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HARYANA CIVIL JUDGE (PRE.) EXAMINATION - 2021

MOCK TEST PAPER - V
Total Questions: 125
Maximum Marks: 500
Duration: 2:00 Hours
Date: 07/11/2021
1. Alex is tried for the murder of John by intentionally shooting him dead. The
fact that Alex was in the habit of shooting at people with intent to murder them
is
(a) relevant
(b) irrelevant
(c) relevant and admissible
(d) conclusive proof
2. Provisions of section 12 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872, applies to
(a) civil suits
(b) criminal proceedings
(c) both (A) and (B)
(d) claim for compensation under Motor Vehicle Act only
3. A sues B for damage done by a dog of B’s which B knew to be ferocious. The
fact that the dog had previously bitten X, Y and Z and that they had made
complaints to B are
(a) irrelevant
(b) relevant
(c) irrelevant and inadmissible
(d) inadmissible owing to general nature of dog
4. Which of the following is not relevant under section 14 of the Indian Evidence
Act, 1872
(a) Negligence
(b) rashness
(c) motive
(d) none of the above
5. Section 21 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 provides general rule that admissions
are relevant and may be proved as against the person who makes them or his
representative in interest. It also provides how many exceptions to this
general rule
(a) Two

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 (b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Three
6. For the purpose of section 11 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, which of the
following is/are relevant
(a) inconsistent fact
(b) facts which make the existence of the fact in issue or relevant fact
highly probable
(c) facts which make the non-existence of the fact in issue or relevant fact
highly improbable
(d) all of the above
7. If the First Information Report is given by the accused to a police officer and
amounts to a confessional statement is
(a) allowed
(b) prohibited under section 25 of IEA
(c) not allowed
(d) relevant and admissible
8. A is on his trial for the murder of C. There is evidence to show that C was
murdered by A and B, and that B said “ A and I murdered C”. This statement
of B
(a) may be taken into consideration by Court against A
(b) shall be taken into consideration by Court against A
(c) may not be taken into consideration by Court against A
(d) admissible and shall be considered by Court against A, however, it is
subject to corroboration.
9. Which of the following provision of Indian Evidence Act, 1872, is related to
section 13 (a)
(a) section 32(3)
(b) Section 32(5)
(c) Section 32(7)
(d) Section 32(8)
10. According to the provisions of section 33 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872,
evidence given by a witness is relevant in
(a) a later stage of the same judicial proceedings in which evidence was
given.
(b) a subsequent judicial proceeding
(c) any proceeding between the same parties
(d) both (A) and (B)

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11. Which of the following jurisdiction is not relevant for the purpose of section 41
of Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(a) Criminal
(b) Matrimonial
(c) Admiralty
(d) Insolvency
12. Judgments, orders or decrees other than those mentioned in section 40, 41
and 42 are relevant when existence of such judgment, order or decree is a
fact in issue or is relevant under
(a) any provision of Indian Penal Code
(b) some other provision of Indian Evidence Act
(c) any provision of any law in force which decides criminal or civil liability
(d) all of the above.
13. The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, came into force with effect from
(a) 21 March 1908
(b) 01 September 1908
(c) 01 January 1909
(d) 21 March 1909
14. Which of the following provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908,
embraces the term ‘High Court’
(a) Section 7
(b) Section 7A
(c) Section 7B
(d) Section 8
15. Select the most appropriate response
Which of the following statement describe(s) the term ‘cause of action’?
(a) It is a point in question
(b) It is an important subject of litigation
(c) It is a bundle of facts which are necessary for the plaintiff to prove
(d) all of the above
16. Which of the following is the most suited term for a defendant to a suit against
whom no relief is claimed?
(a) Convener
(b) Co-defendant
(c) Intervener
(d) Proforma defendant
17. A civil Court has jurisdiction to try all suits of civil nature except the suits,
cognizance of which is barred
(a) expressly

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 (b) impliedly
(c) either (A) or (B)
(d) only (A) not (B)
18. According to the provisions of section 21 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908,
objection as to the place of suing shall be allowed at the stage of
(a) Trial
(b) Appeal
(c) Revision
(d) all of the above
19. Mesne profit may be claimed in respect of
(a) movable property
(b) immovable property
(c) both (A) and (B)
(d) only (A) not (B)
20. Where several courts have jurisdiction are subordinate to the same appellate
court, an application for transfer of suit shall be made to
(a) the High Court
(b) the Supreme Court
(c) the appellate Court
(d) the competent Court of first instance
21. Where relief claimed by the plaintiff is undervalued and the valuation has not
been corrected within the time granted or extended by the Court. The plaint
(a) shall be rejected
(b) shall be returned
(c) may be returned
(d) shall be dismissed
22. According to which of the following provision of the Code of Civil Procedure,
1908, the Court may pronounce judgment on the upon the admission made by
the parties either in the pleadings or otherwise.
(a) Order XIII Rule 5
(b) Order VIII Rule 9
(c) Order XIV Rule 7
(d) Order XII Rule 6
23. In order to get the clerical or arithmetical mistakes in judgment rectified, an
application shall be made
(a) anytime
(b) within 30 days from the judgment
(c) within 60 days from the judgment
(d) within 3 years from the judgment

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24. Amendment done in pleading shall be effective from
(a) the date of amendment
(b) the date of original pleading
(c) the date of order for amendment of pleading
(d) the date of application for amendment of pleading
25. An order of precept is primarily related to
(a) Sale of property
(b) Attachment of property
(c) Delivery of property
(d) all of the above
26. The pleading should contain
(a) a statement in concise form of material facts
(b) evidences through which parties wants to prove their claim
(c) provisions of law relevant to the prevailing circumstances
(d) all of the above
27. Right to sue survives if
(a) plaintiff survives
(b) defendant survives
(c) cause of action survives
(d) either (A) or (B) or (C)
28. Which of the following offence of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, corresponds to
the offence known as ‘malicious injury to property’
(a) Theft
(b) Mishief
(c) Criminal Breach of Trust
(d) Extortion
29. Which of the following is an inevitable element of mens rea for the term
“dishonestly”
(a) intention
(b) knowledge
(c) reason to believe
(d) all of the above
30. In order to convict a person vicariously liable under section 34 or section 149
it is
(a) necessary to prove that each and every one of them had indulged in
overt acts
(b) is not necessary to prove that each and every one of them had
indulged in overt acts

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 (c) every case is based upon its own merits, thus nothing can be
concluded
(d) either (A) or (B) or (C)
31. A attacks Z under such circumstances of grave provocation that his killing of Z
would be only culpable homicide not amounting to murder. B, having ill will
towards Z and intending to kill him, and not having been subject to the
provocation assists A in killing Z. Here, A and B are both engaged in causing
Z’s death. B is guilty of
(a) culpable homicide
(b) no offence
(c) murder
(d) criminal conspiracy
32. In calculating fractions of terms of punishment, imprisonment for life shall be
reckoned as equivalent to
(a) imprisonment of either description for a term not exceeding fourteen
years
(b) imprisonment for twenty years
(c) imprisonment for twelve years
(d) imprisonment for sixteen years
33. Select the correct statement
1. A dishonest misappropriation for a time only amounts to
misappropriation for the purpose of section 403 of IPC.
2. Mischief may be committed by an act affecting property belonging to
the person who commits the act.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) both 1 & 2
(d) neither 1 nor 2
34. A, by pledging as diamonds article which he knows are not diamonds,
intentionally deceives Z, and thereby dishonestly induces Z to lend money. A
has committed the offence of
(a) mischief
(b) cheating
(c) Dishonest misappropriation of property
(d) Criminal breach of trust
35. The offence of dishonest misappropriation of property shall be committed in
respect of
(a) movable property

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 (b) immovable property
(c) both (A) and (B)
(d) only (B) not (A)
36. What is the punishment for cheating by personation
(a) imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to one
year or fine or both.
(b) imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two
years or fine or both.
(c) imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three
years or fine or both.
(d) imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to
seven years or fine or both.
37. According to section 312 of IPC, the term “…woman be quick with child…”
stands for
(a) pregnancy has crossed one month
(b) pregnancy has crossed two months
(c) pregnancy has crossed three months
(d) pregnancy has crossed four months
38. Which exception to section 300 of IPC, provides protection to the public
servant, acting for the advancement of public justice
(a) Exception 1
(b) Exception 2
(c) Exception 3
(d) Exception 4
39. A person who voluntarily vitiates the atmosphere in any place so as to make it
noxious to the health shall be punished under
(a) Section 278
(b) Section 277
(c) Section 276
(d) Section 281
40. Select the correct statement
Assault cannot be caused by
(a) Mere gestures
(b) Mere preparation
(c) Mere words
(d) all of the above
41. In order to constitute the offence of kidnapping the guardian must be
(a) natural guardian
(b) legal guardian

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 (c) lawful guardian
(d) parent
42. In which year the age of male was increased from fourteen to sixteen years
for the purpose of section 361 of IPC
(a) 1949
(b) 1950
(c) 1972
(d) 2000
43. An application for the monthly allowance for the interim maintenance and
expenses of proceeding under the second proviso to section 125 of CrPC
shall be disposed of within
(a) 30 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 90 days
(d) 120 days
44. Which provision of the CrPC empower the Magistrate to refuse to accept any
surety offered on the ground that such surety is an unfit person for the
purposes of the bond
(a) Section 123
(b) Section 122
(c) Section 121
(d) Section 120
45. Who among the following is empowered to ask security for good behaviour
from person disseminating seditious matters
(a) Session Judge
(b) Executive Magistrate
(c) Judicial Magistrate of First Class
(d) either (A) or (B) or (C)
46. Who among the following may direct search in his presence
(a) Judicial Magistrate First Class
(b) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(c) Executive Magistrate
(d) Any Magistrate
47. Within how much period after the issue of proclamation, the Court issuing a
proclamation under section 82 may for reasons to be recorded in writing order
attachment of property belonging to the proclaimed offender
(a) at any time
(b) 30 days
(c) 60 days

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 (d) six months
48. Which of the following provision of the CrPC embraces the provisions related
to ‘case diary’
(a) Section 167
(b) Section 172
(c) Section 173
(d) Section 154
49. A person called as a witness under section 311 of CrPC, is a
(a) defence witness
(b) Prosecution witness
(c) hostile witness
(d) none of the above
50. The Judicial Magistrate of First Class may exercise the power conferred under
Section 306 of CrPC at the state of
(a) Investigation
(b) Inquiry
(c) Inquiry or trial
(d) either (A) or (B)
51. The provisions of section 307 of CrPC have application during
(a) investigation
(b) trial
(c) inquiry
(d) any of the above, as the court deems fit
52. According to the provisions of the CrPC, which of the following shall not be
done by the Magistrate or the Court
(a) inquiry
(b) trial
(c) investigation
(d) none of the above
53. The doctrine of ‘autrefois acquit and autrefois convict’ is incorporated in
(a) Section 97
(b) Section 300
(c) Section 303
(d) Section 482
54. The provisions of section 281 of CrPC, do not apply to the examination of an
accused in the course of
(a) summary trial
(b) summons trial

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 (c) warrant trial
(d) none of the above
55. If the witness is within the territories to which provisions of CrPC extends, the
commission shall be directed to the
(a) CMM or CJM
(b) MM or Judicial Magistrate First Class
(c) Any executive Magistrate
(d) any of the above
56. What is the maximum period for which a Magistrate may remand an accused
person at a time to custody under the provisions of section 309 of CrPC
(a) 7 days
(b) 15 days
(c) 30 days
(d) 06 months
57. Under which of the following provisions of the CrPC, the Court of Sessions
may take direct cognizance
(a) Section 199(2)
(b) Section 319
(c) both (A) and (B)
(d) neither (A) nor (B)
58. A marriage solemnized between two Hindus who are sapindas of each other
shall be valid if the custom of usage governing
(a) any of them permits of a marriage between the two
(b) each of them permits of a marriage between the two
(c) either (A) or (B)
(d) neither (A) not (B)
59. Which of the following is not relevant for the purpose of ‘prohibited
relationship’
(a) illegitimate blood relationship
(b) relationship by adoption
(c) relationship by uterine blood
(d) none of the above
60. According to Section 5(iii) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, what should be the
minimum age of bridegroom and bride at the time of marriage
(a) bridegroom twenty one years and bride eighteen years
(b) bridegroom eighteen years and bride twenty one years
(c) bridegroom twenty years and bride eighteen years
(d) bridegroom eighteen years and bride fifteen years
61. Bigamy is committed, if subsisting marriage is

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 (a) voidable
(b) valid
(c) void
(d) either (A) or (B)
62. Every person who procures a marriage of himself or herself to be solemnized
under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 in contravention of conditions specified in
clause (iv) of section 5 shall be punishable with
(a) simple imprisonment which may extend to one year or fine which may
extend to one thousand rupees or both
(b) rigorous imprisonment which may extend to two years or fine which
may extend to one lakh rupees or both
(c) simple imprisonment which may extend to one month or fine which may
extend to one thousand rupees or both
(d) rigorous imprisonment which may extend to one year or fine which may
extend to fifty thousand rupees or both
63. Which provision of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, authorize application of the
Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 to its proceedings
(a) section 21
(b) section 22
(c) section 23
(d) section 24
64. According to the provisions of section 11 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, in
case of void marriage, the decree of nullity may be obtained by
(a) man
(b) woman
(c) either (A) or (B)
(d) only (B) not (A)
65. Before filing the petition for divorce under section 13B of the Hindu Marriage
Act, 1955, the parties must be living separately for a period of
(a) six months or more
(b) one year or more
(c) two years or more
(d) substantially long period
66. Which provision of the HMGA, 1956, defines the term ‘guardian’
(a) section 3(a)
(b) section 3(b)
(c) section 4(a)
(d) section 4(b)
67. If the adoption is of a son, the adoptive father or mother must not have a living

11
 (a) son
(b) son’s son
(c) son’s son’s son
(d) either (A) or (B) or (C)
68. The Shariat Act, 1937, came into force with effect from
(a) 01 March 1937
(b) 07 October 1937
(c) 01 January 1938
(d) 12 March 1938
69. Which of the following school belongs to Shias
(a) Maliki
(b) Hanbali
(c) Ismaili
(d) Shafei
70. Who among the following may be appointed as mutawalli
(a) Muslim male
(b) Muslim female
(c) male or female of any religion
(d) either (A) or (B) or (C)
71. An apartment in a private house or a building set apart like a private chapel for
religious purposes is called
(a) Takia
(b) Imambara
(c) Dargah
(d) Khanqah
72. Which of the following is not an essential condition of a waqf
(a) irrevocability
(b) perpetuity
(c) pious or charitable use of usufruct
(d) conditional or contingent
73. As per Muslim law which of the following is/are valid gift
(a) gift to unborn person
(b) gift of anything to be produced in future
(c) contingent gift
(d) none of the above
74. Who among the following type of guardian may be removed by the court if it is
necessary in the interest of minor
(a) de jure guardian

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 (b) de facto guardian
(c) both (A) and (B)
(d) only (A) not (B)
75. Select the statement which is TRUE
1. Muslim law does not recognize the institution of adoption.
2. In Muslim law, an acknowledgment of legitimacy, is a declaration of
legitimacy and not a legitimation.
3. It is not necessary that an acknowledgment should be epress, it may
also be implied
(a) all of the above
(b) 2 & 3 only
(c) 1 & 2 only
(d) 1 & 3 only
76. As the prompt dower is payable on demand, limitation begins to run on
demand and refusal. The period of limitation for this purpose is
(a) one year
(b) two years
(c) three years
(d) Twelve years
77. Where the marriage of minor was contracted by remoter guardian and the
nearer one is present and available and such nearer guardian does not give
consent to marriage, the marriage is
(a) voidable
(b) void
(c) valid
(d) unlawful
78. According to section 18 of the Limitation Act, 1963, for a fresh period of
limitation to begin from the time of acknowledgment of liability, it is necessary
that the acknowledgment must be
(a) made before the expiration of the prescribed period
(b) in writing
(c) Signed by the party against whom the right is claimed
(d) all of the above
79. A time barred debt may be claimed as a
(a) set-off
(b) fresh suit
(c) counter-claim
(d) none of the above

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80. Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the limitation period for an
application for an order to set aside an abatement
(a) 30 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 90 days
(d) 120 days
81. The limitation period for execution of a decree granting a perpetual injunction
(a) shall not be subject to any period of limitation
(b) 90 days
(c) 3 years
(d) 12 years
82. Mark the incorrect statement
Tort means a civil wrong which is not exclusively the
(a) breach of contract
(b) breach of trust
(c) breach of moral duty
(d) both (A) and (B)
83. A contracts to act at a theatre for six months in a consideration of a sum paid
in advance by B. On several occasions A is too ill to act. The contract to act
on those occasions becomes
(a) Valid
(b) Void
(c) Voidable
(d) Unlawful
84. When a party to a contract promises to do a certain thing at or before a
specified time and fails to do such thing at or before a specified time and the
intention of the parties was that time should be of essence of the contract. In
such circumstances the contract
(a) becomes voidable at the option of the promisee
(b) does not become voidable but the promisee is entitled for
compensation
(c) becomes void
(d) becomes voidable at the option of either party to the contract.
85. Which of the following provision of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, provides that
it is the duty of the promisee to apply for the performance at a proper place
and within the usual hours of business
(a) Section 47
(b) Section 48
(c) Section 49

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 (d) Section 46
86. The question what is proper time and place” is a question of
(a) fact
(b) law
(c) mixed question of law and fact
(d) either (A) or (B) as per the situation
87. Where persons reciprocally promise firstly to do certain things which are legal
and second under specified circumstances to do certain other things which
are illegal then which set of promise is contract
(a) first
(b) second
(c) both (A) and (B)
(d) neither (A) nor (B)
88. Which provision of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, deals with the doctrine of
waiver
(a) Section 62
(b) Section 63
(c) Section 64
(d) Section 39
89. A railway company refuse to deliver up certain goods to the consignee except
upon the payment of an illegal charge for carriage. The consignee pays the
sum charged in order to obtain the goods. The consignee is
(a) not entitled to recover the charge as was illegally excessive
(b) entitled to recover so much of the charges as was illegally excessive
(c) not entitled to recover as he needs to raise the objection before
obtaining the delivery of the goods.
(d) not entitled to recover any sum as government organization cannot
charge illegally.
90. C, a creditor whose advance to B’s is secured by a decree, receives also a
guarantee for that advance from A. C afterwards takes B’s goods in
execution under the decree and then without the knowledge of A withdraws
the execution. A is
(a) not discharged
(b) still liable
(c) discharged
(d) none of the above
91. A threat to commit suicide in performance of the contract amounts to
(a) fraud
(b) misrepresentation

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 (c) Undue influence
(d) Coercion
92. When the goods are bailed for hire, the bailor is responsible for damage,
when
(a) he was aware of the existence of faults in the goods bailed
(b) he was not aware of the existence of the faults in the goods bailed
(c) whether he was or was not aware of the existence of the faults in the
goods bailed
(d) he was make known about the faults.
93. Which of the following provisions of the Indian Constitution defines the term
‘the state’
(a) Article 36
(b) Article 12
(c) only (B) not (A)
(d) both (A) and (B)
94. Which provision of Indian Constitution embraces the principle of double
jeopardy
(a) Article 20(1)
(b) Article 20(2)
(c) Article 20(3)
(d) Article 23
95. Article 31B was inserted to Indian Constitution by which Constitutional
Amendment Act
(a) First
(b) Twenty fifth
(c) Forty Fourth
(d) Forty Second
96. For the purpose of Article 30 of Indian Constitution, minority includes
(a) religious minority
(b) linguistic minority
(c) cultural minority
(d) both (A) and (B)
97. Article 29 provides the right to conserve
(a) distinct language
(b) distinct script
(c) distinct culture
(d) all of the above
98. The provision in respect of equal justice and free legal aid was inserted to the
Indian Constitution in

16
 (a) 1954
(b) 1976
(c) 1978
(d) 1981
99. Subject to the provisions of Article 333, the Legislative Assembly of each
State shall consist of not less than
(a) 20 members
(b) 40 members
(c) 60 members
(d) 80 members
100. The President may promulgate ordinances when both Houses of Parliament
are not in session. These ordinances must be approved by the Parliament
within how much period from its reassembly
(a) one year
(b) six months
(c) six weeks
(d) thirty days
101. The minimum number of judges who are to sit for the purpose of deciding any
case involving a substantial question of law as to interpretation of Constitution
shall be
(a) three
(b) five
(c) seven
(d) nine
102. At present how much salary is paid to the Chief Justice of India
(a) 4 lakh
(b) 3.5 lakh
(c) 3 lakh
(d) 2.8 lakh
103. As per new rules framed under Medical Termination of Pregnancy
(Amendment) Rules, 2021, the gestational limit for termination of pregnancy
has been increased from 20 weeks to
(a) 21 weeks
(b) 22 weeks
(c) 23 weeks
(d) 24 weeks
104. The first State of India which implemented National Education Policy, 2020
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Karnataka

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 (c) Haryana
(d) Gujarat
105. In which case the Hon’ble Supreme Court held that the Governor can exercise
pardon power including in death sentence cases, even if the prisoner has not
undergone 14 years imprisonment
(a) State of Haryana Vs Rajkumar @ Bittu
(b) State of Himachal Pradesh Vs Shri P.D Attri
(c) Shyam Lal S/o Baru Ram Vs State of Haryana
(d) State of Haryana Vs Hukum Chand
106. Muslim Women Rights Day is observed on
(a) 01 August
(b) 01 March
(c) 11 April
(d) 05 September
107. Who is current Union Minister of Law and Justice
(a) Mr. Ashwani Kumar
(b) Mr. Kiren Rijiju
(c) Mr. Ravi Shankar Prasad
(d) Mr. DV Sadananda Gowda
108. Which of the following grade of jewelries will not be covered under hallmarked
category under new regulations
(a) 22 carat
(b) 18 carat
(c) 16 carat
(d) 14 carat
109. Before elevated to the Supreme Court, current Chief Justice of India was
Chief Justice of which High Court
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Karnataka
(c) Kerala
(d) Delhi
110. Which City is known as ‘Heart of Haryana’
(a) Jind
(b) Sirsa
(c) Ambala
(d) Karnal
111. The first Haryanvi film
(a) Bairee

18
 (b) Chandrawal
(c) Dharti
(d) Gulaboo
112. Antonio Guterres was re-elected as the Secretary General of the UN for a 2nd
5 year term. His second term will start from
(a) 01 April 2022
(b) 01 January 2022
(c) 31 December 2021
(d) 24 October 2022
113. As per the provisions of Registration Act, 1908, every court granting a
certificate of sale of immovable property under the Code of Civil Procedure,
1908, shall sent a copy of such certificate to the registering officer within the
local limits of whose jurisdiction the whole or any part of the immovable
property comprised in such certificate is situate and such officer shall file the
copy in his
(a) Book No. 1
(b) Book No. 2
(c) Book No. 3
(d) Book No. 4
114. Which of the following term does not fall under the ambit of the term ‘lease’
(a) agreement to lease
(b) counterpart
(c) Kabuliyat
(d) none of the above
115. The provision related to keeping of books in computer floppies or diskettes
was inserted to the Registration Act, 1908 in
(a) 1987
(b) 2001
(c) 2006
(d) 2013
116. The remedy available with the person unsuccessful in a suit under section 6 of
the Specific Relief Act, 1963
(a) prefer an appeal against the order or decree
(b) review of order or decree
(c) institute a suit based on title
(d) all of the above
117. Which of the following contract may be specifically enforced
(a) Where party to the contract has obtained substituted performance of
contract

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 (b) a contract which is in its nature indeterminable
(c) A contract the performance of which involves the performance of a
continuous duty which the court cannot supervise
(d) none of the above
118. A perpetual injunction may be granted
(a) at any stage of suit
(b) by a decree made at the hearing and upon the merits of the suit
(c) as a matter of right after 2018 amendment
(d) both (A) and (C)
119. The provisions of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, relating to contract of sale do
not apply to transaction in the form of sale which is intended to operate by
way of
(a) mortgage
(b) pledge
(c) charge
(d) all of the above
120. When either party to a contract of sale repudiates the contract before the date
of delivery, the other party may
(a) treat the contract as subsisting and wait till the date of delivery
(b) treat the contract as rescinded and sue for damages for the breach
(c) either (A) or (B)
(d) neither (A) nor (B)
121. Which provision of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, embraces the concept of
specific performance
(a) Section 58
(b) Section 59
(c) Section 60
(d) Section 61
122. According to the provisions of section 19 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932,
implied authority of a partner as agent of the firm does not empower him to
(a) enter into partnership on behalf of the firm
(b) acquire immovable property on behalf of the firm
(c) open a banking account on behalf of the firm in his own name
(d) all of the above
123. Select the statement which is true
1. A minor may be admitted as a partner in a firm
2. Such minor’s share is not liable for the acts of the firm.
3. Such minor is personally liable for acts of the firm

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 (a) 1 only
(b) 1 & 2 only
(c) all 1, 2 and 3
(d) none among 1, 2 and 3
124. A partner may be expelled from the firm
(a) by majority of the partners
(b) in the exercise in good faith of powers conferred by contract between
the partners
(c) by consent of all the partners
(d) under no circumstances whatever it may be
125. When the Controller is satisfied that any application made by a landlord for
eviction of a tenant is frivolous or vexatious, the Controller may direct how
much compensation to be paid by the landlord to the tenant
(a) not exceeding five hundred rupees
(b) not exceeding one thousand rupees
(c) not exceeding two thousand rupees
(d) not exceeding five thousand rupees.

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 HARYANA CIVIL JUDGE (PRE.) EXAMINATION - 2021
MOCK TEST SERIES
TEST –V
Date: 07/11/2021
1. B 26. A 51. B 76. C 101. B

2. A 27. C 52. C 77. B 102. D

3. B 28. B 53. B 78. D 103. D

4. C 29. A 54. A 79. D 104. B

5. D 30. B 55. A 80. B 105. A

6. D 31. C 56. B 81. A 106. A

7. B 32. B 57. C 82. C 107. B

8. C 33. C 58. B 83. B 108. C

9. C 34. B 59. D 84. A 109. D

10. D 35. A 60. A 85. B 110. A

11. A 36. C 61. D 86. A 111. C

12. B 37. D 62. C 87. A 112. B

13. C 38. C 63. A 88. B 113. A

14. B 39. A 64. C 89. B 114. D

15. C 40. C 65. B 90. C 115. B

16. D 41. C 66. D 91. D 116. C

17. C 42. A 67. D 92. C 117. B

18. A 43. B 68. B 93. D 118. B

19. B 44. C 69. C 94. B 119. D

20. C 45. B 70. D 95. A 120. C

21. A 46. D 71. B 96. D 121. A

22. D 47. A 72. D 97. D 122. D

23. A 48. B 73. D 98. B 123. D

24. B 49. D 74. C 99. C 124. B

25. B 50. C 75. A 100. C 125. A

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