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GENERAL SURGERY/ GENERAL (II)

22. Tumour antigen S-100 is present in neural tumours (T/F)
1. Kernahan Striped Y Classification - The major reference point is.
A. Soft palate B. Hard palate 23. Metabolic changes associated with excessive vomiting includes the
C. Incisive foramen D. Third molar following:
2. Carotid body tumor most commonly present at – A. Metabolic acidosis B. Hyperchloremia
A. 20-30 years B. 40-50 years C. Hypokalemia D. Decreases bicarbonates
C. 60-70 years D. Early childhood 24. In the immediate postoperative period, body potassium is:
3. Pit and fissure sealants are most effective in A. Exchanged with calcium B. Exchanged with magnesium
A. Incipient caries on newly erupted permanent tooth C. Retained in body D. Excreted excessively
B. Deep caries on a permanent tooth 25. Earliest sign of deep vein thrombosis is
C. Incipient caries on a newly erupted primary tooth A, Calf tenderness B. Rise in temperature
D. Deep caries on a primary tooth C. Swelling of calf muscle D. Homan's sign
4. In excessive burns, least useful is 26. Which among the following is not a feature of peripheral arterial
A. Blood B. Dextran occlusion
C. Ringer lactate D.Nasogastric intubation A. Shock B. Pallor
C. Pain D. Pulselessness
5. Hilton method is best used in 27. Intermittent Claudication is defined as
A. Breast abscess B. Axillary abscess A. Pain in muscle at rest only
C. Paronychia D. Pulp abscess B. Pain in muscle on first step
6. Wash leather slough is seen with C. Pain in muscle on exercise only
A. Gummatous ulcer B. Rodent ulcer D. Pain in muscle on last step
C.Trophic ulcer D. Chronic ulcer 28. Persistence of sinus of fistula due to
7. Keloid scar is made up of- A. Foreign body B. Unrelieved obstruction
A. Dense collagen B. Loose fibrous tissue C. Persistence discharge D. All of the above
C. Granulamatous tissue D. Loose areolar tissue
8. Name a few Tumors with Spontaneous Regression 29. A soft, cystic compressible, fluctuant swelling which is brilliantly
A. Neuroblastoma B. Choriocarcinoma translucent in posterior triangle of neck
C. Renal cell carcinoma D. Malignant melanoma A. Branchial cyst B. Cystic hygroma
C. Sebaceous cyst D. Thyroglossal cyst
9. Name a few Malignancies associated with Migratory 30. All of the following are true about branchial cysts ’ except
Thrombophlebitis A. They are commonly located in the posterior triangle of neck
A. CA pancrease (MC) B. CA lung B. They are lined by squamous epithelium
C. GI malignancies D. Prostate cancer C. They are remnants of branchial apparatus that is persistent
10. What are these: D. It may contain granulation tissue
A. Trousseau’s syndrome – Migratory thrombophlebitis 3l. Adson's test is positive for
B. Trousseau’s sign -. Carpopedal apasm in Hypocalcemia A. Thoracic Outlet syndrome B. Subclavian steal syndrome
C. Troisier’s sign - Palpable left supraclavicular LN C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Axillary artery thrombosis
( Virchow's node) 32.True about branchial cyst is
11. Cryoprecipitate is a rich source of- A. Seen at lower 1/3 of sternocleidomastoid
A. Thromboplastin B. Factor VIII B. Wall consists of lymphoid tissue
C. Factor X D. Factor VII C. Filled with clear yellow colored fluid
12. In the immediate post operative period, body potassium is D. Presents at birth
A. Exchanged wiui calcium B. Exchanged with magnesium
C. Retained in body D. Excreted excessively 33. Albumin is Stored at Room Temperature (T/F)

13. What is the best time to operate cleft lip? 34. Placing the beaks into the furcation of primary second molar during
A. Immediately after birth B. 1 to 3 months extraction in 6-year-oId child is contraindicated because
C. 3 months Io 6 months D.6 months to 1 year A. proximity of succedaneous tooth buds
14. Cystic hygroma is B. of possibility of fracture of crowns
A. Lymphangioma B. Hemangioma C. of possibility of fracture of facial plates
C. Follows filariasis D. Malignant D. of possibility of fracture of lingual plates
15. In case of massive bleeding during surgery which ized cannula is 35. In gingivitis, the role of immunoglobulins is consistent with the
used? increased numbers of
A. 16G B. 20G A. Fibroblasts B. Neutrophils
C. 22G D. 24G C. Lymphocytes D. Plasma cells
36. Insensible daily water loss is -
16. Indications for mucogingival surgery include the following, except A. 500-600 ml B. 800-1000 ml
A. A shallow vestibule C. 1000-1500 ml D. 2000 ml
B. Insufficient attached gingiva
C. Infrabony pockets 37. First Degree Burn do not blister (T/F)
D. A high frenum attachment
17. All are true about Raynauds phenomena except- 38. True about Cystic Hygroma is
A. Exposure to cold aggravates A. Most common in adults B. Does not transilluminate
B. Spasm of vessels C. Lined by stratified squamous epithelium
C. More common in females D. Develops from insular lymphatic sequestration
D. Atherosclerosis of vessels 39. Tumor appears at the earliest after birth?
18. The most common shock in children is: A. Cystic hygroma B. Branchial cyst
A. Hypovolemic B. Cardiogenic C. Lymphoma D. Sternomastoid tumor
C. Septic D. Neurogenic 40. Child with midline swelling in the neck most probable diagnosis
19. In post-burn patient, true is: A. Thyroglossal cyst B. Thyroid
A. Hypokalemic alkalosis B. Hyperkalemic alkalosis C. Cystic hygroma D. Dermoid cyst
C. Hyperkalemic acidosis D. Hypokalemic acidosis 41. Treatment of choice for cystic hygroma is
20. If a patient with Raynaud's disease immersed his hand in cold water, A. Percutaneous aspiration B. Intralesional sclerosant injection
the hand will C. En-bloc resection D. Surgical excision
A. Become red B. Remain unchanged 42. The worst position for scars is
C. Turn white D. Become blue A. Back B. Shoulder
21. Trolter’s triad is seen in: C. Sternum D. Abdomen
A. Angiofibroma 43. The best scars are seen in
B. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma A. Infants B. Children
C. Laryngeal carcinoma C. Adults
D. Growth in fossa of Rosenmuller D. Very old people

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44. Bed sores are 64. In what type of hemorrhagic shock, there is 15-30% blood loss:
A. Decubitus ulcers B. Meleny ulcers A. Class 1 B. Class 2
C. Malignant ulcers D. None C. Class 3 D. Class 4
45.Type of shock seen in burns cases: 65. Initial fluid of choice in treatment of hypovolemia in trauma patient:
A. Hypovolemic B. Cardiogenic A. Colloid B. Blood
C. Neurogenic D. None of the above C. Crystalloid D. Plasma expanders
46. Which of the following is the immediate response to decrease in blood 66. Cystic hygroma may be associated with:
volume? A. Turners syndrome B. Klinefelter syndrome
A. Increased adrenaline C. Down's syndrome D. All of the above
B. Shift of fluids from IC to EC compartment 67. Bone fill procedures are most successful in treating
C. Angiotensin increase A. Trifurcation defects B. Deep, two wall craters
D. Thyroxine release C. Narrow, three wall defects
47. Massive blood transfusion is defined as: D. Osseous defects with one wall remaining
A. Whole blood volume in 24 hours 68. How long can blood stored with CPD - A -
B. Half blood volume in 24 hrs A. 12 days B. 21 days
C. 40% blood volume in 24 hrs C. 35 days D. 48 days
D. 60% blood volume in 24 hrs 69. Which one of the following blood fractions is stored at - 40°C?
48.The best skin graft for open wound is A. Cryprecipitate B. Human albumin
A. Isograft B. Homograft C. Platelet concentrate D. Packed red cells
C. Allograft D. Autograft
49. Late deaths in burns is due to - 70. Rosenthal's syndrome is seen in deficiency of factor -
A. Sepsis B. Hypovolemia A. II B. V
C. Contractures D. Neurogenic C.IX D.XI
71. Pitting edema indicates an excess of.... litres of fluid in tissue spaces
50. Which of the following is true about burns A. 2.5 B. 3.5
A. 3rd generation cephalosporin is drug of choice C. 4.5 D. 5.5
B. S. aureus is most common infection of bum 72. What is sternocleidomastoid tumour?
C. Toxic shock syndrome is most common in burn's pts. A. Haematoma of sternocleidomastoid muscle
D. Pseudomonas is most common infection in dry wound B. Malignancy of sternocleidomastoid muscle
51. When is the maximum collagen content of wound tissue C. Lymph nodes related to the muscle
A. Between 3rd to 5th day B. Between 6th to 17th day D. Benign tumour of the said muscle
C. Between 17th to 21 st day D. None of the above 73. Cystic compressible, translucent selling in the posterior triangle of
52. If suture marks are to be avoided, skin sutures should be removed neck:
by A, Cystic hygroma B. Branchial cyst
A. 72 hours B. 1 week C. Thyroglossal cyst D. Dermoid cyst
C. 2 weeks D. 3 weeks
53. All of the following are major complications of massive transfusion 74. Thyroglossal fistula develops due to:
except A. Developmental anomaly B. Injury
A. Hypokalemia B. Hypothermia C. Incomplete removal of thyroglossal cyst
C. Hypomagnesaemia D. Hypocalcaemia D. Inflammatory disorder
54. Most severe nerve injury is 75. Concentration of sodium in RL is:
A. Neurotmesis B. Axonotmesis A. 154 B.120
C. Neurapraxia D. Neurorrhoea C. 130 D. 144
55. Which one is Not true regarding Buerger's diseasc- 76. After 30% loss of blood volume in road traffic accident. What next
A. Men are usually involved management is to be given
B. Occurs below 50 yr of age A. IV fluid only
C. Smoking is predisposing factor B. IV fluid with cardiac stimulant
D. Veins and nerves are never involved C. Dopamine D. Vasopressor drug
77. In post burn patient, true is -
56. Most common blood transfusion reaction is: A. Hypokalemic alkalosis B. Hyperkalemic alkalosis
A. Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction C, Hyperkalemic acidosis D. Hypokalemic acidosis
B. Hemolysis 78. Neurogenic shock is characterized by:
C. Transmission of infections D. Electrolyte imbalance A. Hypertension and tachycardia
57. All of the following infections may be transmitted via blood B. Hypertension and bradycardia
transfusion, except: C. Hypotension and tachycardia
A. ParvoB-19 B. Hepatitis G D. Hypotension and bradycardia
C. Dengue virus D. Cytomegalovirus 79. Blood clot the size of a clenched first is roughly equal to
58. Which of the following investigations should be done immediately to A. 250 ml. B. 350 ml.
best confirm a non-matched blood transfusion: C. 500 ml. D. 600 ml.
A. Indirect Coombs test B. Direct Coombs test
C. Antibody in patient's serum D. Antibody in donor serum 80. One of the following is earliest indication of concealed acute bleeding
A. Tachycardia B. Postural HT
59. A man is rushed to casualty, nearly dying after a massive blood loss C. Oliguria D. Cold clammy fingers
in an accident. There is not much time to match blood groups, so the 81. Immediate management of a patient with Multiple fracture and fluid
physician decides to order for one of the following blood groups. Which loss includes the infusion -
one of the following blood groups should the physician decide: A. Blood B. Dextran
A, O negative B. O positive C. Normal saline D. Ringer lactate
C. AB positive D. AB negative 82. Immediate management of a patient with multiple fracture and fluid
60. Difference in width of permanent and primary incisors is loss includes the infusion:
A. incisal guidance B. incisal inclination A. Blood B. Dextran
C. overjet D. incisal liability C. Normal saline D, Ringer lactate
61. Mesial step formation in deciduous dentition is indication of future
A. Class II malocclusion B. Class III malocclusion 83. Compensatory mechanism in a patient with hypovolemic shock:
C. Anterior crowding D. Anterior crossbite A. Increased renal blood flow B. Decrease in Cortisol
62. One unit of fresh blood arises the Hb% concentration by- C. Decreased in vasopressin
A. 0.1 gm% B. 1 gm% D. Decreased cutaneous blood flow
C. 2 gm% D. 2.2 gm% 84. Which tooth loss makes greatest change in facial expression
63. Bundle bone A. Max. incisors B. Max, canines
A. Is present only in the jaws C. Max. molars D. Mand. Molars
B. Is bone which does not resorb 85. Features of hypovolemic shock are all except -
C. Has ligaments and muscles attached A. Oliguria B. Bradycardia
D. Is the cancellous portion of the alveolar bone C. Low B.P D. Acidosis

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86. What is normal pulmonary capillary wedge pressure? 109. Delayed wound healing is seen in all except
A. 4-8 mm Hg B, 8-12mmHg A. Malignancy B. Hypertension
C. 12-16 mmHg D. 15-25 mmHg C. Diabetes D. Infection
87. True about cleft lip 110. Degloving injury is
A. Occurs due to defect in fusion of frontal and nasal process A. Surgeon made wound B. Lacerated wound
B. Only bilateral cases are associated with cleft palate C. Blunt injury D. Avulsion injury
C. Repaired in neonatal period 111. Most common site of hypertrophic keloid is -
D. Unilateral cases are more common in cleft palate A. Face B. Leg
88. Carotid body tumor C. Presternal area D. Arm
A. Arises from the endothelial cells 112. Reactionary hemorrhage occurs within -
B. Originates from the schwann cells A. 1-2 days B. 2-7 days
C. Radiotherapy is the treatment of choice C. <24 hours D. After 7 days
D. May metastasize 113. In all of the following, sympathectomy is effective except one
89. The minimum amount of proteins needed for positive nitrogen A. Intermittent claudication B. Hyperhydrosis
balance is C. Raynaud's disease D. Causalgia
A. 20-30 gm/day B. 35-40 gm/day 114. The cold water treatment of burns has thedisadvantage that it
C. 50 gm/day D. 60 gm/day increase the chances of –
A. Pain B. Exudation
90. Which of the following is better indicator of need for transfusion C. Infection D. None of the above
A. Urine output B. Haematorcrit 115. Lumbar sympathectomy is of value in the management of
C. Colour of skin D. Clinical examination A. Intermittent claudication
91. For prophylaxis of deep vein thrombosis used is - B. Distal ischemia affecting the skill of the toes
A. Warfarin B. Heparin C. Arteriovenous fistula D. Back pain
C. Pneumatic shocks garment D. Graded stocking
92. All of the following are seen in deep vein thrombosis except- 116. Hypertensive ulcer is___________
A. Pain B. Discolouration
C. Swelling D. Claudication 117. Erythrocyanosis frigida is associated with _________ ulcer
93. The following is the commonest site for venous ulcer
A. Instep of foot B. Lower 1/3 leg and ankle
C. Lower 2/3 of leg D. Middle 1/3 of leg
94. Stored plasma is deficient in:
A. Factors 7 and 8 B. Factors 2 and 5
C. Factors 5 and 8 D. Factors 7 and 9
95. Rosenthal's syndrome is seen in deficiency of factor:
A. II B. V
C. IX D.XI
96. Cryoprecipitate contains:
A. Factor II B. Factor V
C. Factor VIII D. Factor IX

97. Cryoprecipitate contains all, except:

A. Factor VIII B. Factor IX
C. Fibrinogen D. VWF
98. Which among the following is best method to assess the response to
given fluids in polytrauma patient
A. Urinary output B. CVP
C. Pulse D. BP
99. Half life of factor VIII is
A. 4 hours B. 8 hours
C. 34 hours D. 48 hours
100. Secondary haemorrhage appears in:
A. 7-14 days B. Within 6 hours
C. Due to Slipping of ligature D. Bleeding disorders

101. Which of the following cells migrate into the sulcus, in the largest
quantify, as a result of plaque accumulation?
A. Lymphocytes B. Macrophages
C. Neutrophils D. Plasma cells
102. Ulcer with undermined edge seen with
A. Rodent ulcer B. TB ulcer
C. Both D. None
103. A contusion usually results from
A. Cut injury B. Blunt trauma
C. Crush injury D. Penetrating injury

104. Not a feature of acute arterial Occlusion -

A. Cyanosis B. Pallor
C. Paralysis D. Paraesthesia
105. All of the following are seen in persisting vomitting EXCEPT-
A. Hypokalemia B. Decreased k+ in urine
C. Elevated pH of blood D. Metabolic alkalosis
106. The highest concentration of potassium is in -
A. Plasma B. Isotonic saline
C. Ringer lactate D. Darrow's solution

107. First line treatment for keloid is

A. Intralesional injection of steroid
B. Local steroid
C. Radiotherapy D. Wide excision
108. LANGER’S skin lines are useful for
A. Incisions B. Diagnosis
C. Anatomical D. For proper healing.

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