PART-I

PHYSICS 4. The variation of potential energy with distance x

This section contains 45 multiple choice questions A x
numbered 1 to 45. Each question has 4 choices (1), from a fixed point varies as U  , where A
x2  B
(2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. and B are dimensional constants.
The dimensional formula of AB is
x (1) ML7/2 T 2 (2) ML5/2 T 2
1. If the equation force = is dimensionally
density (3) ML11/2 T 2 (4) ML9/2 T 2
correct then the dimensions of quantity x will be:-
(1) M 2 L–2 T –2 (2) M0 L2 T –2 5. The length, breadth and thickness of a block are
(3) M2 L4 T –2 (4) M–2 L–2 T –2 given by l = 12 cm, b = 6 cm and t = 2.45 cm. The
Sol. [x]=[F] []=[M L T ] [M1 L–3]=M2 L–2 T –2
1 1 –2 volume of the block according to the idea of
significant figures should be
2. In a particular system, the unit of length, mass (1) 1 × 102 cm3 (2) 2 × 102 cm3
2
(3) 1.763 × 10 cm 3 (4) none of these
and time are chosen to be 10 cm, 10 g and 0.1s
respectively. The unit of force in this system will Sol. Volume of the block is given by :
be equivalent to V    b t
(1) 0.1 N (2) 1 N Substituting   12cm b  6 cm and
(3) 10 N (4) 100 N t  2.45 cm
we get
 F  MLT 2  10g 10cm  0.1
2
Sol. s
V  176.4cm3  1764
.  102 cm3
 102 kg 101 m 101 s 
2
Since, minimum number of significant figures is 1
in thickness, therefore volume will contain only
 10 1 N one significant figure.
 V  2  102 cm
3. The period of oscillation of simple pendulum is
L 6. The velocity of a particle at an instant is 10 m/s
T  2 . L length of pendulum is about 10 cm
g and after 5s the velocity of the particle is 20 m/s.
The velocity 3s before in m/s is (particle is
and is known to 1 mm accuracy. The period of
uniformly accelerating)
oscillation is about 0.5 second. The time of 100
(1) 8 (2) 4
oscillations is measured with a wrist watch of 1s
(3) 6 (4) 7
resolution. The accuracy in the determination of
Sol. Use v  u  at
g is
(1) 5% (2) 3% Here 20  10 a  5. This gives a = 2
(3) 2.01% (4) 0.02% And hence v = 10 + (2) (-3) = 4
g L T
Sol.   2 displacement
g L T
7. (m)
In terms of percentage,
g L T
100 100 2  100
g L T
Percentage error in
 L   0.1 
L   100     100    1%
 L   10 
vA
In given figure =?
Percentage error in vB

T 1
T  100   100   2% (1) 2 : 1 (2) 4 : 1
T 50
Percentage error in (3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 4
g y 2
g  100  1%  2  2%  5% Sol. Slope of A =  = vA
g x 1

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 y 1
Slope of B =  = vB
x 2
(1) (2)
8. A boat is moving with a velocity 3i  4 j with
respect to the ground. The water in the river is
moving with a velocity 3i  4 j with respect to
the ground. The relative velocity of the boat with
respect to water is (3) (4)
(1) 8 j (2) 6i  8 j
(3) 6i  8 j (4) 5 2
Sol. Acceleration is constant so curve must a straight
Sol. Relative velocity of boat w.r.t water = velocity of line.
boat– velocity of water.
12. A swimmer crosses a river with parallel banks by
9. The sum of the magnitude of two forces acting at travelling along the shortest distance. If he swims
a point is 18 and the magnitude of their resultant at 120° with the direction of the stream, with a
is 12. If the resultant is at 90° with the force of velocity of 0.5 m/s, the velocity of the stream is
the smaller magnitude, then their magnitudes are
(1) 0.25 m/s (2) 0.25 3 m / s
(1) 3, 15 (2) 4, 14
(3) 5, 13 (4) 6, 12 (3) 1 m/s (4) 0.75 m/s
Sol. See figure. Here 13 = 5 + 122.
2 2
vr 1 v
Sol. Here  sin 30º  , so v r  s
vs 2 2

vr

vs

30º
120º
10. A particle moving in a straight line covers half the
distance with speed of 3 m/s. The other half of
the distance is covered in two equal time intervals 13. The initial velocity of a particle is u (at t = 0) and
with speed of 4.5 m/s and 7.5 m/s respectively. the acceleration f is given by at. Which of the
The average speed of the particle during this following relation is valid
motion is 1
(2) v  u    at
2
(1) 4.0 m/s (2) 5.0 m/s (1) v  u  at 2
(3) 5.5 m/s (4) 4.8 m/s 2
(3) v  u  at (4) v  u
(x /2)
Sol. t1  ; x1  4.5  t2 ' Sol. f  at
3
x2  7.5  t2 dV
That is  at or dV  at dt
dt
x
Also x1  x2   (4.5  7.5) t2 v t
2 at2
x
Or   dV at dt 
2
That is t2  . u 0
24
at2
x x x Or v  u 
t  t1  2 t 2    2
6 12 4
x 1 at2
v   4ms That is v  u
t 2

11. A ball is thrown vertically upwards. Then its

velocity time (v-t) graph will be :-

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14. An aeroplane is flying horizontally with a velocity 17. A particle starting from rest moves upto 20 seconds
of 600 km/h and at a height of 1960 m. When it is with constant acceleration. If S1is the distance
vertically above a point A on the ground, a bomb covered in first 10 second and S2 is the distance
is released from it. The bomb strikes the ground, covered in last 10 seconds, then
at point B. The distance AB is (1) S2 = S1 (2) S2 = 2S1
(1) 1200 m (2) 0.33 km (3) S2 = 3S1 (4) S2 = 4S1
(3) 3.33 km (4) 33 km 1
Sol. t = [2h/g]1/2, where h = 1960m and g = 0.9m/s2 Sol. S1  a  10 2
2
This gives t = 20 s. Therefore R = 3.33 km.
1 1
S1  S2  a   20 2  a   2 10 2
2 2
15. A, B, C and D are the points in a vertical line such
that AB = BC = CD. If a body falls from rest at 1
Hence S2  3  a  10 2
A, then the times of descent through AB, BC and 2
CD are in the ratio That is S2  3S1.
(1) 1: 2  1: 3  2 (2) 1 : 2 : 3
18. A ball is dropped downwards,after1 second
(3) 1: 2 : 3 (4) 1 : 4 : 9.
another ball is dropped downwards from the same
1 2 1 1 point. What is the distance between them after 3
Sol. x gt , 2x  gt12, 3x  gt22
2 2 2 seconds ?
t  x, t1  2x, t2  3x (1) 25 m (2) 20 m
(3) 50 m (4) 9.8 m
The required ratio is 1 : 2  1 : 3  2
1 1
16. A particle moves towards east with velocity Sol. S13  S 22   10  (9)   10( 4)  25 m.
2 2
5m/s. After 10 seconds its direction changes
towards north with same velocity. The average
19. A river is flowing from east to west at a speed of
acceleration of the particle is
5 m/min. A man on South bank of river, capable
1 of swimming 10 m/min in still water, wants to swim
(1) Zero (2) m/s2 N.W..
2 across the river in shortest time. He should swim
1 1 (1) due north
(3) m/s2 N.E. (4) m/s2 S.W.. (2) due north-east
2 2
(3) due north-east with double the speed of river
(4) none of these
Sol.  v  (5)2  (5)2  5 2 Sol. For shortest time, the man should swim
perpendicular to the bank.
  V   Vf   Vi N
Vf 20. A ball is rolled off along the edge of table
(horizontal) with velocity 4 m/s. It hits the ground
after time 0.4 s. Which one of the following is
   Vi
  V wrong ?
W E (1) The height of the table is 0.8 m
(2) It hits the ground at angle of 60° with the
Vf   Vf   5m /s vertical
(3) It covers a horizontal distance 1.6 m from
the table
S
(4) It hits the ground with vertical velocity 4
m/s
v 5 2 1 Sol. Ball follows a parabolic path.
a   m/s2
t 10 2
x vxt
tan  
5  y 1/2gt2
  tan1   45º
5 
4  0.4

So, the direction is North West. 1/2 10  0.4 2  2.

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21. Two metallic spheres of same mass are given equal The two forces experienced by q1 are :
and opposite charges, then 1 qq1
(1) the mass of positively charged sphere F1  F2 
4 0  d 2 
increases    x 2 
(2) the mass of both remains the same  2  
(3) the mass of negatively charged sphere The horizontal componets of F1 and F2 will cancel
increases each other.
(4) the mass of the both spheres increases Hence net verticle force on q1 will be :
Sol. When positive charge is given, the mass of sphere F = F1 cos  + F2 cos 
decreases due to removal of electrons. And when
negative charge is given, the mass of sphere 2 qq1 x
 
increases due to addition of electrons. 4 0  d  2  1
   x 2   d  2 2
2
 2      x 
22. A charge Q is divided into two parts q and Q – q  2  
and separated by a distance R. The force of
3
repulsion between them will be maximum when 
2qq1  d  
2 2

Q Q  x    x2 
(1) q = (2) q = 40  2  
4 2
(3) q = Q (4) none of these For F be maximum, we have
1 q (Q  q ) dF d
F  0.This gives x  .
Sol. 4 0 r 2 dx 2 2

For maximum value of F,

24. Four charges equal to –Q are placed at the four
dF
0 corners of a square and a charge q is at its centre.
dq
If the system is in equilibrium the value of q is
or
Q Q
or [Q  2q ]  0 (1)  (1  2 2 ) (2) (1  2 2 )
4 4
or q  Q / 2.
Q Q
(3)  (1  2 2 ) (4) (1  2 2 )
2 2
23. Two equal charges are separated by a distance
d. A third charge placed on a perpendicular bisector F
Sol. 2F
of x distance will experience maximum coulomb
force when -Q(A) -Q(B)
d d F
(1) x  (2) x  a
2 2 2

d d O q
(3) x  (4) x  a
2 2 2 3 2

Sol. Figure below shows the configuration of the there

charges.
-Q(D) -Q(C)
a
F1 F1

AC 2  AD 2  DC 2
  or AC 2  a 2  a 2  2a 2
Qq1 or AC  2 a

x AC 2a a
Now, AO   
2 2 2

Qq Qq
It is clear from the figure that charge (-Q) at A ex-
d d periences a fporce F due to charge (-Q) placed
2 2 at B and D respectively. Hence, the resulant force
is given by :
F  F 2  F 2  2F

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 26. A charge Q is distributed over two concentric
1 Q2
Substituting F  4 0 a 2
, we get : hollow spheres of radii r and R (R > r) such that
their surface densities are equal. Find the potential
 1 Q2  at the common centre k = (4  0 )–1
F1  2  
...(1)
 4 0 a 2 
  kQ kQ(R + r )
Now, force on the charge (-Q) at A due to charge (1) (2) (R 2  r 2 )
Rr
(-Q) at C is given by :
kQ kQ
(3) (4)
1 Q2 1 Q2 r R
F2  
4 0  2a 2 4 0 2a 2 ...(2) Sol. Since, the surface charge densities of both the
concentric spheres are equal
Therefore from (1) and (2), we have :
Total force on the charge (-Q) at A, q1 q2
  
4 r 2 4 R 2
F  F1  F2
q1  4 r 2 
1  2Q 2 Q 2   
or F   2 ...(1)
4 0  a 2 2a   4 R 2 

Further, the condition for equilibrium is : Now, total charge on the sphees is given by :
Total force on charge (-Q) at A = Force between Q  q1  q2  4 r 2   4 r 2 [using (1)]
the charge (-Q) at A and charge (q) at O
that is, 
or Q  4 r 2  R2   ...(2)
1 Qq Q
F  
4 0  a  2 4 (r  R 2 )
2

 
 2 Now, total potential due to both concentric spheres
is given by:
1 q1 1 q2
V 
1  2Q 2 Q 2  1 2Qq 4 0 r 4 0 R
or  4  a 2  2a 2   4 a 2
0  0
 1 12 q q
On solving, we get : or V  4  r  R 
0  
q
Q
4

1 2 2  (using (1)
1 Q R  r 
25. A uniform electric field in the positive x-direction or V  (using (2)
4  0  R 2  r 2 
exists in a region. Let A be the origin, B be the
point on the x-axis at x = +1 cm and C be the
point on the y-axis at y = +1 cm. Then the potentials 27. In the circuit as shown in the figure the effective
at A, B and C satisfy capacitance between A and B is
(1) VA < VB (2) VA> VB 4µF
(3) VA < VC (4) VA> VC A

4µF 2µF 2µF

B
4µF
Sol.
(1) 8 µF (2) 4 µF
(3) 2 µF (4) 3 µF
Sol. By applying laws of a capacitances in series and
parallel, we can find net capacitance between A

Since, electric field E is directed from higher po- and B.
tential to lower potential Here, 2  F and 2  F capacitors are in parallel.
Hence,VA= VC > VB This gives C1= 4 F .
Also, there is no Elactric field along y-axis.
Now C1= 4 F is in series with 4  F capacitor
joined in circut which gives C2  2 F . Also,

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 4 F and 4 F capacitors are in series which Equivalunt capacitance in figure (iv) is obtained as
follows :
gives, C3  2 F .
1 1 1 15  5 20
As C 2 and C3 are parallel, this gives net capaci-    
C3 5 15 75 75
tance C  2  2  4 F .
75
28. As shown in figure, if the point C is earthed and  C3  F
20
the point A is given a potential of 2000 volt then
Charge on capacitor of 5 F capacitance is given by
the potential at point B will be
: Q = C3V
10µF 10µF 75
Substituting C3  F ; V  2000 V ,
20
5µF B we get Q  7500 C
A
C Now, potential at the point C is zero.
Hence, potential across capacitor 5 F is given by :
Q 7500C
10µF VB    1500V
5 F 5 F
(1) 400 V (2) 500 V Therefore, potential difference across A and B is
(3) 1000 V (4) 1300 V given by :
Sol. The given circuit diagram can be simplified as VA  BB  2000 V  1500V  500 V .
follows :
29. Two identical capacitors are joined in parallel and
charged to a potential V. Then these are separated
and connected in series with the positive plate of
one connected to the negative of the other. Then
(1) The potential difference between outer free
plates becomes 2V
(2) The energy stored in the system increases
(3) The charges on the free plates increases
(4) The charges on the plates connected
together are destroyed
Sol. Knowledge based.
1 1 1 1
    C1  5F
C1 10 10 5 30. A thin metallic spherical shell carries a charge Q
on it. A
point charge q is placed at the centre of the shell
and another charge q1 is placed outside it as shown
in Fig. All the three charges are positive.
5F
A Q
B

q q1

10 F
The force on the charge at the centre is
(ii)
(1) towards left (2) towards right
(3) upward (4) zero.
C2 10 5 15F

5F

75
C3  F
20
(iii) (iv)

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31. A wire of radius r has resistance R. If it is (1) W1 > W2 = W3 (2) W1 > W2 > W3
r (3) W1 < W2 = W3 (4) W1 < W2 < W3
stretched to a wire of radius, then the resistance Sol. Resistance is given by :
2
becomes V2
R
(1) 2 R (2) 4 R P
(3) 16 R (4) zero Therefore, resistance of 100 W bulbs is given by :
R1 1
Sol. If r2  nr1, then R2  4 Here n  2 . V2
n R1  ...(1)
100
Hence R2= 16 R1 . Similarly, resistance of 60 W bulbs each given by :
32. A (100 W, 200 V) bulb is connected to a 160 V V2
R2  R3  ...(2)
power supply. The power consumption would be 60
(1) 64 W (2) 80 W Now, output power of bulb B, is given by :
(3) 100 W (4) 125 W W1  I 2 R1
2002 V V
Sol. P1   100
R On putting I  Req.  R1  R2  , we get :

P2 
160 2 
16 2  100  16 2 
256
 64 W . V2
R 200 2 4 4 W1  R1 ...(3)
R1  R2 2
33. A wire of resistance R is cut inot ‘n’ equal parts. Similarly, output powers of bulbs B2, B3 respec-
These parts are then connected in parallel. The tively are given by :
equivalent resistance of the combination will be V2
W2  R2 ...(4)
R R1  R2 2
(1) nR (2)
n
V2
n R W3  ...(5)
(3) (4) R3
R n2
From (3) and (4), we have :
R
Sol. Here, n resistors of resistance are connected W1 R1

n
W2 R2
in parallele
Substituting the values of R1, R2 from equations
R
Reg  (1) and (2) and on solving, we get :
n2
W1 15
 ...(6)
W2 25
34. If two bulbs of wattage 25 and 30, each rated at
220 volts, are connected in series with a 440 volt Also, from (4) and (5), we get :
supply, which bulb will fuse ? W2

R3 R2
(1) 25 watt bulb (2) 30 watt bulb W3 R1  R2 2
(3) Neither of them (4) Both of them Substituting the values of R1, R2, R3 from equa-
Sol. voltage across 25 watt bulb will be greater than tions (1), (2) and on solving, we get :
the breakdown voltage.
W2 1
 ...(7)
W3 64
35. A 100 W bulb B1, and two 60 W bulbs B2 and B3,
are connected to a 250 V source, as shown in From (6) and (7), we have :
figure. Now W1, W2 and W3 are the output powers W1 : W2 : W3  15 : 25 : 64
of the bulbs B1, B2 and B3 respectively. Then  W1  W2  W3
100W 60W
B1 B2 36. A proton of mass m and charge +e moving in a
circular orbit of magnetic field with energy 1 meV.
What should be the energy of  -particle (mass 4m
B3
and charge +2e) so that it can revolve in the path of
60W same radius as that of proton ?
250V (1) 1 MeV (2) 4 MeV
(3) 2 MeV (4) 0.5 MeV

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 mv 2 mv 2mE 0 2I
Bqv  r  Sol. B 
Sol. r Bq Bq 4 r
The magnetic field of the two wires in the
1 2 mv  2
space between them is in oppsite direction. So,
E  mv 
2 2m it is zero on the mid point between them.
 p2 
E   p  mv  2mE  40. A current loop is placed near a long straight wire
 2m  which also carries a current. The direction of
currents are shown in the figure.
mE
Hence r  q as 2 and B are constants.

q
r1 m1 E1 q2
 . .
r2 m2 E2 q1

1 E1 2 E1
 1 .    E1  E2
4 E2 1 E2 (1) The wire is repelled from the loop
(2) The wire is attracted towards the loop
(3) There is no net force between the loop and
37. A positively charged particle moving due east
the wire
enters a region of uniform magnetic field directed
(4) The force should have attraction or repulsion
vertically upwards. The particle will
depending on the magnitudes of the currents
(1) get deflected vertically upwards
Sol. Net force is away from the wire.
(2) move in a circular orbit with its speed
increased
41. A current i flows in a circular coil of radius r. If
(3) move in a circular orbit with its speed
the coil is placed in a uniform magnetic field B
unchanged
with its plane parallel to the field, magnitude of
(4) continue to move due east
the torque that acts on the coil is
Sol. It will be centripetal force and no work will be
(1) zero (2) 2  r i B
done on the particle.(Speed will be constant)
(3)  r2 i B (4) 2  r2 i B
 
38. A coil of one turn is made of a wire of certain Sol. Here   Pm  B
length and then from the same length a coil of And Pm  iA  i r 2
two turns is made. If the same current is passed  
in both the cases, then the ratio of the magnetic Also, the angle between Pm and B is 90º.
induction at their centres will be
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 4 42. Two particles A and B of masses mA and mB
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 2 respectively and having the same charge are
0n1I 0 I
moving in a plane.
Sol. B1   ; n1  1 l  2r1  2r2  2 uniform magnetic field exists perpendicular to
2r1 2r1
this plane. The speeds of the particles vA and vB
 r2  r1 / 2 espectively and the trajectories are as shown in
0  2I the figure. Then
B2  0 n2 I / 2r2   4 B1
r1
2
2 A
39. Two parallel wires are at a distance 2 d apart.
They carry steady equal currents flowing out of B
the part of the paper, as shown. The variation of
the magnetic field B along the line XX' is given by
B B
X’ X’ (1) mA vA < mB vB
(1) (2)
(2) mA vA > mB vB
d d
(3) mA < mB and vA < vB
B B (4) mA = mB and vA = vB
X’ X’
(3) (4)
d d

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Sol. It is clear from the figure that ratio of value of magnetic field at their centre :
mAV A mBVB (1) 8 : 1 (2) 4 : 1
rA  rB or 
qB qB (3) 1 : 8 (4) 1 : 4
or m AV A  mBVB Sol. Current is same in both coils.
(q and B are the same for both the particles). B1   0 N1I / 2R1   N1  R 2 
   
43. An infintely long straight conductor is bent into B2   0 N 2 I / 2R 2   N 2  R1 
the shape as shown in figure. It carries a current
of i amperes and the radius of the circular loop is
r metre, then the magnetic induction at the centre PART-II
of the circular part is CHEMISTRY
r This section contains 45 multiple choice questions
j C numbered 46 to 90. Each question has 4 choices (1),
(1) zero (2) infinite
(2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
2 0i (   1) 2 0i (   1)
(3) (4) 46. Principal, azimuthal and magnetic quantum
4 r 4 r
numbers are respectively related to
o i  2i (1) Size, shape and orientation
Sol. B= + o
2 R 4 R (2) Shape, size and orientation
(3) Size, orientation and shape
(4) None of the above
44. A particle of mass m and charge q moves a Ans. (1)
constant velocity v along the positive x-direction. Sol. n, l and m are related to size, shape and orientation
It enters a region containing a uniform magnetic respectively.
field B directed along the negative z-direction,
extending from x = a to x = b. The minimum value 47. In ground state of 24Cr :
of v required so that the particle can just enter the (1) 13 electrons have spin in the one direction
region x > b is and 11 electrons in other direction
qbB q (b  a ) B (2) 14 electrons have spin in one direction and
(1) (2) 15 electrons in other direction
m m
(3) 15 electrons have spin in one direction and
qaB q (b  a ) B
(3) (4) 9 electrons in other direction
m 2m
(4) 13 electrons have clockwise direction and 11
electrons in anticlockwise direction
B Ans. (3)
Sol. 24Cr : 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6 3d5, 4s1)

Sol. 48. The number of electrons in sulphur atom having

n+l=3
x=a x=b
(1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 6 (4) 8
The radius of the circular track following by a Ans. (4)
charge particle in the magnetic field inclined per- Sol. Electronic configuration of S atom is 1s2 2s2 2p6
pendicular to the plane of motion is given by 3s2 3p4.
mv
The number of electrons having n + l = 3 is
r n = 2, l = 1 represents 2p orbital which contains
qB
six electrons.
Now, for the particle to enter the region x > b, we
n = 3, l = 0 represents 3s orbitals which
have
contains two electrons.
mv Hence, the total number of electrons is eight.
  b  a
qB
49. A compound of vanadium possesses a magnetic
45. Two circular coils of radii ratio 1 : 2 and turn ratio moment of 1.73 BM. The compound will be
4 : 1 respectively are connected in series. The (1) VCl (2) VCl2

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 (3) VCl4 (4) VCl5 Mmix = M N × x + M CO (1 – x)
Ans. (3) 2 2

Sol. We have 1.73 = 3 = 1(1  2) BM 1

36 = 28 × x + 44 (1 – x)  x =
Since, V 4+ contains one unpaired electron, 2
therefore, it will have oxidation state +4. V4+ has Therefore , moles of N2 = moles of CO2 in the
with electronic configuration [Ar] 3d1. mixture
280
50. If the electronic configuration of oxygen atom is Moles of N2 = = 10 (Given)
28
2p
wt. of CO 2
written as 1s 2 , 2s 2 it would Moles of CO2 = = 10
44
violate Hence, weight of CO2 = 440 g
(1) Hund's rule
(2) Pauli's exclusion principle 53. Decreasing order (first having highest and then
(3) Both Hund's and Pauli's principles others following it) of mass of pure NaOH in
(4) None of these each of the aqueous solution:
Ans. (3) (i) 50 g of 40% (w/w) NaOH
(ii) 50 mL of 50% (w/v) NaOH[dsoln.=1.2 g/mL]
51. The largest number of molecules is in (iii) 50 g of 15 M NaOH [dsoln. = 1 g / mL]
(1) 34 g of water (2) 28 g of CO2
(1) i, ii, iii (2) iii, ii, i
(3) 46 g of CH3OH (4) 54 g of N2O5
(3) ii, iii, i (4) ii, i, iii
Ans. (1)
Ans. (2)
Sol. (a) 34 gm of water
 18 gm H2O = 6.023 × 1023 molecule 40
Sol. (i) Mass of NaOH = 50 × = 20 g
100
6.023  10 23
 34 gm H2O = × 34
18 w
(ii) NaOH  50 g NaOH in 100 mL
= 11.37 × 1023 mole v
(b) 28 gm of CO2 So, in 50 mL, mass of NaOH will be = 25 g
 44 gm CO2 = 6 × 1023 molecules (iii) 50 g of 15 M NaOH (d = 1 g/mL)
15 M NaOH  15 moles NaOH in 1000 mL
6  10 23 solution
 28 gm CO2 = × 28 = 3.8 × 1023
44 Mass of solution = 1000 × 1 = 1000 g
(c) 46 gm of CH3 OH Mass of NaOH = 15 × 40 = 600 g
 32 gm CH3 = 6 × 1023 molecule In 1000 g solution mass of NaOH = 600 g

6  10 23 600
 46 gm CH3OH= × 46 = 8.625 × 1023 So, in 50 g solution, mass of NaOH= ×50
32 1000
(d)  108 gm of N2O5 = 6 × 1023 molecule = 30 g
order (iii) > (ii) > (i)
6  10 23
 54 gm of N2O5 = ×54 = 3 × 1023
108 54. 25.3 g of sodium carbonate, Na2CO3 is dissolved
molecules. in enough water to make 250 mL of solution. If
sodium carbonate dissociates completely, molar
52. The average molecular mass of a mixture of concentration of sodium ion, Na+ and carbonate
gas containing nitrogen and carbon dioxide is ions, CO32– are respectively (Molar mass of
36. The mixture contain 280 g of nitrogen, Na2CO3 = 106 g mol–1)
therefore , the amount of CO2 present in the (1) 0.955 M and 1.910 M
mixture is (2) 1.910 M and 0.955 M
(1) 440 g (2) 44 g (3) 1.90 M and 1.910 M
(3) 0.1 mol (4) 880 g (4) 0.477 M and 0.477 M
Ans. (1) Ans. (2)
Sol. Let the mole fraction of N2 be x
Therefore, mole fraction of CO2 = 1 – x

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 Sol. All are correct
number of moles of solute
Sol. Molarity = volume of solution (in mL ) 1000 = 58. In which of the following reaction size of product
ion is less than initial atom/ion ?
25.3 1000 (1) Ne(g) + e  Ne– (g)
106  250 = 0.9547  0.955 M (2) Na(g)  Na+ (g) + e–
(3) O–(g) + e–  O– – (g)
Na2CO3 in aquesous solution remains dissociated (4) Mg++(g) + e  Mg+ (g)
as Ans. (2)
Na2CO3 2Na+ + CO32 Sol. Radius : cation< atom < anion
x 2x x
59. In which of the following arrangements, the order
Since, the molarity of Na2CO3 is 0.955 M, the
is not correct according to the property indicated
molartiy of CO32 is also 0.955 M and that of Na+ against it:
is 2 × 0.955 = 1.910 M (1) Increasing size : F < O < N < C
(2) Increasing E1 : B < C < O < F
55. If 2M, 200 ml HCl, 2M, 100 ml CaCl2 and 5M, (3) Decreasing negative value of first
200 ml AlCl3 is mixed then final concentration of Heg : Cl > F > Br
Cl– will be : (4) Basic strength of oxides :
(1) 2.5 M (2) 3 M (Al2O3 > MgO > Na2O)
(3) 3.5 M (4) 7.6 M Ans. (4)
Ans. (4) Sol. Correct order of basic strength
Na2O > MgO > Al2O3.
M1V1  2M 2 V2  3M 3V3
Sol. [Cl¯] =
V1  V2  V3 60. The correct order of second ionisation enthalpy in
the following :
2  200  2  2  100  3  5  200 (1) F > O > N > C (2) O > F > N > C
=
200  100  200 (3) O > N > F > C (4) C > N > O > F
Ans. (2)
400  400  3000 3800
=  = 7.6 M
500 500 61. An amount of 1.00 g of a gaseous compound of
boron and hydrogen occupies 0.820 liter at 1.00
56. The five successive ionisation energies for an atom atm and at 30C. The compound is
X are 800, 2425, 3660, 25025 and 32800 KJ/mole (R = 0.0820 liter atm mole1 K1; at. wt:
respectively. The formula of oxide of X is : H = 1.0, B = 10.8)
(1) XO (2) XO2 (3) X2O3 (4) X2O (1) BH3 (2) B4H10
Ans. (3) (3) B2H6 (4) B3H12
Sol. A sudden jump in ionisation energies of an element Ans. (3)
is observed at (n + 1) value. Where n is number Sol. PV = nRT
of valence electrons.
1
Here sudden jump in IE observed at fourth value PV = RT,, M = 27.6
M
hence valence electrons are three and valency of
X is 3 and valency of oxygen is 2. So the formula
of oxide of X is X2O3.

57. Which one of the following statements is

correct ? 62.
(1) The elements having large negative values of
electron gain enthalpy generally act as strong
oxidising agents. If the above plot is replotted at 373 K, then which
(2) The elements having low values of ionisation of the following plots may show the correct
behaviour at 373 K.
enthalpies act as strong reducing agents.
(3) The formation of S2–(g) from S(g) is an
endothermic process.
(4) All of these.
Ans. (All)

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  y y
Sol. CxHy +  x  4  O2  xCO2 + H O
  2 2
(1) y
x 7
4 =
x 4

y 3 y 3
= or =
4x 4 x 1
(2)
65. Two closed vessel A and B of equal volume
containing air at pressure P1 and T1 are connected
to each other through a narrow open tube. If the
temperature of one is now maintained at T1 and
other at T2 (where T1 > T2) then the what will be
(3) the final pressure ?
T1 2P1T2
(1) 2P T (2) T  T
1 2 1 2

2P1T1 2P1
(3) T – T (4) T  T
(4) 1 2 1 2

Ans. (2)
Sol. Let T1 > T2 ; final pressure will be same, Let x
Ans. (3)
mole transfer from A to B vessel.
 PAV = (n – x) RT1
63. For the above graph, drawn for two different
and PAV = (n + x) RT2
samples of gases at two different temperatures
n(T1 – T2 )
T 1 and T 2, which of the following statements is  x= T1  T2
necessarily true :
nRT1
finally P1  2V = 2nRT1; V = P1

nRT1  n(T1 – T2 ) 
 PA  = n –  T1
P1  (T1  T2 )  RT

2P1T2
PA = T  T
(1) If T2 > T 1, MA is necessarily greater than 1 2

MB
(2) If T1 > T 2, MB is necessarily greater than 66. A specific volume of H2 requires 24 second to
diffuse out of a container. The time required by
MA
an equal volume of O2 to diffuse out under
T2 T1 identical conditions, is :
(3) M > M (1) 24 sec. (2) 96 sec.
B A
(3) 384 sec. (4) 192 sec.
(4) Nothing can be predicted Ans. (2)
Ans. (3)
rO MH rO2 2
64. A gaseous alkane is exploded with oxygen. The Sol.
2
 2
; 
rH MO 2 rH 32
volume of O2 for complete combustion to CO2 2 2

formed is in the ratio 7/4. The molecular formula rO

of alkane is : 1
2
 rO 2 : rH2  1 : 4
(1) C2H4 (2) C2H6 rH2 4
(3) CH4 (4) C4H12
Ans. (4)

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 70. Pick out the incorrect statement.
1 (1) N2 has greater dissociation energy than N2+
t =
1
or t = 96 S (2) O2 has lower dissociation energy than O2+
1 4 (3) Bond length in N2+ is less than N2
24 (4) Bond length in NO+ is less than in NO
Ans. (3)
Sol. Bond order : N2+ < N2
67. The number of non-polar molecules among Bond length : N2+ > N2
following are
XeF4, XeF2, XeF6, XeO3F2, XeO2F4, PF3Cl2, 71. The species which are paramagnetic are :
PF2Cl3, I Cl4–1 (1) NO (2) NO2
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) ClO2 (4) all of the above
(3) 7 (4) 8 Ans. (4)
Ans. (2) Sol. NO, NO2, ClO2, all are odd electron molecule and
Sol. XeF6 : distorted octahedral hence paramagnetic.

72. Which of the following represents a pyrosilicate

F
Cl structure.
PF3Cl2; F P Cl — Oxygen ; — Silicon
F
are asymmetric molecules and hence polar.

68. The number of molecules having two or more p–

(1) (2)
d bond among following
H3PO4, P4O10, SO3, SO2, HClO4, HClO3, HClO2,
N 2O 5.
(1) 4 (2) 5
(3) 6 (4) 7
Ans. (1)
Sol. H3PO4, HClO2 : Only 1 -bond (3) (4)
N2O5 : No d-orbitals
S 1 p–d
SO2 : 1 p–p Ans. (3)
O O
Rest all have 2 or more p–d bonds.

69. S1 : I3– , N3– , XeF2 are all linear and sp-

hybridised. Sol. is pyrosilicate
S2 : NH2– , NH3, NH4 have same
hybridization and shape.
S3 :Both trimethylamine N(CH3)3 and
73. Which is correct order of ionic mobility in aqueous
trisilylamine N(SiH3)3 are pyramidal and
medium –
sp3 hybridised.
  
(1) TTT (2) FFF (1) Li(aq) < Na(aq) < Rb(aq)
(3) TFT (4) FTF 3 2 
Ans. (2) (2) Al(aq) < Mg(aq) < Na(aq)
  
Sol. S1 : I3–1 : sp3d : Linear (3) Li(aq) > Na(aq) > K (aq)
N3–1 : sp : Linear (4) Both (1) & (2)
XeF2 : sp3d : Linear
Ans. (4)
S2 :All have sp3 hybridisaion but different
Sol. Smaller the ion, higher the hydration, lower the
shapes due to different number of lone pairs.
mobility.
S3 :N(SiH3)3 is trigonal planar and sp2
hybridised due to back bonding.

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74. Which one is incorrect statement among the
following ?
(1) PH5, SCl6 and FCl3 do not exist.
(2) p  d bond is present in SO2 molecule. (3) (4)
(3) 12 P–O bonds are present in P4O6 molecule.
(4) Bond angle in SiH4 less than that in CH4.
Ans. (4)
Sol. (1) PH5 does not exist as there is large difference 77. Which of the following species has all the bonds
in energies of s, p and d orbitals and hence it of same length ?
does not undergo sp3d hybridisation.
In SCl6, smaller S cannnot accomodate six (1) ClF3 (2) NO3–
larger Cl– ions. Fluorine can not expand its (3) N2O5 (4) BrF5
octet because it does not have vacant d- Ans. (2)
orbitals. So FCl3 does not exist.
 F
O O F
Sol.  Cl F N—O—N F F
O O Br
(2) F F F

All have different bond length.
O
N
—
O O
(3) P4O6
Due to resonance all N–O bond length are
same.

75. Select the correct order(s).

(1) PH3 < AsH3 < NH3 < SbH3 : bond angle COOH
(2) F2O > H2O > Cl2O : bond angle
(3) O2 < O3 < O22– : O – O bond length
(4) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3 : bond angle
Ans. (3) 78. H2 N CHO
Sol. (1) NH3 (106.6º) > PH3 (93.8º) > AsH3 (91.83º)
> SbH3 (91.3º) – bond angle IUPAC name of the compound is
(2) Cl2O (110.9º) > H2O (104.5°) > F2O (103.3º) (1) 3-Amino-2- formyl cyclopropane carboxylic
acid
(2) 2-Amino-3- formyl cyclopropane carboxylic
acid
(3)
(3) 3-Amino-2- formyl cyclopropanoic acid
(4) 2-Amino-3- formyl cyclopropanoic acid
(4) All are trigonal planar (bond angle 120º). Ans. (2)
Sol. -COOH is the principle functional group so -CHO
76. Which of the following would be expected to have and -NH2 groups are treated as substituents.
zero dipole moment on the basis of symmetry ? As locants are same so alphabetic order of
(1) XeF2 (2) OF2 substituents is considered for numbering.
(3) SF2 (4) NF3
Ans. (1) 79. Which of the following name is not correct
according to IUPAC nomenclature ?

(1) : 2-Methylheptan-3-one
O
Sol. (1) (2)
(2) C6H5CH2CHO : Phenylethanal
O
(3) : Hex-4-yn-2-one

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 (4) p-BrC6H4CH2COCH3 3-(4-bromophenyl)
propan-2-one
Ans. (4)
Sol. (4) p-BrC6H4CH2COCH3 1-(4-bromophenyl) Sol. , ,
propan-2-one

80. Structural formula of 3–Ethenyl–1,4–

pentanediol is :

(1)

83. Total number of optical active stereoisomer of the

(2)
following are :

(3)

(1) 2 (2) 3
(4) None of these
Ans. (3) (3) 4 (4) 1

81. Identify correct statement about given structure Ans. (3)

OH OH Sol. Molecule is unsymmetrical so all 4 stereoisomers

CH–CH3 CH2–CH3 are optically active.
and
(I) (II) 84. Which will show geometrical isomerism ?

(1) Both are structural isomers

(2) Both are functional isomers
(1) (2)
(3) The degree of unsaturation is 4
(4) All are correct
Ans. (4)
Sol. Structure I and II both are functional isomers and
the degree of unsaturation = 4 (3) (4)

Ans. (1)
82. The number of aromatic position isomers
Sol. Follow conditions of geometrical isomerism.
containing benzene ring with molecular formula
85. Consider the following four statements
C6H6O3 are S1 : Geometrical isomers are not mirror image
isomer.
(1) 4 (2) 3 S2 : A compound having double bond (restricted
bond) always show geometrical isomerism
(3) 6 (4) 5 S3 : Acyclic compound having single bond does
not show geometrical isomerism
Ans. (2) S4 : Cyclodecene can exist in cis & trans form
(1) T F F T (2) T T F T
(3) F F F T (4) T F T T
Ans. (4)

86. Which point on the potential energy diagram is

represented by Newman projection shown for

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 butane molecule ?
Na metal
–ve
X (C6H8 O)
Neutral
–ve
FeCl3
Lucas
No turbidity
reagent

what is X?
(1) Anisol (2) o-Cresol
(3) p-Cresol (4) m-Cresol
(1) P (2) Q
(3) R (4) S Ans. (1)
Ans. (4)
90. In Dumas method of estimation of nitrogen 0.56 g
87. The R/S designation for the following stereoiso- of an organic compound gave 50 ml nitrogen gas
mer of 1,3-Dibromo-2-methylbutane is : collected at 300K and 778 mm of Hg pressure.
The percentage of nitrogen in the compound is
(Aqueous tension at 300K = 18 mm of Hg)
(1) 15 (2) 20
(3) 10 (4) 30
Ans. (3)
Sol. Partial pressure of N2 = 778-18 = 760 mm
(1) 2R, 3R (2) 2R, 3S = 1 atm
(3) 2S, 3R (4) 2S, 3S
Pv 1 0.50
Ans. (1) mass of N2 =  28   28
RT 1
Sol. The given structure has 2R, 3R designation.  300
12
= 0.056 g
0.056
% of nitrogen = 100 10%
5.6

PART-III
88. The most suitable method for the separation of a
BIOLOGY
mixture of ortho and para nitrophenol mixed in a
This section contains 90 multiple choice questions
ratio 1:1 is ?
(1) Crystallization (2) Vaporization
numbered 91 to 180. Each question has 4 choices (1),
(3) Steam distillation (4) Chromatography (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Ans. (3)
91. The ealiest serious effots to classify the living
Sol. O-nitrophenol is steam valatile due to intramolecu-
things were made by :
lar H-bonding
(1) Greek philosophers
(2) Latin American sccientist
89. A unknown compound X (C6H8O) give following
(3) British herbalists
test
(4) Indian Hakims

92. Classification proposed by Bentham and Hooker

is mainly based on:
(1) Embryological characters
(2) Floral characters
(3) Vegetative characters
(4) Phylogenetic characters

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93. The separation of living beings into five kingdom
is based on : 103. Which of the following is membraneless -
(1) Complexity of cell structure (1) Ribosomes (2) Nucleolus
(2) Complexity of organism’s body (3) Centriole (4) All
(3) Mode of obtaining nutrition
(4) All the above
104. Which of the following is Nucleoproteinaceous -
94. Which of the following organism were never (1) Chromosomes, Viruses and ribosomes
included in protista : (2) Centriole, Viruses and lysosome
(1) Bacteria (2) Red algae (3) Viruses, chromosomes and vacuole
(3) Slimemolds (4) Mosses (4) Nucleus, GB, DNA

95. In which book, Linnaeus proposed the principles 105. 70S ribosomes are found -
of nomenclature : (1) In prokaryotic cells, mitochondria and
(1) Species plantarum chloroplast
(2) Systema Naturae (2) In prokaryotic cells and in cytoplasm of
(3) Flora lapponica eukaryotic cells
(4) Philosophia botanica (3) On Endoplasmic reticulum
(4) On Endoplasmic reticulum and Nuclear
96. According to Tippo. BGA is included in : membrane
(1) Chrysophyta (2) Pyrrophyta
(3) Chlorophyta (4) Cyanophyta 106. Bacterial cell are prokaryotic; in comparison to a
typical eukaryotic cell they would.
97. Oswald Tippo placed slime molds in : (1) be smaller
(1) Cyanophyta (2) Chlorophyta (2) have a smaller nucleus
(3) Phaeophyta (4) Myxomycophyta (3) lack a plasma membrane
(4) Have fewer internal membranous
98. “Genera Plantarum” was written by : compartments
(1) Engler and Prantal (2) Hutchinson
(3) Bentham & Hooker (4) Bessey 107. Which of the following correctly matches an
organelle with its function?
99. Angiosperms (dicotyledons) were distinguished (1) Mitochondrion .... photosynthesis
into archichlamdae and metachlamydae by : (2) nucleus .. cellular respiration
(1) Candolle (2) Hutchinson (3) ribosome ... manufacture of lipids
(3) Engler and Prantle (4) None (4) central vacuole ... storage

100. Chief merit of Bentham and Hooker ’s
classification is that :
(1) It is system mostly based on evalutionary
concepts
(2) It is a natural system of classification of all
groups of plants
(3) The description of the taxa are based on actual
observation of the specimen
(4) It also considers the phylogenetic aspects
108. The term " nuclear envelope" is more correct than
the term "nuclear membrane" because-
(1) The enclosure has pores which membranes
do not
(2) The enclosure is made up of two membranes
(3) The chemical composition is inconsistent with
cellular membranes
(4) None of the above. The two terms are perfect
synonyms.

101. Grana of the chloroplast are interconnected by - 109. A cell has mitochondria, ribosomes, smooth and
(1) Granal thylkoids (2) Granal lamellae rough ER, and other parts. Based on this
(3) Stromal lamellae (4) Stroma information, it could not be-
(1) a cell from a pine tree
102. The stroma of chloroplast has - (2) a grasshopper cell
(1) Enzymes for protein synthesis only (3) a yeast (fungus) cell
(2) Enzymes for carbohydro synthesis (4) a bacterium
(3) Both
(4) Enzymes for dark reaction and oxidative 110. Passage through pores in the nuclear envelope is
phosphorylation restricted primarily to-

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 (1) Proteins, RNA, and protein RNA complexes (3) Xylem fibres (4) Pith fibres
(2) lipids and glycolipids
(3) DNA and RNA 120. Quiscent centre is a -
(4) RNA and protein carbohydrate complexes (1) Active zone (2) Weak zone
111. Thorn of Citrus and Bougainvillea is modified - (3) Inactive zone (4) Strong zone
(1) Stem (2) Root
(3) Leaf (4) Inflorescence 121. The living cells providing tensile strength are -

112. Thorn develops from - (1) Parenchyma (2) Collenchyma

(1) Root (2) Leaf (3) Sclerenchyma (4) Sclerotic cells
(3) Axillary bud (4) Peduncle
122. Malpighian cells are -
113. Some plants of arid regions modify their stems (1) Brachysclerides (2) Macrosclerides
into flattened (Opuntia), or fleshy cylindrical (3) Astroscleride (4) Trichosclerides
(Euphorbia) green structures called -
(1) Phyllode (2) Rhizome 123. Velamen is found in-
(3) Phylloclade (4) Cladode (1) Vanda (2) Rose
(3) Viscum (4) Santalum
114. In Banana, Pineapple and Chrysanthemum, the
lateral branches originate from the basal and 124. Conjoint, colletral and open vascular bundles with
underground portion of mainstem and then come endarch xylem are present in-
obliquely upward giving rise to leafy shoots. These (1) Monocot stem (2) Dicot stem
branches are called - (3) Monocot root (4) Dicot root
(1) Runner (2) Sucker
(3) Napiform (4) Phylloclade 125. Triradiate vascular bundles can be traced in-

115. Offset is one internode long runner and its each (1) Monocot stems (2) Dicot roots
node bears rosette of leaves and a tuft of roots. It (3) Monocot roots (4) Dicot stems
is found in aquatic plants like -
(1) Hydrilla (2) Pistia 126. Match the columns -
(3) Eichhornia (4) Both 2 and 3 Column I Column II
A. Radial 1. Cucurbitaceae
116. Among bitter gourd, mustard, brinjal, pumpkin, B. Collaleral 2. Dracaena
china rose, lupin, cucumber, sunnhemp, gram, C. Bicolletoral 3. Root system
guava, bean, chilli, plum, petunia, tomato, rose, D. Concentric 4. Dicot stem
withania, potato, onion, aloe, and tulip how many 5. Seed
plants have hypogynous flower - A B C D
(1) Six (2) Ten (1) 2 3 4 1
(3) Fifteen (4) Eighteen (2) 5 4 3 1
(3) 3 4 1 2
117. In china rose the flowers are - (4) 1 3 4 5
(1) Actinomorphic, hypogynous with twisted
aestivation 127. Intrinsic factor is secreted by :
(2) Actinomorphic, epigynous with valate (1) Mucus cells (2) Chief cells
aestivation (3) Parietal cells (4) Gastric cells
(3) Zygomorphic, hypogynous with imbricate
aestivation 128. Trypsinogen is activated by :
(4) Zygomorphic, Epigynous with twisted (1) Enterokinase (2) Enterocrinin
aestivation (3) Enterogasterone (4) HCl

118. Seed coat is not thin, membranous in - 129. What will happen if the secretion of parietal cells
(1) Maize (2) Coconut of gastric glands is blocked with an inhibitor ?
(3) Groundnut (4) Gram (1)In the absence of HCl secretion, inactive
pepsinogen is not converted into the active
119. Jute fibres are anatomically- enzyme pepsin
(1) Bast fibres (2) Cortical fibres (2) Enterokinase will not be released from the

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 duodenal mucosa and so trypsinogen is not (2) Only pepsinogen
converted to trypsin (3) Mucus, bicarbonates, pepsin and HCl
(3) Gastric juice will be deficient in chymosin (4) Only pepsin
(4) Gastric juice will be deficient in pepsinogen
130. Which of the following statements is incorrect ? 137. During inspiration, air passes into lungs due to
(1) Mucosal epithelium has goblet cells which (1) Increase in volume of thoracic cavity and fall
secrete mucus for lubrication in lung pressure
(2) Mucosa forms gastric glands in the stomach (2) Fall in pressure inside the lungs
and crypts in between the bases of villi in (3) Increased volume of thoracic cavity
intestine (4) Muscular expansion of lungs
(3) Cells lining the villi has brush border or
microvilli 138. Rate and depth of respiration shall increase when
(4) All the four basic layers in the wall of gut (1) Oxygen concentration increases
never show modifications in different parts (2) CO2 concentration increases
of the alimentary canal (3) Bicarbonate concentration increases
(4) Bicarbonate concentration decreases
131. Which of the following statements is incorrect
about pancreas ? 139. If the CO2 concentration in the blood increases,
(1) It is compound gland as it has both exocrine the breathing shall
and endocrine part (1) Increase (2) Decrease
(2) Exocrine part secretes alkaline pancreatic (3) Stop (4) No affect.
juice having enzymes
(3) Endocrine part secretes hormones like insulin 140. The process of respiration is concerned with
and glucagon (1) Intake of O2
(4) It is surrounded by Glisson's capsule (2) Liberation of O2
(3) Liberation of CO2
132. The contraction of gall bladder is due to - (4) Liberation of energy
(1) gastrin (2) cholecystokinin
(3) secretin (4) kinase 141. During inspiration, the diaphragm:
(1) relaxes to become dome-shaped
133. The upper surface of the tongue has small (2) contracts and flattens
projections, some of which bear taste buds. These (3) expands
projections are called (4) shows no change
(1) Papillae (2) Taste pore
(3) Frenulus (4) Sulcus terminalis 142. If the CO2 concentration in the blood increases,
the breathing shall
134. Which of the following statements is false (1) Increase (2) Decrease
(1) Mucosal epithelium has goblet cells which (3) Stop (4) No affect.
secrete mucus for lubrication
(2) Mucosa forms gastric glands in the stomach 143. The process of respiration is concerned with
and crypts in between the bases of villi in (1) Intake of O2
intestine (2) Liberation of O2
(3) Cells lining the villi has brush border ot microvilli (3) Liberation of CO2
(4) Liberation of energy
(4) All the four basic layer in the wall of gut never
show modification in different parts of the
alimentary canal 144. During inspiration, the diaphragm:
(1) relaxes to become dome-shaped
135. Which of the following statements about starch (2) contracts and flattens
digestion is false (3) expands
(1) It begins in mouth (4) shows no change
(2) It occurs in stomach
(3) It requires the action of pancreatic amylase 145. Rate of breathing in an adult human is:
(4) Its digestion is completed into small intestine (1) 10-12/min (2) 12-16/min
(3) 20-25/min (4) 25-30/min
136. Gastric juice has
(1) Only HCl 146. The structure which does not contribute to the

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 breathing movements in mammals is : 156. Blood is :
(1) Larynx (2) Ribs (1) Connective tissue (2) Epithelial tissue
(3) Diaphragm (4) Intercostal muscles (3) Fluid tissue (4) Muscular tissue

147. Cockroach and other insects have exoskeleton 157. Phylogeny refers to :
made up of : (1) Naramal classification
(1) Keratin (2) Spongin (2) Evolutionary classification
(3) Evolutionary history
(3) Chitin (4) Cuticle
(4) Origin of algae

148. Hepatic caeca in cockroach are derived from : 158. At present, how many life forms are known to
(1) Crop (2) Gizzard mankind ;
(3) Midgut (4) Proctodaeum (1) 1.7 million (2) 2.6 million
(3) 2.8 million (4) 4.3 million
149. In which part of alimentary canal of cockroach is
159. In taxonomy the first step is :
invagination of cuticle found ?
(1) Identification (2) Nomenclature
(1) Anterior part
(3) Classification (4) Affinities
(2) In midpart
(3) In posterior part 160. The suffix-inae signifies the rank :
(4) Both in anterior and posterior part (1) Tribe (2) Subtribe
(3) Suborder (4) Sub family
150. Allary muscles in cockroach are associated or
connected with : 161. Species living in different geographical areas
are called :
(1) Trachea (2) heart
(1) Allochronic (2) Allopatric
(3) legs (4) alimentary canal (3) Sympatric (4) Siblings

151. Number of chambers in the heart of cockroach : 162. A large number of unknow species of plants
(1) 5 (2) 9 (3) 13 (4) 16 and animals are believed to be present in:
(1) Temperature forests (2) Antartica
152. In mammals, histamine is secreted by : (3) Taiga (4) Tropical forest
(1) Fibroblasts (2) Histiocytes
(3) Lymphocytes (4) Mast cells 163. Static concept of species proposed by :
(1) Mayre (2) Linnaeous
153. Connective tissue is : (3) John Ray (4) De Cuandole
(1) Ectodermal in origin with intercellular spaces
(2) Mesodermal in origin without intercellular 164. For higher plants, flowers are chiefly used as
spaces a basis of classification, because :
(3) Ectodermal in origin without intercellular (1) These show a great variety in colour
spaces (2) It can be preserved easily
(4) Mesodermal in origin with intercellular spaces (3) Reproductive parts are more conservative
than vegetative parts.
154. A localised inflammatory response appears at the (4) None of these.
site of infection causes redness, swelling, pain and
heat due to certain chemical, they are : 165. Individuals of same species having genetic
(1) Histamine and prostaglandins variation and occur in same environment are
(2) Cerumen and mucus called–
(3) Histamine and cerumen (1) Biotypes(2) Ecotypes
(4) Prostaglandins and cerumen (3) Ecophenes (4) Ecads

155. Ligament is mainly made up of : 166. The smallest unit of classification is :

(1) Reticulin (2) Elastin (1) Family (2) Order
(3) Myosin (4) Collagen (3) Genus (4) Species

167. The binomial system of nomenclature was initially

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 proposed by :
(1) Magnus (2) Bauhin 178. Typholosole in earthworm begins form which
(3) Caesalpinno (4) discordies segment :
(1) 15 (2) 9 (3) 25 (4) 27
168. Stem and leaves of bryophyta plants are :-
(1) Analogous to stem and leaves of higher plants 179. Inner cuticle layer in present in alimentary canal
(2) Homologoous to stem and leaves of higher of earthworm in :
plants (1) Pharynx (2) Gizzard
(3) Both analogous and homologus (3) Intestine (4) Stomach
(4) None
180. Chloragogen cells of Pheretima have similar
169. Aquatic ancestory of bryophyta is best indicated functiion like the vertebrate :
by :- (1) Kidney
(1) Some bryophyta still aquatic (2) Malpighian corpuscle
(2) Flagellated male gametes (3) Liver
(3) Aerechyma in stem (4) Lungs
(4) All the above

170. Non vascular embryophyta are :-

(1) Thallophyta (2) Bryophyta
(3) Pteridophyta (4) (1) & (2) both

171. The water conducting tissue in bryophyta is :-

(1) Parenchyma (2) Sclerenchyma
(3) Trachieds (4) Sieve tubes

172. Which of the following not occur at sea coast :-

(1) Angiosperms (2) Bryophyta
(3) Algae (4) Bacteria

173. Which set of species belong to same enus

(1) Sapiens and cristaus
(2) Vivax and falciparum
(3) Proteus and histolytica
(4) Livia and gangeticus

174. maligant malaria is caused by

(1) P.Malariae (2) P.viax
(3) P.falciparum (4) P.ovale

175. Shivering characterisic of Malaria is caused by -

(1) Schizonts act on reticulo endothelial cells
(2) Schizonts enter the RBC
(3) Signet ring is formed
(4) Moerozoites are liberated with toxin form
RBC

176. Exflagellation in Plasmodium occurs in

(1) Microgametocyte (2) Macrogametocyte
(3) Merozoits (4) Trophozoite

177. Relapse of Malaria occurs by which two species.

(1) ovale and faliciparum
(2) falciparum and maladriae
(3) ovale and falciparum
(4) vivax and malaria

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