Which of The Following Expresses The Prefix "Milli-"?

1.
The process of using the computer system to process pharmacy claims is known as which of the
following?
A. Adjudication
B. Authorization
C. Reconciliation
D. Distribution
Explanation Details
Correct answer: A. Adjudication
The process of using the computer system to process pharmacy claims is known as third-
party adjudication. The pharmacy will use the computer system to electronically send the
prescription claim to the patient’s insurance company and the insurance company will either
send back the reimbursement information or a rejection code.
The other choices are incorrect because they are not terms used to describe the processing
of pharmacy claims through the use of the computer system.
Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review 4th Edition. Pg. 150.
2. If you have 1 L of a 1:150 solution, how many grams do you have?

A. 666.7 g
B. 6.67 g
C. 0.67 g
D. 66.7 g
Explanation Details
Correct answer: B. 6.67 g
To solve, start by converting the 1:150 ratio to a fraction (1/150) and convert it to a decimal (0.00667).
Knowing that 1 L is equivalent to 1,000 mL, you will use the weight/volume equation to solve:
 FV x % (decimal) = Amount of AI (g)
 1,000 mL x 0.00667 = 6.67 g

PTCB Exam Simplified: Pharmacy Technician Certification Exam Study Guide 4th Edition. Pg. 151.
3. Which of the following expresses the prefix "milli-"?

A. 0.1
B. 0.001
C. 0.01
D. 0.000001
Explanation Details
Correct answer: B. 0.001
The prefix "milli-" is used in the metric system and is equal to one thousandth (0.001) of the
base unit, which is 0.
The prefix "deci-" is equal to one tenth (0.1) of the base unit, the prefix "centi-" is equal to one-
hundredth (0.01) of the base unit, and the prefix "micro-" is equal to one thousand-thousandths
(0.000001) of the base unit.
PTCB Exam Simplified: Pharmacy Technician Certification Exam Study Guide 4th Edition. Pg.
193.
4. You dispensed a 2.5-mL bottle of Xalatan® eye drops for a prescription with the instructions to
administer two drops in each eye four times a day. What is the appropriate days’ supply for this
prescription?
A. 6 days
B. 3 days
C. 12 days
D. 10 days
Explanation Details
Correct answer: 3 days
 Determine the number of drops per bottle: 2.5 mL x 20 drops/mL = 50 drops. In general, there
are 20 drops per mL.
 Determine the number of drops per day: 2 drops x 2 eyes x 4 times a day = 16 drops a day.
 Cross multiply to solve: 50 drops/1 x day/16 drops = 3.125, or 3 days.
5. A prescription of amlodipine 5 mg indicates "PRN" refill. How many times is this prescription
eligible to be refilled?
A. Refill for a maximum of 5 times within 6 months

B. PRN refill is invalid; prescriber will need to send a new prescription with appropriate
number of refills.
C. Refill for a maximum of 5 times
D. Refill as needed for up to a year.
Explanation Details
Correct answer: Refill as needed for up to a year
For noncontrolled substance prescriptions, prescribers may indicate "PRN" refill on the prescription;
then the prescription can be filled as needed for up to one year.
Schedule III and IV controlled substance prescriptions can have a maximum of 5 refills within 6 months
after the issuance date.

6. Hazardous drugs, such as phenol, should be stored in which of the following manners?
A. Stored at eye level
B. Mixed in with other inventory on a shelf
C. In a refrigerator
D. In a safe
Explanation Details
Correct answer: Stored at eye level
Hazardous drugs, such as phenol, should be stored at eye level and not on the floor. The pharmacy
should have safety data sheets on all hazardous substances in the pharmacy in case of spills.
Hazardous drugs, such as phenol, should be stored behind a cabinet door, not mixed in with other
inventory on a shelf, in a refrigerator, or in a safe.
7. Why are expiration dates assigned to medications?

A. to identify the batch that the medication was manufactured from
B. to show the date that the medication was packaged
C. to show the amount of time that the medication will be effective
D. to identify the date that the medication must be sold
Explanation Details
Correct answer: C. To show the amount of time that the medication will be effective
Expiration dates are assigned to medications to show the amount of time that the medication will be
effective and safe. Manufacturers are responsible for assigning expiration dates. The expiration date is
posted with the month and year; therefore, the expiration date is the last day of the month.
Lot numbers are assigned to identify the batch that the medication was manufactured from. Expiration
dates are not used to show the date that the medication was packaged or to identify the date that the
medication must be sold.
8. Which of the following information is not required on repackaged drug labels?

A. Medication name
B. Pharmacist’s initial
C. Strenght of the drug
D. Drug manufacturer’s name
Explanation Details
Correct answer: Pharmacist's initial
Medications should be repackaged as needed for a limited time period only. Pharmacists will verify the
accuracy of the information on the repackaged labels, though their initials are not required on those
labels. The following information is required on the repackaged labels:
 Name of medication
 Drug manufacturer's name
 Dosage form
 Strength of the drug
 Beyond-use date
 Lot number of medication

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review 4th Edition. Pg 155.
9. What is the relationship-to-the-cardholder code for a spouse?

A. 01
B. 02
C. 03
D. 04
Explanation Details
Correct answer: 02
Some insurance companies require technicians to enter a relationship-to-the-cardholder code when

submitting claims electronically. The code used for a spouse is 02.
The code used for the cardholder is 01, and the code used for a dependent is 03. The code 04 is not
used.
10. Which of the following piece of PPE may be reused during the same work shift?
A. Sterile gowns
B. Mask
C. Hair covers
D. Nonsterile gowns
Explanation Details
Correct answer: Nonsterile gowns
Only nonsterile gowns may be removed and retained in the compounding area if they are not visibly
soiled. They may be reused during the same work shift only.
Sterile gowns, hair covers, beard covers, masks, and sterile gloves may not be reused.
11. Tuberculin syringes are utilized to deliver medication through which route of administration?
A. Subcutaneous
B. Intraosseous
C. Intravenous
D. Intramuscular
Explanation Details
Correct answer: Subcutaneous
Tuberculin syringes are small syringes with fine needles that hold up to 1/2 to 1 cubic centimeter of
fluid. Tuberculin syringes are used to TB skin test by administering medication subcutaneously or under
the skin.
12. Which of the following is the technique that is used to reduce a substance to small, fine
particles?
A. Blending
B. Comminution
C. Sifting
D. Tumbling
Explanation Details
Correct answer: Comminution
Comminution is an act of reducing a substance to small, fine particles.
Blending is an act of combining two substances.
Sifting is a technique to either blend or combine powders.
Tumbling is the technique of combining powders in a bag and shaking it.
13. You received an order for 50 units per 200 mL of Drug X to

run at 5 mL per hour.
How many units will be delivered per hour?

A. 1.25 units/hr
B. 0.03 units/hr
C. 2 units/hr
D. 0.75 units/hr
Explanation Details
Correct answer: 1.25 units/hr
This question can be solved by setting it up as a ratio and proportion.
units/hr = (50 units/200 mL) x (5 mL/1 hr) = 1.25 units/hr
14. When a pharmacy requests payment from an insurance company for a prescription it dispensed
to a patient, it is known as which of the following?
A. Deductible
B. Third-party adjudication
C. Insurance premium
D. Prior authorization
Explanation Details
Correct answer: Third-party adjudication
An insurance claim is when a pharmacy requests payment from an insurance company for a prescription
it dispensed to a patient.
An insurance premium is when an insurance company charges an individual to maintain their insurance
coverage. A deductible is when a patient has to pay a set amount before their insurance benefits
become effective. A prior authorization is when an insurance company requires a prescriber to state
why they ordered a particular drug for a patient before the insurance company will cover the drug.
15. Auxiliary labels are placed on prescription medications to help ensure proper and safe
administration, use, or storage. Which dosage form would most likely have an auxiliary label
that reads “FOR EXTERNAL USE ONLY”?
A. Optic preparations
B. Ophthalmic preparation
C. Creams
D. Suspensions
Explanation Details
Correct answer: Creams
Creams would most likely have an auxiliary label that reads “FOR EXTERNAL USE ONLY.” Creams, lotions,
and ointment dosage forms would most likely have an auxiliary label that reads “FOR TOPICAL USE” or
“FOR EXTERNAL USE ONLY.”
Suspension dosage forms would most likely have an auxiliary label that reads “SHAKE WELL.”
Ophthalmic preparations would most likely have an auxiliary label that reads “FOR THE EYE.” Otic
preparations would most likely have an auxiliary label that reads “FOR THE EAR.”
16. If an adult dose is 50 mg, how many milligrams should a 20-kg child receive?
A. 18.67 mg
B. 25.67 mg
C. 14.67 mg
D. 6.67 mg
Explanation Details
Correct answer: 14.67 mg
 To solve, use Clark’s rule: (Weight [lb]/150) x Adult dose
 Convert kg to lb: 1 kg / 2.2 lb = 20 kg / X lb; X = 44 lb
 Plug in what you know: (44/150) x 50 mg = 14.67 mg

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review 4th Edition. Pg. 146
17. Which of the following is returnable to the drug

manufacturer?
A. Full bottles of drugs
B. Compounded drugs
C. Reconstituted drugs
D. Partial bottles of drugs
Explanation Details
Correct answer: Full bottles of drugs
Full bottles of drugs can be returned to the manufacturer.
If a drug has been reconstituted, compounded, or opened, it cannot be returned to the drug
manufacturer. Wholesalers and contractors use contracts to determine whether or not drugs can be
returned for full or partial credit.
18. An insurance company uses which of the following pieces of information to verify insurance
coverage?
A. Identification number
B. Dosage
C. Patient’s name
D. Date of birth
Explanation Details
Correct answer: Patient’s name
An insurance company uses the patient’s name to verify insurance coverage.
An insurance company uses the dosage to determine the cost of the medication. An insurance company
uses the patient’s date of birth to verify that the medication is dispensed to the appropriate patient. An
insurance company uses the patient’s identification number to provide coverage authorization.
19. Which of the following information on a prescription drug card identifies the company that will
reimburse the pharmacy for the prescription being filled?
A. ID
B. Group code
C. Plan code
D. BIN
Explanation Details
Correct answer: BIN
BIN (bank identification number) is a six-digit number on the prescription drug card that is used to
identify the company that will reimburse the pharmacy for the prescription being filled. Plan code
identifies the prescription provider. Group code indicates the employer who contracted the insurance
company for the policy. Lastly, ID can be either numeric or alphanumeric, and it is used to identify the
beneficiary.
20. If the capsule’s size is 3, what is the capsule’s weight capacity?

A. 500 mg
B. 200 mg
C. 100 mg
D. 1000 mg
Explanation Details
Correct answer: 200 mg
A size-3 capsule has a weight capacity of 200 mg and a volume capacity of 0.3 mL.
A size-5 capsule has a weight capacity of 100 mg and a volume capacity of 0.13 mL. A size-0 capsule has
a weight capacity of 500 mg and a volume capacity of 0.68 mL. A size-000 capsule has a weight capacity
of 1,000 mg and a volume capacity of 1.37 mL.

21. All except which of the following is required on a unit-dose
package label?
A. Drug’s color
B. Beyond use date
C. Drug’s strength
D. Drug’s name
Explanation Details
Correct answer: Drug's color
The information that is required on the unit-dose package label is the following:
 Drug name and strength

 Beyond use date
 Lot number
 Name and location of packager
 Special dosage form if applicable
 NDC number
 If greater than one, the number of unit doses contained in each package
 For controlled substances, contain the statement "Warning: May be habit forming"
 For prescription drugs, state "Rx only"
22. When a medication is recalled, where should the pharmacy store it?
A. Placed with out-of-date medications
B. Mixed in with the other medications
C. Stored in the narcotic cabinet
D. Separated from usable medications
Explanation Details
Correct answer: Separated from usable medications
When a medication is recalled, it should be stored in a separate location from the pharmacy’s usable
medications. Recalled medications should be pulled immediately, as they will need to be returned to the
manufacturer.
Recalled medications should not be mixed in with other medications, stored in the narcotic cabinet, or
placed with out-of-date medications.

23. Which one of the following medications is not considered a narrow therapeutic index (NTI)
drug?
A. Theophylline
B. Carbamazepine
C. Digoxin
D. Azithromycin
Explanation Details
Correct answer: Azithromycin
NTI drugs are those that a small change in dose or blood concentration can lead to serious therapeutic
failures or adverse drug reactions. These drugs are subject to close drug monitoring to ensure efficacy
and safety.
Warfarin, carbamazepine, digoxin, theophylline are some of the NTI drugs.
Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review 4th Edition. Pgs 10-11.
24. Which of the following is not a component of a Master Formulation Record?

A. Official names of the preparation
B. Stability information
C. AWP of the compounded ingredients
D. Description of all ingredients
Explanation Details
Correct answer: AWP of the compounded ingredients
A Master Formulation Record is used for the record-keeping purpose of the non-sterile compounding
process. A Master Formulation Record includes the following information:
 Official name, strength, and dosage form of the preparation
 Calculations
 Description of all ingredients
 Compatibility and stability information
 Equipment needed
AWP stands for "actual wholesale price." AWP of drugs is not a part of a Master Formulation Record.
25. When measuring a liquid using a graduated cylinder or other liquid measuring devices, how
should you determine the accurate measurement?
A. Read the measurement that appears at the top of the meniscus when you are looking
down on the measuring device.
B. Read the measurement that appears at the bottom of the meniscus when you are at eye
level with the measuring device
C. Read the measurement that appears at the bottom of the meniscus when you are
looking down on the measuring device
D. Read the measurement that appears at the top of the meniscus when you are at eye
level with the measuring device.
Explanation Details
Correct answer: Read the measurement that appears at the bottom of the meniscus when you are at
eye level with the measuring device.
When measuring a liquid using a graduated cylinder or other liquid measuring devices, you should read
the measurement that appears at the bottom of the meniscus when you are at eye level with the
measuring device. The bottom of the meniscus is the curve at the surface of the liquid. If you read the
measurement by looking down on or looking up at the measuring device, the measurement will be
inaccurate. This is referred to as an error of parallax.
The other choices are incorrect because they do not state the correct manner in which a liquid should be
measured.
26. When labeling a patient's specific nonhazardous intravenous solution, which of the following
information is not required to be on the label?
A. Initial of the technician who prepares it
B. Stock medication’s lot number
C. Fill date
D. Ingredients with quality
Explanation Details
Correct answer: Stock medication's lot number
The stock medication's lot number is not required for a patient's specific IV preparation. It is only
required when batching is performed.
Required information on the label of nonhazardous intravenous medication include the following:
 Name of pharmacy
 Patient's name
 Fill date
 Ingredients with quantity
 Direction and infusion rate
 BUD
 Initial of the technician who prepares it

 Initial of the pharmacist who performs the final check
27. You receive an ordered dose of 2 mg/kg/dose and the patient weighs 175 pounds. How many
milligrams are needed per dose?
A. 87.5 mg/dose
B. 80 mg /dose
C. 250 mg/dose
D. 159 mg/dose
Explanation Details
Correct answer: 159 mg/dose
This question can be solved by setting it up as a ratio and proportion. You must know that 1 kilogram is
equal to 2.2 pounds.
mg/dose = (2 mg / kg/dose) x (1 kg / 2.2 lb) x (175 lb / 1) = 159 mg/dose
28. If a prescriber ordered 0.25 mg of Xanax PO, an anti-anxiety agent, how many micrograms are in
each dose?
A. 250 mcg
B. 25 mcg
C. 2.5 mcg
D. 2500 mcg
Explanation Details
Correct answer: 250 mcg
To solve this problem, you need to know 1 mg = 1,000 mcg. Then, you would multiply 0.25 mg by 1,000
mcg: 0.25 × 1,000 = 250 mcg.
29. You dispense Zantac® 75 mg to a patient because his prescription was written for Zantac® 75
mg, and the prescriber noted that a generic substitution was not allowed.
What DAW code should you use when transmitting this claim to the patient’s insurance?
A. DAW 0
B. DAW 1
C. DAW 2
D. DAW 5
Explanation Details
Correct answer: DAW 1
A DAW 1 is used when the prescriber does not allow the generic form to be dispensed.
A DAW 0 is used when the prescriber allows the generic form to be dispensed. A DAW 2 is used when
the prescriber allows the generic form to be dispensed, but the patient requests the brand form to be
dispensed. A DAW 5 is used when the prescriber allows the generic form to be dispensed, but the
pharmacy dispenses the brand form as the generic.
30. Automated dispensing systems in hospitals are used for which of the following purposes?
A. To automate inventory ordering and to electronically dispense medications
B. To store medications and to automatically reorder medications
C. To store medications and to control electronic dispensing of medications
D. To automate inventory ordering and to store safeguard medications
Explanation Details
Correct answer: To store medications and to control electronic dispensing of medications
Automated dispensing systems in hospitals are used to store medications and to control electronic
dispensing medications. Automated dispensing systems are used in pharmacies and hospitals to reduce
labor and to increase safety.
The other choices are incorrect because automated dispensing systems are not used to automatically
reorder medications or to automate inventory ordering; however, an automated dispensing system does
keep track of the inventory that is held within and sends this information to a pharmacy for inventory
report generation.
31. The following prescription was faxed to the pharmacy:
Amoxicillin 1 g
Sig: Take 3 cap stat, then 1 TID × 6 days
Disp: 21
How many mg of amoxicillin are needed for the 3-capsule stat dose?
A. 300 mg
B. 3 mg
C. 3000 mg
D. 30 mg
Explanation Details
Correct answer: 3,000 mg
To solve this problem, you need to know 1 g = 1,000 mg.

Thus, 3g × 1,000mg/1g = 3,000 mg.
32. A national drug code (NDC) number identifies the drug’s manufacturer, what the product is, and
the package size. How many digits does an NDC number contain?
A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 13
Explanation Details
Correct answer: 11
An NDC number contains 11 digits. An NDC number is divided into three sections. The first section
contains five digits that represent the manufacturer, the second section contains four digits that
represent what the drug is, and the third section contains two digits that represent the package size.
The other choices are incorrect because an NDC number contains 11 digits, not 9, 10, or 13.
33. Auxiliary labels are placed on prescription medications to help ensure proper and safe
administration, use, or storage. Which dosage form would most likely have an auxiliary label
that reads “APPLY TO SKIN”?
A. Patches
B. Otic preparations
C. Ophthalmic preparations
D. Suspensions
Explanation Details
Correct answer: Patches
Patches would most likely have an auxiliary label that reads “APPLY TO SKIN.”
Suspension dosage forms would most likely have an auxiliary label that reads “SHAKE WELL.”
Ophthalmic preparations would most likely have an auxiliary label that reads “FOR THE EYE.” Otic
preparations would most likely have an auxiliary label that reads “FOR THE EAR.”
34. What is the angle degree the bevel of the needle should be when inserted into the rubber top of
a vial?
A. 45-degree angle
B. 120-degree angle
C. 90-degree angle
D. 30-degree angle
Explanation Details
Correct answer: 30-degree angle
After removing the needle cap, insert the bevel of the needle at a 30-degree angle into the center of the
rubber stopper of the vial. Upon entering the rubber stopper, adjust the needle such that it is entering
at a 90-degree angle.
35. A pharmacy technician will use a pharmacy software system to obtain online prescription claim
approval. If the online prescription claim is rejected with a rejection code “9,” what should the
pharmacy technician check?
A. The relationship code
B. The Dispense as Written code
C. The patient’s date of birth
D. The day supply
Explanation Details
Correct answer: The patient’s date of birth
An online prescription claim rejection code of “9” is relayed back to the pharmacy when the patient’s
date of birth is missing or invalid.
An online prescription claim rejection code of “11” is relayed back to the pharmacy when the
relationship code is missing or invalid. An online prescription claim rejection code of “19” is relayed back
to the pharmacy when the day supply is missing or invalid. An online prescription claim rejection code of
“22” is relayed back to the pharmacy when the Dispense as Written code is missing or invalid.
36. When would a pharmacy technician use a dispense as written (DAW) 6 to electronically submit a
prescription claim?
A. When a substitution is allowed but the generic drug is not stocked
B. When no product selection is indicated
C. When an override is necessary
D. When a substitution is allowed but the generic is not available in the marketplace
Explanation Details
Correct answer: When an override is necessary
A DAW 6 is used as an override. Pharmacies use DAW codes when submitting third-party claims during
the electronic billing process to provide additional information to insurance companies.
A DAW 0 is used when no product selection is indicated. A DAW 8 is used when a substitution is allowed,
but the generic is not available in the marketplace. A DAW 4 is used when a substitution is allowed, but
the generic drug is not stocked.
approval. If the online prescription claim is rejected with a rejection code of 5, what should the
A. The pharmacy identification number
B. The group number
C. The cardholder Identification number
D. The person code
Explanation Details
Correct answer: The pharmacy identification number
An online prescription claim rejection code of 5 is relayed back to the pharmacy when the pharmacy
identification number is missing or invalid.
An online prescription claim rejection code of 6 is relayed back to the pharmacy when the group number
is missing or invalid. An online prescription claim rejection code of 7 is relayed back to the pharmacy
when the cardholder identification number is missing or invalid. An online prescription claim rejection
code of 8 is relayed back to the pharmacy when the person code is missing or invalid.
38. Which of the following best describes a diluent?

A. An active product used to dilute an active ingredients
B. An inactive product used to dilute an inactive ingredient
C. An active product used to dilute an inactive ingredient
D. An inactive product used to dilute an active ingredients
Explanation Details
Correct answer: An inactive product used to dilute an active ingredient
A diluent is an inactive product used to dilute an active ingredient. Diluents are used during non-sterile
compounding to dilute an active ingredient to ensure an even mixture.
The other choices are incorrect because a diluent is an inactive product mixed with an active ingredient,
not an active product mixed with an inactive ingredient, an inactive product mixed with an inactive
ingredient, or an active product mixed with an active ingredient.
39. What is the term used to refer to the part of the prescription that provides the pharmacist with
instructions?
A. Inscription
B. Encryption
C. Sig
D. Dictation
Explanation Details
Correct answer: Sig
"Sig" is short for the Latin term "signa," which means "to label." The prescription’s subscription is the
prescriber’s instructions to the pharmacist.
The prescription’s inscription is the medication’s name, strength, dosage form, and quantity.
40. Which of the following statements regarding handling sharp containers is not correct?
A. Sharp containers must be leak resistant
B. Disposal of sharp containers should be done according to community guidelines
C. Sharp containers should only be filled to ½ full
D. Pharmacy personnel should never force material into the openings
Explanation Details
Correct answer: Sharp containers should only be filled to 1/2 full.
Good practice regarding handling sharp containers includes:
 Sharp containers should only be filled to 3/4 full of the size of the container, not 1/2.
 Pharmacy personnel should never force materials into the openings.
 Disposal of sharp containers should be done according to community guidelines.
 Sharp containers must be leak resistant.
41. Pharmacies use computerized dispensing systems that count and dispense medications
accurately. Which of the following is the benefit of using a computerized dispensing system?
A. Reduced errors
B. Reduced inventory
C. Reduced overhead
D. Reduced margins
Explanation Details
Correct answer: Reduced errors
A computerized dispensing system is used to count and dispense medications accurately, which in turn
will reduce the number of errors.
Computerized dispensing systems will not reduce inventory because it will take the same amount of
inventory to fill the same number of prescriptions, regardless if automation is used or if a technician
performs the task. Computerized dispensing systems will not reduce overhead because pharmacy
personnel is still required to operate and maintain the system. Computerized dispensing systems will not
reduce margins because the amount that the pharmacy is reimbursed for the drug does not change
based on what technology is used to dispense the prescription.
42. Which of the following is the definition of the birthday rule?

A. Determination of the child’s primary insurance based on the parent whose date of birth
is earlier in the calendar year
B. The predetermined dollar amount per prescription filled
C. The first insurance that the patient will use for a claim
D. The insurance used after the primary insurance for any remaining claims
Explanation Details
Correct answer: Determination of the child's primary insurance based on the parent whose date of birth
is earlier in the calendar year
The birthday rule is to determine a child's primary insurance based on the parent whose date of birth is
earlier in the calendar year.
For example: If the mother and father of a child are covered under two different insurance plans, and
the mother's birthdate is earlier in the calendar year than the father's, the child will be covered under
the mother's insurance policy.
The other answer choices are explained as follows:

 Primary insurance: The first insurance that the patient will use for a claim
 Secondary insurance: The insurance used after the primary insurance for any remaining
claims
 Fixed copayment: The predetermined dollar amount per prescription filled
43. If an adult dose of medication is 50 mg, how much medication should a 4-year-old child receive?
A. 20.5 mg
B. 12.5 mg
C. 25 mg
D. 10 mg
Explanation Details
Correct answer: 12.5 mg
This question can be solved by using Young’s rule:

{Age (in years)/[Age (in years) + 12]} x Adult dose
The problem informs you that the child is 4 years of age and the adult dose is 50 mg, so use the
information you know to solve the following:
1. [(4)/(4+12)] x 50 mg
2. [(4)/(16)] x 50 mg
3. 0.25 x 50 mg
4. 12.5 mg
44. Which of the following item is not considered PPE?

A. Gloves
B. Hair covers
C. Shoe covers
D. White coat
Explanation Details
Correct answer: White coat
PPE stands for personnel protective equipment that includes gloves and gowns and head, hair, and shoe
covers when compounding sterile and non-sterile hazardous drugs. PPE must be worn when receiving,
storing, transporting, compounding, cleaning/disinfecting and controlling spills.
45. How many days will 240 tablets of hydrocodone last if the prescription’s instructions are to take
two tablets every four hours as needed for pain?
A. 30 days
B. 25 days
C. 20 days
D. 15 days
Explanation Details
Correct answer: 20 days
To determine the number of tablets per day, do the following calculation: 2 tablets x 6 times a day (24
hours/4 hours = 6 hours) = 12 tablets per day.
Then, cross multiply to solve: 240 tablets/1 x day/12 tablets = 20 days.
approval. If the online prescription claim is rejected with rejection code 25, what should the
A. The prescriber’s identification number
B. The unit of measure
C. The insurance formulary
D. The national drug code number
Explanation Details
Correct answer: The prescriber’s identification number
An online prescription claim rejection code of 25 is relayed back to the pharmacy when the prescriber’s
identification number is missing or invalid.
An online prescription claim rejection code of 26 is relayed back to the pharmacy when the unit of
measure is missing or invalid. An online prescription rejection code of 54 is relayed back to the
pharmacy when the National Drug Code (NDC) number doesn’t match. An online prescription rejection
code of 60 is relayed back to the pharmacy when the drug is not covered for the patient, which means
the insurance formulary would need to be checked to find a drug that is covered.
47. If you are filling a prescription for someone covered under their spouse’s prescription drug plan,
which relationship holder code would you use when submitting the claim to the insurance for
reimbursement?
A. 00
B. 01
C. 02
D. 03
Explanation Details
Correct answer: 02
The 02 submitter code is used when submitting a claim for a spouse.
The 01 submitter code is used when submitting a claim for the actual cardholder. The 03 submitter code
is used when submitting a claim for a dependent. The 00 submitter code is used when an insurance
company does not require a submitter code to be submitted.
48. You receive an order for 40 mg bid of Drug X. The pharmacy only has 4 mg/mL of Drug X in
stock. How many milliliters are needed of Drug X per day?
A. 5 mL
B. 20 mL
C. 10 mL
D. 80 mL
Explanation Details
Correct answer: 20 mL
This question can be answered in two steps. First, set up the problem as a ratio and proportion to obtain
the milliliters needed per dose.
4 mg/mL = 40 mg/x
4x = 40 mL
x = 40/4 mL
x = 10 mL
Next, find the total milliliters needed per day. The acronym “bid” represents twice daily. Simply multiply
10 mL by 2 to obtain the total milliliters needed per day: 10 mL x 2 = 20 mL.
49. Which of the following statements describes levigation?

A. The process of reducing the particle size of a substance by dissolving it in a volatile
solvent
B. The process of reducing the particle size of a substance, usually by grinding with a
mortar and pestle
C. The process of mixing two substances on an ointment slab using a spatula to heap the
substances together and then flatten them out
D. The process of reducing the particle size of a substances by wetting it with a small
amount of insoluble liquid then triturating.
Explanation Details
Correct answer: The process of reducing the particle size of a substance by wetting it with a small
amount of insoluble liquid, then triturating
Levigation is the process of reducing the particle size of a substance by wetting it with a small amount of
insoluble liquid and then triturating it.
Spatulation is the process of mixing two substances on an ointment slab using a spatula to heap the
substances together and then flatten them out. Trituration is the process of reducing the particle size of
a substance, usually by grinding with a mortar and pestle. Pulverization is the process of reducing the
particle size of a substance by dissolving it in a volatile solvent.
50. Which of the following statements is false in regard to the use of bar codes on medication?
A. The help identity the wholesale price
B. They help identity the dosage from
C. They help identity the drug
D. They help Identity the strength
Explanation Details
Correct answer: They help identify the wholesale price.
The bar coding used on medications does not help identify the wholesale price.
Bar codes on medications do help identify the drug, the dosage form, expiration date, and the strength.
Bar codes are used in pharmacies to help reduce the number of medication errors.
approval. If the online prescription claim is rejected with rejection code 22, what should the
A. The day’s supply
B. The relationship code
C. The Dispense as Written code
D. The patient’s date of birth
Explanation Details
Correct answer: The Dispense as Written code
An online prescription claim rejection code of 22 is relayed back to the pharmacy when the Dispense as
Written code is missing or invalid.
An online prescription claim rejection code of 9 is relayed back to the pharmacy when the patient’s date
of birth is missing or invalid. An online prescription claim rejection code of 11 is relayed back to the
pharmacy when the relationship code is missing or invalid. An online prescription claim rejection code of
19 is relayed back to the pharmacy when the day's supply is missing or invalid.
52. All except which of the following is contained on the patient’s third-party prescription insurance
card?
A. Subscriber number
B. Group number
C. BIN
D. NPI number
Explanation Details
Correct answer: NPI number
The National Provider Identifier (NPI) number is a unique identifying number assigned to providers (i.e.,
pharmacies, physicians, pharmacists, nurses, etc.) and will not be found on a patient’s third-party
prescription insurance card.
The information found on the patient’s third-party prescription insurance card is the bank identification
number (BIN), processor control number (PCN), group number, help desk number, subscriber number,
and relationship holder code.
53. Alprazolam 0.25 mg is the generic form of Xanax® 0.25 mg. A patient has a prescription for
Xanax® 0.25 mg, and the prescriber did not indicate that a generic substitution was not allowed.
However, the pharmacy is out of the generic form, so you dispense the brand form. What DAW
code should you use when transmitting this claim to the patient’s insurance?
A. DAW 3
B. DAW 4
C. DAW 5
D. DAW 7
Explanation Details
Correct answer: DAW 4
A DAW 4 is used when the prescriber allows the generic form to be dispensed, but the pharmacy only
has the brand form in stock.
A DAW 3 is used when the prescriber allows the generic form to be dispensed, but the pharmacist
dispensed the brand form. A DAW 5 is used when the prescriber allows the generic form to be
dispensed, but the pharmacy dispenses the brand form as the generic. A DAW 7 is used when the
prescriber allows the generic form to be dispensed, but the law requires the brand form to be
dispensed.
54. Which of the following implementations is not a practice of universal precautions?

A. Assumption that all blood and body fluid may carry infectious agents
B. Requirement of tuberculosis testing for employees
C. Requirements of background report for employees
D. Requirements of yearly immunization against the flu\
Explanation Details
Correct answer: Requirement of background report for employees
Following universal precautions helps to prevent the spread of contagious diseases, especially in
hospitals. Applying universal precautions is based on the fact that all blood, body fluids, secretions and
excretions, and mucous membranes may carry infectious agents. Practices implemented include the
following:
 Requirement of tuberculosis testing and yearly immunization against the flu for
employees
 Conducting blood-borne pathogen training yearly
A background report is not a part of universal precautions.

55. Hospital standards for the transmission prevention of infection or contamination are based on
the principle that all except which of the following are considered to contain infectious agents?
A. Secretions
B. Blood
C. Sweat
D. Body fluids
Explanation Details
Correct answer: Sweat
Hospital standards for the transmission prevention of infection or contamination are not based on the
principle that sweat contains infectious agents.
Hospital standards for the transmission prevention of infection or contamination are based on the
principle that body fluids, nonintact skin, mucous membranes, blood, secretions, and excretions (except
sweat) contain infectious agents.

Which of The Following Expresses The Prefix "Milli-"?

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Which of The Following Expresses The Prefix "Milli-"?

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1.

2. If you have 1 L of a 1:150 solution, how many grams do you have?

 FV x % (decimal) = Amount of AI (g)

 1,000 mL x 0.00667 = 6.67 g

3. Which of the following expresses the prefix "milli-"?

A. Refill for a maximum of 5 times within 6 months

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review 4th Edition. Pg. 150.

7. Why are expiration dates assigned to medications?

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review 4th Edition. Pg. 154.

8. Which of the following information is not required on repackaged drug labels?

 Drug manufacturer's name

 Strength of the drug

 Lot number of medication

9. What is the relationship-to-the-cardholder code for a spouse?

Some insurance companies require technicians to enter a relationship-to-the-cardholder code when

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review 4th Edition. Pg. 151.

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review 4th Edition. Pg. 203.

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review 4th Edition. Pg. 169.

Comminution is an act of reducing a substance to small, fine particles.

Blending is an act of combining two substances.

Sifting is a technique to either blend or combine powders.

Tumbling is the technique of combining powders in a bag and shaking it.

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review 4th Edition. Pg. 163.

13. You received an order for 50 units per 200 mL of Drug X to

How many units will be delivered per hour?

This question can be solved by setting it up as a ratio and proportion.

units/hr = (50 units/200 mL) x (5 mL/1 hr) = 1.25 units/hr

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review 4th Edition. Pg. 150.

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review 4th Edition. Pg. 154.

 To solve, use Clark’s rule: (Weight [lb]/150) x Adult dose

 Convert kg to lb: 1 kg / 2.2 lb = 20 kg / X lb; X = 44 lb

 Plug in what you know: (44/150) x 50 mg = 14.67 mg

17. Which of the following is returnable to the drug

Full bottles of drugs can be returned to the manufacturer.

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review 4th Edition. Pg 159.

An insurance company uses the patient’s name to verify insurance coverage.

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review 4th Edition. Pg. 151.

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review 4th Edition. Pg. 151.

20. If the capsule’s size is 3, what is the capsule’s weight capacity?

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review 4th Edition. Pg. 165.

 Drug name and strength

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review 4th Edition. Pg. 158.

Warfarin, carbamazepine, digoxin, theophylline are some of the NTI drugs.

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review 4th Edition. Pgs 10-11.

24. Which of the following is not a component of a Master Formulation Record?

 Official name, strength, and dosage form of the preparation

 Description of all ingredients

 Compatibility and stability information

 Ingredients with quantity

 Direction and infusion rate

 Initial of the technician who prepares it

mg/dose = (2 mg / kg/dose) x (1 kg / 2.2 lb) x (175 lb / 1) = 159 mg/dose

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review 4th Edition. Pg. 150.

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review 4th Edition. Pg. 157.

31. The following prescription was faxed to the pharmacy:

To solve this problem, you need to know 1 g = 1,000 mg.

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review 4th Edition. Pg. 154.

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review 4th Edition. Pg 206.

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review 4th Edition. Pg. 152.

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review 4th Edition. Pg. 150.

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review 4th Edition. Pg. 152.

38. Which of the following best describes a diluent?

Good practice regarding handling sharp containers includes: