In Hippurate hydrolysis test, the end products of hydrolysis of hippuric acid by

hippuricase include glycine and benzoic acid. What is color of the reaction/end
product?
2/2
A. Red
B. Colorless
C. Purple
 
D. Yellow

 
This test differentiates micrococcal and staphylococcal species from streptococcal
species.
2/2
A. Oxidase test
B. PYR test
C. Bile Esculin test
D. Catalase test
 
 
Colony appearance of Staphylococcus aureus on BAP
1/1
A. Small to medium alpha-hemolytic colonies with yellow/gold halo
B. Medium to large gamma-hemolytic colonies without yellow/gold halo
C. Medium to large beta-hemolytic colonies with yellow/pink halo
D. Medium to large beta hemolytic colonies with yellow/gold halo
 
 
(Identification; small letters only) This is the rash seen in patients with rheumatic
fever or post-streptococcal infections
1/1

erythema marginatum
 
 
The genus-species name for the group A streptococci is:
2/2
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Streptococcus mutans
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
 
D. Streptococcus agalactiae
E. Streptococcus sanguis

 
Oxygen Labile enzyme of Group A Strep:
2/2
A. Streptolysin S
B. Streptolysin C
C. Streptolysin L
D. Streptolysin O
 
 
The Optochin test is used to determine the effect of Optochin (ethyl hydrocupreine
hydrochloride) on an organism. This test is used to differentiate Viridans
streptococci from ___________.
2/2
A. Enterococcus faecalis
B. Streptococcus agalactiae
C. Streptococcus bovis
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
 
 
The staphylococci differ from the streptococci in:
2/2
A. Gram stain reaction
B. Cell diameter
C. Cell morphology
D. Catalase production
 
E. Acid fast staining

 
This test is used for presumptive identification and differentiation of beta-hemolytic
group A streptococci from other beta-hemolytic streptococci.
2/2
A. Optochin test
B. LAP test
C. SXT
D. Bacitracin test
 
 
(Identification; small letters only) What is the pH indicator used in Mannitol Salt
agar?
2/2
phenol red
 
 
(Identification; small letters only) Small, gray, glistening; colonies tend to dip down
in the center & resemble a doughnut (umbilicated)
1/1

streptococcus pneumoniae
 
 
The LAP test is used for the presumptive identification of catalase-negative gram-
positive cocci (Ex. Enterococcus faecalis) What is the positive result of the test?
2/2
A. Development of a red color within 1 minute after adding cinnamaldehyde
 
B. Development of a blue color within 1 minute after adding cinnamaldehyde
C. No color change or development of a slight yellow color
B. Development of a blue color within 2 minutes after adding cinnamaldehyde

 
Micrococcus can be furtherly differentiated to Staphylococcus by using the
antibiotics Lysostaphin and Furazolidone. Staphylococcus is known to be
________ to both antimicrobials
0/1
A. Intermediate
B. Resistant
 
C. Susceptible
D. Both A and C

 
(Identification; small letters only) In performing the catalase test for differentiating
Staphylococcus spp. to other gram positive cocci, what is the reagent used/added
in the procedure?
2/2

hydrogen peroxide
 
 
Staphylococcal infections are easily spread because of this enzyme.
1/1
A. Protease
B. Lipase
C. Hyaluronidase
 
D. Coagulase

 
Staphylococcus aureus grows well in ___% sheep blood agar and chocolate agar
at ____ deg C in carbon dioxide or ambient temperature
1/1
A. 2%, 30 deg C
B. 10%, 37 deg C
C. 5%, 25 deg C
D. 5%, 35 deg C
 
 
(Identification; small letters only) This protein can disable the immune response by
destroying white blood cells
1/1

leukocidins
 
 
Staphylococcus epidermidis:
2/2
A. Produces protein A
B. Produces alpha toxin
C. Produces enterotoxins
D. Can cause subacute bacterial endocarditis
 
E. Produces beta toxin

 
Selective media used for the isolation of Staphylococcus aureus:
2/2
A. BHI
B. Chocolate agar
C. BAP
D. MSA
 
 
What is the positive result for the Slide Coagulase test used in differentiating
Staphylococcus aureus from other Staphylococcus spp.?
0/2
A. Clot formation
 
B. Microscopic clumping of cells
C. Fibrinolysis
D. Macroscopic clumping of cells

 
(Identification; small letters only) The microdase test is a rapid method to
differentiate Staphylococcus from Micrococcus by detection of the enzyme
_________.
2/2

oxidase
 
 
(Identification; small letters only) These are groups based on the antigenic
properties of C carbohydrate or also known as ___________.
0/2

lancefield antigen
 
 
It is an invasive infection characterized by a a rapidly progressing inflammation and
necrosis of the skin, subcutaneous fat and fascia.
1/1
A. Erysipelas
B. Carbuncles
C. Abscess
D. Necrotizing fasciitis
 
 
This is formed when furuncles coalesce; multiple contagious, painful lesions under
the skin
1/1
A. Furuncle
B. Boil
C. Cellulitis
D. Carbuncle
 
 
What is the positive result for the Tube Coagulase test used in differentiating
Staphylococcus aureus from other Staphylococcus spp.?
0/2
A. Clot formation
B. Microscopic clumping of cells
C. Fibrinolysis
D. Macroscopic clumping of cells
 
 
The most important antiphagocytic structure of the group A streptococci is the:
2/2
A. M protein
 
B. Group A carbohydrate
C. Hyaluronic acid capsule
D. Protein A
E. Mycolic acids

 
This enzyme activates plasmin which breaks up fibrin clots
1/1
A. Staphylokinase
B. Streptodornase
C. Streptokinase
D. Both A and C
 
 
Serological test used to identify the specific capsular type of Streptococcus
pneumoniae in direct body fluids such as CSF, synovial fluid or sputum
2/2
A. Optochin test
B. ASO test
C. Microdase test
D. Neufeld test
 
 
Staphylococcus saprophyticus is resistant to this antibiotic:
0/2
A. Clindamycin
B. Erythromycin
C. Novobiocin
D. Vancomycin
 
 
The toxin produced by Staphylococcus aureus that is responsible for the
staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome is
2/2
A. Panton-Valentine leukocidin
B. Exfoliatin
 
C. Protein A
D. Alpha toxin
E. Beta toxin

 
(Identification; small letters only) A catalase-negative and gram-positive cocci in
pairs/chains that causes scarlet fever
1/1

streptococcus pyogenes
 
 
(Identification; small letters only) Nutritionally variant streptococci (Abiotrophia spp
and Granulicatella) are viridans streptococci that needs _____ for growth
2/2

pyridoxal
 
 
Commonly cause infections among individuals who are subjected to implanted
medical devices
1/1
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Streptococcus bovis
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis
 
 
(Identification; small letters only) This enzyme can disable the immune response by
forming a fibrin clot formation to prevent phagocytosis
1/1

coagulase
 
 
A condition where TSST-1 binds with macrophages causing massive T cell
response and outpouring of cytokines in the body which has a characteristic rash of
a "burgundy sunburn"
2/2

staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome

 
 
A condition caused by pyrogenic toxins which demonstrates a high fever, severe
pain at the infection site, diffuse rash, blanching (boiled lobster) and desquamation
2/2

streptococcal toxic shock syndrome

 
 
(Identification; small letters only) Identified by an “arrowhead” zone of hemolysis in
the CAMP reaction (GBS is streaked perpendicularly w/ GAS)
0/1

christie-atkins-munch-peterson factor
 
 
Necrotizing Fasciitis commonly caused by GAS:
1/1
A. Type 3
B. Type 1
C. Type 4
D. Type 2
 
 
Staphylococcus aureus can best be differentiated from Staphylococcus epidermidis
by:
2/2
A. Gram stain
B. Colonial morphology
C. Coagulase production
 
D. Catalase production
E. Cell diameter

 
The streptococci most commonly involved in serious neonatal infections are:
0/2
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Streptococcus mutans
 
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Streptococcus agalactiae
E. Streptococcus sanguis

 
The streptococci most commonly associated with subacute bacterial endocarditis
are:
0/2
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Streptococcus agalactiae
 
C. Viridans streptococci
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
E. Streptococcus bovis

 
_________ can grow well in 40% bile or 6.5% NaCl
1/1
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Streptococcus agalactiae
C. Streptococcus equinus
D. Enterococcus faecalis
 
 
_________ can grow well in 40% bile but not in 6.5% NaCl
1/1
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Streptococcus agalactiae
C. Streptococcus equinus
 
D. Enterococcus faecalis

 
The end product or positive result of Microdase/Modified Oxidase test has a
characteristic color:
···/2
A. Pink
B. Yellow
C. Colorless
 
D. Purple

 
_________ is known to be susceptible to bacitracin
2/2
A. GBS
B. GCS
C. GFS
D. GAS
 
E. GDS

 
The member of the genus Staphylococcus most commonly associated with urinary
tract infections in young, sexually active females is:
2/2
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
 
D. Staphylococcus hominus
E. Staphylococcus capitis

Is an antimicrobial agent derive from microorganism? Antibiotic

Is an antimicrobial agent able to kill bacteria? Bactericidal

Is an antimicrobial agent able to inhibit bacteria? Bacteriostatic

A secondary infection that may appear treatment rendered of primary infection? Superinfection

A drug that acts a primary agent infectious organism, antifungals, antiviral, chemotherapeutics)
substance that killed or organism? Antimicrobial agent

Enzyme attacks beta-lactam ring? Beta-lactamase

Microorganism that is able to remain unaffected by an antimicrobial? Resistant

Microorganism that is able to remain affective against the bacteria? Susceptible

MRSA? Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus

CFU? Colony Forming unit

VRSA? Vancomycin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

Example of antibiotic that has beta lactam ring? Cephalosporin

What should the temperature be for susceptibility media standardization testing? 35 degrees Celsius

The inoculum has been standardized by growing bacteria in broth unit? 1.0X10^8 CFU/ml

Beta-lactamase mutation resulting in resistance to theses later-generation antibiotics is called?

Extended Spectrum Beta-Lactamases (ESBLs)

Can possessed beta-lactam and therefore should be tested for its presences? Staphylococci

Most strain of this susceptible to methicillin and floxacillin? Staphylococcus aureus

An organism that is significantly affected in negative manner in the presence of

When two or more agents work together to enhance/argument a positive effect that would be
better or greater to produce by itself? Synergy

When two or more agents work against one another less than? Antagonistic

Lowest concertation of antibiotic that inhibits growth in a tube or agar? Minimum Inhibitory
Concentration

Lowest concentrations that kills 99.9% of the inoculum? Minimum Bactericidal Concentration

Has been used widely in labs since 1966 and the zones of inhibition can be converted/compared to
MIC values by used of scattergram? Disk diffusion method

How do you approximate standardized bacteria in broth? McFarland standard of 0.5 Barium chloride

What must match the growth of the standard before it is planted on the media: so that you wll get
growth covering media? Turbidity

What antibiotics are used in the Baur-Kirby method? Paper Disks

2nd generation cephalosporin? Cefaclor, Cefuroxime, Cefmetazole

3rd generation cephalosporin? Cefotaxime, Cefoperazone

1st generation cephalosporin? Cephalexin