Polity (250 MCQ) by Saurabh Kumar

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POLITY MCQ
Prelims 2021
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SAURABH KUMAR
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(Faculty SRIAS)
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FOR ALL CURRENT UPDATES RELATED TO POLITY AND GOVERNANCE, PLEASE FOLLOW SAURABH SIR TELEGRAM CHANNEL “SAURABH POLITY”
Q.1) Which of the following is the most Q.4) Which of the following arguments
important feature of Indian democracy? for the democratic government is/are
correct?
a) Head of the state is chosen by the
universal adult franchise. 1. It is a more accountable form of
b) Office of head of the state is open government.
for all the citizens of the country. 2. It involves improved quality of decision
c) Head of the state is directly making.
responsible to the people of the 3. It enhances the dignity of citizens.
country.
d) Head of the Government can be Select the correct answer using the codes
changed directly or indirectly by the given below:
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people of the country. a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
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Q.2) Which of the following is the most c) 2 and 3 only
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appropriate definition of a limited d) 1, 2 and 3
government?
a) A govt. that operates with limited ty Q.5) Which of the following correctly
manifest the form of direct democracy?
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powers when the elections are due 1. Lok Adalat
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and model code of conduct is in 2. Gram Sabha

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operation. 3. Gram Nyayalayas

b) A subsidiary govt. that owes its
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sovereignty to any other govt. Select the correct answer using the codes
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c) A govt. that rules within the limits given below:

set by constitutional law. a) 1 only
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d) A govt. that has lost the majority in b) 2 only

the House of people before the c) 1 and 2 only
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completion of its tenure. d) 2 and 3 only

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Q.3) Which of the following arguments Q.6) Which of the following statements is/
against democracy is/are correct? are correct regarding direct democracy?
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1. Democracy leads to instability. 1. It is suitable only for the countries that

2. Democracy leads to delay in decision have a sufficiently smaller population.
making. 2. It is suitable only for the questions of
3. Democracy is suitable only for the smaller decision making.
developed countries.
Select the correct answer using the codes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
given below: a) 1 only
a) 2 only b) 2 only
b) 1 and 2 only c) Both 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3 only d) Neither 1 nor 2
d) 1, 2 and 3
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Q.7) Which of the following electoral a) 1 only

systems are followed in India? b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
1. First past the post. d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Proportional representation.
3. Area based system of representation. Q.10) Consider the following statements,
with reference to the office of President in
Select the correct answer using the codes India.
given below:
a) 1 and 2 only 1. Any citizen of India can contest for the
b) 2 and 3 only election to the office of President.
c) 1 and 3 only 2. The office has a fixed tenure of five years
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d) 1, 2 and 3 for the maximum of two terms.
3. The office is an integral part of the
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Q.8) Which of the following statements Parliament.
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a re i n c o r r e c t , w i t h re f e re n c e t o
Panchayati raj elections in India? Which of the statements given above is/are
1. The elections are conducted by an ty incorrect:-

a) 1 and 2 only
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independent election commission appointed b) 2 only
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by the president of India. c) 1 and 3 only

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2. One third of the seats are reserved for d) 1, 2 and 3

scheduled castes and scheduled tribes.
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3. The age limit to contest in the elections is Q.11) Consider the following statements,
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25 years. with reference to the Presidential form of

government.
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given below: 1. The President is both the head of the state
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a) 1 and 2 only and the head of the government.

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b) 3 only 2. The President appoints the council of

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c) 1 and 3 only ministers on the advice of the prime

d) 1, 2 and 3 minister.
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3. The President can veto any law made by

Q.9) Which among the following belong the legislatures.
to the electoral college for the election to
the President of India? Which of the statements given above is/are
1) All the elected members of both the correct?
houses of Parliament. a) 1 and 2 only
2) All the elected members of State b) 2 and 3 only
Legislative Councils. c) 1 and 3 only
3) All the elected members of the d) 1, 2 and 3
Legislative Assemblies of Union Territories.
Q.12) Consider the following statements,
Select the correct answer using the codes with reference to the judiciary of India.
given below:
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1. The Supreme court and The High Courts c) Providing an atmosphere where
both have the power to interpret the everyone has the same rights and
constitution of India. duties.
2. The Supreme court and The High Courts d) Enabling everyone to have an equal
both can declare any law of the legislature opportunity to achieve whatever one
or the action of the executives as invalid is capable of.
whether at the union level or at the state
level. Q.15) Which of the statements given
below are true for the Right against
Which of the statements given above is/are Exploitation?
correct?
a) 1 only a) No person shall be detained without
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b) 2 only informing the reasons for the
c) Both 1 and 2 detention.
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d) Neither 1 nor 2 b) Right against the practice of all the
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forms of untouchability.
Q.13) Which of the following statements c) Right against discrimination to
is/are correct with reference to the
parliamentary form of government in ty access public places.
d) Prohibition of traffic in human
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India? beings.
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1. The President and the Prime minister Q.16) Consider the following statement,
both are elected indirectly by the people. with reference to the uniqueness of
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2. The Prime minister can be a member Indian secularism.

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from any of the houses of Parliament.

3. The Council of ministers is responsible to 1. It allows everyone to freely practice and
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the Lok Sabha only. propagate a particular religion without any

limitation.
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Select the correct answer using the codes 2. Every religious group is free to manage
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given below: its religious affairs.

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a) 1 only 3. It follows a principled and equal distance

b) 2 and 3 only from all religions.
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c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
Q.14) Which of the following is the most a) 1 and 2 only
appropriate definition of the Right to b) 2 and 3 only
Equality? c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
a) Giving everyone the same treatment
irrespective of their status in the Q.17) Which of the following is regarded
society. as the heart and soul of Indian
b) To do away with all sorts of constitution?
distinctions in the society.
a) The preamble
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b) Directive principles of state policy 1. It helps accommodate regional diversity.

c) The right to constitutional remedies 2. It guarantees cooperation between federal
d) Both b and c and provincial governments as well as
among the provincial governments.
Q.18) Consider the following statements, 3. It promotes unity in the country.
with reference to the writs issued by
courts:- Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
1. It can be issued for the enforcement of a) 1 and 2 only
fundamental as well as legal rights. b) 2 and 3 only
2. It can be issued by the Supreme court as c) 1 and 3 only
well as the High courts. d) 1, 2 and 3
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3. It can be issued against the actions of the
executive as well as the judiciary. Q.21) Consider the following statements:-
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Which of the statements given above is/are 1. Reduction of corruption in the
correct? government.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only ty 2. Strengthening of democracy at the grass
root level.
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c) 1 and 3 only 3. Reduces the efficiency of policy
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d) 1, 2 and 3 implementation in the government.

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Q.19) Which of the following is an Which of the above statement(s) is/are the
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instance of an exercise of a fundamental merits of local self-government:-

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right? a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only
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1. An Indian from one state may travel c) 1 and 3 only

freely throughout the territory of India, and d) 1, 2 and 3
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may settle in part.

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2. Any Indian citizen may choose to own Q.22) With reference to Gram
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land in any part of the country to start a Panchayats under the Panchayati raj
business. system of India, consider the following
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3. A citizen of India who is accused of any statements:-

offence, may choose not to provide his/her
biometric details. 1. All the voters in the village are its
members.
Select the correct answer using the codes 2. It is the decision making body for the
given below: entire village.
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only Which of the above statement(s) is/are
c) 1 and 2 only correct?
d) 1, 2 and 3 a) 1 only
b) 2 only
Q.20) Which of the following is true for a
‘Federal form of government’:-
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c) Both 1 and 2 Select the correct answer using the codes

d) Neither 1 nor 2 given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Q.23) With reference to Women’s b) 2, 3 and 4 only
political representation in India, consider c) 1, 2 and 4 only
the following statements:- d) All of the above
1. The percentage of elected women Q.26) With reference to Pressure groups,

members in Lok Sabha has always been consider the following statements:-
below 10 percent.
2 . Th e average s hare of w omen' s 1. They do not directly engage into party
participation in all the state assemblies has politics.
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always been more than their participation in 2. They try to influence government policies
Lok Sabha. by disrupting government programs and
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organising strikes.
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Which of the above statement(s) is/are 3. They employ professional lobbyists or
correct? offer expensive advertisements to gain
a) 1 only
b) 2 only ty public sympathy and media attention.
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c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the statements above is/are
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d) Neither 1 nor 2 correct?

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a) 2 only
Q.24) According to Census of India 2011, b) 1 and 3 only
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which among the following religions has c) 1 and 2 only

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the least share in total population of d) 2 and 3 only

India?
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Q.27) With reference to the political

a) Buddhism parties, consider the following
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b) Jainism statements:-
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c) Christians
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d) Sikhs 1. The Constitution has laid down detailed

criteria for a political party to be a
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Q.25) A democratic govt. is the one in recognised party.

which:- 2. The Election Commission of India has
recognised only six political parties as
1.) The rulers elected by the people take all National parties.
the major decisions.
2.) The elections offer a fair opportunity to Select the correct answer using the codes
the people to change the current rulers. given below:
3.) The citizen has the right to caste only a) 1 only
one vote and each vote has equal value. b) 2 only
4.) The rights of the citizen are protected by c) 1 and 2 both
an independent judiciary. d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Q.28) Which of the followings is/are the c) Since the Prime Minister is appointed by
conditions for a political party to become the President, there is no need for direct
a National party:- election.
d) In a Parliamentary democracy only the
1. A Party must secure at least six percent of leader of the majority party in Lok Sabha
the total votes in an election to the Lok can become Prime Minister.
Sabha. Q.31) In order to contest elections in
2. A Party must win at least four percent India, a candidate must declare the
seats in the Assembly elections to more than details of which of the following:-
two states.
Select the correct answer using the codes 1. All the civil and criminal cases pending
given below: against the candidate.
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a) 1 only 2. Details of the assets and liabilities of the
b) 2 only candidate and his/her family.
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c) 1 and 2 both 3. Education qualification of the candidate.
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d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.29) Consider the following statements:-
ty given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
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1. Democracies are based on economic b) 2 and 3 only
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equality and it guarantees economic c) 1 and 3 only

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equality. d) 1, 2 and 3
2. The rates of economic growth in
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democratic regimes have been greater than Q.32) Which of the following pairs are
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the rates of economic growth in dictatorial correctly matched:-

regimes between 1950 and 2000.
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Slogan Party
Which of the statements given above is/are
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correct? 1. Save Democracy CPI

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a) 1 only 2. Garibi Hatao Congress Party

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b) 2 only 3. Land to the tiller. Janata Party

c) Both 1 and 2
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d) Neither 1 nor 2 Select the correct answer using the codes

given below:
Q.30) Why is the Prime Minister of India a) 2 only
not directly elected by the people? b) 2 and 3 only
Choose the most appropriate answer:- c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
a) Direct election for Prime Minister will
involve a lot of expenditure on election. Q.33) With reference to the Chief
b) Lok Sabha can remove the Prime Election Commissioner, consider the
Minister even before the expiry of his/her following statements:-
term.
1. CEC is appointed by the President on the
advice of the council of ministers.
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2. CEC is appointed for a maximum period Which among the following is correct?
of five years or continues till age of 65 1 2 3 4
years, whichever is earlier. a) D A B C
b) B C D A
Which of the statements given above is/are c) B D A C
correct? d) C D A B
a) 1 only
b) 2 only Q.36) Consider the following subjects:-
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Education
2. Forest
Q.34) In the context of democracies, 3. Administration of judgement
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which of the following have been 4. Cryptocurrency
successfully eliminated? 5. Cyber Security
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a) Conflicts among the social groups within Which of the subjects given above belong to
the country. the concurrent list of Indian Constitution?
b) Differences of opinion about how
marginalised sections are to be treated. ty a) 1, 2 and 5 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
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c) The idea of political inequality. c) 2, 3 and 4 only
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d) Administrative inefficiencies and d) 1, 2 and 3 only

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corruption.
Q.37) Which among the following
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Q.35) Choose the appropriate code to statements is correct about democracy:-

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match List 1 and List 2

1. Due to political competitions in a
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List 1 List 2 democracy, social divisions get reflected in

politics.
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2. Democracy is the best way to

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Power shared among A. accommodate social diversity.

1. different organs of the Community
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3. In a democracy, it is impossible to create

government. government harmony among different social
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Power shared among B. Separa?on communities.

2. governments at of powers
different levels. Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
Power shared by C. Coali?on a) 1 only
3. different social government b) 1 and 3 only
groups. c) 2 and 3 only
Power shared by two D. Federal d) 1 and 2 only
4. or more poli?cal government
par?es. Q.38) Which of the following statements
is incorrect with reference to the
independence of the judiciary in India:-
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1. Judges of the Supreme Court can be

removed only on the ground of proved Q.41) The Constitution of India is a blend
misbehaviour or incapacity. of rigidity and flexibility. Many of its
2. Discussion on the conduct of the judges provisions can be amended solely by the
of the Supreme Court is barred in the Parliament whereas others require a
Parliament. complex and lengthy process. With
reference to this, a bill must satisfy which
Select the correct answer using the codes of the following conditions in order to
given below: amend a provision of the constitution that
a) 1 only relates to the sharing of power between
b) 2 only the union and the states:-
c) Both 1 and 2
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d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. The bill must be passed in both the
houses of parliament separately, with the
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Q.39) Consider the following statements majority of at least two-third of the
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with reference to the powers of Supreme members present and voting.
Court:- 2. The bill must be ratified by the
1. Its decisions are binding on all courts ty legislatures of at least half of the total states,
with the majority of at least one-half of the
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within the territory of India. members present and voting.
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2. It can transfer any case from one High

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Court to another. Select the correct answer using the codes

3. It can remove judges of High Courts. given below:
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a) 1 only
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Which of the statements given above is/are b) 2 only

correct? c) Both 1 and 2
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a) 1 and 2 only d) Neither 1 nor 2

b) 2 and 3 only
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c) 1 and 3 only Q.42) Which of the following is not an

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d) 1, 2 and 3 essential feature of ‘federalism’:-

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Q.40) Which of the following statements a) Written constitution.

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is correct with reference to an advisory b) Independent judiciary.

jurisdiction of the Supreme Court:- c) Division of power among different
constituent units of government equally.
a) It allows a person to seek advice from the d) None of the above
Supreme Court against the judgments of
High Courts. Q.43) Consider the following statements,
b) It allows a state to seek advice from the with reference to the scheduled languages
Supreme Court in a matter of conflict with in India:-
the centre or any other state.
c) It allows the President to seek advice 1. There are 22 scheduled languages under
from the Supreme Court on a matter of the constitution of India.
public importance. 2. States may have their own list of
d) None of the above scheduled languages.
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3. A candidate in an examination conducted

for a central government position may opt Which of the statements is/are correct?
to take examination in any of these a) 1 only
languages. b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are d) 1 and 3 only
correct?
a) 1 and 2 only Q.47) Which among the following is
b) 2 and 3 only matched correctly:-
c) 1 and 3 only Writs Situation
d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Mandamus: When a particular
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Q.44) Which of the following is referred office holder is not doing legal duty.
to as the third tier of our democracy:- 2. Certiorari: When a lower
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court has considered a case going beyond its
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a) Judiciary jurisdiction.
b) Executive 3. Prohibition: When a court
c) Media
d) Local governments ty has to order a lower court to transfer a
matter pending before it.
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Q.45) Which among the following is a Select the correct answer using the codes
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violation of fundamental rights:- given below:

a) 1 only
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1) Not paying minimum wages. b) 2 and 3 only

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2) Not allowing workers to go on strike. c) 1 and 3 only

3) Banning a movie. d) 1, 2 and 3
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Select the correct answer using the codes Q.48) Which among the following are the
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given below: true functions of a democracy:-

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a) 1 and 2 only
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b) 2 only 1. Set limits on governments.

c) 3 only 2. Create conditions for a just society.
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d) 1, 2 and 3 3. Enable government to fulfil the

aspirations of a society.
Q.46) With reference to the First Past the
Post System, consider the following Select the correct answer using the codes
statements:- given below:
a) 3 only
1) The entire country is divided into smaller b) 1 and 2 only
constituencies. c) 2 and 3 only
2) Every constituency elects only one d) 1, 2 and 3
representative.
3) Every political party gets seats in Q.49) Consider the following statements,
proportion to the percentage of votes polled with reference to Indian federalism:-
for it.
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1. Only the central government can make c) 1 and 3 Only

laws only on the subjects mentioned in the d) All of these
Union list.
2. Only state governments can make laws Q52:- “Supremacy of the Constitution”
on the subjects mentioned in the state list. means:-
3. Central and state governments both can
make laws on ‘residuary’ subjects. a. The Laws enacted by the Centre and
States must Conform to the
Which of the statements given above is/are Provisions of the Constitution.
incorrect? b. Parliament draws its authority from
a) 1 and 2 only the Constitution.
b) 2 and 3 only c. The Constitution draws its authority
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c) 1 and 3 only from the People.
d) 1, 2 and 3
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d. The Constitution can be amended
only by a Special Majority.
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Q.50) Which of the following are the
essential conditions for a democratic Q53:- Which of the following
government:-
ty characterises “Power Sharing” in
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Modern Democracies:-
1. Free and fair elections on a regular basis.
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2. Separation of power. 1. Power is being Shared between

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3. Right to vote for all its citizens. different levels of the Government
2. Power is being shared among
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Select the correct answer using the codes different Organs of the Government.
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given below: 3. Power is being Shared among

a) 1 only
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different Social Groups such as

b) 1 and 2 only Religious and linguistic groups.
c) 2 and 3 only
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d) 1, 2 and 3 Choose the Correct Code:-

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a) 2 Only
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Q51:- Which of the following is b) 1 and 3 Only

Considered as an important feature of
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c) 1 and 2 Only
“Parliamentary System of d) All of these
Government”:-
Q54:- Which of the following are the
1. The Ministers are the members of functions of the “Constitution”:-
both the Legislature and Executive.
2. Ministers take oath of Secrecy in the
Office before Pro-term Speaker. 1. To provide a set of rules that allow
3. It reflects the rule of majority. for coordination between members
of the society.
Choose the Correct Code:- 2. To specify the power who will take
a) 1 and 2 Only decisions in the society.
b) 2 and 3 Only
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3. To put a limit on the Government d) Neither 1 nor 2

Power to impose restriction on its
Citizens. Q 57:- What is the meaning of “Liberal”
in true Sense:-
Choose the correct
code:- 1. Tolerant to one’s views.
a) 1 Only 2. Right to express in case of
b) 2 Only disagreement.
c) 3 Only 3. Priority of Individual over society.
d) All of these
Choose the Correct Code:
Q55:- Consider the following a) 1 and 3 Only
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Statements:- b) 1 and 2 Only
c) 1 Only
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d) All of These
1. The Constitution is a written
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document describing the formation Q58:-Which of the following is/are not
and powers of the Government.
2. The Constitution exists and is ty “federal features” of the Constitution:-
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required only in democratic 1. The Constitution is written and not
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Countries. easily amenable.
3. The Constitution is a legal document
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2. Equal representation of all states in

that deals with ideas and values. Rajya Sabha.
4. A Constitution gives its Citizens a
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3. State governments derive authority

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new identity. from the Centre.

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Choose the Correct Code:- Choose the Correct Code:

a) 1,3 and 4 only a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 3 and 4 only
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b) 2 and 3 Only
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c) 1, 2 and 4 only c) 2 Only

d) All of these
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d) 3 Only
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Q56:- Which of the following jeopardise Q59:- Which of the following are the
the “Philosophy of the Constitution”:- necessary features of “Democracy”:-
1. It appears to have glossed over 1. Fundamental Principle of Equality.

important issues like Gender Justice. 2. Government runs within the limits
2. Socio-economic rights are relegated of Law and Rights of Citizens.
to Directives Principles, which are 3. Rulers elected by the People take all
Non- Justifiable. major decisions.
Choose the Correct Code:- Choose the Correct Code:-

a) 1 Only a) 1 and 3 Only
b) 2 Only b) 2 and 3 Only
c) Both 1 and 2 c) 1 and 2 Only
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d) All of these a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
Q60:- Which of the following came into d) Neither 1 nor 2
force on “26th Nov 1949”:-
Q63:- Which of the following reflects the
1. Citizenship by Migration basic Principle of “Federalism”:-
2. Citizenship by Registration 1. Legislative authority is partitioned
3. Idea of having Election Commission between Centre and States by the
Law.
Choose the Correct Code:- 2. Executive authority is partitioned
a) 1 and 2 Only between Centre and State by the
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b) 2 Only Constitution.
c) 1 and 3 Only
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3. Executive authority is partitioned
d) All of these between Centre and State by the
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Law.
Q61:- Which of the following truly 4. Legislative authority is partitioned
describes the “Constituent Power of the
Parliament” :- ty between Centre and State by the
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Constitution
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1. Power to amend Fundamental Choose the Correct Code:-

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Rights. a) 2 and 4 Only

2. P o w e r t o m a k e l a w f o r t h e b) 2,3 and 4 Only
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enforcement of DPSP. c) 3 and 4 Only

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3. Power to abridge Fundamental d) All of these

Rights.
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4. Power to make law on all the

Q64:- Which of the following describes
matters listed in the Union list.
Federalism at its best:-
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Choose the Correct Code: 1. Courts have a power to interpret the

Constitution and Powers of the
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a) 1 and 3 Only
b) 2 and 4 Only different levels of the Government.
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c) 1, 3 and 4 Only 2. Sources of Revenue for each level

d) 1, 2 and 3 Only of the Government are clearly
specified to ensure its financial
Q62:- Consider the Following autonomy.
Statements:- 3. Different tiers of the Government
govern the same citizens, but each
1. The Constituent Assembly acted as tier has its own Jurisdiction.
Provisional Parliament till 1952.
Choose the Correct Code:-
2. The Law passed by Provisional
Parliament enjoys the status of a) 3 Only
Constitutional Provisions. b) 1 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 2 Only
Choose the Correct Code:- d) All of these
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d) Recognition of Special needs

Q65:- Consider the following Statements
with respect to the “Constituent Q68:- Consider the following Statements
Assembly”:- with regard to “Preamble”:-
1. It was constituted roughly on lines
1. Preamble may be invoked to
of the Cabinet Mission Proposals.
determine the ambit of Fundamental
2. The authority of the Constituent
rights and DPSP.
Assembly comes from the
2. Preamble was put to vote in
procedures it adopted to frame the
Constituent assembly by a motion
Constitution.
which says Preamble is a part of the
3. O n l y o n e p r o v i s i o n i n t h e
constitution.
Constituent Assembly was passed
S)
without any debate.
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Choose the Correct a) 1 Only
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Code:- b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
a) 1 and 3 Only
b) 2 Only ty d) Neither 1 nor 2
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c) 1 Only Q69:- Which of the following comes
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d) All of these under the ambit of word “Socialism”
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added in Preamble:-
Q66:- Which of the following is the main
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consideration of “Objectives Resolution”: 1. Equal pay for Equal work.

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1. All People shall be guaranteed with 2. State Ownership of any Industry.

Social, Political and Economic 3. Decent standard of living.
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Justice. 4. To reduce Inequalities.

2. India should promote World Peace
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and welfare of Mankind. Choose the Correct Code:-

ab
a) 1, 3 and 4 Only
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b) 1 and 4 Only
c) 1 Only
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a) 1 Only d) All of these

b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2 Q70:- Which of the following Statements
d) Neither 1 nor 2 is Incorrect :-
Q67:- Which of the following best 1. The Constitution of India does not
describes the idea of “Justice”:- guarantee the territorial integrity of
any state of the Union.
a) E q u a l C o n s i d e r a t i o n o f a l l 2. Under Article 3, Parliament can even
Individuals. cut the entire area of a state to form
b) Fairness in Giving Opportunity to all a new state.
Individuals.
c) Principle of Proportionate Justice Choose the correct Code:-
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a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only 1. Any person who is a citizen of
c) Both 1 and 2 another country but eligible to
d) Neither 1 nor 2 become citizen of India at the time
of commencement of the
Q71:- Which of the following statements constitution.
with respect to “Citizenship” is 2. Any person who is a citizen of any
Incorrect:- country, but belonged to the territory
that became part of India after 15th
1. One can be a Citizen of India even
August 1947.
without having a Domicile of India.
3. He is not eligible to enjoy equality
2. Citizenship Act 2003 provides for
in the matter of public employment.
dual Citizenship to Persons of
S)
Indian Origin.
IA
3. National Identity card is issued by
a) 1 and 2 Only
the Central Government to every
SR
b) 1 and 3 Only
citizen of India as per Citizenship
c) 1 and 2 Only
Act 2003.
ty d) All of these
ul
Choose the Correct Code:
Q74:- Consider the following statements
ac
a) 1 and 3 Only with respect to “National Population
b) 2 Only
(F
Register” :-
c) 3 Only
d) None of these
r
1. A resident identity card (RIC) will

ma
be issued only to individuals over

Q72:-Consider the following Statements the age of 18.
Ku
with respect to “Citizenship”:- 2. It is mandatory to enrol in NPR, and

false information amounts to an
1. It grants individuals a membership
h
offence.
ab
in the Political Community. 3. A respondent will not be required to

2. The idea of Citizenship came into
ur
produce any document for NPR.

existence on 26 January 1950.
Sa
3. All Citizens are Nationals of the Choose the Correct Code:-

Country and all the Nationals are not a) 1 and 2 Only
the Citizens of the Country. b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 Only
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only Q75:-Which of the following is not the
c) 1 and 3 Only “Fundamental right of a Child” :-
d) 3 Only
1. Right against cyber bullying.
Q73:- Consider the following statements 2. Right to Education
with respect to “Overseas citizen of 3. Right to get proper nutrition.
India”:- 4. Right against work
15
2. No Law shall declare any action as

Choose the Correct Code:- illegal retrospectively.
a) 1 and 3 Only 3. No Person shall be asked to give
b) 2 and 3 Only evidence against himself.
c) 1, 2 and 4 Only
d) 2 and 3 Only Choose the Correct Code:-
a) 1 and 3 Only
Q76:- Consider the following Statements b) 2 and 3 Only
with respect to “Minority Educational c) All of these
Institutions”:- d) None of these
1. The property can be acquired by the Q79:- Which of the following is included
S)
Government only through enactment in “Freedom of Religion”:-
of Law.
IA
2. The only limitation on the 1. It includes persuading people to
SR
government is to compensate convert from one religion to another.
adequately. 2. It also provides for not to follow any
Choose the Correct Code:- ty religion.

ul
a) 1 Only Consider the Correct Code:
ac
b) 2 Only a) 1 Only
(F
c) Both 1 and 2 b) 2 Only

d) Neither 1 nor 2 c) Both 1 and 2
r
Q77:- Which of the following is part of d) Neither 1 and 2

ma
“Right against Exploitation”:-

Q80:- Which of the following Statements
Ku
1. Prohibition of Traffic. is correct with regard to “Reservation”:-

2. Prohibition of Employment of
h
Children in hazardous Jobs. 1. Reservation is a fundamental Right

ab
3. Abolition of Untouchability. of an individual.

ur
4. Equality of Opportunity in Public 2. R e s e r v a t i o n o n t h e b a s i s o f

Employment. “Residence” can be made by State
Sa
Legislature
a) 1 and 3 only Choose the correct code:-
b) 1, 2 and 3 only a) 1 Only
c) 1 and 2 only b) 2 Only
d) All of these c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q78:- The Constitution has provided
different “Rights to ensure Fair trial”.
Q81:- Which of the following statements
Which of the following are Such Rights:-
validate the objective of “Fundamental
Rights”:-
1. No person would be punished for the
Same Offence more than once.
16
1. These Rights are the consequence of a) 1 Only

the Declaration contained in the b) 1 and 2 only
Preamble. c) 2 and 3 only
2. These rights are guarantees of the d) 3 only
way of life.
3. An act of State, whether legislative Q84:- Consider the Following Statements
or executive, if inconsistent with with respect to Idea of “Freedom” in
fundamental rights will be Polity:-
considered null and void.
1. It is said to exist when there is an
Choose the Correct Code:- absence of Constraints.
a) 1 and 2 Only 2. Constraints on Freedom can result
S)
b) 2 Only from Social Inequality.
3. Freedom is about expanding
IA
c) 2 and 3 Only
d) All of these P e o p l e ’s a b i l i t y t o d e v e l o p
SR
themselves.
Q82:- Which of the following

Fundamental Rights are available against ty Choose the Correct Code:-
a) 1 and 3 Only
ul
“Private entity”:- b) 1 and 2 Only
ac
1. Prohibition of Discrimination on c) 3 Only

(F
Certain Grounds. d) All of these

2. Abolition of Untouchability
r
3. Right to Education
ma
4. Prohibition of Trafficking Q85:- Which of the following is not the

5. Right to Life correct justification of “Freedom of
Ku
Expression”:-
h
a) 1, 2 and 3 only 1. No one can be always false.

ab
b) 1 ,3 and 5 only 2. It is required because Conflicting

ur
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only Ideas results into Right ideas.

d) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only 3. It is required for creation of
Sa
Knowledge as an asset.
Q83:- Which of the following are most
appropriate explanations for people Choose the correct code:-
claiming “Rights”:- a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 1 Only
1. Rights should be recognised by the c) 1 and 3 Only
Society d) All of these
2. Rights must be sanctioned by the
Law Q86:- Consider the following Statements
3. Rights Comes with the obligation to with respect to the claim of “Rights”:-
respect Other Rights.
1. All the Rights are derived from basic
Choose the Correct Code:- Right of Life and Liberty.
17
2. Rights are legitimate claims that 1. It is a sine qua non of Article 20.
must be recognised by the Society. 2. It protects against the risk that
3. Natural Rights keeps a check on evidence will be lost by the passage
arbitrariness of Government of time, thus impairing the ability of
the accused to defend himself.
Choose the Correct Code:- Choose the Correct Code:-
a) 1 and 3 Only a) 1 Only
b) 3 Only b) 2 Only
c) 1 and 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2
d) 2 and 3 Only d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q87:- Which of the following Q90:- Which of the following is correct
S)
Fundamental rights are available against with respect to “Freedom of
“Private Individuals Only” :- Conscience”:-
IA
SR
1. Article 15(2) 1. It has no necessary connection with
2. Article 17 any particular religion or any faith in
3.
4.
Article 23
Article 16 ty God.
2. It implies the right not to be
ul
converted into another religion and
ac
Choose the Correct Code:- to belong to any religion at all.

(F
a) 1, 2 and 3 Only
b) 2, 3 and 4 Only Choose the Correct Code:-
r
c) None of these a) 1 Only

ma
d) All of these b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2
Ku
Q88:- Which of the following constitutes d) Neither 1 nor 2

the part of “Freedom of Speech and
h
Expression”:- Q91:- Consider the following statements

ab
with respect to “Preventive Detention” :-

ur
1. Right to know Information

2. Right to maintain silence. 1. It is the right of detenu to be
Sa
3. Right to choose the medium of informed of the ground of detention.

Instruction. 2. The first law relating to Preventive
4. No pre censorship of the press. detention was enforced in 1950.
3. One can’t be detained beyond three
Choose the Correct Code:- months without the approval of the
a) 1 and 2 Only Advisory Committee.
b) 1, 2 and 3 Only
c) 1, 3 and 4 Only Choose the Correct Code:-
d) All of these a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
Q89:- Consider the following Statements c) 3 Only
with respect to “Free and Fair Trial”:- d) All of these
18
Q92:- Which of the following correctly 2. Law for the Preventive detention can
differentiates between “Article 26 and be enacted by the State Legislature
Article 30”:- also but only in case of national
security.
1. Article 26 provides the right to
maintain the institution while Article Choose the Correct Code:-
30 provides for the right to a) 1 Only
administer the institution. b) 2 Only
2. Article 26 is subjected to public c) Both 1 and 2
order, while article 30 is free from d) Neither 1 nor 2
such limitations.
3. Article 26 gives right to establish
S)
institution to the majority as well as Q95:- The right to move to the Court
minority while article gives right to under “Article 32” can be suspended in
IA
establish institution to the minorities the case of:-
SR
only.
1. Suspension of Fundamental Rights
a) 1 and 2 Only ty of Members of Armed forces.
2. Proclamation of emergency under
ul
b) 2 and 3 Only Article 359.
ac
c) 1 and 3 Only 3. Restriction on Fundamental Rights

(F
d) All of these under Martial Law.

r
Q93:- Which of the following is the part Choose the Correct Code:-
ma
of the “Right to establish and administer a) 1 and 3 Only

an institution” under Article 30:- b) 1 Only
Ku
c) 1 and 2 Only
1. Right to take disciplinary action. d) None of these
h
2. R i g h t t o i m p a r t R e l i g i o u s
ab
institutions. Q96:- “Article 32” of the Indian

ur
3. Right to select students and Constitution does not apply in the case
principal. of:-
Sa
Choose the Correct Code:- 1. Reservation

a) 1 and 2 Only 2. Property outside ceiling limits
b) 2 Only 3. Free Trade and Commerce
c) 2 and 3 Only 4. Violation of Right of armed forces
d) All of these
Choose the correct code:-
Q94:- Consider the following statements a) 1,3 and 4 Only
with regard to “Fundamental Rights”:- b) 2, 3 and 4 Only
c) 1 Only
1. Not all the Fundamental rights are d) All of these
directly enforceable.
19
Q97:-Consider the following statements Choose the Correct Code:-

with regard to “Habeas Corpus”:- a) 2 Only
b) 3 Only
1. Only the aggrieved party can ask for c) 1 and 3 Only
the enforcement of the writ. d) None of these.
2. This is the oldest writ of common
law of England. Q100:- Which of the following are “Non-
Justifiable Rights”:-
Choose the Correct code:-
a) 1 Only 1. Right against Economic
b) 2 Only Exploitation.
c) Both 1 and 2 2. Right to Adequate Livelihood.
S)
d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Right to Work.
IA
4. Right to Drinking water
SR
with respect to "Fundamental Rights":- Choose the Correct Code:-
a) 1 and 3 Only
1. These rights in India has its origins
in England bill of Rights and US ty b) 2 and 3 Only
ul
c) 1 Only
Bill of rights. d) 1, 3 and 4 Only
ac
2. F u n d a m e n t a l r i g h t s c a n ’t b e
(F
amended by the Parliament after Q101:- Which of the following arguments

Keshavananda Bharti case. are valid to Justify State action to provide
r
They allow concentration of power basic minimum Conditions of life to all

ma
in the hands of parliament and the Citizens:-

executive when necessary.
Ku
a. Providing free services to the poor

Choose the correct code:- and needy can be justified as an act
h
a) 1 Only of charity.
ab
b) 2 Only b. Providing all citizens with a basic

ur
c) 1 and 3 Only minimum standard is one way of

d) 2 and 3 Only ensuring equality of opportunity.
Sa
c. Some people in the state are

Q99:- Which of the following is incorrect naturally lazy and the State must
with respect to Directive Principles of think of their welfare.
State Policy:- d. Ensuring basic facilities and a
1. Directive Principles proceeded on minimum standard of living to all is
the basis of Human Rights. recognition of our shared humanity
2. The Concept of Public Interest and also stands to be a Human
receives orientation from the Right.
Directive Principles.
3. Directives do not confer upon or
take away any legislation from the
appropriate legislature.
20
Q102:- Consider the following statements a) 1 and 3 Only

with respect to “DPSP” :- b) 1 and 2 Only
c) 2 and 3 Only
1. These directives are forerunners of d) All of these
the UN Convention on Right to
Development. Q105:- Consider the following Statements
2. These directives do not confer upon with respect to “veto Power”:-
or take away any legislative power
from the appropriate legislature. 1. The President enjoys a Pocket veto
in case of Ordinary Bill reserved by
Choose the Correct Code:- the Governor.
a) 1 Only 2. The President does not enjoy a
S)
b) 2 Only Suspensive Veto in case of a
c) Both 1 and 2 Constitutional Amendment Bill.
IA
d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Absolute Veto has been used by the
SR
President twice till today.
Q103:- Consider the statements
“Fundamental Duties”:-
ty Choose the Correct Code:-
a) 1 and 3 Only
ul
1. The duties may be referred by the b) 2 and 3 Only
ac
court while harmonizing them with c) 1 and 2 Only

(F
Fundamental Rights. d) All of these

2. Legislation is necessary for their
r
enforcement. Q106:- Which of the following statements

ma
with respect to election of “President” is

Choose the Correct Code: correct :-
Ku
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only 1. The drafting committee of the
h
c) Both 1 and 2 Constituent assembly explained the

ab
d) Neither 1 nor 2 formula for the calculation of Vote

of MP and MLA.
ur
Q104:- Which of the following Statement 2. An election to fill the vacancy

Sa
is/are Correct with respect to caused by the death must be held

“Fundamental Duties”:- within six months.
1. It can be made enforceable by Choose the Correct Code:-

Parliament. a) 1 Only
2. Any Law in relation to Fundamental b) 2 Only
Duties will be considered c) Both 1 and 2
unreasonable if it violates Right to d) Neither 1 nor 2
Equality.
3. Parliament can impose Penalty for Q107:- Consider the following statements
failure to fulfil Fundamental Duties. regarding “Oath of Vice President”:-
Choose the Correct Code:- 1. To bear true faith to the constitution.
21
2. To uphold the constitution of India. d) None of these

3. To uphold the law of the land.
4. To discharge duty faithfully. Q110:- Which of the following is correct
with respect to “Floor Test”:-
Choose the Correct Code:- 1. It is done by an effective Majority.
a) 1 and 3 Only 2. Legislators may choose not to be
b) 1, 2 and 3 Only present and vote during the Floor
c) 1 and 4 Only Test.
d) 1 Only 3. Composite Floor Test means when
there is more than One Person
Q108:- Consider the following statements making a claim to form the
regarding participation of members in Government.
S)
election of “Vice President”:-
IA
1. Elected Member of Parliament a) 1 and 2 Only
SR
Only. b) 2 and 3 Only
2. Elected and nominated members of c) 3 Only
Parliament only.
3. Elected member of State legislative ty d) 2 Only
ul
assemblies.
ac
are Correct:-
(F

a) 1 Only 1. “Session” refers to the time period
between the first meeting of the
r
b) 2 Only
ma
c) 2 and 3 Only house and ending with Prorogation.

d) All of these 2. The period between Adjournment of
Ku
the house and reassembly in a new

session is termed as “Recess”.
h
with respect to “Privilege Motion”:-

ab

a) 1 Only
ur
1. Rules of Both Lok Sabha and Rajya b) 2 Only

Sa
Sabha Regulates Privilege Motion. c) Both 1 and 2

2. The Speaker/Chairman can decide d) Neither 1 nor 2
on the privilege motion himself or
herself or refer it to the privileges Q112:- Which of the following is the best
committee of Parliament. Characteristic of “Parliamentary
3. Privilege Committee can give the Executive”:-
punishment of Imprisonment for the
breach of Privileges. a) They are routinely under the Control
and Supervision of the Legislature.
Choose the Incorrect Code:-
b) They are responsible for day to day
a) 1 and 3 Only Policy making.
b) 2 Only
c) 3 Only
22
c) The Prime Minister must have the shown in the Annual Financial
support of majority in the Lok Statement.
Sabha. 3. An amendment to reduce tax can be
d) The Prime Minister decides who brought under Finance Bill Only.
will be the Ministers in the Council
of Ministers. Choose the Correct Code:
a) 1 and 2 Only
Q113:- Which of the following are the b) 1 and 3 Only
Instruments of Parliamentary Control:- c) 3 Only
d) All of these
1. Deliberation and Discussion
2. Approval or Refusal of Laws Q116:- Which of the following is Correct
S)
3. Financial Control with respect to “Calling Attention
4. No Confidence Motion Motion”:-
IA
SR
Choose the Correct Code:- 1. Only those matters which are
a) 1 and 2 Only primarily the concern of the Union
b) 3 and 4 Only
c) All of these ty Government can be raised through a
Calling Attention notice.
ul
d) None of these 2. The Calling Attention matter is not
ac
subject to the vote of the House.

(F
Q114:- Which of the following calls for 3. Prior Permission of the Speaker is
“Joint Sitting":- required to bring Calling Attention
r
Motion.
ma
1. Ordinary Bill
2. Financial Bill Choose the Correct Code:-
Ku
3. Bill involving Expenditure from a) 1 and 3 Only

Consolidated Fund of India. b) 1 and 2 Only
h
c) 2 and 3 Only
ab

ur
a) 1 and 3 Only
b) 1 and 2 Only Q117:- Consider the following Statements
Sa
c) 1 Only with respect to “Zero Hour”:-

d) All of these
1. Twenty matters per day as per their
Q115:- Consider the following Statements priority in the ballot are allowed to
with respect to “Annual Financial be raised during "Zero Hour".
Statement”:- 2. The term `Zero Hour' is now
formally recognised in Rules of
1. It is a constitutional obligation to Procedure.
mention Revenue and Capital 3. The name Zero Hour has been
Expenditure in the Budget. assigned as it starts at 12 Noon.
2. The Appropriation Bill contains the
expenditure exceeding the amount Choose the Correct Code:-
a) 1 and 2 Only
23
b) 1 and 3 Only d) None of these

c) 2 and 3 Only
d) All of these Q120:- Consider the following statements
regarding the “Speaker of Lok Sabha”:-
are correct with respect to “Presidential 1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha leaves
Address” of the House:- the office just after dissolution of the
assembly.
1. The Constitution makes it incumbent 2. The Business Advisory Committee
upon the President to address both and Rules Committee work directly
Houses of Parliament assembled under the Chairmanship of the
together at the commencement of Speaker.
S)
the first Session after each General 3. In the case Speaker decides some
Election to the Lok Sabha and at the bill as a money bill, this decision can
IA
commencement of the first Session be challenged in parliament
SR
each year.
2. No Member can raise questions on Choose the correct Option:-
the Address by the President.
3. Discussion on matters referred to in ty a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
ul
the Address takes place on a Motion c) 2 only
ac
of Thanks moved by a Member and d) 1 and 2 only

(F
seconded by another Member.

Q121:- Consider the following with
r
Choose the Correct Code:- reference the “Budget”. Which one of the
ma
a) 1 and 3 Only following is Incorrect:-

b) 2 and 3 Only
Ku
c) 1 Only 1. Departmental Standing committees

d) All of these have the responsibility to draft and
h
create the annual budget.

ab
Q119:- Consider the following statements 2. Estimates Committee can impose

ur
with respect to “Motions”:- cuts on the budget if the government

cannot justify expenditure on a
Sa
1. The mover of a motion frames it in a particular head.

form in which he/she wishes it to be 3. No money from the Consolidated
ultimately passed by the House. Fund of India can be withdrawn
2. The House has a power to reject the without the consent of the
motion, but no power to amend it. Parliament.
3. All the motions are not required to
put to Vote. Choose the Correct Code:-
a) 1 and 2 Only
Choose the Incorrect Code:- b) 2 Only
c) 2 and 3 Only
a) 2 and 3 Only d) 3 Only
b) 1 and 2 Only
c) 2 Only
24
Q122: Consider the following statements 2. Appropriation Bill is introduced

about “Joint sitting” of the parliament:- after the voting on demand for
grants is over.
1. The speaker of the Lok Sabha
summons and presides over the joint Choose the Correct Code:-
sitting of both the houses. a) 1 Only
2. Joint sitting is applicable to ordinary b) 2 Only
bills and financial bills only. c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) 1 Only Q125:- Which of the following is correct
b) 2 Only with respect to “Cabinet Committees”:-
S)
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. These posts have been introduced by
IA
the 42nd Constitutional Amendment.
SR
Q123:- Which of the following Statement 2. These executives in India work as
is incorrect with regard to “Deputy per GOI Transaction of Business
Chairman of Rajya Sabha”:-
ty Rules 1961.
3. Rules of Business Provides for their
ul
1. A substantive motion is moved after establishment.
ac
the date for his election is 4. These include cabinet Ministers

(F
announced by the Chairman. only.

2. The Deputy Chairman presides over
r
the Rajya Sabha in the absence of Choose the Correct Code:-

ma
the Chairman and performs the a) 1, 2 and 3 Only

duties of the office of the Chairman b) 2 and 3 Only
Ku
if the Vice- President is acting as c) 1,3 and 4 Only

President or if there is a vacancy in d) 2,3, and 4 Only
h
the office of the Vice-President.

ab

ur
Choose the Correct Code:- with Respect to “Parliamentary

a) 1 Only Committees”:-
Sa
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2 1. Parliamentary Committees draw
d) Neither 1 nor 2 their authority from the Constitution.
2. The Constitution mentions their
Q124:- Consider the following statements Composition, Tenure, and Functions.
regarding presentation of “Budget in the 3. These Committees look after the
Parliament”:- Cases of Corruption or advise the
Government in respect of Policy
1. The Finance Bill is introduced on Decisions
the very first day when the Finance
Minister presents the Budget in the Choose the Correct Code:-
Parliament. a) 1 and 2 Only
25
b) 2 and 3 Only 3. Pension of the HC Judges is charged

c) 1 and 3 Only on Consolidated Fund of India.
d) All of these 4. Salaries of HC Judges are charged
on the Consolidated Fund of State.
are correct in regard to “Appeal by Choose the Correct Code:-
Special Leave”:- a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 1, 2 and 3 Only
1. The proposed appeal must be against c) 1, 3 and 4 Only
Judicial and Quasi Judicial order d) All of these
only.
1. It is available when the order must Q130:- Which of the following is not the
S)
have been passed by Court or any part of “Original Jurisdiction” of
Tribunal. Supreme Court:-
IA
SR
Choose the Correct Code:- 1. D i s p u t e a r i s i n g o u t o f n o n -
a) 1 Only implementation of river dispute
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2 ty Tribunal award.
2. Dispute between Citizens and the
ul
d) Neither 1 nor 2 GOI.
ac
3. Matters with regard to the Finance

(F
Q128:- Consider the following statements Commission.

regarding “Judiciary” :-
r

ma
1. The dispute over the age of SC a) 2 Only

Judge is decided by Parliament. b) 1 and 3 Only
Ku
2. The order of the President to remove c) 3 Only

the Judge can only be passed if the d) All of these
h
impeachment process gets

ab
completed within the same session Q131:- Consider the following statements
ur
from both the houses. with respect to “Rule making Power of

Judiciary” under Article 145:-
Sa

a) 1 Only 1. The Constitution confers SC the
b) 2 Only power to make rules and regulations
c) Both 1 and 2 relating to its procedure.
d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. This rule making power is subjected
to the provisions of any law made by
Q129:- Consider the following statements Parliament.
with regard to “Judiciary” :-
1. Parliament decides the salaries of a) 1 Only
both SC and HC Judges. b) 2 Only
2. The salary of CJI and Judges of SC c) Both 1 and 2
is different. d) Neither 1 nor 2
26

Q132:- Consider the following statements a) 1 Only
with regard to “Judiciary” :- b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
1. The Constitution debars SC Judges d) Neither 1 nor 2
to appear before any court and
tribunal after retirement.
2. The judges of HC however can
Statements with respect to ‘Writ
practice in the Supreme Court or in
Jurisdiction of Supreme Court’ is
any High court.
Incorrect:-
1. SC Can’t refuse to exercise its writ
S)
a) 1 Only Jurisdiction.
IA
b) 2 Only 2. It is because of Writ Jurisdiction
SR
c) Both 1 and 2 that SC is called as Protector and
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Guarantor of the Constitution.
3. Proceedings under Article 32 can be
Q133:- Consider the following Statements ty transferred by the Supreme Court to
ul
with regard to “Judiciary”:- the High Court and NHRC also.
ac

(F
1. SC has a power to make law under

Article 141 of Indian Constitution. a) 1 and 3 Only
r
2. The judges of the High Court can be b) 1 Only

ma
transferred on the charges of c) 1 and 2 Only

corruption. d) All of these
Ku
Choose the Correct Code:- Q136:- The final decision in matters of

h
a) 1 Only appointment of Judges of Supreme

ab
b) 2 Only Court rests with:-

ur
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 a) Chief Justice of India
Sa
b) Prime Minister
Q134:- Which of the following statement c) Council of Ministers headed by
is Correct:- Prime minister
d) President
1. The constitution says that HC will
consist of Chief justice and such Q137:- Which of the following is
other judges as determined by the Incorrect with respect to “Review
President. Petition”:-
2. The constitution says that the
minimum number of the judges to 1. Only the parties to a case can seek a
decide the case relating to review of the judgement.
interpretation of the Constitution 2. It must be filed within 45 days of
should be Five. the date of judgement.
27
3. Only SC can review its judgement Q140:- Which of the following Legislation
as per Constitution of India. will come under “Judicial Review”:-
1. Subordinate Legislation
Choose the Correct Code:- 2. Constitutional Amendment laws.
a) 1 and 3 Only 3. Administrative action of States.
b) 2 and 3 Only 4. Ordinary Legislation.
c) 3 Only
d) All of these Choose the Correct Code:-
a) 1, 2, 4 Only
Q138:- Consider the following Statements b) 2 and 4 Only
with respect to “Subordinate Judiciary”:- c) 2 Only
d) All of these
S)
1. Only the initial Promotion and
posting of District judge is done by Q141:- Consider the following Statements
IA
the Governor. with respect to “Power of Contempt”:-
SR
2. Session judges have both Original
and appellate Jurisdiction. 1. The Constitution of India empowers
Choose the Correct Code:- ty the Supreme Court and High Court
respectively to punish people for
ul
a) 1 Only their respective contempt.
ac
b) 2 Only 2. The Contempt of Courts Act of 1971

(F
c) Both 1 and 2 defines the power of the High Court

d) Neither 1 nor 2 to punish contempt of its
r
subordinate courts.
ma
Q139:- Which of the Following

Statements is Correct with respect to Choose the Correct Code:-
Ku
“Human Rights Court”:- a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only
h
1. These Courts are constituted at State c) Both 1 and 2

ab
Level under the supervision of the d) Neither 1 nor 2

ur
High Court.
2. These are constituted by the State in Q142:- Which of the following is
Sa
Concurrence with the Chief Justice necessary for admission of “Contempt of

of the High Court. Court petition”:-
3. The State Government specifies
Public Prosecutors for these Courts. 1. Suo-Moto by Supreme Court
2. On the motion of the Attorney-
Choose the Correct Code:- General or the Solicitor-General
a) 1 and 3 Only 3. On motion by any other person with
b) 2 and 3 Only the consent of the Attorney-General
c) 2 Only or the Solicitor-General.
d) 1 Only
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 1 Only
28
c) 1 and 3 Only statutory backing was given for the

d) All of these position.
2. In India, CAG is not a member of
Q143:- Consider the following statements the parliament while in Britain;
with respect to use of “Language in CAG is a member of the House of
Judiciary”:- the Commons.
1. The Constitution is silent on the use Choose the Correct Code:-

of regional language in the High a) 1 Only
Court. b) 2 Only
2. The Parliament can make the c) Both 1 and 2
provision for the use of language d) Neither 1 nor 2
S)
other than English in the Supreme
Court. Q146:- Consider the following statements
IA
with respect to “Audit and accounts on
SR
Choose the correct code:- India”:-
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2 ty 1. Accountant General in state is
equivalent in status to CAG of India.
ul
d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. The Muddiman committee has
ac
recommended separation of account

(F
Q144:- Which of the following statements and audit as a necessary financial

are correct with respect to “Office of reform for the first time.
r
CAG”:-
ma

1. He compiles the account of the state
a) 1 Only
Ku
government and does auditing of

b) 2 Only
both Central and State government.
c) Both 1 and 2
2. He ascertains net proceeds of tax.
h
d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. CAG cannot ask for details of a
ab
particular expenditure.
ur

Choose the Correct Code:- with respect to “Centre- State Relation”:-
Sa
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only 1. If State requests a parliament to
c) 1 and 3 Only make a law on the State List, State
d) All of these ceases to enact a law on that matter.
2. The law once enacted by the
Q145:- Which of the following is Parliament will survive for the
incorrect with respect to the office of maximum period of one year at a
CAG:- time.
1. Under the Government of India Act Choose a correct code:-

1919, the Auditor General became a) 1 Only
independent of the government as b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
29
d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. This office can be traced to the

system of the USA.
Q148:- Which of the following can’t be 3. The Remuneration is the same as the
audited by the “CAG” directly:- judge of the Supreme Court.
1. Panchayati Raj Institution Choose the correct Code:-

2. RBI a) 1 and 2 Only
3. Issues related to Biodiversity b) 2 and 3 Only
4. LIC c) 3 Only
d) None of these
a) 1 and 4 Only Q151:- Consider the following Statements
S)
b) 1, 2 and 4 Only with regard to “Additional Advocate
c) 3 and 4 Only General “:-
IA
d) All of these
SR
1. The State Government may appoint
Q149:- Consider the following Statements him in discharge of constitutional
with respect to “Comptroller and Auditor
General of India”:- ty Power.
2. He will perform such functions as
ul
assigned by the Governor from time
ac
1. CAG ascertains and certifies the net to time.

(F
proceeds of any tax or duty and his

certificate is final on the matter. Choose the Correct Code:-
r
2. The salaries and service conditions a) 1 Only

ma
of CAG is decided by Parliament. b) 2 Only

3. He is not eligible for further office, c) Both 1 and 2
Ku
either under the Government of d) Neither 1 nor 2

India or of any state, after he ceases
h
to hold his office Q152:- Which of the following statements

ab
is correct with respect to the

ur
Choose the Correct Code:- discretionary power of the “Governor of

a) 1 and 3Only the State”:-
Sa
b) 1 and 2 Only
c) 2 Only 1. He can dissolve the State Legislative
d) All of these assembly in case of President’s rule.
2. He can appoint any person as Chief
Minister in case of Hung assembly.
Q150:- Which of the following is correct
with respect to “Attorney General of
India”:-
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
1. The Attorney General of India is c) Both 1 and 2
responsible for the amendment and d) Neither 1 nor 2
enforcement of laws.
30
Q153:- Which of the following are not the 1. The constitution says that the State
Conditions for the “Office of Governor”:- Legislature may by law provide for
quorum to constitute a meeting in
1. The Governor shall not hold any the house.
office of Profit. 2. Rules for communication between
2. T h e G o v e r n o r i s e n t i t l e d t o state legislative assembly and state
allowance as determined by the legislative council are made by
State Government. Governor.
3. The Governor must take the Oath of
upholding sovereignty and integrity Choose the Correct Code:-
of India before entering into the a) 1 Only
office. b) 2 Only
S)
c) Both 1 and 2
Choose the Correct Code:- d) Neither 1 nor 2
IA
a) 1 and 2 Only
SR
b) 1 Only Q156:- Which of the following statements
c) 1 and 3 Only is correct with respect to “Pending
d) 2 and 3 Only
ty bills” :-
ul
Q154:- Who among the following is 1. Adjournment does not have any
ac
eligible to form the Government in the effect on Pending bills, but

(F
case none of the parties obtained Prorogation has.

majority in the “Legislative Assembly of 2. The Bill passed by the State
r
the State”:- Legislative assembly but pending in

ma
Legislative Council does not lapse.

1. The leader of an alliance or coalition
Ku
formed before the election. Choose the Correct Code:-

2. The leader of an alliance or coalition a) 1 Only
h
formed after the election. b) 2 Only

ab
3. The leader of the single largest c) Both 1 and 2

ur
party in the Lower House. d) Neither 1 nor 2

4. The leader of the single largest party
Sa
ignoring the claim of alliance having Q157:- Which of the following is incorrect
a majority is invited by the with respect to “Legislative Council”:-
Governor.
1. The members can be reappointed for
Choose the Correct Code:- a maximum of 2 terms only.
a) 1 and 3 Only 2. The nomination of the members is
b) 1, 3 and 4 Only done at the start of 3rd year by the
c) 1 and 4 Only Governor.
d) All of these 3. Representation of People’s Act 1951
provides for a 6 year term of
Q155:- Consider the following members of Legislative Council.
Statements:-
31
a) 2 Only 1. Centre Imposes taxes on stamp

b) 1 and 3 Only duties but are collected by the
c) 1 Only States.
d) 2 and 3 Only 2. The State can’t impose Cess but can
collect if imposed by the Centre.
Q158:- Which of the following Statements 3. The Central Government can give
is correct with respect to “Council of grants in aid to the states who are in
Minister”:- the need of financial assistance.
1. The number of ministers including Choose the Correct Code:-

Chief Minister should not be less a) 1 and 2 Only
than 12% of the total strength of the b) 1 and 3 Only
S)
State Legislative assembly. c) 2 and 3 Only
2. The provision of minimum and d) 2 Only
IA
maximum strength of CoM was
SR
introduced through the 91st Q161:- Consider the following Statements
Constitution (Amendment) Act, with respect to “Inter State water
2003.
ty dispute”:-
ul
Choose the Correct Code:- 1. The first water dispute Tribunal is
ac
a) 1 Only for Krishna and Mahanadi

(F
b) 2 Only respectively.
c) Both 1 and 2 2. A River board can be established by
r
d) Neither 1 nor 2 the central Government even

ma
without the consent of the State

Q159:- Consider the following statements Government
Ku
regarding “Inter Governmental 3. SC can issue Mandamus to the

Delegation of power”:- Central Government to carry out
h
obligations under Article 262.

ab
1. It can be done through agreement

ur
and legislation both. Choose the Correct Code:-

2. T h e S t a t e c a n d e l e g a t e i t s a) 1 and 2 Only
Sa
administrative power on the Centre b) 2 and 3 Only

only under the agreement with the c) 1 and 3 Only
Centre. d) All of these
Choose the Correct Code:- Q162:- Consider the following Statements

a) 1 Only with respect to “Office of Profit”:-
b) 2 Only
1. The President decides in case a MP
c) Both 1 and 2
is holding Office of Profit or not.
d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. As per RPA 1951, President accepts
the Opinion of Election Commission
regarding “Fiscal Federalism”:- in case of Office of Profit.
32
Choose the Correct Code:- Q165:- Consider the Following

a) 1 Only Statements with respect to “Inter-
b) 2 Only Governmental Tax Immunities”:-
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Property and income of Local
Authorities within the State are
exempted from Central Taxation.
Q163:- Which of the following truly 2. The Share & Debt of the Central
represents ‘Administrative relations’ Government can be taxed by the
between Centre and State:- State Government.
1. The executive power with respect to
Concurrent List rests upon the Choose the Correct Code:-
S)
Centre only if the Constitution a) 1 Only
provides for the same. b) 2 Only
IA
2. States are bound to follow the c) Both 1 and 2
SR
Centre's Directives, otherwise they d) Neither 1 Nor 2
are liable for the President's Rule.
Choose the Correct Code:- ty Q166:- Which of the Following is

incorrect with respect to “Office of
ul
a) 1 only Profit”:-
ac
b) 2 Only
(F
c) Both 1 and 2 1. Holding Office of Profit under Local

d) Neither 1 nor 2 Authority is not a disqualification
r
for being elected to Lok Sabha or

ma
Q164:- Consider the following with State Legislature.

2. Holding Office of Profit under Local
Ku
respect to the Power of “Taxation of

State”:- authority means disqualified for
being elected as President or Vice
h
President.
ab
1. A State Legislature can impose tax 3. Judges of SC and HC cannot contest

only on the supply of goods inside
ur
Elections because they were

the State. working in affairs of the Union and
Sa
2. A State Legislature can’t impose tax thus holding Office of Profit.

on the Inter State River Valley
Project. Choose the Correct Code:-
3. A State Legislature can impose tax a) 1 and 3 Only
on Goods and services in Course of b) 1 and 2 Only
Inter State Trade and Commerce. c) All of these
d) None of these
a) 1 Only Q167:- Consider the following statements
b) 1 and 3 Only with respect to “Chief Secretary of the
c) 1 and 2 Only State”:-
d) 2 and 3 Only
33
1. He is the head of secretariat at the 3. The number of seats in Puducherry

State level. Assembly has been fixed at 30.
2. He is appointed by the Governor in
Consultation with the Chief Minister Choose the Correct Code:-
of the State. a) 2 and 3 Only
b) 3 Only
Choose the correct code:- c) 1 and 2 Only
a) 1 Only d) None of these
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2 Q170:- Which of the following
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Statements with respect to “Official
Language” is Incorrect:-
S)
regarding “Inter State Council” :- 1. The State can have any medium of
IA
instruction for interaction but should
SR
1. All questions at a meeting of the be accompanied with English
council are decided by the translation.
2. The High Court can use Hindi as a
consensus.
2. Though it is constituted by the ty language for judgment also along
ul
President, the procedure to be with the Proceedings of the Court.
ac
followed in the meeting is decided

Choose the correct Code:-
(F
by the Chairman of the Interstate

council. a) 1 Only
r
3. The president issued the Interstate b) 2 Only

ma
council order 1990 for the setting of c) Both 1 and 2

Interstate council for the first time. d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ku
Choose the Correct Code:- Q171:- Who among the following cannot
h
a) 1 and 3 Only sought for “Constitutional safeguards

ab
b) 1 and 2 Only under Article 311”:-

ur
c) 2 and 3 Only
d) All of these 1. Member of civil service of the
Sa
Union.
2. Member of All India service.
Q169: Which of the following Statements
3. Member of Civil service of the state.
is/are with respect to administration of
4. Person holding civil post under
Union Territories?
Union or states.
1. Union Territory of Jammu and
Kashmir has the same power of Choose the Correct Code:-
legislation on State List and a) 1 and 3 Only
Concurrent List as Delhi has. b) 1, 3 and 4 Only
2. Lt. Governor can issue Ordinance c) None of these
only when assembly is suspended or d) All of these
dissolved.
34
Q172:- Consider the following 2. The expense of the tribunal is

Statements with respect to “Tribunals”:- charged on Consolidated Fund of
India.
1. Appointment of CAT Members are 3. The Government sent any matter to
made after Concurrence with Chief tribunal regarding declaration of
Justice of India. individual as terrorist.
2. National Green Tribunal has power
of Granting Imprisonment for 3 Choose the Correct Code:-
years along with imposition of Fine a) 1 Only
up to 10 Crores or more. b) 1 and 2 Only
3. Members of Tribunal are eligible for c) 2 and 3 Only
reappointment. d) All of these
S)
Choose the Correct Code:- Q175:- Consider the following statements
IA
a) 1 and 3 Only with respect to Family Court :-
SR
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 2 Only 1. The judges are appointed by the
d) All of these
ty Governor in consultation with the
High court of the state.
ul
Q173:- Consider the following 2. It is mandatory for the State
ac
statements with respect to “National Government to constitute Family

(F
Green Tribunal” :- court if the population of the town

exceeds 1 million.
r
1. NGT has power to review its own

ma
judgement. Choose the Correct Code:-

2. NGT can provide for imprisonment a) 1 Only
Ku
for maximum of 3 years and fine b) 2 Only

too. c) Both 1 and 2
h
3. The tribunal can have a maximum of d) Neither 1 nor 2

ab
20 judicial members and minimum

ur
of 10 expert members. Q176:- Which of the following Statements

are incorrect:-
Sa

a) 1 and 2 Only 1. Delimitation is a mandate of the
b) 2 and 3 Only Constitution while readjustment
c) 1 and 3 Only after each Census is not the mandate
d) All of these of the Constitution.
2. Readjustment can be carried out
Q174:- Consider the following statements during the duration of life of the Lok
with respect to “UAPA Tribunal” :- Sabha.
3. P o w e r f o r e n f o r c e m e n t o f
1. It must be headed by a High court D e l i m i t a t i o n o f Te r r i t o r i a l
judge. Constituencies rests with Parliament.
35
a) 1 and 3 Only Q179:- Consider the following statements

b) 1 and 2 Only w i t h re s p e c t t o “ e x p e n d i t u re i n
c) 2 and 3 Only Election”:-
d) 3 Only
1. In case of a state Legislative
Q177:- Consider the following Statements assembly election, entire
with respect to “Election machineries”:- expenditure is incurred by the State
Government.
1. Chief Electoral officer is the head of 2. T h e e x p e n d i t u r e o n c a p i t a l
election machinery at the State level equipment is shared equally between
for State Assembly elections only. Centre and States.
2. Candidates take oath after filing
S)
nomination before Assistant Choose the Correct Code:-
Returning officer if Returning a) 1 Only
IA
officer is absent. b) 2 Only
SR
3. No polling station in general should c) Both 1 and 2
have to deal with more than d) Neither 1 nor 2
1500-2000 voters.
ty Q180:- Which of the following is Correct
ul
Choose the Correct Code:- in relation to 15th Finance Commission:-
ac
a) 1 and 3 Only
(F
b) 2 Only 1. It is for the first time that Grants in

c) 2 and 3 Only aid has been provided for the Local
r
d) 1 and 2 Only Bodies.

ma
2. It has recommended for Sector

Q178:- Consider the following specific Grants which was stopped
Ku
Statements with respect to “Electronic by 14th Finance Commission.

Voting Machine”:- 3. T h e C o m m i s s i o n h a s a l s o
h
recommended Special Grants to

ab
1. It was first introduced in Kerala in three States.

ur
1978.
2. It can field a maximum of 64 Choose the Correct Code:-
Sa
Candidates. a) 1 and 2 Only

3. It has been synchronised with b) 2 and 3 Only
VVPAT in 2013 in Nagaland c) 1 and 3 Only
Assembly Elections. d) All of these

Q181:- Consider the following
a) 1 and 3 Only
Statements with respect to “Finance
b) 2 and 3 Only
Commission”:-
c) 1 and 2 Only
d) 3 Only 1. The State Finance Commission has
been granted Constitutional status
as per the 74th Amendment for the
first Time.
36
2. The members of the Finance 3. It recommends for grant of Minority

Commission are eligible for Status to Educational Institutions.
reappointment.
3. Union Finance Commission can be Choose the Correct Code:-
constituted before the term of 5 a) 1 and 2 Only
years. b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
Choose the Correct Code:- d) 3 Only
a) 1 and 3 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only Q184:- Consider the following Statement
c) 1 and 2 Only with respect to “National Human Right
d) 2 Only Commission”:-
S)
1. The Chief Commissioner of persons
IA
Q182:- Consider the following Statement
with Disabilities is the ex officio
with respect to the “National
SR
Commission for Scheduled Caste”:- Member of NHRC.
2. The salaries and service Conditions
1. The President by Notification ty of the members are determined by

Parliament.
ul
declares any Community as 3. The serving judicial members of
ac
Scheduled Caste. NHRC are appointed only after the

2. His decision can be modified by the
(F
consultation with CJI.

Central Government.
r
3. The Commission can submit a Choose the Correct Code:-

ma
report anytime within a Year. a) 1 and 3 Only

4. The Commission presents its reports b) 2 and 3 Only
Ku
to the President or Governor of c) 3 Only

State Concerned. d) All of these
h
ab
Choose the Correct Code:- Q185:- Consider the following Statement

a) 1, 2 and 4 Only with respect to “Public Services”. Which
ur
b) 2, 3 and 4 Only one of the following is Correct:-

Sa
c) 1, 2 and 3 Only
d) 1 and 3 Only 1. Rules and regulations regarding
Service Conditions of Public
Q183:- Which of the following is Servants can be notified by the
incorrect with respect to “National President and Governor.
Commission for Minorities”:- 2. “Reasonable opportunity” of being
heard is not available to Public
Servants in case of criminal charges.
1. It consists of a Chairperson, Vice
Chairperson and 5 members.
2. All the members shall be from
a) 1 Only
Minority Community.
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
37
d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. T h e m e m b e r s o f N a g a l a n d
Legislative Assembly from this area
Q186:- Consider the following statements are elected by Regional council only.
with respect to “National Emergency”:-
1. The 44th Amendment Act provides a) 1 Only
that emergency can be declared only b) 2 Only
on the recommendation of the c) Both 1 and 2
cabinet. d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. If Lok Sabha is not in session, notice
for revocation of emergency is
Q189:- Which one of the following is/are
served to the President.
correct with respect to administration of
S)
3. The Parliament can modify the
“Tribal areas under 6th Schedule”:-
transfer of Finance from Centre to
IA
the State.
SR
1. The district Council can have their
Choose the Correct Code:- own court to hear the appeals from
a) 2 Only
b) 3 Only ty the tribes.
2. Governor can dissolve a district and
ul
c) 1 and 2 Only regional Council on the basis of a
ac
d) 1 Only report of the Commission

(F
Constituted to examine the

Q187:- Which of the following is invalid administration of these areas.
r
during “President Rule”:- 3. The entire State of Meghalaya

ma
comes under Autonomous District

1. The President can dissolve the State Council.
Ku
Legislative Assembly on the aid and

advice of Council of Ministers. Choose the Correct Code:-
h
2. The President can provide power to

ab
a) 1 and 2 only
the Chief Secretary for State
b) 2 and 3 only
ur
Administration.
c) All of the above
Sa
d) None of these
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
Statements with respect to “Anti
c) Both 1 and 2
Defection” is correct:-
d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Judicial review is not available at a

stage prior to the making of a
with respect to administration of
decision by the Speaker/Chairman.
“Regional council in Nagaland”:-
2. The Court can review the Speaker's
decision based on violation of
1. The composition of the Regional
council is entirely decided by the constitutional mandate Only.
Governor.
38

a) 1 Only 1. The term of Mayor is not fixed in
b) 2 Only India.
c) Both 1 and 2 2. Mayor is directly elected in some of
d) Neither 1 nor 2 the states in India.
3. A Mayor is the legislative and
Q191:- Consider the following statements executive head of Municipal
with respect to “Anti Defection Law”:- Corporation.
1. The resignation from the party Choose the correct code:-

simply means voluntarily giving up a) 1 and 2 Only
membership, this calls for b) 1 and 3 Only
S)
disqualification. c) 1 Only
2. If the member has taken prior d) None of these
IA
permission, or is condoned by the
SR
party within 15 days from such Q194:- Which of the following is the
voting or abstention, the member correct explanation of the meaning of
shall not be disqualified.
ty “Local authority”:-
ul
Choose the Correct Code:- 1. The authority must have a separate
ac
a) 1 Only legal existence.

(F
b) 2 Only 2. It must function in a defined area.

c) Both 1 and 2 3. It must be entrusted by the Statute as
r
d) Neither 1 nor 2 are usually entrusted to Municipal

ma
Bodies.
Q192:- Which of the Following is Correct
Ku
w i t h re s p e c t t o “ R e s e r v a t i o n i n Choose the Correct Code:-

Panchayats”:- a) 1 and 2 Only
h
b) 1 and 3 Only
ab
1. Reservation for Women does not c) 2 and 3 Only

ur
mean merely for General Category d) All of these

but also for Women from SC/ST.
Sa
2. Reservation is restricted not only to Q195:- Consider the following statement

ordinary members in the Panchayats with respect to “Urban Governance”:-
but also extends to the Position of
Chairperson at all the three levels. 1. The 74th Constitutional amendment
does apply to Union Territory only
Choose the Correct Code:- when the President directs so.
a) 1 Only 2. District planning committee shall
b) 2 Only consult such institutions as the
c) Both 1 and 2 Governor specify for drafting
d) Neither 1 nor 2 developmental plans.
Q193:- Consider the following statements Choose the Correct Code:-

with respect to “Municipal Authorities”:- a) 1 Only
39
b) 2 Only Q199:- Consider the following statements

c) Both 1 and 2 with respect to the meaning of “law
d) Neither 1 nor 2 under Article 13 of the Constitution”:-
Q196:- Which of the following Statements 1. Constitutional amendment is not a

is correct with respect to Lokpal:- law and thus can’t be challenged.
2. Non legislative source of law can
1. Lokpal cannot initiate Suo-moto also be challenged in the court.
proceedings against any public
servant. Choose the correct code:-
2. It will also provide Legal assistance a) 1 Only
to the Public Servant against whom b) 2 Only
S)
Complaint is filed. c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
IA
SR
a) 1 Only Q200:-Which of the following best
b) 2 Only describes the role of Returning officer:-
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 ty a) He is the person responsible for
ul
preparation of electoral roll in the
ac
Q197:- Consider the Following Constituency.

(F
Statements with respect to “National b) He is the person who assists Chief

Investigation Agency”:- electoral officer while determining
r
star campaigner.
ma
1. It is headed by DG Rank Officer. c) He is the person responsible for

2. It can investigate cases related to timely start and end of voting in a
Ku
UAPA and Atomic Energy act. polling booth.

3. Session Court will act as Special d) He administers the oath of candidate
h
NIA Court for trial. after filling of nomination.

ab
ur
Choose the Incorrect Code:-

a) 1 and 2 Only
Sa
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) All of these Questions Related to Governance
d) None of these
Q198:- Who is the Chairperson of Delhi Q1:- Consider the following Statements
Disaster Management Authority:- with respect to “Committee against
a) Lt Governor Torture” (CAT)
b) Chief Minister
c) Home Minister 1. It is a body of human rights experts
d) Secretary of Delhi that monitors implementation of the
Convention by State parties.
2. The Committee is one of the UN-
linked human rights treaty bodies.
40
Choose the Correct Code:- Q4:- Consider the following statements

a) 1 Only with respect to “Export Credit Guarantee
b) 2 Only Corporation of India”:-
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. It is a non-profit company registered
under companies Act 2013.
Q2:- Consider the following statements 2. It functions under the administration
regarding “Data Security Council of of the Ministry of Finance.
India”:- 3. The corporation provides credit
insurance to banks on account of
1. It has been established by CERT in export credit to exporters.
collaboration with business
S)
conglomerates. Choose the correct code:-
2. It endeavours to increase India’s a) 1 and 3 Only
IA
share in the global security product b) 2 and 3 Only
SR
and services market through global c) 3 Only
trade development initiatives. d) None of these
Choose the Correct Code:- ty Q5:- Consider the following statement

ul
a) 1 Only regarding the “Higher Education
ac
b) 2 Only Financing Agency”(HEFA):-

(F
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. HEFA is a non-profit, Non-Banking
r
Financing Company for mobilising

ma
Q3:- Which of the following statements is extra-budgetary resources for

correct with respect to “Competition building crucial infrastructure in the
Ku
Commission of India”:- higher educational institutions.

2. The HEFA is jointly promoted by
h
1. This is a statutory body under the the identified Promoter and the
ab
Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Ministry of Human Resource

ur
2. The commission being a quasi Development (MHRD)

judicial body, and thus the chairman
Sa
must be retired or serving as a judge Choose the Correct Code:-

of the High Court. a) 1 Only
3. CCI lacks power for imposing b) 2 Only
penalties. c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) 1 and 3 Only Q6:- Consider the following statements
b) 2 and 3 Only regarding Advertising Standards Council
c) 3 Only of India (ASCI):-
d) None of these
1. ASCI, established in 1985, a
statutory body under the Ministry of
Information and Broadcasting.
41
2. ASCI is committed to the cause of b) 2 and 3 Only

self- regulation in advertising c) 1 and 3 Only
ensuring the protection of the d) All of these
interest of consumers.
Choose the Correct Code:- with respect to Internet and mobile
a) 1 Only association of India is correct:-
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2 1. It is a company registered under
d) Neither 1 nor 2 companies act 2013.
2. It is a joint collaboration of the
Q7:- Consider the following statements Government and Industry
S)
with respect to “Central Consumer association.
Protection Authority”:- 3. The recent report indicates that the
IA
number of internet users has been
SR
1. It will have a Chief Commissioner more in Rural areas as compared to
as head, and only two other urban areas.
commissioners as members.
2. It has the power to provide ty Choose the Correct Code:-
ul
punishment for subsequent offences a) 1 and 3 Only
ac
committed by the endorser of the b) 2 and 3 Only

(F
product. c) 3 Only
d) 2 Only
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a) 1 Only Q10:- Consider the following Statements

b) 2 Only with respect to “ National Health
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c) Both 1 and 2 Authority”:-

d) Neither 1 nor 2
h
1. It is governed by a Governing Board

ab
Q8:- Consider the following statements chaired by the Union Minister for
ur
with respect to “National Health System Health and Family Welfare.

Resource Centre”:- 2. It has been set up as a statutory body
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under the Ministry of health and

1. It is designated as a WHO family welfare.
collaborating centre for priority
medical devices and health Choose the Correct Code:-
Technology policy. a) 1 Only
2. The Governing body is chaired by b) 2 Only
secretary Ministry of Health and c) Both 1 and 2
family welfare. d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. It was set up under the National
Health Mission. Q11:- Which of the following statements
is correct with respect to “Right to
Choose the correct code:- Information Act”:-
a) 1 and 2 Only
42
1. The authorities under RTI are Quasi- on written Request or Request by

Judicial Authorities. Electronic means only.
2. The Second appellate authority in 3. The definition of Public Authority
case of appeal is Chief PIO. would include any NGO
3. NGOs whose 50% financial needs Substantially financed by
are met by the Government will be Government (Directly or indirectly
considered as Public Authority. or both).
4. The information sought under
PMNRF can’t be rejected while in Choose the Correct Code:-
case of PMCARES, it can be a) 1 and 2 Only
rejected by PIO. b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
S)
a) 1, 2 and 4 Only
IA
b) 1 Only Q14:- Which of the following is Correct
SR
c) 2, 3 and 4 Only with respect to AFSPA:-
d) 1 and 4 Only
Q12:- Which of the following statements ty 1. The Governor of the State Can
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declare any area as Disturbed Area
is correct with respect to “Essential
ac
under AFSPA.
commodities Act”:-
2. It Gives Power to the Army, State
(F
1. The centre cannot give executive

Police Force and Central Police
directions to the State on the matters
Forces to shoot to kill.
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listed in Essential commodities Act.

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3. AFSPA has been declared in the

2. Only the Central Government can
entire State of Nagaland.
add products as essential items, but
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items can be removed by both the Choose the Correct Code:-

central and state government. a) 1 and 3 Only
h
b) 2 and 3 Only
ab
Choose the correct code:- c) 1 and 2 Only

ur
d) All of these
a) 1 Only
Sa
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
is incorrect with respect to “RPA 1951”:-
d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. The Representation of People’s Act
1951 provides for vacancy of seat in
with respect to “Right to Information
Parliament if one is elected to State
Act”:-
Legislature also.
2. P r o h i b i t i o n o f S i m u l t a n e o u s
1. The Act recognises Suo-moto
Membership Rules prescribe a
Declaration of the information by
period of 14 days for making a
the Public Authority.
choice of the House if one is elected
2. Every Public authority is under
to both State Legislature and
Obligation to provide Information
Parliament.
43

Choose the Correct Code:- with regard to “District Mineral
a) 1 Only Foundation Trust”:-
b) 2 Only 1. Its manner of operation comes under
c) Both 1 and 2 the jurisdiction of the relevant State
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Government.
2. The funds of DMF Trust is expected
Q16:-Consider the following statements to implement Pradhan Mantri Khanij
with respect to “Forest Rights Act 2006”:- Kalyan Yojana.
3. The rate of contribution to DMF is
1. The Act also provides for diversion 30% of the royalty of mining leases.
of forest land for public utility
S)
facilities. Choose the Correct Code:-
a) 1 Only
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2. Ownership is only for land that is b) 1 and 2 Only
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actually being cultivated by the c) 1 and 3 Only
concerned family and no new lands d) All of these
will be granted.
ty Q19:- Consider the following statements
ul
Choose the Correct Code:- with respect to “Permanent Lok
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a) 1 Only Adalat”:-
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b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2 1. Permanent Lok Adalat have been set
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d) Neither 1 nor 2 up as permanent bodies with a

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Chairman and two members for

Q17:- Consider the following Statements providing compulsory pre-litigative
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with respect to Power of “National mechanism for conciliation .

Commission for protection of child 2. The jurisdiction of the Permanent
h
Rights” under Right to education Act:- Lok Adalat is up to Rs. One Crore.
ab
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1. It can summon an individual and Choose the Correct Code:-

demand evidence in case of a) 1 Only
Sa
Violation of law. b) 2 Only

2. It can file a writ petition in the High c) Both 1 and 2
Court or Supreme Court both in case d) Neither 1 nor 2
of any matter related to RTE Act.
Choose the Correct Code:- with respect to the “NGT Power of using
a) 1 Only different principles” while deciding
b) 2 Only environmental cases:-
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. For the first time, Polluter pays
principle was introduced in Solid
Waste Management Rules 2016.
44
2. Strict liability allows exceptions to b) 2 and 3 only

the industry, if the liability has been c) 3 only
accrued by an Act of God. d) None of these
3. A b s o l u t e l i a b i l i t y o ff e r s n o
exception to industries involved in Q23:- To boost the domestic defence,
hazardous activities. “Defence Testing Infrastructure Scheme”
has been launched, Which of the
Choose the Correct code:- following statements is incorrect in this
a) 1 and 3 Only regard:-
b) 2 Only
c) 2 and 3 Only 1. The government and Private sector
d) None of these will invest in the scheme in the ratio
S)
of 50 :50.
Q21:- Consider the following statements 2. In case of any shortage of the fund,
IA
with respect to “One Nation One Ration it will be supported by the Special
SR
Card” Scheme:- purpose vehicle.
1. Beneficiaries will be tied to any PDS

Shop of the State. ty Choose the correct code:-
a) 1 Only
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2. It will issue 12 digit Standard Ration b) 2 Only
ac
Card number in the name of the c) Both 1 and 2

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elder member of the family. d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Choose the Correct Code:- Q24:- Which of the following comes

ma
a) 1 Only under the definition of “Public

b) 2 Only Authority”:-
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c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Any authority constituted by the
h
Constitution.
ab
Q22:- Consider the following Statements 2. Any authority controlled by the

ur
with respect to “Inter State Migration Government.

(Regulation of Employment and 3. Regulators such as SEBI, RBI
Sa
conditions of service) Act:-

1. I t i s a p p l i c a b l e o n a l l t h e a) 1 and 2 Only
establishments having 10 or more b) 1 Only
migrant workers. c) 1 and 3 Only
2. The exemption has been provided to d) All of these
the Cantonment Board and ports.
3. It provides for license to the Q25:-Which of the following comes under
employers involved in the the definition of Minor Forest produce
recruitment of the migrant workers. under “Forest Right Act 2006”:-
Choose the Correct Code:- 1. Bamboo

a) 1 and 3 only 2. Cane
45
3. Brushwood
4. Stumps Choose the correct code:-
a) 1 and 3 Only
Choose the correct code:- b) 2 and 3 Only
a) 1 and 4 Only c) 2 Only
b) 1, 2 and 3 Only d) None of these
c) 1, 3 and 4 Only
d) All of these Q29:- WHO is the authority to decide the
name of any disease. Consider the
Q26:- Which is the “Nodal agency” that following statements in this regard:-
gives permission to any foreigner to
participate in any international event:- 1. The name is decided in consultation
S)
with World Organization for Animal
a) Ministry of External Affairs Health (OIE) and the Food and
IA
b) Ministry of Home Affairs Agriculture Organization of the
SR
c) PMO United Nations (FAO).
d) Indian Consulate of the departure 2. The main aim behind naming any
country
ty disease is to avoid any offence to
cultural and ethnic groups.
ul
Q27:- Consider the following Statements 3. The disease can be named on
ac
with respect to “ Public Safety Act”:- geographical location and name of

(F
the person who identified the

1. It allows for detention without trial disease.
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for 2 years.
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2. The only remedy for the detente is to Choose the correct code:-
file a Habeas Corpus before SC only. a) 1 and 3 only
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b) 1 and 2 only
Choose the correct code:- c) 3 only
h
a) 1 Only d) All of these

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b) 2 Only
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c) Both 1 and 2 Q30:- Consider the following statement

d) Neither 1 nor 2 with regard to “National Knowledge
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Network”:-
with respect to “Disaster Management 1. It was established in 2010 and
Act”:- attached office under MeitY.
2. It is the only network globally that
1. The legal basis for the disaster carries Research and evaluation and
management is Concurrent List. Internet and e-governance traffic
2. It provides for National executive under one umbrella.
committee to be headed by Cabinet 3. It is implemented by NIC.
secretary.
3. The National Disaster management Which of the following is Incorrect:-
authority consists of Chairperson a) 1 and 3 only
and not more than 10 members. b) 2 only
46
c) 1 only Q33:- Which of the following falls under

d) 2 and 3 Only the definition of Foreign Source
according to the “Foreign Control
Q31:- Consider the following statements Regulation Act”:-
with respect to “Bharat Net Project”:-
1. Foreign Government
1. Bharat Broadband Network Ltd 2. Trade Union
(BBNL), under the telecom ministry 3. Foreign Universities
is handling the roll out of optical 4. Citizens of Foreign Country
fibre network under Bharat Net
project. Choose the correct code:-
2. The project is being executed by a) 1, 2 and 4 Only
S)
BSNL, RailTel and Power Grid. b) 1, 2 and 3 Only
3. The project is in the fourth stage of c) 1, 3 and 4 Only
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its implementation. d) All of these
SR
Choose the correct code:- Q34:- "Poverty and share prosperity"
a) 1 and 3 ty report is released by World bank.

Consider the following statements
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b) 1 and 2 associated with the report:-
ac
c) 2 only
d) All of these
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1. It is released annually at the joint

meeting of World Bank and IMF.
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2. The CoVID year will be marked by

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with respect to “Arbitration and the more urban poor compared to

Conciliation Act 2021”:- rural poor.
Ku
3. As per the report, this is for the first

1. This is the third amendment to the time in last 20 years, global poverty
h
Arbitration and conciliation act will increase.

ab
1996.
2. According to the amendment in
ur

2021,Parties are free to appoint a) 3 Only
Sa
arbitrators regardless of their b) 1 and 2 Only

qualifications. c) 2 and 3 Only
3. An amendment has been done on the d) All of these
lines of The United Nations
Commission on International Trade Q35:- Consider the following statements:-
Law .
1. Start-up seed fund, announced in
Choose the correct code:- budget 2020 with a corpus fund of
a) 1 and 3 Only 500 crore.
b) 2 and 3 Only 2. There is a steady increase in unicorn
c) 1 and 2 Only club since the start of Start-up India
d) All of these program.
47

a) 1 Only 1. The Indian Society of Advertisers.
b) 2 Only 2. The Indian Broadcasting Foundation
c) Both 1 and 2 3. The Advertising Council of India.
d) Neither 1 nor 2 4. The Bureau of Indian Standards
Q36:- Which of the following best Choose the correct code:-

summarises the concept of “ Learning a) 1 and 3 Only
adjusted year of schooling:- b) 3 and 4 Only
c) 2 and 4 Only
a) It is the sum of year of schooling d) None of these
and kids learning outcomes.
S)
b) It is the automatic promotion of the Q39:- Which of the following provides
kid based on his learning outcomes. power to the Government to suspend
IA
c) It is a metric to arrange students as Internet services?
SR
per their learning in the appropriate
classes. 1. IPC
d) I t i s a c o n t i n u o u s a n d
comprehensive analysis of the ty 2.
3.
CrPC
Telegraph Act
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students in the line with No 4. Informational Technology act, 2000
ac
Detention Policy.
(F

Q37:- Consider the following statements a) 1,3 and 4 Only
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with respect to “Strengthening Teaching- b) 2, 3 and 4 Only

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Learning and Results for States c) 3 and 4 Only

Program”:- d) All of these
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1. It will be implemented as centrally Q40:- Which of the following is

h
sponsored scheme. prerequisite with respect to “Procedure

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2. The scheme has been assisted by the for Clinical Trials in India”:-
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World Bank.
3. The focus of the scheme is to reap 1. P e r m i s s i o n f r o m t h e D r u g s
Sa
the benefits of demographic Controller General, India (DCGI).

dividend by focussing on secondary 2. Approval from respective Ethics
education. Committee where the study is
planned.
Choose the correct code:- 3. M a n d a t o r y r e g i s t r a t i o n o n
a) 1 and 3 Only the Ministry of health and Family
b) 1 and 2 Only welfare.
c) 1 Only
d) None of these Choose the correct code:-
a) 1 and 3 Only
Q38:- Who among the following is not b) 2 and 3 Only
represented in “Broadcast Audience c) 1 and 2 Only
Research Council”:- d) All of these
48

Q41:- Consider the following statements a) 1 Only
with respect to Mines and Minerals b) 2 Only
(Development and Regulation) amended c) Both 1 and 2
Act 2020 :- d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. License for coal mining to the Q44:- “Annual Democracy Report” is

companies in schedule II can be Published by:-
given only for end uses.
2. Companies need not possess any a) Varieties of Democracy Institute
prior coal mining experience for b) Oxford University in collaboration
exploration in India. with Cornell.
S)
3. A separate licenses are provided for c) PeW Research centre.
prospecting and mining of coal and d) Alternative Democracy NGO
IA
lignite, called prospecting license,
SR
and mining lease, respectively. Q45:- Consider the following statements
with respect to “Corruption Perception
Choose a correct code:-
a) 1 and 3 Only ty Index”:-
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b) 2 Only 1. It ranks the countries on the scale of
ac
c) 2 and 3 Only 0 to 100, 0 being most corrupt.

(F
d) None of these 2. India’s position has improved this

time after a gap of 5 years.
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Q42:- Which of the following State is

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excluded from the Citizenship Choose the correct code:-

Amendment Act:- a) 1 Only
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1. Assam b) 2 Only
2. Meghalaya c) Both 1 and 2
h
3. Tripura d) Neither 1 nor 2

ab
4. Mizoram
ur
Q46:- “The Human Freedom Index” is

Choose the Correct code:- released by:-
Sa
a) 1 2, and 4 Only
b) 2 and 4 Only a) World Economic Forum
c) 2 Only b) American and Canadian Think Tank
d) All of these c) The United Nations Commission on
International Religious Freedom
Q43:- Consider the following statements d) Australian Institute of Business
with respect to “Press Freedom Index”:-
1. The India’s ranking is steadily with respect to “Human Development
decreasing for the last 5 years. index”:-
2. There are Four different parameters
of ranking the country in this index. 1. For the first time, the index is going
to reflect the impact caused by each
49
c o u n t r y ’s p e r - c a p i t a c a r b o n 3. Biometric information means all the

emissions. five fingers of either hand along
2. India’s ranking has dropped to 7 with iris should be captured by
position this year compared to 2020. UIDAI.
4. Ration card can be linked to Aadhar
Choose the correct code:- through online and offline
a) 1 Only mechanism both.
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2 Choose the Correct Code:-
d) Neither 1 nor 2 a) 1, 2 and 4 Only
b) 1, 3 and 4 Only
Q48:- Consider the following Statements c) 2 and 4 Only
S)
with respect to “International Vaccine d) All of these
Access centre”:-
IA
SR
1. It is an administrative and executive
arm of WHO that focuses on
increasing access of vaccines.
2. It releases an annual Pneumonia and ty
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Diarrhoea Progress Report.
ac
(F
Choose the Correct code:-

a) 1 Only
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b) 2 Only
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c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Q49:- Global Nutrition Report is released

h
by:-
ab
ur
a) World Health Organisation

b) Food and Research Organisation
Sa
c) International Food Policy Research

Institute
d) World Bank and UNICEF

with respect to "Aadhar":-
1. Aadhar seeding means linking 12

digit Aadhar number with benefit
cards like Pension and scholarship.
2. Aadhar enabled service is a service
provided by an authentication user
agency.
50
S)
IA
SR
ty
ul
ac
r (F
ma
Ku
h
ab
ur
Sa
51
Solutions
Ans.1) D
Explanation
• Democracy means rule by the public. Under this rule, the decisions are taken either by
the public directly (called direct democracy) or by the elected representatives of the
people (called indirect democracy). The fundamental basis of a democracy is that
people of the country are allowed to elect their head of the Government by the process
of election. Therefore, the option d is the correct answer.
Ans.2) C
S)
Explanation
IA
• The limited government is the one which enjoys only a limited power. It does not
SR
have unfettered powers like an authoritarian government. It cannot choose to act
according to its whims and fancies. Its power is bounded by the checks and balances
ty
accorded in the constitution of that country. Thus, option c is the correct answer.
ul
Ans.3) B
ac
Explanation
(F
• Running government in a democracy is a game of numbers. Whichever party or

r
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coalition garners the maximum number of seats in the parliament, forms the
government. However, the member of parliaments or any party in the coalition may
Ku
switch their support to any other coalition. This may lead to the fall of the government
without being able to complete its term. This brings instability in governance.
h
• Similarly, in a democracy it is important to consider all aspects of an issue before the

ab
decision is taken. The interest of coalition partners is also a mandatory consideration.

ur
This often leads to delay in decision making.

Sa
• Thus, option b is correct.
Ans.4) D
Explanation
• The ruling government has to face elections at regular intervals. This makes
democratic government accountable to the people of the country.
• In a democracy, the voice of every section of the society is heard and taken into
consideration. This makes the process of decision making more consensus driven.
This improves the quality of decision making in a democratic government.
• Democracy also ensures that every citizen of the country has only one vote, and each
vote has the same value. This ensures political equality to all its fellow citizens. Thus,
it enhances the dignity of its citizens.
• Thus, option d is correct.
Ans.5) B
Explanation
• Direct democracy is the one in which the major decisions are taken directly by the
people of the country. Gram Sabha is an institution, where the decisions are taken by
the voters of the village.
• Thus, option b is correct.
S)
IA
Ans.6) A
SR
Explanation:-
•
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It is difficult to draw a mechanism to take the opinion of all the citizens, where the
population is sufficiently big. It may become an expensive affair to take public
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opinion on every (big or small) issue. Therefore, it is suitable only for smaller
ac
countries and for bigger decisions. Thus, option a is correct.

(F
Ans.7) D
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ma
Explanation
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• In general elections to Lok Sabha, the entire country is divided into smaller
constituencies. Then people choose representatives for each constituency. This is
called an area based system of representation.
h
ab
• In direct elections, first past the post system is followed in India. Whereas, in indirect
ur
elections proportional representation is followed. E.g. election to Rajya Sabha,

presidentship etc.
Sa
Ans.8) D
Explanation
• Elections for local bodies are conducted by State Election Commission. The SEC is
appointed by governor of the state. In these elections, the seats reserved for SC and
STs are in proportion to their population in the constituency. The minimum age to
contest in these elections is 21 years. Hence, all the statements above are incorrect.
Ans.9) C
Explanation
The electoral college for the election to the president of India:
• All the elected members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
• All the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the states (including L.A. of
NCT and U.T. Puducherry). Since only these two UTs have L.A. Therefore, C is the
correct answer.
Ans.10) A
Explanation
• Only the citizens with the age of 35 years and above can contest for the election to the
office of President. The office has a fixed tenure of five years for any number of
terms. The office is an integral part of Parliament.
S)
IA
Ans.11) C
SR
Explanation
•
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Statement 1 and 3 are correct for the Presidential form of government. However,
statement 3 is correct for parliamentary form of government. Hence c is the correct
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answer.
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(F
Ans.12) C
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Explanation
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• The constitution of India, confers the power of judicial review and the power to
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interpret the constitution upon the Supreme Court and the High Courts. Therefore,
both statements are correct.
h
ab
Ans.13) D
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Explanation
Sa
• In India, the members of Lok Sabha are elected directly, these members then elect a
member from among themselves as a Prime minister. Similarly, the President is also
elected by members of Parliament and State Assemblies.
• The Prime minister can be a member of any of the two houses of the Parliament.
• The Council of ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha only.
• Thus, d is the correct answer.
Ans.14) D
Explanation
• Right to equality does not mean treating Unequals as equals. Right to equality is
treating equals as equal and Unequals as unequal.
• It does not intend to remove all sorts of distinctions in society, however, it aims at
empowering everyone to have equality of opportunity to achieve whatever one desires
for or capable of.
• Hence, d is the correct answer.
Ans.15) D
Explanation
• The Right against exploitation is given under art. 23 and 24 of the Indian constitution.
• Art. 23: Prohibits forced labour and illegal trafficking
• Art. 24: Prohibits child labour.
• Thus, d is the correct answer.
S)
Ans.16) B
IA
SR
Explanation
• Indian secularism allows everyone to follow any religion of his/her choice. It does not
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put any bar to follow any particular religion. One can even have no religion. This is
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given under art. 25.
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• Art. 26, allows every religious group to freely manage its religious affairs.
(F
• Indian secularism follows the principle of equidistance with all the religion. It has no
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religion of its own nor does it favour any particular religion.

ma
Ans.17) C
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Explanation
h
ab
• According to Dr. B. R. Ambedkar, the right to constitutional remedies under article 32

is the heart and soul of the Indian constitution.
ur
Sa
Ans.18) D
Explanation
• The constitution of India confers the power to issue writs on the high courts and the
Supreme Court of India, under art. 32. These writs can be issued for the enforcement
of fundamental rights (by SC and HCs) as well as legal rights (by HCs only). It can be
issued against the executive as well as the judiciary.
Ans.19) A
Explanation
• Article 19.1(d) and Article 19.1(e) of constitution of India, is a part of Fundamental
rights.
• Article 19.1(d): All citizens have the right to move freely throughout the territory of
India.
• Article 19.1(e): All citizens the right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of
India.
• Owning a land is not a fundamental right but a legal right.
• Art. (20.3) of the constitution of India, provides that no person accused of any offence
shall be compelled to be a witness against himself. However, the person may be asked
to provide his/her biometric details, which is an exception for Art. (20.3).
S)
Ans.20) C
IA
Explanation
SR
Federal form of government has the following advantages:
1. Helps accommodate diversity.

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2. Promotes unity in the country.
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3. Representation to different sections, etc.

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However, it does not guarantee cooperation between federal and its constituent governments.
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There may or may not exist cooperation.

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Ans.21) A
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Explanation:-
The merits of local self-government:
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ab
1. Reduces the chances of corruption in the government.

2. Strengthens democracy at the grassroot level.
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3. Improves the efficiency of policy implementation in the government.

Sa
Thus, a is the correct answer.
Ans.22) B
Explanation:-
❖ Gram sabha, not Gram Panchayat, is the body where all the voters in the village are
members.
❖ Gram Panchayat is a council under Panchayati Raj, consisting of several ward members
called sarpanch or President. It is the decision making body for the entire village.
Ans.23) D
Explanation
❖ The percentage of elected women members in Lok Sabha was 12 percent in 2014.
❖ The average share of women's participation in all the state assemblies has always been
less than their participation in Lok Sabha.
Ans.24) B
Explanation:-
As per census of India 2011;
Hindus = 79.8%
S)
Muslims = 14.2%
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Christians = 2.3%
SR
Jainism = 0.4%
Buddhism = 0.7% ty
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ac
Ans.25) D
(F
Explanation:-
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❖ All the statements given above are the essential features of a democratic government.
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Hence d is the correct answer.

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Ans.26) C
h
Explanation
ab
❖ Pressure groups are organisations that attempt to influence government policies. But,
ur
unlike political parties, they do not aim to directly control or share political power.
Sa
❖ They try to influence government policies by disrupting government programs and

organising strikes. E.g. Farmer’s association protesting against new farm laws.
❖ It is the business groups, not the pressure groups, employ professional lobbyists or offer
expensive advertisements to highlight certain issues and influence government policies.
However, certain members from pressure groups may participate in official bodies to
advise the government.
Ans.27) D
Explanation:-
• The Election Commission of India has laid down the detailed criteria for a political
party to be a recognised party.
• The Election Commission of India has recognised only eight political parties as
National parties.
❖ Indian National Congress
❖ Communist Party of India
❖ Bhartiya Janata Party
❖ All India Trinamool National Congress
❖ Nationalist Congress Party
S)
IA
❖ Bahujan Samaj Party
SR
❖ Samajwadi Party
❖ Communist Party of India – Marxist.

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Ans.28) A
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Explanation:-
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A party that secures at least six percent of the total votes in the Lok Sabha elections or
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Assembly elections in four states, and wins at least four seats in the Lok Sabha is recognised
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as a national party.
Ku
Ans.29) D
h
Explanation:-
ab
• Democracies are based on political equality and it provides equal opportunity to all to
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achieve economic growth.

Sa
• The rates of economic growth in democratic regimes have been lower than the rates
of economic growth in dictatorial regimes between 1950 and 2000.
• Democratic regimes…………………………….3.95
• Dictatorial regimes…………………………....4.42
Ans.30) D
Explanation:-
• Direct election for the office of Prime Minister is against the ethos of Parliamentary
democracy. In a Parliamentary democracy, only the elected representatives from the
respective constituencies in Lok Sabha choose their leader to run the government.
Ans.31) B
Explanation:-
• Only the details of all the criminal cases pending against the candidate, is required to
be furnished before the election commission.
• Other details: Assets and liabilities of the candidate and his/her family. Education
qualification of the candidate.
Ans.32) A
S)
IA
Explanation
SR
Slogan Party
1. Save Democracy
ty
Janata Party
ul
2. Garibi Hatao Congress Party
ac
3. Land to the tiller Communist Party of India

r (F
ma
Ans.33) A
Ku
Explanation:-
• Statement 1 is correct: CEC is appointed by the President on the advice of the council
h
of ministers.
ab
• Statement 2 is incorrect: CEC is appointed for a maximum period of six years or

ur
continues till age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.

• Thus, a is the correct answer.
Sa
Ans.34) C
Explanation:-
• Democracies are based on political equality, where each citizen has only one vote and
each vote has the same value. Also, all the political offices are open to all its citizen
irrespective of their caste, religion, sex or place of birth.
• Conflicts among the social groups within the country, differences of opinion about
how marginalised sections are to be treated and administrative inefficiencies and
corruption. They all still exist in various democracies across the world.
Ans.35) C
Explanation:-
• Community government: Form of govt. in which power is shared by different social

groups.
• Separation of powers: Administrative arrangement where power in the govt. is shared

among different organs of the government.
• Coalition government: Form of govt. in which power is shared by two or more

political parties.
Federal government: Form of govt. in which power is shared among governments at different
levels.
S)
IA
Ans.36) D
SR
Explanation:-
•
concurrent list.
ty
Education, Forest and Administration of judgement. These subjects belong to the
ul
ac
• Cryptocurrency and Cyber Security are residuary subjects. i.e. they do not belong to
(F
any of the three lists.

r
Ans.37) D
ma
Explanation:-
Ku
• In a run up for elections, political parties try all available means to remain in the
competition. This often leads to highlighting of social divisions on basis of one or the
h
other identity. However, democracy also provides the best possible way to
ab
accommodate social diversity. It also provides a conducive atmosphere where several

ur
communities can live in harmony.

Sa
Ans.38) D
Explanation:-
• Removal of Judges: A judge of a Supreme Court or High Court can be removed only
on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. A motion containing the charges
against the judge must be approved by a special majority in both Houses of the
Parliament. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
• No discussion on the conduct of judges of the Supreme Court can take place inside
the Parliament, except when a motion for the removal of any judge of SC or HC is
under consideration. Thus, statement 2 is correct.
Ans.39) A
Explanation:-
Powers and functions of Supreme Court:
1. Its decisions are binding on all courts within the territory of India.
2. It can transfer any case from one High Court to another.
3. It can transfer (but cannot remove) judges of High Courts.
Thus, a is the correct answer.
Ans.40) C
Explanation:-
• Appellate Jurisdiction: It allows a person to seek advice from the Supreme Court
against the judgments of High Courts.
• Original Jurisdiction: It allows a state to seek advice from the Supreme Court in a
matter of conflict with the centre or any other state.
S)
• Advisory Jurisdiction: It allows the President to seek advice from the Supreme Court
IA
on a matter of public importance or that which involves interpretation of the
SR
constitution.
Ans.41) C
ty
ul
Explanation:-
ac
• A bill that seeks to amend a provision of the constitution of India, which relates to the
(F
sharing of power between the states and the union must be passed in both the houses
of parliament separately, with the majority of at least half of the total membership of
r
the house or the majority of at least two-third of the members present and voting.
ma
• Further, the bill must be ratified by the legislatures of at least half of the total states,
Ku
with the majority of at least one-half of the members present and voting.
h
• Thus, c is the correct answer.

ab
Ans.42) C
ur
Explanation:-
Sa
Essential features of federalism:-
• Written constitution.
• Independent judiciary
• Division of power among the constituent units of the government (but not necessarily
equally).
• Rigid constitution. etc.
Ans.43) C
Explanation:-
• Scheduled Languages of India are the list of 22 languages written in the eight
schedule of the constitution of India. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
• States may have their own official languages but there is no provision for them to
have their own list of schedule languages. Thus, statement 2 is incorrect.
• A candidate in an examination conducted for a central government position may opt

to take examination in any of these languages. Thus, statement 3 is correct.
Ans.44) D
Explanation:-
S)
• Legislatures, executives and judiciary are regarded as three pillars of a democracy.
IA
Media is often referred to as the fourth pillar of a democracy. But, the third tier of our
democracy is local government i.e. panchayats and municipalities. Whereas, the 1st
SR
tier is the central government and the 2nd tier is state government.
Ans.45) C ty
ul
Explanation:-
ac
(F
• Payment of minimum wages is a part of DPSP, not fundamental rights.

r
• Workers going on strike is not a fundamental right.

ma
• Banning of a movie is a violation of a right to freedom of speech and expression

Ku
under art. 19 (1)(a). It is a part of fundamental rights.
Ans.46) B
h
ab
Explanation:-
ur
In First Past the Post System:-

Sa
• The entire country is divided into small geographical units called constituencies.
• Every constituency elects only one representative.
• A party may get more seats than votes polled for it.
• Candidate who wins may not get majority votes.
• Thus, (b) is the correct answer.
Ans.47) A
Explanation:-
• Mandamus: This writ is issued when the court finds that a particular office holder is
not doing legal duty and thereby infringing on the right of an individual.
• Certiorari: When a court has to order a lower court to transfer a matter pending
before it.
• Prohibition: Issued by a higher court, when a lower court has considered a case going
beyond its jurisdiction.
Ans.48) D
Explanation:-
Functions of the constitution:
S)
• Provides a set of basic rules that allows for minimal coordination among the members
IA
of the society.
SR
• Specify who has the power to make decisions in a society. It also decides how the
government will be constituted.
•
ty
Set limits on what a government can impose on its citizens.
ul
ac
• Enable government to fulfil the aspirations of a society and create conditions for a just
(F
society.
r
Ans.49) A
ma
Explanation:-
Ku
• Union List: Only the central government can make laws.

• State List: Only the state govts. can make laws.
• Concurrent List: Both the central as well as the state govts. can make laws.
h
ab
• Residuary List: Only the central govt. can make laws.

ur
Ans.50) A
Sa
Explanation:-
• For a government to be truly democratic there must be a free and fair election process,
being conducted on a regular basis by an independent body. It is essential so that the
incumbent govt. must have an equal chance of losing.
• Right to vote is given on the basis of universal adult franchise i.e. all adult citizens
shall have the right to vote.
• Separation of power is not an essential condition for a democracy to exist.

Ans.51) C
Explanation:-
• Ministers make a draft for law and a part of Parliament and are also responsible for
the implementation. Thus Statement 1 is Correct.
• Ministers take Oath of Secrecy before the President and Members take Oath before
Pro Term Speaker. Thus Statement 2 is Incorrect.
• Third Statement is Self Explanatory. This is Correct.
Ans.52) A
Explanation:-
Supremacy means the Laws made by Parliament must conform to the Principles of
S)
•
Constitution. Thus Statement 1 is Correct.
IA
• Statement B and C is Correct individually but not Correct as per the demand of the
SR
question.
Ans.53) D
ty
ul
Explanation:-
ac
• Statement 1:-Power is shared as per Doctrine of Separation of power, to keep a check

(F
on different organs of Government.

• Statement 2:- Power is shared between Centre and State as per List in 7th Schedule of
r
the Constitution.
ma
• Statement 3:- Power is shared between different linguistic groups like in Belgium and
in between Different Religious Groups like in Sri Lanka.
Ku
Ans.54) D
h
ab
Explanation:- Self Explanatory

ur
Ans.55) A
Sa
Explanation:-
Ans.56) D
Explanation:-
• Both the Statements seem to be true, but the Logic is Philosophy of the Constitution is
so intact and strong that both the statements cannot jeopardize it.
Ans.57) D
Explanation:-
• Liberal ideas are based on individualism, Communitarians places society above the
individual.
Ans.58) B
Explanation:-
• The constitution can be amended, with the safeguards like Special majority, effective
majority depending on the case.
• Equal representation of all the state is undoubtedly a feature of Federal polity, bit not
a necessary condition to be satisfied.
• There is a clear cut separation of power between centre and state , barring some
exception.
S)
IA
Ans.59) D
SR
Explanation:-
•
principle manifested in article 14.
ty
Without equality, democracy may turn into aristocracy. So equality is a fundamental
ul
ac
• Government must not cross the rule of law and should not breach the rights of the
(F
citizens, except according to the procedure established by the law.

r
Ans.60) D
ma
Explanation:-
Ku
• Article 394 says that Article 5,6,7,8,9,324,367,379,394 came into force on 26th
November 1949 and rest on 26th January 1950.
h
ab
Ans.61) A
ur
Explanation:-
Sa
• Constituent power means amending power of the Parliament, not the law-making
power. Thus Statements 1 and 3 are Correct.
Ans.62) A
Explanation:-
• Statement 1 is Correct.
• The Law passed by Provisional Parliament has the Legal force, not the Constitutional
Provision. Thus Statement 2 is Incorrect.
Ans.63) A
Explanation:-
• Legislative and executive relation has been divided between centre and State as per
7th Schedule in Article 245 to Article 263. Thus statement 2 and 4 is Correct.
Ans.64) D
Explanation:-
Ans.65) D
Explanation:-
• The provision in the constituent assembly passed without any debate is universal adult
Suffarage.
S)
IA
Ans.66) C
SR
Explanation:-
Main Features of Objective Resolution:-

ty
• India is an independent, sovereign, republic
ul
• India shall be a Union of erstwhile British Indian territories, Indian States, and other
ac
parts outside British India and Indian States as are willing o be a part of the Union
(F
Territories forming the Union shall be autonomous units and exercise all powers and
functions of the Government and administration.
r
• All powers and authority of sovereign and independent India and its constitution shall
ma
flow from the people

• All people of India shall be guaranteed and secured social, economic and political
Ku
justice; equality of status and opportunities and equality before law

• The minorities, backward and tribal areas, depressed and other backward classes shall
h
be provided adequate safeguards

ab
• The territorial integrity of the Republic and its sovereign rights on land, sea and air
ur
shall be maintained according to justice and law of civilized

Sa
Ans.67) B
Explanation:-
• All of the Statement Comes under the definition of Justice, but with some limitations.
Statement 2 is without any limitation and thus the Correct Definition of Justice.
Ans.68) C
Explanation:-
• Statement 1 is Correct- Fundamental Corrects and DPSP are the reflection of ideals
mentioned in Preamble. SC uses these ideals while interpreting FR and DPSP.
• Statement 2 is Correct- The statement is correct, but SC ignores this fact in Berubari
Union case, but later recognized in Keshvananda Bharati case.
Ans.69) A
Explanation:-
• All statements are correct except statement 2. You may get confused with the second
statement. The Word (Any Industry) is open to different interpretations and thus
depends on case to case basis by SC. But here any reflect both Public and Private
Industry thus Incorrect.
Ans.70) D
Explanation:-
S)
• Statement 1 is Correct- Indian Federation is based on ideas of Union of States rather
IA
than Federation of States. Thus, there is no agreement and secondly Article 3 provided
SR
power to Parliament to reduce, include any area in the state.
•
ty
Statement 2 is Correct-Clause 3 of Article 3 gives power to diminish the area of any
state. It can be done by taking away any part or even cut away the entire area of the
ul
state.
ac
Ans.71) B
(F
Explanation:-
r
ma
• One can be a citizen of India by the Process of Registration, Naturalization also. Thus
Statement 1 is Correct.
Ku
• On the basis of L.M Singhvi Committee, It was introduced by The Citizenship

(Amendment) Act, 2005 in August 2005. Thus statement 2 is incorrect.
h
• Statement 3 is self explanatory. Thus Statement 3 is Correct.

ab
ur
Ans.72) C
Sa
Explanation:-
• The idea of Citizenship came into existence on 26 Jan 1949. Thus Statement 2 is
Incorrect.
Ans.73) D
Explanation:-
S)
Ans.74) D
IA
Explanation:-
SR
• It is compulsory for every citizen of the country to register in a National Register of
ty
Indian Citizens (NRIC) as per Section 14A of the Citizenship Act 1955 as amended in
2004.
ul
• By definition, an NRI is not a usual resident of the country. Therefore, they would not
ac
be in the NPR - 2010 till they are non-residents. When they come back to India and
(F
take up usual residence within the country, they will be included in the NPR - 2010.
• Providing any false information would attract penalties under Citizenship Rules 2003.
r
• A proposal to issue Resident Identity Cards to all usual residents in the NPR - 2010 of
ma
18 years of age and above is under consideration of the Government. This Card would
be a smart Card and would bear the Aadhaar number.
Ku
• NPR information will be self-attested, that is, whatever information is provided by the
respondent will be deemed correct and no documents or biometric would be required,
h
thus no need to produce any document.

ab
Ans.75) A
ur
Sa
Explanation:-
• Self-Explanatory - Work (either hazardous or not) is against the Fundamental Rights

of children.
Ans.76) C
Explanation:-
• Clause (1A) of the Article 30 - introduced by the Constitution 44th Amendment Act
1978 - relates to the compulsory acquisition of any property of a minority educational
institution.
• The compensation amount fixed by the State for the compulsory acquisition of any
property of a minority educational institution shall not restrict or abrogate the correct
guaranteed to them.
Ans.77) C
Explanation:-
• Statement 3 and 4 is a part of Right to Equality, not the part of Right against
Exploitation.
Ans.78) C
Explanation:-
S)
• All the Statements are Self Explanatory.
IA
Ans.79) C
SR
Explanation:-
• ty
Statement1 is Correct as persuading does not mean Forcing to Covert someone.
ul
• Statement 2 is Correct as has been explained by SC.
ac
Ans.80) D
B
(F
Explanation:-
r
ma
• The Court said that Reservation is not a Fundamental Right while refusing to act
on a petition filed by all political parties from Tamil Nadu who sought 50% OBC
Ku
reservation in the all-India NEET seats surrendered by states.

• All political parties from Tamil Nadu filed a writ petition under Article 32 of the
h
Constitution.
ab
• They accused the Centre of violating the “right of the people of Tamil Nadu to have a
ur
fair education” by not implementing the 50% quota for Backward Classes and Most
Sa
Backward Classes for the All India Quota seats in medical and dental science courses.
• Only Parliament under Article 16 (3) can provide for reservation on the basis of
residence.
Ans.81) B
Explanation:-
• Preamble is the mirror of all the Principles contained in Fundamental Rights and
DPSP. Thus Statement 1 is Correct but Incorrect as per the demand of the Question.
This Statement is not the Objective of Fundamental Rights.
• Statement 2 is Correct and fulfil the objectives of Fundamental Rights is self –
Explanatory.
• This Statement is the consequence of any action on Fundamental Rights. Thus
Statement 3 is also Incorrect.
Ans.82) C
Explanation:-
• Fundamental Corrects prevent the establishment of an authoritarian and despotic rule

in the country, and protect the liberties and freedoms of the people against the
invasion by the State. Some FR are also available against private entities.
• Under Indian Constitution, All the Fundamental Rights are available against the
‘State' but only 5 fundamental Rights are available against both State as well as
against Private Individual. These Fundamental Rights are :
S)
1. Article 15(2) - Provides that No citizen shall be subject to any kind of
discrimination on the basis of his race, religion, place of birth or caste etc. It is
IA
available against every individual it means, if anyone does any kind of
SR
discrimination on the basis on any of the above mentioned ground, then he
shall be liable for punishment.
ty
2. Article 17 - Talks about abolition of Untouchability. It devises that anyone
practicing Untouchability shall be punished.
ul
ac
3. Article 23 - Prohibits trafficking of humans and forced labour.
4. Article 24 - Prohibits employment of children in factories amd hazardous
(F
place
r
5. Article 21 A
ma
Ans.83) B
Ku
Explanation:-
h
ab
• If Rights will not be recognized by Society, it will Create Chaos. The word should
have been used in the Statement 1. This is Correct.
ur
• Statement 2 is Self explanatory. This is Correct.

Sa
• Statement 3 is just the analysis of Rights, thus not appropriate as per the demand of
the Question.
Ans.84) D
Explanation:-
• The statement is simply asking about meaning of Freedom, not the meaning of
absolute Freedom and you may get Confused that Freedom can’t be free from
Constraints, there must be some rider. Agree, but question is not asking you to go for
Subjective definition of Freedom. Thus Statement 1 is Correct.
• Society places restriction on Freedom and also put Sanctions on it. Thus Statement 2
is Correct.
• Statement 3 is the basis of Capability Approach of Prof Amartya Sen.
Ans.85) D
Ans.86) B
Explanation:-
• Undoubtedly Right to life and liberty has widened the scope of Rights, but it is not the
right from where all the other rights are derived.
S)
• In second statement the word “Must” makes the statement wrong.
IA
Ans.87) C
SR
Explanation:-
• ty
It is because they are available against state and private individuals both. And Article
ul
16 is available against the State only.
ac
Ans.88) D
(F
Explanation:-
r
ma
• All are the part of Freedom of speech and Expression. Other constituents of the
Ku
Freedom under Article 19 is defined as:

1. Correct to know criminal antecedents of candidates in election.
2. Correct to answer criticism of one’s views
h
3. Correct against Sound Pollution (Moulana Mufti Sayed vs State of west Bengal 2014)
ab
ur
Ans.89) B
Sa
Explanation:-
• Statement 1 is Incorrect: It is a sine qua non of Article 21
Ans.90) C
Ans.91) D
Explanation:-
• Article 22 (4) to 22(7) provides for:

I. No detention beyond three months until such detention is approved by the
Advisory committee.
II. The detaining authority must communicate the detenu, grounds for detention.
III. No detention beyond the maximum period prescribed under the law made by
the Parliament.
Ans.92) D
Explanation:-
All the Statements are Correct. • Other differences are:

• Article 26 says correct of Religious denomination to maintain the institution
established by them, Article 30 (1) secures correct to minority only.
S)
• Article 26 (a) is subjected to Public order, Morality and health while Article 30 is not
subjected to such restriction.
IA
SR
Ans.93) D
Explanation:-
ty
ul
• All the statements are correct. Correct to establish and administer was in the news
ac
recently which is important to know. SC has said that the correct under Article 30 to
choose a teacher is not absolute. There is a difference between secular education and
(F
education regarding culture and customs of community.

r
Ans.94) A
ma
Explanation:-
Ku
• Both Parliament and State Legislature can make law on matters related to Security of
h
the state, supply of essential services and maintenance of Public order. However Only
ab
Parliament can enact law in matters related to Defence, Foreign affairs and security of
India.
ur
Sa
Ans.95) A
Explanation:-
• Proclamation of emergency is done under Article 351 and the President suspends
correct to move to the court under Article 359.
Ans.96) D
Explanation:-
Ans.97) B
Explanation:-
• Both the statements are correct.
• In Kanu Sanyal vs DM Darjeeling 1973, it has been held by the court that a lawyer,
Friend and relative can file for writ petition and there is no need to produce the body
of the detenu before the court.
Ans.98) C
Explanation:-
• Fundamental rights can be amended if it goes against the Basic structure of the
constitution.
• They allow concentration of power in the case of suspension of Fundamental rights

during martial law.
S)
Ans.99) D
IA
Explanation:-
SR
• All the Statements are Correct. Both Fundamental Rights and DPSP Proceeded on the
basis of Human Rights. ty
ul
Ans.100) C
ac
(F
Explanation:-
r
• Statement 2, 3 and 4 is a part of Right to life and Personal Liberty, thus Justifiable.
ma
Ans.101) B
Ku
Explanation:-
h
• Equality of opportunity is a three-way relationship between a person, some obstacles,

ab
and a desired goal. However, a person only has an opportunity if she has a chance of
ur
achieving that goal. One cannot have an opportunity if one faces insurmountable
obstacles that make it impossible to secure the goal
Sa
Ans.102) C
Explanation:-
• Both the Statements are Correct. These directives do not provide any power nor deter
the power of Parliament to make law.
Ans.103) C
Explanation:-
• Both the statements are correct. Parliament will have to enact law for the enforcement
of the Fundamental Duties. Ex: - Forest conservation Act.
Ans.104) A
Explanation:-
• There is not any Legal sanction against their Violation. However, the Parliament is
free to enforce them by suitable Legislation. Thus Statement 1 is Correct.
• In 1992, SC Ruled that in determining the Constitutionality of any Law, if a court
finds that the Law in question seeks to give effect to a Fundamental duty, it may
consider such law to be “Reasonable” in relation to Article 14 and article 19. Thus
Statement 2 is incorrect.
• As they are enforceable by the Law, Parliament can provide for penalty in case of
failure of fulfilment of these. Thus Statement 3 is correct.
Ans.105) D
S)
Explanation:-
IA
SR
• In Case of ordinary bill of the Parliament, Presidential suspensive veto can be over-
ridden by the Re passage of the bill by the Houses. Note: With respect to state bills,
state legislature has no power to override the Suspensive veto of President. Governor
ty
can withhold the bill for the President’s consideration and even if state legislature
ul
resends the bill to governor and governor to President, he still can withhold his assent.
ac
Thus statement 1 is Correct.

(F
• He can also keep the bill pending for indefinite Period. Thus statement 2 is correct.
• In India, the President has exercised his absolute veto before. In 1954, it was
r
ma
exercised by Dr. Rajendra Prasad as a President and later in 1991, it was used by the
then President R Venkataraman. Thus statement 3 is correct.
Ku
Ans.106) C
h

ab
Ans.107) C
ur
Sa
Explanation:-
• Judges, not the Vice President take the oath to uphold the Constitution of India.
Ans.108) B
Ans.109) D
Explanation:-
• Rule No 222 in Chapter 20 of the Lok Sabha Rule Book and correspondingly Rule
187 in Chapter 16 of the Rajya Sabha rulebook governs privilege. It says that a
member may, with the consent of the Speaker or the Chairperson, raise a question
involving a breach of privilege either of a member or of the House or of a committee
thereof. The rules however mandate that any notice should be relating to an incident
of recent occurrence and should need the intervention of the House. Notices have to
be given before 10 am to the Speaker or the Chairperson. Thus statement 1 is correct.
• The Speaker/RS chairperson is the first level of scrutiny of a privilege motion. The
Speaker/Chair can decide on the privilege motion himself or herself or refer it to the
privileges committee of Parliament. If the Speaker/Chair gives consent under Rule
222, the member concerned is given an opportunity to make a short statement. Thus
statement 2 is correct.
• Statement 3 is Correct. They can give Punishment.
Ans.110) B
S)
Explanation:-
IA
• It is done by Members Present and Voting. Thus statement 1 is Incorrect.
SR
• While there is another test, Composite floor test, which is necessitated when more
than one person stake the claim to form the government and the majority is not clear.
ty
Governor may call a special session to assess who has the majority. The majority is
ul
counted based on those present and voting and this can be done through voice vote
also.
ac
(F
Ans.111) A
r
Explanation:-
ma
• Technically, a session of the Indian Parliament is the period between the first sitting of
Ku
a House and its prorogation or dissolution. Thus Statement 1 is Correct.

• The period between the prorogation of a House and its reassembly in a new session is
h
called ‘recess’. Thus Statement 2 is Incorrect.

ab
Ans.112) C
ur
Explanation:-
Sa
• A Parliamentary Executive means an executive that is dependent on support of the

majority in the parliament.
Ans.113) C
Explanation:-
• Parliament exercises control over Executive through debates and discussions on the
floor. It has instruments like short duration discussions during question and zero-
hours, calling attention motion, adjournment motion, no-confidence motion, censure
motion, etc.
• It also supervises the activities of the Executive with the help of its committees like
committee on government assurance, committee on subordinate legislation,
committee on petitions, etc.
• The ministers are collectively responsible to the Parliament in general and to the Lok
Sabha in particular. As a part of collective responsibility, there is individual
responsibility, that is, each minister is individually responsible for the efficient
administration of the ministry under his charge. They continue in office so long as
they enjoy the confidence of the majority members in the Lok Sabha.
Ans.114) B
Explanation:-
• A Financial bill (I) is treated as an ordinary bill in some cases like:
S)
1. it can be either rejected or amended by the Rajya Sabha.
2. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses over such a bill, the
IA
• President can summon a joint sitting of the two Houses to resolve the deadlock.
SR
When the bill is presented to the President, he can either give his assent to the bill or
withhold his assent to the bill or return the bill for reconsideration of the Houses.
Ans.115) B ty
ul
ac
Explanation:-
(F
• The Appropriation Bill cannot contain expenditure in excess because extra money
can’t be drawn by the Government. Government can withdraw only what is
r
ma
mentioned in the Appropriation Bill. Thus Statement 2 is Incorrect.

Ku
Ans.116) D
Explanation:-
h
ab
• Under this procedural device, a Member may, with the prior permission of the
ur
Speaker, call the attention of a Minister to any matter of urgent public importance and
the Minister may make a brief statement thereon. There shall be no debate on such a
Sa
statement at the time it is made. After the statement, brief clarifications can be sought
from the Minister by the Member who has initiated the Calling Attention and other
Members whose names appear in the List of Business are called by the Speaker.
• Only those matters which are primarily the concern of the Union Government can be
raised through a Calling Attention notice.
• The Calling Attention procedure is an Indian innovation which combines asking a
question with Supplementaries and making brief comments; the Government also gets
adequate opportunity to state its case.
• The Calling Attention matter is not subject to the vote of the House. Thus all the
Statements are Correct.
Ans.117) B
Explanation:-
• The time immediately following the Question Hour and laying of papers and before
any listed business is taken up in the House has come to be popularly known as the
`Zero Hour'.
• As it starts around 12 noon, this period is euphemistically termed as `Zero Hour'. For
raising matters during the ‘Zero Hour’ in Lok Sabha, Members give notice between
8.30 a.m. and 9.00 a.m. everyday to the Speaker stating clearly the subject which
they consider to be important and wish to raise in the House.
• It is, of course, for the Speaker to allow or not to allow for raising such matters in the
House. The term `Zero Hour' is not formally recognised in our parliamentary
procedure.
Ans.118) D
S)
Explanation:-
IA
SR
• The Constitution provides for an Address by the President to either House or both
Houses assembled together [Article 86(1)]. The Constitution also makes incumbent
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upon the President to address both Houses of Parliament assembled together at the
commencement of the first Session after each General Election to the Lok Sabha and
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at the commencement of the first Session each year and inform Parliament of the
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causes of its summons. [Article 87(1)].

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• The matters referred to in the Address by the President to the Houses are discussed on
a Motion of Thanks moved by a Member and seconded by another Member.
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• No Member can raise questions on the Address by the President. Any action on the
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part of a Member which mars the occasion or creates disturbance is punishable by the
House to which that Member belongs. Discussion on matters referred to in the
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Address takes place on a Motion of Thanks moved by a Member and seconded by

another Member.
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• The scope of discussion on the Address is very wide and the functioning of the entire
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administration is open for discussion; the limitations inter alia are that Members
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should not refer to matters which are not the direct responsibility of the Government
of India, and the name of the President should not be brought in during the debate
Sa
since the Government, and not the President, is responsible for the contents of the
Address. Thus all the Statements are Correct.
Ans.119) A
Explanation:-
• Discussion on a motion is initiated by the mover of the motion, and later, unless he
withdraws it, the House either adopts in in totality or with such amendments as it may
like to make or it may reject it altogether.
• The mover of a motion frames it in a form in which he/she wishes it ultimately to be
passed by the House and on which the vote of the House can conveniently be taken.
The members who wish the motion to be passed in a different form may move
amendments after the original motion has been proposed by the Speaker. These
amendments too should be in the form in which the motion as amended can be passed
by the House and must, therefore, be relevant to the subject matter of the main
motion. Thus Statement 2 and 3 is Incorrect.
Ans.120) C
Explanation:-
• The Speaker does not leave the House just after dissolution. The Speaker holds office
from the date of her election till immediately before the first meeting of the Lok
Sabha after the dissolution of the one to which she was elected.
• She is eligible for re-election. On the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, although the
S)
Speaker ceases to be a member of the House, she does she does not vacate her office.
IA
Thus Statement 1 is Incorrect and Statement 2 and 3 is Correct.
SR
Ans.121) A
Explanation:-
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• The Budget Division of the Department of Economic Affairs in the finance ministry is
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the nodal body responsible for producing Budget.

(F
• Limitations of Estimate Committee:-

6. The power to examine the budget estimates is not an absolute one. The
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committee can only examine the budget after it is voted upon and not before
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that.
7. Nowhere the power to question the policies of the Parliament has been
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conferred upon the committee.

8. All the recommendations made by the committee are advisory in nature and
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stand non-binding for the parliament.

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Ans.122) B
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Sa
Explanation:-
• Speaker only presides and President Summons. Thus Statement 1 is Incorrect.
Ans.123) D
Explanation:-
• The election of Deputy Chairman shall be held on such date as the Chairman may fix,
and the Secretary shall send notice thereof to every member.
• At any time before noon on the day preceding the day so fixed, any member may give
notice in writing addressed to the Secretary, of a motion that another member be
chosen as the Deputy Chairman of the Council, and the notice shall be seconded by a
third member and shall be accompanied by a statement by the member whose name is
proposed in the notice that he is willing to serve as Deputy Chairman, if elected.
Ans.124) B
Explanation:-
• A Finance Bill is a Bill that, as the name suggests, concerns the country's finances —
it could be about taxes, government expenditures, government borrowings, revenues,
etc. Since the Union Budget deals with these things, it is passed as a Finance Bill.
• Rule 219 of the Rules of Procedure of Lok Sabha states: ‘Finance Bill’ means the Bill
ordinarily introduced in each year to give effect to the financial proposals of the
Government of India for the following financial year and includes a Bill to give effect
to supplementary financial proposals for any period.
S)
• It is introduced after the appropriation bill.
IA
Ans.125) B
SR
Explanation:-
• ty
Under the Government of India Transaction of Business Rules (TBR), 1961 an
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executive arm of the government was assigned the task of conducting the business of
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it. These Rules emerge out of Article 77(3) of the Constitution, which states: “The
President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the
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Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.”
• Thus Cabinet Committees are formed which are instrumental in reducing the
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workload of the Cabinet.

• These committees are extra-constitutional in nature and are nowhere mentioned in the
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Constitution.
• There are two types of cabinet committees:
A. Standing Cabinet Committees which are permanent in nature with a specific job.
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These are specified in the First Schedule of TBR. The Cabinet Ministers are called its
‘members’ while the people without the rank of Cabinet Committee are called ‘special
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invitees’.
Sa
B. Ad hoc committees of ministers, including Groups of Ministers (GoMs), may be

appointed by the Cabinet or by the Prime Minister for specific matters. They are
temporary in nature and are formed from time to time.
• The Prime Minister constitutes Standing Committees of the Cabinet and sets out the
specific functions assigned to them. He can add or reduce the number of committees.
The composition of a Cabinet Committee varies from 3 to 8 people.
Even Ministers who are not part of the Cabinet can be added to a Cabinet Committee.
• The members of the Cabinet Committee can be from both the Lok Sabha and the
Rajya Sabha.
Ans.126) C
Explanation:-
• The Constitution mentions only about Committees, and silent on the Composition.
Thus statement 2 is Incorrect.
• Rest of the Statement is Self Explanatory.
Ans.127) A
Explanation:-
• Statement 1 is Right as it can’t be issued against administrative or executive bodies.

• Statement 2 is wrong because it can’t be issued against Military Tribunal
Ans.128) C
Explanation:-
S)
IA
• Statement 1 is Right:- Clause 2 A of Article 124 provides that the age of Judge of
the Supreme court shall be determined by authority decided by Parliament by law
SR
provides, but according to Article 217 (3), Dispute over the age of judge of HC is
decided by president.
• ty
Statement 2 is Right:- The order of the President can only be passed if it has been
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addressed by both the houses in same session (Sarojini Ramaswami vs UOI).
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(F
Ans.129) D
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ma
Ans.130) D
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Explanation:-
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Original Jurisdiction does not apply to:-

ab
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• The dispute must involve a question of law or fact on which the existence/extent of
a legal right depends. Thus, the questions of political nature are excluded from it.
Sa
• Any suit brought before the Supreme Court by a private citizen against the Centre or a
state cannot be entertained under this article.
• Also, the provisions mentioned in this Article are subject to other provisions of the
Constitution, i.e., if a remedy to any issue is present under any other Article of the
Constitution, then this Article will not be available. For example, in cases of water
disputes between two or more states, the remedy to such conflicts is entertained
under article 262,and not under Article 131.
Ans.131) C
Explanation:-
• Both the statements are correct. The rule is all the matter related to substantial
question of law and constitutional law is to be addressed by 5 judges bench.
Ans.132) A
Explanation:-
• Statement 1 is correct
• Statement 2 is Incorrect: - HC judges can not practice in same court from where they
get retirement.
Ans.133) C
Explanation:-
S)
IA
• Statement 1 is Right: - Though the law making power rests with Parliament only, but
SC says in Vineet Narain case about continuing Mandamus. It means law made by
SR
SC will apply till Parliament does not enact any law. In this context, SC has law
making power as per SC Judges.
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Statement 2 is Right:- The ground for transfer is not mentioned in constitution and
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earlier Judge from Punjab HC was transferred to Guwahati HC on the charges of
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corruption.
(F
Ans.134) C
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Explanation:-
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• Statement 1 is Correct: Article 216 says so.

• Statement 2 is also correct: The constitution says about rule making power of SC
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relating to its procedure.

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Ans.135) B
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Explanation:-
Sa
• SC can refuse Only if appropriate proceedings are not followed. Thus Statement 1 is
Incorrect.
• Writ Petitions are part of Fundamental corrects under Article 32. Statements 2 & 3 are
correct.
Ans.136) C
Explanation:-
• The collegium only send the name of judges, which is scrutinized by Ministry of Law
and Justice and finally sent to the government to take final decision.
Ans.137) D
Explanation:-
• Any Person aggrieved by a ruling can seek Review. Thus Statement 1 is Incorrect.
• As per 1966 Rules framed by the SC, a Review Petition must be filled within 30 Days
of the date of Judgment of the order. Thus Statement 2 is Incorrect
• HC can also review and correct its own judgment, but such power has not been
conferred by the Constitution. Thus Statement 3 is Correct.
Ans.138) C
Explanation:-
• Only Initial Posting and promotion is Done by Governor, later one is done by the HC.
Thus Statement 1 is Correct.
S)
• Statement 2 is Correct as it is Self explanatory.
IA
Ans.139) B
SR
Explanation:-
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Human Right Court are established at District level, not at the state level. Thus
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Statement 1 is Incorrect. Rest of the statement are Correct.
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(F
Ans.140) D
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Explanation:-
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Ans.141) C
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Explanation:-
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• Article 129 and 215 of the Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and
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High Court respectively to punish people for their respective contempt.

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• Section 10 of The Contempt of Courts Act of 1971 defines the power of the High
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Court to punish contempt of its subordinate courts.

• The Constitution also includes contempt of court as a reasonable restriction to the
freedom of speech and expression under Article 19, along with elements like public
order and defamation.
Ans.142) D
Explanation:-
Ans.143) B
Explanation:-
• As per Article 348 (1) of the Constitution of India, English is the official language for
all the high courts. However as per Clause (2) of Article 348, the Governor of a state,
with the previous consent of President of India, can authorize use of
official language of the state in proceedings before its high court
Ans.144) D
Explanation:-
• The duties and powers of the Comptroller and Auditor General in relation to accounts
are contained in Section 10, 11 and 12 of the Comptroller and Auditor General’s
(Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971. Earlier it was contained in the
Government of India (Audit and Accounts) order 1936 in pursuance of Government
of India Act, 1935, according to which Auditor General was responsible for keeping
S)
the accounts of the Federation and of each Province. In 1976, the President relieved
C&AG of the responsibility of compiling the accounts of the Union Government in
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terms of proviso under section 10 of the Act. The Act confers similar powers to the
SR
Governor of a State in respect of State Government Accounts. However, except the
State of Goa, where accounts compilation is not with the C&AG, in all other States,
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accounts compilation remains the responsibility of the C&AG. Under the Act the
Comptroller and Auditor General is now responsible for compiling the accounts of:
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(a) All States (except Goa); (b) The Union Territories of Chandigarh, Dadra and
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Nagar Haveli; and (c) Indian Audit and Accounts Department.

(F
• Secret service expenditure is outside the purview of the CAG and he cannot call for
particulars of expenditure incurred by the executive agencies, but has to accept a
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certificate from the competent administrative authority that the expenditure has been
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so incurred.
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Ans.145) D
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Explanation:-
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• Office of the Accountant General was established in 1858 (the year the British took over
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administrative control of India from the East India Company). In 1860 Sir Edward
Drummond was appointed as the first Auditor General.
Sa
• Meanwhile after some restructuring the Auditor General of India came to be called the
Auditor and Accountant General to the Government of India.
• In 1866, the position was renamed Comptroller General of Accounts, and in 1884, it was re-
designated as Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
• Under the Government of India Act 1919, the Auditor General became independent of the
government as statutory backing was given for the position. Thus Statement 1 is Correct.
Ans.146) B
Explanation:-
Ans.147) A
Explanation:-
Article 252:- Power of Parliament to legislate for two or more States by consent and adoption
of such legislation by any other State.-
• If it appears to the Legislatures of two or more States to be desirable that any of the
matters with respect to which Parliament has no power to make laws for the States
except as provided in Articles 249 and 250 should be regulated in such States by
Parliament by law, and if resolutions to that effect are passed by all the House of the
Legislatures of those States, it shall be lawful for Parliament to pass an Act for
regulating that matter accordingly, and any Act so passed shall apply to such States
and to any other State by which it is adopted afterwards by resolution passed in that
behalf by the House or, where there are two Houses, by each of the Houses of the
Legislature of that State.
• Any Act so passed by Parliament may be amended or repealed by an Act of
Parliament passed or adopted in like manner but shall not, as respects any State to
which it applies, be amended or repealed by an Act of the Legislature of that State.
S)
IA
Ans.148) B
SR
Explanation:-
•
Governor.
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CAG does audit of Panchayat and Municipalities on the request of the President and
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• RBI and LIC is audited by internal auditors.
(F
Ans.149) D
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Ans.150) C
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Explanation:-
h
ab
• Statement 1 is Incorrect. No such function exists for the AG.

• The system of AG can be traced to UK. Thus Statement 2 is Incorrect.
ur
• Because of this he is not paid salary but a retainer to be determined by the President.
Sa
• The Attorney General gets a retainer equivalent to the salary of a judge of a Supreme
Court. This retainer is paid from Consolidated Fund of India. Thus Statement 3 is
Correct.
Ans.151) D
Explanation:-
• There is a clear distinction between the Advocate General and the Additional
Advocate General. Whereas the Advocate General is a Constitutional Authority,
Additional Advocate General is merely an Advocate retained by the State
Government.
• Whereas the Advocate General can be only one, appointed under Article 165 of the
Constitution of India, Additional Advocate General is appointed under the executive
powers of State under Article 162 of the Constitution of India, and there can be more
than one Additional Advocate General, to defend the State Government.
Ans.152) B
• Explanation:-Some discretionary powers are as follows:

Can dissolve the legislative assembly if the chief minister advises him to do following
a vote of no confidence.
• Can recommend the president about the failure of the constitutional machinery in the
state.
S)
• Can reserve a bill passed by the state legislature for president’s assent.
IA
• Can appoint anybody as chief minister If there is no political party with a clear- cut
SR
majority in the assembly.
• Determines the amount payable by the Government of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura

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and Mizoram to an autonomous Tribal District Council as royalty accruing from
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licenses for mineral exploration.
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• Can seek information from the chief minister with regard to the administrative and
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legislative matters of the state.

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• Can refuse to sign to an ordinary bill passed by the state legislature.

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Ans.153) D
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Explanation:-
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• The Governor shall not hold any other office of profit.

• The Governor shall be entitled without payment of rent to the use of his official
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residences.
Sa
• The Governor shall be also entitled to such emoluments, allowances and privileges as
may be determined by Parliament by law and, until provision in that behalf is so
made, such emoluments, allowances and privileges as are specified in the Second
Schedule.
• The emoluments and allowances of the Governor shall not be diminished during his
term of office.
• The Governor takes Oath of:
9. Faithfully execute the office of Governor.
10. Preserve, protect and defend the Constitution
11. Devote myself to the service and well-being of the people
Ans.154) D
Explanation:-
• Once it is clear that there is a hung Parliament, the President/Governor in case of Lok
Sabha and State Legislative assembly takes charge.
• The President invites the leader of the largest single party in the house to form the
government. If this is not possible, then the leader of the largest pre-poll alliance is
invited to form the government. If even this is not an option, the last resort is that the
leader of the largest post-poll alliance is called by the President to form the
government, according to the Sarkaria Commission’s recommendations.
• However, it could happen that the leader of the single largest party may be ruled out if
it is clear that there would be no support for him from other parties. In that case, the
President needs to use his judgement as to who would be able to form and maintain a
stable government.
• The onus is on the President to use his discretion to assess the situation, hold
consultations and finally invite a leader who will be capable.
S)
IA
Ans.155) C
SR
Explanation:-
•
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Statement 1 is Correct: Article 189(3) provides that until the State Legislature by
law provides for quorum of the house, it shall be 1/10th of the total number of the
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members of the houses.
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• Statement 2 is Correct: Article 208 provides that the Governor after consultation
with the Speaker of the Assembly or Chairman of the Council makes rules for
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communication between the houses.

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Ans.156) D
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Explanation:-
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• Both Adjournment and Prorogation does not have any effect on the bill.
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• Article 196(4) provides that the bill pending in Legislative Council, which has not
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been passed by the Legislative assembly, shall not lapse on the dissolution of the
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Assembly.
• Article 196(5) provides that a Bill which is pending in the Assembly or which having
been passed by the Assembly is pending in the council, shall lapse on a dissolution of
the Assembly.
• Bill pending with the Governor for his assent does not lapse on the dissolution of the
Assembly.
Ans.157) C
Explanation:-
• The MLC can be reappointed any number of times. Thus statement 1 is Incorrect.
• The vacancies are filled by election and nomination by the Governor in every third
year. Thus the 2nd Statement is correct.
• Parliament by the law determines their continuation of tenure for 6 years. Thus 3rd
statement is correct.
Ans.158) B
Explanation:-
• Article 164 (1A) of the Constitution prescribed that the total number of Ministers,
including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a State shall not exceed
15% of the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that State.
• This provision was introduced through the 91st Constitution (Amendment) Act, 2003.
S)
• It also Provides that the number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister in a State
shall not be less than twelve.
IA
Ans.159) C
SR
Explanation:-
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• With the consent of the State Government, the President may, without any legislative
sanction, entrust any executive function to that State
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• Irrespective of any consent of the State concerned, Parliament may, while legislating
(F
with respect to Union subject, confer powers upon a State or its officers, relating to
such subject. Such delegation has, in short, a statutory basis.
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• Conversely, with the consent of the Government of India, the Governor of a State may
entrust on the Union Government or its officers, functions relating to a State subject,
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so far as that State is concerned.

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Ans.160) B
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Explanation:-
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• Statement 1 is Correct - According to Article 268, Centre levied the Stamp duty, but
Sa
collected and appropriated by the states. Thus, the proceeds are not part of
Consolidated Fund of India.
• Statement 2 is Incorrect - State can also impose cess. Example- Cow cess by UP
Government.
• Statement 3 is Correct - According to Article 282, the central government can give
grants for any special purpose.
Ans.161) D
Explanation:-
• Statement 1 is Correct - There are 9 Tribunals constituted so far, the earliest one in
1969 and the recent one in 2018.
• Statement 2 is Correct – River Board shall come into force on such date as the
Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette.
• Statement 3 is Correct -In State of Andhra Pradesh vs State of Karnataka 2001, SC
says non implementation of Tribunal award is not a water dispute and comes under
SC Jurisdiction and court can issue Mandamus.
Ans.162) C
Explanation:-
• The law or Constitution does not clearly define what constitutes an office of profit but
S)
the definition has evolved over the years with interpretations made in various court
judgments. An office of profit has been interpreted to be a position that brings to the
IA
office-holder some financial gain, or advantage, or benefit. The amount of such profit
SR
is immaterial.
• The opinion of ECI is binding on the President in such matters. In 1964, the Supreme
Court ruled that the test for determining whether a person holds an office of profit is
the test of appointment. ty
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• Several factors are considered in this determination including factors such as:
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1. Whether the government is the appointing authority?

2. Whether the government has the power to terminate the appointment?
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3. Whether the government determines the remuneration?

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4. What is the source of remuneration?

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5. The power that comes with the position?

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Ans.163) B
Explanation:-
h
ab
• The Executive Power with respect to Concurrent List rests with Centre Only when
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Constitution and Parliament both Provides for so. Thus Statement 1 is Incorrect.
Sa
• Statement 2 is self-Explanatory and Correct. Firstly, it lays down that the executive
powers of the State are to be exercised in such a manner that it complies with the laws
made by the Parliament or any other existing laws which are applicable in the State.
Secondly, it states that the executive power of the Union includes in its ambit such
directions that are given to the State by the Central Government, which it deems
necessary for the purpose. It appears from reading the provision that if the States duly
comply with the first part, then the second part does not seem necessary. Whereas, if
the second part indeed serves its purpose sometimes, then it is evident that the States
are guilty of violating the first part of the provision.
• The Constitution lays down this provision with the assumption that the States will be,
at some juncture, guilty of either wilful defiance or negligence of its duties.
• Although this provision is particularly silent about the consequences in case of non-
compliance, the drastic sanction is laid down in Article 356 of the Constitution. To
explain, if a State fails to comply with the directions issued by the Centre, then it is
lawful for the President to hold that a situation has arisen wherein the State
government cannot be carried on according to the provisions of the Constitution.
Consequently, a state emergency can be imposed. The primary theme of this provision
is that there should be a proper execution of the central laws in all the states.
Ans.164) A
Explanation:-
• The State Legislature Can Impose tax only on Goods and services inside the State, not
outside the State. Thus Statement 1 is Correct.
• State Legislature Can Impose Tax on Inter State River Valley Project, if bill is
reserved for assent of President. Thus Statement 2 is Incorrect.
S)
• Only Parliament can make Law for Goods and Services in the Course of Inter State
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Trade and Commerce. Thus Statement 3 is Incorrect.
SR
Ans.165) B
Explanation:- ty
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• Property of Local Authorities within the State are not exempted from Central
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Taxation. Thus Statement 1 is Incorrect.

(F
Ans.166) D
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Explanation:-
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• In Guru Gobinda Basu VS Sankari Pd Ghosal 1964, SC Ruled that CAG, Judges of
SC and HC are not eligible to Contest election because they are serving in Connection
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with the affairs of the Union.

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• In Sukant VS Vasant Rao 2006, SC ruled that, Holding OOP under Local Authority is
not a disqualification to be elected as a member of SLA and Lok Sabha, but is a
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disqualification for being elected as President and Vice President.

Sa
• Thus all the Statements are Correct. Question is asking which is Incorrect, thus Ans is
D
Ans.167) A
Explanation:-
• There is no any role of Governor in his appointment. He is appointed by the State

government.
Ans.168) A
Explanation:-
• Statement 1 and 3 is Correct. The rules for the procedure of meeting at ISC are
framed by the President.
• If any matter is sought up before the Council by the Central Government or by the
Government of any State or Union territory, a formal reference shall be made to the
Council, addressed to the Secretary of the Council.
• On receipt of the reference, the Secretariat of the Council shall examine it in all its
aspects.
• After reference has been examined, the Secretary of the Council shall submit the case
to the Chairman with his recommendation for obtaining the orders of the Chairman as
to whether the issue or issues raised therein should be included in the Agenda for the
meeting of the Council.
S)
IA
• The meetings of the Council shall be held in Delhi or any other convenient place
determined by the Chairman. Ten members including the Chairman shall form the
SR
quorum for a meeting of the Council.
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The Secretary shall evolve a system of monitoring the action taken on the
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recommendations of the Council by the Central Government, the Government of any
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State or the Union territory concerned.
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• The meetings of the Council are held in camera. Therefore the details of the agenda
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items and proceedings of the meetings cannot be shared in the public domain.
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Ans.169) D
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Explanation:-
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• Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir can’t make law only on Public Order and
Police while Union Territory of Delhi can’t make law on matters related to Public
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Order, Police and Land. Thus Statement 1 is incorrect.

• The Lt. governor is empowered to promulgate ordinances during recess of the
assembly. An ordinance has the same force as an act of the assembly. Every such
ordinance must be approved by the assembly within six weeks from its reassembly.
He can also withdraw an ordinance at any time. But, he cannot promulgate an
ordinance when the assembly is dissolved or suspended. Further, no such ordinance
can be promulgated or withdrawn without the prior permission of the President.
• The Puducherry Legislative assembly has 33 seats:- 30 elected and 3 nominated by
the central government and Jammu and Kashmir Legislative assembly has 107 seats
(24 for POK). Thus statement 3 is InCorrect.
Ans.170) D
Explanation:-
• According to Official Language Act, Inter State Communication can be done in Hindi
between Hindi Speaking States, but it should be accompanied with English. Thus
Statement 1 is Correct.
• According to Official Language Act 1963, HC can use Hindi for Judgment but it
should be accompanied with English. Thus Statement 2 is Correct.
Ans.171) C
Explanation:-
• All of them can ask for safeguards under Article 311.
Ans.172) C
S)
IA
Explanation:-
SR
• The Chairman and every other Member of the Central Administrative Tribunal shall
be appointed after consultation with the Chief Justice of India by the President.
• ty
According to the 272 Law Commission Report, Some of the Tribunals allow for
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reappointment and some of the tribunals do not allow for the same. Thus statement 3
is Incorrect in General Understanding.
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(F
Ans.173) D
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Explanation:-
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All the statements are correct.

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• NGT uses three different principles for Justice-Precautionary Principle, Sustainable

Development Principle and Polluter Pays Principle.
h
• The Tribunal has jurisdiction over all civil cases involving substantial questions
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relating to the environment.

• NGT by an order can provide relief and compensation to the victims of pollution and
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other environmental damage

Sa
• The NGT deals with civil cases under the seven laws related to the environment, these
include:
1. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
2. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977.
3. The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980.
4. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
5. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
6. The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991 and
7. The Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
Ans.174) B
Explanation:-
• Statement 1 and 2 is Correct and 3 is Incorrect
• Government first declares any organisation and Individual as Terrorist, then
accordingly the Tribunal may uphold or term it void.
Ans.175) B
Explanation:-
• Statement 1 is Wrong :- The judges are appointed by the State Government and there
are Conciliators in place of Lawyers.
• Statement 2 is Right:- It is mandatory for the State Government to set up a Family
Court for every area in the State comprising a city or a town whose population
exceeds one million.
S)
Ans.176) C
IA
Explanation:-
SR
• Statement 2 is Incorrect as Readjustment is done only after Census.
• Statement 3 is Incorrect as Power of Enforcement of Orders lies with the Election
Commission. ty
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Ans.177) C
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Explanation:-
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• Chief Electoral Officer is the head at the State level for both Election in Lok Sabha
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and election at State Legislative Assembly. Thus Statement 1 is Incorrect.

• Candidate has to take oath before Returning or Assistant Returning Officer after
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Nomination, if the Candidate is outside India, Then Oath will be administered before
High Commissioner or Ambassador. Thus Statement 2 is Correct.
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• Statement 3 is Factual and Correct. An EVM being used by ECI can maximum of
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2,000 votes
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Ans.178) D
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Explanation:-
• The EVMs were first used in 1982 in the by-election to North Paravur Assembly
Constituency in Kerala for a limited number of polling stations. Thus Statement 1 is
Incorrect.
• EVMs can cater to a maximum of 64 candidates including NOTA. There is provision
for 16 candidates in a Balloting Unit. If the total number of candidates exceeds 16,
more balloting units can be attached (one per 16 candidates) up to a maximum of 64
candidates by connecting 4 Balloting Units. However, in case of M3 EVMs (Post
2013), EVMs can cater to a maximum of 384 candidates including NOTA by
connecting 24 Balloting Units. Thus Statement 2 is Incorrect.
• VVPATs with EVMs were used for the first time in a bye-election from 51-Noksen
(ST) Assembly Constituency of Nagaland. Thus Statement 3 is Correct.
Ans.179) C
Explanation:-
• As per the guidelines of Ministry of Law and Justice, issued in October 1979, the
entire expenditure on the actual conduct of elections to Lok Sabha is borne by the
Government of India.
• In the case of elections to the State Assembly when they are held independently, the
expenditure is borne by the respective State Government.
• If the elections to the Lok Sabha & State Assembly are held simultaneously, then the
expenditure is shared equally between the Government of India & the State
S)
Government. The Election Commission of India (ECI) bears expenditure for
honorarium to the observers deployed during elections
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SR
Ans.180) B
Explanation:-
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• The Grants in Aid for the Local bodies has been recommended by 14th FC also. Thus
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statement 1 is Incorrect.
• The 15th FC has again recommended Sector Specific Grants for 8 different sectors
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like- Nutrition, Policing, Health, Pre Primary Education, Housing, Judiciary, Rural
Connectivity and Railways, which was stopped by 14th FC. The statement 2 is
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Correct. There is a special Grant for Karnataka, Mizoram and Telangana. Thus
statement 3 is Correct.
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Ans.181) B
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Explanation:-
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• The State Finance Commission has been recommended for the first time by the
Thungon Committee and introduced in the 73rd Amendment. Thus Statement 1 is
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Incorrect.
• Statement 2 is Correct as it is self-Explanatory.
• It shall be constituted after every 5 years or earlier also. Thus statement 3 is Correct.
Ans.182) D
Explanation:-
• The President by Notification declares any Community as SC. Thus Statement 1 is

Correct.
• Parliament not the Central Government can modify the Order. Thus Statement 2 is
Incorrect.
• The Commission presents its report to the President and the President sends the report
to the Governor. Thus Statement 4 is Incorrect.
Ans.183) D
Explanation:-
• NCM Consists of Chairperson, Vice Chairperson and 5 Members. Statement 1 is

Correct.
• It Consists of Minorities members only. Statement 2 is Correct.
• National Commission for minority Educational Institutions recommends for granting
Minority status to Institution under section 11 of the NCMEA Act. Thus statement 3 is
Incorrect.
S)
Ans.184) A
IA
Explanation:-
SR
• The recent amendment Include Chairperson of the National Commission for
Backward Classes, Chairperson of the National Commission for the Protection of
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Child Rights and the Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities as Ex-officio
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Members of the Commission. Thus Statement 1 is Correct.
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• The Salaries and service conditions are determined by the Central Government, not by
Parliament. Thus Statement 2 is Incorrect. Statement 3 is factual and correct.
(F
Ans.185) C
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Explanation:-
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• Rules under Article 309 Can be framed by the President and Governor only if
Parliament and SLA have not made the Laws. Thus statement 1 is Correct.
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• Reasonable opportunity to hear is sought in article 311(2). It is not available in

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following Cases:-
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a. In case of Criminal charges. Thus statement 2 is Correct.

b. When Public servant is considered as a threat to Security of the Country.
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• Where the appropriate disciplinary authority is satisfied, for reasons to be

recorded by that authority in writing that it does not consider it reasonably practicable
to give to the person an opportunity of showing cause, no such opportunity need be
given.
Ans.186) C
Explanation:-
• Statement 1 is Right- Self Explanatory. Under the present form, under Article 352 of
the Constitution, the President can only proclaim an emergency when she/he has a
confirmation of the crisis situation by the Prime Minister and their Cabinet, presented
to the President in written form. Under Article 74, the President can remit back the
written dossier for Emergency proclamation to the Prime Minister and the Cabinet.
However, if the Cabinet resends it, the President must oblige and proclaim an
emergency. Unlike in 1975, it is no longer possible for the Prime Minister to
unilaterally take a decision about the Proclamation of an emergency without any
written explanation and transparency
• Statement 2 is Right - After the Notice, a special session is called within 14 days to
decide the revocation of the emergency.
• Statement 3 is Wrong- President, not the Parliament can modify the transfer of
finance from Centre to State.
Ans.187) C
Explanation:-
S)
• Statement 1 is Wrong- President can dismiss the Council of Minister on its own but to
dissolve the State Legislative assembly, Parliament must approve Presidential
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proclamation.
SR
• Statement 2 is Wrong- Chief Secretary assists the Governor when the President
provides power of administration to the Governor.
Ans.188) C ty
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Explanation:-
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• Administration of Tuensang district shall be carried on by the governor.

• Governor in his discretion shall arrange for equitable distribution of money, b/w
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Tuensang district & Rest of Nagaland, provided by the centre.

• There shall be a minister for Tuensang affairs in state COMs.
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• Final decision on all matters relating to Tuensang district shall be made by the
governor at his discretion.
• Members in Nagaland assembly from the Tuensang district are not elected directly by
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the people but by the regional council.

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Ans.189) A
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Explanation:-
• The District Council has Legal, Administrative, judicial Power. By the virtue of this,
they can constitute their Own Court and even the Jurisdiction of HC will apply as
specified by the Governor. Thus Statement 1 is Correct.
• The Governor appoints a commission to examine the matter related to the
administration of the autonomous district and regions. He dissolves DC or RC on the
recommendation of these commissions. Thus statement 2 is Correct.
• There are 3 Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) in Meghalaya namely the Khasi
Hills Autonomous District Council, the Garo Hills Autonomous District Council and
the Jantia Hills Autonomous District Council. Except for a small part of the area
under the Shillong Municipality, the entire state is covered by the District Councils.
Term of the District Councils is for five years from the date of their constitution. Thus
statement 3 is Incorrect.
Ans.190) A
Explanation:-
• The court upheld the sweeping discretion available to the Speaker in deciding cases of
disqualification of MLAs.
• While the Speaker’s decisions can be challenged subsequently, the court cannot stay
or prevent the process. Hence, judicial review cannot be available at a stage prior to
the making of a decision by the Speaker/Chairman and a “quia timet” action would
not be permissible. Nor would interference be permissible at an interlocutory stage of
the proceedings. Quia timet is an injunction to restrain wrongful acts which are
S)
threatened or imminent but have not yet commenced.
• Besides, the Court can review only infirmities based on violation of constitutional
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mandate, mala fides, non-compliance with rules of natural justice, and perversity.
SR
Ans.191) C
Explanation:- ty
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The law provides for a member to be disqualified if he ‘voluntarily gives up his
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membership’. However, the Supreme Court has interpreted that in the absence of a
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formal resignation by the member, the giving up of membership can be inferred by his
conduct.
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The Supreme Court, in the Ravi Naik vs. Union of India case, has interpreted the
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•
phrase ‘voluntarily gives up his membership.' It says: “The words ‘voluntarily gives
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up his membership' are not synonymous with ‘resignation' and have a wider
connotation.
• A person may voluntarily give up his membership of a political party even though he
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has not tendered his resignation from the membership of that party. Even in the
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absence of a formal resignation from membership, an inference can be drawn from

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the conduct of a member that he has voluntarily given up his membership of the
political party to which he belongs.
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• In another judgment in the case of Rajendra Singh Rana vs. Swami Prasad
Maurya and Others, the Supreme Court held that the act of giving a letter requesting
the Governor to call upon the leader of the other side to form a Government itself
would amount to an act of voluntarily giving up membership of the party on whose
ticket the said members had got elected.
Ans.192) C
Explanation:-
• As per provisions contained in Article 243 D of the Constitution, 1/3rd of the Seats of
Panchayati Raj Institutions and 1/3rd offices of the Chairperson at all level of
Panchayati Raj Institutions covered by Part IX of the Constitution are reserved for
women.
• One-third of the total number of seats to be reserved for women. One third of the seats
reserved for SCs and STs are reserved for women. Thus Both the Statements are
Correct.
Ans.193) A
Explanation:-
• Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, UP, UK, MP, Orissa:- Mayors are directly elected by
the people and thus hold the executive powers of the municipal corporations.
Ans.194) D
S)
Explanation:-
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• In Union of India v/s R.C. Jain, to be deliberated a “local authority”:- The authority
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must satisfy the below given rules:
i. Separate legal existence.
ii. Role in a defined area. ty
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iii. Has power to raise funds.
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iv. Enjoys independence.
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Ans.195) B
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Explanation:-
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• Statement 1:- It applies with modification if the President directs, otherwise it applies
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automatically.
• Every District Planning Committee shall, in preparing the draft development plan,
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have regard to:-

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1. Matters of common interest between the Panchayats and the Municipalities including
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spatial planning, sharing of water and other physical and natural resources, the
integrated development of infrastructure and environmental conservation.
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2. The extent and type of available resources whether financial or otherwise.

3. Consult such institutions and organisations as the Governor may, by order, specify.
• The Chairperson of every District Planning Committee shall forward the development
plan, as recommended by such Committee, to the Government of the State.
Ans.196) C
Explanation:-
• Statement 1 is factual and correct.

• The Lokpal shall provide to every person against whom a complaint has been made,
before it, under this Act, legal assistance to defend his case before the Lokpal, if such
assistance is requested for. Thus Statement 2 is Correct. https://
www.advocatekhoj.com/library/bareacts/lokpal2014/55.php?Title=Lokpal%20and%2
0Lokayuktas%20Act,%202013&STitle=Legal%20assistance.
Ans.197) D
Explanation:-
• The recent amendment expands the ambit of the list of crimes that the agency can
investigate, including human trafficking, counterfeit currency, manufacture or sale of
prohibited arms, cyber-terrorism, and offences under the Explosive Substances Act.
• The schedule to the Act specifies a list of offences which are to be investigated and
prosecuted by the NIA. These include offences under Acts such as the Atomic Energy
Act, 1962, and the Unlawful Activities Prevention Act, 1967
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Ans.198) A
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SR
Ans.199) C
Explanation:- ty
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• Constitutional amendment is not a law under article 13 and thus can’t be challenged
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as per article 13. However it can be challenged as per the doctrine of basic structure,
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not as per the article 13.

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• Non legislative source of law like customs having the force of law comes under the
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meaning of article 13 and hence can be challenged.

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Ans.200) D
Explanation:-
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• Electoral registration officer is responsible for preparation of electoral roll. He is

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appointed by ECI in consultation with state/UT Government.

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• Chief electoral officer is not assisted by returning officer, he himself determines start
campaigner.
• Polling officer looks into timely conduct of election.
Answer key for Governance
Ans.1) C
Explanation:-
• The Committee Against Torture (CAT) is the body of 10independent experts that
monitors implementation of the Convention against torture and other Cruel, Inhuman
or degrading treatment or punishment by its State parties.
• The Committee is one of eight UN-linked human rights treaty bodies.
• Members are elected for a term of four years by States parties
• Members serve in their personal capacity and may be re-elected if nominated.
Ans.2) B
Explanation:-
S)
• Data Security Council of India (DSCI), is a not-for-profit, industry body on data
protection in India, setup by NASSCOM, committed to making the cyberspace safe,
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secure and trusted by establishing best practices, standards and initiatives in cyber
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security and privacy.
Ans.3) B
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Explanation:-
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• The commission is a quasi-judicial body which gives opinions to statutory authorities

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and also deals with other cases. The Chairperson and other Members shall be whole-
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time Members.
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• Eligibility of members:-The Chairperson and every other Member shall be a person

of ability, integrity and standing and who, has been, or is qualified to be a judge of a
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High Court, or, has special knowledge of, and professional experience of not less than
fifteen years in international trade, economics, business, commerce, law, finance,
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accountancy, management, industry, public affairs, administration or in any other

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matter which, in the opinion of the Central Government, may be useful to the
Commission.
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• It is under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.

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Ans.4) C
Explanation:-
• It is a fully government-owned company that was established in 1957 to promote

exports by providing credit insurance services.
• It functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Commerce &
Industry, Department of Commerce.
Ans.5) C
Explanation:-
• HEFA incorporated on 31st May 2017, is a joint venture of Ministry of HRD, GOI
and Canara Bank with an agreed equity participation in the ratio of 90.91% and
09.09% respectively.
• HEFA is registered under the Companies Act 2013 as a Union Govt company and as
Non–deposit taking NBFC with RBI.
Ans.6) B
Explanation:-
• The Advertising Standards Council of India (ASCI), established in 1985, is committed

to the cause of Self-Regulation in Advertising, ensuring the protection of the interests
of consumers.
• The Consumer Complaints Council (CCC) is ASCI’s heart and soul. It is the
S)
dedicated work put in by this group of eminent people that has given tremendous
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impetus to ASCI’s work and self-regulation in advertising.
SR
Ans.7) C
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Explanation:-
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• It will have a Chief Commissioner as head, and only two other commissioners as
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members — one of whom will deal with matters relating to goods while the other will
look into cases relating to services.
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• Impose a penalty up to Rs 10 lakh, with imprisonment up to two years, on the

manufacturer or endorser of false and misleading advertisements. The penalty may go
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up to Rs 50 lakh, with imprisonment up to five years, for every subsequent offence

committed by the same manufacturer or endorser.
Ban the endorser of a false or misleading advertisement from making endorsement of
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•
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any products or services in the future, for a period that may extend to one year. The
ban may extend up to three years in every subsequent violation of the Act.
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Sa
Ans.8) D
Explanation:-
• The Government has Designated of National Health Systems Resource Centre

(NHSRC) as a WHO Collaborating Centre for Priority Medical Devices and Health
Technology Policy.
• It was Set up in 2006 under the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) to serve as
an apex body for technical assistance.
Ans.9) C
Explanation:-
• The association is registered under Societies Registration Act 1860.

• It was established in 2004 by leading online publishers.
Ans.10) A
Explanation:-
• NHA has been set-up to implement PM-JAY, as it is popularly known, at the national
level.
• An attached office of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare with full functional
autonomy.
• NHA is governed by a Governing Board chaired by the Union Minister for Health and
S)
Family Welfare.
• It is headed by a Chief Executive Officer (CEO), an officer of the rank of Secretary to
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the Government of India, who manages its affairs. The CEO is the Ex-Office Member
SR
Secretary of the Governing Board.
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Ans.11) B
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Explanation:-
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• Any person who, does not receive a decision within the time specified or is aggrieved
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by a decision of the Central Public Information Officer or State Public Information

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Officer, as the case may be, may within thirty days from the expiry of such period or
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from the receipt of such a decision prefer an appeal to such officer who is senior in
rank to the Central Public Information Officer or State Public Information Officer
(First Appeal)
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A second appeal against the decision shall lie within ninety days from the date on
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•
which the decision should have been made or was actually received, with the Central
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Information Commission or the State Information Commission.

NGOs which receive considerable and substantial finances from the government or
Sa
•
are essentially dependent on the government fall under the category of “public
authority” defined in Section 2(h) of the RTI Act of 2005. The court defined
“substantial” as a “large portion.” It does not necessarily have to mean a major
portion or more than 50%. No hard and fast rule can be laid down in this regard.
Substantial financing can be both direct or indirect.
• In 2018, a division bench of the Delhi high court was split on the issue of whether
• PMNRF is a public authority under the RTI Act and is liable to disclosure of
information to applicants. The matter was thereafter forwarded to the acting chief
justice of the HC for an opinion. The issue is still pending.
Ans.12) D
Explanation:-
• The executive power rests with the state only when not mentioned in Statute and
Constitution. The Essential commodities Act says that the centre can give directions
to the state.
• The Act gives powers to the central government to add or remove a commodity in the
“Schedule.” The Centre, if it is satisfied that it is necessary to do so in public interest,
can notify an item as essential, in consultation with state governments.
Ans.13) D
S)
Explanation:-
IA
• Section 4 of the RTI Act calls for Suo-Moto Disclosure. Thus Statement 1 is Correct.
SR
• It can be asked in electronic means and written request only. Thus Statement 2 is also
correct.
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Recently, NGOs which receive considerable finances from the government or are
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essentially dependent on the government fall under the category of “public authority”
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defined in Section 2(h) of the RTI Act of 2005. This means that they have to disclose
vital information, ranging from finances to hierarchy to decisions to functioning, to
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citizens who apply under RTI. An NGO may also include societies which are neither
owned nor controlled by the government, but if they are significantly funded by the
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government, directly or indirectly, they come under the RTI Act. Thus Statement 3 is
Correct.
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Ans.14) D
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Explanation:-
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• A disturbed area is one which is declared by notification under Section 3 of the

AFSPA. An area can be disturbed due to differences or disputes between members of
different religious, racial, language or regional groups or castes or communities.
• The Central Government, or the Governor of the State or administrator of the Union
Territory can declare the whole or part of the State or Union Territory as a disturbed
area. A suitable notification would have to be made in the Official Gazette. As per
Section 3, it can be invoked in places where “the use of armed forces in aid of the
civil power is necessary”. Thus statement 1 is Correct.
• Under Section 4 of the AFSPA, an authorised officer in a disturbed area enjoys certain
powers. The authorised officer has the power to open fire at any individual even if it
results in death if the individual violates laws which prohibit (a) the assembly of five
or more persons; or (b) carrying of weapons. However, the officer has to give a
warning before opening fire. Thus statement 2 is Correct.
• It is effective in the whole of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur (excluding seven assembly
constituencies of Imphal) and parts of Arunachal Pradesh. In Arunachal Pradesh, the
impact of AFSPA was reduced to eight police stations. Thus statement 3 is Correct.
Ans.15) D
Explanation:-
• Both the Statement are Correct and Self Explanatory, Question is asking for Incorrect
One. Thus the answer is D.
Ans.16) C
S)
Explanation:-
IA
The act identify four types of rights:
SR
1. Title rights: It gives FDST and OTFD the right to ownership to land farmed by tribals or
forest dwellers subject to a maximum of 4 hectares. Ownership is only for land that is
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actually being cultivated by the concerned family and no new lands will be granted.
2. Use rights: The rights of the dwellers extend to extracting Minor Forest Produce, grazing
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areas, to pastoralist routes, etc.
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3. Relief and development rights: To rehabilitation in case of illegal eviction or forced

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displacement and to basic amenities, subject to restrictions for forest protection

4. Forest management rights: It includes the right to protect, regenerate or conserve or
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manage any community forest resource which they have been traditionally protecting and
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conserving for sustainable use.

Who can claim these Rights?
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A. Members or community of the Scheduled Tribes who primarily reside in and who depend
on the forests or forest lands for bona fide livelihood needs. It can also be claimed by any
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member or community who has for at least three generations (75 years) prior to the 13th day
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of December, 2005 primarily resided in forests land for bona fide livelihood needs.
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Which authority responsible for it?

A. The Gram Sabha is the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and
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extent of Individual Forest Rights (IFR) or Community Forest Rights (CFR) or both that may
be given to FDST and OTFD.
Q. What is the procedure for it?
A. First, the gram Sabha makes a recommendation – i.e who has been cultivating land for
how long, which minor forest produce is collected, etc. The gram Sabha’s recommendation
goes through two stages of screening committees at the taluka and district levels.The district
level committee makes the final decision Finally, land recognised under this Act cannot be
sold or transferred.
Ans.17) C
Explanation:-
Powers of NCPCR to inquire into such complaints: Under the RTE Act, 2009, the NCPCR
can:
1. inquire into complaints about violation of the law.
2. summon an individual and demand evidence.
3. seek a magisterial enquiry.
4. file a writ petition in the High Court or Supreme Court.
5. approach the government concerned for prosecution of the offender.
6. recommend interim relief to those affected.
Ans.18) D
Explanation:-
S)
• The DMF is a non-profit statutory 'Trust' for every Indian district affected by mining-
IA
related operations, which should "work for the interest and benefit of persons, and
SR
areas affected by mining-related operations".
• The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act (MMDR) of 1957 was
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amended and District Mineral Foundation (DMF) was instituted.
Composition and Functions of the DMF is prescribed by the State Governments
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taking guidelines from article 244 of Indian Constitution, fifth and sixth schedules,
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Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 and the
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Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest

Rights) Act, 2006.
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• Every mining lease holder will pay a fraction of royalty, not exceeding one-third of
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the royalty, to the DMF as per rates prescribed by Central Government.

• The Pradhan Mantri Khanij Kshetra Kalyan Yojna will be implemented by the DMF's
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of the respective districts using the funds accruing to the DMF

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Ans.19) C
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Explanation:-
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Sa
• Permanent Lok Adalats have been set up as permanent bodies with a Chairman and
two members for providing compulsory pre-litigative mechanism for conciliation and
settlement of cases relating to Public Utility Services like transport, postal, telegraph
etc. Here, even if the parties fail to reach to a settlement, the Permanent Lok Adalat
gets jurisdiction to decide the dispute, provided, the dispute does not relate to any
offence.
• Further, the Award of the Permanent Lok Adalat is final and binding on all the parties.
• The jurisdiction of the Permanent Lok Adalat is Upto Rs. One Crore.
• Here if the parties fail to reach to a settlement, the Permanent Lok Adalat has the
jurisdiction to decide the case. The award of the Permanent Lok Adalat is final and
binding upon the parties.
Ans.20) C
Explanation:-
• The Polluter Pays Principle is a well-recognized and much celebrated environmental

law principle. Since its introduction in 1972, the Polluter Pays Principle has been
given a much broader sense. Therefore, not only does it cover pollution prevention
and control measures, it also covers liability such as costs for the clean-up of damage
to the environment. The Polluter Pays Principle was for the first time explicitly
applied and defined in the case of Indian council for enviro legal action vs UOI.
• The NGT has also invoked the principle of liability in Vishakhapatnam Gas leakage
case. Following are certain differences between the principles of absolute liability and
strict liability:
12. Whereas strict liability allows exceptions if the liability has been accrued by
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an Act of God, act of third party etc., absolute liability offers no exception to
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industries involved in hazardous activities, which are liable for the damage so
triggered notwithstanding adherence to the highest safety norms.
SR
13. Under absolute liability, the extent of damages depends on the magnitude and
financial capability of the organisation. However, under strict liability,
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compensation is payable as per the nature and quantum of damages caused.
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14. Under the doctrine of absolute liability, the element of escape is not essential.
In other words, rule of absolute liability shall be applicable to those injured
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within the premise and persons outside the premise. However, the same is not
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the case under the doctrine of strict liability.

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Ans.21) D
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Explanation:-
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• Under the policy, a person holding a ration card issued under the National Food
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Security Act, 2013 can collect their monthly quota of food grains from any fair price
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shop in the country.

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• The state governments have been requested to issue the ration card in bi-lingual
format, wherein besides the local language, the other language could be English or
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Hindi.
• Ration card of a new format will have a 10-digit standard ration card number. The
first two digits of the ration card will be state code and the next two digits will be
running ration card numbers.
while another two digits will be used to generate unique member IDs for each
beneficiary of the ration card.
• Any Indian can apply:- Any legal citizen of India can apply for this ration card.
Children under 18 years of age will be added to their parents' ration cards.
Ans.22) D
Explanation:-
• This law is applicable to all the establishments employing five or more migrant
workmen from other states. In addition to this, this law is also applicable to
contractors who have employed five or more inter-State workmen.
• It envisages a system of registration of such establishments. The principal employer is
prohibited from employing inter-State workmen without a certificate of registration
from the relevant authority.
• The law also lays down that every contractor who recruits workmen from one State
for deployment in another State should obtain a licence to do so.
• It is applicable on any railway, Cantonment Board, major port, mine or oil-field, any
establishment of a banking or insurance company the Central Government
Ans.23) C
Explanation:-
S)
IA
• Defence Testing Infrastructure Scheme (DTIS) has been launched with an outlay of
Rs 400 crore for creating state of the art testing infrastructure for this sector. This will
SR
facilitate indigenous defence production, consequently reduce imports of military
equipment and help make the country self-reliant.
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The projects under the Scheme will be provided with up to 75 percent government
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funding in the form of ‘Grant-in-Aid’. The remaining 25 per cent of the project cost
will have to be borne by the Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) whose constituents will
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be Indian private entities and State Governments. The SPVs under the Scheme will be
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registered under Companies Act 2013 and shall also operate and maintain all assets
under the Scheme, in a self-sustainable manner by collecting user charges.
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Ans.24) D
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Explanation:-
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• As defined in Section 2 (h) “public authority” means any authority or body or

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institution of self-Government established or constituted — a) by or under the

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constitution; b) by any other law made by Parliament; c) by any other law made by
State Legislature; d) by notification issued or order made by the appropriate
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Government, and includes any– (i) body owned, controlled or substantially financed;
(ii) non-Government organisation substantially financed, directly or indirectly by
funds provided by the appropriate Government”.
• In effect, this suggests any authority or body which we consider as Government in

common parlance- all Ministries and their departments, Municipal Bodies,
Panchayats, and so on. This also includes Courts, UPSC, and Public Sector
Undertakings like Nationalised Banks, LIC, and UTI amongst others. It is worth
noting that establishments of the Parliament, Legislatures, Judiciary, President and the
Governors have also been brought under the surveillance of the citizen.
• Organisations which are created by a specific notification eg. Deemed Universities

which are created by a specific notification.
Ans.25) D
Explanation:-
• All non-timber forest produce of plant origin and includes bamboo, brushwood,
stumps, canes, Tusser, cocoon, honey, waxes, Lac, tendu/kendu leaves, medicinal
plants and herbs, roots, tuber are MFP Under FRA, 2006.
Ans.26) B
Ans.27) A
Explanation:-
S)
IA
• The PSA allows for the detention of a person without a formal charge and without
trial.
SR
• It can be slapped on a person already in police custody; on someone immediately
after being granted bail by a court.
• ty
Unlike in normal circumstances, a person who is detained under the PSA need not be
ul
produced before a magistrate within 24 hours of the detention.
• No Right to File Bail Application: The detained person does not have the right to
ac
move a bail application before the court, and cannot engage any lawyer to represent
(F
him or her the detaining authority.

• The only way this administrative preventive detention order can be challenged is
r
through a habeas corpus petition filed by relatives of the detained person.The High
ma
Court and the Supreme Court have the jurisdiction to hear such petitions.
Ku
Ans.28) D
h
Explanation:-
ab
ur
• The legal basis of the DM Act, is Entry 23, Concurrent List of the Constitution
“Social security and social insurance”.
Sa
• The NDMA shall consist of the Chairperson and such number of other members, not
exceeding nine.
• A State Authority shall consist of the Chairperson and such number of other members,
not exceeding nine, as may be prescribed by the State Government.
• A National Executive Committee is constituted under Section 8 of DM Act, 2005 to
assist the National Authority in the performance of its functions. Union Home
secretary is its ex-officio chairperson. NEC has been given the responsibility to act as
the coordinating and monitoring body for disaster management, to prepare a National
Plan, monitor the implementation of National Policy etc.
Ans.29) D

Ans.30) C
Explanation:-
• National Knowledge Network (NKN) was established in 2010. The objective of the
NKN is to interconnect all institutions of higher learning and research with a high
speed data communication network to facilitate knowledge sharing and collaborative
research.
• NKN is the only network globally, that carries research and evaluation, Internet and e-
Governance traffic as three independent verticals under one umbrella.
• In March 2010, the Cabinet Committee on Infrastructure (CCI) approved the
establishment of the National Knowledge Network (NKN) at an outlay of Rs 5990
Crore, to be implemented by NIC over a period of 10 years, but not an attached
S)
Office.
IA
Ans.31) B
SR
Explanation:-
•
ty
Bharat Net is a project of national importance to establish, by 2017, a highly scalable
network infrastructure accessible on a non-discriminatory basis, to provide on
ul
demand, affordable broadband connectivity of 2 Mbps to 20 Mbps for all households
ac
and on demand capacity to all institutions, to realise the vision of Digital India, in
(F
partnership with States and the private sector.

• The entire project is being funded by Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF),
r
which was set up for improving telecom services in rural and remote areas of the
ma
country.
• The first phase envisages providing one lakh gram panchayats with broadband
Ku
connectivity by laying underground optic fibre cable (OFC) lines by December 2017.
• The second phase will provide connectivity to all 2,50,500 gram panchayats in the
h
country using an optimal mix of underground fibre, fibre over power lines, radio and
ab
satellite media. It is to be completed by March 2019.

ur
• In the third phase from 2019 to 2023, state-of-the-art, future-proof network, including
fibre between districts and blocks, with ring topology to provide redundancy would be
Sa
created.
Ans.32)D
B
Explanation:-
• The recent addition to the pro-arbitration outlook is the Arbitration & Conciliation
(Amendment) Act 2021. This is the third amendment to the Act of 1996 in the past six
years. It does away with the qualifications of the arbitrators under 8th Schedule of the
Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 which specified that the arbitrator must be: An
advocate under the Advocates Act, 1961 with 10 years of experience, or, An officer of
the Indian Legal Service.
• The qualifications for accreditation of arbitrators is proposed to be prescribed by
regulations to be framed by an arbitration council to be set up.
Ans.33) D
Explanation:-
Foreign source, as defined in FCRA, 2010 includes:-

(i) The Government of any foreign country or territory and any agency of
such Government
(ii) Any international agency
(iii) A foreign company.
(iv) A corporation, not being a foreign company, incorporated in a foreign
country or territory
S)
(v) A multi-national corporation
IA
(vi) A company within the meaning of the Companies Act, 1956, and more
than one-half of the nominal value of its share capital is held, either singly
SR
or in the aggregate, by one or more of the following, namely:- (A) the
Government of a foreign country or territory; (B) the citizens of a foreign
ty
country or territory; (C) corporations incorporated in a foreign country or
ul
territory; (D) trusts, societies or other associations of individuals (whether
incorporated or not), formed or registered in a foreign country or territory;
ac
(E) Foreign company.

(F
(vii) A trade union in any foreign country or territory, whether or not registered
in such foreign country or territory
r
(viii) Foreign trust or a foreign foundation, by whatever name called, or such

ma
trust or foundation mainly financed by a foreign country or territory.

Ku
(ix) A society, club or other association or individuals formed or registered

outside India.
(x) Citizen of a foreign country.
h
ab
ur
Ans.34) D
Sa
Explanation:-
• The World Bank in its biennial Poverty and Shared Prosperity Report mentions
that COVID 19 can add around 27-40 million new poor in Sub-Saharan Africa and
around 49-57 million in South Asia region.
• The “new poor” will:
A. Be more urban poor.
B. Be more engaged in informal services and manufacturing and less in agriculture.
C. Live in congested urban settings and work in the sectors most affected by
lockdowns and mobility restrictions.
• The Poverty and Shared Prosperity series provides a global audience with the latest
and most accurate estimates on trends in global poverty and shared prosperity. For
more than two decades, extreme poverty was steadily declining. Now, for the first
time in a generation, it will increase.
Ans.35) B
Explanation:-
• The Scheme was announced during the ‘Prarambh: Start-upIndia International

Summit’ which marked the five-year anniversary of the Start-up India initiative.
• The aim is to provide financial assistance to start-ups for proof of concept, prototype
development, product trials, market entry, and commercialization.
• Launched by Department of Promotion of Industry and Promotion with an outlay of
S)
Rs. 945 Crore.
• Some Eligibility Conditions:
IA
a. A start-up, recognized by DPIIT, incorporated not more than 2 years ago at the
SR
time of application.
b. Start-ups should not have received more than Rs. 10 lakh of monetary
• ty
support under any other Central or State Government scheme.
An Experts Advisory Committee (EAC), constituted by DPIIT, will be responsible for
ul
the overall execution and monitoring of the Scheme
ac
• Grants of Upto Rs. 5 crore will be provided to the eligible incubators selected by the
(F
committee.
• The selected incubators will provide grants of up to Rs. 20 lakh for validation of proof
r
of concept, or prototype development, or product trials to Start ups.

ma
• Investments of up to Rs. 50 lakh will be provided to the Start ups for market entry,
commercialization, or scaling up through convertible debentures or debt-linked
Ku
instruments.
h
Ans.36) A
ab
Explanation:-
ur
Sa
• The Learning adjusted year of schooling (LAYS) concept, introduced last year by the
World Bank, seeks to combine access and learning outcomes into a single
measure,allowing funders to compare directly across different kinds of interventions.
• LAYS combines quantity (years of schooling) and quality (how much kids know at a
given grade level) into a single summary measure of human capital in a society. In the
most basic formulation: LAYS = Average years of schooling × Test scores
Ans.37) B
Explanation:-
• STARS project would be implemented as a new Centrally Sponsored Scheme under

Department of School Education and Literacy, Ministry of Education.
• The Project envisions improving the overall monitoring and measurement activities in
the Indian School Education System through interventions in selected states. The
project shifts focus from the provision of inputs and maintaining of outputs to actual
outcomes by linking the receipt and disbursement of funds to these outcomes.
• It is not about strengthening the secondary education, but to
a. To strengthen MOE’s national data systems to capture robust and authentic data
on retention, transition and completion rates of students.
b. To support MOE in improving states PGI scores by incentivizing states
governance reform agenda through SIG (State Incentive Grants).
c. To support the strengthening of learning assessment systems.
Ans.38) B
Explanation:-
S)
IA
• BARC is a joint-industry body founded by bodies that represent Broadcasters (IBF),
Advertisers (ISA) and Advertising & Media Agencies (AAAI).
SR
• It is a company created in 2010 and jointly owned by advertisers, ad agencies, and
broadcasting companies, represented by the Indian Society of Advertisers, the Indian
ty
Broadcasting Foundation and the Advertising Agencies Association of India
ul
Ans.39) B
ac
(F

r
Ans.40) C
ma
Explanation:-
Ku
1. Permission from the Drugs Controller General, India (DCGI).

2. Approval from respective Ethics Committee where the study is planned.
h
ab
3. Mandatory registration with ICMR.

ur
Ans.41) B
Sa
Explanation:-
• The 1957 Act empowers the central government to reserve any mine (other than coal,
lignite, and atomic minerals) to be leased through an auction for a particular end-use
(such as iron ore mine for a steel plant). Such mines are known as captive mines.
The amended act of 2021, provides that no mine will be reserved for particular end-
use.
• To boost the exploration of deep-seated minerals and attract private investment, the
new legislation allows non-exclusive reconnaissance permit holders of deep-seated
minerals or any minerals of the national interest to apply for a composite licence
(prospecting licence-cum-mining lease) or mining Lease.
Ans.42) C
Explanation:-
• The question is asking about the State, not the tribal areas of the State. Ans
Meghalaya is the only State which falls completely under Tribal areas of the 6th
schedule.
• It shall not apply to tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram or Tripura as
included in the Sixth Schedule to the Constitution and the area covered under ‘The
Inner Line Permit.
• Presently, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram and Nagaland fall under the Inner Line
Permit.
Ans.43) D
Explanation:-
S)
• World Press Freedom index has been released by Reporters without borders. This is a
IA
NGO from France.
SR
• India's Rank is 142 in 2021.
• Important:- Rank is not steadily decreasing, it was 142 in 2020,140 in 2019 and 138
•
in 2018.
ty
The criteria used in the questionnaire are pluralism, media independence, media
ul
environment and self-censorship, legislative framework, transparency, and the quality
ac
of the infrastructure that supports the production of news and information.

(F
Ans.44) A
r
ma
Explanation:-
Ku
• Fifth annual democracy report, titled ‘Autocratisation goes viral’, has been released
by Sweden’s organisation Varieties of Democracy (V-Dem) Institute.
h
• The report summarises the state of democracies of the world against the backdrop of
ab
developments that have taken place over the past decade.

• India’s position has been downgraded from “the world’s largest democracy” to an
ur
“electoral autocracy”.
Sa
Ans.45) A
Explanation:-
• It uses a scale of zero (highly corrupt) to 100 (very clean).

• India’s rank has slipped six places to 86th among 180 countries in Corruption
Perception Index (CPI) released by Transparency International. India was ranked
80th out of 180 countries in 2019.
Ans.46) B
Explanation:-
• The Human Freedom Index presents the state of human freedom in the world based
on a broad measure that encompasses personal, civil, and economic freedom. Human
freedom is a social concept that recognizes the dignity of individuals and is defined
here as negative liberty or the absence of coercive constraint.
• The report is co-published by the Cato Institute and the Fraser Institute.
Ans.47) A
• Published by the United Nations Development Programme.
• For the first time, the United Nations Development Programme introduced a new
metric to reflect the impact caused by each country’s per-capita carbon emissions and
its material footprint, which measures the amount of fossil fuels, metals and other
resources used to make the goods and services it consumes.
• The 2020 HDI ranks India with a per capita income in the 131st position, 129 in 2019.
S)
Ans.48) B
IA
Explanation:-
SR
• The International Vaccine Institute (IVI) is an independent, non-profit, international
ty
organization that was founded on the belief that the health of children in developing
countries can be dramatically improved by the use of new and improve Vaccines.
ul
ac
Ans.49) A
(F
Explanation:-
r
ma
• The Global Nutrition Report 2020 released by WHO, stated that India is among 88
countries that are likely to miss global nutrition targets by 2025.
Ku
Ans.50) A
h
ab
Explanation:-
ur
• Aadhaar Enabled Services is services provided by an Authentication User Agency to

Aadhaar Holder, using the Aadhaar Authentication Services of UIDAI.
Sa
• Aadhaar Authentication Services is the authentication services provided by UIDAI

and used by Authentication User Agency where the personal identity information of /
data of an Aadhaar-holder (who is a beneficiary, customer, employee or associate of
the Authentication User Agency is matched with their personal identity information /
data that is stored in the UIDAI’s Central Identity Data Repository in order to provide
Aadhaar enabled services to such Aadhaar holder.
• Aadhaar Seeding means linking Aadhaar holder’s Unique 12 digit AADHAAR
number with their Personal Identification Documents or Benefit Cards such as:
a. Scholarships
b. Pension ID
c. MNREGA Job Card
d. LPG Consumer ID
• Biometric Information shall mean ten finger prints and iris image of a resident,
captured by UIDAI, as a part of the enrolment process for issuance of Aadhaar
Number
S)
IA
SR
ty
ul
ac
r (F
ma
Ku
h
ab
ur
Sa

Polity (250 MCQ) by Saurabh Kumar

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FOR ALL CURRENT UPDATES RELATED TO POLITY AND GOVERNANCE, PLEASE FOLLOW SAURABH SIR TELEGRAM CHANNEL “SAURABH

and model code of conduct is in 2. Gram Sabha

operation. 3. Gram Nyayalayas

c) A govt. that rules within the limits given below:

d) A govt. that has lost the majority in b) 2 only

completion of its tenure. d) 2 and 3 only

1. Democracy leads to instability. 1. It is suitable only for the countries that

Q.7) Which of the following electoral a) 1 only

1. The elections are conducted by an ty incorrect:-

by the president of India. c) 1 and 3 only

2. One third of the seats are reserved for d) 1, 2 and 3

25 years. with reference to the Presidential form of

Select the correct answer using the codes

a) 1 and 2 only and the head of the government.

b) 3 only 2. The President appoints the council of

c) 1 and 3 only ministers on the advice of the prime

3. The President can veto any law made by

2. The Prime minister can be a member Indian secularism.

from any of the houses of Parliament.

the Lok Sabha only. propagate a particular religion without any

given below: its religious affairs.

a) 1 only 3. It follows a principled and equal distance

b) Directive principles of state policy 1. It helps accommodate regional diversity.

d) 1, 2 and 3 implementation in the government.

instance of an exercise of a fundamental merits of local self-government:-

right? a) 1 and 2 only

1. An Indian from one state may travel c) 1 and 3 only

may settle in part.

3. A citizen of India who is accused of any statements:-

c) Both 1 and 2 Select the correct answer using the codes

1. The percentage of elected women Q.26) With reference to Pressure groups,

d) Neither 1 nor 2 correct?

which among the following religions has c) 1 and 2 only

the least share in total population of d) 2 and 3 only

Q.27) With reference to the political

d) Sikhs 1. The Constitution has laid down detailed

Q.25) A democratic govt. is the one in recognised party.

equality and it guarantees economic c) 1 and 3 only

the rates of economic growth in dictatorial correctly matched:-

correct? 1. Save Democracy CPI

a) 1 only 2. Garibi Hatao Congress Party

b) 2 only 3. Land to the tiller. Janata Party

d) Neither 1 nor 2 Select the correct answer using the codes

d) Administrative inefficiencies and d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Q.35) Choose the appropriate code to statements is correct about democracy:-

match List 1 and List 2

List 1 List 2 democracy, social divisions get reflected in

2. Democracy is the best way to

Power shared among A. accommodate social diversity.

3. In a democracy, it is impossible to create

Power shared among B. Separa?on communities.

1. Judges of the Supreme Court can be

2. It can transfer any case from one High

Court to another. Select the correct answer using the codes

Which of the statements given above is/are b) 2 only

a) 1 and 2 only d) Neither 1 nor 2

c) 1 and 3 only Q.42) Which of the following is not an

d) 1, 2 and 3 essential feature of ‘federalism’:-

Q.40) Which of the following statements a) Written constitution.

is correct with reference to an advisory b) Independent judiciary.

3. A candidate in an examination conducted

violation of fundamental rights:- given below:

1) Not paying minimum wages. b) 2 and 3 only