(C) When U₂₃₈ is irradiated by neutrons
(D) As basic raw material
Correct Answer

4. In order to have constant chain reaction to produce a constant rate of heat output, the value of ratio
of the number of neutrons in one generation to the number of neutrons in the immediately preceding
generation must be
(A) Greater than 1.0
(B) Less than 1.0
(C) Equal to zero
(D) Equal to 1.0
Correct Answer
5. A fast breeder reactor
(A) Uses graphite rods as moderator
(B) Has powerful moderator
(C) Has no moderator
(D) Uses ferrite material as moderator
Correct Answer
6. The energy required to be applied to a radioactive nucleus for the emission of a neutron is
(A) 1 MeV
(B) 2.4 MeV
(C) 4.3 MeV
(D) 7.8 MeV
Correct Answer
7. Which is not identical for an atom and an isotope?
(A) Mass number
(B) Atomic number
(C) Chemical properties
(D) Position in periodic table
Correct Answer
8. Natural uranium is made up of
(A) 99.282% U₂₃₈, 0.712% U₂₃₅, 0.006% U₂₃₄
(B) 99.282% U₂₃₅, 0.712% U₂₃₈, 0.06%' U₂₃₄

(C) 99.282% U₂₃₄, 0.712% U₂₃₈, 0.006% U₂₃₅
(D) 99.282% U₂₃₅, 0.712% U₂₃₄, 0.006% U₂₃₈
Correct Answer
9. In a fission process, maximum percentage of energy is released as
(A) Kinetic energy of neutrons
(B) Kinetic energy of fission products
(C) Instantaneous release of gamma rays
(D) Gradual radioactive decay of fission products
Correct Answer
10. A fast breeder reactor uses
(A) 90% U₂₃₅
(B) U₂₃₈
(C) U₂₃₅
(D) Pu₂₃₉
Correct Answer
11. Amongst the following, the fissionable materials are
(A) U₂₃₃ and Pu₂₂₉
(B) U₂₃₁ and Pu₂₃₃
(C) U₂₃₅ and Pu₂₃₅
(D) U₂₃₈ and Pu₂₃₉
Correct Answer
12. The total energy released in fission of U is
(A) 5 MeV
(B) 10 MeV
(C) 199 MeV
(D) 168 MeV
Correct Answer
13. Fast breeder reactor uses
(A) Boiler

(B) Direct cycle of coolant system
(C) Double circuit system of coolant cycle
(D) Multi passes system
Correct Answer
14. Which of the following is the heaviest?
(A) Neutron
(B) Proton
(C) Atom
(D) Electron
Correct Answer
15. A nuclear fission produces energy of following order in MeV
(A) 20
(B) 200
(C) 2000
(D) 20,000
Correct Answer
View All Answers
(1) Answer: Option B (2) Answer: Option B (3) Answer: Option C (4) Answer: Option D (5) Answer: Option
C (6) Answer: Option D (7) Answer: Option A (8) Answer: Option A (9) Answer: Option B (10) Answer:
Option A (11) Answer: Option A (12) Answer: Option C (13) Answer: Option C (14) Answer: Option C (15)
Answer: Option B
1. In triggering fission, which types of neutrons are more effective?
(A) Fast
(B) Slow
(C) In bulk
(D) Static
Correct Answer
2. For economical operation of a nuclear plant
(A) Used fuel should be reprocessed

(B) Moderator should be used
(C) Coolant should be employed
(D) Control rods should be used
Correct Answer
3. The size of the reactor is said to be critical when
(A) Chain reaction can be initiated
(B) It becomes uncontrollable
(C) It explodes
(D) It produces no power
Correct Answer
4. Superheated steam is generated in following reactor
(A) Boiling water
(B) Gas cooled
(C) Pressurised water
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer
5. In nuclear fission
(A) The original elements change into completely different elements
(B) The electrons of the element change
(C) The molecules rearrange themselves to form other molecules
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer
6. A fast breeder reactor uses following as fuel
(A) Enriched uranium
(B) Plutonium
(C) Thorium
(D) U₂₃₅
Correct Answer
7. Half life of a radioactive isotope corresponds to the time required for half of the following to decay

(A) Electrons
(B) Protons
(C) Neutrons
(D) Atom
Correct Answer
8. In boiling water reactor, moderator is
(A) Coolant itself
(B) Ferrite rod
(C) Graphite rod
(D) Liquid sodium metal
Correct Answer
View All Answers
(1) Answer: Option B (2) Answer: Option A (3) Answer: Option A (4) Answer: Option B (5) Answer: Option
A (6) Answer: Option D (7) Answer: Option D (8) Answer: Option A
1. The fast breeder reactor uses the following moderator
(A) Demineralised water
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Heavy water
(D) No moderator is used
Correct Answer
2. Boiling water reactor uses the following as moderator, coolant and working fluid
(A) Ordinary fluid
(B) Heavy water
(C) Molten lead
(D) Hydrogen gas
Correct Answer
3. Ideally the neutron flux in reactor should be
(A) Maximum in centre and zero at side

(B) Maximum at side and zero in canter
(C) Uniform throughout
(D) Zero throughout
Correct Answer
4. Enriched uranium may contain fissionable contents of the order of
(A) 1-99%
(B) 1-25%
(C) 1-50%
(D) 1-75%
Correct Answer
5. U235 will undergo fission by
(A) High energy (fast) neutrons alone
(B) Low energy (slow) neutrons alone
(C) Either fast or slow neutrons
(D) Medium energy neutrons
Correct Answer
6. U238 will undergo fission by
(A) High energy (fast) neutrons alone
(B) Low energy (slow) neutrons alone
(C) Either fast or slow neutrons
(D) Medium energy neutrons
Correct Answer
7. A reactor capable of converting a ferrite material into fissile isotopes is called
(A) Regenerative reactor
(B) Fast breeder reactor
(C) Breeder reactor
(D) Boiling water reactor
Correct Answer
8. Hydrogen is preferred as better coolant in comparison to CO₂ because former

(A) Is lighter
(B) Is inert
(C) Has high specific heat
(D) Is a good conductor
Correct Answer
9. The risk of radioactive hazard is greatest in the turbine with following reactor
(A) Pressurised water
(B) Boiling water
(C) Gas cooled
(D) Liquid metal cooled
Correct Answer
10. Plutonium is produced
(A) As basic raw material
(B) By neutron irradiation of Uz
(C) By neutron irradiation of thorium
(D) Artificially
Correct Answer
11. The unit of radioactivity is
(A) Electron volt
(B) Electron ampere
(C) Curie
(D) MV
Correct Answer
12. U233 is produced
(A) As basic raw material
(B) By neutron irradiation of Uz
(C) By neutron irradiation of thorium
(D) Artificially
Correct Answer

13. Plutonium (Pu239) is produced
(A) Artificially
(B) When U238 is irradiated by neutrons
(C) By fission of Th232
(D) As basic raw material
Correct Answer
14. Which of the following is the primary fuel?
(A) U₂₃₃
(B) U
(C) U₂₃₈
(D) Pu
Correct Answer
15. Which of the following can be used as a coolant in nuclear plant?
(A) Light or heavy water
(B) Molten lead
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Freon
Correct Answer
View All Answers
(1) Answer: Option D (2) Answer: Option A (3) Answer: Option C (4) Answer: Option A (5) Answer:
Option C (6) Answer: Option A (7) Answer: Option A (8) Answer: Option C (9) Answer: Option B (10)
Answer: Option B (11) Answer: Option C (12) Answer: Option C (13) Answer: Option B (14) Answer:
Option B (15) Answer: Option A
1. The commercial sources of energy are
(a) solar, wind and biomass
(b) fossil fuels, hydropower and nuclear energy
(c) wood, animal wastes and agriculture wastes
(d) none of the above

Ans: b
2. Compounding of steam turbine is done for
(a) reducing the work done
(b) increasing the rotor speed
(c) reducing the rotor speed
(d) balancing the turbine
Ans: c
3. In India largest thermal power station is located at
(a) Kota
(b) Sarni
(c) Chandrapur
(d) Neyveli
Ans: c
4. The percentage O2 by Veight in atmospheric air is
(a) 18%
(b) 23%
(c) 77%
(d) 79%
Ans: b

5. The percentage 02 by volume in atmosphere air is
(a) 21%
(b) 23%
(c) 77%
(d) 79%
Ans: a
6. The proper indication of incomplete combustion is
(a) high CO content in flue gases at exit
(b) high CO2 content in flue gases at exit
(c) high temperature of flue gases
(d) the smoking exhaust from chimney
Ans: a
7. The main source of production of biogas is
(a) human waste
(b) wet cow dung
(c) wet livestock waste
(d) all above
Ans: d
8. India’s first nuclear power plant was installed at

(a) Tarapore
(b) Kota
(c) Kalpakkam
Ans: a
9. In fuel cell, the ______ energy is converted into electrical energy.
(a) mechanical
(b) chemical
(c) heat
(d) sound
Ans: b
10. Solar thermal power generation can be achieved by
(a) using focusing collector or heliostates
(b) using flat plate collectors
(c) using a solar pond
(d) any of the above system
Ans: d
11. The energy radiated by sun on a bright sunny day is approximately
(a) 700 W/m2

(b) 800 W/m2
(c) 1 kW/m2
(d) 2 kW/m2
Ans: c
12. Thorium Breeder Reactors are most suitable for India because
(a) these develop more power
(b) its technology is simple
(c) abundance of thorium deposits are available in India
(d) these can be easily designed
Ans: c
13. The overall efficiency of thermal power plant is equal to
(a) Rankine cycle efficiency
(b) Carnot cycle efficiency
(c) Regenerative cycle efficiency
(d) Boiler efficiency x turbine efficiency x generator efficiency
Ans: c
14. Rankine cycle efficiency of a good steam power plant may be in the range of
(a) 15 to 20 percent
(6) 35 to 45 percent
(c) 70 to 80 percent

(d) 90 to 95 percent
Ans: b
15. Rankine cycle operating on low pressure limit of pi an 1 high pressure limit of p2
(a) has higher the rnal efficiency than the carnot cycie operating between same pressure limits
(b) has lower the”nal efficiency than carnot cycle operating between same pressure limit?
(c) has same thermal efficiency as carnot cycle operating between same pressure limits
(d) may be more or less depending upon the magnitude ofpi and/>2
Ans: a
16. Rankine efficiency of a steam power plant
(a) improves in summer as compared to that in winter
(6) improves in winter as compared to that in summer
(c) is unaffected by climatic conditions
Ans: b
17. Carnot cycle comprises of
(a) two isentropic processes and two constant volume processes
(b) two isentropic processes and two constant pressure processes
(e) two isothermal processes and three constant pressure processes

Ans: b
18. In Rankine cycle the work output from the turbine is given by
(a) change of internal energy between inlet and outlet
(b) change of enthaply between inlet and outlet
(c) change of entropy between inlet and outlet
(d) change of temperature between inlet and outlet
Ans: b
19. Regenerative cycle thermal efficiency
(a) is always greater than simple Rankine thermal efficiency
(b) is greater than simple Rankine cycle thermal efficiency only when steam is bled at particular
pressure
(c) is same as simple Rankine cycle thermal efficiency
(d) is always less than simple Rankine cycle thermal efficiency
Ans: a
20. In a regenerative feed heating cycle, the optimum value of the fraction of steam extracted for feed
heating
(a) decreases with increase in Rankine cycle efficiency
(b) increases with increase in Rankine cycle efficiency
(c) is unaffected by increase in Rankine cycle efficiency

Ans: b
21. In a regenerative feed heating cycle, the greatest economy is affected
(a) when steam is extracted from only one suitable point of steam turbine
(b) when steam is extracted from several places in different stages of steam turbine
(c) when steam is extracted only from the last stage of steam turbine
(d) when steam is extracted only from the first stage of steam turbine
Ans: b
22. The maximum percentage gain in Regenerative feed heating cycle thermal efficiency
(a) increases with number of feed heaters increasing
(b) decreases with number of feed heaters increasing
(c) remains same unaffected by number of feed heaters
Ans: a
23. In regenerative cycle feed water is heated by
(a) exhaust gases
(b) heaters
(c) draining steam from the turbine
(d) all above
Ans: c

24. Reheat cycle in steam power plant is used to
(a) utilise heat of flue gases
(b) increase thermal efficiency
(c) improve condenser performance
(d) reduce loss of heat
Ans: b
25. Mercury is a choice with steam in binary vapour cycle because it has
(a) higher critical temperature and pressure
(b) higher saturation temperature than other fluids
(c) relatively low vapourisation pressure
(d) all above
Ans: d
26. Binary’vapour cycles are used to
(a) increase the performance of the condenser
(b) increase the efficiency of the plant
(c) increase efficiency of the turbine
Ans: b
27. A steam power station requires space
(a) equal to diesel power station

(b) more than diesel power station
(c) less than diesel power station
Ans: b
28. Economiser is used to heat
(a) air
(b) feed water
(c) flue gases
(d) all above
Ans: b
29. The modern steam turbines are
(a) impulse turbines
(b) reaction turbines
(c) impulse-reaction turbines
Ans: c
30. The draught which a chimney produces is called
(a) induced draught
(b) natural draught
(c) forced draught
(d) balanced draught

Ans: b
31. The draught produced by steel chimney as compared to that produced by brick chimney for the
same height is
(a) less
(b) more
(c) same
(d) may be more or less
Ans: b
32. In a boiler installation the natural draught is produced
(a) due to the fact that furnace gases being light go through the chimney giving place to cold air from
outside to rush in
(b) due to the fact that pressure at the grate due to cold column is higher than the pressure at the
chimney base due to hot column
(c) due to the fact that at the chimney top the pressure is more than its environmental pressure
(d) all of the above
Ans: b
33. The draught produced, for a given height of the chimney and given mean temperature of chimney
gases
(a) decreases with increase in outside air temperature
(b) increases with increase in outside air temperature
(c) remains the same irrespective of outside air temperature

(d) may increase or decrease with increase in outside air temperature
Ans: a
34. The draught produced by chimney of given height at given outside temperature
(a) decreases if the chimney gas temperature increases
(b) increases if the chimney gas temperature increases
(c) remains same irrespective of chimney gas temperature
(d) may increase or decrease
Ans: b
35. For forced draught system, the function of chimney is mainly
(a) to produce draught to accelerate the combustion of fuel
(b) to discharge gases high up in the atmosphere to avoid hazard
(c) to reduce the temperature of the hot gases discharged
Ans: b
36. Artificial draught is produced by
(a) induced fan
(b) forced fan
(c) induced and forced fan

Ans: d
37. The draught in locomotive boilers is produced by
(a) forced fan
(b) chimney
(c) steam jet
(d) only motion of locomotive
Ans: c
38. For the same draught produced the power of induced draught fan as compared to forced draught
fan is
(a) less
(b) more
(c) same
(d) not predictable
Ans: b
39. Artificial draught is produced by
(a) air fans
(b) steam jet
(c) fan or steam jet
Ans: d

40. The artificial draught normally is designed to produce
(a) less smoke
(b) more draught
(c) less chimney gas temperature
Ans: d
41. For the induced draught the fan is located
(a) near bottom of chimney
(b) near bottom of furnace
(c) at the top of the chimney
(D) anywhere permissible
Ans: a
42. The pressure at the furnace is minimum in case of
(a) forced draught system
(b) induced draught system
(c) balanced draught system
(d) natural draught system
Ans: c
43. The efficiency of chimney is approximately

(a) 80%
(b) 40%
(c) 20%
(d) 0.25%
Ans: d
44. The isentropic expansion of steam through nozzle for the steam initially superheated at inlet is
approximated by equation
(a) pvls=C
(b) pv1126 = C
(c) pv1A = C
(d) pv = C
Ans: a
45. The ratio of exit pressure to inlet pressure for maximum mass flow rate per unit area of steam
through a nozzle when steam is initially dry saturated is
(a) 0.6
(6) 0.578
(c) 0.555
(d) 0.5457
Ans: b
46. The ratio of exit pressure to inlet pressure of maximum mass flow rate per area of steam through a
nozzle when steam is initially superheated is

(a) 0.555
(b) 0.578
(c) 0.5457
(d) 0.6
Ans: c
47. The critical pressure ratio of a convergent nozzle is defined as
(a) the ratio of outlet pressure to inlet pressure of nozzle
(b) the ratio of inlet pressure to outlet pressure of nozzle
(c) the ratio of outlet pressure to inlet pressure only when mass flow rate per unit area is minimum
(d) the ratio of outlet pressure to inlet pressure only when mass flow rate = c
Ans: d
48. The isentropic expansion of steam through nozzle for the steam initially dry saturated at inlet is
approximated by equation.
(a)pv = C
(b)pv1A = C
(c)pv1i = C
(d)pv
Ans: d
49. The effect of considering friction losses in steam nozzle for the same pressure ratio leads to

(a) increase in exit velocity from the nozzle
(6) decrease in exit velocity from the nozzle
(c) no change in exit velocity from the nozzle
(d) increase or decrease depending upon the exit quality of steam
Ans: b
50. The effect of considering friction in steam nozzles for the same pressure ratio leads to
(a) increase in dryness fraction of exit steam
(b) decrease in dryness fraction of exit steam
(c) no change in the quality of exit steam
(d) decrease or increase of dryness fraction of exit steam depending upon inlet quality
Ans: a
51. In case of impulse steam turbine
(a) there is enthalpy drop in fixed and moving blades
(b) there is enthalpy drop only in moving blades
(c) there is enthalpy drop in nozzles
Ans: c
52. The pressure on the two sides of the impulse wheel of a steam turbine
(a) is same
(b) is different

(c) increases from one side to the other side
(d) decreases from one side to the other side
Ans: a
53. In De Laval steam turbine
(a) the pressure in the turbine rotor is approximately same as in con¬denser
(b) the pressure in the turbine rotor is higher than pressure in the con¬denser
(c) the pressure in the turbine rotor gradually decreases from inlet to exit from condenser
(d) none from the above
Ans: a
54. Incase of reaction steam turbine
(a) there is enthalpy drop both in fixed and moving blades
(b) there is enthalpy drop only in fixed blades
(c) there is enthalpy drop only in moving blades
Ans: a
55. Curtis turbine is
(a) reaction steam turbine
(b) pressure velocity compounded steam turbine
(c) pressure compounded impulse steam turbine
(d) velocity compounded impulse steam turbine

Ans: b
56. Rateau steam turbine is
(a) reaction steam turbine
(b) velocity compounded impulse steam turbine
(c) pressure compounded impulse steam turbine
(d) pressure velocity compounded steam turbine
Ans: c
57. Parson’s turbine is
(a) pressure compounded steam turbine
(b) simple single wheel, impulse steam turbine
(c) simple single wheel reaction steam turbine
(d) multi wheel reaction steam turbine
Ans: d
58. For Parson’s reaction steam turbine, degree of reaction is
(a) 75%
(b) 100%
(c) 50%
(d) 60%
Ans: c

59. Reheat factor in steam turbines depends on
(a) exit pressure only
(b) stage efficiency only
(c) initial pressures and temperature only
Ans: c
60. The value of reheat factor normally varies from
(a) 0.5 to 0.6
(b) 0.9 to 0.95
(c) 1.02 to 1.06
(d) 1.2 to 1.6
Ans: c
61. Steam turbines are governed by the following methods
(a) Throttle governing
(b) Nozzle control governing
(c) By-pass governing
Ans: d
62. In steam turbines the reheat factor

(a) increases with the increase in number of stages
(b) decreases with the increase in number of stages
(c) remains same irrespective of number of stages
Ans: a
63. The thermal efficiency of the engine with condenser as compared to without condenser, for a
given pressure and temperature of steam, is
(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) same as long as initial pressure and temperature is unchanged
Ans: a
64. In jet type condensers
(a) cooling water passes through tubes and steam surrounds them
(b) steam passes through tubes and cooling water surrounds them
(c) steam and cooling water mix
(d) steam and cooling water do not mix
Ans: c
65. In a shell and tube surface condenser

(a) steam and cooling water mix to give the condensate
(b) cooling water passes through the tubes and steam surrounds them
(c) steam passes through the cooling tubes and cooling water surrounds them
(d) all of the above varying with situation
Ans: b
66. In a surface condenser if air is removed, there is
(a) fall in absolute pressure maintained in condenser
(b) rise in absolute pressure maintained in condenser
(c) no change in absolute pressure in the condenser
(d) rise in temperature of condensed steam
Ans: a
67. The cooling section in the surface condenser
(a) increases the quantity of vapour extracted along with air
(b) reduces the quantity of vapour extracted along with air
(c) does not affect vapour quantity extracted but reduces pump capacity of air extraction pump
Ans: b
68. Edward’s air pump
(a) removes air and also vapour from condenser
(b) removes only air from condenser

(c) removes only un-condensed vapour from condenser
(d) removes air alongwith vapour and also the condensed water from condenser
Ans: d
69. In a steam power plant, the function of a condenser is
(a) to maintain pressure below atmospheric to increase work output from the primemover
(b) to receive large volumes of steam exhausted from steam prime mover
(c) to condense large volumes of steam to water which may be used again in boiler
Ans: d
70. In a regenerative surface condenser
(a) there is one pump to remove air and condensate
(b) there are two pumps to remove air and condensate
(c) there are three pumps to remove air, vapour and condensate
(d) there is no pump, the condensate gets removed by gravity
Ans: b
71. Evaporative type of condenser has
(a) steam in pipes surrounded by water
(b) water in pipes surrounded by steam
(c) either (a) or (b)

Ans: a
72. Pipes carrying steam are generally made up of
(a) steel
(b) cast iron
(c) copper
(d) aluminium
Ans: a
73. For the safety of a steam boiler the number of safety valves fitted are
(a) four
(b) three
(c) two
(d) one
Ans: c
74. Steam turbines commonly used in steam power station are
(a) condensing type
(b) non-condensing type
(c) none of the above
Ans: a

75. Belt conveyer can be used to transport coal at inclinations upto
(a) 30°
(b) 60°
(c) 80°
(d) 90°
Ans: a
76. The maximum length of a screw conveyer is about
(a) 30 metres
(b) 40 metres
(c) 60 metres
(d) 100 metres
Ans: a
77. The efficiency of a modern boiler using coal and heat recovery equipment is about
(a) 25 to 30%
(b) 40 to 50%
(c) 65 to 70%
(d) 85 to 90%
Ans: d
78. The average ash content in Indian co als is about

(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 15%
(d) 20%
Ans: d
79. Load centre in a power station is
(a) centre of coal fields
(b) centre of maximum load of equip-ments
(c) centre of gravity of electrical system
Ans: c
80. Steam pressure in a steam power station, which is usually kept now-a-days is of the order of
(a) 20 kgf/cm2
(b) 50 kgf/cm2
(c) 100 kgf/cm2
(d) 150 kgf/cm2
Ans: d
81. Economisers improve boiler efficiency by
(a) 1 to 5%
(b) 4 to 10%
(c) 10 to 12%

Ans: b
82. The capacity of large turbo-generators varies from
(a) 20 to 100 MW
(b) 50 to 300 MW
(c) 70 to 400 MW
(d) 100 to 650 MW
Ans: b
83. Caking coals are those which
(a) burn completely
(b) burn freely
(c) do not form ash
(d) form lumps or masses of coke
Ans: d
84. Primary air is that air which is used to
(a) reduce the flame length
(b) increase the flame length
(c) transport and dry the coal
(d) provide air around burners for getting optimum combustion
Ans: c

85. Secondary air is the air used to
(a) reduce the flame length
(b) increase the flame length
(c) transport and dry the coal
(d) provide air round the burners for getting optimum combustion
Ans: d
86. In coal preparation plant, magnetic separators are used to remove
(a) dust
(b) clinkers
(c) iron particles
(d) sand
Ans: c
87. Load carrying capacity of belt conveyor is about
(a) 20 to 40 tonnes/hr
(b) 50 to 100 tonnes/hr
(c) 100 to 150 tonnes/hr
(d) 150 to 200 tonnes/hr
Ans: b
88. Method which is commonly applied for unloading the coal for small power plant is

(a) lift trucks
(b) coal accelerators
(c) tower cranes
(d) belt conveyor
Ans: b
89. Bucket elevators are used for
(a) carrying coal in horizontal direction
(b) carrying coal in vertical direction
(c) carrying coal in any direction
Ans: b
90. The amount of air which is supplied for complete combustion is called
(a) primary air
(b) secondary air
(c) tertiary air
Ans: b
91. In ______ system fuel from a central pulverizing unit is delivered to a bunker and then to the
various burners
(a) unit
(b) central

(c) none of the above
Ans: b
92. Under-feed stokers work best for _______ coals high in volatile matter and with caking tendency
(a) anthracite
(b) lignite
(c) semibituminous and bituminous
Ans: c
93. Example of overfeed type stoker is
(a) chain grate
(b) spreader
(c) travelling grate
Ans: d
94. Where unpulverised coal has to be used and boiler capacity is large, the stoker which is used is
(a) underfeed stoker
(b) overfeed stoker
(c) any
Ans: b

95. TravelUng grate stoker can burn coals at the rates of
(a) 50—75 kg/m per hour
(b) 75—100 kg/m per hour
(c) 100—150 kg/m per hour
(d) 150—200 kg/m2 per hour
Ans: d
96. Blowing down of boiler water is the process
(a) to reduce the boiler pressure
(b) to increase the steam temperature
(c) to control the solid concentration in the boiler water by removing some of the concentrated saline
water
Ans: c
97. Deaerative heating is done to
(a) heat the water
(b) heat the air in the water
(c) remove dissolved gases in the water
Ans: c
98. Reheat factor is the ratio of

(a) isentropic heat drop to useful heat drop
(b) adiabatic heat drop to isentropic heat drop
(c) cumulative actual enthalpy drop for the stages to total is isentropic enthalpy heat drop
Ans: c
99. The value of the reheat factor is of the order of
(a) 0.8 to 1.0
(b) 1.0 to 1.05
(c) 1.1 to 1.5
(d) above 1.5
Ans: c
100. Compounding of steam turbine is done for
(a) reducing the work done
(b) increasing the rotor speed
(c) reducing the rotor speed
(d) balancing the turbine
Ans: c
1. in steam power plant which of the following component needs more maintenance:
a) Condenser
b) Boiler
c) Turbine
d) Coal carrying system

Ans: b
2. The pH value of the water used in boiler is:
a) Unity
b) 7
c) Slightly less than seven
d) Slightly more than seven
Ans: d
3. For the flue gas flow, tick the correct sequence:
a) Boiler-Air preheater- economizer- ID fan- Chimney
b) Boiler- ID fan -Air preheater- Economizer- Chimney
c) Boiler- Economizer- Air preheater- ID fan- Chimney
d) None of the above
Ans: c
4. Hydrogen cooling employed in large thermal power plant alternator:
a) Increases the insulation life
b) Decreases the insulation life
c) Does not affect the insulation life
Ans: a
5. Hydrogen cooling is employed in:
a) Turbo Generators only
b) Water wheel Generators only
c) Can b used in both turbo generators and water wheel generators
Ans: a

6. The efficiency of the electro static precipitators will be of the order:
a) 99.6%
b) 90%
c) 85%
d) 80%
Ans: a
7. Economizer is normally employed when boiler pressure exceeds:
a) 70 kg/cm2
b) 50 kg/cm2
c) 30 kg/cm2
d) Can be used for all pressures
Ans: a
8. The sizing of the generator in power plant is based on:
a) Current carrying capacity ratings only
b Insulation strength ratings only
c) Both (a) and (b)
Ans: c
9. Without Electro static precipitators:
a) ID fan rating should be increased
b) Economizer rating should be increased
c) Chimney height should be reduced
Ans: a

10. In thermal power plants the condenser used is of:
a) Surface type
b) Jet type
c) Can be both surface type and jet type
Ans: a
THERMAL POWER PLANT Objective Questions
THERMAL POWER PLANT MCQs
11. Coal rank classifies coal as per its:
a) Specific gravity
b) Degree of metamorphism
c) Carbon percentage
d) Ash content
Ans: d
12. Induced draft fans are used to:
a) Cool the steam let out by the turbine in the thermal power station
b) Cool the hot gases coming out of boiler
c) Forces the air inside the coal furnace
d) Pull the gases out of furnace
Ans: d
13. Generally the speed of turbine generators employed in thermal power plants will be in the range of:
a) 750 rpm
b) 1000 rpm
c) 3000 rpm
d) 5000 rpm
Ans: c

14. Large size thermal power plants will be:
a) peak load plants
b) Base load plants
c) Can be operate either as peak load or base load plants
Ans: b
15. The auxiliary consumption of thermal power plants will be in the range:
a) 2-5% of plant power generated
b) 8-10% of power generated
c) 15-20% of power generated
d) 20-25% of power generated
Ans: b
16. Which of the following equipment is installed in steam power plant to reduce air pollution:
a) Air filer
b) HEPA filter
c) Electro static precipitator
d) All the above can be used
Ans: c
17. Burning of low grade coal can be improved by:
a) Pulverizing the coal
b) Blending with high quality coal
c) Oil assisted ignition
d) All the above
Ans: b

18. Equipment used for pulverizing the coal is:
a) hopper
b) Stoker
c) Ball mill
d) Electro static precipitator
Ans: c
19. The percentage of carbon in anthracite is usually:
a) More than 90%
b) About 70%
c) About 50%
d) Below 40%
Ans: a
20. for the same power the size of the turbine:
a) Increases with speed
b) Decreases with speed
c) Constant irrespective of speed
Ans: b
THERMAL POWER PLANT Objective type Questions with Answers
21. Which type of coal has lowest calorific value?
a) Peat
b) Lignite
c) Bituminous
d) Anthracite
Ans:b

22. Pipes carrying steam in thermal power plant are generally made of:
a) Steel
b) Cast iron
c) aluminium
d) Cobalt
Ans: a
23. Economizer of boiler has main function of:
a) Heat up the incoming water with excess steam
b) Heat up the pulverized fuel by exhaust gases
c) Heat up the incoming air by exhaust gases
d) Heat up the incoming water by exhaust gases
Ans: d
24. In a super heater:
a) Pressure rises and temperature drops
b) Temperature rises and pressure drops
c) Temperature rises and pressure remains unchanged
d) Pressure rises and temperature remains the same
Ans: c
25. Steam turbine works on the principle of:
a) carnot cycle
b) brayton cycle
c) rankine cycle
Ans: c
26. The steam power plant efficiency can be improved by:

a) Using large quantity of water
b) Burning large quantity of coal
c) Using high temperature and pressure of steam
d) Decreasing the load on the plant
Ans: c
27. As the size of the thermal power plant increases, the capital cost per kW of installed capacity:
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
d) May increase and decrease
Ans: b
28. Vacuum can be measured by using:
a) rotameter
b) pitot tube
c) U tube manometer
d) ventrimeter
Ans: b
29. Electrostatic precipitator is installed between:
a) Induced fan and chimney
b) air preheater and induced fan
c) Economizer and air preheater
d) Boiler furnace and economiser
Ans: b
30. Belt conveyors can be employed for transporting coal at inclination up to:
a) 75 deg

b) 60 deg
c) 30 deg
d) 15 deg
Ans: c
31. In a shell and tube surface condenser:
a) Steam passes through the tubes and cooling water surrounds them
b) Cooling water passes through the tubes and steam surrounds them
c) Steam and water mix to give condensate
Ans: b
32. The purpose of Spray pond in Thermal power plant is:
a) To deposit the ash coming out of the thermal power plant
b) To cool the water coming out of condensate
c) To remove the dissolved gases in the feed water
Ans: b
33. For the forced draft the blower is located:
a) At the top of the chimney
b) Near the base of the chimney
c) Near the base of the boiler
Ans: c
34. It is important the heat the water before feeding to boiler because:
a) The dissolved gases which corrodes the boiler are removed
b) Thermal stresses arises due to the cold water entering the boiler can be reduced

c) Some impurities carried by steam and condensate due to corrosion in boiler and condenser are
precipitated outside the boiler
d) All the above
Ans: d
35. Which type of alternator is employed in thermal power plant?
a) Salient type
b) Non salient pole type
c) Both can be used
Ans: b
36. The indication to determine the incomplete combustion is:
a) High percentage of carbon dioxide content in the flue gases
b) High percentage of CO content in the flue gases
c) High temperature of the flue gases
d) All the above
Ans: b
37. For the same drought required, the power of forced draught fan will be __ than the induced draught
fan:
a) Higher
b) Lower
c) The same
d) May be more or less
Ans: b
38. What are the combustible elements in the fuel:
a) Carbon and hydrogen

b) Carbon, hydrogen and ash
c) Carbon, hydrogen and sulphur
Ans: c
39. The efficiency of the thermal power plant is of the order:
a) 15%
b) 30%
c) 50%
d) 60%
Ans: b
40. The coal which has highest ash content is:
a) Lignite
b) Coke
c) Bituminous coal
d) Peat
Ans: a
1. What is the advantage of sectionalizing of power plant?
a) High reliability
b) Low capital cost
c) Low maintenance
d) Easy operation
View Answer
Answer: a

Explanation: Sectionalizing means installing more number of small units rather than installing a big unit.
Doing so enables us to maintain continuity of supply from rest of the units, when one or two units of
plant fails. this makes the plant more reliable.
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2. The area under the load curve represents ____________
a) the average load on power system
b) maximum demand
c) number of units generated
d) load factor
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Load curve is obtained by plotting fluctuating load be keeping load on y axis and time in x
axis. The area under the load curve represents the total number of units generated in a particular time.
3. Which of the following is equal to the maximum demand?
a) The ratio of area under curve to the total area of rectangle
b) The ratio of area under curve and number of hours
c) The peak of the load curve
d) The area under the curve
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The ratio of area under curve to the total area of the rectangle is called load factor. The
ratio of area under the curve to the number of hours represents the average load. The peak of the curve
represents the maximum demand.
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4. Load duration curve indicates _______
a) the variation of load during different hours of the day

b) total number of units generated for the given demand
c) total energy consumed by the load
d) the number of hours for which the particular load lasts during a day
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The variation of load during different hours of the day is shown by load curve. Load
duration curve is different from Load curve. Load duration curve indicates the variation of the load, but
with the load arranged in descending order of magnitude. Load duration curve give the number of hours
for which a particular load lasts during a day.
5. During which time the demand of electrical energy is maximum?
a) 2 A.M. to 5 A.M.
b) 5 A.M. to 12 P.M.
c) 12 P.M. to 7 P.M.
d) 7 P.M. to 9 P.M
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: From the load curve it is obtained that during early morning demand is always low. Around
5 A.M. it starts increasing and around 9 A.M. load reaches a high value and remains almost constant till
evening except for some Dip during lunch hours. The load again starts increasing in evening hours and
reaches its peak around 7 to 9 P.M.
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6. Size and cost of installation depends upon ____________
a) average load
b) maximum demand
c) square mean load
d) square of peak load
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The greatest of all “short time interval averaged” during a given period, on the power
system is called the maximum demand. Maximum demand represents the maximum amount of load
that is active, out of total connected load. So the size and rating of power plant depends on Maximum
demand.
7. What is Demand factor?
a) Ratio of connected load to maximum demand
b) Ratio of average load to connected load
c) Ratio of maximum demand to the connected load
d) Ratio of kilowatt hour consumed to 24 hours
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Demand factor is the ratio of actual maximum demand on the system to the total load
connected to the system. The idea of demand factor was introduced due to the fact that all the
equipments connected to the system does not work at a time in practice.
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8. Which of the following represents the annual average load?
a) (KWh supplied in a day)/24
b) {(KWh supplied in a day)/ 24 } × 365
c) {(KWh supplied in a month)/(30 x 24)
d) (KWh supplied in a year) / (24 × 365)
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The average load on the power station is average of load occurring at the various events. It
can also be stated as energy deliver in a given period divided by the number of hours in that period.
Option d matches correctly to these statements.
9. The load factor is __________
a) always less than unity

b) less than or greater than 1
c) always greater than 1
d) less than zero
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Load factor is the ratio of average demand to the maximum demand. Average demand can
not be greater than maximum demand. So the value of load factor is always less than unity.
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10. In practice what is the value of diversity factor?
a) Less than Unity
b) Geater than Unity
c) Equal to or greater than Unity
d) Less than zero
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Maximum demand of different consumers never occurs at a time, due to this the total
maximum demand of the load is always less than sum of individual maximum demands. And hence,
demand factor e.i. the ratio of sum of individual maximum demand to the maximum demand of total
load is always greater than unity.
11. Coincidence factor is reciprocal of ___________
a) average load
b) demand factor
c) capacity factor
d) diversity factor
View Answer
Answer: d

Explanation: Coincidence factor is the ratio of total maximum demand to the sum of individual
maximum demands which is the reciprocal of diversity factor.
12. Which of the following is called as cold reserve?
a) Reserve capacity available but not ready for use
b) Reserve capacity available and ready for use
c) Generating capacity connected to bus and ready to take load
d) Capacity in service in excess of peak load
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cold reserve is the generating capacity which is available for service but not normally ready
for immediate loading. Reserved capacity available and ready to use are called hot reserve.
1. Load factor of a power station is defined as
(a) maximum demand/average load
(b) average load x maximum demand
(c) average load/maximum demand
(d) (average load x maximum demand)172
Ans: c
2. Load factor of a power station is generally
(a) equal to unity
(b) less than unity
(c) more than unity
(d) equal to zero Diversity factor is always
Ans: b
3. The load factor of domestic load is usually
(a) 10 to 15%

(b) 30 to 40%
(c) 50 to 60%
(d) 60 to 70%
Ans: a
4. Annual depreciation cost is calculated by
(a) sinkingfund method
(b) straight line method
(c) both (a) and (b)
Ans: c
5. Depreciation charges are high in case of
(a) thermal plant
(b) diesel plant
(c) hydroelectric plant
Ans: a
6. Demand factor is defined as
(a) average load/maximum load
(b) maximum demand/connected load
(c) connected load/maximum demand
(d) average load x maximum load
Ans: b
7. High load factor indicates
(a) cost of generation per unit power is increased
(b) total plant capacity is utilised for most of the time
(c) total plant capacity is not properly utilised for most of the time

Ans: b
8. A load curve indicates
(a) average power used during the period
(b) average kWh (kW) energy consumption during the period
(c) either of the above
Ans: b
9. Approximate estimation of power demand can be made by
(a) load survey method
(b) statistical methods
(c) mathematical method
(d) economic parameters
(e) all of the above
Ans: e
10. Annual depreciation as per straight line method, is calculated by
(a) the capital cost divided by number of year of life
(b) the capital cost minus the salvage value, is divided by the number of years of life
(c) increasing a uniform sum of money per annum at stipulated rate of interest
Ans: b
11. A consumer has to pay lesser fixed charges in
(a) flat rate tariff
(b) two part tariff
(c) maximum demand tariff

(d) any of the above
Ans: c
12. In two part tariff, variation in load factor will affect
(a) fixed charges
(b) operating or running charges
(d) either (a) or (b)
Ans: b
13. In Hopknison demand rate or two parttariff the demand rate or fixed charges are
(a) dependent upon the energy consumed
(b) dependent upon the maximum demand of the consumer
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
Ans: b
14. Which plant can never have 100 percent load factor ?
(a) Peak load plant
(b) Base load plant
(c) Nuclear power plant
(d) Hydro electric plant
Ans: a
15. The area under a load curve gives
(a) average demand
(b) energy consumed
(c) maximum demand

Ans: b
16. Different generating stations use following prime movers
(a) diesel engine
(b) hydraulic turbine
(c) gas turbine
(d) steam turbine
(e) any of the above
Ans: e
17. Diversity factor has direct effect on the
(a) fixed cost of unit generated
(b) running cost of unit generated
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
Ans: a
18. Following power plant has instant starting
(a) nuclear power plant
(b) hydro power plant
(c) diesel power plant
(d) both (b) and (c)
(e) none of the above
Ans: d
19. Which of the following generating station has minimum ruiyiing cost ?
(a) Nuclear
(b) Hydro
(c) Thermal

(d) Diesel
Ans: b
20. Power plant having maximum demand more than the installed rated capacity will have utilisation
factor
(a) equal to unity
(b) less than unity
(c) more than unity
Ans: c
21. Load curve is useful in deciding the
(a) operating schedule of generating units
(b) sizes of generating units
(c) total installed capacity of the plant
Ans: d
22. Load curve of a power plant has always
(a) zero slope
(b) positive slope
(c) negative slope
(d) any combination of (a), (b) and (c)
Ans: e
23. Annual operating expenditure of a power plant consists of
(a) fixed charges
(b) semi-fixed charges
(c) running charges

Ans: d
24. Maximum demand on a power plant is
(a) the greatest of all “short time interval averaged” demand during a period
(b) instantaneous maximum value of kVA supplied during a period
(e) both (a) or (b)
Ans: a
25. Annual instalment towards depreciation reduces as rate of interest increases with
(a) sinking fund depreciation
(b) straight line depreciation
(c) reducing balances depreciation
Ans: a
26. Annual depreciation of the plant it proportional to the earning capacity of the plant vide
(a) sinking fund depreciation
(b) straight line depreciation
(c) reducing balances depreciation
Ans: c
27. For high value of diversity factor, a power station of given installed capacity will be in a position to
supply
(a) less number of consumers
(b) more number of consumers
(c) neither (a) nor (b)

(d) either (a) or (b)
Ans: b
28. Salvage value of the plant is always
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
Ans: d
29. Load curve helps in deciding
(a) total installed capacity of the plant
(b) sizes of the generating units
(c) operating schedule of generating units
Ans: d
30 can generate power at unpredictable or uncontrolled times,
(a) Solar power plant
(b) Tidal power plant
(c) Wind power plant
(d) Any of the above
Ans: d
31. Direct conversion of heat into electric power is possible through
(a) fuel cell
(b) batteries
(c) thermionic converter

Ans: c
32. A low utilization factor for a plant indicates that
(a) plant is used for stand by purpose only
(b) plant is under maintenance
(c) plant is used for base load only
(d) plant is used for peak load as well as base load
Ans: a
33. Which of the following is not a source of power ?
(a) Thermocouple
(b) Photovoltaic cell
(c) Solar cell
(d) Photoelectric cell
Ans: a
34. Which of the following should be used for extinguishing electrical fires ?
(a) Water
(b) Carbon tetrachloride fire extinguisher
(c) Foam type fire extinguisher
(d) CO2 fire extinguisher
Ans: b
35. Low power factor is usually not due to
(a) arc lamps
(b) induction motors
(c) fluorescent tubes
(d) incandescent lamp
Ans: d

36. Ships are generally powered by
(a) nuclear power plants
(b) hydraulic turbines
(e) diesel engines
(d) steam accumulators
Ans: c
37. Direct conversion of heat into electrical energy is possible through
(a) fuel cells
(b) solar cells
(c) MHD generators
Ans: c
38. Which of the following place is not associated with nuclear power plants in India ?
(a) Narora
(b) Tarapur
(c) Kota
(d) Benglore
Ans: d
39. During load shedding
(a) system power factor is changed
(b) some loads are switched off
(c) system voltage is reduced
(d) system frequency is reduced Efficiency is the secondary consideration in
Ans: b

40. which of the following plants ?
(a) Base load plants
(b) Peak load plants
(c) Both (a) and (b)
Ans: b
41. Air will not be the working substance in which of the following ?
(a) Closed cycle gas turbine
(b) Open cycle gas turbine
(c) Diesel engine
(d) Petrol engine
Ans: a
42. A nuclear power plant is invariably used as a
(a) peak load plant
(b) base load plant
(c) stand-by plant
(d) spinning reserve plant
(e) any of the above
Ans: b
43. power plant is expected to have the longest life.
(a) Steam
(b) Diesel
(c) Hydroelectric
Ans: c

44. power plant cannot have single unit of 100 MW.
(a) Hydroelectric
(b) Nuclear
(c) Steam
(d) Diesel
(e) Any of the above
Ans: d
45. Which of the following, in a thermal power plant, is not a fixed cost ?
(a) Fuel cost
(b) Interest on capital
(c) Depreciation
(d) Insurance charges
Ans: a
46. _______ will offer the least load.
(a) Vacuum cleaner
(b) Television
(c) Hair dryer
(d) Electric shaver
Ans: d
47. In ______ fuel transportation cost is least.
(a) nuclear power plants
(b) diesel generating plants
(c) steam power stations
Ans: a

48. Which of the following equipment provides fluctuating load ?
(a) Exhaust fan
(b) Lathe machine
(c) Welding transformer
(d) All of the above
Ans: c
49. The increased load during summer months is due to
(a) increased business activity
(b) increased water supply
(c) increased use of fans and air conditioners
Ans: c
50 is the reserved generating capacity available for service under emergency conditions which is not
kept in operation but in working order,
(a) Hot reserve
(b) Cold reserve
(c) Spinning reserve
(d) Firm power
Ans: b
51. Generating capacity connected to the bus bars and ready to take load when switched on is known as
(a) firm power
(b) cold reserve
(c) hot reserve
(d) spinning reserve
Ans: d

52. offers the highest electric load.
(a) Television set
(b) Toaster
(c) Vacuum cleaner
(d) Washing machine
Ans: b
53. _______ industry has the least power consumption per tonne of product.
(a) Soap
(b) Sugar
(c) Vegetable oil
(d) Caustic soda
Ans: c
54. With reference to a power station which of the following is not a fixed cost ?
(a) Fuel cost
(b) Interest on capital
(c) Insurance charges
(d) Depreciation
Ans: a
55. _______ is invariably used as base load plant.
(a) Diesel engine plant
(b) Nuclear power plant
(c) Gas turbine plant
(d) Pumped storage plant
Ans: b
ECONOMICS of POWER GENERATION Multiple Choice Questions ::

56. In a power plant if the maximum demand on the plant is equal to the plant capacity, then
(a) plant reserve capacity will be zero
(b) diversity factor will be unity
(c) load factor will be unity
(d) load factor will be nearly 60%
Ans: a
57. Incase of ______ fuel transportation is the major problem.
(a) diesel power plants
(b) nuclear power plants
(c) hydro-electric power plants
(d) thermal power plants
Ans: d
58. Which of the following power plants need the least period for installation ?
(a) Thermal power plant
(b) Diesel power plant
(d) Hydro-electric power plant
Ans: b
59. For which of the following power plants highly skilled engineers are required for running the plants ?
(a) Nuclear power plants
(b) Gas turbine power plants
(c) Solar power plants
(d) Hydro-electric power plants
Ans: a
60. In which’of the following power plants the maintenance cost is usually high ?

(a) Nuclear power plant
(b) Hydro-electric power plants
(c) Thermal power plants
(d) Diesel engine power plants
Ans: c
61. ________ is invariably used for peak load
(a) Nuclear power plant
(b) Steam turbine plant
(c) Pumped storage plant
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
62. Which of the following is not an operating cost ?
(a) Maintenance cost
(b) Fuel cost
(c) Salaries of high officials
(d) Salaries of operating staff
Ans:
63. Which of the following is the essential requirement of peak load plant ?
(a) It should run at high speed
(b) It should produce high voltage
(c) It should be small in size
(d) It should be capable of starting quickly
Ans: d
64. Large capacity generators are invariably
(a) water cooled

(b) natural air cooled
(c) forced air cooled
(d) hydrogen cooled
Ans: d
65. By the use of which of the following power factor can be improved ?
(a) Phase advancers
(b) Synchronous compensators
(c) Static capacitors
Ans: d
66. An induction motor has relatively high power factor at
(a) rated r.p.m.
(b) no load
(c) 20 percent load
(d) near full load
Ans: d
67. Which of the following is the disadvantage due to low power factor ?
(a) Poor voltage regulation
(b) Increased transmission losses
(c) High cost of equipment for a given load
Ans: d
68. In a distribution system, in order to improve power factor, the synchronous capacitors are installed
(a) at the receiving end

(b) at the sending end
Ans: a
69. Static capacitors are rated in terms of
(a) kW
(b) kWh
(e) kVAR
Ans: c
70. Which of the following is the disadvantage of a synchronous condenser ?
(a) High maintenance cost
(b) Continuous losses in motor
(c) Noise
Ans: d
71. For a consumer the most economical power factor is generally
(a) 0.5 lagging
(b) 0.5 leading
(c) 0.95 lagging
(d) 0.95 leading
Ans: c
72. A synchronous condenser is virtually which of the following ?
(a) Induction motor
(b) Under excited synchronous motor

(c) Over excited synchronous motor
(d) D.C. generator
(e) None of the above
Ans: c
73. For a power plant which of the following constitutes running cost ?
(a) Cost of wages
(b) Cost of fuel
(c) Cost of lubricants
Ans: d
74. In an interconnected system, the diversity factor of the whole system
(a) remains unchanged
(b) decreases
(c) increases
Ans: c
75. Generators for peak load plants are usually designed for maximum efficiency at
(a) 25 to 50 percent full load
(b) 50 to 75 percent full load
(c) full load
(d) 25 percent overload
Ans: b
76. ________ will be least affected due to charge in supply voltage frequency.
(a) Electric clock
(b) Mixer grinder

(c) Ceiling fan
(d) Room heater
Ans: d
77. The connected load of a IVMIM uir consumer is around
(a) 5 kW
(b) 40 kV
(c) 80 kW
(d) 120 kW
Ans: a
78. Which of the following is not necessarily an advantage of interconnecting various power stations ?
(a) Improved frequency of power supplied
(b) Reduction in total installed capacity
(c) Increased reliability
(d) Economy in operation of plants
Ans: a
79. A power transformer is usually rated in
(a) kW
(b) kVAR
(c) kWh
(d) kVA
Ans: d
80. public sector undertaking is associated with erection and sometimes running of thermal power
plants
(a) NTPC
(b) SAIL

(c) BEL
(d) BHEL
Ans: a
81. Most efficient plants are normally used as
(a) peak load plants
(b) base load plants
Ans:
82. For a diesel generating station the useful life is expected to be around
(a) 15 to 20 years
(b) 20 to 50 years
(c) 50 to 75 years
(d) 75 to 100 years
Ans: a
83. Which of the following is not a method for estimating depreciation charges ?
(a) Sinking fund method
(b) Straight line method
(c) Diminishing value method
(d) Halsey’s 50—50 formula
Ans: d
84. The expected useful life of an hydroelectric power station is around
(a) 15 years
(b) 30 years
(c) 60 years

(d) 100 years
Ans: d
85. In a load curve the highest point represents
(a) peak demand
(b) average demand
(c) diversified demand
Ans: a
86. Which of the following source of power is least reliable ?
(a) Solar energy
(b) Geothermal power
(c) Wind power
(d) iMHD
Ans:
87. In India production and distribution of electrical energy is confined to
(a) private sector
(b) public sector
(c) government sectors
(d) joint sector
Ans: b
88. A pilot exciter is provided on generators for which of the following reasons ?
(a) To excite the poles of main exciter
(b) To provide requisite starting torque to main exciter
(c) To provide requisite starting torque to generator

(d) None of the above
Ans: a
89. The primary reason for low power factor is supply system is due to installation of
(a) induction motors
(b) synchronous motors
(c) single phase motors
(d) d.c. motors
Ans: a
90. An over excited synchronous motor on noload is known as
(a) synchronous condenser
(b) generator
(c) induction motor
(d) alternator
Ans: a
91. Which of the following is an advantage of static capacitor for power factor improvement ?
(a) Little maintenance cost
(b) Ease in installation
(c) Low losses
Ans: d
92. For any type of consumer the ideal tariff is
(a) two part tariff
(b) three part tariff
(c) block rate tariff

Ans: b
93. The efficiency of a plant is of least concern when it is selected as
(a) peak load plant
(b) casual run plant
(d) base load plant
Ans: c
94. Which of the following plants is almost inevitably used as base load plant ?
(a) Diesel engine plant
(b) Gas turbine plant
(d) Pumped storage plant
Ans: c
95. Which of the following component, in a steam power plant, needs maximum maintenance attention
?
(a) Steam turbine
(b) Condenser
(c) Water treatment plant
(d) Boiler
Ans: d
96. For the same cylinder dimensions and speed, which of the following engine will produce least power
?
(a) Supercharged engine
(b) Diesel engine
(c) Petrol engine

(d) All of the above engines will equal power
Ans: c
97. The least share of power is provided in India, by which of the following power plants ? ‘
(a) Diesel power plants
(b) Thermal power plants
(c) Hydro-electric power plants
(d) Nuclear power plants
Ans: a
98. Submarines for under water movement, are powered by which of the following ?
(a) Steam accumulators
(b) Air motors
(c) Diesel engines
(d) Batteries
Ans: d
99. An alternator coupled to a _____ runs at slow speed, as compared to as com¬pared to others.
(a) diesel engine
(6) hydraulic turbine
(c) steam turbine
(d) gas turbine
Ans: b
100. The effect of electric shock on human body depends on which of the following
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) duration of contact

Ans: d
101. Which lightening stroke is most dangerous ?
(a) Direct stroke on line conductor
(b) Indirect stroke on conductor
(c) Direct stroke on tower top
(d) Direct stroke on ground wire
Ans: a
102. Which of the following devices may be used to provide protection against lightening over voltages ?
(a) Horn gaps
(b) Rod gaps
(c) Surge absorbers
Ans: d
103. When the demand of consumers is not met by a power plant, it will resort to which of the following
?
(a) Load shedding
(b) Power factor improvement at the , generators
(c) Penalising high load consumers by increasing the charges for electricity
(d) Efficient plant operation
Ans: a
104. Load shedding is possible through which of the following ?
(a) Switching of the loads
(b) Frequency reduction
(c) Voltage reduction

Ans: d
105. In power plants insurance cover is provided for which of the following ?
(a) Unskilled workers only
(b) Skilled workers only
(c) Equipment only
Ans: d
107 A company can raise funds through
(a) fixed deposits
(b) shares
(c) bonds
Ans: d
108. Which of the following are not repayable after a stipulated period ?
(a) Shares
(b) Fixed deposits
(c) Cash certificates
(d) Bonds
Ans: a
109. The knowledge of diversity factor helps in determining
(a) plant capacity
(b) average load
(c) peak load
(d) kWh generated

Ans: a
110. Which of the following is the disadvantage of static capacitor for power factor improvement ?
(a) Easily damaged by high voltage
(b) Cannot be repaired
(c) Short service life
Ans: d
1. Which of the following power plant are put on load for maximum time?
a) Plant with minimum operating cost
b) Plant with medium operating cost
c) Plant with maximum operating cost
d) Operating cost does not matter
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The power plants with minimum operating cost are put on load for maximum time. Plants
with medium operating cost are only loaded when required by the load demand on the system. Plants
with maximum operating cost are kept in reserve and would operate only in emergency.
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2. Which of the following power plants can be profitably employed for supplying base loads as well as
peak loads?
a) Thermal power plant
b) Nuclear power plant
c) Hydroelectric power plant
d) Diesel power plant
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Seam and Nuclear power plants are only used to supply base load. Diesel power plants are
suitable for only peak load. Only hydroelectric power plant can supply both peak load as well as base
load because of its flexibility in operation and low operating cost.
3. Plants with higher operating cost and greater flexibility are suitable for?
a) Only Base load
b) Only Peak load
c) Base and Peak loads
d) Plants with higher operating cost are not used
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Plants which can meet sudden variation of load demand are said to have higher flexibility.
Plants with higher operating cost can’t be used as base load plants. Plants with such capabilities are
most suitable for peak load plants as they can respond immediately.
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4. Plants with maximum operating costs are put on load for :
a) Maximum time
b) During peak load
c) Emergency conditions
d) During Medium loads
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Power plants with minimum operating cost are put on load for maximum time. Plants with
medium operating cost are only loaded when required by the load demand on the system. Plants with
maximum operating cost are kept in reserve and would operate only in emergency.
5. Gas turbine power plants are most suitable for which of the following loads?
a) Only Base load
b) Only Peak load

c) Base and Peak loads
d) Gas turbine power plants are not practical
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Gas turbine power plants have advantage of low initial cost and low startup time. So, it is
ideally suited for supplying peak loads.
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6. A power system will have greater flexibility of operation if they have __________
a) Various types of power plants operating in combination
b) Only Base load plants operating in combination
c) Only Peak load plants operating in combination
d) Only thermal power plants operating in combination
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If various types of power plants are operated in combination, the system will become more
flexible i.e Steam and Nuclear power plants will supply base loads, Hydroelectric power plants will
supply base or peak loads depending upon the availability of water, Gas turbine power plant will meet
peak load demand and existing Diesel power plant will operate in emergency only.
7. Which of the following system is more reliable?
a) Hydroelectric power plant
b) Steam power plant
c) Combined operating steam and hydroelectric power plant
d) Diesel power plant
View Answer
Answer: c

Explanation: The reliability of steam power plant depends upon the coal supply, that of hydroelectric
power plant on stream flow. Due to greater diversity a combine operation of various types of power
plant would be more reliable than individual steam or hydro power plant.
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8. In combined operation of several power plants the reserve capacity requirement is reduced.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In any electric power system the system has to have a certain reserve capacity in order to
meet any unforeseen excess power demand. In combined system the effect of all the diversity is may
result in still larger benefit from the point of view of Reserve capacity.
9. Thermal power plants are not suitable for supplying base peak loads.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: To operate as peak load plant, a power plant must be able to meet sudden variation of
load. The major drawback of a steam power plant is that it requires appreciable time to start up,
synchronize and take up load. Hence thermal power plant is not suitable to work as peak load plant.
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10. Read the following statements:
I. Diesel power plant is generally used as base load plant.
II. Gas turbine power plant is used as peak load plant.
a) Only I is correct
b) Only II is correct
c) I and II are correct

d) I and II are wrong
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: To supply base load the operation cost should be minimum, but Diesel power plant has
very high operating cost. Diesel power plants are best suitable to supply peak loads. Gas turbine can be
started in less time and so it is suitable to supply peak loads
1. Gas and Steam turbine combined power plant produces more electricity than traditional power plants
by how much percent?
a) 25
b) 40
c) 50
d) The given statement was false
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When steam and gas turbines are jointly used in power plants and the power produced by
gas and steam turbines is used in producing electricity.
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2. Marine compound power plants are also the combined gas and steam power plants.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Combined gas and steam power plants is the name given to marine power plants.
3. Maximum supplementary firing means _________
a) minimum fuel that can be fired

b) maximum fuel that can fired with the oxygen available in turbine
c) maximum fuel that can be fired in given time
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Maximum supplementary firing means maximum fuel that can be fired with the oxygen
available.
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4. Due to the limits, upper efficiency of steam turbines is fixed to _________
a) 10-15%
b) 25-45%
c) 20-40%
d) 35-45%
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In steam and gas turbine combined power plants, steam turbines water is used as working
medium. High pressure and high temperatures are required for these high pressures which in turn
requires high strengths so expensive alloys like nickel and cobalt are used. These limit the upper
efficiency to 35-45%.
5. How many sections does waste heat recovery boiler have in steam generators?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: c

Explanation: In steam generators waste heat recovery boilers have 3 sections. They are
Economiser
Evaporator
Superheater.
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6. Turbines that are run by exhaust gases are called _______
a) power recovery turbines
b) stepped turbines
c) turbo compounded engine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Turbines that are run by exhaust gases are called power recovery turbines.
7. Combination of two or more thermodynamic processes gives _________
a) decrease in efficiency
b) increase in efficiency
c) increases the temperature at exhaust
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When two or more thermodynamic cycles work together their overall combined efficiency
increases by 50-60%.
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8. By using combined cycle steam and gas power plant _________
a) specific fuel consumption can be decreased

b) efficiency increased
c) specific fuel consumption can be decreased and efficiency increased
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If specific fuel consumption is decreased it indirectly increases efficiency.
9. What are turbo-compound engines?
a) Turbines run at exhausts of Otto and diesel cycles
b) Combination of turbofan and turbojet engines
c) Combination of turboprop and turbofan engines
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Turbo compound engines are used in air-crafts where turbines run at exhausts of Otto and
diesel cycles
1-The major field(s) of application of gas turbine is (are)
Aviation
Oil and gas industry
Marine propulsion
All of the above
(Ans: d)
2-The following is (are) the limitation(s) of gas turbines.

They are not self starting
Higher rotor speeds
Low efficiencies at part loads
All of the above
(Ans: d)
3-The ratio of heat actually released by 1kg of fuel to heat that would be released by complete perfect
combustion, is called
Thermal efficiency
Combustion efficiency
Engine efficiency
Compression efficiency
(Ans: b)
4-The percentage of total energy input appearing as net work output of the cycle
Thermal efficiency
Combustion efficiency
Engine efficiency
Compression efficiency
(Ans: a)

5-The following method(s) can be used to improve the thermal efficiency of open cycle gas turbine plant
inter-cooling
Reheating
Regeneration
All of the above
(Ans: d)
6-Which of the following is (are) used as starter for a gas turbine
An Internal combustion engine
A steam turbine
An auxiliary electric motor
All of the above
(Ans: d)
7-Gas turbine is shut down by
Turning off starter
Stopping the compressor
Fuel is cut off from the combustor
Any of the above
(Ans: c)

8-In gas turbine, intercooler is placed
before low pressure compressor
in between low pressure compressor and high pressure compressor
in between high pressure compressor and turbine
None of the above
(Ans: b)
9-In gas turbine, the function of Re-heater is to
Heat inlet air
Heat exhaust gases
Heat air coming out of compressor
Heat gases coming out of high pressure turbine
(Ans: d)
10-The ‘work ratio’ increases with
increase in turbine inlet pressure
decrease in compressor inlet temperature
decrease in pressure ratio of the cycle
all of the above
(Ans: d)

11-In the centrifugal compressor, total pressure varies
directly as the speed ratio
square of speed ratio
cube of the speed ratio
Any of the above
(Ans: b)
12-The efficiency of multistage compressor is _____ than a single stage.
lower
higher
equal to
Any of the above
(Ans: a)
13-In centrifugal compressor, power input varies as
directly as the speed ratio
the square of speed ratio
the cube of the speed ratio
Any of the above

(Ans: c)
14-In the _____ heat transfer takes place between the exhaust gases and cool air.
Intercooler
Re-heater
Regenerator
Compressor
(Ans: c)
15-In centrifugal compressor, the diffuser converts
Kinetic energy into pressure energy
Pressure energy into Kinetic energy
Kinetic energy into Mechanical energy
Mechanical energy into Kinetic energy
(Ans: a)
1. Which of the following is the correct equation for the electrical power generated by the hydroelectric
power plant?
a) 75×0.736 wQHη Watt
b) (7.5/0.736) × wQHη Watt
c) 0.845 ×wQHη Watt
d) 9.81 ×wQHη
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Rating of any power plant is expressed by its maximum output power. These are large
quantities so rating is given in mega watts.The electrical power generated by this plant is proportional to
specific weight of water(w), water head(H), generation efficiency(η), flow rate of water(Q) and
acceleration due to gravity.
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2. Which of the following is not a requirement for site selection of hydroelectric power plant?
a) Availability of water
b) Large catchment area
c) Rocky land
d) Sedimentation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Sedimentation may reduce the water storage capacity of reservoir and may also cause
damage to the turbine blades. Availability of water, large catchment area and rocky land are primary
requirements for site selection of hydroelectric power plant.
3. The amount of electrical energy that can be generated by a hydroelectric power plant depends upon
___________
a) Head of water
b) Quantity of water
c) Specific weight of water
d) Efficiency of Alternator
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Potential energy of large quantity of stored water is used by hydroelectric power plant to
generate electrical energy. Head of water is important to get kinetic energy from that potential energy.
Efficiency of alternator represents that what percentage of input mechanical power it can convert into
electrical power.

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4. Potential energy of water is used to drive the turbine.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When water falls, potential energy of water is converted into kinetic energy. This kinetic
energy is used to drive the turbine.
5. Hydroelectric power plant is __________
a) Non-renewable source of energy
b) Conventional source of energy
c) Non-conventional source of energy
d) Continuous source of energy
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hydroelectric power plants are conventional source of energy. About 16.6% of total
electricity and about 70% of total renewable energy of world is provided by hydroelectric power plants.
They are not Non-renewable because water is inexhaustible. It is not continuous source of energy
because its output fluctuates with change in flow rate of water with season.
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6. Hydroelectric power plant is generally located near load centre.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b

Explanation: Hydroelectric power plants are generally constructed in hilly areas. These power plants are
quite away from the load centre.
7. Hydroelectric power plant is mainly located in ____________
a) Flat areas
b) Deserts
c) Hilly areas
d) Deltas
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In order to get sufficient head, hydroelectric power plants are constructed in hilly areas. In
desert and flat areas sufficient water head cannot be obtained. Deltas are not suitable for this because
of high sedimentation.
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8. Which statement about hydroelectric power plant is wrong?
a) Efficiency of hydroelectric power plant does not reduce with age
b) Its construction coast is very high and takes a long time for erection.
c) It is very neat and clean plant because no smoke or ash is produced.
d) Meeting rapidly changing load demands is not possible in hydroelectric power plant.
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Fluctuating load demands can be met just by controlling the flow of water using valves and
gates. Due to its robust construction, its efficiency does not fall with time. Statement ‘b’ is correct
because construction of dam, installation of alternator and turbines are very costly.
9. Which of the following is not an advantage of hydroelectric power plant?
a) no fuel requirement
b) low running cost
c) continuous power source
d) no standby losses

View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Output of such plants is never constant. This is because of their dependency over flow rate
of water in river which is seasonal. No fuel requirement low running cost and no standby losses are
advantages of hydroelectric power plants.
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10. Which of the following statement is true about hydroelectric power plant?
a) Hydroelectric power plants are multipurpose.
b) Due to non-uniform flow of water frequency control in such plants is very difficult.
c) Hydroelectric power plant has high running cost
d) Water is used as fuel in hydroelectric power plant
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is because in addition to generation of electricity they are also used for irrigation, flood
control etc. Frequency control in such plants is done easily just by controlling flow of water to the
turbine through valves and gates. Due to low maintenance cost and no fuel requirement running cost of
a plant is very low. Water is not fuel.
1. Which element of hydroelectric power plant prevents the penstock from water hammer
phenomenon?
A. Valves and Gates
B. Draft tubes
C. Spillway
D. Surge Tank
Answer: D
Clarification: Sudden increase in water pressure in penstock due to closing of gates is called water
hammer. Surge tank is a tank at sufficient height , connected to penstock through riser pipe. It takes the
rejected water and relives the penstock from excessive water hammer pressure.
2. Dam having very wide base as compared to its height is called _________

A. buttress dam
B. arch dam
C. earth dam
D. solid gravity dam
Answer: C
Clarification: Buttress dams are the concrete dams supported on downstream side by buttresses. Arc
dams are concrete dams curved from upstream side. Earth dam is a type of embankment dam and have
rock filled inside the structure.
3. Spillway discharges the overflow water to the downstream side when the reservoir is full.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Clarification: A condition may arise during flood periods when water level increases beyond the capacity
of reservoir. In such conditions spillway acts as safety valve.
4. Trash racks are built for ___________
A. discharging the water freely from the turbine exit to tailrace
B. preventing the turbine from ingress of floating and other materials
C. creating artificial head to store sufficient potential energy of water
D. controlling the opening of valves
Answer: B
Clarification: Heavy solid materials flowing with water can damage the turbine blades if not stopped.
Trash racks are closely spaced flat bars which provides narrow path from which such unwanted
materials cannot pass.
5. Penstock in a hydroelectric power plant is _____________
A. a pipe connected to runner outlet

B. nozzle that release high pressure water on turbine blades
C. a conduit connecting forebay to scroll case of turbine
D. a pipe connecting surge tank to dam
Answer: C
Clarification: Penstocks are the conduit built of steel or reinforced concrete. Penstock connects forebay
or surge tank to scroll case of turbine. Their main function is to carry water from dam to the turbine.
6. The pressure at the inlet or exit of the draft tube should not be _________
A. less than one third of atmospheric pressure
B. greater than one third of atmospheric pressure
C. less than one atmospheric pressure
D. greater than one atmospheric pressure
Answer: A
Clarification: Decrease in pressure in any portion of turbine below one third of atmospheric pressure
may cause vapour bubbles or cavities to form. This phenomenon is called cavitation. Also to maintain
continuity of flow without vaporisation the pressure should not fall below vapour pressure of water.
7. Draft tube increases the operating head on the turbine.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Clarification: Draft tubes are the pipes of suitable diameter attached to the runner outlet. Draft tube
converts the pressure developed by water leaving from turbine into kinetic energy. This in turn increases
the operating head on turbine.
8. Which statement about surge tank is wrong?
A. Ideal location of surge tank is at the turbine inlet
B. A decrease in load demands cause a rise in water level in surge tank

C. Surge tanks are totally closed to avoid entry of unwanted objects to penstock
D. Surge tanks are installed to reduce harm effects of water hammer phenomenon
Answer: C
Clarification: Function of surge tank is to relieve the penstock from excessive water hammer pressure. It
does so by receiving rejected flow of water into the tank. A totally closed tank can not release pressure
so usually surge tanks are left open at the top.
9. Trash racks are located _____________
A. near tailrace
B. at the entrance of turbine
C. inside penstock
D. intake
Answer: D
Clarification: Intake includes headworks at the entrance of conduit. Those headworks include different
structures, trash racks are one of them. Trash racks are fitted directly at the intake to prevent the
floating and other materials from going into the conduit.
10. What is the function of booms?
A. It supports the dam
B. It supports the penstock
C. It divert the Icebergs from flowing into the penstock
D. To hold the turbine structure
Answer: A
Clarification: Booms are the one of those structures made at the intake. They are constructed to prevent
unwanted solid materials from flowing into the penstock. Solid materials like icebergs, wood logs or
other heavy materials which may cause damage to the turbine blades if reached there.
1. World Energy Needs are rising due to _________
a) deforestation

b) increasing population and Industrialization
c) inflation
d) natural calamities
View Answer
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2. Which of the following is a disadvantage of Hydro Power?
a) They cause deforestation and affect wildlife
b) They cause harmful emissions
c) They are an unstable source of energy
d) They are not suitable for long-distance electricity transmission
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For building Hydroelectric dams, a large area is required for which deforestation is done to
clear the area which affects the local wildlife. Sometimes Dams also cause floods in Forests which
damages it. Building a dam also affects the aquatic life.
3. Which of the following statement is true about conventional energy sources?
a) They cause minimum pollution
b) They are available in limited quantity
c) Coal is the most used conventional energy source in the world
d) There are sufficient reserves of Coal, Petroleum and Natural gas for the next 300 years
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Conventional energy sources like Coal, Petroleum, Natural gas, etc, are major causes of
pollution and ozone layer depletion. There are limited reserves of conventional energy sources, which
are bound to be finished. At the current rate of consumption, the approximate lifetime of the world’s
petroleum, natural gas, and coal reserves are 50 years, 52.8 years, and 153 years, respectively. Oil is the

most used energy source in the world. At present 31 percent of the world energy needs are fulfilled by
Oil.
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4. All of the conventional energy sources are Non-Renewable.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Apart from Hydro Power, all other Conventional energy sources are Non-renewable. In
Hydropower generation flowing water is used to generate electricity. It is considered a renewable
energy source because the water cycle is constantly renewed by the sun.
5. To focus on Renewable and Other alternative sources of energy, ______ was established in March
1981 by the Government of India.
a) commission for additional sources of energy
b) commission for alternative sources of energy
c) council of scientific & industrial research
d) centre for science and environment
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Realizing the importance of Non-Conventional energy sources, in March 1981 the
government of India established a Commission for Additional Sources of Energy (CASE), in the
Department of Science and Technology. Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR) was
established in September 1942 to bring Science and Technology to India. CSE (Centre for Science and
Environment) was established in 1980 and works on environment-development issues in India.
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6. IREDA was developed by the Government of India _______
a) to implement more efficient methods for using Conventional Energy sources
b) to promote the Development of Non-Conventional Energy Sources

c) to develop Nuclear Energy in India
d) to control pollution
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Ltd (IREDA) was established in 1987 to
promote the use of Non-Conventional sources of energy. It is operated by the Ministry of New and
Renewable Energy (MNRE).
7. Apart from supplying energy, fossil fuels are used for_________
a) storing energy in solar ponds
b) drying Vegetables
c) rotating turbine in Hydro Power plants
d) manufacture of Organic Chemicals
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Solar pond collects thermal energy from sunlight. The salt content of the pond increases
with depth. It doesn’t require any fuel for storing energy. Apart from fulfilling energy needs, fossil fuels
are also used as feedstock materials for the manufacture of organic chemicals. Solar dryers are used to
dry foods i.e. Fruits, Vegetables, etc. In Hydroelectric power plants, turbines are rotated by the Kinetic
Energy of water.
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8. The only country having a full-fledged ministry for Development of New and Renewable Resources is
_____
a) India
b) Bangladesh
c) USA
d) China
View Answer
Answer: a

Explanation: India is the only country having a full-fledged ministry devoted to Developing New and
Renewable Energy Sources. Ministry of New and Renewable Energy or MNRE is a ministry of the
Government of India. The ministry was established as the Ministry of Non-Conventional Energy Sources
in 1992.
9. CASE was established after the Oil Crisis of 1973.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Energy Crisis of the 1970s i.e. Oil crisis of 1973 and Energy Crisis of 1979 caused a
shortage of petroleum (and other commonly used sources) and elevation in its price. This led to the
establishment of the Commission for Additional Sources of Energy (CASE) in the Department of Science
& Technology (India) in March 1981. It involved the formulation of policies, their implementation, and
Research and Development in the field of New and Renewable energy sources.
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10. Which of the following schemes was launched by MNRE?
a) MNREGA
b) UJJWALA
c) KUSUM
d) JWALA
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Ministry of New and Renewable Energy(MNRE) launched the Kisan Urja Suraksha evem
Utthan Mahabhiyan (KUSUM) scheme for farmers for installation of solar pumps and grid-connected
solar and other renewable power plants in the India. This scheme was launched with the aim to
promote solar farming in India. Its launch was approved on 19 February 2019 by the Cabinet Committee
on Economic Affairs(CCEA)
1 Which of the following is a non-renewable resource?
A Forests
B Water

C Wildlife
D Coal
Answer: Coal
2 Which of the following is a disadvantage of most of the renewable energy sources?
A Unreliable supply
B Highly polluting
C High waste disposal cost
D High running cost
Answer: Unreliable supply
3 Horizontal axis and vertical axis are the types of:
A Wind mills
B Nuclear reactor
C Biogas reactor
D Solar cell
Answer: Wind mills
4 Steam reforming is currently the least expensive method of producing:
A Hydrogen
B Coal
C Biogas
D none of these
Answer: Hydrogen
5 Both power and manure is provided by:
A Biogas plants
B Nuclear plants
C Thermal plants

D Hydroelectric plant
Answer: Biogas plants
6 Common energy source in Indian villages is:
A Coal
B Wood and animal dung
C Electricity
D None Of These
Answer: Wood and animal dung
7 Lignite, bituminous and anthracite are different ranks of:
A Coal
B Nuclear fuel
C Natural gas
D Biogas
Answer: Coal
8 The first controlled fission of an atom was carried out in Germany in:
A 1938
B 1920
C 1928
D 1925
Answer: 1938
9 Boiling water reactor and pressurised water reactors are:
A Solar reactor
B OTEC
C Biogas reactor
D Nuclear reactor

Answer: Nuclear reactor
10 How much energy does sun release in the form of radiation ?
A 3.8 x 1026 joule/second
B 3.8 x 1024 joule/second
C 1.7 x 1026 joule/second
D 1.7 x 1017 joule/second
Answer: 3.8 x 1026 joule/second
11 The average distance between the sun and the earth is _______.
A 1.5 x 108 km
B 1.5 x 105 km
C 1.5 x 106 km
D None
Answer: 1.5 x 108 km
12 Of the visible light ______ has the maximum wavelength and ______ has the minimum wavelength.
A red, violet
B red, green
C red, yellow
D violet, red
Answer: red, violet
13 The wavelength of visible light is ________.
A 4 x 10-6 to 8 x 10-6 m
B 4 x 106 to 8 x 106 m
C 4 x 10-7 to 8 x 10-7 m
D None Of The Above

Answer: 4 x 10-7 to 8 x 10-7 m
14 Which among the following is not a renewable source of energy?
A Biomass energy
B Solar energy
C Hydro-power
D Geothermal energy
Answer: Biomass energy
15 Identify the non-renewable energy resource from the following:
A Fuel cells
B Wind power
C Wave power
D Coal
Answer: Coal
16 Photovoltaic energy is the conversion of sunlight into:
A Geothermal energy
B Electricity
C Biogas
D Chemical energy
Answer: Chemical energy
17 Which among the following is not an adverse environmental impact of tidal power generation?
A Navigational hazard
B Interference with spawing and migration of fish
C Pollution and health hazard in the estuary due to blockage of flow of polluted water into the sea
D None of the above
Answer: None of the above

18 A fuel cell, in order to produce electricity, burns:
A Hydrogen
B Nitrogen
C Helium
D None of the above
Answer: Hydrogen
19 The outermost layer of the earth is:
A Crust
B Solid iron core
C Magma
D none of the above
Answer: Crust
20 The process that converts solid coal into liquid hydrocarbon fuel is called:
A Cracking
B Catalytic conversion
C Carbonation
D Liquefaction
Answer: Liquefaction
21 Cruid oil is:
A Smelly yellow to black liquid
B Odourless
C Odourless yellow to black liquid
D Colourless
Answer: Smelly yellow to black liquid

22 BTU is measurement of:
A Heat content
B Temperature
C Area
D Volume
Answer: Heat content
23 _______ is not a fossil fuel.
A Wind energy
B Petroleum
C Coal
D Natural gas
Answer: Wind energy
24 ________ reaction is continuously going on in sun.
A Thermostatic fission
B Thermostatic fusion
C Thermonuclear fission
D Thermonuclear fusion
Answer: Thermonuclear fusion
25 How much energy from sun reaches to earth's surface ?
A 1.7 x 1017 joule/second
B 3.8 x 1024 joule/second
C 3.8 x 1026 joule/second
D 1.7 x 1026 joule/second
Answer: 1.7 x 1017 joule/second
26 The value of solar constant is ________.

A 1.353 kW/m2
B 1.358 kW/m2
C 1.533 kW/m2
D None Of These
Answer: 1.353 kW/m2
27 Approximately ______ of energy striking the outer atmosphere of earth reaches its surface.
A 47 %
B 43 %
C 49 %
D None
Answer: 47 %
28 The coal reservoirs are estimated to last for another _______ years.
A 250
B 192
C 100
D None of these
Answer: 250
29 The one thing that is common to all fossil fuels is that they:
A Contain carbon
B Have undergone the same set of geological processes during their formation
C Were originally formed in marine environment
D Represent the remains of one living organisms
Answer: Contain carbon
30 Fuel cells are:
A Hydrogen battery

B Carbon cell
C Nuclear cell
D Chromium cell
Answer: Hydrogen battery
1.
Rankine efficiency of a steam power plant
A. improves in summer as compared to that in winter
B. improves in winter as compared to that in summer
C. is unaffected by climatic conditions
D. none of the above
Answer: Option B
2.
The artificial draught normally is designed to produce
A. less smoke
B. more draught
C. less chimney gas temperature
D. all of the above

Answer: Option D
3.
In a boiler installation the natural draught is produced
A. due to the fact that furnace gases being light go through the chimney giving place to cold air from
outside to rush in
B. due to the fact that pressure at the grate due to cold column is higher than the pressure at the
chimney base due to hot column
C. due to the fact that at the chimney top the pressure is more than its environmental pressure
D. all of the above
Answer: Option B
4.
In a regenerative feed heating cycle, the greatest economy is affected
A. when steam is extracted from only one suitable point of steam turbine
B. when steam is extracted from several places in different stages of steam turbine
C. when steam is extracted only from the last stage of steam turbine
D. when steam is extracted only from the first stage of steam turbine
Answer: Option B
5.
In jet type condensers
A. cooling water passes through tubes and steam surrounds them

B. steam passes through tubes and cooling water surrounds them
C. steam and cooling water mix
D. steam and cooling water do not mix
Answer: Option C
6.
In De Laval steam turbine
A. the pressure in the turbine rotor is approximately same as in condenser
B. the pressure in the turbine rotor is higher than pressure in the condenser
C. the pressure in the turbine rotor gradually decreases from inlet to exit from condenser
D. none from the above
Answer: Option A
7.
The draught produced by chimney of given height at given outside temperature
A. decreases if the chimney gas temperature increases
B. increases if the chimney gas temperature increases
C. remains same irrespective of chimney gas temperature
D. may increase or decrease

Answer: Option B
8.
In ______ system fuel from a central pulverizing unit is delivered to a bunker and then to the various
burners
A. unit
B. central
C. power
Answer: Option B
9.
Compounding of steam turbine is done for
A. reducing the work done
B. increasing the rotor speed
C. reducing the rotor speed
D. balancing the turbine
Answer: Option C
10.
In Rankine cycle the work output from the turbine is given by

A. change of internal energy between inlet and outlet
B. change of enthaply between inlet and outlet
C. change of entropy between inlet and outlet
D. change of temperature between inlet and outlet
Answer: Option B
11.
Reheat factor in steam turbines depends on
A. exit pressure only
B. stage efficiency only
C. initial pressures and temperature only
D. all of the above
Answer: Option C
12.
Incase of reaction steam turbine
A. there is enthalpy drop both in fixed and moving blades
B. there is enthalpy drop only in fixed blades
C. there is enthalpy drop only in moving blades

Answer: Option A
13.
Primary air is that air which is used to
A. reduce the flame length
B. increase the flame length
C. transport and dry the coal
D. provide air around burners for getting optimum combustion
Answer: Option C
14.
Steam turbines commonly used in steam power station are
A. condensing type
B. non-condensing type
C. both (A) and (B)
Answer: Option A
15.
India's first nuclear power plant was installed at

A. Tarapore
B. kota
C. Kalpakkam
Answer: Option A
16.
Belt conveyer can be used to transport coal at inclinations upto
A. 30°
B. 60°
C. 80°
D. 90°
Answer: Option A
17.
A steam power station requires space
A. equal to diesel power station
B. more than diesel power station
C. less than diesel power station

Answer: Option B
18.
Artificial draught is produced by
A. induced fan
B. forced fan
C. induced and forced fan
D. all of the above
Answer: Option D
19.
In a shell and tube surface condenser
A. steam and cooling water mix to give the condensate
B. cooling water passes through the tubes and steam surrounds them
C. steam passes through the cooling tubes and cooling water surrounds them
D. all of the above varying with situation
Answer: Option B
20.
Economisers improve boiler efficiency by

A. 1 to 5%
B. 4 to 10%
C. 10 to 12%
D. 8 to 12%
Answer: Option B
21.
The amount of air which is supplied for complete combustion is called
A. primary air
B. secondary air
C. tertiary air
Answer: Option B
22.
Reheat factor is the ratio of
A. isentropic heat drop to useful heat drop
B. adiabatic heat drop to isentropic heat drop
C. cumulative actual enthalpy drop for the stages to total is isentropic enthalpy heat drop

Answer: Option C
23.
Curtis turbine is
A. reaction steam turbine
B. pressure velocity compounded steam turbine
C. pressure compounded impulse steam turbine
D. velocity compounded impulse steam turbine
Answer: Option B
24.
Mercury is a choice with steam in binary vapour cycle because it has
A. higher critical temperature and pressure
B. higher saturation temperature than other fluids
C. relatively low vapourisation pressure
D. all above
Answer: Option D
25.
In regenerative cycle feed water is heated by

A. exhaust gases
B. heaters
C. draining steam from the turbine
D. all above
26.
The energy radiated by sun on a bright sunny day is approximately
A. 700 W/m²
B. 800 W/m²
C. 1 kW/m²
D. 2 kW/m²
Answer: Option C
27.
The average ash content in Indian co als is about
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
Answer: Option D

28.
The main source of production of biogas is
A. human waste
B. wet cow dung
C. wet livestock waste
D. all above
Answer: Option D
29.
Deaerative heating is done to
A. Heat the water
B. Heat the air in the water
C. Remove dissolved gases in the water
D. None of these
Answer: Option C
30.
Regenerative cycle thermal efficiency
A. is always greater than simple Rankine thermal efficiency
B. is greater than simple Rankine cycle thermal efficiency only when steam is bled at particu-lar
pressure

C. is same as simple Rankine cycle thermal efficiency
D. is always less than simple Rankine cycle thermal efficiency
Answer: Option A
31.
The maximum percentage gain in Regenerative feed heating cycle thermal efficiency
A. increases with number of feed heaters increasing
B. decreases with number of feed heaters increasing
C. remains same unaffected by number of feed heaters
Answer: Option A
32.
Rateau steam turbine is
A. reaction steam turbine
B. velocity compounded impulse steam turbine
C. pressure compounded impulse steam turbine
D. pressure velocity compounded steam turbine
Answer: Option C

33.
Edward?s air pump
A. removes air and also vapour from condenser
B. removes only air from condenser
C. removes only un-condensed vapour from condenser
D. removes air alongwith vapour and also the condensed water from condenser
Answer: Option D
34.
For Parson's reaction steam turbine, degree of reaction is
A. 75%
B. 100%
C. 50%
D. 60%
Answer: Option C
35.
The overall efficiency of thermal power plant is equal to
A. Rankine cycle efficiency
B. Carnot cycle efficiency

C. Regenerative cycle efficiency
D. Boiler efficiency x turbine efficiency x generator efficiency
Answer: Option D
36.
The thermal efficiency of the engine with condenser as compared to without condenser, for a given
pressure and temperature of steam, is
A. Higher
B. Lower
C. Same as long as initial pressure and temperature is unchanged
D. None of the above
Answer: Option A
37.
In steam turbines the reheat factor
A. increases with the increase in number of stages
B. decreases with the increase in number of stages
C. remains same irrespective of number of stages

Answer: Option A
38.
Bucket elevators are used for
A. carrying coal in horizontal direction
B. carrying coal in vertical direction
C. carrying coal in any direction
Answer: Option B
39.
The maximum length of a screw conveyer is about
A. 30 metres
B. 40 metres
C. 60 metres
D. 100 metres
Answer: Option A
40.
Pipes carrying steam are generally made up of
A. steel
B. cast iron

C. copper
D. aluminium
Answer: Option A
41.
Steam turbines are governed by the following methods
A. Throttle governing
B. Nozzle control governing
C. By-pass governing
D. all of the above
Answer: Option D
42.
The cooling section in the surface condenser
A. increases the quantity of vapour extracted along with air
B. reduces the quantity of vapour extracted along with air
C. does not affect vapour quantity extracted but reduces pump capacity of air extraction pump
Answer: Option B

43.
The ratio of exit pressure to inlet pressure of maximum mass flow rate per area of steam through a
nozzle when steam is initially superheated is
A. 0.555
B. 0.578
C. 0.5457
D. 0.6
Answer: Option C
44.
The draught in locomotive boilers is produced by
A. forced fan
B. chimney
C. steam jet
D. only motion of locomotive
Answer: Option C
45.
The percentage 02 by volume in atmosphere air is
A. 21%
B. 23%

C. 77%
D. 79%
Answer: Option A
46.
In a surface condenser if air is removed, there is
A. fall in absolute pressure maintained in condenser
B. rise in absolute pressure maintained in condenser
C. no change in absolute pressure in the condenser
D. rise in temperature of condensed steam
Answer: Option A
47.
Economiser is used to heat
A. air
B. feed water
C. flue gases
D. all above
Answer: Option B

48.
Where unpulverised coal has to be used and boiler capacity is large, the stoker which is used is
A. underfeed stoker
B. overfeed stoker
C. any
Answer: Option B
49.
The pressure on the two sides of the impulse wheel of a steam turbine
A. is same
B. is different
C. increases from one side to the other side
D. decreases from one side to the other side
Answer: Option A
50.
Thorium Breeder Reactors are most suitable for India because
A. these develop more power
B. its technology is simple

C. abundance of thorium deposits are available in India
D. these can be easily designed
Answer: Option C
51.
The ratio of exit pressure to inlet pressure for maximum mass flow rate per unit area of steam through a
nozzle when steam is initially dry saturated is
A. 0.6
B. 0.578
C. 0.555
D. 0.5457
Answer: Option B
52.
Load carrying capacity of belt conveyor is about
A. 20 to 40 tonnes/hr
B. 50 to 100 tonnes/hr
C. 100 to 150 tonnes/hr
D. 150 to 200 tonnes/hr

Answer: Option B
53.
The proper indication of incomplete combustion is
A. high CO content in flue gases at exit
B. high CO2 content in flue gases at exit
C. high temperature of flue gases
D. the smoking exhaust from chimney
Answer: Option A
54.
In case of impulse steam turbine
A. there is enthalpy drop in fixed and moving blades
B. there is enthalpy drop only in moving blades
C. there is enthalpy drop in nozzles
Answer: Option C
55.
Load center in a power station is
A. Center of coal fields
B. Center of maximum load of equipments

C. Center of gravity of electrical system
Answer: Option C
56.
The percentage O2 by Weight in atmospheric air is
A. 18%
B. 23%
C. 77%
D. 79%
Answer: Option B
57.
Solar thermal power generation can be achieved by
A. using focusing collector or heliostates
B. using flat plate collectors
C. using a solar pond
D. any of the above system
Answer: Option D

58.
The modern steam turbines are
A. impulse turbines
B. reaction turbines
C. impulse-reaction turbines
Answer: Option C
59.
The capacity of large turbo-generators varies from
A. 20 to 100 MW
B. 50 to 300 MW
C. 70 to 400 MW
D. 100 to 650 MW
Answer: Option B
60.
The efficiency of chimney is approximately
A. 80%
B. 40%

C. 20%
D. 0.25%
Answer: Option D
61.
The value of reheat factor normally varies from
A. 0.5 to 0.6
B. 0.9 to 0.95
C. 1.02 to 1.06
D. 1.2 to 1.6
Answer: Option C
62.
The critical pressure ratio of a convergent nozzle is defined as
A. the ratio of outlet pressure to inlet pressure of nozzle
B. the ratio of inlet pressure to outlet pressure of nozzle
C. the ratio of outlet pressure to inlet pressure only when mass flow rate per unit area is min-imum
D. the ratio of outlet pressure to inlet pressure only when mass flow rate = c
Answer: Option D

63.
In fuel cell, the ______ energy is converted into electrical energy.
A. mechanical
B. chemical
C. heat
D. sound
Answer: Option B
64.
Caking coals are those which
A. burn completely
B. burn freely
C. do not form ash
D. form lumps or masses of coke
Answer: Option D
65.
TravelUng grate stoker can burn coals at the rates of
A. 50 - 75 kg/m per hour
B. 75 - 100 kg/m per hour

C. 100— - kg/m per hour
D. 150 - 200 kg/m² per hour
Answer: Option D
66.
For forced draught system, the function of chimney is mainly
A. to produce draught to accelerate the combustion of fuel
B. to discharge gases high up in the atmosphere to avoid hazard
C. to reduce the temperature of the hot gases discharged
Answer: Option B
67.
In a steam power plant, the function of a condenser is
A. to maintain pressure below atmospheric to increase work output from the primemover
B. to receive large volumes of steam exhausted from steam prime mover
C. to condense large volumes of steam to water which may be used again in boiler
D. all of the above
Answer: Option D

68.
For the same draught produced the power of induced draught fan as compared to forced draught fan is
A. less
B. more
C. same
D. not predictable
Answer: Option B
69.
The commercial sources of energy are
A. solar, wind and biomass
B. fossil fuels, hydropower and nuclear energy
C. wood, animal wastes and agriculture wastes
Answer: Option B
70.
The isentropic expansion of steam through nozzle for the steam initially superheated at inlet is
approximated by equation
A. pvls=C
B. pv1126 = C

C. pv1A = C
D. pv = C
Answer: Option A
1.
Parson's turbine is
A. pressure compounded steam turbine
B. simple single wheel, impulse steam turbine
C. simple single wheel reaction steam turbine
D. multi wheel reaction steam turbine
Answer: Option D
2.
Rankine cycle operating on low pressure limit of p1 and high pressure limit of p2
A. Has higher thermal efficiency than the Carnot cycle operating between same pressure limits
B. Has lower thermal efficiency than Carnot cycle operating between same pressure limit
C. Has same thermal efficiency as Carnot cycle operating between same pressure limits
D. May be more or less depending upon the magnitude of p1 and p2
Answer: Option A

3.
Binary vapor cycles are used to
A. Increase the performance of the condenser
B. Increase the efficiency of the plant
C. Increase efficiency of the turbine
Answer: Option B
4.
The value of the reheat factor is of the order of
A. 0.8 to 1.0
B. 1.0 to 1.05
C. 1.1 to 1.5
D. above 1.5
Answer: Option C
5.
Secondary air is the air used to
A. reduce the flame length
B. increase the flame length

C. transport and dry the coal
D. provide air round the burners for getting optimum combustion
Answer: Option D
6.
The draught produced by steel chimney as compared to that produced by brick chimney for the same
height is
A. Less
B. More
C. Same
D. May be more or less
Answer: Option B
7.
Example of overfeed type stoker is
A. chain grate
B. spreader
C. travelling grate
D. all of the above

Answer: Option D
8.
In coal preparation plant, magnetic separators are used to remove
A. Dust
B. Clinkers
C. Iron particles
D. Sand
Answer: Option C
9.
Steam pressure in a steam power station, which is usually kept now-a-days is of the order of
A. 20 kgf/cm²
B. 50 kgf/cm²
C. 80 kgf/cm²
D. 100 kgf/cm²
Answer: Option D
10.
The pressure at the furnace is minimum in case of
A. forced draught system
B. induced draught system

C. balanced draught system
D. natural draught system
Answer: Option C
11.
Method which is commonly applied for unloading the coal for small power plant is
A. lift trucks
B. coal accelerators
C. tower cranes
D. belt conveyor
Answer: Option B
12.
The effect of considering friction losses in steam nozzle for the same pressure ratio leads to
A. increase in exit velocity from the nozzle
B. decrease in exit velocity from the nozzle
C. no change in exit velocity from the nozzle
D. increase or decrease depending upon the exit quality of steam
Answer: Option B

13.
The effect of considering friction in steam nozzles for the same pressure ratio leads to
A. increase in dryness fraction of exit steam
B. decrease in dryness fraction of exit steam
C. no change in the quality of exit steam
D. decrease or increase of dryness fraction of exit steam depending upon inlet quality
Answer: Option A
14.
Carnot cycle comprises of
A. two isentropic processes and two constant volume processes
B. two isentropic processes and two constant pressure processes
C. two isothermal processes and three constant pressure processes
Answer: Option B
15.
For the induced draught the fan is located
A. near bottom of chimney
B. near bottom of furnace

C. at the top of the chimney
D. anywhere permissible
Answer: Option A
16.
In India largest thermal power station is located at
A. Kota
B. Sarni
C. Chandrapur
D. Neyveli
Answer: Option C
17.
In a regenerative feed heating cycle, the optimum value of the fraction of steam extracted for feed
heating
A. Decreases with increase in Rankine cycle efficiency
B. Increases with increase in Rankine cycle efficiency
C. Is unaffected by increase in Rankine cycle efficiency

Answer: Option B
18.
For the safety of a steam boiler the number of safety valves fitted are
A. four
B. three
C. two
D. one
Answer: Option C
19.
The draught produced, for a given height of the chimney and given mean temperature of chimney gases
A. decreases with increase in outside air temperature
B. increases with increase in outside air temperature
C. remains the same irrespective of outside air temperature
D. may increase or decrease with increase in outside air temperature
Answer: Option A
20.
In a regenerative surface condenser
A. There is one pump to remove air and condensate
B. There are two pumps to remove air and condensate

C. There are three pumps to remove air, vapor and condensate
D. There is no pump; the condensate gets removed by gravity
Answer: Option B
21.
Blowing down of boiler water is the process
A. to reduce the boiler pressure
B. to increase the steam temperature
C. to control the solid concentration in the boiler water by removing some of the concentrated
saline water
Answer: Option C
22.
Reheat cycle in steam power plant is used to
A. utilise heat of flue gases
B. increase thermal efficiency
C. improve condenser performance
D. reduce loss of heat

Answer: Option B
23.
Underfeed stokers work best for __________ coals high in volatile matter and with caking tendency
A. Anthracite
B. Lignite
C. Semi-bituminous and bituminous
D. All of the above
Answer: Option C
24.
The isentropic expansion of steam through nozzle for the steam initially dry saturated at inlet is
approximated by equation.
A. pv = C
B. pv1A = C
C. pv1i = C
D. pv
Answer: Option D
25.
Rankine cycle efficiency of a good steam power plant may be in the range of
A. 15 to 20 per cent

B. 35 to 45 per cent
C. 70 to 80 per cent
D. 90 to 95 per ceut
Answer: Option B
26.
The efficiency of a modern boiler using coal and heat recovery equipment is about
A. 25 to 30%
B. 40 to 50%
C. 65 to 70%
D. 85 to 90%
Answer: Option D
27.
The draught which a chimney produces is called
A. induced draught
B. natural draught
C. forced draught
D. balanced draught

Answer: Option B
28.
Evaporative type of condenser has
A. steam in pipes surrounded by water
B. water in pipes surrounded by steam
C. either (A) or (B)
Answer: Option A

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1. Heat is generated in a nuclear reactor (thermal) by __________

a) fusion of atoms of uranium

b) absorption of neutrons in uranium atoms

c) combustion of nuclear fuel

d) fission of U-235 by neutrons

Explanation: In a nuclear reactor, heat is generated by the fission of U-235 by neutrons.

2. Thorium-232 is converted into uranium-233 in a/an __________ nuclear reactor.

a) heavy water moderated

Explanation: The conversion of Thorium-232 into Uranium-233 is done in a fast breeder.

3. An electron has a mass that is approximately __________ that of the proton.

d) none of the mentioned

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4. Which of the following may not need a control rod?

b) Liquid metal cooled reactor

c) Fast breeder reactor

d) None of the mentioned

Explanation: None of the reactors mentioned above require a control rod.

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8. Gas cooling as compared to water cooling of nuclear reactors __________

a) cannot attain a high temperature

b) is more efficient as gas has a higher specific heat

c) can produce only saturated steam for feeding to power turbine

d) none of the mentioned

9. What is the decay product of tritium?

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Explanation: Tritium decays into a Deuterium & a hydrogen atom.

d) Van De Graph Generator

Explanation: Geiger-Muller Counter is used to measure the rate of nuclear disintegration.

2. The second underground nuclear test was conducted by India at __________

3. Which of the following may not need a moderator?

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b) Fast Breeder Reactor

d) none of the mentioned

Explanation: Fast Breeder Reactor may not need a moderator.

5. Which of the following is not a naturally occurring nuclear fuel?

d) None of the mentioned

Explanation: Plutonium-239 is an artificial nuclear fuel.

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7. One amu is equivalent to?

Explanation: 91 MeV constitutes one amu.

8. Fast breeder reactors do not __________

a) use molten sodium as coolant

b) use fast neutrons for fission

c) use Th-232 as fissile fuel

d) convert fertile material to fissile material

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Explanation: Fast breeder reactors do not use Thorium-232 as fuel.

9. A boiling water reactor is the one, in which the __________

a) pressurised water is pumped into the core.

d) coolant water is allowed to boil in the core of the reactor

a) it is difficult to initiate fusion reaction

b) the fuel required (e.g. deuterium and tritium) is scarce

c) it is difficult to control fusion reaction

d) quantity of fuel required for initiating fusion reaction is prohibitively high

11. Which is a fertile nuclear fuel?

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12. Thermal shield is used in high powered nuclear reactors to __________

a) absorb the fast neutrons

b) protect the walls of the reactor from radiation damage

c) slow down the secondary neutrons