150

1. Which of the following is a characteristic of a Schedule I controlled substance?
A. It has a moderate potential for abuse.

B. It has a low potential for physical/psychological dependence.
C. It lacks safety.
D. It has an acceptable medical use.
Explanation Details
Correct answer: C. It lacks safety.
Schedule I controlled substances lack safety. They also have a high potential for abuse, and they have no
accepted medical use. Heroin is an example of a Schedule I controlled substance.
Schedule II through Schedule V controlled substances have an acceptable medical use. Schedule III
controlled substances have a moderate potential for abuse. Schedule V controlled substances have a low
potential for physical/psychological dependence.
PTCB Exam Simplified: Pharmacy Technician Certification Exam Study Guide 4th Edition. Pg. 98.
2. Morphine and codeine have a high potential for abuse and a high potential for
physical/psychological dependence. Which controlled substance schedule do these drugs
belong to?
A. Schedule III
B. Schedule V
C. Schedule II
D. Schedule IV
Explanation Details
Correct answer: C. Schedule II
Morphine and codeine are categorized as Schedule II controlled substances due to their high potential
for abuse and high potential for physical/psychological dependence. Opioids are classified as Schedule II
controlled substances, including meperidine, methadone, fentanyl, hydromorphone, oxycodone, and
oxymorphone.
Schedule III controlled substances have a moderate potential for abuse and a moderate potential for
physical/psychological dependence. Schedule IV controlled substances have a mild potential for abuse
and a mild potential for physical/psychological dependence. Schedule V controlled substances have a
low potential for abuse and a low potential for physical/psychological dependence.
Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review 4th Edition. Pg. 106.
3. Which of the following entities determines who has prescribing authority?
A. Each Country
B. Each City
C. Each State
D. Federal Law
Explanation Details
Correct answer: C. Each state
In the U.S., each state determines who has prescribing authority within the state. Pharmacy technicians
must know who is authorized to write prescriptions within the state that the prescriber practices.
Prescribers can either have full prescribing authority or limited prescribing authority. Physicians,
podiatrists, dentists, and veterinarians all have full prescribing authority within the scope of their
practice. Optometrists, physician assistants, and nurse practitioners all have limited prescribing
authority.
Each state determines who has prescribing authority, not federal law, each county, or each city.
PTCB Exam Simplified: Pharmacy Technician Certification Exam Study Guide 4th Edition. Pg 109.
4. Which of the following pharmacy references provides pricing and drug information on
prescription and over-the-counter drug products?
A. Ident-A-Drug Reference
B. Purple Book
C. Orange Book
D. Red Book
Explanation Details
Correct answer: D. Red Book
Red Book provides pricing and drug information on prescription and over-the-counter drug products in
addition to nutraceuticals and bulk chemicals.
The Orange Book is the pharmacy reference book that is available in electronic format to provide a listing
of the FDA’s approved drug products with the corresponding therapeutic equivalence evaluations.
Ident-A-Drug Reference is the pharmacy reference book that is available in an online format and a
mobile application to provide a listing of tablet and capsule identifications.
The Purple Book lists biological products, including any biosimilar and interchangeable biological
products approved by the FDA.
5. Which of the following organizations is responsible for addressing the quality of patient care
and safety?
A. The Joint Commission

B. Centers for Medicare and medicaid Services
C. Environmental Protection Agency
D. National Association of Boards of Pharmacy
Explanation Details
Correct answer: A. The Joint Commission
The Joint Commission is responsible for addressing the quality of patient care and safety.
The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) is responsible for establishing the conditions for a
pharmacy to be reimbursed for the services it provides. The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is
responsible for setting the guidelines for the disposal of controlled substances. The National Association
of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP) is responsible for discussing pharmacy trends and issues.
6. After a new pharmacy completes its initial inventory of controlled substances, when is the
next time the pharmacy is required to complete a controlled substance inventory?
A. In two years
B. In three years
C. In six months
D. In one year
Explanation Details
Correct answer: A. In two years
Pharmacies are required to complete a biennial inventory of their controlled substances. The initial
inventory is a complete inventory of all controlled substances before the opening of the first day of
business for a pharmacy. The biennial inventory requires the pharmacist to do an exact count for
schedule II drugs and an estimated count for schedules III through V. The biennial inventory records must
be kept for two years.
Some states may require an annual inventory of controlled substances, but federal law requires a
biennial inventory. Six months and three years are incorrect because a controlled inventory count must
be done every two years.
7. How should schedule II drugs be stored within a community pharmacy?

A. With the other drugs
B. On an end cap
C. In a secure room
D. in a locked safe
Explanation Details
Correct answer: D. In a locked safe
Schedule II drugs should be stored in a locked safe within the pharmacy.
Schedule III to V medication may be dispersed throughout the pharmacy with other medications.
Schedule II drugs should be mixed in with the other drugs, not with the other drugs. Schedule II drugs
should not be stored on an end cap, and they are not required to be stored in a secure room.
8. The statement “Caution: Federal law prohibits the transfer of this drug to any person other
than the patient for whom it was prescribed.” should be on the prescription label of which of
the following medications?
A. Tacrolimus
B. Eszopiclone
C. Meropenem
D. Ketorolac
Explanation Details
Correct answer: B. Eszopiclone
Labeling of schedule II-V must contain the statement “Caution: Federal law prohibits the transfer of this
drug to any person other than the patient for whom it was prescribed.”
Eszopiclone is the generic name of Lunesta, a non-benzodiazepine sedative. Eszopiclone is a schedule IV

drug, therefore, a caution statement is required.
Ketorolac, meropenem, and tacrolimus are not controlled substances, thus, a caution statement is not
required.
9. Which of the following happened as a result of the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act
of 2005?
A. Required the sale of methamphetamine to be logged

B. Required 30-day prescription allotments
C. Required medical offices and clinics to be certified as treatment centers
D. Required advers reactions to be reported quarterly
Explanation Details
Correct answer: A. Required the sale of methamphetamine to be logged
The Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act of 2005 positioned pseudoephedrine,
phenylpropanolamine, and ephedrine in a Controlled Substance Act category. This movement subjected
methamphetamine to sales restrictions, record-keeping requirements, and storage requirements.
The Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act of 2005 did not require medical offices to become
certified, allot a 30-day prescription, or report adverse reactions quarterly.
10. If a retail pharmacy transfers a Schedule III medication to another retail pharmacy, which of
the following is required?
A. The transferring pharmacy must send an invoice to the receiving pharmacy.

B. The transferring pharmacy must complete DEA Form 106 and send an invoice to the receiving
pharmacy.
C. The transferring pharmacy must complete DEA Form 222 and send the appropriate copy to the
receiving pharmacy.
D. The transferring pharmacy must receive the written request from the receiving pharmacy prior
to transferring the medication.
Explanation Details
Correct answer: A. The transferring pharmacy must send an invoice to the receiving pharmacy.
If a retail pharmacy transfers a Schedule III to Schedule V medication to another retail pharmacy, the
pharmacy must send an invoice to the receiving pharmacy. The records of the transfer must be
maintained by both pharmacies for two years.
DEA Form 222 is required when a Schedule II medication is transferred between pharmacies. DEA Form
106 is used to report theft or significant losses of Schedule II through Schedule V medications. A written
request is not required for transferring medications between pharmacies.
11. According to the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act of 2005 (CMEA), consumers must
have which of the following to purchase a pseudoephedrine product?
A. Photo ID
B. Proper diagnosis
C. Prior authorization
D. Prescription
Explanation Details
Correct answer: A. Photo ID
According to CMEA, consumers must have a photo ID to purchase a pseudoephedrine product. During
the sale of a pseudoephedrine product, the pharmacy must document the following:
 Name of pseudoephedrine product
 Quantity of pseudoephedrine sold
 Consumer’s name and address
 Date and time of pseudoephedrine sale
Consumer’s signature
The sale of a pseudoephedrine product does not require a prescription, as these products are sold over
the counter. Since these products are over the counter, the consumer pays for them; therefore, they do
not require a prior authorization or proper diagnosis code for billing purposes.
12. DEA Form 222 would be required when pharmacy personnel receives which of the
following medications?
A. Zaleplon
B. Buprenorphine
C. Clorazepate
D. Amobarbital
Explanation Details
Correct answer: D. Amobarbital
Amobarbital is a C-II controlled substance. Receiving C-II controlled substances requires DEA Form 222.
Buprenorphine is a C-III controlled substance. Clorazepate and zaleplon are C-IV controlled substances.
Pharmacies only need invoices when receiving C-III and C-IV controlled substances.
13. The Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act of 2005 (CMEA) required pharmacies to do
which of the following?
A. Dispense medications in child-resistant containers

B. Perform drug utilization reviews (DURs) on medicaid patients
C. Protect the privacy of an individual's health information
D. Secure pseudoephedrine products from consumers
Explanation Details
Correct answer: D. Secure pseudoephedrine products from consumers
The Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act of 2005 (CMEA) required pharmacies to secure
pseudoephedrine products from consumers by storing the products behind the counter or in a locked
cabinet.
The Omnibus Reconciliation Act of 1990 (OBRA '90) required pharmacies to perform drug utilization
reviews (DURs) on Medicaid patients. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996
(HIPAA) required pharmacies to protect the privacy of an individual’s health information. The Poison
Prevention Packaging Act of 1970 (PPPA) required pharmacies to dispense medications in child-resistant
containers.
14. In regard to controlled substance refills, which statement is false?
A. C-III and C-IV refills are permitted for up to 5 refills.

B. C-II refills are not permitted.
C. C-III and C-IV refills are valid for 12 months.
D. C-V refills are permitted with no maximum number of refills.
Explanation Details
Correct answer: C. C-III and C-IV refills are valid for 12 months.
It is false that C-III and C-IV refills are valid for 12 months because they are only valid for 6 months.
It is true that C-II refills are not permitted, C-III and C-IV refills are permitted up to 5 refills, and C-V refills
are permitted with no maximum number of refills.
15. Which of the following is classified as a C-IV depressant?
A. Phentermine
B. Zolpidem
C. Pentazocine
D. Butorphanol
Explanation Details
Correct answer: B. Zolpidem
Zolpidem is classified as a C-IV depressant. Other C-IV depressants include eszopiclone, zaleplon,
phenobarbital, carisoprodol, and tramadol.
Phentermine is classified as a C-IV stimulant. Butorphanol and pentazocine are classified as C-IV mixed
opioid agonists/antagonists.
16. When is it necessary to complete DEA Form 104?
A. When a pharmacy is surrendering its pharmacy permit

B. When a pharmacy is destroying controlled substances
C. When a pharmacy is ordering Schedule II controlled substances
D. When a Pharmacy is applying for its DEA registration
Explanation Details
Correct answer: A. When a pharmacy is surrendering its pharmacy permit
DEA Form 104 is completed when a pharmacy is surrendering its pharmacy permit.
DEA Form 224 is completed when a pharmacy is applying for its DEA registration. DEA Form 222 is
completed when a pharmacy is ordering Schedule II controlled substances. DEA Form 41 is completed
when a pharmacy is destroying controlled substances.
17. If a pharmacy destroys schedule II medications, it must obtain a receipt from the DEA for the
destroyed merchandise.
How long must the pharmacy maintain the DEA receipt?
A. 30 days
B. 2 years
C. 1 year
D. 18 months
Explanation Details
Correct answer: B. 2 years
A pharmacy must maintain the DEA receipt for destroyed schedule II medications for two years. A
pharmacist must always be present during the destruction of schedule II medications.
The other choices are incorrect because the DEA receipt must be maintained by the pharmacy for 2
years, not 30 days, 1 year, or 18 months.
18. Which drug recall classification is used when there is a probability that the drug could cause
temporary adverse health events?
A. Class III
B. Class I
C. Class II
D. Class IV
Explanation Details
Correct answer: C. Class II
A Class II drug recall is issued when there is a probability that the drug could cause temporary adverse
health events.
A Class I drug recall is issued when there is a significant chance that the drug could lead to death. A Class
III drug recall is issued when adverse health events are not probable. There is not a Class IV drug recall.
19. Who is required to retain the brown copy (first page) of DEA Form 222?
A. Patient
B. DEA
C. Pharmacy
D. Supplier
Explanation Details
Correct answer: D. Supplier
The supplier is required to retain the brown copy (first page) of DEA Form 222.
The DEA is required to retain the green copy (second page) of DEA Form 222. The pharmacy is required
to retain the blue copy (third page) of DEA Form 222. The patient does not receive a copy of DEA Form
222.
20. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA) required pharmacies
to do which of the following?

B. Perform drug utilization reviews (DURs) on Medicaid patients
C. Protect the privacy of an individual health information
D. Secure Pseudoephedrine products from consumers
Explanation Details
Correct answer: C. Protect the privacy of an individual’s health information
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA) required pharmacies to protect
the privacy of an individual’s health information.
The Omnibus Reconciliation Act of 1990 (OBRA '90) required pharmacies to perform drug utilization
reviews (DURs) on Medicaid patients. The Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970 (PPPA) required
pharmacies to dispense medications in child-resistant containers. The Combat Methamphetamine
Epidemic Act of 2005 (CMEA) required pharmacies to secure pseudoephedrine products from
consumers.
21. In regard to the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) of 1996, a
covered entity may disclose protected health information for law enforcement purposes
under all circumstances except which of the following?
A. When the covered entity receives a court order

B. When the release of information is a personal request from a law enforcement official
C. When the information will help identify a missing person
D. When the covered entity believes the information is evidence of a crime
Explanation Details
Correct answer: B. When the release of information is a personal request from a law enforcement
official
In regard to HIPAA, a covered entity may not disclose protected health information when the release of
information is a personal request from a law enforcement official. A law enforcement official may only
request information for law enforcement purposes, not for personal knowledge.
In regard to HIPAA, a covered entity may disclose protected health information for law enforcement
purposes when the covered entity receives a court order, when the information will help identify a
missing person, and when the covered entity believes the information is evidence of a crime.
22. Which of the following organization is responsible for reviewing and approving REMS
programs?
A. NIOSH
B. TJC
C. FDA
D. BOP
Explanation Details
Correct answer: C. FDA
REMS stand for "Risk evaluation and mitigation strategies." REMS is designed to ensure that the benefits
of certain prescription drugs outweigh their risks. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is responsible
for reviewing and approving REMS programs.
The Joint Commission (TJC) addresses quality of patient care and patient safety.
The Board of Pharmacy (BOP) oversees the practice of pharmacy in a given state.
The National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) establishes a list of drugs that are
deemed to be hazardous and require special handling.
23.When is it necessary to complete DEA Form 224?
A. When a pharmacy is surrendering its permit

D. When a pharmacy is applying for its DEA registration
Explanation Details
Correct answer: D. When a pharmacy is applying for its DEA registration
DEA Form 224 is completed when a pharmacy is applying for its DEA registration.
DEA Form 222 is completed when a pharmacy is ordering Schedule II controlled substances. DEA Form
104 is completed when a pharmacy is surrendering its pharmacy permit. DEA Form 41 is completed
when a pharmacy is destroying controlled substances.
24. Which of the following agents establishes standards for safe and healthful working
environments for employees?
A. The Joint Commision(TJC)

B. National Association of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP)
C. United States Pharmacopeia (USP)
D. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
Explanation Details
Correct answer: D. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
OSHA ensures safe and healthful working conditions by establishing and enforcing standards and
providing training, outreach, education, and assistance.
The National Association of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP) is responsible for discussing pharmacy trends
and issues. The United States Pharmacopeia (USP) is responsible for developing and publishing standards
for drug substances, drug products, excipients, and dietary supplements. The Joint Commission is
responsible for addressing the quality of patient care and safety.
25. Which of the following is not a goal for Clozaril Administration Registry Enrollment (CARE)?
A. Assist physicians with effective monitoring functionalities

B. Reporting patient's white blood cell value
C. Assisting patients with clozapine co-payment
D. Reporting patient's absolute neutrophil counts
Explanation Details
Correct answer: C. Assisting patients with clozapine co-payment
Clozaril Administration Registry Enrollment (CARE) is a secured internet application that facilities the
reporting of white blood cell values and absolute neutrophil counts of patients who take clozapine. CARE
is designed to assist physicians and pharmacists with effective monitoring functionalities while
protecting patients' privacy. Co-payment assistance is not a part of CARE.
26. Which of the following organizations oversees controlled substance classification?
A. Federal Trade Commission (FTC)

B. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
C. Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA)
Explanation Details
Correct answer: C. Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA)
The DEA classifies drugs as controlled substances. The Controlled Substances Act is also enforced by the
DEA.
The FDA regulates over-the-counter drugs, enforces drug manufacturing laws, and regulates the
advertisement of prescription drugs. OSHA regulates employee exposure to bloodborne pathogens. The
FTC regulates the advertisement for over-the-counter drugs and medical devices.
27. The prescriber’s information required to fill a patient’s controlled substance prescription
order includes all except which of the following?
A. Prescriber's office address

B. Prescriber's phone number
C. Prescriber's DEA number
D. Prescriber's tax ID
Explanation Details
Correct answer: D. Prescriber’s tax ID
A pharmacy does not need a prescriber’s tax ID number to fill a patient’s controlled substance
prescription.
A pharmacy does need a prescriber:
 Name
 Office address
 Phone number
 DEA number
28. Which of the following is not classified as hazardous waste?
A. Zinc
B. Nitroglycerin
C. Silver nitrate
D. Bodily Fluids
Explanation Details
Correct answer: D. Bodily fluids
Bodily fluids, blood, and blood products are classified as infectious waste.
Hazardous wastes are categorized into four groups based on their characteristics: ignitability, corrosivity,
reactivity, and toxicity.
Nitroglycerin is an example of hazardous waste with reactivity. Zinc is an example of hazardous waste
with toxicity, and silver nitrate is hazardous waste with ignitability.
29. Which of the following drugs is classified as a Schedule I narcotic?
A. Seconal
B. Numorphan
C. Percodan
D. Heroin
Explanation Details
Correct answer: D. Heroin
Schedule I narcotics are drugs that have an extremely high abuse tendency and no medical use. Schedule
I narcotics include crystal methamphetamine, ecstasy, hashish, hash oil, heroin, lysergic acid
diethylamide, marijuana, mescaline, opium, phencyclidine palmitate, peyote, psilocybin, and Rohypnol.
Seconal, Percodan, and Numorphan are all classified as Schedule II narcotics, which have a medical use
but still carry a high abuse tendency.
30. For a pharmacy to order a Schedule II medication, what form must be completed if the order
is not submitted electronically?
A. DEA Form 106

B. DEA Form 41
C. DEA Form 222
D. DEA Form 224
Explanation Details
Correct answer: C. DEA Form 222
DEA Form 222 is a triplicate form that must be completed when ordering Schedule II medications.
The pharmacy is required to complete DEA Form 224 to dispense controlled substances. DEA Form 41
must be completed if the pharmacy needs to destroy outdated or damaged controlled substances. DEA
Form 106 must be completed if controlled substances are stolen or lost.
31. Which drug recall classification is used when there is a significant chance that the drug could
lead to death?
A. Class III
B. Class I
C. Class II
D. Class IV
Explanation Details
Correct answer: B. Class I
A Class I drug recall is issued when there is a significant chance that the drug could lead to serious
adverse health consequences or death.
A Class II drug recall is issued when there is a probability that the drug could cause temporary adverse
health events. A Class III drug recall is issued when adverse health events are not probable. There is not a
Class IV drug recall classification.
Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review 4th Edition. Pg 117.
32. The Omnibus Reconciliation Act of 1990 (OBRA ’90) requires pharmacies to do which of the
following?

B. Perform drug utilization reviews (DURs) on Medicaid patients
C. Protect the privacy of an individual's health information
D. Secure pseudoephedrine products from consumers
Explanation Details
Correct answer:B.Perform drug utilization reviews (DURs) on Medicaid patients
The Omnibus Reconciliation Act of 1990 (OBRA '90) requires pharmacies to perform drug utilization
reviews (DURs) on Medicaid patients. OBRA '90 also requires pharmacies to provide pharmacist
counseling (i.e., pharmaceutical care) for Medicaid patients.
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA) requires pharmacies to protect
the privacy of an individual’s health information. The Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970 (PPPA)
requires pharmacies to dispense medications in child-resistant containers. The Combat
Methamphetamine Epidemic Act of 2005 (CMEA) requires pharmacies to secure pseudoephedrine
products from consumers.
33. Which of the following acts was responsible for implementing the NDC number used for
each drug?
A. Hatch-Waxman Act of 1984

B. Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987
C. Federal Privacy Act of 1974
D. Drug Listing Act of 1974
Explanation Details
Correct answer: D. Drug Listing Act of 1974
The Drug Listing Act of 1972 was responsible for implementing the NDC number used for each drug.
The Hatch-Waxman Act of 1984 promoted the manufacturing of generic drugs and new medications. The
Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987 required “Caution: Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on
an order of a licensed veterinarian” to be placed on all prescriptions given to animals. The Federal
Privacy Act of 1974 was responsible for the regulation of what personal information the government is
allowed to collect on private individuals.
34. Which of the following federally funded healthcare programs assists with prescription costs
for Medicare beneficiaries?
A. Medicare Part A
B. Medicare Part B
C. Medicare Part D
D. Medicare Advantage
Explanation Details
Correct answer: D. Medicare Part D
Medicare Part D is a federally funded healthcare program that provides a patient with coverage for select
prescription medications, medical supplies, and vaccinations.
Medicare Part A is a federally funded healthcare program that pays for a patient’s inpatient hospital care,
skilled nursing care, hospice care, and home healthcare. Medicare Part B is a federally funded healthcare
program that provides a patient with coverage for physician visits, outpatient care, physical therapy, and
occupational therapy. Medicare Advantage is a federally funded healthcare program that allows a patient
to obtain additional HMO or PPO coverage at an increased cost.
35. According to the federal law, what is the amount of pseudoephedrine an individual can
purchase by mail in a 30-day period?
A. 9 grams
B. 7.5 grams
C. 12.2 grams
D. 3.6 grams
Explanation Details
Correct answer: B. 7.5 grams
The federal law limits monthly mail order sales (30 days) of pseudoephedrine to 7.5 grams.
The Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act of 2005 (CMEA) limits monthly sales (30 days) of
pseudoephedrine to 9 grams. The CMEA limits daily sales of pseudoephedrine to 3.6 grams. The CMEA
does not allow a daily or a monthly pseudoephedrine limit of 12.2 grams.
36. Information required on a repackaging log includes all except which of the following?
A. Lot number
B. Prescriber's name
C. Quantity repackaged
D. Pharmacy technician's initials
Explanation Details
Correct answer: Prescriber’s name
When a drug is repackaged, it has not been prescribed to a patient yet; therefore, the prescriber’s name
is not required on a repackaging log.
The information required on a drug repackaging log includes the following:
 Repackaging date
 Drug name
 Drug strength
 Dosage form
 Drug manufacturer
 Manufacturer's lot number
 Manufacturer’s expiration date
 Pharmacy's lot number
 Pharmacy's beyond-use date
 Quantity repackaged
 Pharmacy technician’s initials
 Pharmacist’s initials
37. How many times can a C-III to C-V prescription be transferred between different pharmacies
that do not share the same online database?
A. Unlimited
B. 1
C. 5
D. None
Explanation Details
Correct answer: B. 1
A C-III to C-V prescription can only be transferred one time to a different pharmacy. However, if the
pharmacies have a shared real-time online database, the prescription can be transferred as many times
as necessary until the prescription expires or is out of refills.
38. What color of DEA 222 form that retained by the drug supplier?
A. Blue
B. Green
C. White
D. Brown
Explanation Details
Correct answer: D. Brown
Each DEA Form 222 includes 2 carbon copies (the original, plus 2 attached copies):
 The first page (the original) is brown and must be retained by the drug supplier.
 The second page (the 1st carbon copy) is green and must be forwarded to the DEA by the drug
supplier.
 The third page (the 2nd carbon copy) is blue and must be retained by the pharmacy.
There is no white page.
39. According to USP <797>, how often does the temperature of a buffer area have be
documented?
A. 12 hours
B. Every 7 days
C. 72 hours
D. Daily
Explanation Details
Correct answer: D. Daily
USP <797> requires environmental monitoring, temperature monitoring, and nonviable and viable
airborne particle testing program monitoring.
Temperature monitoring must be performed and documented at least once a day.
Different institutions' policies may require more frequent temperature monitoring. However, USP <797>
only requires a daily temperature monitoring.
40. Which Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS) program has been established to
communicate the risk of cardiac arrhythmias that are associated with taking the drug it was
established for?
A. Clozaril National Registry

B. THALIDOMID REMS
C. iPLEDGE
D. Tikosyn In Pharmacy System (T.I.P.S)
Explanation Details
Correct answer: D. Tikosyn In Pharmacy System (T.I.P.S.)
Tikosyn In Pharmacy System (T.I.P.S.) is the REMS program that has been established to communicate the
risk of cardiac arrhythmias that are associated with taking Tikosyn (dofetilide).
iPLEDGE is the REMS program that focuses on making sure women who are starting isotretinoin therapy
are not pregnant and will not become pregnant. THALIDOMID REMS is the REMS program that has been
established because Thalomid (thalidomide) causes severe birth defects and venous thromboembolic
events. Clozaril National Registry is the REMS program that has been established as a database to record
and reference the white blood cell count of patients who take Clozaril (clozapine).
41. Which of the following information is not required to be on the prescription label of a
controlled substance prescription?
A. Date of Birth of the patient

B. Date of initial filling
C. Name of the patient
D. Pharmacy name and address
Explanation Details
Correct answer: A. Date of Birth of the patient
A prescription label is the label that is affixed on the vial that contains the medication to be dispensed to
the patient. It is important to distinguish among different types of labels, such as prescription label (this
question), unit dose label, and medication order label, so you can answer correctly these types of
questions.
The prescription label for schedule II-V must contain the following information:
 The pharmacy name and address
 The serial number and date of initial filling
 The name of the patient
 The name of the practitioner
 The name of medication, strength, and quantity
 The directions for use
42. Clozapine is only available through a monitoring and distribution system due to its risk of
which of the following?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Dry cough
C. Tendonitis
D. Hematologic effects
Explanation Details
Correct answer: D. Hematologic effects
Clozapine is only available through a monitoring and distribution system due to its risk of hematologic
effects. Individuals on clozapine must receive appropriate blood monitoring. Clozapine is used to treat
schizophrenia.
Hyperglycemia can occur when taking corticosteroids. Dry cough can occur when taking angiotensin-
converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors. Tendonitis can occur when taking fluoroquinolone antibiotics.

C. When a pharmacy is ordering Schedule II controlled Substances
Explanation Details
Correct answer: B. When a pharmacy is destroying controlled substances
DEA Form 41 is completed when a pharmacy is destroying controlled substances.
completed when a pharmacy is ordering Schedule II controlled substances. DEA Form 104 is completed
when a pharmacy is surrendering its pharmacy permit.
44. Who should have access to your individual pharmacy information system’s password?
A. Only yourself and your manager
B. Only yourself
C. Only yourself and your IT system coordinator
D. Only yourself and the pharmacist
Explanation Details
Correct answer: B. Only yourself
Only you should have access to your pharmacy information system’s password. You should protect your
password from others because every time you sign in and work on a pharmacy system, you are leaving a
digital fingerprint. If someone else had access to your password, they could use your credentials to sign
in and perform a privacy violation.
Only you should have your password to your pharmacy information system, not your manager, your IT
system coordinator, or your pharmacist.
45. If a physician writes a prescription for a buprenorphine drug product (i.e., Suboxone®), what
must be displayed on the prescription order?
A. The physician's "X" DEA number

B. The patient's treatment number
C. The physician's NPI number
D. The drug's Lot number and expiration date
Explanation Details
Correct answer: A. The physician’s “X” DEA number
prescribe buprenorphine drug products, a physician must be registered with the DEA to dispense these
products. Once registered, the DEA provides the physician with an “X” DEA number in addition to their
regular DEA number. The physician’s “X” DEA number must be displayed on the prescription order for it
to be valid.
The other choices are incorrect because an order for a buprenorphine drug product does not require the
physician’s NPI number, the patient’s treatment number, or the drug’s lot number and expiration date.
46. If a DEA number begins with an “M,” what type of registrant does it signify?
A. A midlevel practitioner
B. A physician
C. A hospital
D. A drug distributor
Explanation Details
Correct answer: A midlevel practitioner
A DEA number that begins with an “M” signifies a midlevel practitioner.
A drug distributor’s DEA number begins with a “P” or an “R.” A hospital’s DEA number begins with an
“A,” “B,” or “F.” A physician’s DEA number begins with an “A,” “B,” or “F.”
47. In regard to controlled substance prescription transfers, which statement is false?
A. C-II,III.IV and V precriptions may be transferred multiple times between pharmacies that share a
real-time online database.
B. C-III,IV and V precriptions may be transferred by a licensed pharmacist
C. C-II prescriptions are not transferable between pharmacies.
D. C-III,IV and V prescriptions may be transferred one time between pharmacies.
Explanation Details
Correct answer: A. C-II, III, IV, and V prescriptions may be transferred multiple times between
pharmacies that share a real-time online database.
In regard to controlled substance prescription transfers, it is false that C-II, III, IV, and V prescriptions may
be transferred multiple times between pharmacies that share a real-time online database because C-II
prescriptions are not transferable between pharmacies. It is true that C-III, IV, and V prescriptions may be
transferred multiple times between pharmacies that share a real-time online database.
It is true that C-II prescriptions are not transferable between pharmacies; C-III, IV, and V prescriptions
may be transferred one time between pharmacies; and C-III, IV, and V prescriptions may be transferred
by a licensed pharmacist.
48. Which of the following is not considered adulteration?
A. Insufficient information on the label

B. Problems with the purity of the product
C. Problems with the quality of the product
D. Problems with the strenght of the product
Explanation Details
Correct answer: A. Insufficient information on the label
A drug product is deemed to be adulterated when it has problems with:
 Strength
 Quality
 Purity
If a drug product or prescription contains insufficient information on the label, it is deemed to be
misbranded.
49. Which statement is false in regard to the Drug Addiction Treatment Act of 2000?
A. Narcotic treatment facilities must complete a DEA Form 363.

B. Methadone is used to treat opiate addiction.
C. Community pharmacies are authorized to dispense methadone for the treatment addiction
D. Methadone must be administered at a doctor's office or a drug treatment center.
Explanation Details
Correct answer: C. Community pharmacies are authorized to dispense methadone for the treatment of
addiction.
Pharmacies are authorized to dispense methadone for the treatment of pain but not treatment of
addiction.
It is true that methadone must be administered at a doctor’s office or a drug treatment center, and that
methadone is used to treat opiate addiction. Narcotic treatment facilities must complete a DEA Form
363 to apply for DEA registration.
50. Which of the following programs is approved by the FDA to make sure that pregnant women
do not take thalidomide?
A. CARE
B. STEPS
C. iPLEDGE
D. CMEA
Explanation Details
Correct answer: B. STEPS
STEPS stands for "Thalidomide Education and Prescribing Safety" and was approved by the FDA to make
sure that pregnant women do not take thalidomide and women do not become pregnant while taking
thalidomide.
CARE stands for "Clozaril Administration Registry Enrollment," which is an internet application that
facilitates the reporting of white blood cell count for patients who are on clozapine therapy.
iPLEDGE is the isotretinoin registry for patients, practitioners, and pharmacists due to the medication's
risk of severe birth defects.
CMEA stands for "Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act"; scheduled listed chemical product (SLCP)
was created as the result of this act.
51. When should a facility receive safety data sheets?
A. Everytime a controlled substance is provided to it

B. Everytime a facility receives a hazardous chemical
C. During new hire orientation
D. at the beginning of the year before handling any hazardous material
Explanation Details
Correct answer: B. Every time a facility receives a hazardous chemical
Safety data sheets (SDSs) are documentation required by OSHA. A facility must receive these sheets
every time it receives hazardous material.
52. Which of the following acts required healthcare providers to keep patient information
confidential?
A. Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970

B. Federal Privacy Act of 1974
C. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996
D. Drug Listing Act of 1972
Explanation Details
Correct answer: C. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) of 1996 required healthcare providers to
keep patient information confidential.
The Federal Privacy Act of 1974 was responsible for the regulation of what personal information the
government is allowed to collect on private individuals. The Drug Listing Act of 1972 was responsible for
implementing the NDC number used for each drug. The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970
required employers to provide a safe place for their employees to work.
53. Which of the following organizations is responsible for establishing criteria for continuing
education for pharmacy technicians within a state?
A. American Pharmacists Association

B. The Joint Commission
C. Accrediting Council of Pharmacy Education
D. State board of pharmacy
Explanation Details
Correct answer: D. State board of pharmacy
State board of pharmacy establishes criteria for continuing education for both pharmacists and
pharmacy technicians to remain credentialed for their profession.
The American Pharmacists Association focuses on advancing patient care by improving medication use.
The Accrediting Council of Pharmacy Education focuses on establishing pharmacist education standards.
The Joint Commission is responsible for addressing quality of patient care and patient safety.
54. Which of the following is classified as a C-II stimulant?
A. Amoborbital
B. Cocaine
C. Nabilone
D. Codeine
Explanation Details
Correct answer: B. Cocaine
Cocaine is classified as a C-II stimulant. Other C-II stimulants include amphetamine/dextroamphetamine,

methamphetamine, and methylphenidate.
Codeine is classified as a C-II opioid. Amobarbital is classified as a C-II depressant. Nabilone is classified
as a C-II hallucinogen.
55. If a pharmacy is robbed and the thief takes several bottles of scheduled medications, what
must the pharmacy do?
A. Notify the pharmacy's owner

B. Notify the FDA
C. Notify the pharmacy's drug wholesaler
D. Notify the DFA
Explanation Details
Correct answer: D. Notify the DEA
When a pharmacy is robbed, the pharmacy is required to notify the police, notify the nearest Drug
Enforcement Agency (DEA) office, and complete the DEA Form 106. The DEA Form 106 can be completed
online; however, the pharmacy must print a copy for its records. The DEA Form 106 is also used for
internal theft of controlled substances.
The theft of controlled substances does not require the pharmacy to notify the FDA, notify the
pharmacy's owner, or notify the pharmacy's drug wholesaler.
56. The Joint Commission certifies all except which of the following?
A. Home care
B. Laboratory services
C. Retail pharmacies
D. Critical access hospitals
Explanation Details
Correct answer: C. Retail pharmacies
The Joint Commission does not certify retail pharmacies.
The Joint Commission does certify critical access hospitals, laboratory services, and home care. It also
certifies ambulatory healthcare, behavioral health care, hospital, and long-term care facilities.
57. How many refills is a prescriber allowed to give on a schedule III prescription within six
months?
A. Up to 8
B. None
C. Up to 5
D. One
Explanation Details
Correct answer: C. Up to 5
Prescriptions for schedules III (and IV) controlled substances may be refilled up to five times in six
months. These prescriptions can be faxed, phoned, or electronically submitted to the pharmacy as long
as state law permits.
A schedule II prescription is not to be refilled. Prescriptions for schedule II controlled substances must be
signed by the practitioner. In emergency situations, a prescription for a schedule II controlled substance
may be telephoned to the pharmacy, and the prescriber must follow up with a written prescription being
sent to the pharmacy within seven days.
Prescriptions for schedule V controlled substances may be refilled as authorized by the practitioner.
These prescriptions can be faxed, phoned, or electronically submitted to the pharmacy as long as state
law permits.
58. Recalled medication documentation should include all except which of the following?
A. Number of customers responding
B. invoice numbers of the recalled medication
C. Number of customers notified
D. Dates customers notified
Explanation Details
Correct answer: B. Invoice numbers of the recalled medication
Recalled medication documentation should include:
 Dates customers notified

 Number of customers notified
 Number of customers responding
 Quantity of recalled product returned or accounted for during the recall
59. Which of the following laws was established to mandate that all products have sufficient
directions for use?
A. Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951

B. Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938
C. Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962
D. Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906
Explanation Details
Correct answer: A. Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951
The Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951 is an amendment to the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of
1938 and requires all products to have adequate directions for use unless they contain the federal
statement "Caution: Federal law prohibits dispensing without a prescription." The Kefauver-Harris
Amendment of 1962 requires all medications in the United States to be pure, safe, and effective. The
Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906 prohibited the interstate transportation or sale of adulterated and
misbranded food or drugs.
60. Which of the following regulates the advertisement of over-the-counter drugs?

Explanation Details
Correct answer: A. Federal Trade Commission (FTC)
The Federal Trade Commission (FTC) is an independent agency of the United States government,
established in 1914 by the Federal Trade Commission Act. Its principal mission is the promotion of
consumer protection and the elimination and prevention of anticompetitive business practices such as
coercive monopoly. The FTC regulates the advertisement of over-the-counter drugs.
The DEA classifies drugs as controlled substances. The FDA regulates prescription drug advertising. OSHA
regulates employee exposure to bloodborne pathogens.
61. If a DEA Form 222 is deemed as defective, what should be done with it?
A. It should be retained in the pharmacy for at least 2 years.

B. It should be shredded
C. It should be mailed to the DEA with an explanation
D. It should be sent to the wholesaler when the drugs are ordered
Explanation Details
Correct answer: A. It should be retained in the pharmacy for at least 2 years
A DEA Form 222 is a triplicate form used to order controlled substances. If the form is altered or illegible,
then it is classified as defective. Even though the form is defective, the pharmacy must keep the form on
file for at least 2 years.
A defective DEA Form 222 should not be shredded, mailed to the DEA with an explanation, or sent to the
wholesaler when the drugs are ordered.
62. Under which legislation can manufacturers market vitamins without FDA review?
A. Federal Anti-Tampering Act of 1982

B. Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987
C. Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act of 1994
D. Food and Drug Administration Modernization Act of 1997
Explanation Details
Correct answer: C. Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act of 1994
The Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act of 1994 classified dietary supplements as "food." As
the result, manufacturers can market dietary supplements without FDA review.
The Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987 banned the selling/purchasing/trading of prescription drug
samples.
The Federal Anti-Tampering Act of 1982 ruled that over-the-counter drug products must have a tamper-
evident seal.
The Food and Drug Administration Modernization Act of 1997 allows for the statement "Caution: Federal
law prohibits dispensing without a prescription" to be shortened to "Rx only."
63. Which of the following organizations is responsible for developing and publishing standards
for drug substances, drug products, excipients, and dietary supplements?
A. Food and Drugs Administration

B. State boards of pharmacy
C. United States Pharmacopeia
Explanation Details
Correct answer: C. United States Pharmacopeia
The United States Pharmacopeia (USP) is responsible for developing and publishing standards for drug
substances, drug products, excipients, and dietary supplements.
The state boards of pharmacy is responsible for regulating the pharmacy practices in a given state. The
National Association of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP) is responsible for discussing pharmacy trends and
issues. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is responsible for monitoring the purity, safety, and
effectiveness of all pharmaceutical products.
64. What information is not provided on a product's safety data sheet (SDS)?
A. Chemical and physical properties of the product

B. Wholesale price of the product
C. Spillage containment information
D. Environmental hazard of the product
Explanation Details
Correct answer: B. Wholesale price of the product
SDS provides information about the product regarding:
 Chemical and physical properties

 Health, safety, fire, and environmental hazards
 Information on what to do if the product is accidentally spilled
65. Which Medicare program provides medication therapy management (MTM) for its
beneficiaries?
A. Medicare Part A
B. Medicare Part B
C. Medicare Part D
D. Medicare Advantage
Explanation Details
Correct answer: C. Medicare Part D
The Medicare Prescription Drug Improvement and Modernization Act of 2003 provides for a voluntary
prescription drug benefit to Medicare beneficiaries along with the service of medication therapy
management (MTM) that is operated by pharmacists. This act also adds preventive medical benefits to
Medicare beneficiaries.
66. Which of the following organizations is responsible for monitoring the purity, safety, and
effectiveness of all pharmaceutical products?
A. TJC
B. DEA
C. FDA
D. USP
Explanation Details
Correct answer: C. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is responsible for monitoring the purity, safety, and
effectiveness of all pharmaceutical products.
The Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA) is responsible for assigning medications to the appropriate
schedule. The United States Pharmacopeia (USP) is responsible for developing and publishing standards
for drug substances, drug products, excipients, and dietary supplements. The Joint Commission (TJC) is
responsible for addressing the quality of patient care and safety.
67. According to the Drug Enforcement Agency, who is required to obtain a DEA number?
A. Practitioners or entities that write for or handle controlled substances

B. Only entities that distribute prescription drugs
C. All healthcare providers
D. Only healthcare providers who write prescriptions.
Explanation Details
Correct answer: A. Practitioners or entities that write for or handle controlled substances
Practitioners or entities that write for or handle controlled substances are required to obtain a DEA
number, according to the Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA). To obtain a DEA number, the practitioner or
entity must register with the DEA using DEA form 224, which must be renewed every three years using
DEA form 224a.
All healthcare providers is incorrect because a DEA number is only needed if the providers are writing for
controlled substances. Only healthcare providers who write prescriptions is incorrect because a DEA
number is only needed if the provider is writing for controlled substances; other entities (i.e.,
wholesalers and pharmacies) that handle controlled substances are also required to obtain a DEA
number. Only entities that distribute prescription drugs is incorrect because healthcare providers also
need a DEA number if they write for controlled substances.
68. Which of the following DEA Forms is required for reporting a pharmacy closure?DEA Form
104
A. DEA Form 104

B. DEA Form 106
C. DEA Form 41
D. DEA Form 224
Explanation Details
Correct answer: A. DEA Form 104
The following are explanations of DEA forms:
 DEA Form 104: For reporting a pharmacy closure or surrender of a pharmacy permit
 DEA Form 41: For reporting the destruction of controlled substances
 DEA Form 106: For reporting of the loss of theft of controlled substances
 DEA Form 224: For applying for a DEA registration number
69. Which of the following legislation allows an individual to return unused controlled
substances to a designated pharmacy for proper disposal?
A. Poison Prevention Packaging Act

B. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act
C. Drug Supply Chain Security Act
D. Secure and Responsible Drug Disposal Act of 2010
Explanation Details
Correct answer: D. Secure and Responsible Drug Disposal Act of 2010
The Secure and Responsible Drug Disposal Act of 2010 allows people to return unused controlled
substances to a designated pharmacy for proper disposal in a safe and effective manner.
The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act provides the general guidelines for the waste management
program envisioned by congress. The Drug Supply Chain Security Act outlines critical steps to build an
electronic system to identify and trace prescription drugs in the U.S. The Poison Prevention Packaging
Act was enacted to reduce accidental poisoning in children.
70. Which of the following organizations oversees REMS?
A. NIOSH
B. TJC
C. FDA
D. BOP
Explanation Details
Correct answer: C. FDA
The FDA oversees REMS. REMS is required risk management plans that use risk minimization strategies
beyond the professional labeling to ensure that the benefits of certain drugs outweigh their risks.
"REMS" stands for Risk evaluation and mitigation strategies.
The Joint Commission (TJC) addresses the quality of patient care and patient safety.
The Board of Pharmacy (BOP) is the state agency that oversees the practices of pharmacy in a given
state.
The National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) oversees a list of drugs that are
deemed to be hazardous and require special handling.
pharmacy may do all except which of the following?
A. Request a customer to sign a log book when picking up prescriptions

B. Inform a family member that prescription are ready for pick up
C. Discuss a customer's medicationg and condition with a family member
D. Allow a friend to pick up prescriptions
Explanation Details
Correct answer: C. Discuss a customer’s medication and condition with a family member
In regard to HIPAA, a pharmacy may not discuss a customer’s medication and condition with a family
member unless the customer authorizes the pharmacy to do so.
In regard to HIPAA, a pharmacy may allow a friend to pick up prescriptions, inform a family member that
prescriptions are ready for pickup, and request a customer to sign a log book when picking up
prescriptions.
72. Regarding refills for controlled substances, which of the following statements is false?
A. Schedule II drug orders are not permitted to have refills.

B. Schedule V drug orders do not have refill limitations
C. Schedule III and Schedule IV drug orders may only contain 5 refills.
D. Schedule III through Schedule V drug orders may only contain 5 refills.
Explanation Details
Correct answer: D. Schedule III through Schedule V drug orders may only contain 5 refills.
It is false to say that Schedule III through Schedule V drug orders may only contain 5 refills because
Schedule V drug orders do not have refill limitations.
It is true to say that Schedule II drug orders are not permitted to have refills, Schedule V drug orders do
not have refill limitations, and Schedule III and Schedule IV drug orders may only contain 5 refills.
73. Who notifies the pharmacy when the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) recalls a drug
product?
A. FDA, wholesaler, or drug manufacturer

B. FDA or drug manufacturer
C. DRUG manufacturer only
D. FDA only
Explanation Details
Correct answer: A. FDA, wholesaler, or drug manufacturer
The pharmacy can be notified by the FDA, wholesaler, and/or drug manufacturer when the FDA recalls a
drug product. It is the pharmacy’s responsibility to contact any patients who have received the
medication and to return any remaining recalled medication to the manufacturer for credit.

Explanation Details
Correct answer: C. When a pharmacy is ordering Schedule II controlled substances
DEA Form 222 is completed when a pharmacy is ordering Schedule II controlled substances.
completed when a pharmacy is surrendering its pharmacy permit. DEA Form 41 is completed when a
pharmacy is destroying controlled substances.
75. Which copy of DEA Form 222 does the pharmacy retain?
A. Blue (third page)

B. Brown (first page)
C. Yellow ( fourth page)
D. Green (second page)
Explanation Details
Correct answer: A. Blue (third page)
The pharmacy is required to retain the blue copy (third page) of DEA Form 222.
The supplier is required to retain the brown copy (first page) of DEA Form 222. The DEA is required to
retain the green copy (second page) of DEA Form 222.
There is not a yellow copy (fourth page) of DEA Form 222.

76. Who is responsible for initiating a drug recall?
A. Drug wholesaler
B. Drug manufacturer
C. Pharmacies
D. United States Pharmacopeia
Explanation Details
Correct answer: B. Drug manufacturer
The drug manufacturer or the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is responsible for initiating a drug
recall. Drugs are often recalled because they are labeled inappropriately, they contain contamination, or
they are impotent.
The drug wholesaler, pharmacies, and the United States Pharmacopeia are not responsible for initiating
a drug recall.
77. Before any prescription drug or device leaves the pharmacy, the technician must verify which
of the following?
A. The pharmacist has checked it.

B. The item has been billed to proper insurance
C. The patient has received counseling
D. The copayment has been collected
Explanation Details
Correct answer: A. The pharmacist has checked it.
Before any prescription drug or device can leave the pharmacy, the technician must verify that it has
been checked by a pharmacist. It is not only a requirement that a pharmacist check all prescription drugs
and devices but also a safety measure.
The other options are important, but they are all actions that would not prevent the drug or device from
leaving the pharmacy.
78. Which of the following was a result of the Medicare Prescription Drug Improvement and
Modernization Act of 2003?
A. Provided senior citizens with preventive medical benefits

B. Required manufacturers of herbal supplements to identify all of its ingredients by name on the
label
C. Mandated that all patients, prescribers, and pharmacists be registered
D. Required the sale of methamphetamines to be logged.
Explanation Details
Correct answer: A. Provided senior citizens with preventive medical benefits
The Medicare Prescription Drug Improvement and Modernization Act of 2003, also known as the
Medicare Modernization Act (MMA), provided Medicare beneficiaries with preventive medical benefits
and medication therapy management. This act also affected durable medical equipment (DME)
businesses, as it installed a national competitive bidding program and lowered Medicare reimbursement
rates.
The Medicare Prescription Drug Improvement and Modernization Act of 2003 does not mandate that all
patients, prescribers, and pharmacists be registered, require the sale of methamphetamines to be
logged, or require manufacturers of herbal supplements to identify all of its ingredients by name on the
label.

79. Which of the following DEA numbers could be Dr. Jean Smith’s?
A. BJ5892143
B. DS5892143
C. BS5892143
D. JS5892143
Explanation Details
Correct answer: B. BS5892143
The first letter of a DEA number must be an "A," "B," or "F" for physicians, dentists, veterinarians,
hospitals, and pharmacies. The second letter of a DEA number must be the first letter of the individual’s
last name. Therefore, because the individual’s name is Dr. Jean Smith, the second letter of the DEA
number must be an "S," and the first letter must be an "A," "B," or "F," which leaves only one option:
BS5892143.
80. If a manufacturer fails to comply with Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategies (REMS), what
is a consequence it could face?
A. A $250,000 fine per incident

B. A $100,000 fine per incident
C. A $500,000 fine per incident
D. A $50,000 fine per incident
Explanation Details
Correct answer: A. A $250,000 fine per incident
If a manufacturer fails to comply with REMS, it could face a $250,000 fine per incident. The FDA
Amendments Act of 2007 allowed the FDA to require manufacturers to comply with REMS. REMS is a
restricted drug program. Currently, there are over 100 drugs that contain a REMS program.
The other choices are incorrect because manufacturers could face a $250,000 fine per incident if they fail
to comply with REMS, not a $50,000, $100,000, or $500,000 fine per incident.
81. The Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act of 2005 (CMEA) limited daily sales of
pseudoephedrine to what amount?
A. 9 grams
B. 7.5 grams
C. 12.2 grams
D. 3.6 grams
Explanation Details
Correct answer: D. 3.6 grams
CMEA limits daily sales of pseudoephedrine to 3.6 grams.
CMEA limits monthly sales (30 days) of pseudoephedrine to 9 grams. The federal law limits monthly mail
order sales (30 days) of pseudoephedrine to 7.5 grams. CMEA does not allow a daily or a monthly
pseudoephedrine limit of 12.2 grams.
82. What do the initials in HIPAA mean?

A. Hospice In-home Patient Accuracy of Administration
B. Hospital Inquiries Privacy Action Act
C. Health Information Privacy and Accuracy Act
D. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
Explanation Details
Correct answer: D. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
HIPAA is the acronym for the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. HIPAA requires
healthcare providers to keep patients' identifiable and protected health information (PHI) confidential.
The acronym HIPAA is not used in healthcare to represent Health Information Privacy and Accuracy Act,
Hospital Inquiries Privacy Action Act, or Hospice In-home Patients Accuracy of Administration.
83. Which of the following would be consider a valid DEA number for Dr. Anne Greene?
A. AG3158918
B. BG8516239
C. GB5562432
D. MG1698802
Explanation Details
Correct answer: B. BG8516239
When checking a DEA number, you can quickly tell if it is valid by the first two letters, as the first letter
should always be an A, B, F, or M, and the second letter should always be the first letter of the
prescriber’s last name. If the alpha characters do not eliminate any questions about the DEA number,
then you will need to verify the numeric characters. To do this, start by adding the first, third, and fifth
numbers (8 + 1 + 2 = 11). Then, you will add the second, fourth, and sixth numbers and multiply the sum
by 2 (5 + 6 + 3 = 14; 14 × 2 = 28). Next, add the two sums (11 + 28 = 39), and the last digit (9) should be
the last number of the DEA number.
PTCB Exam Simplified: Pharmacy Technician Certification Exam Study Guide 4th Edition. Pgs 110-111.
84. Which Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS) program has been established
because its drug causes severe birth defects and venous thromboembolic events?

B. THALIDOMID REMS
C. iPLEDGE
Explanation Details
Correct answer: B. THALIDOMID REMS
THALIDOMID REMS is the REMS program that has been established because Thalomid (thalidomide)
causes severe birth defects and venous thromboembolic events.
iPLEDGE is the REMS program that focuses on making sure people who are starting isotretinoin therapy
are not pregnant and will not become pregnant. Tikosyn In Pharmacy System (T.I.P.S.) is the REMS
program that has been established to communicate the risk of cardiac arrhythmias associated with
taking Tikosyn (dofetilide). Clozaril National Registry is the REMS program that has been established as a
database to record and reference the white blood cell count of patients who take Clozaril (clozapine).
85. Safety data sheets are overseen by which agency?

B. United States Pharmacopeia
C. Institute of Safe Medication Practices
D. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
Explanation Details
Correct answer: Occupational Safety and Health Administration
Safety data sheets are overseen by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration. Occupational
Safety and Health Administration requires pharmacies to maintain safety data sheets for medications
and hazardous substances.
The Food and Drug Administration provides a list of medication recalls and attempts to reduce the
number of drug shortages. The Institute of Safe Medication Practices provides resources such as black
box warnings, error-prone abbreviations list, and tall man letters. The United States Pharmacopeia
establishes the standards for the quality and purity of medications, food ingredients, and supplements.
86. Which of the following organizations is responsible for establishing standards and accrediting
hospitals and home healthcare agencies?

B. The Joint Commission
C. Institute for Safe Medication Practices
D. United States Pharmacopeia
Explanation Details
Correct answer: B. The Joint Commission
The Joint Commission (TJC) is the organization responsible for establishing standards and accrediting
hospitals and home healthcare agencies.
The United States Pharmacopeia (USP) is responsible for setting medicine guidelines for strength, quality,
identity, and purity. The Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) is responsible for providing
medication safety information. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is responsible for the
supervision of food, drugs, tobacco, cosmetics, vaccines, blood biologics, and radiation-emitting
products.
covered entity may disclose protected health information to all except which of the
following?
A. Individual who believes they can have contracted a communicable disease

B. Employer who request Information regarding an employee's work-related injury
C. Entity regulated by the FDA for adverse event reporting or product recalls
D. Public health authorities authorized by law to obtain information for disease prevention
Explanation Details
Correct answer: A. Individual who believes they may have contracted a communicable disease
In regard to HIPAA, a covered entity may not disclose protected health information to an individual who
believes they may have contracted a communicable disease unless that individual goes through the legal
system and has their request authorized by law.
In regard to HIPAA, a covered entity may disclose protected health information to an employer who
requests information regarding an employee’s work-related injury, to public health authorities
authorized by law to obtain information for disease prevention, and to an entity regulated by the FDA for
adverse event reporting or product recalls.
88. Which of the following agencies is responsible for discussing pharmacy trends and issues?
A. Drug Enforcement Agency
B. State boards of pharmacy
Explanation Details
Correct answer: D. National Association of Boards of Pharmacy
The National Association of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP) is responsible for discussing pharmacy trends
and issues that affect pharmacy practice.
The United States Pharmacopeia (USP) is responsible for developing and publishing standards for drug
substances, drug products, excipients, and dietary supplements. The state boards of pharmacy are
responsible for regulating the pharmacy practices in a given state. The Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA) is
responsible for assigning medications to the appropriate schedule.
89. How does the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act of 2005 (CMEA) require
pseudoephedrine products to be packaged and sold?
A. In packages of 12
B. In blister packs
C. I amber vials
D. In child-proof vials
Explanation Details
Correct answer: B. In blister packs
The Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act of 2005 (CMEA) requires pseudoephedrine products to be
packaged and sold in blister packs. CMEA requires pharmacies to secure pseudoephedrine products from
consumers.
CMEA does not allow pseudoephedrine products to be sold as loose tablets or capsules, which
eliminates them from being packaged in child-proof vials or amber vials. CMEA does not state that
pseudoephedrine products need to be sold in packages of 12.
90. Adulteration of a medication includes all except which of the following?
A. Medications that contain labels that are misleading

B. Medications prepared in containers composed of a poisonous substance
C. Medications that contain decomposed substances
D. Medications that contain an unsafe color additive
Explanation Details
Correct answer: A. Medications that contain labels that are misleading
Medications containing labels that are misleading is an example of misbranding, not adulteration.
Specifically, the medication in the bottle contains what the label states, but it's not what was prescribed
to the patient. Other examples of misbranding include labeling that is "false or misleading in any
particular way" or if the label fails to carry adequate direction of use or warnings against use in certain
medical conditions.
Adulteration includes medications that contain decomposed substances, medications prepared in

containers composed of a poisonous substance, and medications that contain an unsafe color additive.
91. Which of the following pharmacy references is not required to be available in the pharmacy?
A. Micromedex
B. USP-NF
C. Federal Controlled Substances Act
D. State Controlled Substances Act
Explanation Details
Correct answer: A. Micromedex
Micromedex is a useful and commonly used pharmacy drug reference. However, it is not federally
required to be available in the pharmacy.
The required pharmacy references are as follows:
 Federal Controlled Substances Act

 State Controlled Substances Act
 USP-NF
 Approved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations
92. Prescriptions for Schedule II medications may be faxed to the pharmacy and accepted as an
original prescription in all except which of the following situations?
A. When the order is being dispensed to a patient in a hospice care program

B. When the order is being filled and dispensed to a patient in a home setting
C. When the order is being dispensed to a patient in a long-term care facility
D. When the order is being compounded for home infusion
Explanation Details
Correct answer: B. When the order is being filled and dispensed to a patient in a home setting
Faxed prescriptions for Schedule II medications may not be accepted as an original prescription when
filled and dispensed to a patient in a home setting. A retail pharmacy may fill a Schedule II order using
the faxed prescription; however, the pharmacy may not dispense the Schedule II order until it receives
the original signed prescription from the physician.
Faxed prescriptions for Schedule II medications may be faxed and accepted as original prescriptions
when they are being compounded for home infusion, dispensed to a patient in a long-term care facility,
and dispensed to a patient in a hospice care program.
PTCB Exam Simplified: Pharmacy Technician Certification Exam Study Guide 4th Edition. Pg. X102
93. Which of the following is classified as a C-III anabolic steroid?
A. Buprenorphine
B. Testosterone
C. Ketamine
D. Dronabinol
Explanation Details
Correct answer: B. Testosterone
Testosterone is classified as a C-III anabolic steroid. Another C-III anabolic steroid is oxandrolone.
Dronabinol is classified as a C-III hallucinogen. Ketamine is classified as a C-III depressant. Buprenorphine

is classified as a C-III opioid.
94. What is the color of a bulk hazardous drug waste container?
A. Yellow
B. Black
C. Red
D. Green
Explanation Details
Correct answer: B. Black
A bulk hazardous drug waste container is black. They are used for disposal of half-empty vials of
chemotherapy drugs.
A standard sharps container is red.
Yellow containers are for sharps waste with hazardous drug residue.
Green is not used for hazardous waste.
95. The intent of the Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970 is to do which of the following?
A. Identify poison control numbers for each product

B. Alert consumers of product ingredients
C. Protect children from serious injury
D. Provide safety information regarding products
Explanation Details
Correct answer: C. Protect children from serious injury
The intent of the Poison Prevention Packaging Act (PPPA) of 1970 is to protect children from serious
injury. The PPPA requires medications and other household substances to be distributed in child-
resistant packaging to help prevent children from serious injury caused by the ingestion of poisonous
substances.
The intent of the PPPA was not to alert consumers of product ingredients, to provide safety information
regarding products, or to identify poison control numbers for each product.
96. Which of the following is not a component of the OBRA '90 drug utilization review?
A. Retrospective drug use review

B. Prospective drug use review
C. Drug pricing
D. Educational programs
Explanation Details
Correct answer: C. Drug pricing
The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) of 1990 required states to establish drug use review
programs consisting of all three essential components:
1- Prospective drug use review

2- Retrospective drug use review
3- Educational programs
97. The Joint Commission requires a pharmacy’s procedures to address all except which of the
following?
A. Disciplinary actions-
B. Proper use of laminar flow hoods
C. Disposal of waste
D. Personal hygiene requirements
Explanation Details
Correct answer: Disciplinary actions
The Joint Commission does not require a pharmacy’s procedures to address disciplinary actions.
The Joint Commission is responsible for accrediting healthcare organizations for meeting and
maintaining specific performance standards, which include the proper use of laminar flow hoods,
personal hygiene requirements, and disposal of waste.
Disciplinary actions are carried out by the State Board of Pharmacy.
98. Which Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS) program has been established as a
database to record and reference the white blood cell count of patients who take the drug it
was established for?
B. THALIDOMID REMS
C. iPLEDGE
Explanation Details
Correct answer: A. Clozaril National Registry
Clozaril National Registry is the REMS program that has been established as a database to record and
reference the white blood cell count of patients who take Clozaril (clozapine).
iPLEDGE is the REMS program that focuses on making sure people who are starting isotretinoin therapy
are not pregnant and will not become pregnant. THALIDOMID REMS is the REMS program that has been
established because Thalomid (thalidomide) causes severe birth defects and venous thromboembolic
events. Tikosyn In Pharmacy System (T.I.P.S.) is the REMS program that has been established to
communicate the risk of cardiac arrhythmias associated with taking Tikosyn (dofetilide).
99. Which statement is false in regard to storage of hazardous drugs (HD)?

A. Storage of HD should be to prevent spillage and breakage.
B. Storage must meet appropriate safety precautions.
C. Access to areas where HD's are handled must be restricted to authorized personnel.
D. Storage of HD should be nearby the employee break areas, away from patients and visitors.
Explanation Details
Correct answer: D. Storage of HD should be nearby the employee break areas, away from patients and
visitors.
Good practices regarding storage of HD include the following:
 Storage of HDs should be located away from the employee break areas, not nearby. It should
also be located away from patients and visitors.
 Access to areas where HDs are handled must be restricted to authorized personnel.
 Storage of HDs should be to prevent spillage and breakage.
 Storage must meet appropriate safety precautions.
100. In some instances, a prescriber’s agent may order a prescription for a patient. A prescriber’s
agent may order a prescription in all except which of the following instances?
A. Call the pharmacy and verbally order for a non-controlled substance.
B. Send a fax to the pharmacy for a non controlled substance.
C. Call the pharmacy and verbally order a Schedule IV medication.
D. Send a fax to the pharmacy for a Schedule IV medication.
Explanation Details
Correct answer: C. Call the pharmacy and verbally order a Schedule IV medication
A prescriber’s agent is not permitted to call the pharmacy and verbally order Schedule II through
Schedule V medications.
A prescriber’s agent is permitted to call or fax orders for a non-controlled substance, and an agent is
permitted to send a fax to the pharmacy for a Schedule III through Schedule V medication order.
101. Which of the following organizations is responsible for regulating pharmacy practices in a
given state?
A. United States Pharmacopeia

B. Environmental Protection Agency
C. State Board of Pharmacy
Explanation Details
Correct answer: C. State board of pharmacy
The state board of pharmacy is responsible for regulating pharmacy practices in a given state.
The National Association of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP) is responsible for discussing pharmacy
trends and issues. The United States Pharmacopeia (USP) is responsible for developing and
publishing standards for drug substances, drug products, excipients, and dietary supplements.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is responsible for setting up guidelines for the
disposal of controlled substances.
102. In regard to controlled substance partial fills, which statement is true?
A. C-III, IV, and V prescriptions can be partially filled if the remainder is filled within 72 hours.
B. C-II prescriptions are not permitted to be partially filled.
C. C-V prescriptions are the only controlled substance prescriptions that can be partially filled
with no time limit.
D. C-II prescriptions can be partially filled if the remainder is filled within 72 hours.
Explanation Details
Correct answer: B. C-II prescriptions can be partially filled if the remainder is filled within 72 hours.
In regard to controlled substance partial fills, it is true that C-II prescriptions can be partially filled if the
remainder is filled within 72 hours.
It is false that C-III, IV, and V prescriptions can be partially filled if the remainder is filled within 72 hours
because they are permitted to be partially filled with no time limit for filling the remainder of the fill. It is
false that C-V prescriptions are the only controlled substance prescriptions that can be partially filled
with no time limit because C-III and C-IV prescriptions can also be partially filled with no time limit. It is
false that C-II prescriptions are not permitted to be partially filled because they can be partially refilled if
the remainder is filled within 72 hours.
103. If a manufacturer fails to comply with Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategies (REMS),
which of the following could occur?
A. it could lose its DEA license for five years

B. it could lose its right to manufacture drugs.
C. it could face $250,000 fine per incident.
D. it could be required to offer its drugs at discounted prices.
Explanation Details
Correct answer: C. It could face a $250,000 fine per incident.
If a manufacturer fails to comply with REMS, it could face a $250,000 fine per incident. Drugs that carry a
high risk are placed into REMS, which is a restricted drug program. The FDA or a manufacturer can
implement a REMS program for a drug.
The other options are incorrect because a manufacturer could face a $250,000 fine per incident if it fails
to comply with REMS, not lose its DEA license, lose its right to manufacture drugs, or be required to offer
drugs at a discounted price.
104. Which of the following agencies is responsible for assigning medications to the appropriate
schedule?
A. Drug enforcement Agency

B. Food and Drug Administration
D. State Boards of Pharmacy
Explanation Details
Correct answer: A. Drug Enforcement Agency
The Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA) is responsible for assigning medications to the appropriate
schedule.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is responsible for monitoring the purity, safety, and
effectiveness of all pharmaceutical products. The State Boards of Pharmacy is responsible for regulating
the pharmacy practices in a given state. The United States Pharmacopeia (USP) develops and publishes
standards for ingredients in drug substances, drug products, excipients, and dietary supplements.
105. Which of the following medications is not exempted from child-resistant containers?
A. Methylprednisolone tablets in packages containing not more than 85 milligrams of the drug.
B. Sublingual nitroglycerin
C. Multivitamin with folic Acid
D. Pancrelipase Preparations in tablet, capsule, or powder form.
Explanation Details
Correct answer: C. Multivitamin with folic acid
The Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970 requires that most OTC and legend drugs to be packaged in
child-resistant containers. However, there are exceptions to this rule. Some examples are as follows:
Sublingual nitroglycerin
Methylprednisolone tablets in packages containing not more than 85 milligrams of the drug
Pancrelipase Preparations in tablet, capsule, or powder form
For the purpose of the exam and practice, please familiarize yourself with all the medications that are
listed on the child-resistant container list because they are frequently tested.
106. For drugs to be marketed in the United States, what must they conform to?
A. TQM standards
B. USP-NF standards
C. TJC standards
D. FDA standards
Explanation Details
Correct answer: B. USP-NF standard
For drugs to be marketed in the United States, they must conform to USP-NF standards. The USP-NF is
the United States Pharmacopeia and National Formulary, which is published by the United States
Pharmacopeia.
107. The Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act of 2005 (CMEA) limited monthly sales of
pseudoephedrine to what amount?
A. 9 grams
B. 7.5 grams
C. 12.2 grams
D. 3.6 grams
Explanation Details
Correct answer: A. 9 grams
The CMEA limits monthly sales (30 days) of pseudoephedrine to 9 grams.
The CMEA limits daily sales of pseudoephedrine to 3.6 grams. The federal law limits monthly mail order
sales (30 days) of pseudoephedrine to 7.5 grams. The CMEA does not allow a daily or a monthly
pseudoephedrine limit of 12.2 grams.
108. Which of the following did OBRA-90 require pharmacists to perform?
A. Drug utilization evaluation

B. OARRS reporting
C. Inventory control
D. Medication therapy management
Explanation Details
Correct answer: A. Drug utilization evaluation
OBRA-90, which is the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990, requires pharmacists to perform drug
utilization evaluations (DUE). A DUE alerts pharmacists of drug contradictions or interactions that could
potentially harm the patient.
OBRA-90 did not require Ohio Automated Rx Reporting System (OARRS reporting), medication therapy
management, or inventory control.
109. Which of the following is not considered misbranding?
A. Problems with the purity of the product.

B. False information on labels
C. Misleading information
D. Insufficient information
Explanation Details
Correct answer: A. Problems with the purity of the product
Problems with the purity of the product are considered adulteration.
Misbranding is when there are problems with labeling, such as:
 False information
 Misleading information
 Insufficient information
110. Which of the following is not a part of personnel training for handling hazardous drugs
(HDs)?
A. Constructing SOP regarding handling of HDs

B. Providing a list of HDs
C. Response to exposure
D. Proper use of PPE
Explanation Details
Correct answer: A. Constructing SOP regarding handling of HDs
"SOP" stands for standard operating procedures. Constructing or creating is not a part of personnel or
new hire training. Instead, reviewing SOP is a part of training. Personnel training should include the
following:
Providing a list of HDs and their risks used in the facility

Reviewing SOP regarding handling of HDs
Proper use of PPEs
Proper use of equipment
Spill management
Response to exposure
111. Which USP chapters establishes sterile compounding requirements and standards?
A. USP <795>
B. USP <797>
C.USP-IV
D.USP-NF
Explanation Details
Correct answer: B. USP <797>
The USP establishes sterile compounding requirements under the USP <797>.
The USP establishes nonsterile compounding requirements under the USP <795>. The USP publishes the
USP-NF, which is a formulary that contains standards for compounded preparations. The USP does not
publish USP-IV requirements.
112. A patient drops off a prescription for pseudoephedrine 60 mg to be taken orally every 12
hours. What is the maximum amount (in grams) of pseudoephedrine this patient can fill
every month?
A. 9 grams
B. 7.5 grams
C. 3.6 grams
D. No limit
Explanation Details
Correct answer: D. No limit
The maximum amount of pseudoephedrine one can purchase is only applicable to over-the-counter
purchasing; these limits do not apply when pseudoephedrine is obtained by prescription. Note that
there is a maximum dose of 240 mg daily, but that is not based on a federal regulation.
For OTC purchase, the daily limit is 3.6 grams/day per customer and the monthly limit is 9 grams/month
per customer or 7.5 grams/month if it is mail order.
113. Which of the following medication does not require completion of DEA Form 106 in the
event of theft or significant loss?
A. Carisoprodol
B. Nalorphine
C. Modafinil
D. Benzonatate
Explanation Details
Correct answer: D. Benzonatate
All controlled substances from C-II to C-V require completion and submission of DEA Form 106 to the
area DEA field office in the event of theft or significant loss.
Benzonatate is not a controlled substance; it is a legend drug that is indicated for cough.
Nalorphine is a C-III, and modafinil and carisoprodol are C-IV controlled substances. Therefore, they all
require completion and submission of DEA Form 106 in the event of theft or significant loss.
114. How many different items can be placed on one DEA Form 222?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 10
D. 25
Explanation Details
Correct answer: C. 10
DEA Form 222 only allows a maximum of 10 items; therefore, only one item can be placed on each line.
The DEA Form is required to be completed with a pen, typewriter, or a pencil that is indelible. The use of
ditto marks is not permissible on DEA Form 222.
115. The FDA labeling regulations require drug monographs to be available for each drug.
“Dosage Forms and Strengths” is a section listed on the drug monograph that provides what
type of information?
A. The drug’s color and scoring.

B. The drug’s pharmacological information
C. The conditions the drug is approved to treat
D. The studies conducted during the drug’s development
Explanation Details
Correct answer: A. The drug’s color and scoring
The “Dosage Forms and Strengths” section of a drug monograph lists the drug’s color and scoring, the
form of the drug, and the strengths of the drug.
The “Indications and Usage” section of a drug monograph lists the conditions that the drug is approved
to treat, the drug’s pharmacological class, and limitations associated with the drug. The “Dosage and
Administration” section of a drug monograph lists the drug’s pharmacological information, the drug’s
recommended dosage regimen, the drug’s dosage range, and how the drug should be administered. The
“Nonclinical Toxicology” section of a drug monograph lists the studies conducted during the drug’s
development, the drug’s formulation, and any in vivo efficacy studies that the drug was involved in.
116. Which of the following enforces regulations that reduce employee exposure to bloodborne
pathogens?
Explanation Details
Correct answer: D. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
OSHA regulates employee exposure to bloodborne pathogens. OSHA is also responsible for the
enforcement of health and safety laws.
The FTC regulates the advertising of over-the-counter drugs and medical devices. The DEA classifies
drugs as controlled substances. The FDA regulates over-the-counter drugs and the advertising of
prescription drugs.
117. Who is a pharmacy technician allowed to share their pharmacy information system login
information with?
A. IT personnel only
B. No one
C. Manager only
D. Pharmacist only
Explanation Details
Correct answer: B. No one
A pharmacy technician is not allowed to share their pharmacy information system login with anyone.
When an individual is logged into the pharmacy information system, the system records a digital
footprint of every file that was visited under that login. Therefore, a pharmacy technician should protect
themselves and never provide their login information to anyone.
The other choices are incorrect because a pharmacy technician should not provide pharmacy login
information with the manager, IT personnel, or pharmacists.
118. Which of the following would be considered a valid DEA number for Dr. Clare Watson?
A. AW8119324
B. BW2869874
C. CW3421936
D. DW789129
Explanation Details
Correct answer: B. BW2869874
When checking a DEA number, you can quickly tell if a physician's DEA is valid by the first two letters, as
the first letter should always be an A, B, or F, and the second letter should always be the first letter of the
prescriber’s last name.
If the alpha characters do not provide any answers, then you will need to verify the numeric characters.
To do this, you will start by adding the first, third, and fifth numbers (2 + 6 + 8 = 16). Then, you will add
the second, fourth, and sixth numbers and multiply the sum by 2 (8 + 9 + 7 = 24; 24 × 2 = 48). Next, you
will add the two sums (16 + 48 = 64). The last digit (4) should be the last number of the DEA number.
119. How often does the controlled substance inventory must be completed?
A. Every 2 years
B. Every year
C. Only when the pharmacy first opens for businiess
D. Every 3 years
Explanation Details
Answer: A. Every 2 years
A complete inventory of controlled substances must be taken when a pharmacy first opens for business.
However, that is not the only time that a controlled substance inventory is mandated. A controlled
substance inventory must be completed every 2 years per federal law.
Different companies' policies may require a yearly controlled substance inventory, but it is not a federal
requirement.
120. Which of the following laws was established to prohibit the interstate transport or
transaction of contaminated and misbranded drugs?
A. Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951

B. Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act of 1938
Explanation Details
Correct answer: D. Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906
The Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906 was established to prohibit the interstate transport or transaction of
contaminated and misbranded drugs.
The Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 mandated that all new drug products be recorded with the
FDA. The Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951 was an amendment to the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic
Act of 1938 and required all products to have sufficient directions for use. The Kefauver-Harris
Amendment of 1962 mandated that all U.S. drugs be pure, safe, and effective.
121. What is the color of a standard sharps container?
A. Yellow
B. Black
C. Red
D. Green
Explanation Details
Correct answer: C. Red
A standard sharps container is red. Contaminated needles should be placed in red sharps containers
marked with the biohazardous symbol.
A chemotherapy sharps container is yellow. A pharmaceutical waste container is black. Green is not used
for hazardous waste.
122. Which pharmacy reference book is available electronically and in a mobile application to
provide specific information on generic and trade names; orphan, investigational, and
temporary listings; drug descriptions; images of drugs; dosage calculations; and
manufacturers?
A. Drug topics Red Book

B. Martindale’s The Complete Drug Reference
C. Trissel’s Handbook on Injectable Drugs
D. Drug Facts and Comparison
Explanation Details
Correct answer: D. Drug Facts and Comparisons
Drug Facts and Comparisons is a pharmacy reference book that is available electronically and in a mobile
application to provide specific information on generic and trade names; orphan, investigational, and
temporary listings; drug descriptions; images of drugs; dosage calculations; and manufacturers.
Martindale’s The Complete Drug Reference is a pharmacy reference book that is available in an
electronic format to provide information on selected investigational and veterinary drugs, herbal and
complementary medicines, pharmaceutical excipients, vitamins and nutritional agents, vaccines,
radiopharmaceuticals, contrast media and diagnostic agents, medicinal gases, drugs of abuse and
recreational drugs, toxic substances, disinfectants, and pesticides.
Trissel’s Handbook on Injectable Drugs is a pharmacy reference book that is available in electronic,
mobile application, and online formats to provide information on parenteral agents, such as products,
administration, stability, and compatibility with infusion solutions.
Drug Topics Red Book is the pharmacy reference book that is available in electronic format to provide
information on emergency contacts, clinical references, practice management and professional
development, pharmacy and healthcare organizations, drug reimbursement information, manufacturer
and wholesaler information, product identification, prescription product listings, over-the-counter and
nondrug product listings, and complementary and herbal product references.
123. Which of the following laws was established to mandate that all U.S. drugs be pure, safe, and
effective?
A. Durham-Humphrey Amendment 1951

Explanation Details
Correct answer: C. Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962
The Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962 mandated that all U.S. drugs be pure, safe, and effective.
The Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906 was established to outlaw the interstate transport or transaction of
contaminated and misbranded drugs. The Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 mandated that all new
drug applications be filed with the FDA. The Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951 was an
amendment to the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 and required all products to have sufficient
directions for use.
124. Material safety data sheets (MSDS) must be provided to employees by which of the
following?
A. Bureau of Workers’ Compensation
B. Food and Drug Administration
C. Employer
D. Manufacturers
Explanation Details
Correct answer: C. Employer
MSDSs must be provided to employees by their employer. These sheets list the product’s chemical and
physical properties and hazards and what to do if the product is spilled.
MSDSs are to be provided to employees by their employer, not the manufacturer, the Food and Drug
Administration, or the Bureau of Workers' Compensation.
PTCB Exam Simplified: Pharmacy Technician Certification Exam Study Guide 4th Edition. Pg.93.
125. Which of the following professionals is considered a mid-level practitioner with limited
prescribing authority?
A. Doctor of Dental Medicine

B. Podiatrist
C. Doctor of Veterinary Medicine
D. Nurse practitioner
Explanation Details
Correct answer: D. Nurse practitioner
Physicians, dentists, podiatrists, and veterinarians are practitioners with full prescribing authority.
Physician assistants and nurse practitioners are mid-level practitioners with limited prescribing authority.
126. Which of the following regulates over-the-counter drugs?

Explanation Details
Correct answer: B. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or USFDA) is a federal agency of the United States Department
of Health and Human Services. The FDA is responsible for protecting and promoting public health
through the regulation and supervision of food safety, tobacco products, dietary supplements,
prescription and over-the-counter pharmaceutical drugs (medications), vaccines, biopharmaceuticals,
blood transfusions, medical devices, electromagnetic radiation emitting devices (ERED), cosmetics,
animal foods and feed, and veterinary products.
The DEA classifies drugs as controlled substances. OSHA regulates employee exposure to bloodborne
pathogens. The FTC regulates the advertisement of over-the-counter drugs.
127. Which Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS) program focuses on ensuring that
females who are starting isotretinoin therapy are not pregnant and will not become
pregnant while using isotretinoin?

B. THALIDOMID REMS
C. iPLEDGE
Explanation Details
Correct answer: C. iPLEDGE
iPLEDGE is the REMS program that focuses on making sure females who
are starting isotretinoin therapy are not pregnant and will not become pregnant.
THALIDOMID REMS is the REMS program that has been established because Thalomid (thalidomide)
causes severe birth defects and venous thromboembolic events. Tikosyn In Pharmacy System (T.I.P.S.) is
the REMS program that has been established to communicate the risk of cardiac arrhythmias that are
associated with taking Tikosyn (dofetilide). Clozaril National Registry is the REMS program that has been
established as a database to record and reference the white blood cell count of patients who take
Clozaril (clozapine).
128. Which pharmacy reference book is available in an online format and a mobile application to
provide a listing of tablet and capsule identifications?
A. Orange Book
B. Physician’s Desk Reference
C. Ident-A-Drug
D. Drug Facts and Comparisons
Explanation Details
Correct answer: C. Ident-A-Drug
Ident-A-Drug is a pharmacy reference book that is available in an online format and a mobile application
to provide a listing of tablet and capsule identifications.
Drug Facts and Comparisons is a pharmacy reference book that is available electronically and in a mobile
application to provide specific information on generic and trade names; orphan, investigational, and
temporary listings; drug descriptions; images of drugs; dosage calculations; and manufacturers.
Physicians’ Desk Reference is a pharmacy reference book that is available in a mobile application to
provide specific information on manufacturers, generic and trade names, product classifications, product
identification and images, product information, diagnostic product information, drug information
centers, FDA pregnancy ratings, FDA telephone directory, and poison control centers.
Orange Book is a pharmacy reference book that is available in an electronic format to provide a listing of
the FDA’s approved drug products with the corresponding therapeutic equivalence evaluations.
129. Which of the following laws was established to mandate that all new drug applications be
filed with the FDA?
A. Durham-Humphrey Act of 1951

Explanation Details
Correct answer: Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938
The Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 mandated that all new drug applications must be filed with
the FDA.
The Durham-Humphrey Act of 1951 was an amendment to the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938
and required all products to have sufficient directions for use. The Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962
mandated that all U.S. drugs be pure, safe, and effective. The Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906 was
established to outlaw the interstate transport or transaction of contaminated and misbranded drugs.
130. What is the number of DEA Form 41(s) that can be submitted to the DEA on an annual basis
by a retail pharmacy?
A. Unlimited
B. 1
C. 4
D. 12
Explanation Details
Correct answer: B. 1
A retail pharmacy may only submit one (not four, twelve, or an unlimited number) DEA Form 41 each
year. The DEA Form 41 is used when a pharmacy needs to destroy outdated or damaged controlled
substances. The form requires the drug’s name, strength, and quantity, along with the date, method, and
name of witness.
A. When there is a significant loss or theft of Schedule II, III, and IV drugs
B. When there is a significant loss or theft of Schedule II, III, IV and V drugs
C. When there is a significant loss or theft of all drugs
D. When there is a significant loss or theft of Schedule II drugs
Explanation Details
Correct answer: B. When there is a significant loss or theft of Schedule II, III, IV, and V drugs
DEA Form 106 must be completed and reported to the DEA when the pharmacy experiences a significant
loss or theft of controlled substances. This record must be maintained by the pharmacy for two years.
DEA Form 106 does not need to be completed for the theft or loss of non-controlled substances.
132. The federal law requires prescriptions for Schedule II controlled substances to be filled within
how many days after the prescriber signs the prescription?
A. 30 days
B. No time limit
C. 90 days
D. 180 days
Explanation Details
Correct answer: B. No time limit
The federal law does not require prescriptions for Schedule II controlled substances to be filled within a
certain number of days after the prescriber signs the prescription. However, many states do require
Schedule II prescriptions to be filled within so many days.
133. If a physician calls in an emergency order for a Schedule II controlled substance, how long
does the physician have to provide the pharmacy with a written and signed prescription
according to federal law?
A. 7 days
B. 3 days
C. 14 days
D. 10 days
Explanation Details
Correct answer: A. 7 days
When a physician calls in an emergency order for a Schedule II controlled substance, the physician has to
provide the pharmacy with a written and signed prescription within 7 days, according to federal law. A
Schedule II controlled substance order can only be phoned in by a physician in an emergency situation,
and the quantity can only be the amount needed during the emergency period.
The other choices are incorrect because the federal law requires the physician to provide a written and
signed prescription within 7 days after calling in an emergency order for Schedule II medication, not 3,
10, or 14 days.
134. Which of the following individuals is the only individual permitted to sign a DEA Form 222?
A. The individual whose name is on the DEA registration

B. The inventory manager
C. The owner of the Pharmacy
D. The managing Pharmacist
Explanation Details
Correct answer: The individual whose name is on the DEA registration
The DEA Form 222 is used to order Schedule II drugs and must be signed by the individual whose name is
on the DEA registration. The DEA Form 222 is only valid for 60 days and must be kept in the pharmacy for
a minimum of two years.
The owner of the pharmacy, the managing pharmacist, and the inventory manager are only permitted to
sign the DEA Form 222 if their name is on the pharmacy's DEA registration.
135. How many employee(s) of the DEA registrant must witness the on-site destruction of
controlled substances at a pharmacy?
A. 3 employees
B. 1 employee
C. None is required
D. 2 employees
Explanation Details
Correct answer: D. 2 employees
On-site destruction of controlled substances at a pharmacy or facility requires permission from the DEA
in advance, and 2 employees of the DEA must witness the destruction. The destruction must be
documented on DEA form 41.
136. A prescription for a controlled substance must contain all except which of the following?
A. Patients address
B. Prescriber’s work address
C. Patient’s social security number
D. Prescriber’s DEA number
Explanation Details
Correct answer: C. Patient’s social security number
A prescription for a controlled substance does not require the patient’s social security number.
A prescription for a controlled substance does require the following:
 Patient’s full name
 Patient’s home address
 Prescriber’s full name
 Prescriber’s work address
 Prescriber’s DEA number
 Drug name
 Drug strength
 Dosage form
 Quantity to dispense
 Directions for use
 Number of refills if permissible
137. Which of the following statements describes the Orange Book?
A. Listing of biological products.

B. Identification of drug products approved on the basis of safety and effectiveness by the FDA.
C. Web application for clinical knowledge of medications.
D. Provides drug pricing and drug information.
Explanation Details
Correct answer: B. Identification of drug products approved on the basis of safety and effectiveness by
the FDA
The other answer options are described as follows:

 Red Book: Provides drug pricing and drug information
 Micromedex or Lexicomp: Web application for clinical knowledge of medications
 Purple Book: Listing of biological products
138. If a patient has an oxycodone partially filled at the pharmacy, how long does the patient have
to fill the remaining quantity?
A. 6 months
B. 7 days
C. Partial fills are not allowed on C-II prescriptions
D. 72 hours
Explanation Details
Correct answer: D. 72 hours
When a C-II prescription is partially filled, the remaining portion of the prescription must be completed
within 72 hours; otherwise, the prescription is null and void. A prescriber is not allowed to write refills on
a C-II prescription, and only one C-II order can be placed on a prescription blank.
An exception to this rule are long-term care facility (LTCF) patients and patients with terminal illnesses.
Their C-II prescriptions can be partially filled as many times as needed, as long as the total dispensed
quantity does not exceed the prescribed quantity. Pharmacists must write "terminally ill" or "LTCF
patient" on the face of the prescription.
139. When a C-III to C-V controlled substance prescription is being transferred, the transferring
pharmacist must write which of the following word on the face of the prescription?
A. Transfer
B. Void
C. Null
D. Invalid
Explanation Details
Correct answer: B. Void
The Controlled Substance Act allows the transfer of the original prescription information for C-III, C-IV,
and C-V controlled substances for the purpose of refill dispensing between pharmacies on a one-time
basis.
The transfer must be communicated directly between the two pharmacists. The transferring pharmacist
must write the word "Void" on the face of the prescription, while the receiving pharmacist must write
the word "Transfer" on the face of the transferred prescription.
140. The green copy (second page) of DEA Form 222 goes to which of the following?
A. Patient
B. DEA
C. Pharmacy
D. Supplier
Explanation Details
Correct answer: B. DEA
The DEA is required to retain the green copy (second page) of DEA Form 222.
The supplier is required to retain the brown copy (first page) of DEA Form 222. The pharmacy is required
to retain the blue copy (third page) of DEA Form 222. The patient does not receive a copy of DEA Form
222.
141. A drug distributor’s DEA number begins with which of the following?
A. A or B
B. M
C. P or R
D. A, B, or F
Explanation Details
Correct answer: C. P or R
A drug distributor’s DEA number begins with a “P” or an “R.”
A midlevel practitioner’s DEA number begins with an “M.” The letters “A,” “B,” or “F” are used as the first
letter in a DEA number for physicians, dentists, veterinarians, hospitals, and pharmacies.
142. Which of the following is required to register with the DEA?
A. Pharmacies
B. Technicians
C. Pharmacists
D. Nurses
Explanation Details
Correct answer: A. Pharmacies
If a facility dispenses controlled substances, then it would need to register with the DEA. Because a
pharmacy dispenses controlled substances, it needs to register, and to register with the DEA, the
pharmacy is required to complete the DEA Form 224.
Pharmacists, technicians, and nurses do not have prescribing authority for controlled substances;
therefore, they do not need to register with the DEA.
143. Which of the following statements regarding controlled substance inventories is not
accurate?
A. An exact count for C-II and an estimated count for C-III-V drugs must be performed
B. The initial and accurate inventory of all controlled substances must be completed before the
opening of the first day of business of the pharmacy.
C. The biennial inventory is taken every 2 years after the initial inventory is taken.
D. A record must be kept for a minimum of 1 year.
Explanation Details
Correct answer: D. A record must be kept for a minimum of 1 year.
According to the DEA:
 The initial and accurate inventory of all controlled substances must be completed before the
opening of the first day of business of the pharmacy.
 The biennial inventory is taken every 2 years after the initial inventory is taken.
 An exact count for C-II and an estimated count for C-III-V drugs must be performed.
 A record must be kept for a minimum of 2 years, not 1 year.
144. Which of the following controlled substances should not be dispersed throughout the
pharmacy with other non-controlled medications?
A. Diazepam
B. Tramadol
C. Alprazolam
D. Codeine
Explanation Details
Correct answer: D. Codeine
Storage of controlled substances is as follows:

 All C-II medications must be stored in a locked safe (locked refrigerator if C-II requires
refrigeration).
 C-III to V medications may be dispersed throughout the pharmacy with other non-controlled
medications.
Codeine is a C-II medication. Thus, it cannot be dispersed throughout the pharmacy with other non-
controlled medication, while diazepam, alprazolam, and tramadol can be because they are C-IV
medications.
145. Which of the following statement describes FDA class III recall?
A. The use of the affected product could cause serious adverse health consequences.
B. The use of the affected product could cause death.
C. The use of the affected product is unlikely to cause adverse health consequences.
D. The use of the affected product could cause temporary adverse health consequences.
Explanation Details
Correct answer: C. The use of the affected product is unlikely to cause adverse health consequences.
Below are the following class recalls:
 Class I recall: The use of the affected product could cause serious adverse health consequences
or death.
 Class II recall: The use of the affected product could cause temporary adverse health
consequences, and the likelihood of a serious adverse health consequence is remote.
 Class III recall: The use of the affected product is unlikely to cause adverse health consequences.
146. What is the color of a chemotherapy sharps container?
A. Yellow
B. Black
C. Red
D. Green
Explanation Details
Correct answer: A. Yellow
A chemotherapy sharps container is yellow. Needles and syringes contaminated with hazardous drugs
should be placed in a chemotherapy sharps container.
A standard sharps container is red. A pharmaceutical waste container is black. Green is not used for
hazardous waste.
147. How many refills a prescriber allowed to give on a schedule II prescription within six months?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 5
D. 8
Explanation Details
Correct answer: A. 0
A schedule II prescription is not to be refilled. Prescriptions for schedule II controlled substances must be
written and signed by the practitioner.
Prescriptions for schedules III and IV controlled substances may be refilled up to five times in six months.
Prescriptions for schedule V controlled substances may be refilled as authorized by the practitioner.
These prescriptions can be faxed, phoned, or electronically submitted to the pharmacy as long as state
law permits.
148. A Safety Data Sheet is required for which type of substance?
A. Compounding ingredients
B. Hazardous chemical
C. Prescription medication
D. Over-the-counter drugs
Explanation Details
Correct answer: B. Hazardous chemicals
A safety data sheet is required for hazardous chemicals, according to the 2012 Hazard Communication
Standard. The safety data sheet contains 16 sections that aid personnel on how to properly handle
hazardous chemicals.
Prescription medications, over-the-counter drugs, and compounding ingredients do not require safety
data sheets unless they contain hazardous chemicals.
149. Which one of the following medications is not a schedule II controlled substance?
A. Methadone
B. Meperidine
C. Secobarbital
D. Methaqualone
Explanation Details
Correct answer: D. Methaqualone
Methaqualone is a schedule I controlled substance that is deemed to have no accepted medical use in
the US and possesses an extremely high potential for abuse.
Meperidine, methadone, and secobarbital are schedule II controlled substances.

150. Which medication is exempt from the Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970?
A. Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets

B. Omeprazole tablets
C. Prednisone tablets
D. Ibuprofen chewable tablets
Explanation Details
Correct answer: A. Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets
Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets are exempt from the Poison Prevention Packaging Act (PPPA) of 1970.
The PPPA requires medications to be dispensed using child-resistant packaging. However, nitroglycerin
sublingual tablets are exempt from the PPPA because they are used when an individual is on the verge of
a heart attack and quick, easy access to the tablets is needed.
Prednisone tablets, ibuprofen chewable tablets, and omeprazole tablets all require child-resistant
packaging and are not exempt from the PPPA.

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1. Which of the following is a characteristic of a Schedule I controlled substance?

A. It has a moderate potential for abuse.

A. The Joint Commission

7. How should schedule II drugs be stored within a community pharmacy?

Schedule II drugs should be stored in a locked safe within the pharmacy.

Eszopiclone is the generic name of Lunesta, a non-benzodiazepine sedative. Eszopiclone is a schedule IV

A. Required the sale of methamphetamine to be logged

A. The transferring pharmacy must send an invoice to the receiving pharmacy.

A. Dispense medications in child-resistant containers

14. In regard to controlled substance refills, which statement is false?

A. C-III and C-IV refills are permitted for up to 5 refills.

15. Which of the following is classified as a C-IV depressant?

16. When is it necessary to complete DEA Form 104?

A. When a pharmacy is surrendering its pharmacy permit

How long must the pharmacy maintain the DEA receipt?

A. Dispense medications in child-resistant containers

A. When the covered entity receives a court order

23.When is it necessary to complete DEA Form 224?

A. When a pharmacy is surrendering its permit

A. The Joint Commision(TJC)

A. Assist physicians with effective monitoring functionalities

26. Which of the following organizations oversees controlled substance classification?

A. Federal Trade Commission (FTC)

A. Prescriber's office address

A pharmacy does need a prescriber:

28. Which of the following is not classified as hazardous waste?

29. Which of the following drugs is classified as a Schedule I narcotic?

A. DEA Form 106

A. Dispense medications in child-resistant containers

A. Hatch-Waxman Act of 1984

Correct answer: B. 7.5 grams

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review 4th Edition. Pg. 116.

The information required on a drug repackaging log includes the following:

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review 4th Edition. Pg. 139.

A. Clozaril National Registry

A. Date of Birth of the patient

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review 4th Edition. Pg. 115.

43. When is it necessary to complete DEA Form 41?

A. When a pharmacy is surrendering its pharmacy permit

DEA Form 41 is completed when a pharmacy is destroying controlled substances.

A. The physician's "X" DEA number

47. In regard to controlled substance prescription transfers, which statement is false?

48. Which of the following is not considered adulteration?

A. Insufficient information on the label

A drug product is deemed to be adulterated when it has problems with:

A. Narcotic treatment facilities must complete a DEA Form 363.

A. Everytime a controlled substance is provided to it

A. Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970

A. American Pharmacists Association

54. Which of the following is classified as a C-II stimulant?

Cocaine is classified as a C-II stimulant. Other C-II stimulants include amphetamine/dextroamphetamine,

A. Notify the pharmacy's owner

Recalled medication documentation should include:

 Dates customers notified

A. Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951

60. Which of the following regulates the advertisement of over-the-counter drugs?

A. Federal Trade Commission (FTC)

A. It should be retained in the pharmacy for at least 2 years.

A. Federal Anti-Tampering Act of 1982

A. Food and Drugs Administration

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review 4th Edition. Pg. 119.

A. Chemical and physical properties of the product

SDS provides information about the product regarding:

 Chemical and physical properties