Centro Escolar University

College of Dentistry
PRE-BOARD THEORETICAL EXAMINATION

RESTORATIVE DENTISTRY AND COMMUNITY DENTISTRY

1. The least acidic environment in which demineralization of a tooth can occur has a pH of
A.  9.0 B.  7.0 C.  5.0 D.  3.0 E.  1.0

2. Root surface caries is most likely caused by which of the following microorganisms?
A.  Actinomycesviscosus B.  Streptococcus mutans
C.  Bacteroidesgingivalis D.  Veillonellaalcalescens
E.  Actinobacillusctinomycetemcomitans

3. Which of the following describes the microscopic form of the incipient pit and fissure caries in
enamel?
A. A cone-shaped lesion with the apex towards the dentinoenamel junction
B. A cone-shaped lesion with apex toward the outer surface
C. A circular-shaped lesion, open at the surface
D. A circular-shaped lesion, appearing along fissures

4. In diagnosing dental caries, the estimated mean time for progression through the tooth
enamel is:
A. 3 - 6 months B. 6 months – 1 year
C. 2 - 3 years D. 3 – 4 years
E. 4 – 5 years

5. The type of caries that is observed around the edges of restorations is

A. Recurrent caries. B. Rampant caries
C. Chronic caries. D. Acute caries.

6. Caries activity can be expected to increase in the mouth of

A. an expectant mother. B. a lactating mother.
C. xerostomatic. D. a rachitic.
E. all of the above.

7. Erosion is chemically induced loss of tooth structure. Attrition is the physiologic wear of teeth
as a result of normal tooth to tooth contact.
A. the first statement is true, the second statement is false
B. the first statement is false, the second statement is true
C. both statements are true
D. both statements are false

8. ______ results from flexure and fatigue of enamel and dentin at a location removed from the
point of loading, resulting in a wedged-shaped cervical lesion.
A. Attrition B. Erosion
C. Abrasion D. Abraction

9. Cavities on the incisal edges or the cusp tips of teeth are:

A. Class l B. Classll
C. Classlll D. ClasslV
E. ClassVl

10. A mesial cavity in a mandibular right second premolar is classified as a:

A. Class I B. Class II
C. Class III D. Class IV
E. Class V

11. Class V cavities on teeth involve:

A.only the occlusal surface
B.theocclusal surface and at least one proximal surface
C.the proximal surface of anterior teeth
D.theincisal edge of anterior teeth
E. the gingival third of all teeth
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12. When restoring a tooth with resin material, acid etching can do all of the following except
A. Increase the surface area
B. Permit chemical bonding between resinand enamel
C. Create surface irregularities in enamel for better mechanical retention of resin.
D. Condition the tooth surface for better wetting

13. Radio opacity of composite resins is achieved by the addition of

A. Borax
B. Barium and strontium glasses
C. Small amount of lead and carbon
D. Rare earthmetallic oxides

14. When over drying a cavity prep, which of the following effects will it have on the dentin?
A. decreases bonding strength
B. increases bonding strength
C. breaks down collagen in dentin

15. Where is recurrent decay most seen in Class II composite?

A.facioproximal B.linguoproximal
C.gingivoproximal D.occlusal

16. When doing a casting preparation a base is used to:

A. increase the retention and resistance of the preparation.
B. decrease the amount of metal in the final restoration.
C. block out undercuts
D. reduce thermal sensitivity.
E. 2, 3, & 4

17. The axial walls in an MOD cavity preparation for a cast gold onlay should
A. form acute angles with pulpal wall
B. form acute angles with the proximal walls
C. diverge from the gingival walls to the pulpal wall
D. converge from the gingival walls to the pulpal wall

18. You do all the following for a composite inlay preparation except
A. divergent internal walls B. cavosurface margin bevel
C. retentive grooves and boxes D. all the margins finished in sound enamel

19. For an onlay preparation, which of the following is the most effective means for verifying
adequate occlusal clearance?
A. wax bite chew-in B. proper depth cuts
C. visual inspection D. articulating paper

20. After a wax pattern is formed, the resulting casting will be more accurate if the pattern is
A. invested immediately B. kept in a refrigerator
C. kept at room temperature D. immersed in room-temperature water before investing

21. How should the margins of a dental amalgam restoration be trimmed?

A. By carving along the margins with a sharp instrument that rests on the tooth surface.
B. By carving from the restoration to the tooth with a sharp instrument.
C. By carving from the tooth to the restoration with a sharp instrument
D. By burnishing from the tooth to the restoration until the amalgam is trimmed to the margin.

22. In preparing Class I cavity for dental amalgam, the dentist will diverge the mesial and distal
walls toward the occlusal surface. This divergence serves to:
A. Prevent undermining of the marginal ridges.
B. Provide convenience form
C. Resist the forces of mastication
D. Extend the preparation into areas more readily cleansed.

23. Bonding of composite restorative materials to dentin depends on:

A. difunctional coupling agents C. etching with dilute phosphoric acid
B. dehydration of the dentin D. covalent bonding
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24. In a Class V amalgam preparation for an incipient lesion, the ideal internal form of the
preparation has which of the following features?
A. The axial wall is flat.
B. The mesial and distal walls converge.
C. The occlusal and gingival walls converge
D. The axial wall is uniformly deep into dentin.

25. A newly condensed amalgam restoration seems to chip away when being carved. What is
the likely cause of this problem?
A. A low-copper alloy was used.
B. Moisture contamination occurred.
C. The alloy was incompletely wetted with mercury.
D. The amalgam was not condensed with the recommended pressure.
E. The amalgam was condensed after its working time elapsed.

26. The dentist bevels the gingival margins of a gold onlay preparation. This process serves
each of the following, except:
A. to remove loose enamel rods C. to facilitate finishing
B. to minimize marginal opening D. to minimize the need for gingival extension

27. The dentist adjusts the shade of a restoration using a complementary color. This procedure
will result in
A. increased value C intensified color
B. decreased value D. increased translucency

28. Each of the following is a reason for beveling a preparation for restoration with composite
resins, except:
A. To expose more inorganic tooth structure
B. To increase the surface area of enamel for etching
C. To expose the ends rather than the sides of enamel rods
D. To enhance the enamo-resin marginal seal.

29. Which of the following is most related to the initiation of caries in the elderly?
A. Erosion C. gingival recession
B. Attrition D. a defective restoration

30. Visible light curing units are most hazardous to the

A. Retina B. lens C. cornea D. iris

31. Measures taken before the disease occurs to reduce susceptibility;

A. tertiary prevention C. primary prevention
B. secondary prevention D. any of the three.

32. Methods of imposing people’s values & judgment of what is important on the raw data;
A. limited resources C. priority determination
B. allocation D. both A & C E. none of these

33. This model was developed with the specific intention of addressing noncompliance issues in
behavior that results in negative health consequence.
A. Self-care motivational model C. behavioral learning model
B. Contemporary community health model D. Fayol’s model

34. In conducting health education, it involves 2 or more teachers working cooperatively with A.
certain group of students on a subject matter.
A. Developmental method C. discussion method
B. Team teaching method D. lecture method E. both A & C

35. Freedom of control from others in matters affecting the quality of work.
A. Autonomy C. authority
B. esprit de corps D. discipline E. projection

36. Nutritional disposal, food establishments, transportation, community education and housing
are the factors under;
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A. health related socio-economic factors C. population analysis
B. health status D. health resource analysis

37. It is a scientific discipline concerned with the application of statistical method of problems in
biology and medicine:
A. public health C. statistics
B. biostatistics D. sampling E. none of these

38. It is concerned in making estimates, predictions, generalizations, conclusions about a

population based on information from a sample.
A. descriptive statistics C. inferential statistics
B. inscriptive statistics D. differential statistics E. none of these.

39. It is the study of the distribution and frequency of disease and injury in human populations
and those factors making groups susceptible to disease and injury:
A. epidemiology C. descriptive epidemiology
B. dental epidemiology D. experimental epidemiology E. none of these.

40. It is most often used in studies to determine the etiology of a disease:

A. experimental epidemiology C. descriptive epidemiology
B.analytical epidemiology D. epidemiology E. none of these

41. It is commonly used in the area of occupational health hazards:

A. retrospective follow-up studies C. prospective cohort study
B. case control study D. epidemiology E. none of these

42. It measures the acid forming ability of microorganisms present in saliva or oral tissue:
A. dental caries activity C. pH test
B. susceptibility test D. both A & B only E. A & C only

43. All are under analytical epidemiology, except:

A. cohort study C. establishes a relationship between a factor and a disease
B. prevalence D. all of the choices E. none of these.

44. The effectivity date of the Magna Carta of Public Health workers:
A. April 26, 1992 C. April 17, 1992
B. march 26, 1992 D. March 17, 1992 E. Jan. 28, 1992.

45. The following are the values to be adopted by a public health workers:
A. just C. service to mankind
B. humane D. both A & B E. all of the above.

46. Proportion of a population affected with a disease at a given point in time:

A. incidence B. rate C. ratio D. prevalence E. none of these.

47. Optimal level of fluoride in drinking water:

A. 7-12ppm B. 0.7-1.2ppm C. 0.07-0.12ppm D. 0.7-12ppm

48. It is the laying down of foundation of the organization by bringing together several leaders to
have a better understanding of the community.
A. Mobilization C. core grouping
B. Training D. area selection E. setting up an organization

49. The following are the physical characteristics of a community, except:

A. size B. location C. gender D. occupational groupings

50. The CPTIN index assessment is based on the evaluation of specified index teeth for:
A. gingival inflammation C. presence of supra/-subgingival calculus
B. depth of periodontal pockets D. both A & B E. all of the above.

51. An index which use a dichotomous scoring system:

A. CPTIN B. NIDR-GI C. GI D. PI E. none of these.

52. Fluorosis index was formulated by:

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A. Greene and Vermillion C. Gayford
B. Dean D. Hussy E. none of them.

53. ART was pioneered in the mid 80’s in:

A. Africa B. Germany C. Thailand D. Zimbabwe E. Pakistan

54. An index that measure the number of surfaces and teeth affected by dental caries:
A. RCI B. GI C. DMF D. UTN E. PI

55. An index that is designed to be repeated following patient oral hygiene education:
A. OHI-S B. PHP-M C. PI D. GI E. none of these.

56. This index assess pockets, bleeding, plaque, retentive factors and periodontal treatment
needs:
A. CPTIN B. GI C. PI D. OHI-S E. none of these.

57. It is a continuing effort to imbibe community life by removing legal and social barriers that
impose segregation to a group of people.
A. Entry into Community C. Community Study
B. Area Selection D. Integration E. both C & D.

58. They are involved in the treatment and care of a patient when extensive disease is involved;
A. para-dental professional C. dental hygienists
B. dental assistant D. dental auxiliaries E. all of these.

59. The Magna Carta of Public Health Worker;

A. RA 4419 B. RA 7305 C. RA 7530 D. RA 572 E. none of these

60. “In union there is strength” is the principle of;

A. autonomy C. esprit de corps
B. organization D. dental health E. centralization

61. It is an objective mathematical description of a diagnosis based on carefully determined

criteria under s specified conditions.
A. indices C. prevalence
B. incidence D. epidemiology E. none of these.

62. It is used to delineate disease patterns in community.

A. dental epidemiology C. descriptive epidemiology
B. experimental epidemiology D. epidemiology E. none of these.

63. Reason why a planner should conduct a needs assessment.

A. to evaluate the effectiveness of the program B. to define the problem
C. to obtain a profile of the community D. a & c E. all of the above

64. It determines the direction of the program will take.

A. socio-economic structure of the community B. politics of the community
C. median income of the community D. program planning
E. none of the above

65. Information relevant to population and community may come from:

A. survey B. observation
C. communication D. a & c E. all of the above

66.Number of dentists providing care.

A. politics of the community B. median income of the community
C. labor data D. health care facilities E. none of the above

67. To gather information on a population, a population profile should be obtained. Such profile
includes the ff. except
A. ethnic background B. rate of growth
C. diet and nutritional levels D. all of the above E. none of the above

68. To evaluate the effectiveness of the program, it is accomplished through the ff. except:
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A. obtaining baseline information
B. measuring the amount of progress achieved in solving the specific problem
C. investigate surveys that have been done in the past by other organization
D. all of the above E. none of the above
69. Constraints that are commonly occurring in a community dental program are the ff. except:
A. lack of funds B. labor shortages
C. adequate facilities D. all of the above E. none of the above

70. In the development of program goals and objectives, consider the ff. except:
A. nature of the situation
B. scope and magnitude of the situation
C. geographic areas of the program
D. all of the above
E. none of the above

71. Cost and amount of time expended to complete the job.

A. appropriateness B. effectiveness
C. adequacy D. efficiency E. efficacy

72. Describes how the objectives will be accomplished.

A. outcome objectives B. program goal C. program objective
D. procedural objective E. program activities

73. Denotes how capable the resources in completing job.

A. appropriateness B. effectiveness
C. adequacy D. efficiency E. efficacy

74. Provide a means by which to quantitatively measure the outcome of the specific objective.
A. outcome objective B. program goals C. program objective
D. procedural objective E. program activities

75. Method of imposing peoples values and judgments of what is important on the raw data.
A. limited resources B. allocation
C. priority determination D. a & c E. none of the above

76. Sources of information relevant to the population and the community may come from:A.
local state B. federal agencies
C. private organizations D. all of the above E. none of the above

77. 21. Three walls of a cavity preparation meet to form a:

A.line axis B.point axis C.margin
D. point angle E.line angle

78. A patient reports a serious allergic reaction to Oil of Cloves.  Which of the following cements
should be avoided?
A. BIS-GMA  B. glass ionomer  C. phosphoric acid  
D. ethoxybenzoic acid   E. Zinc oxide-eugenol

79. The width of the blade of the 6 ½ - 2 ½ -9 hoe is:

A. .5 B. 1 mm C. 1.5 mm D. 6.5 mm E. .65 mm

80. The operating the distance from the patient's mouth to the eyes of the operator should be
approximately:
A. 16" B. 12" C. 24" D. 8"

81. Bevelling of the axiopulpal line angle is always a routine procedure.

A. True B. False

82. A retainerless matrix system designed for any tooth regardless of its circumference.
A. Tofflemire B. Ivory #9 C. Composi-tight
D. Pallodent E. Automatrix

83. The occlusal isthmus of an MO dental amalgam restorations is more resistant to fracture if
A. pulpal depth is 1mm
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B. axiopulpal line angle is rounded
C. occlusal dovetail is present
D. unsupported enamel at the gingivocavosurface margin is planed

84 The axial wall of an occlusolingual amalgam preparation on maxillary molars should be in

dentin and
A.parallel to the dentinoenamel junction
B.parallel to the axis of the tooth
C. .at an acute angle with the pulpal floor

85. Why do you break the contact in a Class II amalgam?

A. to allow matrix band to be placed properly
B. to place restoration in self-cleansing area
C. to obtain good contact between adjacent teeth
D. to allow instrumentation

86. A bevel is contraindicated on the cavosurface angles of a Class I dental amalgam cavity
preparation. Which of the following best explains why?
A. this type of margin is prone to microleakage
B. the cavosurface bevel makes burnishing more difficult
C. a thin flange of the amalgam restorative material might fracture
D. as the tooth undergoes natural attrition, the amalgam margin can abrade

87. When doing a Class II amalgam preparation the direction of the buccal and lingual proximal
walls in an occlusal gingival direction is determined by:
A. the direction of the enamel rods.
B. Achieving even access with the adjacent tooth.
C. the gingival extension of the preparation.
D. The contour and alignment of the adjacent tooth.
E. Meeting the gingival wall creating a sharp angle.

88. Which of the following weakens dental amalgam?

A. Zinc in the alloy C.High Condensation pressure
B. Copper in the alloy D. High final mercury content

89. The most common cause of overhangs on a Class II amalgam restoration is

A. improper cavity preparation
B. expansion of the alloy after placement
C. improper contouring and placement of the matrix band and the wedge
D. excessive condensation of amalgam the into proximal segment
E. none of the above

90. In applying a posterior matrix, the lesser circumference of the band should be placed:
A. lingually B. occlusally C. gingivally

91. A wooden wedge is used with a matrix band to

A. make the band taut
B. retract the gingiva D. force the band against the tooth
C. give shape to the restoration E. keep the matrix band retainer away from the gingiva

92. Which of the following is most likely to cause delayed expansion in an amalgam restoration
containing zinc?
A. Heavy condensation
B. Overtrituration of the amalgam
C. Excess mercury in the mix
D. Contamination by moisture during manipulation

93. The primary reason for polishing an amalgam restoration is to

A. increase esthetics
B. remove excess surface mercury
C. reduce surface irregularities
D. adapt the amalgam to open cavity margins

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94. Rationale given for polishing amalgam in a wet field includes which of the following?
A. Reducing heat
B. Removing surface mercury
C. Improving the luster
D. Preventing marginal fracture
E. Reducing air-borne particulate matter

95. List the following in the proper sequence in restoring a Class lll composite restoration:
1.Rubber dam isolation
2.Tooth preparation
3.Shade selection
4.Bonding and finishing of the restoration
A.1, 2, 3, 4 B.3, 2, 1, 4 C.2, 3, 1, 4 D.3, 1, 2, 4

96. Each of the following determines the outline form for Class III composite restoration
EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A.convenience for access
B.extension for prevention
C.size, shape, and location of caries

97. When restoring a tooth with resin material, acid etching can do all of the following except
A. Increase the surface area
B. Permit chemical bonding between resin and enamel
C. Create surface irregularities in enamel for better mechanical retention of resin.
D. Condition the tooth surface for better wetting.

98. The public health workers are:

A. persons engaged in health & health-related work
B. employed in the hospital, clinic and other related establishment owned by the gov’t or
political subdivision
C. includes medical, allied health professionals, administrative & support personnel employed
regardless of their employment status
D. all of the above
E. none of the above

99. The effectivity date of the Magna Carta of Public Health workers:
A. April 26, 1992 B. March 26,1992
C. April 17, 1992 D. March 17, 1992 E. Jan. 28, 1992

100. The Magna Carta of Public Health workers was approved last:
A. April 26, 1992 B. March 26, 1992
C. April 17, 1992 D. March 17, 1992 E. Jan. 28, 1992