9-15 CH

Exam
Name___________________________________
TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.
1) Developing an exercise plan and signing a contract will increase the chance for success. 1)
2) Specific goals are better than general goals for tracking your progress. 2)
3) When embarking on your fitness program, set your goals high as there is no limit to the 3)
level of improvement you can obtain.
4) An endurance exercise program that includes swimming two days per week and jogging 4)
two days per week is an example of cross-training.
5) Sports like tennis and badminton would not be good choices for a beginner attempting to 5)
improve his or her fitness level.
6) Current fitness level does not affect the selection of appropriate exercise activities. 6)
7) For high-intensity endurance activities, a time (duration of exercise) of 20 minutes per 7)

workout is appropriate.
8) Frequency for strength training should be daily. 8)
9) For flexibility training, stretches should be held until you feel you have stretched to the 9)
point of pain.
10) Intensity is the first exercise program component you should increase as fitness 10)
improves.
11) Breaking specific goals into mini, short, intermediate, and long-term goals enhances 11)
chances of success.
12) Allowing many weeks between mini-goals and specifying rewards does not enhance 12)
success.
13) As part of a fitness program plan, specifying ways to be more active during your daily 13)
routine, by, for example, taking the stairs up to class rather than taking an elevator
promotes a healthy lifestyle.
14) Identifying routine opportunities to be more active every day and adding these activities 14)
to one's program plan can enhance success.
1
15) Arecord that tracks one's daily progress will help remind the individual about the 15)
ongoing commitment to an exercise program and give one a sense of accomplishment.
16) Posting theexercise log in a place where it can be seen often will not serve as a reminder 16)
or as an incentive for improvement.
17) The final step in planning an exercise program is to make a commitment by signing a 17)
contract.
18) Keeping the

contract in a visible spot does not necessarily help in serving as a reminder 18)
of ones commitment to the exercise program.
19) Varying the

activities in an exercise program will decrease your chances of staying with 19)
the program.
20) A person should expect some lapses with her or his exercise program. 20)
21) Yourfitness program is much more likely to be successful if you choose activities that 21)
you currently engage in and enjoy doing.
22) Lapses are not a normal part of any fitness program. 22)
23) Life changes such as family situations or starting a new job can affect your exercise 23)
program.
24) Cross-training involves varying your fitness activities. 24)
25) A goal of 60 minutes of moderate activity per day is appropriate for children and teens. 25)
26) Lessthan 10% of Canadian youth are active enough to obtain optimal growth and 26)
development.
27) In
children younger than 12 years, emphasizing skill development and fitness rather than 27)
excellence in competitive sports enhances a healthy lifestyle.
28) Combining participation and training in lifetime sports with traditional and competitive 28)
sports are ideal prescriptions for young children.
29) Children exercising in the heat require adequate hydration. 29)
30) During pregnancy, active individuals should avoid exercise for the first three months. 30)
31) Kegel
exercises are a form of cardiorespiratory exercises designed to help pregnant 31)
women maintain a base level of fitness.
2
32) Performing mild-to-moderate exercise routines at least three times a week is good for 32)
pregnant women.
33) Monitoring exercise intensity in pregnant women is efficient using how they feel rather 33)
than by monitoring their heart rate.
34) Exercise intensities that reach RPE levels of 16-18 are appropriate for pregnant women. 34)
35) General exercise principles for older adults are different than those for younger adults. 35)
36) Olderadults should perform flexibility exercises at least twice a week for at least 30 36)
minutes.
37) Older individuals should drink plenty of water and avoid exercising in excessively hot or 37)
cold environments.
38) The Public Health Agency recommends that older adults take part in at least 2.5 hours of 38)
moderate-to-vigorous intensity aerobic activity each week.
39) Itis recommended that older adults add bone and muscle strengthening activities 39)
involving the major muscle groups at least five times each week.
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
40) The first step in developing a personal fitness plan is to: 40)
A) select activities. B) set target intensity of exercise.
C) set target time (duration) of exercise. D) set goals.
41) An example of a general long-term fitness goal would be: 41)

A) doing 15 push-ups. B) lowering your BMI to 24.
C) lowering your risk for heart disease. D) lowering cholesterol to 5mmol/L.
42) An example of a specific short-term fitness goal would be: 42)

A) increasing strength. B) jogging 2 miles in 19 minutes.
C) having more energy. D) improving posture.
43) All of the following are specific examples of short-term measurable goals, EXCEPT: 43)
A) raising cardiorespiratory capacity by 40%.
B) reducing jogging time for 5 kilometers by 3 minutes.
C) increasing the number of push-ups one can do by 5.
D) lowering BMI by 1.
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44) Measuring progress by performing assessments at regular intervals of _____ months is 44)
recommended.
A) 3 B) 6 C) 9 D) 12
45) Which of the following is TRUE regarding selecting activities for a complete fitness 45)
program?
A) Cardiorespiratory endurance activities are the most important.
B) Muscular strength activities are the most important.
C) Flexibility activities are the most important.
D) It is best to include exercises for each component.
46) Which one of the following is an activity that can develop cardiorespiratory endurance? 46)
A) Cycling B) Bowling
C) Strength training D) Weight training
47) Which of the following is not the most important factor to consider when selecting 47)
fitness activities?
A) Time and convenience B) Cost
C) Special health needs D) Gender
48) What are the top three most popular recreational activities of Canadians? 48)
A) Hockey, jogging, and weight lifting
B) Basketball, volleyball, and curling
C) Walking, jogging, and swimming
D) Walking, gardening, and home exercise
49) What do the three most popular recreational activities of Canadians have in common? 49)
A) They are all sports.
B) They all require a partner.
C) They are all winter activities.
D) They are all activities that do not require a partner.
50) The recommended total duration for a session of cardiorespiratory endurance training is 50)
_____ minutes.
A) 10-20 B) 20-60 C) 60-120 D) 120-150
51) Anappropriate frequency for a cardiorespiratory endurance program is _____ times per 51)
week.
A) 1-2 B) 2-3 C) 3-5 D) 4-7
4
52) A general strength training program includes: 52)
A) 1 set of 3-6 repetitions of 6 exercises.
B) 1 or more sets of 8-12 repetitions of 8-10 exercises.
C) 3 sets of 3-6 repetitions of 6 exercises.
D) 3 or more sets of 12-21 repetitions of 8-10 exercises.
53) Stretching should be done: 53)

A) to a point of slight tension.
B) to a point of pain.
C) only if flexibility is poor.
D) before beginning a cardiorespiratory program.
54) Mini-goals help a physical fitness program by: 54)

A) adding variety to the fitness program. B) keeping the program on track.
C) identifying new exercises. D) providing help in the beginning.
55) An example of a short-term, specific goal is: 55)

A) decreasing BMI from 27 to 26.
B) increasing strength.
C) running a marathon.
D) improving one's cardiovascular and muscular endurance.
56) Regular _____ is a simple but important way to improve your overall wellness. 56)
A) activity planning B) activity programming
C) goal planning D) physical activity
57) Posting theexercise log in a place where it can be often seen, will serve as a reminder 57)
and as an incentive for improvement will help with improving _____.
A) exercise ability B) exercise potential
C) exercise adherence D) exercise program
58) Keeping a record of daily progress is a good strategy to keep motivation high because it: 58)
A) reminds you that you are trying to lose weight.
B) establishes various baselines from which to grow.
C) monitors your goals.
D) determines the right exercises.
59) The finalstep in physical fitness program planning is making a commitment. What is the 59)
best way to do that?
A) Pay for exercise
B) Hire a trainer
C) Tell as many people as you can about your goals
D) Sign a contract with yourself
5
60) Using several different activities to develop a particular fitness component is called: 60)
A) interval training. B) continuous training.
C) cross-training. D) weight training.
61) Participating ina step aerobics class on Monday, a spinning class on Wednesday, and lap 61)
swimming on Friday is an example of what training technique for endurance?
A) Interval training B) Periodization
C) Cross-training D) Cycle training
62) When starting an exercise program, which of the following guidelines should be 62)
followed?
A) Endeavour to exercise as much as possible to get a habit established
B) Begin with weight training to ensure you are strong enough to do cardiorespiratory
exercise
C) Start slowly and increase fitness gradually
D) Stick with the same exercise to lower your risk of injury
63) Cross-training is: 63)

A) not recommended for beginners.
B) recommended for individuals who have a high risk of osteoporosis.
C) not recommended for athletes.
D) recommended for achieving more diverse results.
64) Fitnessgoals should be: 64)

A) relevant. B) broad. C) realistic. D) A and C
65) Periodizationof training is a technique that: 65)

A) varies the intensity and duration of training.
B) involves high-intensity training during each workout.
C) extends the time of training during each workout.
D) requires constant training intensity.
66) During a week, choosing a resistance of 100 pounds for the bench press for two 66)
workouts and a resistance of 125 pounds for one workout is an example of which type of
training?
A) Interval training B) Cross-training
C) Periodization D) Circuit training
67) Which one of the following is likely to cause injury if followed? 67)
A) Walking for 10 minutes and jogging for 10 minutes
B) Walking for 60 minutes two times a week
C) Jogging slowly most days of the week
D) Exercising intensely, every day of the week
6
68) Which of the following is an important element in contributing toward a healthy lifestyle 68)
that already includes physical activity?
A) Reading the latest health and fitness research
B) Exercising every day
C) Following a nutritious diet
D) Purchasing the latest fitness equipment
69) An effective technique for getting your fitness program back on track when you have 69)
lapsed is:
A) visualizing what it will be like once you reach your goal.
B) rewrite your fitness goal.
C) stop your program and start a new program.
D) there are no effective techniques.
70) Connor is a full-time student and works a part-time job. He finds it difficult to stick to 70)
his fitness program. What can Connor do to help himself meet his fitness goals?
A) Connor should simply exercise whenever he has a spare moment.
B) Connor should be realistic and realize he simply cannot meet his fitness goals right
now.
C) Connor should develop a new fitness program that meets new fitness goals.
D) Connor should plan ahead and manage his time to determine when he is able to fit
in exercise.
71) Lisaand Sarah decided to join a walking club together. What type of strategy are they 71)
using to increase their likelihood of sticking to a fitness program?
A) Varying their activities
B) Using an exercise buddy
C) Cycling the intensity of their fitness program
D) Expecting fluctuations and lapses
72) Olympic athletes vary the duration and intensity of their workouts. This technique is 72)
known as:
A) cross-training. B) confusion principle.
C) periodization. D) interval training.
73) Shane wants to run a marathon but is having a hard time sticking to his training. What 73)
should Shane do?
A) Find an exercise buddy who wants to learn how to run.
B) Find an exercise buddy who has run a marathon before.
C) Find an exercise buddy who doesn't want to run a marathon but likes to run.
D) Find an exercise buddy who also wants to run a marathon and has a similar level of
fitness to Shane.
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74) The mostdifficult part of a fitness program is not: 74)
A) developing a plan. B) putting the plan into action.
C) developing a fitness goal. D) thinking about a fitness goal
75) The effectivestrategies for sticking to an exercise program have been developed from: 75)
A) exercise intensity research. B) exercise adherence research.
C) exercise outcomes research. D) exercise planning research.
76) Becky startedto run outdoors, but, when winter came, she stopped because of the cold 76)
weather. Becky is having a hard time:
A) adapting to her fitness goals.
B) adapting to her fitness program.
C) adapting to the change in schedule.
D) adapting to the changing environment.
77) What percent of Canadian youth are physically active enough to meet Canada's Physical 77)
Activity Guidelines?
A) 2% B) 5% C) 7% D) 9%
78) Exercise for children under 12 years of age should focus on: 78)
A) competitive sports. B) strength training.
C) stretching. D) skill development.
79) Pregnant women should perform only non- or low-weight bearing exercises, such as 79)
_____.
A) swimming B) running C) jogging D) skipping
80) Pregnant women are advised to perform _____ exercise routines at least three times a 80)
week.
A) mild-intensity B) mild- to moderate-intensity
C) moderate-intensity D) severe-intensity
81) Exercisefor women who are pregnant should include: 81)

A) vigorous exercise.
B) plenty of fluids to avoid heat stress.
C) weight-bearing activities.
D) extended exercise in the supine position.
82) Which of the following is an appropriate exercise guideline for older people? 82)
A) Skip warm-up and cool-down sessions
B) Focus mainly on strength training
C) Include resistance, endurance, and flexibility training
D) Limit fluid intake to avoid frequent bathroom stops
8
83) Betty,an 80-year-old woman, usually walks 30 minutes every day and now she would 83)
like to increase her cardiorespiratory fitness. Which of the following is the safest way for
Betty to increase her fitness?
A) Betty should try walking for a longer duration every day.
B) Betty should try walking faster every time she walks
C) Betty should try running every day.
D) Betty should begin strength training every day.
84) In
older adults strength training is recommended to add _____ involving the major 84)
muscle groups at least twice each week.
A) bone and muscle strengthening activities
B) flexibility activities
C) endurance activities
D) cardiorespiratory activities
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
85) Ahealthy _________________ can be developed by combining a sensible diet 85)

and a program of regular exercise, including cardio-respiratory endurance
exercise to burn calories and resistance training to build muscles mass.
86) Tokeep the exercise program on track, it is important to set up a system of 86)
_______________ and ________________.
87) The final

step in planning an exercise program is to make a(n) 87)
___________________ by signing a contract.
88) Finding a(n)_________________ buddy is a good example of putting your 88)

exercise plan into action.
89) Exerciseactivities with RPE levels of _________________ are appropriate for 89)
pregnant women.
90) _________________ should drink plenty of water during physical activity and 90)
avoid extreme cold or hot environments.
91) What are the specific goals of setting personal fitness plan goals? 91)
92) What are the various factors involved in putting your exercise plan into action? 92)
93) What are the various guidelines that are to be observed prior to starting an 93)
exercise program in children?
9
94) What are the various recommendations given to pregnant women prior to starting 94)
an exercise program?
95) What are the various guidelines that are to be observed prior to starting an 95)
exercise program in older adults?
10
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED9
1) TRUE
2) TRUE
3) FALSE
4) TRUE
5) TRUE
6) FALSE
7) TRUE
8) FALSE
9) FALSE
10) FALSE
11) TRUE
12) FALSE
13) TRUE
14) TRUE
15) TRUE
16) FALSE
17) TRUE
18) FALSE
19) FALSE
20) TRUE
21) TRUE
22) FALSE
23) TRUE
24) TRUE
25) TRUE
26) TRUE
27) TRUE
28) FALSE
29) TRUE
30) FALSE
31) FALSE
32) TRUE
33) TRUE
34) FALSE
35) FALSE
36) FALSE
37) TRUE
38) TRUE
39) FALSE
40) D
41) C
42) B
43) A
44) A
45) D
46) A
47) D
48) D
49) D
50) B
11
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED9
51) C
52) B
53) A
54) B
55) A
56) D
57) C
58) B
59) D
60) C
61) C
62) C
63) D
64) D
65) A
66) C
67) D
68) C
69) A
70) D
71) B
72) C
73) D
74) B
75) B
76) D
77) C
78) D
79) A
80) B
81) B
82) C
83) A
84) A
85) body composition
86) goals;rewards
87) commitment
88) exercise
89) 11-13
90) Older adults
91) Raising cardio-respiratory capacity
Reducing the time it takes you to jog 5 km
Increasing the number of push-ups you can do
Lowering BMI
12
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED9
92) Start slowly and increase fitness gradually

Find an exercise buddy
Ask for support from others
Vary your activities
Cycle of duration and intensity of your workouts
Adapt to changing environments and schedules
Expect fluctuations and lapses
Choose other healthy lifestyle behaviours
93) Provide opportunities for children and adolescents to exercise every day. Minimize sedentary activities, such
as watching television. Children and adolescents should aim for 60 minutes of moderate activity every day.
During family outings, choose dynamic activities. For example, go for a walk, park away from a mall and
then walk to the stores.
For children younger than 12 years, emphasize skill development and fitness rather than excellence in
competitive sports. For adolescents, combine participation and training in lifetime sports with traditional,
competitive sports.
Make sure children are developmentally capable of participating in an activity. For example, catching skills
are difficult for young children because their nervous system is not developed enough to fully master the
skill. Gradually increase the complexity of the skill once the child has mastered the simpler skill.
Make sure children get plenty of water when exercising in the heat. Make sure they are dressed properly
when doing sports in the cold.
94) See your physician
Favour non or low weight bearing exercises such as swimming or cycling over weight bearing activities
Continue mild-moderate exercise routines at least 3 times a week
Avoid exercise in supine position
Avoid exercise that could cause loss of balance
Avoid activities involving extremes in barometric pressure
Especially in the first trimester drink plenty of fluids and exercise in a well-ventilated environment and avoid
hear stress
Do 3--5 sets of 10 kegel exercises daily
After giving birth resume pre-pregnancy exercise routines gradually
95) The Public Health Agency and CSEP recommend that older adults (those over 65 years of age) take part in
at least 2.5 hours of moderate-to-vigorous intensity aerobic activity each week.
For strength training, it is recommended that older adults add bone and muscle strengthening activities
involving the major muscle groups at least twice each week.
Older adults should perform flexibility exercises at least 2 days per week for at least 10 minutes. Exercises
that improve balance should also be performed 2 days per week.
Drink plenty of water and avoid exercising in excessively hot or cold environments. Wear clothes that speed
heat loss in warm environments and that prevent heat loss in cold environments.
Warm up slowly and carefully. Increase intensity and duration of exercise gradually.
Cool down slowly, continuing very light exercise until the heart rate is below 100 beats per minute.
13
Exam
Name___________________________________
1) Hypertension is both a major risk factor and a form of CVD. 1)
2) In atherosclerosis, arteries become narrowed by deposits of fat, cholesterol, and other 2)

substances.
3) The process of atherosclerosis begins when the endothelial cells lining the arteries 3)
become stronger.
4) The body's response to atherosclerosis and subsequent endothelial damage is 4)

inflammation and changes in the artery lining.
5) An artery narrowed by a plaque cannot be vulnerable to blockage by blood clots. 5)
6) Arteriosclerosis can increase blood pressure. 6)
7) A heart rate that is too fast, too slow, or irregular is called angina. 7)
8) Ventricular fibrillation is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death. 8)
9) Aspirin may be recommended for people with heart disease because it reduces clotting 9)
and inflammation.
10) Most heart attacks begin with sudden and intense symptoms. 10)
11) Strokes may be caused either by a blood clot or by a ruptured blood vessel. 11)
12) A stroke is also called a cardiovascular accident. 12)
13) If brain cells are deprived of blood for more than a few minutes, they die. 13)
14) Nerve cells control sensation and most body movements, hence depending on the area of 14)
the brain that is affected, a stroke may cause paralysis, walking disability, speech
impairment, or memory loss.
15) The heart's pumping mechanism can be damaged by a number of conditions, including 15)
high blood pressure, heart attack, atherosclerosis, rheumatic fever, or birth defects.
16) In some circumstances, fluid can collect in the lungs and interfere with breathing, 16)
particularly when a person is lying down.
1
17) Pulmonary edema is a condition where the heart is filled with fluids. 17)
18) The ideal treatment for congestive heart failure is to increase the cardiac load. 18)
19) A blood pressure of 120/90 is classified as healthy. 19)
20) Even if several relatives died of a heart attack at age 55, you can live to an old age by 20)
controlling your risk factors.
21) Smoking raises levels of HDL cholesterol in the blood. 21)
22) Cigarette smoke reduces the amount of oxygen available to the heart. 22)
23) Cigarette smokers are 2-4 times more likely to develop CVD. 23)
24) Long-term exposure to environmental tobacco smoke has been shown to increase HDL. 24)
25) Women who smoke double their risk for cervical cancer, triple their risk of dying from 25)
CVD, and are 5 times more likely to die from a stroke than women who do not smoke.
26) Childrenwho live with parents who smoke in the house are at an increased risk of 26)
developing heart disease.
27) High blood pressure has obvious early warning signs. 27)
28) In most cases, hypertension cannot be cured, only treated and controlled. 28)
29) LDL cholesterol is the less healthy form of cholesterol. 29)
30) The optimal level of total cholesterol in adults is less than 7 mmol/L. 30)
31) People who exercise occasionally can cut their risk for heart disease in half. 31)
32) Aperson who is 20 pounds overweight has double the risk for heart disease than 32)
someone who is a normal weight.
33) Exercisecan help reduce the risk for cardiovascular disease by decreasing blood pressure 33)
and increasing HDL levels.
34) Fat
that collects in the torso is associated with a lower CVD risk than fat that collects 34)
around the hips.
35) Diabetes describes a condition where there is a problem with glucose metabolism. 35)
2
36) The recommended limit for daily intake of sodium is equivalent to about two teaspoons 36)
per day.
37) The process of atherosclerosis typically begins at about age 50. 37)
38) Adiet high in fibre can help reduce the risk for cardiovascular disease by trapping bile 38)
acids so that the liver produces less cholesterol.
39) A high level of HDL is a significant risk factor for CVD. 39)
40) The number-one risk factor for cardiovascular disease that you can control is smoking. 40)
41) People who are unable to talk about heart ache and personal problems with others are at 41)
an increased risk for heart disease.
42) The effects of hostility on CVD risk are not apparent until people are over age 50. 42)
43) Bloodfats such as triglycerides are only manufactured by the body and are not acquired 43)
through diet.
44) For
people with borderline high triglyceride levels, increased physical activity and 44)
weight reduction can help bring levels down into the healthy range.
45) The risk of heart attack increases dramatically after age 65. 45)
46) Having anunfavorable set of genes increases the risk for CVD and the risk is not 46)
modifiable by lifestyle factors.
47) Women now have more heart attacks than men. 47)
48) C-reactive protein is associated with inflammation and increased risk for CVD. 48)
49) Homocysteine levels in the blood can be reduced by eating more fruits and vegetables. 49)
50) Some infectious diseases can increase a person's risk for heart disease. 50)
51) Fish and shellfish are good sources of omega-3 fatty acids. 51)
52) HealthCanada recommends that all Canadians adopt a diet in which total fat 52)
consumption is no more than 50% of total daily calories, with no more than one-third of
those fat calories (10% of total daily calories) coming from saturated fat.
53) Animal products contain cholesterol as well as saturated fat. 53)
3
54) Canadians should limit their daily dietary cholesterol intake to no more than 500 mg per 54)
day.
55) Studies have shown that a high-fibre diet is associated with a 5-10% reduction in the risk 55)
of heart attack and stroke.
56) Population groups at special risk, including those with hypertension, middle-aged, and 56)
older adults, should not consume more than 1500 milligrams of salt per day.
57) Moderate alcohol use may increase HDL cholesterol 57)
58) You can significantly reduce your risk of CVD with a moderate amount of physical 58)
activity
59) Smoking is not the number-one risk factor for CVD. 59)
60) For some people, adopting therapeutic lifestyle changes such as weight management, 60)
increased physical activity, and dietary changes is enough to lower cholesterol levels.
61) If
anger and hostility are problems in one's life, then the individual should try some 61)
massage techniques to manage stress and anger.
62) The leading cause of death in Canada is: 62)

A) unintentional injuries. B) cancer.
C) cardiovascular disease. D) AIDS.
63) Atherosclerosis is: 63)

A) a sustained abnormally high blood pressure.
B) a condition resulting from the heart's inability to maintain its regular pumping force.
C) the thickening of artery walls by the deposit of fatty substances.
D) a severe chest pain caused by insufficient blood supply to the heart.
64) Atherosclerosis in an artery supplying blood to the heart is called: 64)

A) coronary heart disease. B) arrhythmia.
C) coronary thrombosis. D) coronary embolism.
65) The heart muscle receives its blood supply from the: 65)
A) venacava. B) left ventricle.
C) pulmonary veins. D) coronary arteries.
4
66) When a coronary artery is completely blocked, the result is: 66)
A) a heart attack. B) angina.
C) arrhythmia. D) an obstructive embolism.
67) Deposits, called _____, accumulate on artery walls, leading to loss of elasticity and, in 67)
turn, the ability to expand and contract, thereby restricting blood flow.
A) calcium B) free radicals C) plaques D) blood
68) The most common symptom associated with angina pectoris is: 68)
A) nausea. B) shortness of breath.
C) irregular heartbeat. D) chest pain.
69) An arrhythmia is: 69)

A) an irregular heartbeat.
B) a ruptured blood vessel.
C) a blood clot found near the heart.
D) another name for high blood pressure.
70) Sudden cardiac death most often occurs due to: 70)
A) electrical shock. B) blocked cerebral arteries.
C) ventricular fibrillation. D) coronary thrombosis.
71) _____ measures the electrical activity of the heart and can be used to detect the presence 71)
of heart disease.
A) An electrocardiogram B) Magnetic resonance imaging
C) An echocardiogram D) Bioelectrical impedance analysis
72) Which of the following is a treatment for heart disease? 72)

A) Angina pectoris B) Balloon angioplasty
C) Electrocardiogram D) Angiogram
73) Which of the following is NOT a warning sign of a heart attack? 73)
A) Chestpain B) Shortness of breath
C) Nausea or vomiting D) Sudden confusion
74) Blockage of blood supply to the brain causes: 74)

A) a heart attack. B) angina pectoris.
C) plaque. D) a stroke.
75) A stroke caused by a ruptured blood vessel is a(n): 75)

A) hemorrhagic stroke. B) myocardial infarction.
C) ischemic stroke. D) pulmonary edema.
5
76) Strokescan cause permanent damage because: 76)
A) clots in cerebral arteries cannot be relieved.
B) brain cells die when deprived of oxygen.
C) cerebral hypertension is not treatable.
D) they affect all areas of the brain.
77) Treatmentfor a stroke usually involves: 77)

A) chestcompressions. B) clot dissolvers.
C) an exercise program. D) anti-inflammatory medication.
78) Congestive heart failure is: 78)

A) a sustained abnormally high blood pressure.
B) the thickening of artery walls by deposits of fatty substances.
C) a condition resulting from the heart's inability to maintain its regular pumping force.
D) a severe chest pain caused by insufficient blood supply to the heart.
79) Which one of the following is a disease that may result in congestive heart failure? 79)
A) Rheumatic fever B) Dengue fever
C) High HDL levels D) High LDL levels
80) Riskfactors for cardiovascular disease that can be changed are: 80)
A) tobacco use, high blood pressure, and elevated cholesterol levels.
B) high blood pressure, obesity, and chronic infection.
C) elevated cholesterol levels, tobacco use, and type 1 diabetes.
D) too much physical inactivity, high blood pressure, and high homocysteine levels.
81) Your risk of developing CVD increases with the length and intensity of your exposure 81)
to:
A) fresh vegetables. B) high HDL levels.
C) cigarette smoke. D) antioxidant.
82) Women who smoke double their risk for _____ cancer. 82)
A) pancreatic B) skin C) prostate D) cervical
83) Which of the following is NOT a mode by which smoking harms the cardiovascular 83)
system?
A) It damages the linings of arteries.
B) Nicotine decreases blood pressure and heart rate.
C) The carbon monoxide in cigarette smoke displaces oxygen in the blood, reducing
the amount of oxygen available to the body.
D) It reduces the level of high-density lipoproteins.
6
84) Canadian Hypertension Guidelines define high blood pressure in adults as equal to or 84)
greater than:
A) 120/80 B) 110/60 C) 140/90 D) 160/100
85) Smokers have a higher risk of dying from a heart attack because: 85)
A) blood tends to clot more in a smoker than a non-smoker.
B) blood pressure is lower.
C) smokers have poorer nutritional habits.
D) of toxins in the liver.
86) Sustained high blood pressure is an indicator of: 86)

A) emotional stress.
B) heart strength.
C) excessive force being exerted against artery walls.
D) an unhealthy ratio of HDL to LDL.
87) High blood pressure contributes to CVD by: 87)

A) displacing oxygen in the blood.
B) scarring and hardening arteries.
C) increasing stroke volume of the heart.
D) increasing the number of red blood cells.
88) While cholesterol is important for many body functions, excess cholesterol is hazardous 88)
to health because it is deposited:
A) in fat cells. B) on artery walls.
C) in cell membranes. D) around nerves.
89) The form of blood fat that carries cholesterol out from the liver to other parts of the body 89)
and can lead to cholesterol deposits on artery walls is:
A) low-density lipoprotein. B) high-density lipoprotein.
C) very-low-density lipoprotein. D) triglycerides.
90) The form of cholesterol that shuttles cholesterol back to the liver for recycling is: 90)
A) low-density lipoprotein. B) triglycerides.
C) high-density lipoprotein. D) saturated fat.
91) Which blood cholesterol level should be high? 91)

A) Triglycerides B) LDL
C) HDL D) No cholesterol level should be high
92) Foradults, a desirable level of total cholesterol is less than _____ mmol/L is 92)
recommended.
A) 10.5 B) 7.6 C) 5.2 D) 3.0
7
93) The recommended level of HDL for adults is: 93)
A) less than 5.2 mmol/L. B) lessthan 4.6 mmol/L.
C) equal to or more than 0.5 mmol/L. D) equal to or more than 0.9 mmol/L.
94) What level of LDL would be a risk factor for heart disease? 94)
A) Less than 5.2 mmol/L B) More than 5.2 mmol/L
C) Less than 3.5 mmol/L D) More than 3.5 mmol/L
95) Which one of the following cholesterol profiles would place someone at greatest risk for 95)
heart disease?
A) Low HDL and low LDL B) High HDL and high LDL
C) Low HDL and high LDL D) High HDL and low LDL
96) Exercise alters blood fat levels by: 96)

A) raising LDL levels. B) raising triglyceride levels.
C) raising HDL levels. D) lowering HDL levels.
97) Cardiovascular disease risk is greatest for people who tend to store body fat in the: 97)
A) torso. B) hips. C) thighs. D) shoulders.
98) What organ produces cholesterol? 98)

A) Liver B) Kidneys C) Pancreas D) Spleen
99) Approximately what percentage of people are not active enough to reduce their risk of 99)
heart disease?
A) 20% B) 40% C) 60% D) 80%
100) How does excess body weight put a person at risk for heart disease? 100)
A) Platelets are stickier.
B) Blood production of cholesterol is increased.
C) Stress levels are increased.
D) Coronary arteries are less healthy.
101) How does diabetes increase a person's risk for heart disease? 101)
A) It puts added strain on the heart. B) Cholesterol levels increase.
C) Arteries are damaged. D) Eyesight is compromised.
102) Which one of the following blood pressure readings would be considered healthy for a 102)
young adult?
A) 110/70 B) 120/88 C) 135/92 D) 144/90
103) The cut-off point for blood pressure at or above which an adult is diagnosed with 103)
hypertension is:
A) 120/80. B) 130/85. C) 140/90. D) 150/95.
8
104) For heart health, the majority of fat in the diet should come from _____ fats. 104)
A) saturated B) trans C) hydrogenated D) unsaturated
105) How is hypertension usually detected? 105)

A) It causes angina pectoris, resulting in chest pains.
B) It causes arrhythmia.
C) It causes weakness in the limbs.
D) It often goes undetected for long periods because it often has no perceived
symptoms.
106) Which of the following is TRUE about triglycerides? 106)

A) Elevated levels are linked to low blood glucose levels.
B) Their normal level in the blood is 40 mmol/L.
C) They help protect against heart disease.
D) They are reduced with physical activity and weight loss.
107) Which of the following statements about gender and CVD is TRUE? 107)
A) In Canada, CVD is the leading killer of men moreso than women.
B) Estrogen may offer post-menopausal women some protection against CVD.
C) The incidence of hypertension is higher in women than in men before age 55.
D) Women are more likely than men to have classic heart attack symptoms, like chest
pain.
108) Genetics play a role in a person's risk for having heart disease. What is one thing that 108)
might be inherited?
A) Cholesterol levels B) Blood toxins
C) Homocysteine levels D) Platelet levels
109) After what age does the incidence of heart disease increase dramatically? 109)
A) 75 B) 65 C) 55 D) 45
110) C-reactive protein is released into the bloodstream in response to: 110)
A) free radicals. B) antioxidants.
C) inflammation. D) phytochemicals.
111) Which of the following is TRUE about homocysteine? 111)

A) It is a type of cholesterol.
B) Homocysteine levels are higher in women than in men.
C) It helps repair the linings of arteries.
D) Homocysteine levels are higher in people whose diets are low in folic acid.
112) Which of the following is associated with metabolic syndrome? 112)

A) High HDL B) Insulin resistance
C) Low blood pressure D) Large LDL particles
9
113) LDL particles differ in size and density, and people with a high proportion of small, 113)
dense LDL particles -a condition called LDL _____-also appear to be at greater risk for
CVD.
A) Pattern A B) Pattern B C) Pattern C D) Pattern D
114) Certain CVD risk factors are often found in a cluster referred to as _____ syndrome 114)
A) cardiovascular B) respiratory
C) metabolic D) renal
115) Exercise is especially important because it increases _____ even if it doesn't produce 115)
weight loss.
A) thyroxin sensitivity B) growth hormone sensitivity
C) glucagon sensitivity D) insulin sensitivity
116) Foods that may decrease high blood pressure include: 116)
A) whole grain bread. B) Special K cereal.
C) red potatoes. D) salt meat.
117) The safe upper limit for daily sodium consumption set by Health Canada is equivalent to 117)
about _____ of salt.
A) two-thirds of a teaspoon B) two teaspoons
C) one tablespoon D) one-eighth of a tablespoon
118) The recommended percentage of saturated fat calories in the diet is _____ of total 118)
calories for most people.
A) 5% or less B) 10% or less C) 25-35% D) 55% or more
119) A dietary change that would help prevent cardiovascular disease is to increase the intake 119)
of foods high in:
A) soluble fibre. B) saturated fat. C) coconut oil. D) simple sugars.
120) Which one of the following is a good source of dietary fibre? 120)
A) Meats B) Fish C) Eggs D) Legumes
121) Moderate alcohol consumption is no more than: 121)

A) ten drinks per week for men and women.
B) twenty drinks per week for men and women.
C) one drink per day for women and two drinks per day for men.
D) two drinks per day for women and three drinks per day for men.
10
122) When the heart contracts, _____ blood pressure _____ when the heart relaxes, _____ 122)
blood pressure _____.
A) diastolic; increases; systolic; decreases
B) diastolic; decreases; systolic; increases
C) systolic; increases; diastolic; decreases
D) systolic; decreases; diastolic; increases
123) The number-one controllable risk factor for heart disease is: 123)
A) smoking. B) age.
C) c-reactive protein levels. D) genetic background.
124) Environmental tobacco smoke does not: 124)

A) increases a person's risk for heart disease
B) may permanently increase the rate of plaque formation in the arteries
C) hardens the arteries
D) reduce a person's risk of lung cancer.
125) Cholesterol testing should begin at age: 125)

A) 20. B) 35. C) 50. D) 65.
126) How does cholesterol increase a person's risk for heart disease? 126)
A) It hardens the arteries.
B) It makes the cells more sensitive to salt.
C) It increases the liver production of cholesterol.
D) It affects one's insulin resistance.
127) A person who is habitually _____ is at a higher risk for heart disease than a person who 127)
is not.
A) angry B) introverted (shy, quiet)
C) extroverted (very outgoing) D) obsessed with cleanliness
128) ______________ is a form of CVD in which the inner layers of artery walls are 128)
made thick and irregular by plaque deposits, leading to the narrowing of arteries
and reducing blood supply.
129) ______________ is a condition in which the heart muscle does not receive 129)
enough blood, causing severe pain in the chest and often in the arm and shoulder.
130) ______________ are cell fragments in the blood that are necessary for the 130)
formation of blood clots.
131) The recommended limit for sodium intake is ______________ per day. 131)
11
132) Reducing ______________________ intake to recommended levels, while also 132)
increasing potassium intake, can help reduce blood pressure for many people.
133) Plant _______________________, found in some types of trans-free margarines 133)

and other products, reduce the absorption of cholesterol in the body and help
lower LDL levels.
134) What is atherosclerosis? Describe in detail its impact on the heart. 134)
135) What is stroke? Describe. 135)
136) What are the various CVD risk factors that can be altered? 136)
137) What are the benefits of fibre in a heart healthy diet? 137)
138) At Esther's most recent medical check-up, her doctor found that she had high 138)
blood pressure, excessive abdominal fat, and a low HDL count. What condition
might Esther be suffering from? What specific lifestyle strategies might be
recommended to help her lower her risk of CVD?
139) List at least eight specific lifestyle strategies for reducing individual risk for 139)
CVD. In addition, list two additional strategies that might be recommended for
someone who currently has heart disease.
12
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED10
1) TRUE
2) TRUE
3) FALSE
4) TRUE
5) FALSE
6) TRUE
7) FALSE
8) TRUE
9) TRUE
10) FALSE
11) TRUE
12) FALSE
13) TRUE
14) TRUE
15) TRUE
16) TRUE
17) FALSE
18) FALSE
19) FALSE
20) TRUE
21) FALSE
22) TRUE
23) TRUE
24) FALSE
25) TRUE
26) TRUE
27) FALSE
28) TRUE
29) TRUE
30) FALSE
31) FALSE
32) FALSE
33) TRUE
34) FALSE
35) TRUE
36) FALSE
37) FALSE
38) TRUE
39) FALSE
40) TRUE
41) TRUE
42) FALSE
43) FALSE
44) TRUE
45) TRUE
46) FALSE
47) FALSE
48) TRUE
49) TRUE
50) TRUE
13
Answer Key
51) TRUE
52) FALSE
53) TRUE
54) FALSE
55) FALSE
56) TRUE
57) TRUE
58) TRUE
59) FALSE
60) TRUE
61) FALSE
62) C
63) C
64) A
65) D
66) A
67) C
68) D
69) A
70) C
71) A
72) B
73) D
74) D
75) A
76) B
77) B
78) C
79) A
80) A
81) C
82) D
83) B
84) C
85) A
86) C
87) B
88) B
89) A
90) C
91) C
92) C
93) D
94) D
95) C
96) C
97) A
98) A
99) C
100) D
14
Answer Key
101) C
102) A
103) C
104) D
105) D
106) D
107) A
108) A
109) B
110) C
111) D
112) B
113) B
114) C
115) D
116) A
117) A
118) B
119) A
120) D
121) C
122) C
123) A
124) D
125) A
126) A
127) A
128) Atherosclerosis
129) Angina pectoris
130) Platelets
131) 2300 milligrams
132) sodium
133) stanols and sterols
15
Answer Key
134) - Atherosclerosis is a form of arteriosclerosis, or thickening and hardening of the arteries.

- In atherosclerosis, arteries become narrowed by deposits of fat, cholesterol, and other substances.
- The process begins when the cells lining the arteries (endothelial cells) become damaged, often through a
combination of factors such as smoking, high blood pressure, and deposits of oxidized LDL particles.
- The body's response to this damage results in inflammation and changes in the artery lining. Deposits,
called plaques, accumulate on artery walls; the arteries lose their elasticity and their ability to expand and
contract, restricting blood flow.
- Once narrowed by a plaque, an artery is vulnerable to blockage by blood clots (Figure 11.1). The risk of
life-threatening clots and heart attacks increases if the fibrous cap covering a plaque ruptures.
- If the heart, brain, and/or other organs are deprived of blood, and the oxygen it carries, the effects of
atherosclerosis can be deadly.
- Coronary arteries, which supply the heart with blood, are particularly susceptible to plaque buildup, a
condition called coronary heart disease (CHD), or coronary artery disease.
- The blockage of a coronary artery causes a heart attack.
135) - A stroke, also called a cerebrovascular accident (CVA), occurs when the blood supply to the brain is cut
off.
- If brain cells are deprived of blood for more than a few minutes, they die.
- Once brain cells begin dying, about 2 million cells are lost every minute that blood flow is not restored.
- Prompt treatment of stroke can greatly decrease the risk of permanent disability.
- A stroke may be caused by a blood clot that blocks an artery (ischemic stroke) or by a ruptured blood
vessel (hemorrhagic stroke). Ischemic strokes are often caused by atherosclerosis or certain types of
arrhythmia.
- Hemorrhagic strokes may occur if there is a weak spot in an artery wall or following a head injury.
- The interruption of the blood supply to any area of the brain prevents the nerve cells there from
functioning, in some cases, causing death.
- Nerve cells control sensation and most body movements; depending on the area of the brain that is
affected, a stroke may cause paralysis, walking disability, speech impairment, or memory loss.
- Of the over 50 000 Canadians who have strokes each year, 15% will die and close to 75% will suffer some
lasting disability.
136) - Tobacco use
- High blood pressure
- Unhealthy cholesterol levels
- Physical activity
- Obesity
- Diabetes
- Lifestyle factors
137) Studies have shown that a high-fibre diet is associated with a 40-50% reduction in the risk of heart attack
and stroke.
To get the recommended 25-38 grams of dietary fibre a day, eat whole grains, fruits, and vegetables.
Good sources of fibre include oatmeal, some breakfast cereals, barley, legumes, and most fruits and
vegetables.
138) Answers will vary
16
Answer Key
17
Exam
Name___________________________________
1) Cancer is an abnormal and uncontrollable growth of cells or tissue that leads to death if 1)
untreated.
2) Benign tumours are capable of invading surrounding structures and spreading to distant 2)
sites.
3) Tobacco smoke is the main risk factor for lung cancer. 3)
4) A metastasis describes a cancer that has grown in size. 4)
5) This ability of cancer cells to metastasize makes early cancer detection critical. 5)
6) Cancer is an intriguing disease in that it has many origins, affects numerous parts of the 6)
body, and treatment for the different kinds of cancer can vary.
7) A persistent cough or chest pain can be a warning sign for lung cancer. 7)
8) Lung cancer symptoms usually appears in the early stage of the disease. 8)
9) Lifestyle has no influence on cancer risk. 9)
10) Colon cancer rarely occurs before age 40. 10)
11) Sedentary women who consume few vegetables have an increased risk of breast cancer. 11)
12) Late onset of menstruation and early onset of menopause are risk factors for breast 12)
cancer.
13) The majority of women who are diagnosed with breast cancer have a family history of 13)
the disease.
14) Ninety percent of breast lumps turn out to be malignant. 14)
15) A mammogram is an example of a biopsy. 15)
16) Prostate cancer is the most common cancer among men. 16)
17) Prostate cancer boasts the fewest number of deaths after five years from diagnosis. 17)
1
18) Cervical cancer is considered in part a sexually transmitted disease. 18)
19) All abnormal Pap tests indicate that the patient is in the early stages of cancer. 19)
20) The more severe sunburns a person has had, the higher the risk for cancer. 20)
21) Use of
tanning lamps is not linked to skin cancer because tanning lamps emit a safe form 21)
of UV radiation.
22) Skin colour does not have any influence on who will get skin cancer. 22)
23) Most skin cancers will be found on the hands, arms, face, and neck. 23)
24) UVA radiation from tanning lamps causes premature wrinkles and skin cancer. 24)
25) An SPF rating means that you have 15 minutes in the sun before you will burn. 25)
26) The primary risk factors for oral cancer are tobacco use and excessive alcohol 26)
consumption.
27) Chemotherapy, radiation, and surgery are the primary methods of treatment for head and 27)
neck cancers.
28) Testicular cancer is relatively common among men. 28)
29) Men with undescended testicles are at increased risk for testicular cancer. 29)
30) Pancreatic cancer is usually not detected until it has reached an advanced stage. 30)
31) Cancer that begins in the lymph nodes is called lymphoma. 31)
32) Certain genes may predispose some people to cancer. 32)
33) Some genes are responsible for controlling the rate of cell division, and these genes often 33)
play a critical role in the development of cancer.
34) A mutated gene contains the proper code for producing its protein. 34)
35) Cancer promoters directly produce DNA mutations. 35)
36) Smoking is responsible for up to 90% of lung cancer instances and for about 30% of all 36)
cancer deaths.
2
37) Individuals whose diets are high in fat and meat have no more of a cancer risk than a 37)
vegetarian.
38) Antioxidants reduce cancer risk by promoting the action of free radicals on DNA. 38)
39) Folic acid and calcium may provide protection against the development of cancer. 39)
40) Regular exercise is linked to lower rates of colon and other cancers. Additionally, it aids 40)
in controlling body weight.
41) Physical activity is known to reduce the inflammatory response and to boost immune 41)
function.
42) As with all-cause mortality and cardiovascular disease, physical activity appears to have 42)
an inverse relationship with various types of cancer (e.g. lung cancer, endometrial
cancer, ovarian cancer).
43) About 20% of cancer deaths are related to general environmental pollution. 43)
44) Industrial causes of cancer are predicted to decrease in the coming years. 44)
45) The same bacterium that causes stomach ulcers is linked to stomach cancer. 45)
46) Nitrates in food can inhibit cancer cell development. 46)
47) Almost all types of cancer can be prevented by eating healthy and getting regular 47)
exercise.
48) The use of spit tobacco increases the risk of cancers of the mouth, larynx, throat, and 48)
esophagus.
49) Almost all cases of skin cancer are sun-related. 49)
50) Cancer is best described as: 50)

A) a rapid growth of cells within an enclosed membrane.
B) an abnormal and uncontrollable growth of cells.
C) an infectious disease that is often fatal.
D) tumours that cause death.
3
51) The primary difference between a benign tumour and a malignant tumour is that: 51)
A) malignant tumours can spread to other sites in the body.
B) benign tumours don't cause symptoms.
C) malignant tumours are more difficult to detect.
D) benign tumours are made up of different types of cells than the surrounding tissue.
52) A_____ tumour can invading surrounding structures, including blood vessels, the 52)
lymphatic system, and nerves.
A) skin B) bone C) Hodgkins D) malignant
53) Hans learned that his cancer had metastasized to the liver. What had actually happened? 53)
A) His cancer had grown so large that it was now touching the liver.
B) The cancerous cells were dividing rapidly within the organ.
C) Cancer cells had travelled through blood vessels and spread to the liver from
another body part.
D) The cancer tumour was decreasing in size.
54) Secondary tumours are otherwise referred to as _____. 54)

A) metastases B) malignant C) mandibular D) mast
55) Which of the following is responsible for most cancers? 55)

A) Hereditary factors and pollution
B) Smoking, eating habits, and lack of exercise
C) Pollution, environmental toxins, and genetics
D) Ultraviolet radiation, smoking, and household cleaners
56) The most common cause of cancer death in Canada is: 56)
A) breast cancer. B) colon and rectal cancer.
C) prostate cancer. D) lung cancer.
57) The chief risk factor for lung cancer is: 57)
A) family history. B) alcohol.
C) air pollution. D) tobacco smoke.
58) As pollution is a substance that causes cancer it is called a(n): 58)

A) mutagen. B) oncogene. C) initiator. D) carcinogen.
59) Which one of the following cancer has the highest mortality rate? 59)
A) Lung B) Prostate C) Breast D) Pancreatic
60) _____ is the use of targeted drugs that destroy rapidly growing cancer cells. 60)
A) Radiation B) Surgery
C) Chemotherapy D) Transplanting
4
61) A signal of colon and rectal cancer is: 61)
A) high fever. B) headaches.
C) cramping. D) rectal bleeding.
62) Young _____ and early-stage cancers can be removed before they spread, thereby 62)
preventing colorectal cancer.
A) polyps B) mast C) epithelial D) sub-dermal
63) A biopsy is the removal and examination of: 63)

A) a cancerous cell. B) asmall piece of body tissue.
C) a mutagen or carcinogen. D) deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).
64) The most common form of cancer in women is _____ cancer; the most common cause of 64)
cancer death in women is _____ cancer.
A) lung; breast B) breast; lung
C) colorectal; cervical D) lung; ovarian
65) What do obesity and alcohol consumption have in common that increases breast cancer 65)
risk?
A) They increase glucose levels in the blood
B) They increase estrogen levels in the blood
C) They raise LDL cholesterol
D) They lower triglyceride levels
66) A woman is more likely to get breast cancer if: 66)

A) she had her first child before age 20.
B) her diet is rich in monounsaturated fat.
C) her diet is rich in vegetables.
D) she consumes excess alcohol on a daily basis.
67) Which of the following nutrients has been linked to an increased risk for breast cancer? 67)
A) Carbohydrates B) Fat
C) Vitamin B12 D) Sodium
68) What test is usually performed if a lump is discovered in the breast? 68)
A) A glucose test B) A biopsy
C) PSA blood test D) A Pap test
69) What type of diagnostic test is prescribed for someone suspected of having breast 69)
cancer?
A) A blood test B) A mammogram
C) An X-ray D) A CAT Scan
5
70) Which type of cancer will have the most new cases diagnosed? 70)
A) Lung B) Breast C) Prostate D) Leukemia
71) Which of the following risk factors accounts for the most prostate cancer diagnosis each 71)
year?
A) Age over 65 B) Physical
inactivity
C) Smoking D) Environmental factors
72) To diagnose prostate cancer, a physician will order a: 72)

A) sugar test. B) PSA blood test.
C) Pap test. D) mammogram.
73) What is the prognosis for someone who is diagnosed with prostate cancer? 73)
A) The survival rate is 95%.
B) Generally, the patient is given less than one year to live.
C) The survival rate is 50%.
D) It depends on which gland the cancer is located in.
74) The Pap test is used to help detect which type of cancer? 74)
A) Cervical B) Ovarian C) Breast D) Endometrial
75) The infection that puts women at risk for cervical cancer is: 75)
A) pneumonia. B) hepatitis. C) HPV. D) streptococcus.
76) A risk factor for cervical cancer is: 76)

A) a high-fat diet. B) aging.
C) smoking. D) unprotected sex.
77) Cancer of the uterus is called _____ cancer. 77)

A) prostate B) endometrial C) estrogen D) cervical
78) Risk factors for endometrial cancer include all of the following, EXCEPT: 78)
A) prolonged estrogen exposure. B) late menopause.
C) obesity. D) use of oral contraceptives.
79) Ovarian cancer: 79)

A) has no approved screening tests to detect it.
B) is detectable with Pap tests.
C) decreases in incidence with age.
D) has obvious early warning signs.
80) Which of the following risk factors is most clearly linked to skin cancer? 80)
A) Eating a high-fat diet B) Smoking cigarettes
C) Exposing skin to ultraviolet radiation D) Drinking alcoholic beverages
6
81) Which one of the following can be considered a carcinogen for developing skin cancer? 81)
A) Tanning lamps B) Dark pigmentation of the skin
C) Estrogen D) Genital warts
82) Ultraviolet B (UVB) radiation: 82)

A) causes sunburn.
B) is the primary type of radiation emitted from tanning beds.
C) is not linked to skin cancer.
D) has a longer-wavelength than UVA radiation.
83) The most dangerous type of skin cancer is: 83)

A) melanoma. B) basal cell carcinoma.
C) lymphoma. D) squamous cell carcinoma.
84) A melanoma is most likely to occur: 84)

A) on the face or neck.
B) on a pre-existing mole.
C) only on areas that have been sunburned.
D) near a patch of fair skin.
85) What preventative measure is the best strategy for someone who is hoping to decrease 85)
his or her risk for skin cancer?
A) Check appearance for recent changes in a mole (colour, size, shape)
B) Have all moles larger than the top of a pencil removed
C) Eat plenty of fruits and vegetables
D) Live in a Northern climate
86) Which one of the following statements about ultraviolet radiation is TRUE? 86)
A) It's best to avoid outdoor activity in the late afternoon because the sun's rays are
most intense after 3 p.m.
B) Swimming is a good choice of outdoor activity because ultraviolet rays cannot
penetrate water.
C) Sand reflects ultraviolet radiation, so beach-goers need to wear sunscreen even if
they sit under a beach umbrella.
D) You don't need to wear sunscreen when outdoors at high elevations because the
atmosphere at high altitude filters out most ultraviolet radiation.
87) Melissa uses a sunscreen with an SPF rating of 20. This means that: 87)
A) she can stay in the sun for 20 minutes without getting tanned or burned.
B) she can stay in the sun 20 times longer without getting burned than if she didn't use
it.
C) she is protected against the full range of ultraviolet radiation.
D) her sunscreen contains 20 different ingredients to block ultraviolet radiation.
7
88) A characteristic of a skin lesion that may be a melanoma is a: 88)
A) diameter greater than half a cm. B) symmetrical shape.
C) solid dark color. D) smooth border.
89) A diet high in _____ is associated with increased risk of oral cancers. 89)
A) fibre B) fat
C) alcohol D) fruits and vegetables
90) Headand neck cancers occur _____ as often in men as in women and most frequently in 90)
men over 40.
A) Five times B) Twice C) Three times D) Four times
91) The best time to conduct a testicular self-examination (TSE) is: 91)
A) as soon as you get up. B) just before going to bed.
C) after a warm bath. D) after an exercise session.
92) A relatively rare cancer among men is _____ cancer. 92)

A) lung B) prostate
C) colon and rectal D) testicular
93) Which one of the following best describes leukemia? 93)

A) Benign disease of the lymph system
B) Malignant disease of the white blood cells
C) Non-melanoma skin cancer
D) Benign disorder of glucose metabolism
94) Which one of the following cancers has shown a decrease in the number of people 94)
diagnosed?
A) Skin B) Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
C) Prostate D) Hodgkin's lymphoma
95) The section of DNA that controls the production of a particular protein is the: 95)
A) gene. B) chromosome. C) nucleotide. D) double helix.
96) Genes which mutate from a normal cell to a cancerous cell are known as: 96)
A) carcinogens. B) oncogenes.
C) gene mutations. D) tumours.
8
97) Which of the following best describes the function of suppressor genes? 97)
A) They stop the growth and spread of cells that have turned cancerous, thereby
lowering cancer death rates.
B) They block the action of cancer-fighting immune cells, thereby increasing cancer
risk.
C) They remove carcinogens from the body, thereby lowering cancer risk.
D) They control or restrict cell growth; if a suppressor gene is damaged, cell growth
speeds up, thereby increasing cancer risk.
98) Smoking is responsible for up to _____ of lung cancers. 98)

A) 0% B) 30% C) 60% D) 90%
99) In addition to lung and bronchial cancer, _____ use is linked to cancer of the larynx, 99)
mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, pancreas, kidneys, bladder, and cervix.
A) canned food B) processed food
C) tobacco D) alcohol
100) A diet high in _____ is linked to high rates of colon and prostate cancer. 100)
A) fat and meat B) fibre C) carotenoids D) nitrosamines
101) Naturally occurring substances found in plant foods that help prevent chronic diseases 101)
are
A) nitrosamines. B) anticarcinogens.
C) phytochemicals. D) free radicals.
102) Which of the following is a good source of phytochemicals? 102)

A) The lean portion of beef B) Skim milk
C) Halibut D) Broccoli
103) Which of the following foods is NOT recommended for cancer risk reduction? 103)
A) yellow or orange fruits and vegetables
B) pork
C) citrus fruits
D) cruciferous vegetables
104) Foods are a better source of phytochemicals than supplements for all of the following 104)
reasons EXCEPT:
A) Isolated phytochemicals may be harmful in high doses.
B) Supplements do not contain antioxidants.
C) Whole foods can have nutritional benefits not available from supplements.
D) The anticancer effects of phytochemicals may be due to several chemicals from a
single food working in combination.
9
105) Which of the following is NOT a phytochemical? 105)
A) Biotin B) Flavnoid C) Resveratrol D) Polyphenol
106) How does exercise help to reduce the risk of some cancers? 106)
A) It helps to prevent obesity.
B) It helps control blood pressure.
C) It increases white blood cell production.
D) It helps red blood cell production.
107) A potentially dangerous additive found in beer, bacon, and processed lunch meats is: 107)
A) sulforaphane. B) nitrate.
C) sodium chloride. D) glucose.
108) Which one of the following environmental factors is responsible for the greatest 108)
percentage of cancer risks?
A) Nitrates B) X-rays
C) Pollution D) Emissions from industrial plants
109) Eighty percent of the cases of liver cancer worldwide are caused by infection with: 109)
A) hepatitis B and C viruses. B) Epstein-Barr virus.
C) human herpes virus 8. D) Helicobacter pylori bacterium.
110) Which of the following microorganisms has been linked to Hodgkin's? 110)
A) Cold virus B) Hepatitis C) Epstein-Barr D) Streptococci
111) Radiation sources linked to cancer include: 111)

A) X-rays B) chemotherapy C) light bulbs D) MRI
112) John leads a sedentary lifestyle. Which of the following is NOT considered an ideal 112)
strategy to reduce cancer risk for John?
A) Avoid tobacco
B) Regular physical activity
C) Reduce fruit intake, but increase vegetable intake
D) Avoid exposure to sun
113) The seven major warning signs of cancer can be remembered with the acronym: 113)
A) MEDICAL. B) CAUTION. C) WARNING. D) HEALTHY.
114) Early cancer detection depends on our willingness to be aware of changes in our own 114)
body and making sure we keep up with recommended diagnostic tests such as:
A) breast self-examinations for women starting from their 50's.
B) men and women should have a fecal occult blood test starting from age 50.
C) prostate specific antigen tests for men starting from their 70's.
D) Pap tests for women starting from their 40's.
10
115) _______________ are made up of cells similar to the surrounding normal cells 115)
and are enclosed in a membrane that prevents them from penetrating
neighbouring tissues.
116) New tumours as a result of metastasis is called ______________. 116)
117) _______________ is the treatment of cancer with chemicals that selectively 117)
destroy cancerous cells.
118) _______________ is a low dose X-ray of the breasts used for the early detection 118)
of breast cancer.
119) A(n) _______________ involves the removal and examination of a small piece 119)
of body tissue.
120) A(n) _______________ is a section of a chromosome that contains the 120)

instructions for making a particular protein; the basic unit of heredity.
121) Genes in which mutations are associated with the conversion of a normal cell into 121)
a cancer cell are known as ______________.
122) Antioxidants prevent _______________ from damaging DNA. 122)
123) ________________ is responsible for 80-90% of lung cancer instances and about 123)
30% of all cancer deaths.
124) Wearing protective clothing when you're out in the sun and using a sunscreen 124)
with an SPF rating of ______________ or higher are recommendations to reduce
risk for skin cancer.
125) What is metastasis? Describe. 125)
126) Choose one of the common cancers described in your text. Briefly describe the 126)
cancer, its risk factors, signs/symptoms, and treatment. List at least three lifestyle
strategies for prevention.
127) What are the various techniques used to detect breast cancer? Explain each 127)
briefly.
128) Pete has an outdoor job and is frequently out in the sun for an entire day. List five 128)
strategies that can help Pete avoid skin damage and skin cancer.
11
129) What is the role of DNA mutations in cancer formation? 129)
130) Diet can be a key risk factor for cancer. Describe three general dietary strategies 130)
for cancer prevention, and then list eight foods that would be good anticancer
dietary choices.
131) What are the screening guidelines for the early detection of breast and prostate 131)
cancer in asymptomatic people?
12
Answer Key
1) TRUE
2) FALSE
3) TRUE
4) FALSE
5) TRUE
6) TRUE
7) TRUE
8) FALSE
9) FALSE
10) TRUE
11) TRUE
12) FALSE
13) FALSE
14) FALSE
15) FALSE
16) TRUE
17) TRUE
18) TRUE
19) FALSE
20) TRUE
21) FALSE
22) FALSE
23) TRUE
24) TRUE
25) FALSE
26) TRUE
27) TRUE
28) FALSE
29) TRUE
30) TRUE
31) TRUE
32) TRUE
33) TRUE
34) FALSE
35) FALSE
36) TRUE
37) FALSE
38) FALSE
39) TRUE
40) TRUE
41) TRUE
42) TRUE
43) FALSE
44) TRUE
45) TRUE
46) FALSE
47) FALSE
48) TRUE
49) TRUE
50) B
13
Answer Key
51) A
52) D
53) C
54) A
55) B
56) D
57) D
58) D
59) A
60) C
61) D
62) A
63) B
64) B
65) B
66) D
67) B
68) B
69) B
70) C
71) A
72) B
73) A
74) A
75) C
76) D
77) B
78) D
79) A
80) C
81) A
82) A
83) A
84) B
85) A
86) C
87) B
88) A
89) C
90) B
91) C
92) D
93) B
94) D
95) A
96) B
97) D
98) D
99) C
100) A
14
Answer Key
101) C
102) D
103) B
104) B
105) A
106) A
107) B
108) D
109) A
110) C
111) A
112) C
113) B
114) B
115) Benign tumours
116) metastases
117) Chemotherapy
118) Mammography
119) biopsy
120) gene
121) oncogene
122) free radicals
123) Smoking
124) 15
125) Metastasis, the spreading of cancer cells, occurs because cancer cells do not stick to each other as strongly as
normal cells do and therefore may not remain at the site of the primary tumour, the original location.
They break away and can pass through the lining of lymph or blood vessels to invade near by tissue.
• They can also drift to distant parts of the body, where they establish new colonies of cancer cells.
• This travelling and seeding process is called metastasizing. The new tumours are called secondary tumours,
or metastases.
• This ability of cancer cells to metastasize makes early cancer detection critical. To control the cancer, every
cancerous cell must be removed.
• Once cancer cells enter either the lymphatic system or the bloodstream, it is extremely difficult to stop
their spread.
15
Answer Key
127) Mammography: A mammogram is a low-dose breast X-ray that can spot breast abnormalities before
physical symptoms arise. A newer type of mammography, called digital mammography, may provide more
accurate results in some women, as may magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). The Canadian Cancer
Society recommends that women over 50 get a mammogram every 2 years.
Clinical breast exams: Women between the ages of 20 and 39 should have a clinical breast exam about
every 3 years. Women over 40 should have one every year.
Breast self-exams: By doing breast self-exams (BSEs), a woman can become familiar with her breasts and
alert her physician to any changes (see the nearby box "How to Examine Your Breasts"). Although the
ACS encourages all women to perform regular breast self-exams, many women elect not to do them,
fearing they may not perform them correctly. When women learn proper self-exam technique from a
health care professional, however, they are much more likely to regularly examine their breasts. Women
who choose to do self-exams should begin at age 20.
A mutation is any change in the makeup of a gene.
Some mutations are inherited; others are caused by environmental agents known as mutagens.
Mutagens include radiation, certain viruses, and chemical substances in the air we breathe. (When a mutagen
also causes cancer, it is called a carcinogen.)
Some mutations are the result of copying errors that occur when DNA replicates itself as part of cell
division.
A mutated gene no longer contains the proper code for producing its protein.
It usually takes several mutational changes before a normal cell takes on the properties of a cancer cell.
Genes in which mutations are associated with the conversion of a normal cell into a cancer cell are known as
oncogenes.
In their undamaged form, many oncogenes play a role in controlling or restricting cell growth; they are
called tumour suppressor genes.
Mutational damage to suppressor genes releases the brake on growth and leads to rapid and uncontrolled cell
division-a precondition for the development of cancer.
131) Guidelines for Breast Cancer
Clinical breast exams are recommended for all women over the age of 40 every year.
Beyond the age of 50, women should also have a mammogram every 2 years and those over 70 should
discuss an individualized screening program with their physician.
Women at increased risk (e.g., family history, genetic tendency, past breast cancer) should talk with their
physicians about the benefits and limitations of starting mammography screening earlier, having additional
tests (i.e., breast ultrasound or MRI), or having more frequent exams.
Guidelines for Prostate Cancer

Beginning at age 50, men should consult with their physicians about the potential benefits and risks of using
the Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA) and digital rectal examinations (DRE) for the early detection of prostate
cancer.
16
Exam
Name___________________________________
1) Aging is an abnormal process of development that occurs over the entire life span of 1)
every individual.
2) Aging happens at the same rate for all people. 2)
3) With age, the skin becomes looser, drier, and retains elastic properties. 3)
4) Physiological changes as we get older are due solely to the aging process. 4)
5) Many retired people do not know how to enjoy their leisure time. 5)
6) Volunteering helps to increase longevity. 6)
7) Being a volunteer is associated with physical wellness. 7)
8) Alcohol abuse ranks with depression as a common hidden mental health problem, 8)
affecting 50% of older adults.
9) People can prevent many illnesses through healthy lifestyle choices. Similarly, one can 9)
also avoid many visits to the medical clinic by managing their own health care.
10) People who manage their own health care are informed partners in medical care, as long 10)
as they prescribe their own medicines.
11) If you change physicians, there is no need to share your medication schedule with 11)
him/her and waste the new doctor's time.
12) Covering your mattress with a mattress cover to help you with your allergies is a good 12)
example of self-treatment.
13) Aspirin should not be given to children with a viral infection. 13)
14) Alternative therapies such as massage therapy and acupuncture are less popular now than 14)
they were in the past.
15) The key to using the health care system effectively is good communication with your 15)
physician and other members of the health care team.
1
16) The most commonly used complementary and alternative therapy among Canadians is 16)
chiropractic care.
17) Only 25% of Canadians use complementary and alternative medicines. 17)
18) Environmental health encompasses all the interactions between humans and the 18)
environment.
19) Many ofthe health challenges of the twenty-first century will involve protecting the 19)
environment from the by-products of human activity.
20) In the year 2200, the world population is projected to reach 9.3 billion. 20)
21) The declinein fertility rates began in Western countries decades ago and is now also 21)
happening in poor and developing countries.
22) For the first time in world history, there are more children than older people. 22)
23) Air pollution is unsightly, but it has no direct effects on human health. 23)
24) Depletion of the ozone layer is a global threat. 24)
25) Global warming, ozone depletion, and acid rain can have negative effects on health. 25)
26) Inindividuals with chronic ailments such as diabetes or heart failure, even relatively 26)
brief exposure to particulate air pollution increases the risk of death by nearly 40%.
27) NO2is a bluish-brown, highly reactive gas formed when nitric oxide combines with 27)
oxygen in the atmosphere.
28) Particulate
matter can accumulate in the respiratory system, thereby can aggravate 28)
cardiovascular and lung diseases.
29) The temperature of the earth's atmosphere depends on the balance between the amount of 29)
energy the planet absorbs from the sun and the amount of energy radiated outward to the
moon.
30) Taking a bath typically uses less water than taking a shower. 30)
31) People can take many actions to limit their negative impact on the environment. 31)
32) Using incandescent

bulbs instead of compact fluorescent lightbulbs to save energy is a 32)
good example of sound environmental health.
2
33) Purchasing products with minimal packing is one strategy for helping the environment. 33)
34) Positive self-talk is an effective strategy for behaviour change. 34)
35) Adopting a wellness lifestyle is the most important thing you can do to ensure a high 35)
quality of life for yourself, both now and in the future.
36) Exercising in polluted outdoor air can actually reduce lung function, at least temporarily. 36)
37) Motivation to change is an important part of behaviour change. 37)
38) Aging is a normal process of development that occurs over the entire life span. 38)
A) Childhood B) Teenage C) Adulthood D) Aging
39) _____ changes of aging are caused by a combination of gradual aging and injury from 39)
disease.
A) Physiological B) Physical
C) Chemical D) None of the above
40) Which of the following is NOT a physical change that accompanies aging? 40)
A) Skin becomes looser B) Skin becomes drier
C) Skin becomes elastic D) Skin becomes tender
41) Which of the following statements about body composition and aging is TRUE? 41)
A) Bone mass and muscle mass decrease with aging.
B) Bone mass and muscle mass increase with aging.
C) The body changes relatively little as a person ages.
D) Exercise and diet have little effect on an elderly body.
42) Presbyopia is: 42)

A) the loss of bone mass with age, resulting in fractures.
B) a disorder of glucose metabolism.
C) hearing loss brought on by exposure to loud noises.
D) the inability of the eyes to focus sharply on nearby objects.
43) Studiesshow that as long as you make healthy choices and live a healthy lifestyle, you 43)
can function efficiently and independently until the age of:
A) 55. B) 60. C) 65. D) 70.
44) Which of the following is NOT an effective strategy for healthy aging? 44)
A) Avoiding tobacco use B) Drinking alcohol daily
C) Leading an active lifestyle D) Lifelong learning
3
45) Which one of the following remains stable in most healthy older adults? 45)
A) Maximum heart rate B) Intelligence
C) Speed of sexual response D) Ability to hear high-pitched sounds
46) As smokers age, they tend not to experience _____ at a younger age than non-smokers. 46)
A) premature aging B) hair loss
C) bone loss D) acne
47) Whichof the following about volunteering is a reported benefit noted by older adults 47)
who help others?
A) Meeting new partners B) Less boredom
C) Increased feelings of self-worth D) Lowered cholesterol
48) Sexual response _____, but an active and satisfying sex life can continue for both men 48)
and women throughout life.
A) stays the same B) slows
C) increases D) is lost
49) Just
as people can prevent many illnesses through healthy lifestyle choices, they can also 49)
avoid many visits to the medical clinic by managing their own health care by:
A) staying well informed. B) taking medications as it suits them.
C) soliciting advice where necessary. D) taking responsible decisions.
50) Giving Aspirinto children who have the flu, has been linked to: 50)
A) cancer. B) Reye's syndrome.
C) Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. D) osteoporosis.
51) The over-the-countermedication that should NOT be given to children with flu is: 51)
A) naproxen sodium. B) ibuprofen.
C) aspirin. D) acetaminophen.
52) Which of the following can you monitor from your own residence? 52)
A) Glucose levels B) Ulcers
C) Heart disease D) Poison in the blood stream
53) The firststep in managing your medical problems is: 53)

A) observing your body. B) calling the doctor.
C) not worrying until you feel bad. D) searching the internet for a diagnosis.
54) Patience and careful observation of symptoms is a form of: 54)

A) self-assessment. B) self-diagnosis.
C) self-examination. D) self-treatment.
4
55) Which one of the following drugs is NOT available without a prescription? 55)
A) Antihistamines B) Acetaminophen
C) Ibuprofen D) Antibiotics
56) A trip to the emergency department is usually appropriate for any symptom that is: 56)
A) annoying.
B) unusual.
C) believed to be a heart attack.
D) taking your doctor too long to see you.
57) When communicating with your doctor it is important not to: 57)
A) ask questions.
B) discuss any concerns.
C) be persistent with outstanding symptoms.
D) falsify information.
58) Alternative medicine is defined as: 58)

A) a substitute pill for one that does not appear to be working.
B) choosing not to have medicine when recommended by the doctor.
C) a therapy that is not conventional or taught in medical school.
D) massage therapy and acupuncture.
59) Which one of the following would be considered as alternative medicine? 59)
A) Chiropractics B) The "flu" shot
C) New pills on the market D) Ultrasound
60) What does the National Centre for Complementary and Alternative Medicine advice 60)
consumers about complementary and alternative medicine (CAM)?
A) To get an opinion about their symptoms from a physician
B) To ensure that the label is read first
C) Not to buy products off of the internet
D) To try them only if conventional medicine does not work
61) Which of the following statements about complementary and alternative medicine 61)
(CAM) is TRUE?
A) Most Canadians choose CAM instead of conventional medical therapies.
B) CAM providers are regulated as closely as providers of conventional medicine.
C) Dietary supplements can interact dangerously with prescription and
over-the-counter drugs.
D) Natural products are safer than those produced synthetically in laboratories.
62) Environmental health still focuses on such longstanding concerns as: 62)
A) clean air and water. B) food inspection.
C) brain health. D) waste disposal.
5
63) Which one of the following is an underlying factor in many of today's environmental 63)
problems?
A) Air pollution
B) Rapid expansion of the human population
C) Reliance on nuclear power
D) Thinning of the ozone layer
64) The average number of children per woman fell from _____ in 1950 to half that _____ in 64)
2010.
A) 5; 2.6 B) 2.6; 1.6 C) 4; 2 D) 2; 1
65) For
the first time in history, there are more: 65)
A) younger people than older people. B) adolescents than older people.
C) adults than older people. D) older people than children.
66) The world population in 2000 was about: 66)

A) 0.9 billion. B) 2.1 billion. C) 6.6 billion. D) 20 billion.
67) The key factor that contributes to the greenhouse effect is: 67)
A) emissions from coal-burning electric power plants.
B) depletion of the ozone layer.
C) burning of fossil fuels.
D) radiation.
68) Release of _____ into the atmosphere is a primary reason for the depletion of the ozone 68)
layer.
A) carbon monoxide B) lead
C) radiation D) chlorofluorocarbons
69) Air
pollution is caused solely by: 69)
A) Humans.
B) environmental disasters.
C) humans and environmental disasters.
D) no There is no one sole cause of air pollution.
70) CFCs are also known as _____ and are responsible for destroying the _____. 70)
A) chlorofluorons; forests B) chlorocarbons; oceans
C) chloroflus; air D) chlorofluorocarbons; ozone layer
71) Acid precipitation is a by-product of: 71)

A) pollutants from coal-burning electric power plants.
B) reduced air quality due to deforestation.
C) changes in weather patterns.
D) global warming.
6
72) Allof the following are activities that you can do to improve the environment EXCEPT: 72)
A) using incandescent light bulbs instead of fluorescent light bulbs to save energy.
B) taking showers instead of baths.
C) buying products with the least amount of packaging you can, or buy products in
bulk.
D) making sure your residence is well insulated.
73) To increase behaviour change success one should: 73)

A) change one bad behaviour at a time.
B) change all bad behaviours at once.
C) change no more than three bad behaviours at a time.
D) change no more than two bad behaviours at a time.
74) Marlee is trying to stop smoking. In order to do she should: 74)

A) quit cold turkey.
B) try laser therapy.
C) get support from family and friends.
D) punish herself when she has a relapse.
75) The first step to behaviour change is to: 75)

A) set a realistic goal. B) devise a plan of action.
C) make a personal contract. D) monitor behaviour patterns.
76) The final step to behaviour change is to: 76)

A) set a realistic goal. B) make a personal contract.
C) monitor behaviour patterns. D) create a plan of action.
77) ______________ is the inability of the eyes to focus sharply on nearby objects. 77)
78) ______________ in your community can enhance self-esteem and can allow you 78)
to be a contributing member of the society.
79) ______________ medication is medication that a consumer can buy without a 79)
prescription.
80) _________________________________ are therapies or practices that are not 80)

part of conventional or mainstream health care and medical practice as taught in
most North American medical schools and available at most North American
health care facilities.
81) The gradual raising of the temperature of the lower atmosphere of the earth is 81)
called the ______________.
7
82) _____________________ causes hazy atmospheric conditions resulting from 82)
increased concentrations of ground-level ozone and other pollutants.
83) The ozone layer is being destroyed primarily by _____________________. 83)
84) List the typical changes observed in people as they age. 84)
85) What are the various things one can do to enhance one's quality of life? 85)
86) What is the most effective way of communicating with your physician? 86)
87) Identify five simple guidelines that could aid the use of medicines in a safe and 87)
effective manner.
88) Identify aminimum of five factors that one can do to improve the environment in 88)
their personal life?
89) What is greenhouse effect and global warming? Explain. 89)
8
Answer Key
1) FALSE
2) FALSE
3) FALSE
4) FALSE
5) TRUE
6) TRUE
7) TRUE
8) FALSE
9) TRUE
10) FALSE
11) FALSE
12) TRUE
13) TRUE
14) FALSE
15) TRUE
16) TRUE
17) FALSE
18) TRUE
19) TRUE
20) TRUE
21) TRUE
22) FALSE
23) FALSE
24) TRUE
25) TRUE
26) TRUE
27) FALSE
28) TRUE
29) FALSE
30) FALSE
31) TRUE
32) FALSE
33) TRUE
34) TRUE
35) TRUE
36) TRUE
37) TRUE
38) D
39) A
40) C
41) A
42) D
43) D
44) B
45) B
46) D
47) C
48) B
49) C
50) B
9
Answer Key
51) C
52) A
53) A
54) D
55) D
56) C
57) D
58) C
59) A
60) A
61) C
62) C
63) B
64) A
65) D
66) C
67) C
68) D
69) C
70) D
71) A
72) A
73) A
74) C
75) D
76) B
77) Presbyopia
78) Volunteering
79) Over-the-counter
80) Complementary and alternative medicine
81) greenhouse effect
82) Smog
83) chlorofluorocarbons
10
Answer Key
84) Skin becomes looser, drier, and less elastic.

The ability to hear high-pitched and certain other sounds declines in most people.
Presbyopia, the inability of the eyes to focus sharply on nearby objects, occurs gradually in most people
beginning in their forties. The eyes require more time to adapt to dark conditions, and depth perception may
become distorted.
The sensations of taste and smell diminish somewhat.
Cells at the base of hair follicles produce progressively less pigment and eventually die. (Hair is thickest at
age 20; individual hair shafts shrink after that.)
Bone mass is lost and muscles become weaker, although both of these changes can be minimized
significantly through regular exercise, a proper diet, and other measures.
The heart pumps less blood with each beat, and maximum heart rate drops. Most of the other changes in the
cardiovascular system that are associated with aging can be largely controlled through lifestyle.
Sexual response slows, but an active and satisfying sex life can continue for both men and women
throughout life.
85) Challenge the mind
Plan for social changes
Develop physical fitness
Eat wisely
Maintain a healthy body composition
Control drinking and overdependence on medications
Don't smoke
Recognize and reduce stress
86) When interacting with health care providers, you should be assertive in a firm but not aggressive manner.
Feel free to ask questions, express your concerns, and be persistent. Strategies for good communication
include the following:
Before the visit, make a written list of your questions and concerns; include notes about your symptoms.
Bring a list of all medications (prescription and non-prescription) you are taking, or bring them with you to
the office.
During the visit, present your major concerns at the beginning of the visit. Be specific and concise. Try to be
as open and honest as you can in sharing your thoughts, feelings, and fears. It is particularly important to be
truthful about your concerns so as to receive the best possible advice from your physician. If you're not sure
about something your physician has said, ask to go over it again. If appropriate, ask your physician to write
down her or his instructions or to recommend reading material.
At the end of the visit, in your own words, briefly state what you understood the physician to say about
your problem and what you're supposed to do. Make sure you understand what the next steps are.
11
Answer Key
87) Always read drug labels and follow directions.

Do not exceed the recommended dosage or length of treatment unless your physician approves.
Because over-the-counter drugs, prescription drugs, and herbal remedies can interact, let your physician or
pharmacist know before taking more than one type of drug or health remedy at the same time.
Select medications with one active ingredient rather than combination products. Using single-ingredient
products allows you to adjust the dosage of each medication separately for optimal symptom relief; you'll
also avoid potential side effects from drugs you don't really need.
Never take or give a drug from an unlabelled container or in the dark when you can't read the label.
If you are pregnant, are nursing, or have a chronic medical condition, consult your physician before
self-medicating.
Store medications in a safe place out of the reach of children; avoid locations where dampness or heat might
ruin them. Dispose of all expired medications.
Use special caution with aspirin. Because of an association with a rare but serious problem known as
Reye's syndrome, aspirin should not be used for children or adolescents who may have the flu, chicken
pox, or any other viral illness.
88) Ride your bike, walk, use public transportation, or carpool in a fuel-efficient vehicle instead of driving.
Keep your car tuned up and well maintained.
Make sure your residence is well insulated.
Use compact fluorescent light bulbs instead of incandescent bulbs to save energy.
Buy energy-efficient appliances and use them only when necessary.
Run the washing machine or dishwasher only when they have full loads.
Buy products with the least amount of packaging you can, or buy products in bulk. Avoid disposable
products. Buy recycled or recyclable products.
Recycle newspapers, glass, cans, paper, and other recyclable items.
Store food in glass jars and reusable plastic containers rather than plastic wrap.
Take your own bag along when you go shopping.
Dispose of household hazardous wastes according to instructions.
Take showers rather than baths to save water.
Install sink faucet aerators, water-efficient showerheads, and water-displacement devices in toilets.
Don't let the water run when you're brushing your teeth, shaving, or hand-washing clothes or dishes.
Buy products and services from environmentally responsible corporations. Don't buy products made from
endangered species.
Join or support organizations working on environmental causes.
Vote for political candidates who support environmentally sound practices. Communicate with your elected
representatives about environmental issues.
12
Answer Key
89) The gradual raising of the temperature of the lower atmosphere of the Earth is called the greenhouse
effect. Warming occurs as a result of the burning of fossil fuels, which releases "greenhouse gases."
Experts differ in their estimates of how much temperatures will rise in the near future but agree that
continuing temperature change could melt polar ice caps, raise the level of the sea, and change weather
patterns. The complete health implications of such an increase are not fully known. As consumers, we can
all participate in the reduction of global warming and the greenhouse effect by:
reducing waste, recycling, and using reusable products instead of disposables.

driving less (i.e., walk or bicycle) or driving smart, (i.e., hybrid vehicles, properly inflated tires)
using the 'off' switch on lights and electronics when they aren't in use
using less in the home (i.e., less heat, less air conditioning, less hot water) or buying energy-efficient
products.
13
Exam
Name___________________________________
1) Stress can result from either negative or positive situations. 1)
2) The parasympathetic nervous system is highly activated when stress is perceived. 2)
3) Endorphins are released during the fight-or-flight reaction to relieve pain in case of 3)
injury.
4) The fight-or-flight reaction occurs even if a physical response to a stressor is 4)

unnecessary.
5) Homeostasis describes a physiological state where all senses are on alert for potential 5)
danger.
6) Behavioural responses to stress are controlled by the somatic nervous system. 6)
7) People with a Type A personality tend to be stress-resistant. 7)
8) People who feel frequently rushed and angered have an increased risk for heart disease. 8)
9) Optimistic "hardy" personalities experience stress less often than those who see stressful 9)
situations as threatening.
10) Generally, women are able to deal with a disappointing break-up better than men. 10)
11) Past experiences can affect behavioural responses to a particular stressor. 11)
12) The physical, emotional, and behavioural symptoms of excess negative stress are distinct 12)
and are not interrelated.
13) Stress can trigger positive or negative reactions. 13)
14) Learning a new hobby is an example of eustress. 14)
15) The alarm stage of general adaptation syndrome (GAS) is controlled by the 15)
parasympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system.
16) Cortisol is a hormone that offers some artery protection against stress. 16)
17) Allowing stress to accumulate can increase one's risk of catching a cold. 17)
1
18) The study of
the interactions among the nervous system, the endocrine system, and the 18)
immune system is commonly referred to as endocrinology.
19) Increased levels of stress hormones are linked to a decreased number of immune system 19)
cells, or lymphocytes.
20) Uncontrolledstress may lead to menstrual irregularities, impotence, and pregnancy 20)
complications.
21) Stress is a possible cause or trigger of both tension headaches and migraines. 21)
22) George has recently gone through a divorce, and his psychologist indicates that this may 22)
be significant cause for stress.
23) Peoplewho perceive hassles negatively are likely to experience no stress response every 23)
time they are faced with one.
24) Formany university students, life isn't possible without a job, and the pressure to stay 24)
afloat financially competes with academic and other stressors.
25) Academic stressors are not recognized as a source of stress in university students. 25)
26) Recent Canadian surveys indicate that one's job can be a significant source of stress. 26)
27) The community and society you live in usually provides support and comfort and is not a 27)
source of stress.
28) Some reports indicate that loud noises and unpleasant smells can be a significant source 28)
of stress.
29) Certain foods can alleviate stress but only for a short time. 29)
30) Those who exercise regularly have a milder physical stress response than those who don't 30)
exercise regularly.
31) Caffeine consumption is associated with lower levels of cortisol. 31)
32) Researchers have found that people who exercise regularly react with milder physical 32)
stress responses before, during, and after exposure to stressors.
33) Eating wisely will not have an effect on feelings of self-control and self-esteem. 33)
34) Volunteering in one's community can promote spiritual wellness. 34)
2
35) In general, single people are healthier than married people. 35)
36) Giving general feedback means acknowledging that the friend's or partner's feelings are 36)
valid
37) Negotiation will help dissipate the anger, and, thereby, the given conflict can be 37)
resolved.
38) Spiritual wellness is associated with greater coping skills and higher levels of physical 38)
abilities.
39) After making alist of 20 things that have to be done within two days, a time 39)
management strategy would recommend that you do all of the little things first to feel a
sense of accomplishment.
40) When adhering to time management techniques, it is recommended that you not go for 40)
your workout until 50% of your tasks have been completed.
41) Expecting perfection and expecting the worst are both examples of cognitive distortions 41)
associated with negative self-talk.
42) Spiritual practices or relaxation techniques like yoga can elicit the relaxation response. 42)
43) Hypnosis is a technique that induces sleep. 43)
44) A person can learn to lower heart rate and blood pressure when stress increases it. 44)
45) Peer counselling and support groups are sources of getting help for stress management. 45)
46) Support groups are typically organized around a particular issue or problem. 46)
47) Itis important to diagnose if a problem is causing stress, or if the problem is more 47)
serious than that (e.g. depression or suicidal tendencies).
48) All people suffering from depression usually cry a lot. 48)
49) Lossof interest of pleasure in performing usual activities is observed to be a common 49)
symptom in most individuals suffering from depression.
50) Poor appetite, restlessness or fatigue, pervasive feelings of sadness, and hopelessness are 50)
classic symptoms of stress.
3
51) Stressis an important component of which two dimensions of wellness? 51)

A) Intellectual and environmental B) Physical and environmental
C) Social and emotional D) Emotional and physical
52) Which of the following is an example of a stressor? 52)

A) Sweaty palms B) Getting a flat tire
C) Release of endorphins D) Flushed face
53) The term stressor is best defined as: 53)

A) any physical or psychological event that produces stress.
B) the nonspecific response of the body to any demand.
C) the physical and emotional changes associated with stress.
D) an unpleasant stress state believed to cause illness.
54) Which of the following describes a stress response? 54)

A) Performing a dance in front of a critical audience
B) Making a plan to do better on a term paper that you received a low grade on
C) Inability to sleep before graduation day
D) Meeting your partner's parents for the first time
55) Stressis best defined as: 55)

A) a physical response to an unpleasant event.
B) the general, physical, and emotional state associated with the stress response.
C) perception of one's circumstances.
D) adaptation to an event, perceived or real.
56) The parasympathetic division is best defined as: 56)

A) a division of the autonomic nervous system that reacts to danger or other challenges
by almost instantly putting the body processes into high gear.
B) a part of the brain that activates, controls, and integrates autonomic mechanisms,
endocrine activities, and many other bodily functions.
C) a division of the autonomic nervous system that moderates the excitatory effect of
the sympathetic system, slowing metabolism and restoring energy supplies.
D) the branch of the peripheral nervous system that governs motor functions and
sensory information; it is largely under conscious control.
4
57) The sympathetic division is best defined as: 57)
A) a division of the autonomic nervous system that reacts to danger or other challenges
by almost instantly putting the body processes in high gear.
B) a part of the brain that activates, controls, and integrates autonomic mechanisms,
endocrine activities, and many other bodily functions.
C) a division of the autonomic nervous system that moderates the excitatory effect of
the parasympathetic system, slowing metabolism and restoring energy supplies.
D) the branch of the peripheral nervous system that governs motor functions and
sensory information; it is largely under conscious control.
58) Your flight to a small community in Newfoundland and Labrador experiences 58)
turbulence. The lights flash on and off, the wings dip suddenly, and there is a sudden
drop in pressure. Which of the following statements describes a possible autonomic
nervous system response to that situation?
A) Chemicals are released to help you become more alert and prepared for an
emergency.
B) Cortisol is released to calm you.
C) Blood pressure drops and heart rate increases.
D) There is an adaptive energy response.
59) Which of the following is responsible for releasing cortisol? 59)

A) Adrenal gland B) Pituitary gland
C) Skin D) Liver
60) Which of the following best describes the endocrine system? 60)
A) It affects body functions through the release of hormones.
B) It controls body functions through effective responses.
C) It is a combination of autonomic and somatic nerves.
D) It is a combination of sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves.
61) Homeostasis is defined as a state in which: 61)

A) vital functions of the body are increased.
B) vital functions of the body are maintained at a normal level.
C) vital functions of the body are decreased.
D) some body functions increase while others decrease.
62) During a
fight or flight reaction, the following organ becomes less active. 62)
A) Heart B) Adrenal gland C) Stomach D) Liver
63) Which of the following describes a cognitive appraisal for reducing the stress of exams? 63)
A) Renting funny movies
B) Exercise
C) Talking with friends to put your reactions to the stress in perspective
D) Getting angry at yourself for being stressed
5
64) Which of the following is an example of an effective response to stress? 64)
A) Avoiding it all together
B) Having a few drinks to relax
C) Working out for at least two hours
D) Learning new skills for positive thinking and calming yourself
65) Making a choice to go for a walk to cope with stress is controlled by which of the 65)
following nervous systems?
A) Autonomic B) Sympathetic
C) Parasympathetic D) Somatic
66) Which term best fits a Type A personality? 66)

A) Patient B) Relaxed C) Cynical D) Passive
67) How might someone with Type B behaviour react to being challenged in a running race? 67)
A) Take on the challenge with determination
B) Consider it for a time convenient for them both
C) Tell the friend off for such a foolish idea
D) Agree to the race only if he/she can set all of the rules (not trusting)
68) Which of the following characteristics is most closely associated with elevated risk of 68)
cardiovascular disease?
A) Hostility B) Excitability
C) Lack of purpose D) Procrastination
69) Twenty-year-old William has just lost his best friend in an accident involving a drunk 69)
driver. He becomes very quiet and has no visible reaction. In fact, he goes to a movie
with his friend and seems to be complacent. Which personality type best describes
William?
A) Type A B) Type B C) Type C D) Hardy
70) How would a person with a "hardy" personality react to having two exams on the same 70)
day?
A) They wouldn'tcare.
B) They would be moody and would probably sink into depression.
C) They would get angry at the university for its scheduling.
D) They would see it as getting two exams over early and going home quicker.
71) Lia
has a "hardy" personality. How is she likely to react or respond to a stressor? 71)
A) Lia will have an exaggerated stress response
B) Lia will view the stressor in a relaxed and contemplative way
C) Lia will feel hopeless and doesn't think she can handle the situation
D) Lia will view the stressor as a challenge and an opportunity to learn
6
72) Insome situations, people have intense responses to stressors or adopt ineffective coping 72)
techniques that they need _____ to overcome the stress in their lives.
A) professional help B) caffeine
C) food D) self
73) Hans Selye theorized that stress: 73)

A) is always unpleasant. B) can be either eustress or distress.
C) follows a very unpredictable pattern. D) is unrelated to disease.
74) The normal progression for the general adaptation syndrome is: 74)
A) alarm, exhaustion, and resistance. B) exhaustion, alarm, and resistance.
C) resistance, exhaustion, and alarm D) alarm, resistance, and exhaustion.
75) The fight-or-flight response occurs during the stage of the general adaptation syndrome 75)
known as:
A) resistance. B) alarm. C) recovery. D) exhaustion.
76) Anew level of homeostasis occurs during the _____ stage of the general adaptation 76)
syndrome.
A) alarm B) exhaustion C) fight-or-flight D) resistance
77) Tom is very anxious about an upcoming interview. He has no appetite, is easily 77)
distracted, and has a headache. What stage of GAS is Tom in?
A) Alarm B) Acceleration C) Resistance D) Exhaustion
78) The long-term wear and tear of the stress response is known as: 78)
A) eustress. B) distress.
C) homeostasis. D) allostatic load.
79) A(n) _____ allostatic load may be due to frequent stressors, poor adaptation to common 79)
stressors, an inability to shut down the stress response, or imbalances in the stress
response of different body systems.
A) constant B) low
C) high D) extremely low
80) Psychoneuroimmunology is an interaction of: 80)

A) the nervous, endocrine, and immune systems.
B) psychology and immunology.
C) neuroanatomy and immunology.
D) the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.
7
81) A good strategy for overcoming insomnia is to: 81)
A) sleep in on weekends.
B) not eat a meal or snack for at least 2 hours before bedtime.
C) drink an alcoholic beverage at bedtime to help you relax.
D) use your bed only for sleeping and not for eating, reading, or watching television.
82) Chronic stress may increase risk for cardiovascular disease by increasing blood pressure. 82)
Why is high blood pressure a risk for heart disease?
A) It increases HDL levels.
B) It decreases LDL levels.
C) It increases your chance of getting diabetes.
D) It damages blood vessels.
83) Which of the following is NOT characterized as a common source of stress? 83)
A) Major life changes B) Post-traumatic stress disorder
C) Life's daily hassles D) Job-related stressors.
84) Job promotion and marriage are excellent examples of _____. 84)
A) eustress B) distress
C) depression D) financial concerns
85) Which of the following is NOT identified as a stressor for a university student? 85)
A) Grades B) Time management
C) Friends D) Worries about the future
86) _____% of Canadians rate their jobs as a key source of stress in their lives. 86)
A) 30 B) 40 C) 50 D) 60
87) Ifjob-related or education-related stress is severe or chronic, the result can be a _____, 87)
or a state of physical, mental, and emotional exhaustion.
A) burnout B) depression C) eustress D) distress
88) Friendships are often more stable and longer lasting than _____. 88)
A) intimate partnerships B) acquaintances
C) colleagues D) classmates
89) Which of the following is NOT a counterproductive strategy to cope with stress? 89)
A) Use of tobacco B) Use of alcohol
C) Use of exercise D) Use of food
8
90) Which of the following statements about regular exercise and its ability to help manage 90)
stress is FALSE?
A) Exercise enhances one's sense of general well-being.
B) Exercise reduces energy levels.
C) Exercise reduces anxiety levels.
D) Exercise decreases tension.
91) When dealing with stress, compulsive exercise can do all of the following, EXCEPT: 91)
A) strengthen your immune system.
B) lead to depression and irritability.
C) lead to fatigue and diminished performance.
D) become an additional stressor.
92) Which of the following foods should be decreased to help you manage stress a little 92)
better?
A) Fruit B) Vegetables C) Milk products D) Coffee
93) A good nutritional strategy for coping with stress is to: 93)
A) consume 4-5 alcoholic drinks. B) avoiding or limiting caffeine intake.
C) consuming chips to reduce stress. D) consuming steak or pork roast.
94) Which of the following is a factor that does NOT improve with good sleep? 94)
A) Mood B) Feelings of competence
C) Time management D) Mental functioning
95) _____involves revealing personal information that we ordinarily wouldn't reveal 95)
because of the risk involved.
A) Self-esteem B) Self-efficacy
C) Self-determination D) Self-disclosure
96) Which of the following is NOT an ideal basic strategy that is useful for successfully 96)
negotiating with a friend, family member, colleague, or intimate partner?
A) Clarifying the issue
B) Finding out what the other person wants
C) Determining how both persons can get what they want
D) Deciding how to negotiate
97) Researchers have linked _____ wellness to longer life expectancy, reduced risk of 97)
disease and faster recovery, and improved emotional health.
A) spiritual B) emotional C) physical D) physiological
9
98) Keeping a _____ is like confiding in someone else, except that you are confiding in 98)
yourself.
A) psychologist B) psychotherapist
C) psychiatrist D) diary
99) Someone working two jobs, taking a full load of courses, and playing on a sport team 99)
can use time management techniques to lower stress. The first thing he/she should do is:
A) set goals and write action steps.
B) give up the two jobs or quit the team.
C) establish priorities and focus on the first one or two.
D) lower his or her standard for performance.
100) Which of the following is recommended by your text as a time-management strategy? 100)
A) Focus on long-term goals
B) Schedule tasks for peak efficiency
C) Work on pleasant tasks first
D) Work on one task at a time rather than consolidating tasks
101) Which of the following describes a transitional task? 101)

A) Getting your abdominal workout during commercials of your favourite show
B) Alternating large tasks with short tasks
C) Completing two tasks at the same time
D) Doing all of the small tasks first to feel like you have accomplished a lot
102) Which of the following is a cognitive thought pattern for reducing a negative view of 102)
your size?
A) Therapy to change your personality
B) Replacing negative thoughts with positive thoughts
C) Behaviour modification through psychoanalysis
D) Assertiveness training
103) A cognitive technique for managing stress is to: 103)

A) have a drink.
B) take time out to read humorous comics and things that make you laugh.
C) exercise.
D) have a cooling off period.
104) Which of the following describes a relaxation response? 104)

A) Attending a hockey game B) Catching up on studying
C) Consolidate tasks when possible D) Taking a hot bath
105) All of the following occur during the relaxation response EXCEPT: 105)
A) decreased heart rate. B) increased blood flow to the brain.
C) decreased breathing rate. D) increased blood flow to the muscles.
10
106) The relaxation technique that directly addresses muscle tension is: 106)
A) progressive relaxation. B) visualization.
C) meditation. D) controlled breathing.
107) Progressive relaxation is best described as: 107)

A) a cognitive exercise.
B) a form of intellectual development.
C) an activity alternating muscle tension and relaxation.
D) a specialized form of cardiorespiratory endurance training.
108) Which of the following statements is an example of negative self-talk? 108)

A) "I wonder why my boss wants to see me. I guess I'll just have to wait and see."
B) "I'll have to start working on my next paper earlier so that I can do a better job."
C) "I won the speech contest, but only because none of the other speakers was very
good."
D) "Too bad I missed that one problem through carelessness, but overall I did pretty
well on this test."
109) The relaxation technique that asks the person to identify all the perceptible qualities of a 109)
relaxing environment is:
A) progressive relaxation. B) visualization.
C) meditation. D) controlled breathing.
110) Figure skaters who practice visualization do this to help focus on their performance. 110)
A) Listen to music
B) Look at videos of past successful performances
C) Close their eyes and see themselves executing a flawless performance
D) Refrain from talking to anyone else before the competition
111) _____ helps people reduce their response to stress by enabling them to become more 111)
aware of their level of physiological arousal.
A) Behaviour therapy B) Cognitive behaviour training
C) Biofeedback D) Yoga
112) Which sport requires the athlete to have strong biofeedback skills? 112)
A) Softball B) Biathlon C) Sprinting D) Boxing
113) Peer counselling, often available through the student health centre or counselling centre, 113)
is usually staffed by people with special training that emphasizes maintaining _____.
A) confidentiality B) persuasion
C) suppression D) sustainability
11
114) Peer counsellors can steer those seeking help to appropriate campus and community 114)
resources or just offer _____.
A) behaviour therapy B) cognitive behaviour training
C) parasympathetic listening D) sympathetic listening
115) Which of the following is FALSE with regards to getting help for stress management? 115)
A) Peer counselling is an excellent tool for stress management.
B) Support groups have a significant role in stress management.
C) Psychotherapy may not be the ideal tool for stress management.
D) Psychological counselling may aid in stress management.
116) All of the following are problems that require professional help with stress management, 116)
EXCEPT:
A) depression.
B) pessimism and low energy.
C) Suicidal tendencies
D) hallucinations, delusions, and incoherent speech.
117) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of depression? 117)

A) Positive self-concept
B) Pervasive feelings of sadness and hopelessness
C) Loss of pleasure in usual activities
D) Insomnia or disturbed sleep
118) Which of the following statements about depression and suicide is FALSE? 118)
A) Severe depression is linked to suicide.
B) A sudden lightening of mood in a depressed person indicates that the danger of
suicide has passed.
C) Treatments for depression are widely available and highly effective.
D) Talking about suicide and about contemplated methods of suicide is a warning sign
of suicide.
119) A(n) ____________________ is any physical or psychological event or condition 119)

that produces physical and emotional reactions.
120) ____________________ is a state of stability and consistency in a person's 120)

physiological functioning.
121) The long-term wear and tear of the stress response is called the 121)
____________________.
12
122) ____________________ is the study of the interactions between the nervous 122)
system, the endocrine system, and the immune system.
123) ____________________ is an example for major life change leading to 123)

significant eustress.
124) Exams, grades, and an endless workload are commonly referred to as 124)
____________________ stressors.
125) A(n) ____________________ person experiences headaches, feels irritable, is 125)

unable to concentrate, and is more prone to forgetfulness.
126) The ___________________ response is a physiological state characterized by a 126)

feeling of warmth and quiet mental alertness.
127) ____________________ is a mood disorder characterized by loss of interest, 127)

sadness, hopelessness, loss of appetite, disturbed sleep, and other physical
symptoms.
128) What are the various personality types? How does each of them relate to stress? 128)
129) What are the three stages of general adaptation syndrome? Describe. 129)
130) Identify a few of the most common health problems that are related to 130)
uncontrolled long-term stress.
131) What are the most commonly identified stressors in a university student's life? 131)
132) What are the various ways to overcome stressors that arise from poor time 132)
management in a university student's life?
133) What are the various relaxation techniques utilized in reducing stress? Explain 133)
each of them in detail with an example.
134) How do peer counselling and support groups help in alleviating stress? 134)
135) What are the various signs and symptoms identified with depression in your 135)
textbook?
13
Answer Key
1) TRUE
2) FALSE
3) TRUE
4) TRUE
5) FALSE
6) TRUE
7) FALSE
8) TRUE
9) TRUE
10) TRUE
11) TRUE
12) FALSE
13) TRUE
14) TRUE
15) FALSE
16) FALSE
17) TRUE
18) FALSE
19) TRUE
20) TRUE
21) TRUE
22) TRUE
23) FALSE
24) TRUE
25) FALSE
26) TRUE
27) FALSE
28) TRUE
29) TRUE
30) TRUE
31) FALSE
32) TRUE
33) FALSE
34) TRUE
35) FALSE
36) FALSE
37) TRUE
38) FALSE
39) FALSE
40) FALSE
41) TRUE
42) TRUE
43) FALSE
44) TRUE
45) TRUE
46) TRUE
47) TRUE
48) FALSE
49) TRUE
50) FALSE
14
Answer Key
51) D
52) B
53) A
54) C
55) B
56) C
57) A
58) A
59) A
60) A
61) B
62) C
63) C
64) D
65) D
66) C
67) B
68) A
69) C
70) D
71) D
72) A
73) B
74) D
75) B
76) D
77) A
78) D
79) C
80) A
81) D
82) D
83) B
84) A
85) C
86) A
87) A
88) A
89) C
90) B
91) A
92) D
93) B
94) C
95) D
96) B
97) A
98) D
99) C
100) B
15
Answer Key
101) A
102) B
103) B
104) D
105) D
106) A
107) C
108) C
109) B
110) C
111) C
112) B
113) A
114) D
115) C
116) B
117) A
118) B
119) stressor
120) Homeostasis
121) allostatic load
122) Psychoneuroimmunology
123) Marriage, Graduation (answers may vary)
124) academic
125) sleep-deprived
126) relaxation
127) Depression
128) Type A. People with Type A personality are often described as ultracompetitive, controlling, impatient,
aggressive, and even hostile.
Type A people have a higher perceived stress level and more problems coping with stress.
They react explosively to stressors and are upset by events that others would consider only annoyances.
Studies indicate that certain characteristics of the Type A pattern-anger, cynicism, and hostility-increase the
risk of heart disease.
Type B. The Type B personality is relaxed and contemplative.
Type B people are less frustrated by daily events and more tolerant of the behavior of others.
Type C. The Type C personality is characterized by difficulty expressing emotions, anger suppression,
feelings of hopelessness and despair, and an exaggerated stress response to minor cognitive stressors.
This heightened response may be related to impaired immune functions.
16
Answer Key
129) In the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) theory, stress triggered by a pleasant stressor is known as
eustress and stress triggered by an unpleasant stressor is known as distress. The sequence of physical
responses associated with GAS is the same for both eustress and distress and occurs in three stages:
Alarm. The alarm stage includes the complex sequence of events brought on by the fight-or-flight reaction.
During this stage, the body is more susceptible to disease or injury because it is geared up to deal with a
crisis. Someone in this phase may experience headaches, indigestion, anxiety, and disrupted sleeping and
eating patterns.
Resistance. With continued stress, the body develops a new level of homeostasis in which it is more resistant
to disease and injury than normal.
During this stage, a person can cope with normal life and added stress.
Exhaustion. The first two stages of GAS require a great deal of energy.
If a stressor persists, or if several stressors occur in succession, general exhaustion results.

This is not the sort of exhaustion people complain of after a long, busy day. Rather it's a life threatening type
of physiological exhaustion.
130) Digestive problems
Tension headaches & migraine
Insomnia and fatigue
Menstrual irregularities
Depressions
PTSD
Cardiovascular disease
Poor immune system
131) Academic stressors
Interpersonal stressors
Time pressures
Financial concerns
Worries about the future
17
Answer Key
132) Set priorities.

Schedule tasks for peak efficiency.
Set-realistic goals, and write them down.
Budget enough time for all activities appropriately.
Break-up long-term goals into short-term goals.
Keep track of the tasks you put off.
Consider doing your least favorite tasks first.
Consolidate tasks when possible.
Identify quick transitional tasks.
Delegate responsibility.
Say no when necessary.
Give yourself a breath.
Avoid your personal "time sinks."
Stop thinking or talking about what you are going to do, and just do it.
133) Answers may vary
Progressive relaxation
Visualization
Deep breathing
Listening to music
Biofeedback
134) If you still feel overwhelmed despite efforts to manage your stress, you may want to seek outside help.
Peer counselling, often available through the student health centre or counselling centre, is usually staffed by
people with special training that emphasizes maintaining confidentiality.
Peer counselors can steer those seeking help to appropriate campus and community resources or just offer
sympathetic listening.
Support groups are typically organized around a particular issue or problem: all the group members might be
entering a new school, re-entering school after an interruption, struggling with single parenting, experiencing
eating disorders, or coping with a particular kind of trauma.
Simply voicing concerns that others share can relieve stress.
135) Negative self-concept
Pervasive feelings of sadness and hopelessness
Loss of pleasure in usual activities
Poor appetite and weight loss
Insomnia or disturbed sleep
Restlessness or fatigue
Thoughts of worthlessness and guilt
Trouble concentrating or making decisions
Thoughts of death or suicide
18
Exam
Name___________________________________
1) Intoxication is the use of a substance over a long period of time. 1)
2) Recurrent drug use in situations in which it is physically hazardous is a symptom of drug 2)

dependence but not drug abuse.
3) A common characteristic of an addiction is that the affected person will require more and 3)
more of the substance or behaviour to produce the desired effect.
4) Exercise, eating, and working can all become addictive behaviours. 4)
5) Physical tolerance is a situation in which the body adapts to a drug so that the initial dose 5)
no longer produces the same emotional or psychological effects.
6) An addiction often starts when a person does something to bring pleasure or avoid pain. 6)
7) Although many common behaviours are potentially addictive, most people who engage 7)
in them don't develop an addiction.
8) Risk for addiction does not depend on factors such as personality, lifestyle, heredity, the 8)
social and physical environment, and the nature of the substance or behaviour in
question.
9) Genetic factors do not play a role in risk for addiction. 9)
10) Compulsive gamblers can resist the urge to gamble when faced with financial or personal 10)
ruin.
11) Compulsive buying and browsing the internet has the potential to develop into an 11)
addiction.
12) Psychoactive drugs include only illegal drug compounds. 12)
13) Drug use and abuse happens only with those from the low socio-economic standards 13)
accompanied by poor education.
14) Many over-the-counter medications contain drugs that can alter moods or reactions. 14)
15) Characteristics that place people at higher-than-average risk of trying illegal drugs 15)
include being male, young, a troubled adolescent, and a thrill-seeker.
1
16) The relapse rate is usually low for all types of addiction related treatment. 16)
17) The best solution to drug misuse is prevention. 17)
18) Use of methamphetamine can damage brain cells. 18)
19) MDMA is classified as an opioid. 19)
20) Only 29% of Canadians over age 15 drink alcohol in some form. 20)
21) Alcohol seems to affect different people in different ways. 21)
22) Methyl alcohol is the psychoactive ingredient in all alcoholic beverages. 22)
23) When consumed, alcohol is only absorbed into the blood-stream from the small intestine. 23)
24) The human body can metabolize approximately half a drink per hour. 24)
25) Awoman will have a higher blood alcohol content (BAC) level than a man after 25)
consuming the same amount of alcohol.
26) Alcohol use contributes to over 50% of all murders, assaults, and rapes. 26)
27) A person with a blood alcohol content (BAC) of 0.08% is considered legally drunk. 27)
28) Recurrent use of drugs can be classified as substance abuse. 28)
29) Alcohol is a known human carcinogen. 29)
30) Cirrhosis involves the destruction of digestive enzymes. 30)
31) Childrenwith alcohol-related neurodevelopmental disorders are at an increased risk of 31)

substance abuse problems in later life.
32) Alcohol abuse is the leading cause of preventable death in Canada. 32)
33) Drinking patterns

that result in academic, professional, interpersonal, or legal difficulties 33)
are common examples of alcohol misuse or abuse.
34) More than 40% of college students binge drink. 34)
35) College
students who are binge drinkers affect nondrinking students as well as 35)
themselves.
2
36) Binge drinking among college students is linked to poorer academic performance. 36)
37) The lifetime risk of alcoholism in Canada is about 10% for women and 3% for men. 37)
38) Symptoms such as trembling hands, a rapid pulse and breathing rate, insomnia, 38)
nightmares, anxiety, and gastrointestinal upset can occur with alcohol withdrawal.
39) Some alcoholics recover without professional help. 39)
40) The responsible use of

alcohol means drinking in a way that keeps your blood alcohol 40)
content (BAC) low and your behaviour under control.
41) Smoking is considered to be one of the leading preventable causes of illness and death in 41)
Canada.
42) Every cigarette a person smokes reduces life expectancy by about 30 minutes. 42)
43) Addiction to tobacco results from the dependence on nicotine. 43)
44) Nicotine addiction is not as prevalent in spit tobacco users as in smokers. 44)
45) Low-tar and low-nicotine cigarettes do not deliver dangerous doses of chemicals as 45)
regular cigarettes do.
46) On average, smokers live 10-15 years longer than non-smokers. 46)
47) Clove cigarettes contain almost half as much tar, nicotine, and carbon monoxide as 47)
conventional cigarettes.
48) Undilutedsidestream smoke contains higher concentrations of toxic compounds than 48)
mainstream smoke.
49) Itis estimated that as many as 1000 Canadians die from coronary heart disease caused by 49)
environmental tobacco smoke (ETS) each year.
50) Low birth weight is not linked to maternal smoking. 50)
51) Babies born to mothers who smoke more than two packs a day perform poorly on 51)
developmental tests in the first hours after birth when compared with babies of
non-smoking mothers.
52) Quitting smoking is a single event, not an ongoing process. 52)
3
53) Exercise can contribute to the success of one's efforts to stop smoking. 53)
54) A psychoactive drug is one that: 54)

A) increases the rate of physiological functions.
B) alters a person's state of mind or consciousness.
C) affects only the brain and nerve cells.
D) is available only with a medical prescription.
55) Ashy person who drinks several alcoholic beverages at a party and becomes very loud 55)
and social is experiencing the effects of alcohol:
A) abuse. B) tolerance. C) dependence. D) intoxication.
56) Common addictive behaviours include: 56)

A) internet addiction. B) compulsive gambling.
C) compulsive buying. D) all of these
57) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic associated with an addictive behaviour? 57)
A) Reinforcement B) Compulsion or craving
C) Improved control D) Negative consequences
58) Recurrent drug use in situations in which it is physically hazardous, such as before 58)
driving a car, is an example of:
A) drug abuse. B) drug dependence.
C) drug tolerance. D) drug addiction.
59) A contemporary term for what many formerly associated with the idea of addiction is: 59)
A) dependence. B) intoxication. C) abuse. D) misuse.
60) Requiring more of a substance to get the same desired effect is called: 60)
A) withdrawal. B) tolerance. C) adjustment. D) dependence.
61) A characteristic that indicates drug dependence is: 61)

A) coping. B) withdrawal.
C) anxiety. D) genetic predisposition.
62) An addiction often starts when a person does something to bring pleasure or _____. 62)
A) avoid pleasure B) avoid addiction
C) avoid happiness D) avoid pain
63) Which of the following is NOT identified as a potential risk factor for addiction? 63)
A) Personality B) Economic status
C) Heredity D) Physical environment
4
64) Which of the following statements about compulsive gamblers is FALSE? 64)
A) They have a very low rate of suicide.
B) They cannot resist the urge to gamble.
C) They seek excitement more than money.
D) They often have problems with substance abuse.
65) Risksfor addiction depend on a combination of factors including: 65)

A) personality and lifestyle.
B) personality, lifestyle, and heredity.
C) personality, lifestyle, heredity, and the nature of the substance or behaviour in
question.
D) personality, lifestyle, heredity, the social and physical environment, and the nature
of the substance or behaviour in question.
66) All
of the following are legally available psychoactive drugs EXCEPT: 66)
A) caffeine. B) alcohol. C) heroin. D) tobacco.
67) Which of the following would NOT be considered a psychoactive drug? 67)
A) Caffeine B) Heroin C) Alcohol D) Aspirin
68) Drug use and abuse occurs at all _____ levels 68)
A) income and education B) income and status
C) status and societal D) societal and income
69) Allof the following are characteristics of people that place them at higher-than-average 69)
risk for addiction, EXCEPT:
A) young. B) female.
C) troubled adolescent. D) thrill-seeker.
70) Which of the following is NOT a group that provides a treatment program for drug 70)
addiction?
A) Drug treatment centres B) Self-help groups
C) Peer counselling D) Drug clubs
71) Identify a
signal that does NOT indicate drug misuse. 71)
A) Sudden withdrawal or emotional distance
B) Enjoying life and being productive
C) Decline in school performance
D) Changes in sleeping or eating habits
5
72) Which of the following statements about MDMA is TRUE? 72)
A) It causes sedation and relaxation.
B) It may cause persistent memory problems.
C) It lowers core body temperature.
D) It belongs to the same class of drugs as heroin.
73) Which of the following statements about GHB is FALSE? 73)

A) It is a CNS depressant causing sedation.
B) It leads to physical dependence.
C) Most forms sold are high-grade and pure.
D) It is used as a date rape drug.
74) _____ is a veterinary anesthetic that can be taken in powdered or liquid form, and may 74)
cause hallucinations and impaired attention and memory.
A) Heroine B) Cocaine C) LSD D) Ketamine
75) _____ is the psychoactive ingredient in all alcoholic beverages. 75)

A) Ethyl alcohol B) Methyl alcohol
C) Propyl alcohol D) Sugar alcohol
76) One drink refers to _____-ounce bottle of beer. 76)

A) 12 B) 24 C) 36 D) 48
77) The psychoactive ingredient in alcoholic beverages is: 77)

A) rohypnol. B) ethyl alcohol.
C) codeine. D) chloral hydrate.
78) A standard drink contains about _____ of alcohol. 78)

A) 0.6 ounce B) 1 ounce C) 1.5 ounces D) 2 ounces
79) The alcohol concentration of a beverage that is 100 proof is: 79)
A) 200%. B) 100%. C) 50%. D) 10%.
80) Alcohol is transformed into energy and other products in the: 80)
A) stomach. B) small intestine.
C) pancreas. D) liver.
81) The approximate amount of alcohol that the body can metabolize in 1 hour is: 81)
A) 1/2 of a beer or drink. B) 1 beer or drink.
C) 1-1/2 beers or drinks. D) 2 beers or drinks.
82) Alcohol does NOT have the following effects on the body. 82)
A) increased flushing and sweating. B) enhanced sexual functioning.
C) disturbed sleep patterns. D) decreased motor coordination.
6
83) Peopleare considered legally drunk when their blood alcohol content (BAC) is: 83)
A) 0.08%. B) 0.10%. C) 0.15%. D) 0.20%.
84) Which of the following is NOT associated with chronic use of alcohol? 84)
A) paranoia B) low blood pressure
C) diabetes D) liver cancer
85) Compared to non-abusers of alcohol, the average life span of an alcohol abuser is _____ 85)
years shorter.
A) 2 B) 7 C) 9 D) 15
86) Which of the following is associated with cirrhosis? 86)

A) Accelerated liver function
B) Increased metabolism of alcohol
C) Replacement of liver cells with fibrous scar tissue
D) Destruction of digestive enzymes
87) Alcohol is not related to which of the following types of cancer? 87)
A) Oral B) Stomach C) Pancreatic D) colon cancer
88) The effectsof fetal alcohol syndrome are: 88)

A) due to large birth weight of affected babies.
B) both physical and mental impairments.
C) estimated to be found in 1 in every 10, 000 live births.
D) usually reversed by the time the child is 5 years old
89) Which of the following is NOT a major warning sign for alcohol abuse? 89)
A) drinking with a group of people
B) drinking before driving
C) drinking in the morning
D) drinking more frequently than in the past
90) Which problem is a binge drinker LEAST likely to encounter? 90)

A) Engaging in unplanned sex
B) Having a self-image as a problem drinker
C) Driving while intoxicated
D) Getting hurt or injured
91) Negativeconsequences associated with binge drinking don't include: 91)

A) poor academic performance. B) violence.
C) engaging in unplanned sex. D) Improved social skills
7
92) Which of the following statements about treatments for alcoholism is TRUE? 92)
A) All alcoholics can be treated successfully.
B) Lifestyle management is one form of treatment.
C) The majority of alcoholics recover on their own.
D) Nearly all treatment programs focus on chemical substitutes.
93) Which of the following does NOT represent responsible drinking behaviour? 93)
A) Not eating before you drink
B) Drinking slowly
C) Spacing your drinks
D) Keeping your behaviour under your control
94) All
of the following are factors that encourage responsible drinking in others, EXCEPT: 94)
A) expressing disapproval about someone who has drunk too much.
B) serving lots of nonalcoholic choices at parties.
C) pardoning unacceptable behaviour.
D) insisting that a guest who drank too much take a taxi.
95) The predominant psychoactive drug in tobacco is: 95)

A) ethanol. B) nicotine.
C) carbon monoxide. D) formaldehyde.
96) The hazardous substance in automobile exhaust that is present in high concentrations in 96)
tobacco smoke is:
A) nicotine. B) tar.
C) hydrogen cyanide. D) carbon monoxide.
97) Which one of the following is a major health hazard associated with tobacco use? 97)
A) Low blood pressure B) Skin rashes
C) Emphysema D) Late menopause
98) Clove cigarettes: 98)

A) are rolled in ebony leaves.
B) contain twice as much tar, nicotine, and carbon monoxide as regular cigarettes.
C) contain less tar and nicotine than regular cigarettes.
D) have a tart taste that irritates the mouth.
99) Spit
tobacco use: 99)
A) does not cause nicotine addiction.
B) may increase the incidence of cheek cancer by 10 times.
C) is linked to respiratory injuries.
D) carries an increased risk of oral cancer.
8
100) Environmental tobacco smoke contains: 100)
A) second-hand smoke and sidestream smoke.
B) sidestream smoke and mainstream smoke.
C) mainstream smoke and second-hand smoke.
D) sidestream, mainstream, and second-hand smoke.
101) People who are most severely affected by exposure to environmental tobacco smoke 101)
(ETS) are
A) young men. B) women over 40.
C) men over 40. D) children.
102) Effects of environmental tobacco smoke (ETS) on children are: 102)

A) often related to the respiratory system.
B) minimal.
C) temporary.
D) dependent on the gender of the child.
103) Which of the following is NOT associated with smoking during pregnancy? 103)
A) Higher rates of premature delivery
B) Higher rates of short attention spans in affected children
C) Higher rates of low activity levels in affected children
D) Higher rates of sudden infant death syndrome
104) A person who quits smoking will NOT experience: 104)

A) enhanced ability to taste. B) decreased blood oxygen level.
C) improved circulation. D) decreased sinus congestion.
105) Which of the following is NOT a recommended strategy to stop smoking? 105)
A) Keep your goal to yourself so that others won't know if you fail.
B) Use relaxation techniques when you have a craving.
C) Keep track of your urges to smoke in a health journal.
D) Practice time management so that you don't feel overwhelmed.
106) Which of the following behavioural factors has been found to increase the chances of a 106)
smoker's permanently quitting?
A) Eating more snacks
B) Exercising regularly
C) Scheduling regular visits to the dentist
D) Consuming alcohol
107) _______________ is lower sensitivity to a drug so that a given dose no longer 107)
exerts the usual effect and larger doses are needed.
9
108) _____________________ is psychological or physical dependence on a 108)
substance or behaviour, characterized by a compulsive desire and increasing need
for the substance or behaviour.
109) A(n) _______________ drug is one that can alter a person's consciousness or 109)
experiences.
110) ____________ is a central nervous system (CNS) depressant that in large doses 110)
or when taken with alcohol can cause sedation, loss of consciousness, respiratory
arrest, and death.
111) ___________________ represents two times the percentage of alcohol in a 111)

beverage, measured by volume; a 100-proof beverage contains 50% alcohol.
112) _______________ is the intoxicating ingredient in fermented liquors, a 112)

colourless, pungent liquid.
113) _______________ is a poisonous, addictive substance found in tobacco and 113)

responsible for many of the effects of tobacco.
114) The average Canadian smoker consumes _______________ cigarettes per day. 114)
115) What are the general characteristics associated with addictive behaviours? 115)
116) What are some of the common factors associated with dependence on 116)
psychoactive drugs?
117) Your cousin has confided in you that she thinks she might have a drug problem. 117)
She explains that lately she can only think about getting high and seems to need
much more of the drug in order to achieve that high. She is having difficulty in
school and has been reprimanded at her job for being late. She has tried to cut
back on her use of the drug, but she got sick every time she tried to quit. Identify
and define the characteristics of drug dependence being manifested by this
individual.
118) What are some of the classical examples of addictive behaviours? Provide a brief 118)
description for each with examples.
119) Identify and list the signals associated with serious drug misuse. 119)
120) What is MDMA? What are the acute and chronic effects from taking this drug? 120)
10
121) Explain the concepts of intoxication and blood alcohol concentration (BAC). 121)
Describe the common physical, emotional, and behavioral effects of alcohol
consumption at low and high BACs.
122) Define binge drinking for men and women, and list at least five serious problems 122)
associated with binge drinking on college campuses. The problems you identify
can be things experienced by drinking students and by nondrinking students.
123) Choose one of the forms of tobacco other than ordinary cigarettes that is 123)
described in the text. Explain what it is, how it is used, and how it affects health.
124) Amiti currently smokes one pack of cigarettes a day; she typically smokes with 124)
her morning coffee, after meals, in her car, and when hanging out with her friends
who smoke. Identify five actions or strategies that Amiti can use to increase her
chances of success at quitting.
11
Answer Key
1) FALSE
2) FALSE
3) TRUE
4) TRUE
5) TRUE
6) TRUE
7) TRUE
8) FALSE
9) FALSE
10) FALSE
11) TRUE
12) FALSE
13) FALSE
14) TRUE
15) TRUE
16) FALSE
17) TRUE
18) TRUE
19) FALSE
20) FALSE
21) TRUE
22) FALSE
23) FALSE
24) TRUE
25) TRUE
26) TRUE
27) TRUE
28) TRUE
29) TRUE
30) FALSE
31) TRUE
32) FALSE
33) TRUE
34) TRUE
35) TRUE
36) TRUE
37) FALSE
38) TRUE
39) TRUE
40) TRUE
41) TRUE
42) FALSE
43) TRUE
44) FALSE
45) FALSE
46) FALSE
47) FALSE
48) TRUE
49) TRUE
50) FALSE
12
Answer Key
51) TRUE
52) FALSE
53) TRUE
54) B
55) D
56) D
57) C
58) A
59) A
60) B
61) B
62) D
63) B
64) A
65) D
66) C
67) D
68) A
69) B
70) D
71) B
72) B
73) C
74) D
75) A
76) A
77) B
78) A
79) C
80) D
81) A
82) B
83) A
84) B
85) D
86) C
87) D
88) B
89) A
90) B
91) D
92) B
93) A
94) C
95) B
96) D
97) C
98) B
99) D
100) B
13
Answer Key
101) D
102) A
103) C
104) B
105) A
106) B
107) Tolerance
108) Addiction
109) psychoactive
110) GHB (gamma hydroxybutyrate)
111) Proof value
112) Ethyl alcohol
113) Nicotine
114) 15.1
115) Reinforcement. Some aspect of the behaviour produces pleasurable physical and/or emotional states or
relieves negative ones.
Compulsion or craving. The individual feels a compelling need to engage in the behaviour.
Loss of control. The individual loses control over the behaviour and cannot block the impulse to engage in
it.
Escalation. More and more of the substance or activity is required to produce its desired effects.
Negative consequences. The behaviour continues despite serious negative consequences, such as problems
with academic or job performance, difficulties with personal relationships, or health problems.
116) Developing tolerance to the substance. When a person requires increased amounts of a substance to achieve
the desired effect or notices a markedly diminished effect with continued use of the same amount, he or she
has developed tolerance.
Experiencing withdrawal. In an individual who has maintained prolonged, heavy use of a substance, a drop
in its concentration within the body can result in unpleasant physical and cognitive withdrawal symptoms.
For example, nausea, vomiting, and tremors are common withdrawal symptoms in people dependent on
alcohol, opioids, or sedatives.
Taking the substance in larger amounts or over a longer period than was originally intended.
Expressing a persistent desire to cut down on or regulate substance use.
Spending a great deal of time obtaining the substance, using the substance, or recovering from its effects.
Giving up or reducing important school, work, or recreational activities because of substance use.
Continuing to use the substance despite the knowledge that it is contributing to a psychological or physical
problem.
Craving or an intense desire or urge for a specific substance.
Use in situations that are physically hazardous.
Unsuccessful efforts at reducing amounts.
Failure to fulfill major obligations.
14
Answer Key
118) (Answers will vary for this question)

Compulsive or pathological gambling
Compulsive buying
Internet addiction
119) Sudden withdrawal or emotional distance
Rebellious or unusually irritable behaviour
Loss of interest in usual activities or hobbies
Decline in school performance
Sudden change in group of friends
Changes in sleeping or eating habits
Frequent borrowing of money
120) Taken in pill form, MDMA (methylenedioxymethamphetamine), or ecstasy, is a stimulant with mildly
hallucinogenic and amphetamine-like effects.
It can produce dangerously high body temperature and potentially fatal dehydration.
Some users experience confusion, depression, anxiety, paranoia, muscle tension, involuntary teeth
clenching, blurred vision, and seizures.
Even low doses can affect concentration and driving ability.
Use during pregnancy is linked to increased risk of birth defects.
Chronic use of MDMA may produce long-lasting, perhaps permanent, damage to the neurons that release
serotonin.
This may explain why heavy use is associated with persistent problems with learning and verbal and visual
memory.
MDMA users perform worse than nonusers on complex cognitive tasks of memory, attention, and general
intelligence.
15
Exam
Name___________________________________
1) The major viral sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are not curable with current 1)
therapies.
2) All sexually transmitted infections (STIs) can be prevented. 2)
3) Previous infection with a bacterial sexually transmitted infection (STI) confers 3)

immunity, so once a person has had chlamydia or gonorrhea, she or he can't be
re-infected.
4) HIV infection attacks the immune system making a healthy individual susceptible to 4)
infections.
5) Destruction of the immune system is signaled by elevated levels of CD4 T-cells in the 5)
blood.
6) HIV can live on toilet seats and eating utensils. 6)
7) For a male to infect a female with HIV during vaginal intercourse, ejaculation must 7)
occur.
8) Most cases of HIV infection have occurred in developing countries. 8)
9) New drugs, such as reverse transcriptase inhibitors, protease inhibitors, and entry 9)
inhibitors, are able to cure AIDS.
10) Most people with chlamydia have no symptoms. 10)
11) Oil-based lubricants can make condoms break. 11)
12) Condoms made of lambskin are as effective at preventing disease as are ones made of 12)
latex.
13) The use of lubricants containing nonoxynol-9 can help further reduce the risk of HIV 13)
transmission when condoms are used.
14) Most women infected with gonorrhea do not have symptoms. 14)
15) An infant passing through the birth canal of an infected mother will not contract 15)
gonococcal conjunctivitis.
1
16) Gonorrhea is caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae. 16)
17) Most males with gonorrhea are asymptomatic. 17)
18) Gonorrhea can also infect the throat or rectum of people who engage in oral or anal sex. 18)
19) Pelvic inflammatory disease is often a result of untreated gonorrhea or chlamydia 19)
20) Pelvicinflammatory disease (PID) is often not serious enough to require hospitalization 20)
or surgery.
21) Pelvicinflammatory disease (PID) can be treated successfully, yet about 25% of affected 21)
women will have long-term problems such as a continuing susceptibility to infection,
ectopic pregnancy, infertility, and chronic pelvic pain.
22) Laparoscopy isan ideal tool used to confirm the diagnosis for pelvic inflammatory 22)
disease (PID) and obtain material for cultures.
23) Genital warts can be transmitted when no symptoms are present. 23)
24) Research indicates that the vast majority of people infected with genital warts have no 24)
visible warts and have no idea that they are infected.
25) HPVis especially uncommon in young people, with some of the least infection rates 25)
among university or college students.
26) Untreated genital warts can grow together to form a cauliflower-like mass. 26)
27) Treatment for genital warts does not focus on reducing the number and size of warts. 27)
28) Genital herpes is incurable. 28)
29) For herpes to be transmitted, active sores must be present. 29)
30) Many people wrongly assume that they are unlikely to pick up a sexually transmitted 30)
infection (STI) if they limit their sexual activity to oral sex, but this is not true,
particularly in the case of genital herpes.
31) HSV-1 infection is so common that more than 50-80% of adults have antibodies to 31)
HSV-1.
32) Hepatitis is an inflammation of the liver. 32)
2
33) Preventive measures for hepatitis B are similar to those for HIV. 33)
34) There is a vaccine for hepatitis B. 34)
35) Unborn children can contract syphilis through the placenta from an infected mother. 35)
36) Primary syphilis is contagious, but secondary syphilis is not. 36)
37) Untreated syphilis is potentially fatal. 37)
38) The single-celled

organism that causes Trichomoniasis thrives in warm, moist 38)
conditions, making women particularly susceptible to these infections in the vagina.
39) Bacterial
vaginosis is not the most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in 39)
women of reproductive age.
40) Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is an infection of the lymphatic system caused by 40)
two strains of the bacteria Chlamydia trachomatis.
41) One can take responsibility for their health and help reduce the incidence of sexually 41)
transmitted infections (STIs).
42) Early diagnosisand treatment of sexually transmitted infections (STIs) does not 42)
necessarily help avoid complications or prevent the spread of STIs.
43) Abstinence is the only truly foolproof way to protect oneself from sexually transmitted 43)
infections (STIs).
44) Early diagnosis

and treatment of sexually transmitted infections (STIs) cannot help avoid 44)
complications or prevent spread of STIs.
45) When diagnosed with a sexually transmitted infection (STI), informing your partner and 45)
avoiding sexual contact until treatment is complete is considered appropriate behaviour.
46) Many sexually transmitted infections STIs are often asymptomatic, however, a 46)
professional examination and testing are recommended following any risky sexual
encounter, even in the absence of symptoms.
47) The only way to avoid exposure to sexually transmitted infections (STIs) is to abstain 47)
from sexual activity.
3
48) InCanada, which of the following sexually transmitted infections (STIs) has the highest 48)
rates for new cases?
A) Chlamydia B) Gonorrhea C) Syphilis D) Hepatitis B
49) Which of the following is NOT a major STI? 49)

A) Chlamydia B) Gonorrhea
C) Syphilis D) Streptococcal infection
50) HIV attacks the: 50)

A) lungs. B) genital secretions.
C) immune system. D) blood circulation.
51) The time between the initial HIV infection and the onset of major disease symptoms in 51)
an untreated person is usually:
A) hours. B) days. C) months. D) years.
52) HIV virus can survive: 52)

A) on bed linens. B) inblood
C) on toilet seats. D) on eating utensils.
53) The most common method of HIV transmission is: 53)

A) having unprotected sex. B) sharing needles to inject drugs.
C) using acupuncture needles. D) piercing of earlobes.
54) Which one of the following statements about the transmission of HIV is FALSE? 54)
A) During vaginal intercourse, female-to-male transmission is more likely than
male-to-female transmission.
B) The presence of blisters or sores in the genital area increases the risk of HIV
transmission.
C) HIV can be transmitted from needles or blades used in acupuncture or tattooing if
they are shared
D) The risk of transfusion-related HIV transmission has decreased dramatically due to
testing of the blood supply.
55) Vertical transmission of HIV refers to _____ transmission. 55)

A) male-to-female B) female-to-male
C) mother-to-child D) blood donor-to-blood recipient
56) Which one of the following is LEAST likely to transmit HIV? 56)
A) Blood products B) Semen
C) Vaginal secretions D) Sweat
4
57) Which lifestyle factor does NOT support immune function? 57)
A) Sleep B) Stress management
C) Nutrition D) Vigorous high-intensity exercise
58) Needle sharing among drug users often leads to HIV transmission, because: 58)
A) psychoactive drugs carry large amounts of the virus.
B) needles may be contaminated with blood that contains HIV.
C) a drug user's immune system is already weakened.
D) antiviral medications are ineffective when other drugs are in the bloodstream.
59) About 20-25% of all new U.S. cases of HIV are caused, directly or indirectly, through: 59)
A) sharing of drug injection equipment contaminated with HIV.
B) the blood supply in licensed blood banks.
C) the blood supply in licensed plasma centers.
D) perinatal transmission.
60) Which of the following is the infection most often seen in HIV patients? 60)
A) Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia B) Kaposi's sarcoma
C) Tuberculosis D) Syphilis
61) The main types of antiviral drugs for the treatment of HIV do NOT include: 61)
A) protease inhibitors. B) reverse transcriptase inhibitors.
C) fusion inhibitors. D) anti-inflammatory drugs.
62) The most commonly used test to screen for HIV infection involves: 62)
A) a microscopic examination of cervical cells.
B) a blood test that determines if antibodies to the virus are present.
C) a laboratory culture of infected cells.
D) an MRI scan to investigate the presence of the virus.
63) Atest which shows how fast HIV from a patient's blood sample can reproduce itself is 63)
called a(n):
A) ELISA test. B) Western blot test.
C) Rapid HIV test. D) HIV replication capacity test.
64) Antiviral drugs can reduce the effects of HIV by: 64)
A) blocking HIV replication. B) destroying HIV.
C) neutralizing effects of HIV. D) decreasing CD4 T-cell counts.
65) Which one of the following statements about HIV infection is TRUE? 65)
A) It is easily treated.
B) It is preventable.
C) It can be contracted via casual contact.
D) It produces easily recognized symptoms immediately following infection.
5
66) The vast majority of cases of AIDS have occurred in developing countries, where _____ 66)
contact is the primary means of transmission.
A) heterosexual B) homosexual
C) mother-to-child D) blood donor-to-blood recipient
67) The most effective way to prevent the transmission of HIV is to: 67)
A) use condoms.
B) practice sexual abstinence.
C) limit the number of sexual partners.
D) refrain from sexual activity until all the medication has been taken.
68) Which one of the following statements about condom use is TRUE? 68)
A) Oil-based lubricants are highly recommended.
B) It's safe to leave condoms in a wallet for up to one week.
C) It's important to remove air bubbles from the reservoir tip before using a condom.
D) Condoms can be used more than once as long as they do not become dried out.
69) The most prevalent bacterial sexually transmitted infection (STI) is: 69)
A) chlamydia. B) gonorrhea.
C) syphilis. D) genital herpes.
70) Epididymitis: 70)

A) is an inflammation of the liver.
B) causes increased bile pigment levels in the blood.
C) is an inflammation of the sperm-carrying ducts.
D) causes central nervous system damage.
71) Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) transmitted by the pathogenic 71)
bacterium:
A) Chlamydia trachomatisitis. B) Chlamydia trachomatis.
C) Chlamydia trachomatosis. D) Chlamydia trachomatectasis.
72) Chlamydia can potentially lead to infertility in _____. 72)

A) all humans B) neither men nor women
C) women D) men
73) A common complication of gonorrhea and chlamydia is: 73)

A) syphilis. B) genital herpes.
C) pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). D) human papillomavirus.
6
74) Gonorrhea is best defined as a: 74)
A) fatal, incurable sexually transmitted viral disease.
B) sexually transmitted disease caused by a virus and characterized by the appearance
of warty growths on the genital area of men and women.
C) sexually transmitted disease caused by a bacterium that usually affects mucous
membranes.
D) common viral infection characterized by recurrent outbreaks of blister-like sores.
75) Which of the following statements about gonorrhea is TRUE? 75)

A) Gonorrhea is caused by a bacterium that can survive for several hours on objects
such as toilet seats.
B) There is no effective treatment for gonorrhea.
C) Gonorrhea is the most prevalent viral sexually transmitted infection (STI).
D) Most women with gonorrhea present no symptoms.
76) Pelvicinflammatory disease (PID) is best defined as: 76)

A) an infection that progresses from the vagina and cervix to infect the oviducts and
pelvic cavity.
B) a sexually transmitted disease caused by a corkscrew-shaped bacterium.
C) a sexually transmitted disease caused by a bacterium that usually affects mucous
membranes.
D) a common viral infection characterized by recurrent outbreaks of blister-like sores.
77) Pelvicinflammatory disease (PID) is the leading cause of _____ in young women. 77)
A) infertility B) jaundice
C) recurrent blister-like sores D) cervical cancer
78) Laparoscopy may be used to confirm the diagnosis of: 78)

A) gonorrhea. B) chlamydia.
C) pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). D) epididymitis.
79) Genitalhuman papillomavirus (HPV) infection is best defined as a: 79)

membranes.
80) Which of the following sexually transmitted infections (STIs) is caused by a virus? 80)
A) Chlamydia B) Gonorrhea C) Syphilis D) Genital warts
7
81) The organismthat causes genital warts is: 81)
A) Herpes Simplex Virus -1 (HSV-1).
B) Herpes Simplex Virus -2 (HSV-2).
C) Human papillomavirus (HPV).
D) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
82) Genitalwarts are difficult to treat effectively because: 82)

A) they grow into large clusters.
B) available treatments do not eradicate the virus.
C) the incubation period is very short.
D) the bacterium that causes them is resistant to most antibiotics.
83) Which one of the following is linked to cervical cancer? 83)

A) Syphilis
B) Trichomoniasis
C) Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection
D) Pelvic inflammatory disease
84) The virus

HSV-2 is responsible for which sexually transmitted disease? 84)
A) AIDS B) Genital herpes
C) Hepatitis B D) Syphilis
85) An extremely common viral infection where a large number of people do not even know 85)
that they have been affected is:
A) HSV-1. B) syphilis. C) Chlamydia. D) gonorrhea.
86) Genitalherpes is best defined as a: 86)

membranes.
87) HBV is found in all of the following EXCEPT: 87)

A) saliva. B) blood products.
C) feces. D) semen.
88) Jaundiceis a symptom of: 88)

A) herpes. B) syphilis. C) chlamydia. D) hepatitis B.
8
89) Which of the following statements about hepatitis B is FALSE? 89)
A) There is an effective vaccine.
B) There is a cure for the HBV virus.
C) The virus is found in all bodily fluids.
D) In 2008, there were an estimated 250, 000 Canadians living with chronic hepatitis B
infection.
90) Which of the following sexually transmitted infections (STIs) is curable with current 90)
therapies?
A) Herpes B) Genital warts C) Syphilis D) Hepatitis
91) Syphilis is best defined as: 91)

A) an infection that progresses from the vagina and cervix to infect the oviducts and
pelvic cavity.
B) a sexually transmitted disease caused by a bacterium called Treponema pallidum.
C) a sexually transmitted disease caused by a bacterium that usually affects mucous
membranes.
D) a common viral infection characterized by recurrent outbreaks of blister-like sores.
92) A chancre is an indication of: 92)

A) pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). B) hepatitis A.
C) syphilis. D) HIV.
93) Dementia, cardiovascular damage, blindness, and death are possible complications of: 93)
A) primary syphilis. B) pelvic inflammatory disease.
C) tertiary syphilis. D) chlamydia.
94) A single-celled organism that thrives in warm, moist conditions is a description of: 94)
A) Chlamydia trachomatis. B) genital warts.
C) pubic lice. D) Trichomonas vaginalis.
95) _____is an infection of the lymphatic system caused by three strains of the bacteria 95)
Chlamydia trachomatis.
A) Streptococci bacterii B) Animal papilloma virus
C) Human papilloma virus D) Lymphogranuloma venereum
96) Pubic _____, commonly known as crabs, and scabies are highly contagious parasitic 96)
infections.
A) lobsters B) worms C) lice D) animals
97) Bacterial vaginosis occurs when healthy bacteria that normally inhabit the vagina: 97)
A) grow at an uncontrollable rate. B) move into other parts of the body.
C) are displaced by unhealthy species. D) die and are not replaced
9
98) Pamphlets and other literature available through public health departments, health 98)
clinics, physician offices, etc relating to prevention of sexually transmitted infections
(STIs) is a good example of:
A) diagnosis. B) treatment. C) education. D) disease.
99) One of the following is NOT an ideal way of protecting yourself from sexually 99)
transmitted infections (STIs).
A) Abstinence B) Polygamy
C) Safe sex practices D) Condoms
100) The only completely reliable way to avoid exposure to sexually transmitted diseases is 100)
to:
A) abstain from sexual activity. B) have annual medical examinations.
C) engage in oral sex only. D) take antibiotics on a regular basis.
101) Jolie does not engage in sexual practices to ensure she does not get any sexually 101)
transmitted infections (STIs). This is an example of?
A) Abstinence B) Monogamy
C) Use of condoms D) Practicing safe sex
102) _________________ virus is one that can cause AIDS. 102)
103) _________________ is a type of white blood cell that helps coordinate the 103)
activity of the immune system-a primary target for HIV infection.
104) _________________ is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) transmitted by the 104)

pathogenic bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis.
105) _________________ is a method of examining the internal organs by inserting a 105)

tube containing a small light through an abdominal incision.
106) _________________ is a sore produced by syphilis in its earlier stage. 106)
107) _________________ is a relationship, where the individual engages in sexual 107)

activities with only one partner.
108) The only way to avoid exposure to sexually transmitted infections (STIs) is to 108)
_________________ from sexual activity.
109) What is HIV infection? Describe in detail. 109)
110) What are the most common ways of transmitting the HIV virus? 110)
10
111) What are the most common symptoms experienced by people suffering from 111)
chlamydia?
112) What is pelvic inflammatory disease? Explain in detail. 112)
113) What is the Human Papillomavirus? Explain in detail. 113)
114) What are the various educational approaches used to prevent sexually transmitted 114)
infections (STIs)?
115) Identify any three factors that one can use to protect themselves from sexually 115)
transmitted infections (STIs), and provide a brief describe for each.
11
Answer Key
1) TRUE
2) TRUE
3) FALSE
4) TRUE
5) FALSE
6) FALSE
7) FALSE
8) TRUE
9) FALSE
10) TRUE
11) TRUE
12) FALSE
13) FALSE
14) TRUE
15) FALSE
16) TRUE
17) FALSE
18) TRUE
19) TRUE
20) FALSE
21) TRUE
22) TRUE
23) TRUE
24) TRUE
25) FALSE
26) TRUE
27) FALSE
28) TRUE
29) FALSE
30) TRUE
31) TRUE
32) TRUE
33) TRUE
34) TRUE
35) TRUE
36) FALSE
37) TRUE
38) TRUE
39) FALSE
40) FALSE
41) TRUE
42) FALSE
43) TRUE
44) FALSE
45) TRUE
46) TRUE
47) TRUE
48) A
49) D
50) C
12
Answer Key
51) D
52) B
53) A
54) A
55) C
56) D
57) D
58) B
59) A
60) A
61) D
62) B
63) D
64) A
65) B
66) A
67) B
68) C
69) A
70) C
71) B
72) D
73) C
74) C
75) D
76) A
77) A
78) C
79) B
80) D
81) C
82) B
83) C
84) B
85) A
86) D
87) C
88) D
89) B
90) C
91) B
92) C
93) C
94) D
95) D
96) C
97) C
98) C
99) B
100) A
13
Answer Key
101) A
102) Human immunodeficiency
103) CD4 T cell
104) Chlamydia
105) Laparoscopy
106) Chancre
107) Monogamy
108) abstain
109) HIV infection is a chronic disease that progressively damages the body's immune system, making an
otherwise healthy person less able to resist a variety of infections and disorders. Under normal conditions,
when a virus or other pathogen enters the body, it is targeted and destroyed by the immune system.
But HIV attacks the immune system itself, taking over immune system cells and forcing them to produce
new copies of HIV. It also makes them incapable of performing their immune functions. (see the box "Does
Exercise Help or Harm the Immune System?").
The destruction of the immune system is signaled by the loss of CD4 T cells (Figure 15.1). As the number of
CD4 cells declines, an infected person may begin to experience mild to moderately severe symptoms.
A person is diagnosed with full-blown AIDS when he or she develops one of the conditions defined as a
marker for AIDS or when the number of CD4 cells in the blood drops below a certain level (200/ml).
People with AIDS are vulnerable to a number of serious, often fatal, secondary, or opportunistic, infections.
The asymptomatic period of HIV-the time between the initial viral infection and the onset of disease
symptoms- may range from 2 to 20 years with an average of 11 years in untreated adults.
Most, but not all, infected people experience flu-like symptoms shortly after the initial infection, but most
remain generally healthy for years.
During this time, however, the virus is progressively infecting and destroying the cells of the immune
system.
People infected with HIV can pass the virus to others-even if they have no symptoms and even if they do
not know they have been infected.
110) There are three main routes of HIV transmission:
- Specific kinds of sexual contact

- Direct exposure to infected blood
- Contact between an HIV-infected woman and her child during pregnancy, childbirth, or breastfeeding
111) Most people experience few or no symptoms from chlamydia, increasing the likelihood that they will
inadvertently spread the infection to their partners.
In men, symptoms can include painful urination, a slight watery discharge from the penis, and sometimes
pain around the testicles.
Women may notice increased vaginal discharge, burning with urination, pain or bleeding with intercourse,
and lower abdominal pain.
Because infection rates are high and most women are asymptomatic, screening is recommended every 6
months to 1 year for sexually active young women.
14
Answer Key
112) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a major complication in 10-40% of women who have been infected
with either chlamydia or gonorrhea and have not received treatment.
PID occurs when the initial infection travels upward, often along with other bacteria, beyond the cervix into
the uterus, oviducts, ovaries, and pelvic cavity.
PID is often serious enough to require hospitalization and sometimes surgery.
Even if the disease is treated successfully, about 25% of affected women will have long-term problems such
as a continuing susceptibility to infection, ectopic pregnancy, infertility, and chronic pelvic pain.
PID is the leading cause of infertility in young women.
113) Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection causes several human diseases, including common warts, genital
warts, and genital cancers.
HPV also causes virtually all cervical cancer, as well as penile cancer and some forms of anal cancer.
Genital HPV is usually spread through sexual activity.
Canada does not currently track the prevalence of HPV; therefore, its infection rates are unknown.
Some have estimated that as many as 75% of Canadians will have at least one HPV infection in their
lifetime.
In prevalence studies conducted in the United States more than 80% of sexually active people will have
been infected with HPV by age 50.
What is known is that the vast majorities of these people have no visible warts and have no idea that they are
infected.
HPV is especially common in young people, with some of the highest infection rates among university or
college students.
114) Many schools, universities and colleges have peer counselling and education programs.
These programs provide students an opportunity to practice skills in communicating with potential sex
partners and negotiating safer sex, to engage in role playing to build self-confidence, and to learn how to use
condoms.
You can find free pamphlets and other literature available from public health departments, health clinics,
physicians' offices, student health centers, and Planned Parenthood; easy-to-understand books are available
in libraries and bookstores.
National hotlines have been set up to provide free, confidential information and referral services to callers
anywhere in the country
15
Answer Key
115) Abstinence. The only truly foolproof way to protect yourself from STIs is abstinence-abstaining from sexual
relations with other people. Remember that it is OK to say no to sex.
Monogamy. Next to abstinence, the most effective way to protect yourself is monogamy-having sex
exclusively with one partner, who engages in sex with no one else but you and who does not have an STI.
Communication. If you choose to be sexually active, protect yourself by practising open and honest
communication and insisting on the same from your partner. Be truthful about your past, and ask your
partner to do the same. Remember that you are indirectly exposing yourself to all of your partner's prior
sexual contacts.
Safer sexual activities. Know what sexual activities are risky (see Figure 15.3). Safer alternatives to
intercourse include fantasy, hugging, massage, rubbing clothed bodies together, mutual masturbation, and
mouth kissing.
Condoms. Always use latex condoms during every act of vaginal intercourse, anal intercourse, and oral sex.
Multiple studies show that regular condom use can reduce the risk of several diseases, including HIV,
chlamydia, and genital herpes.
Activities to avoid. Don't drink or use drugs in sexual situations. Mood-altering drugs can affect your
judgment and make you more likely to engage in risky behaviours. Limit the number of sexual partners;
having multiple partners is associated with increased risk of STIs. Avoid sexual contact with partners who
have an STI or have had unprotected sex in the past. Avoid sexual contact that could cause tears or cuts in
the skin or tissue. Don't inject drugs; don't share needles, syringes, or anything that might have blood on it.
Decontaminate needles and syringes with household bleach and water. If you are at risk for HIV infection,
don't donate blood, sperm, or organs.
Other preventive measures. Get tested for HIV during your next routine medical examination. Have periodic
screenings for STIs if you are at risk. Make sure all your vaccinations are up to date. Girls and women age
9-26 should be vaccinated against HPV, unless there are medical reasons to avoid the vaccination. Ask
your physician if it is appropriate for you to be vaccinated against hepatitis B.
16

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Exam

7) For high-intensity endurance activities, a time (duration of exercise) of 20 minutes per 7)

8) Frequency for strength training should be daily. 8)

18) Keeping the

19) Varying the

24) Cross-training involves varying your fitness activities. 24)

29) Children exercising in the heat require adequate hydration. 29)

41) An example of a general long-term fitness goal would be: 41)

42) An example of a specific short-term fitness goal would be: 42)

53) Stretching should be done: 53)

54) Mini-goals help a physical fitness program by: 54)

55) An example of a short-term, specific goal is: 55)

63) Cross-training is: 63)

64) Fitnessgoals should be: 64)

65) Periodizationof training is a technique that: 65)

81) Exercisefor women who are pregnant should include: 81)

85) Ahealthy _________________ can be developed by combining a sensible diet 85)

87) The final

88) Finding a(n)_________________ buddy is a good example of putting your 88)

92) Start slowly and increase fitness gradually

1) Hypertension is both a major risk factor and a form of CVD. 1)

2) In atherosclerosis, arteries become narrowed by deposits of fat, cholesterol, and other 2)

4) The body's response to atherosclerosis and subsequent endothelial damage is 4)

5) An artery narrowed by a plaque cannot be vulnerable to blockage by blood clots. 5)

6) Arteriosclerosis can increase blood pressure. 6)

8) Ventricular fibrillation is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death. 8)

12) A stroke is also called a cardiovascular accident. 12)

19) A blood pressure of 120/90 is classified as healthy. 19)

21) Smoking raises levels of HDL cholesterol in the blood. 21)

29) LDL cholesterol is the less healthy form of cholesterol. 29)

53) Animal products contain cholesterol as well as saturated fat. 53)

57) Moderate alcohol use may increase HDL cholesterol 57)

62) The leading cause of death in Canada is: 62)

63) Atherosclerosis is: 63)

64) Atherosclerosis in an artery supplying blood to the heart is called: 64)

69) An arrhythmia is: 69)

72) Which of the following is a treatment for heart disease? 72)

74) Blockage of blood supply to the brain causes: 74)

75) A stroke caused by a ruptured blood vessel is a(n): 75)

77) Treatmentfor a stroke usually involves: 77)

78) Congestive heart failure is: 78)

86) Sustained high blood pressure is an indicator of: 86)

87) High blood pressure contributes to CVD by: 87)

91) Which blood cholesterol level should be high? 91)

96) Exercise alters blood fat levels by: 96)

98) What organ produces cholesterol? 98)

105) How is hypertension usually detected? 105)

106) Which of the following is TRUE about triglycerides? 106)

111) Which of the following is TRUE about homocysteine? 111)

112) Which of the following is associated with metabolic syndrome? 112)

121) Moderate alcohol consumption is no more than: 121)

124) Environmental tobacco smoke does not: 124)

125) Cholesterol testing should begin at age: 125)

133) Plant _______________________, found in some types of trans-free margarines 133)

135) What is stroke? Describe. 135)

134) - Atherosclerosis is a form of arteriosclerosis, or thickening and hardening of the arteries.

139) Answers will vary

3) Tobacco smoke is the main risk factor for lung cancer. 3)

4) A metastasis describes a cancer that has grown in size. 4)

9) Lifestyle has no influence on cancer risk. 9)

10) Colon cancer rarely occurs before age 40. 10)

14) Ninety percent of breast lumps turn out to be malignant. 14)

15) A mammogram is an example of a biopsy. 15)