All in One

1.
The skin consists of the following layers:

A. Basal, spinosum, granular, lucidum, corneum
B. Basal, spinosum, granular, corneum
C. Epidermis, dermis, hypodermis
D. Epidermis, dermis
E. Papillary, reticular
2. The skin appendages include:

A. Sweat and sebaceous glands
B. Nails, hair
C. Blood and lymphatic vessels, nerve endings
D. Nails, hair, sweat and sebaceous glands
E. Hair follicles
3. Terminal hair from root to outer end is formed from:

A. 1 layer
B. 1-2 layers
C. 5 layers
D. 3 layers
E. 4 layers
4. Sebaceous glands produce a secret:

A. Sebum
B. Slime
C. Sweat
D. Milk
E. Tears
5. By the nature of the secretion of sweat glands are: A. Holocrine

glands
B. Holocrine and apocrine glands
C. Eccrine and apocrine glands
D. Apocrine glands
E. Eccrine glands
6. The circulatory system of the skin forms:

A. Superficial and deep plexus
B. Superficial plexus
B. Deep plexus
7. Encapsulated skin receptors include:

A. Meissner corpuscle
B. Golgi corpuscle
W. Krause end bulb
G. Ruffini corpuscles and Vater-Pacini corpuscles
D. All answers are correct
8. How many phototypes of skin are distinguished according to the

Fitzpatrick classification?
A. 6
B. 3
C. 10
D. 5
E. 7
9. Collagen is produced by the following cells:

A. Corneocytes
B. Keratinocytes
C. Fibroblasts
D. Adipocytes
10. Skin functions:

A. Protective
B. Thermoregulation
C. Excretory
D. Sensory
E. All answers are correct
Standards of answers: 1 -C . 2 D. 3 D. 4 C. 6 E. 8
C. 10 E.
1. The symptom characteristic of scabies is:
A. Gorchakov-Ardi
B. Nikolsky
C. Jadasson
D. Kerion-Celsus
2. Balzer's test has valuable diagnostic value at:

A. pityriasis versicolor
B. psoriasis
C. epidermophytia
D. rubromycosis
E. lichen ruber planus
3. The main elements of the skin's immune system are:

A. Langerhans cells
B. T-Lymphocytes
C. Keratinocytes
D. Merkel cells
E. Vater-Pacini corpuscle
4. The nerve endings include:

A. Merkel cells.
B. Greenstein cells.
C. Meissner corpuscle.
D. Langerhans cells.
E. Kupffer cells
5. Kebner's phenomenon:
A. elements of dermatosis are placed linearly at the sites of
excoriation
B. erosion of the oral mucosa
C. all the answers are correct
6. What is the main diagnosis of tuberculosis of the skin?

A. clinical features , course
B. the presence of tuberculosis of the internal organs
C. Mantoux test
D. data of pathohistological research
E. detection of Mycobacterium tuberculosis by PCR
F. all listed.
7. To diagnose demodicosis use:

A. microscopic analysis
B. immunofluorescent diagnosis
C. DNA diagnostics
D. microscopy in the dark field of view.
8. Which of the following is not a morphological element?

A. erythema
B. papule
C. roseola
D. urticaria
E. wetting
9. The symptom of "thimble" is characteristic of:

A. red flat herpes
B. syphilis
C. psoriasis
D. all the answers are correct
10. What is the name of the diagnostic method that allows to

determine the nature of peeling and the density of adhesion of the
scales to the skin surface?
A. dermographism
B. diascopy
C. grattage
D. isomorphic reaction
E. iodine test
Standards of answers: 1- - - - C. 5- -F. 7- -E. 9-C. 10-

C
1. The primary cavity elements of the rash include:
A. Pustula
B. Papula
C. Macula
D. Nodule
E. Erosion
2. Limited skin discoloration is called:

A. Papules
B. Pustula
C. Vesicle
D. Macula
E. Erosion
3. The primary cavity-free elements of the rash include:

A. Papules
B. Macula
C. Nodule
D. Tuberculum
4. Clinical evaluation of the elements of skin rash involves all of the

above, except:
A. Determination of the nature of the rash (inflammatory or non-
inflammatory)
B. Prevalence of the process
C. Localization
D. Definition of morphological elements
E. Determination of skin vascular reactions
5. Lichenification is characterized by:

A. Sealing and thickening of the skin
B. Pigmentation
C. Enhanced skin pattern
D. All of the above
E. All of the above, except for pigmentation
6. The primary morphological element characteristic of shingles is:

A. Spot
B. Papule and tuberculum
C. Vesicle and bullae
D. Bullae
E. All of the above is true
7. Ointments are prescribed:

A. To insulate the skin from the effects of chemical, mechanical
injuries, friction
B. As emollients
C. As conductors of medicinal substances
D. As those that cleanse the skin of secondary layers
8. A comprehensive clinical examination of the skin includes all of the

above, except
A. Grattage (scraping)
B. Palpation
C. Diascopy
D. Measurement of electrical resistance of the skin
E. Measurement of skin temperature
9. Specify the difference between a tuberculum and a papule:

A. Smooth surface
B. Dense consistency
C. The presence of a purulent cavity
D. Scar formation after reverse development
E. Elevation above the level of the skin
10. Inflammatory spot of large size is called:

A. Erythema
B. Hemorrhage
C. Roseola
D. Purpura
E. Leukoderma
Standards of answers1- -D, 3-E, 4-E, 5-D, 6-C. 7-E, 8-D, 9-D, 10-
1. Cavity primary elements are:
A. Urticarial element
B. Vesicle
C. Papule
D. Nodule
E. Tuberculum
2. True polymorphism is:

A. The presence of one variety of primary elements
B. The presence of various primary elements
C. The tendency of elements to merge
D. The presence of various secondary elements
E. The tendency of elements to peripheral growth
3. Ulcer is:
A. Skin defect within the epidermis
B. Skin changes in the case of massive infiltration of its papillary layer
C. The consequence of the growth of the papillary layer of the dermis
with the simultaneous thickening of the spiny layer of the epidermis
D. Defect of the skin or subcutaneous tissue
4. Hyperkeratosis is:
A. Thickening of the stratum corneum
B. Disruption of the connection between the cells of the spiny layer
C. Acute swelling of the papillae of the dermis
D. Increasing the number of cells in the granular layer
E. Thickening of the spiny layer
5. Vacuol dystrophy is:

A. Disruption of the connection between desmosomes
B. Infiltrate in the superficial parts of the dermis
C. Skin defect within the dermis
D. Accumulation of fluid in the cells of the basal and prickly layers
6. In place of the vesicle, the tire of which collapsed, is formed:

A. Scar
B. Ulcer
C. Excoriation
D. Erosion
E. Excoriation
7. Name the morphological basis of the tubercle:

A. Acanthosis
B. Perivascular infiltration
C. Vacuol dystrophy
D. Infectious granuloma
E. Papillomatosis
8. The patient was consulted by a patient with complaints of bright

pink, swollen elements, intense itching. 2-3 hours after the
appearance of the elements regress without a trace. Name them:
A. Tubercle
B. Nodule
C. Urticarial element
D. Bullae
E. Vesicle
9. Name the clinical differences between tubercle and papule:

A. Flat shape
B. Dimensions with lentils
C. Ulceration with scarring
D. Soft texture
E. Bluish color
10. Specify the mechanism of formation of intra-epidermal blister:

A. Acantholysis
B. Ballooning dystrophy
C. Vacuol dystrophy
D. Spongiosis
E. Exocytosis
Standards of answers: 1-B, 2-B, 3-D, 4- -D, 6-D, 7-D, 8-C, 9-C, 10-
1. Which of these nosologies are dermatozoonoses?
A. Sycosis
B. Scabies
C. Genital warts
D. Molluscum contagiosum
E. Favus.
2. There are the following clinical forms of scabies:

A. Typical
B. Nervous
C. Professional
D. Seborrheic
E. Allergic
3. What elements are considered objective signs of scabies?

A. Tuberculum
B. Nodule
C. Scabetic burrow
D. Papule
E. Crust
4. What causes scabies?

A. Pityrosporum orbiculare
B. Pediculi pubis
C. Microsporum canis
D. Sarcoptes hominis
E. Corynobacteria minutissimum
5. What is the life expectancy of a female scabies mite?

A. 1 day
B. 1 week
C. 8 weeks
D. Six months
E. 1 year
6. What topical treatment are used to treat scabies?

A. Antibacterial ointments
B. Antifungal ointments
C. Antiparasitic ointments
D. Corticosteroid ointments
E. Keratoplastic ointments
7. Which of the following pathogens is the main etiological factor in

furunculosis?
A. Pediculus pubis
B. Sarcoptes hominis
C. Staphylococcus
D. Streptococcus

hydradenitis?
A. Pediculus pubis
C. Staphylococcus
D. Streptococcus
9. For streptococcal impetigo is characterized by all of the above,

except:
A. Appearances of phlycten on the skin
B. Yellow crusts
C. Rapid spread
D. Inflammatory nodes
E. Inflammatory rim around the phlycten
10. Purulent inflammation of the apocrine glands is observed in:

A. Furunculosis;
B. Sycosis vulgaris
C. Ecthyma vulgaris
D. Hydradenitis
E. Finger's pseudofurunculosis
Standards of answers: 1 - B. 2 D. 4 D. 5 C. 6 C. 7 C. 8
C. 9 D. 10 D.
1. The most typical terms of the incubation period of scabies:
A. 2-5 days
B. 7-10 days
C. 40-50 days
D. More than two months
E. Half a year
2. The rate of scabies generalization depends on all these factors,

except:
A. The number of mites that got on the skin at the time of infection
B. Sexual and age characteristics of the skin
C. Level of itchiness
D. Hygienic skills
E. The state of immunity
3. Scabies is characterized by:

A. Lenticular papules
B. Hemorrhage
C. Dotted itchy vesicles and papules
D. Urticaria
E. Polygonal papules
4. Indicate the location of typical localization of scabies in adults?

A. The scalp
B. Face and neck
C. Spina
D. Palms and soles
E. Interdigital folds of the hands
5. What is the most common complication of scabies?

A. Secondary pyoderma
B. Sepsis
C. Cicatricial atrophy of the skin
D. Phlegmon
E. All of the above
6. In what forms of pyoderma phlycten is the main element of the

rash?
A. Vulgar sycosis
B. Hydradenitis
C. Furunculosis
D. Vulgar impetigo
E. Osteofolliculitis
7. Which of the following applies to superficial streptoderma?

A. Vulgar sycosis
B. Furuncle
C. Hydradenitis
D. Carbuncle
E. None of the above
8. The patient complains of general malaise, headache, painful

swelling on the back of the neck, which is a dense, painful cone-
shaped node, in the center - a necrotic rod. The skin around him is
swollen, infiltrated, red, hot to the touch. Your diagnosis.
A. Furuncle
B. Gummous syphilis
C. Colliquative tuberculosis
D. Hydradenitis
E. Carbuncle
9. In case of furunculosis obligatory examination includes:

A. Blood sugar level
B. Blood for bilirubin
C. Urine for creatinine
D. Feces for helminths
E. All of the above
10. The patient, 25 years old, complains of rashes in the interdigital

folds, in the area of the wrists, genitals, abdomen, which are
accompanied by severe itching, especially at night. Objectively: on the
background of unaffected skin, multiple rashes are represented by
papular and papulovesicular rashes in pairs, and excoriations. The
back is free from rashes. Your diagnosis:
A. Scabies
B. Herpes
C. Eczema
D. Neurodermatitis
E. Epidermophytia
Standards of answers: 1-B. 2-B. 3-C. 4-E. 5- -D. 7-E. 8- 9- -

1. The main parameters for the differential diagnosis of psoriasis are:
A. The primary morphological element of the rash
B. Form of rash
. The color of the rash
D. The nature and location of peeling
E. Subjective feelings
F. All answers are correct
2. Name the main pathohistological changes in psoriasis:

A. Granulosis;
B. Hyperkeratosis, parakeratosis, acanthosis
C. Parakeratosis, acanthosis
D. Acanthosis
E. Polymorphic-cellular infiltration.
3. Clinical forms of psoriasis include:

A. Limited psoriasis
B. Psoriatic arthropathy
C. Sclero-atrophic psoriasis
D. Common psoriasis
4. Seasonal forms of psoriasis are:

A. Winter
B. Mixed
C. Early
D. Congenital
E. Autumn
5. List the clinical variants of lichen ruber planus:

A. Annular form
B. Erosive-ulcerative
C. Hypertrophic form
D. Bullous form
E. Atrophic form
6. Characteristic of the stationary stage of psoriasis are:

A. The presence of new papular rashes
B. The presence of a tendency to peripheral growth
C. Auspitz's positive psoriatic triad
D. Positive symptom of Koebner
E. Erythroderma
7. With what diseases it is necessary to carry out differential

diagnosis at suspicion of existence at the patient of a lichen ruber
planus?
A. Psoriasis
B. Dermatomycosis
C. Diffuse neurodermatitis
D. Toxicoderma
E. Papulonecrotic tuberculosis
8. What are the symptoms of psoriatic rash?

A. The form of papules is miliary
B. Inflammatory papules
C. Non-inflammatory papules
D. The outlines of papules are polygonal
9. Lichen ruber planus is characterized by:

A. No itching
B. Itchy skin only at night
C. The appearance of rashes only on the extensor surfaces of the
extremities
D. Wickham's symptom
E. Bright pink rash
10. What physiotherapy procedures are used in the treatment of

psoriasis:
A. UVI (ultraviolet irradiation)
B. Balneotherapy
C. PUVA - therapy
D. UHF therapy (ultra-high frequency)
Standards of answers: 1 - F. 2 B. 3 B. 4 F. 6 C. 7
B. 9 D. 10 E.
1. Choose the diagnostic phenomena characteristic of psoriasis:
A. The Kebner phenomenon
B. Symptom of stearin stain
C. Symptom of the terminal film
D. Symptom of Auschpitz
2. Choose a symptom pathognomonic for LRP:

A. Nikolsky's symptom
B. Benier-Meshchersky's symptom
C. Wickham's symptom
D. Symptom Gorchakov-Ardi
E. Yadasson's symptom
3. For the local treatment of psoriasis use:

A. Lorinden ointment - A
B. 2% salicylic ointment
C. 3% naphthalene ointment
D. Dermovate
4. For the stationary stage of psoriasis is characterized by:

A. The elements are completely covered with silvery-white scales
B. On the periphery of the papules - hyperemic border (Pilnov )
C. The appearance of new rashes
D. Peripheral growth of elements
E. Pale pink color of rash elements
5. For the regressive stage of psoriasis is characterized by:

A. Around the elements - "pseudoatrophic" Voronov
B. Disappearance of rashes
C. Pale color of the rash elements
D. Disappearance of scales from the surface of psoriatic rashes
6. What are the most typical localization of rashes in the psoriatic

process?
A. flexion surface of the extremities
B. extensor surface of the extremities
C. interdigital spaces
D. skin around physiological openings
E. genital mucosa
7. What symptom is not used to confirm the diagnosis of psoriasis?

A. psoriatic triad
B. the Kebner phenomenon
C. Symptom of Auspices
D. the phenomenon of "blood dew"
E. the phenomenon of "apple jelly"
8. What clinical sign is not characteristic of the progressive stage of

psoriasis?
A. tendency to merge
B. the presence of a psoriatic triad
C. silvery-white peeling in the center of the papule
D. the Kebner phenomenon
E. silvery-white peeling over the entire surface of the papule
9. What is characteristic of psoriatic papules?

A. yellow-red color
B. umbilical indentation in the center of the papule
C. oval shape
D. the surface is covered with white scales
E. shiny surface
10. Clinical varieties of psoriasis do not include:

A. seborrheic
B. leaf-like
C. exudative
D. vulgar
E. rupee
Standards of answers: 1-E. 2-C. 3-E. 4- 5-E. 6-B. 7-E. 8-E. 9-D. 10-B
B. Form of rash

A. Granulosis;
D. Acanthosis

D. Common psoriasis

A. Winter
B. Mixed
C. Early
D. Congenital
E. Autumn

A. Annular form
D. Bullous form
E. Atrophic form

E. Erythroderma

planus?
A. Psoriasis
B. Dermatomycosis
D. Toxicoderma


A. No itching
extremities
E. Bright pink rash

psoriasis:
B. Balneotherapy
C. PUVA - therapy
B. 9 D. 10 E.


D. Dermovate



process?
E. genital mucosa

A. psoriatic triad

psoriasis?

A. yellow-red color
C. oval shape
E. shiny surface

A. seborrheic
B. leaf-like
C. exudative
D. vulgar
E. rupee
Standards of answers: 1-E. 2-C. 3-E. 4- -E. 6-B. 7-E. 8-E. 9-D. 10-B
1. For which disease is the pathognomonic iodine test of Balzer?
A. Microsporia
B. Inguinal epidermophytia
C. Pytiriasis versicolor
D. Candidiasis
E. Rubrophytia
2. What methods are used to diagnose Pytiriasis versicolor?

A. Microscopic examination
B. Luminescent method using a Wood lamp
C. Balzer test with iodine tincture
D. Benier's symptom method (chip phenomenon)
3. What elements of the rash are characteristic of Pytiriasis

versicolor?
A. Papule
B. Macule
C. Nodule
D. Vesicle
E. Pustule
4. What pathogen Pytiriasis versicolor?

A. Trich. mentagrophytes
B. Microsporum canis
C. Pityrosporum orbiculare
D. Pityrosporum ovale
E. Candida albicans
F. Trich. rubrum
5. Concomitant diseases that are most common in children with

candidiasis are:
A. Chronic recurrent acute respiratory viral infections, bronchitis,
pneumonia
B. Purulent otitis and chronic tonsillitis
C. Atopic dermatitis
D. Asthmoid bronchitis
E. Everything is listed
6. What pathogen causes infiltrative-suppurative trichophytia

(kerion)?
A. Trich. violaceum
D. Trich.verrucosum
E. Trich. rubrum
7. What pathogen causes anthropophilic microsporia?

B. Microsporum ferrugineum
D. Candida albicans
E. Trich. rubrum
8. Indicate the most important clinical sign of microsporia of the

scalp.
A. Scales
B. Hyperemia
C. Focal nature of the lesion
D. Broken hairs
E. Crusts
9. In the treatment of microsporia of the scalp griseofulvin prescribed

in a dose of:
A. 22 mg per day
B. 22 mg three times a day
C. 22 mg per kg of body weight three times a day
D. 22 mg per kg of body weight per day
E. 2 mg per reception
10. What pathogen causes epidermophytia of the feet?

A. Trich. mentagrophytes var. interdigital
D. Trich.verrucosum
E. Trich. rubrum
Standards of answers: 1 - C. 2 E. 3 B. 4 C. 5 E. 6 D. 7 B. 8
D. 9 D. 10
1. With what diseases most often have to differentiate the microspores
of the scalp?
A. Pityriasis versicolor
B. Lichen ruber planus
C. Pityriasis rosea
D. Alopecia areata
2. What are the clinical symptoms characteristic of infiltrative-

suppurative trichophytia of the scalp?
A. Intoxication
B. Lymphadenitis
C. Rising body temperature
D. Hair loss in the lesion
3. What methods of laboratory diagnosis should be carried out in

trichomycoses:
A. Histological
B. Microscopic
C. Bacteriological
4. What is used for laboratory diagnosis of trichomycoses:

A. Blood
B. Nails, hair, scales
C. Cerebrospinal fluid
D. The content of the sebaceous glands
5. What clinical varieties belong to the mycosis of the feet caused by

Trich. mentagrophytes var. interdigetale
A. Intertriginous
B. Onychomycosis
C. Dyshydrotic
D. Squamous-hyperkeratotic
6. For which disease is the pathognomonic symptom "Honeycombs"?

A. Microsporia
B. Infiltrative-suppurative trichophytia
C. Pityriasis versicolor
D. Candidiasis
E. Rubrophytia
7. What drugs are used to treat dermatophytes?
A. Griseofulvin
B. Oxolinic ointment
C. Tetracycline
D. Nystatin
E. Prednisolone
8. Specify a diagnostic test that confirms the diagnosis of microsporia

of the scalp:
A. Scraping is a symptom of "blood dew"
B. In smears - acantholytic cells.
C. Detection of mycelium in scales.
D. The appearance of blisters in the application test with 50%
potassium iodide ointment.
E. Brock's rehearsal.
9. What diagnostic test can be performed to diagnose " Pityriasis

versicolor ":
A. Diascopy.
B. The Auspices trial.
B. Balzer's test.
G. Yadason's test.
D. Thompson's test.
10. Choose a drug that is used to treat tinea pedis:

A. Flucinar.
B. Sulfur ointment 20%.
B. Mycoseptin.
G. Sinaflan.
D. Elocom.
Standards of answers: 1-D. 2-E. 3-B. 4-B. 5-E. 6-B. 7- -C. 9-C. 10-C
1. Characteristic feature of simple contact dermatitis is:
A. Fuzzy boundaries of the lesion
B. Clear boundaries of the lesion
C. Occurrence only in sensitized patients
D. Occurrence in 12-74 hour after exposure to a certain factor
E. Possible generalization of the process
2. It is not observed in allergic contact dermatitis:

A. Rash on the place of influence of a certain factor
C. Occurrence in sensitized patients
D. Subacute onset and course
E. Possible recurrence after re-exposure to the allergen
3. Which of the following is not used for the treatment of allergic

contact
dermatitis:
A. Glucocorticoids containing creams and ointments
B. Antihistamines
C. Hyposensitizing drugs
D. Vitamins
E. Photosensitizers
4. Toxicodermatosis is not characterized by:

A. Acute onset
B. Symmetry of rash
C. Polymorphic rash
D. Development of lichenification
E. Possible lesion of mucous membranes
5. Fixed erythema is not characterized by:

A. Occurrence as a result of taking sulfonamides, antibiotics etc.
B. Occurrence due to exposure to obligate irritants
C. Rash of several red spots 2-5 cm in diameter
D. Localization on the skin, genital and oral mucosa
E. After recourse pigmentation remains for a long time
6. Which of the following is not applied for the treatment of

toxicodermatosis:
A. Enterosorbents
B. Photosensitizers
C. Antihistamine drug
D. Detoxification drugs
E. Glucocorticoid creams
7. Lyell's syndrome is characterized by:

A. Isomorphic Koebner response
B. Auspitz triad
C. Nikolsky's symptom
D. Meshcherskiy-Besnier's symptom
E. Jadassohn's symptom
8. Which of the following form is not characteristic for eczema:

A. Idiopathic
B. Microbial
C. Herpetiformal
D. Occupational
E. Seborrheal
9. Which of the following does not belong to the main diagnostic

criteria for
assessment of the severity of atopic dermatitis:
A. Skin itch
B. Ichthyosis, mostly of palms
C. Typical morphology and localization of skin rashes: in infants
are eczematous rash on the face and extensor surfaces of the
extremities, in older children and adults - lichenification on
flexor surfaces of thextremities
D. Chronic relapsing course
E. Atopy in personal and family history
10. Primary morphological element with urticaria is considered:

A. Vesicle
B. Bulla
C. Macule
D. Blister
E. Knot
Standards of answers: 1 B, 2 B, 3 -D, 5 B, 6 C, 8 C, 9 B, 10

D.
1. What is the recommended topical treatment in seborrheic
dermatitis like psoriasis of the face and ear canals?
A. Photochemotherapy
B. Reflexotherapy
C. Acyclovir
D. Mineral oil
E. Clobetasol propionate
2. Everything mentioned below is specific to allergic contact

dermatitis, except:
A. Sensibilization
B. Margination of lesions spreads in the periphery beyond the
actual site of exposure
C. ACD is due to reexposure to a substance to which the
individual is sensitized
D. Margins of lesions are sharp
E. Polymorphism of skin eruption
3. Histopathology in acute irritant contact dermatitis:

A. Epidermal cell necrosis, neutrophils, vesiculation, and
necrosis
B. Acanthosis, hyperkeratosis, lymphocytic infiltrate
C. Spongiosis, lymphocytes and eosinophils in the epidermis,
and monocyte and histiocyte infiltration in the dermis
D. Spongiosis plus acantosis, elongation of rete ridges, and
elongation and broadening of papillae; hyperkeratosis; and a
lymphocytic infiltrate
4. The most common form of occupational skin diseases is:

A. Irritant contact dermatitis
B. Allergic contact dermatitis
D. Nummular eczema
E. Toxidermia
5. Which are the clinical symptoms of mycotic eczema?

A. The presence of pustules
B. Vesiculation
C. Increasing of lymph nodes
D. No correct answer
6. The plumber came to the doctor complaining of redness,
burning sensation, pain in the right forearm. Some rash appeared in
10-15 minutes after contact with hot pipes. Objectively: on the skin of
the right forearm extensor surface there is a severe focus with clear
boundaries of 3x6 cm; there is skin hyperemia in the focus, some
individual bullous elements with clear content. Make a diagnosis:
A. Dermatitis herpetiformis Duhring
C. Eczema
D. Simple contact dermatitis
E. Pemphigus vulgaris
7. 32-years old female patient consulted the dermatologist

complaining of some rash on the skin of neck and chest, accompanied
by itching. Rash appeared after taking aspirin and kept on the skin for
about two hours and then without any action gradually disappeared
appearing at new areas. Objectively, there are multiple palm-sized
urticaria elements. The patient has red dermographism; eosinophilia
is revealed in the blood. What kind of skin disease can be thought of in
this case:
A. Urticaria
B. Allergic dermatitis
C. Eczema
E. Atopic dermatitis
8. A boy of 7 years complains of feeling unwell, pain on swallowing,

painful rashes on the lips and in the mouth, itchy rash on the face and
body, which appeared three days after receiving Analgin because of
acute otitis. Objectively: the general state of the child is severe; body
temperature is 38.6 °C. On the skin of the lips and oral mucosa, there
are common erosions with massive hemorrhagic crusts. On the face
and body multiple erythematous spots and edematous papules with
deep bluish center, on the surface of which there are vesicles and
blisters; the elements tend to be drained. Nickolsky's sign is negative.
What kind of emergency prehospital care should be provided to the
child:
A. To prescribe corticosteroids orally, canceling all other drugs
B. To prescribe corticosteroids parenterally, canceling all other
drugs
C. To prescribe corticosteroid ointments, canceling all other
drugs
D. To prescribe antihistamine drugs, canceling all other drugs
E. To prescribe purgatives, canceling all other drugs
9. Female patient, 37 years old, employed as a manipulative nurse,

complains of feeling unwell, weakness, headache, muscle and joint
pain and skin rash, accompanied by severe pain and burning
sensation. Some rash appeared two days after receiving ampicillin
because of sore throat. Objectively: general condition of the patient is
severe; body temperature is 39.2 °C. The entire skin is bloodshot. On
the trunk and extremities, there are multiple bullous elements,
erosion, fragments of epidermis observed. The skin is painful on
palpation. Nikolsky's sign is positive. What kind of emergency pre-
hospital care should not be provided to the child:
A. Stop taking ampicillin
B. To prescribe corticosteroids parenterally
C. To prescribe enterosorbents
D. To refer the patient to the intensive care unit for further
treatment
E. To refer the patient for consultation and supervision of the
allergist
10. 34 years old woman consulted the dermatologist about

the skin lesions of hands and lower third of the forearm as a
significant swelling, redness, vesiculation. Got ill one week ago.
The disease appeared after use of 'Lotus' washing powder. In the
past, the patient has no skin diseases. What is the most likely
diagnosis in this patient:
A. Contact allergic dermatitis
B. Simple contact dermatitis
C. Dyshidrotic eczema
D. Toxicodermatosis
E. Microbial eczema
Standards of answers: 1 E, 2 D, 3 B, 4 B, 5 B, 6 D, 7 A, 8
B, 9 A, 10 A
1. What are the main pathohistological changes in pemphigus
vulgaris?
A. Spongiosis
B. Acanthosis
C. Acantholysis
D. Hyperkeratosis
E. Parakeratosis
2. The most important laboratory tests to confirm the diagnosis of

pemphigus vulgaris are:
A. Sowing the contents of the blister on the flora
B. Clinical blood test
C. Blood tests for electrolytes
D. Investigation of smears-imprints on acantholytic cells
E. Investigation of blister contents for eosinophils
3. Indicate the most important diagnostic symptom to confirm the

diagnosis of pemphigus:
B. Nikolsky's symptom
C. Balzer's test
D. Mantoux reaction
E. Isomorphic reaction
4. The most characteristic morphological elements for Duhring's

herpetiform dermatosis are:
A. Erythematous macules
B. Papules
C. Bullae
D. Vesicles
5. In which layer of the skin are the blisters in the case of pemphigus
vulgaris?
A. Papillary
B. Basal
C. Spinosum
D. Granular
E. Corneum
6. Acantholytic cells by the method of Tzank detected by the study:

A. Histological
B. Bacteriological
C. Cytological
D. Fluorescent
E. Serological
7. Acantholysis is:
A. Melting of intercellular connections in the spinous layer
B. Degenerative changes in the spinous layer
C. Thickening of the stratum corneum
D. Growth of the granular layer
E. Violation of the process of keratinization and preservation of
nuclei in the cells of the stratum corneum
8. Specify the primary morphological element typical of pemphigus

vulgaris:
A. Bullae
B. Microvesicle
C. Papule
D. Urtica
E. Pustula.
9. Bullae in the case of true vesicles are placed:

A. Subcorneally
B. Intraepidermal
C. Subepidermal
D. Subdermally
E. Subhypodermal
10. In the study of Tzank material is stained by the method:

A. Gram
B. Tiel-Nielsen
C. Romanovsky-Gimse
D. Burry
E. Morozov
Standards of answers:: 1 - C. 2 D. 3 B. 4 E. 5 C. 6 C. 7
B. 10 C
1. Acantholytic cells by the method of Tzank found in:
A. Native culture
B. Histological preparation
C. Smear-imprint
D. Blood tests
E. Serological examination.
2. In the case of localization of rashes with pemphigus vulgaris on the

oral mucosa, histopathological changes (acantholysis) occur in:
A. The granular layer
B. Spiny layer
C. Basal layer
D. Actually the mucous plate
E. Submucosal layer
3. The most typical localization of rashes in pemphigus vulgaris:

A. The scalp
B. Face
C. The mucous membrane of the oral cavity
D. Elbows and knees
E. Palms and soles
4. To confirm the diagnosis of Duhring's herpetiform dermatitis it is

necessary to conduct a skin test to determine hypersensitivity to:
A. Sulfanilamides
B. Antibiotics
C. Novocaine
D. Iodides
E. Bromide
5. What are the characteristics of Duhring's herpetiform dermatitis?
A. Recurrent course
B. Monomorphism of rashes
C. No itching
D. Positive symptom of Nikolsky
E. Frequent lesions of the mucous membranes
6. Bullae in the case of Duhring's dermatitis are placed:

A. Subcorneally
B. Intraepidermal
C. Subepidermal
D. Subdermally
E. Subhypodermal
7. At what bullous dermatosis at patients hypersensitivity to gluten is

quite often observed?
A. Pemphigus vulgaris
B. Exfoliative pemphigus
C. Duhring's dermatitis
D. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
E. Seborrheic pemphigus
8. With Duhring's dermatosis, patients complain of:

A. Pain
B. Itching
C. Feeling of cold extremities
D. The feeling of crawling "ants" on the body
E. Paresthesia
9. Specify the most effective drug for the treatment of pemphigus:

A. Penicillin
B. Sulfadimethoxine
C. Ftivazid
D. Prednisolone
E. Delagil
10. For the treatment of Duhring's herpetiform dermatitis most often

used:
A. Antibiotics
B. Vitamins
C. Antihistamines
D. Preparations of the sulfone series (DDS)
E. Antimalarial drugs
Standards of answers: 1-C. 2-B. 3-C. 4-D. 5- -C. 7-C. 8-B. 9-D. 10-D
A. Microsporia
D. Candidiasis
E. Rubrophytia


versicolor?
A. Papule
B. Macule
C. Nodule
D. Vesicle
E. Pustule

E. Candida albicans
F. Trich. rubrum

candidiasis are:
pneumonia

(kerion)?
A. Trich. violaceum
D. Trich.verrucosum
E. Trich. rubrum

D. Candida albicans
E. Trich. rubrum

scalp.
A. Scales
B. Hyperemia
D. Broken hairs
E. Crusts

in a dose of:
A. 22 mg per day

D. Trich.verrucosum
E. Trich. rubrum
D. 9 D. 10
1. With what diseases most often have to differentiate the microspores
of the scalp?
C. Pityriasis rosea
D. Alopecia areata
2. What are the clinical symptoms characteristic of infiltrative-

suppurative trichophytia of the scalp?
A. Intoxication
B. Lymphadenitis

trichomycoses:
A. Histological
B. Microscopic
C. Bacteriological

A. Blood

A. Intertriginous
B. Onychomycosis
C. Dyshydrotic

A. Microsporia
D. Candidiasis
E. Rubrophytia
A. Griseofulvin
C. Tetracycline
D. Nystatin
E. Prednisolone

of the scalp:
potassium iodide ointment.
E. Brock's rehearsal.

versicolor ":
A. Diascopy.
B. The Auspices trial.
B. Balzer's test.
G. Yadason's test.
D. Thompson's test.
10. Choose a drug that is used to treat tinea pedis:

A. Flucinar.
B. Mycoseptin.
G. Sinaflan.
D. Elocom.
2. It is not observed in allergic contact dermatitis:

A. Rash on the place of influence of a certain factor

contact
dermatitis:
B. Antihistamines
D. Vitamins
E. Photosensitizers

A. Acute onset
B. Symmetry of rash
C. Polymorphic rash


toxicodermatosis:
A. Enterosorbents
B. Photosensitizers

B. Auspitz triad

A. Idiopathic
B. Microbial
C. Herpetiformal
D. Occupational
E. Seborrheal

criteria for
assessment of the severity of atopic dermatitis:
A. Skin itch

A. Vesicle
B. Bulla
C. Macule
D. Blister
E. Knot

D.
B. Reflexotherapy
C. Acyclovir
D. Mineral oil

dermatitis, except:
A. Sensibilization
individual is sensitized
D. Margins of lesions are sharp

necrosis

D. Nummular eczema
E. Toxidermia

B. Vesiculation
6. The plumber came to the doctor complaining of redness,
burning sensation, pain in the right forearm. Some rash appeared in
10-15 minutes after contact with hot pipes. Objectively: on the skin of
the right forearm extensor surface there is a severe focus with clear
C. Eczema

complaining of some rash on the skin of neck and chest, accompanied
by itching. Rash appeared after taking aspirin and kept on the skin for
about two hours and then without any action gradually disappeared
appearing at new areas. Objectively, there are multiple palm-sized
urticaria elements. The patient has red dermographism; eosinophilia
is revealed in the blood. What kind of skin disease can be thought of in
this case:
A. Urticaria
C. Eczema

painful rashes on the lips and in the mouth, itchy rash on the face and
body, which appeared three days after receiving Analgin because of
acute otitis. Objectively: the general state of the child is severe; body
temperature is 38.6 °C. On the skin of the lips and oral mucosa, there
are common erosions with massive hemorrhagic crusts. On the face
and body multiple erythematous spots and edematous papules with
deep bluish center, on the surface of which there are vesicles and
blisters; the elements tend to be drained. Nickolsky's sign is negative.
What kind of emergency prehospital care should be provided to the
child:
B. To prescribe corticosteroids parenterally, canceling all other
drugs
drugs

because of sore throat. Objectively: general condition of the patient is
severe; body temperature is 39.2 °C. The entire skin is bloodshot. On
the trunk and extremities, there are multiple bullous elements,
palpation. Nikolsky's sign is positive. What kind of emergency pre-
hospital care should not be provided to the child:
treatment
allergist
10. 34 years old woman consulted the dermatologist about

the skin lesions of hands and lower third of the forearm as a
significant swelling, redness, vesiculation. Got ill one week ago.
The disease appeared after use of 'Lotus' washing powder. In the
past, the patient has no skin diseases. What is the most likely
diagnosis in this patient:
D. Toxicodermatosis
E. Microbial eczema
B, 9 A, 10 A.
B. Form of rash

A. Granulosis;
D. Acanthosis

D. Common psoriasis

A. Winter
B. Mixed
C. Early
D. Congenital
E. Autumn

A. Annular form
D. Bullous form
E. Atrophic form

E. Erythroderma

planus?
A. Psoriasis
B. Dermatomycosis
D. Toxicoderma


A. No itching
extremities
E. Bright pink rash

psoriasis:
B. Balneotherapy
C. PUVA - therapy
B. 9 D. 10 E.


D. Dermovate



process?
E. genital mucosa

A. psoriatic triad

psoriasis?

A. yellow-red color
C. oval shape
E. shiny surface

A. seborrheic
B. leaf-like
C. exudative
D. vulgar
E. rupee
1. What are the main pathohistological changes in pemphigus
vulgaris?
A. Spongiosis
B. Acanthosis
C. Acantholysis
D. Hyperkeratosis
E. Parakeratosis


diagnosis of pemphigus:
C. Balzer's test
D. Mantoux reaction

B. Papules
C. Bullae
D. Vesicles
vulgaris?
A. Papillary
B. Basal
C. Spinosum
D. Granular
E. Corneum

A. Histological
B. Bacteriological
C. Cytological
D. Fluorescent
E. Serological
7. Acantholysis is:
A. Melting of intercellular connections in the spinous layer
B. Degenerative changes in the spinous layer
C. Thickening of the stratum corneum
D. Growth of the granular layer
E. Violation of the process of keratinization and preservation of
nuclei in the cells of the stratum corneum
8. Specify the primary morphological element typical of pemphigus

vulgaris:
A. Bullae
B. Microvesicle
C. Papule
D. Urtica
E. Pustula.
9. Bullae in the case of true vesicles are placed:

A. Subcorneally
B. Intraepidermal
C. Subepidermal
D. Subdermally
E. Subhypodermal

A. Gram
B. Tiel-Nielsen
C. Romanovsky-Gimse
D. Burry
E. Morozov
Standards of answers:: 1 - C. 2 D. 3 B. 4 E. 5 C. 6 C. 7
B. 10 C.
A. Native culture
C. Smear-imprint
D. Blood tests

B. Spiny layer
C. Basal layer
E. Submucosal layer

A. The scalp
B. Face
D. Elbows and knees
E. Palms and soles

A. Sulfanilamides
B. Antibiotics
C. Novocaine
D. Iodides
E. Bromide
A. Recurrent course
C. No itching

A. Subcorneally
B. Intraepidermal
C. Subepidermal
D. Subdermally
E. Subhypodermal

quite often observed?

A. Pain
B. Itching
E. Paresthesia

A. Penicillin
B. Sulfadimethoxine
C. Ftivazid
D. Prednisolone
E. Delagil

used:
A. Antibiotics
B. Vitamins
C. Antihistamines
1. Average duration of treatment of multibacillary leprosy?
A. 1 year
B. 2 year
C. 3 year
D. Life long
2. The most effective drug against M.leprae is ?

A. Dapsone
B. Rifampicin
C. Clofazimine
D. Prothionamide
3. Multidrug therapy is given for?

A. Syphilis
B. Leprosy
C. Herpetiformis
D. Icthyosis vulgaris
4. All lesions are seen in leprosy except?

A. Erythematous macule
B. Hypopigmented patch
C. Vesicles
D. Flat and raised patches
5. Which pathogen causes leprosy?

A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Mycobacterium leprae
C. Mycobacterium bovis
D. Mycobacterium africanum
6. Which is other name of leprosy?

A. Lella's disease
B. Giems's disease
C. Hensen's isease
7. Lepromin test help in?

A. In the diagnosis of leprosy
B. In prognosis and classification of leprosy
C. In prognosis
8. The first sensation to be lost in leprosy is?

A. Temperature
B. Pain
C. Both at the same time
D. None
9. In leprosy nerves commonly involved are?

A. High ulnar, low median
B. High median, low ulnar
C. Triple nerve palsy
D. High radial, low median
10. Skin biopsy in leprosy is characterised by?
A. Periappendegial bacilli
B. Periappendegeal lymphocytosis
C. Perivascular lymphocytosis
D. All of the above
Standards of answers: 1 A, 2 B, 3 B, 4- , 5 B, 6 , 7 B, 8 A, 10
D.
1. An 8-year old boy from Bihar presents with a 6 month history of

an ill defined hypopigmented slightly atrophic macule on the face.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Ptyriasis alba
B. Indeterminate leprosy
C. Morphacea
D. Calcium deficiency
2. The following drug is not used for the treatment of type II lepra
reaction (ENL)?
A. Chloroquine
B. Thalidomide
C. Cyclosporine
D. Corticosteroids
3. The main cytokine involved in ENL (Erythema Nodosum

Leprosum) reaction is?
A. Il-2
B. Ifn-Gamma
C. Tnf-Alpha
D. Mcsf
4. The following test is not used for diagnosis of leprosy?
A. Lepromin test
B. Slit skin smear
C. Fnac
D. Skin biopsy
5. A 27 year old patient was diagnosed to have borderline leprosy

and started on Multibacillary multi-drug therapy. Six weeks later, he
developed pain in the nerves and redness and swelling of the skin
lesions. The management of his illness should include all of the
following except?
A. Stop anti-leprosy drugs
B. Systemic corticosteroids
C. Rest to the limbs affected
D. Analgesics
6. Antileprotic drug also used in lepra reaction is ?

A. Rifampicin
B. Dapsone
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Clofazimine
7. Best method of treatment of ulnar nerve abscess in case of

leprosy is?
A. High doses of steroid
B. Incision and drainage
C. Thalidomide
D. High dose of clofazimine
8. Inverted saucer shaped lesion is found in ?

A. Lepromatous leprosy
B. Tuberculoid leprosy
C. Borderline leprosy
D. Indeterminate leprosy
9. Lepromin test is positive in which leprosy?

A. Lepromatous
B. Indeterminate
C. Histoid
D. Tuberculoid
10. A 16 year old student reported for the evaluation of multiple
hypopigmented macules on the trunk and limbs. All of the following
tests are useful in making a diagnosis of leprosy except?
A. Sensation testing
B. Lepromin test
C. Slit smears
D. Skin biopsy
Standards of answers: 1- B, 2 C, 3 C, 4 A, 5 A, 6 D, 7 B, 8 C,
9 D,
10 B
1. What agent causes syphilis?

A. Pediculus corporis
B. Sarcoptes scabiei varietas hominis
C. Demodexfolliculorum
D. Treponema pallidum
E. Staph ilococcus albus
2. Which one of these diseases refers to classic veneral diseases?

A. Genital warts
B. Chancroid
C. Scabies
D. Pediculosis
E. All the above mentioned
3. The complications of hard chancre include:

A. Mortifying
B. Chancre-amygdalitis
C. Large chancre
D. Chancre-felon
E. Indurative edema
4. Name the atypical forms of primary syphiloma:

A. Balanitis, balanoposthitis
B. Phimosis
C. Indurative edema
D. Chancre-amygdalitis
E. All the above mentioned is true
5. Venereal syphilis in the human host is caused by:
A. Treponema pallidum ssp. endemicum.
B. Treponema pallidum ssp. pallidum (T. pallidum)
C. Treponema pallidum ssp. Pertenue
D. Treponema carateum
6. The most contagious stage of the syphilis is:

A. Primary syphilis
B. Secondary syphilis
C. Tertiary syphilis
D. Early latent syphilis
E. Late latent syphilis
7. Incubation period of primary syphilis is usually about:

A. 1-2 hours
B. 1-2 days
C. 1 week
D. 3 weeks
E. 5-6 months
8. Skin lesion in primary syphilis is:

A. Macule
B. Nodule
C. Vesicle
D. Ulcer
E. Wheal
9. Chancre-amygdalitis (specific amygdalitis) is not characterized:

A. The increase and induration of the amygdala without the
formation of
erosion and ulcer
B. Absence of pain when swallowing
C. Unilateral affection, the absence of violations of the general
state of the body
D. Unilateral affection of submandibular and cervical lymph
nodes
E. Morbidity and bilateral affection
10. Primary period of syphilis lasts for:

A. 7-8 weeks
B. 14 weeks
C. 3-4 weeks
D. 3-4 months
E. 6 months
Standards of answers: 1 D, 2 E, 3 -D, 5 B, 6 A, 7 D, 8 D, 9

C.
1. A 32-year-old man presents with a 4-day history of painless

penile lesions. His sex partners are men and he has had 2 partners in
the last 6 months. Physical examination reveals 3 non-tender ulcers on
the lateral aspect of the penile shaft and firm lymphadenopathy in the
right inguinal region that is nontender. Oral examination and skin
inspection are normal. He has no neurologic symptoms. A clinical
diagnosis of syphilis is strongly suspected; nontreponemal and
treponemal serologic tests for syphilis are ordered. Based on the
information at this point, how would you clinically stage syphilis in
this man?
A. Primary syphilis
C. Early latent syphilis
D. Late latent syphilis
2. The duration of latency in Latent syphilis is defined by:

A. An information received from a patient
B. A previous negative STS
C. 1 year
D. A previous negative STS 6 months
E. A previous negative STS 1 year
3. Everything A 25-years old female patient complains of swelling

of the right large pudental lip and discomfort. The general condition of
the
swelling of the right large pudental lip. It is thick, non-sensitive on
palpation, with a dark-red and clear borders. The right-hand
lymphadenitis is present too. Wassermann reaction is negative. What
is a possible diagnosis?
A. Limited elephantiasis
B. Unilateral bartholinitis
C. Indurative edema
E. Cold abscess
4. Patient of the dermato-venereological department with a diagnosis
of "primary seropositive syphilis" was treated with penicillin. 9
hours after the first injection a patient's body temperature rose to
38.2 °C, malaise, headache, and the maculopapular rash on skin
appeared. How can these symptoms be explained?
A. As allergic reaction
B. As toxic reaction
C. As idiosyncratic reaction
D. As infectious disease
E. As viral disease
5. A 32 years old woman complaining of neck pathology turned to

the otolaryngologist. During examination: unilateral increase of the
left amygdala, which caused no pain when touching to it with a spatula.
The patient can not connect this kind of pathology with anything.
Which is the most probable disease:
A. Bartholinitis
B. Seropositive primary syphilis, chancre-amygdalitis
C. Seronegative primary syphilis, typical hard chancre
D. Seropositive primary syphilis, indurative edema
E. Catarrhal angina
6. A 45-year-old man is screened for syphilis and has a positive

Treponema pallidum-specific enzyme-linked immunoassay (EIA). The
laboratory performs a reflexive Rapid Plasmin Reagin (RPR) test that
is nonreactive. Tests for HIV, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and Chlamydia
trachomatis are negative. He has no medical problems, takes no
medications, and does not use illicit drugs. He has been sexually active
with the same female partner for the past 3 years. He has no prior
history of any sexually transmitted infections, and has never been
tested or treated for syphilis. He is asymptomatic and the physical
examination is normal.
A. What is most appropriate next step in the management of this
man?
B. Repeat both the EIA and the RPR
C. Send an alternative nontreponemal test
D. Send an alternative treponemal test
E. further work-up at this time
A. A 29-year-old woman is seen in an STD clinic with vaginal

discharge and is diagnosed and treated for chlamydia. Laboratory
studies sent at that time show a positive treponemal enzyme
immunoassay (EIA) and a positive Venereal Disease Research
Laboratory (VDRL) test at a titer of 1:16. She has had four male sex
partners in past 3 years. She had a negative syphilis VDRL test 5 years
ago when she was pregnant, but has not had any additional syphilis
testing until now. She has never been treated for syphilis and has no
past or current signs or symptoms consistent with syphilis. Her
physical examination is normal and a pregnancy test is negative. She
does not have any antibiotic allergies. What is the best therapy for this
woman?
A. No treatment is necessary
B. Benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units intramuscularly in a
single dose
C. Benzathine penicillin G 7.2 million units total, administered as
3 doses of 2.4 million units IM each at 1-week intervals
D. Ceftriaxone 1 g daily either IM for 10 days
B. A 42-year-old man is diagnosed with primary syphilis based on

a non-painful genital ulcer and positive syphilis serologic tests. He
reports one new male and one female sex partner in the past 90 days.
Both partners are contacted and instructed to come to the clinic for
evaluation. The female partner reports sexual contact with the 42-
year-old man about 3 weeks ago. She has no symptoms and says she
had negative testing for bacterial sexually transmitted infections
(STIs) and HIV about 6 months ago. She does not have any antibiotic
allergies. What would you recommend for this woman specifically
related to management of her as a syphilis contact?
A. She does not need further evaluation or treatment at this
time since she is asymptomatic
B. Order serologic tests for syphilis and treat only if the syphilis
test is positive
C. Order serologic tests for syphilis and treat with
intramuscular benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units in a
single dose before results return
D. Because the exposure occurred 3 weeks ago, defer serologic
testing for syphilis for 3 more weeks and treat only if the
syphilis test is positive
C. A boy A 31-year-old man with HIV who is on antiretroviral

therapy with a CD4 count of 370 cells/mm3 and an HIV RNA level less
than 40 copies/mL presents with a painless ulcer in his perirectal area.
He was last tested for sexually transmitted diseases, including
Neisseria gonorrhea, Chlamydia trachomatis, and syphilis 12 weeks
ago and all test results were negative. His repeat laboratory results on
the most recent visit have returned with a positive rectal gonorrhea
nucleic amplification test, a positive treponemal enzyme
immunoassay (EIA), and a positive Rapid Plasmin Reagin (RPR) test
with a titer of 1:128. He has never been previously diagnosed with or
treated for syphilis. He has no neurologic or ocular symptoms.
Treatment for rectal gonorrhea is ordered. What is the recommended
treatment of syphilis in this man with HIV?
A. Amoxicillin 500 mg orally three times a day for 7 days
B. Azithromycin 2 grams orally once
C. Benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units intramuscular in a
single dose
D. Benzathine penicillin G 7.2 million units total, administered
as 3 doses of 2.4 million units intramuscular each at 1-week
intervals
D. A 25-year-old man presents for evaluation of new nontender

penile lesion. He has no other symptoms. He has no medical problems,
denies medications or illicit drugs and has no antibiotic allergies. He
reports insertive-only anal intercourse with multiple male partners
and rare condom use. Physical examination reveals a 1 cm, nontender
ulcer on the dorsal surface of his penis and no other significant
findings. Further testing reveals a positive syphilis enzyme
immunoassay (EIA) and a positive Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) at a
titer of 1:32. He has never been diagnosed with or treated for syphilis
in the past. An HIV test returns negative.
A. What is the appropriate therapy for this man?
B. Amoxicillin 500 mg orally three times a day for 7 days
C. Azithromycin 2 grams orally once
D. Benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units intramuscular in a
single dose
E. Benzathine penicillin G 7.2 million units total, administered
intervals
Standards of answers: 1 A, 2 B, 3 C, 4 B, 5 B, 6 D, 7 C, 8 C,
9 C, 10 D.
1. A specific lesion of secondary syphilis is:
A. Chancres
B. Syphilids
C. Gumma
D. Syphilitic granuloma
E. Ulcers
2. A 22-year-old female patient, single, complains of skin rash on the

trunk and extremities without subjective sensations. Objective data:
the general condition of the patient is satisfactory, the body
cm in diameter without a tendency to consolidation on the skin of the

trunk, upper and lower extremities. Genital organ examination: a
round ulcer with firm borders, painless, in the stage of epithelization
is found on the skin of the right vulvar lip; moderate polyadenitis.
There is an enlarged (to 1,5 cm) painless and movable on palpation
lymph node in the right inguinal region. What is the provisional
diagnosis for this patient?
A. Epidermoid cancer
B. Primary syphilis
C. Soft chancre
D. Chancriform pyoderma
E. Secondary syphilis
3. A 25-year-old female patient, single, complains of hoarseness, which

appeared without any causes. The patient does not smoke. She saw a
without any treatment. Objective data: the general condition of the

patient is satisfactory, the body tempera
(up to 1 cm in diameter) pale pink spots, which disappear when one
presses with a slide on the lateral surfaces of the trunk. On the left
vulvar lip there is a fresh scar (of round shape, 0.7 cm in diameter). An
examination of the pharynx showed that the tonsil mucosa is red with
a copper tint. The focus has clear borders without purulent
incrustation. There is a moderate polyadenitis. What is the provisional
diagnosis of this patient?
C. Soft chancre
E. Erythema nodosum
4. A patient is a 21-year-old pregnant woman. Her syphilis tests are

strong positive. Objective data: condylomata lata in the perineum
region, single grouped maculopapular spots of the upper trunk,
syphilitic leukoderma of the neck. The viscera and neurologic system
are not affected. What stage of syphilis is observed in this patient?
A. Secondary recurrent syphilis
B. Latent syphilis
C. Primary seropositive syphilis
D. Tertiary syphilis
E. Early secondary syphilis
5. From 2000-2020, what has been the trend in the overall annual
number of cases of syphilis?
A. Increased
B. Decreased
C. Stayed about the same
D. Increased for first 5 years, then steadily decreased
6. A 19-year-old woman presents for a new maculopapular rash on her

trunk, which includes the palms of her hands and soles of her feet. She
has no other medical problems, takes no medications, and denies illicit
drug use. She has never been tested for sexually transmitted infections
(STIs) before. She has had three male partners in the past 6 months
with intermittent condom use. One of her male partners also has sex
with men. A clinical diagnosis of secondary syphilis is make and
laboratory testing is ordered to confirm the diagnosis of syphilis.
Which one of the following is TRUE regarding the laboratory diagnosis
of syphilis in this woman?
A. Approximately 50% of persons with secondary syphilis have a
negative B. Treponema pallidum enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
C. The degree of elevation in the enzyme immunoassay (EIA) titer
can accurately distinguish primary from secondary syphilis
D. A reactive treponemal test does not require any further
confirmatory testing
E. A reactive nontreponemal test should be confirmed by a
treponemal test
7. In the case of syphilitic lesion of placenta the significant alterations

are observed:
A. In maternal placenta
B. In fetal placenta
C. The significant alterations are not observed
D. All mentioned above is correct
E. All mentioned above is false
8. Which of the following does not refer to the probable signs of the
late congenital syphilis:
A. The shortcut little finger
B. Parenchymatous keratitis
C. The absence of xiphoid process
D. Dental dystrophies
E. "Olympian" forehead.
9. A 69-year-old male patient complains of an ulcer of the penis.

Objective data: a round ulcer with clear margins and a smooth bottom
is on the skin of the glans penis. It has a freshly color with gray-
yellowish bloom in the center. The skin around the ulcer is without any
changes. One can palpate swollen lymph nodes in the right inguinal
region, they are painless and movable. There are a lot of small pink
spots on the upper trunk, which do not bother the patient. What is a
possible diagnosis?
A. Secondary syphilis
B. Primary syphilis
C. Epithelioma spinocellulare
E. Scabies
10. A 30-year-old male patient complains of head and eyebrow hair

loss that begun 2 weeks ago without any cause. The patient has no
somatic pathologies. Objective data: multiple small foci of hair loss and
round foci of sparse hair on the back of the head and temporal areas.
The skin n these foci is without any changes. There are some lenticular
thickened copper-colored papules on the skin of the upper trunk
without any inflammatory changes around them. What is your
preliminary diagnosis?
A. Alopecia areata
B. Seborrheic alopecia
C. Secondary syphilis
D. Trichophytosis capitis
E. Lichen ruber planus
Standards of answers: 1 B, 2 E, 3 B, 4-A, 5 A, 6 D, 7 B, 8 B, 9 A, 10
C.
7. A 30-year-old man presents for follow-up of a positive syphilis

serologic test result. Recent laboratory studies from a routine visit 10
days ago show a positive treponemal enzyme immunoassay (EIA) and
a positive Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) with a titer of 1:256. He had a
negative HIV-1/2 antigen-antibody test and is taking tenofovir DF-
emtricitabine for HIV preexposure prophylaxis (PrEP). He has routine
STD testing every 3 months. His serologic tests for syphilis have
always been negative. He denies any genital ulcers or skin
manifestation. Upon further inquiry, he reports he has had blurry
vision in the right eye over the past 4 days. Which one of the following
is a correct statement about the manifestations of ocular syphilis?
A. All persons with ocular syphilis have neurosyphilis
B. Uveitis is the most common manifestation of ocular syphilis
C. Corneal lesions are the most common manifestation of ocular
syphilis
D. Retinal necrosis is the most common manifestation of ocular
syphilis
8. A patient is a 40-year-old man. Blood investigation: Wasserman

reaction and TPI test are positive. There are no changes of the skin,
viscera or neurologic system. What is a probable diagnosis of this
patient?
A. Latent recurrent syphilis
B. Primary seropositive syphilis
C. Secondary recurrent syphilis
E. Early latent syphilis
9. A 42-year-old male patient complains of skin rash without any

subjective sensations. Objective data: multiple pink spots up to 0.3-0.7
cm in size on the skin of the upper trunk and extremities; the surface
of the spots is not desquamated. Besides, they are separated.
Polyadenitis is observed. There is an erosion at the stage of
epithelization on the prepuce. What is a possible diagnosis?
A. Epidemic typhus
B. Secondary latent syphilis
C. Typhoid fever
D. Medicamentous toxicoderma (drug eruption)
E. Secondary recurrent syphilis
10. A mass health examination in an orphanage discovered a boy

with deviations in the physical and mental development. Objective
da
enlarged; the boy has a brachicephalic skull, a saddle-shaped nose, a
diagnosis?
A. Late latent syphilis
B. Early congenital syphilis
C. Latent congenital syphilis
E. Late congenital syphilis
11. A 31-year-old male presents to his primary care medical

provider for evaluation of a rash. He denies taking any new
medications, but reports three new male sexual partners in the last 8
weeks. The rash began several days prior as an erythematous,
maculopapular rash on the chest and back and now it also involves the
palms and soles. He does not have any ocular or neurologic symptoms.
Serologic testing for syphilis is ordered. What is the most appropriate
treatment of this patient with presumed secondary syphilis?
A. Azithromycin 2 grams orally once
B. Doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily x 28 days
C. Benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units intramuscular in a
single dose
D. Benzathine penicillin G 7.2 million units total, administered as 3
doses of 2.4 million units given at 1-week intervals
12. A 47-year-old man is clinically diagnosed with secondary

syphilis and treated with benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units
intramuscular (IM) in a single dose. Their lab test results return with
a positive syphilis enzyme immunoassay (EIA) and a positive Rapid
Plasma Reagin (RPR) at a titer of 1:128. Their HIV test is negative.
Follow-up RPR testing at 6 months shows an RPR titer of 1:4.
A. What would you recommend as the next course of action
regarding management of syphilis for this individual?
B. Treat with a single dose of intramuscular benzathine penicillin
G 2.4 million units
C. Treat with benzathine penicillin G 7.2 million units total,
administered as 3 intramuscular doses of 2.4 million units
given at 1-week intervals
D. Perform a lumbar puncture and cerebrospinal fluid analysis
and treat based on these findings
E. No further treatment is necessary at this time and lumbar
puncture is not indicated
13. A 24-year-old man presents with a 3-day history of a diffuse

rash. He reports having 7 sex partners, within the last 3 months.
Physical examination shows an erythematous macular rash on his
chest, back, arms, and palms. He has no visual or neurologic
complaints and a neurologic examination is normal. A clinical
diagnosis of secondary syphilis is made. Laboratory studies are
ordered and he is treated with a single intramuscular dose of 2.4
million units of benzathine penicillin G. Subsequently, the baseline
laboratory studies show a positive treponemal enzyme immunoassay
(EIA), a Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) titer of 1:512, and a negative HIV-
1/2 antigen-antibody test.
A. When should repeat syphilis serologic evaluation be
performed?
B. No follow-up is needed since he received recommended
therapy
C. 6 and 12 weeks
D. 6 and 12 months
E. 12 and 24 months
14. A 25-year-old man is diagnosed with secondary syphilis based

on a diffuse maculopapular rash and a Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) titer
of 1:256. He is given an intramuscular dose of 2.4 million units of
benzathine penicillin G in the clinic, but approximately 4 hours after
receiving the dose of penicillin, he returned with complaints of fever,
headache, myalgia, dizziness, and intensification of his rash. Physical
examination shows a temperature of 38.5°C, blood pressure 96/74
mmHg, accentuation of the rash, but no evidence of hives,
oropharyngeal swelling, or wheezing.
symptoms?
B. Mild type IV anaphylactic reaction to penicillin
C. Allergic reaction to benzathine
D. Prozone reaction
E. Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction
15. A 43-year-old man with a positive Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR)

test (titer of 1:64) is referred for further evaluation and treatment of
syphilis. He reports having a total body rash and low-grade fever that
resolved about 3 months prior. He reports severe headaches in the
past week with nausea, vomiting, and mild photophobia. The headache
has not resolved with over-the-counter medications and he has no
history of headaches. He has not had prior testing or treatment for
syphilis. A recent HIV antigen-antibody test is negative. A lumbar
puncture is performed, with cerebrospinal fluid analysis, to evaluate
for neurosyphilis. Which one of the following statements is TRUE
regarding cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) laboratory studies in diagnosing
neurosyphilis?
A. The CSF Venereal Diseases Research Laboratory (VDRL) test
is highly specific; it is the preferred test for confirming a
suspected diagnosis of neurosyphilis
B. The CSF Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) test is the most sensitive
and specific test for diagnosing neurosyphilis; it is the
preferred test both for confirming and excluding
neurosyphilis
C. The CSF fluorescent treponemal antibody absorbed (FTA-
ABS) test has poor sensitivity and no role in diagnosing
neurosyphilis
D. There is no role for CSF treponemal or nontreponemal tests
in diagnosing neurosyphilis
16. A 22-year-old woman is diagnosed with neurosyphilis after

presenting with stroke-like symptoms and a positive treponemal
enzyme immunoassay (EIA) and a positive Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR)
test (titer of 1:128). A lumbar puncture is performed with
cerebrospinal fluid analysis that shows protein of 64 mg/dL, white
blood cell count of 18 (80% lymphocytes), a red blood cell count of 0,
and a positive Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) titer of
1:64. Tests for other causes of stroke, as well as an HIV test are
negative. She has a 2-year history of engaging in transactional sex, but
has never previously been tested or treated for syphilis. She denies
any history of allergic reactions to antibiotics. What is the most
appropriate antimicrobial therapy for treatment of neurosyphilis in
this woman?
A. Ceftriaxone 1 g intramuscular once daily for 5 days, followed
by doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 14 days
B. Ceftriaxone 1 g intramuscular once daily for 10 to 14 days
C. Benzathine penicillin G 7.2 million units total, administered
intervals
D. Aqueous crystalline penicillin G 18 to 24 million units per
day, administered as 3 to 4 million units intravenous every 4
hours (or continuous infusion), for 10 to 14 days
Standards of answers: 1 A, 2 C, 3 E, 4 E, 5 C, 6 E, 7 D, 8 E,
9 A, 10 D.
Home / My courses / Dermatology,_venerology
/ 5. Keratomycosis and tinea pedis: clinical features, laboratory examination, prevention and treatment. Trichomycosis: microsporia,
trihophytosis, favus. Clinical features, laboratory examination, prevention and treatment
/ Topic 5. Keratomycosis. Trichomycosis.
Started on Friday, 29 October 2021, 10:00 AM

State Finished
Completed on Friday, 29 October 2021, 10:04 AM
Time taken 4 mins 6 secs
Marks 1.35/1.35
Grade 5.00 out of 5.00 (100%)
Question 1 What pathogen causes epidermophytia of the feet?

Complete
Mark 0.15 out Select one:

of 0.15
a. Pityrosporum orbiculare
b. Trich. mentagrophytes var. interdigital
c. Trich.verrucosum
d. Microsporum canis
e. Trich. rubrum
Question 2 Indicate the most important clinical sign of microsporia of the scalp.
Complete

of 0.15
a. Scales
b. Hyperemia
c. Crusts
d. Focal nature of the lesion
e. Broken hairs
Question 3 What pathogen causes infiltrative-suppurative trichophytia (kerion)?

Complete

of 0.15
a. Trich. violaceum
b. Trich.verrucosum
c. Microsporum canis
d. Trich. rubrum
e. Pityrosporum orbiculare
Question 4 What pathogen causes anthropophilic microsporia?
Complete

of 0.15
a. Pityrosporum orbiculare
b. Trich. mentagrophytes
c. Microsporum ferrugineum
d. Candida albicans
e. Trich. rubrum
Question 5 Concomitant diseases that are most common in children with candidiasis are:
Complete

of 0.15
a. Purulent otitis and chronic tonsillitis
b. Asthmoid bronchitis
c. Everything is listed
d. Chronic recurrent acute respiratory viral infections, bronchitis, pneumonia
e. Atopic dermatitis
Question 6 What pathogen Pytiriasis versicolor?

Complete

of 0.15
a. Trich. rubrum
b. Candida albicans
c. Pityrosporum orbiculare
d. Pityrosporum ovale
e. Microsporum canis
f. Trich. mentagrophytes
Question 7 What methods are used to diagnose Pytiriasis versicolor?

Complete

of 0.15
a. All answers are correct
b. Microscopic examination
c. Benier's symptom method (chip phenomenon)
d. Luminescent method using a Wood lamp
e. Balzer test with iodine tincture

Question 8 For which disease is the pathognomonic iodine test of Balzer?
Complete
Not graded Select one:

a. Inguinal epidermophytia
b. Candidiasis
c. Pytiriasis versicolor
d. Rubrophytia
e. Microsporia
Question 9 What elements of the rash are characteristic of Pytiriasis versicolor?

Complete

of 0.15
a. Pustule
b. Papule
c. Nodule
d. Macule
e. Vesicle
Question 10 In the treatment of microsporia of the scalp griseofulvin prescribed in a dose of:
Complete

of 0.15
a. 22 mg per kg of body weight three times a day
b. 2 mg per reception
c. 22 mg per day
d. 22 mg three times a day
e. 22 mg per kg of body weight per day
Methodological recommendations
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▶︎
/ 6. Dermatitis, toxicoderma, eczema, neurodermatitis. Clinical course of allergodermatosis, diagnosis, differential diagnosis,
confirmation of diagnosis and treatment
/ Test-TOPIC 6.
Started on Friday, 29 October 2021, 10:20 AM

State Finished
Completed on Friday, 29 October 2021, 10:38 AM
Marks 17.00/20.00
Grade 4.25 out of 5.00 (85%)
Question 1 4 years old woman consulted the dermatologist about the skin lesions of hands and lower third of the forearm
Complete as a significant swelling, redness, vesiculation. Got ill one week ago. The disease appeared after use of
Mark 1.00 out 'Lotus' washing powder. In the past, the patient has no skin diseases. What is the most likely diagnosis in this
of 1.00 patient:
Select one:
Dyshidrotic eczema
Simple contact dermatitis
Contact allergic dermatitis
Toxicodermatosis
Question 2 Primary morphological element with urticaria is considered:

Complete

of 1.00
Macule
Blister
Vesicle
Bulla
Question 3 Contact dermatitis occurs as a result of the impact:

Complete

of 1.00
Exogenous factors irritating to the skin
Oral antibiotics
Injectable antibiotics
Inhalation of aerosols
Question 4 Histopathology in acute irritant contact dermatitis:
Complete

of 1.00
Epidermal cell necrosis, neutrophils, vesiculation, and necrosis
Spongiosis, lymphocytes and eosinophils in the epidermis, and monocyte and histiocyte infiltration in the
dermis
Acanthosis, hyperkeratosis, lymphocytic infiltrate
Question 5 A boy of 7 years complains of feeling unwell, pain on swallowing, painful rashes on the lips and in the mouth,
Complete itchy rash on the face and body, which appeared three days after receiving Analgin because of acute otitis.
Mark 1.00 out Objectively: the general state of the child is severe; body temperature is 38.6 °C. On the skin of the lips and
of 1.00 oral mucosa, there are common erosions with massive hemorrhagic crusts. On the face and body – multiple
erythematous spots and edematous papules with deep bluish center, on the surface of which there are
vesicles and blisters; the elements tend to be drained. Nickolsky's sign is negative. What kind of emergency
prehospital care should be provided to the child:
Select one:
To prescribe antihistamine drugs, canceling all other drugs
To prescribe corticosteroid ointments, canceling all other drugs
To prescribe corticosteroids orally, canceling all other drugs

To prescribe corticosteroids parenterally, canceling all other drugs
Question 6 How does toxicoderma caused sulfanilamide drugs:

Complete

of 1.00
Fixed eruption
Annular erythema
Erythema nodosum
Erythema multiforme exudative
Question 7 What are the primary morphological elements that are not found in allergic contact dermatitis:
Complete

of 1.00
Papules, vesicles
Papules, vesicles, wheals

Papules, wheals, erythema
Papules, nodules, wheals, pustulas
Question 8 Specify the method of penetration of the allergen in allergic contact dermatitis in the patient's body:
Complete

of 1.00
Inhalation
Transfusion
Transcutaneous
Orally
Question 9 Select the stages of simple contact dermatitis:
Complete

of 1.00
Erythematous, vesiculobullous, necrotization
Swelling, multiple sclerosis, atrophy
Erythematous, hyperkeratotic-infiltrative, atrophic
Progressive, regressing, stationary
Question 10 Fixed erythema is not characterized by:

Complete

of 1.00
Localization on the skin, genital and oral mucosa
Occurrence as a result of taking sulfonamides, antibiotics etc.
Rash of several red spots 2-5 cm in diameter
Occurrence due to exposure to obligate irritants
Question 11 Lyell's syndrome is characterized by:

Complete

of 1.00
Meshcherskiy-Besnier's symptom
Nikolsky's symptom
Auspitz triad
Isomorphic Koebner response
Question 12 Select a positive symptom of the syndrome of Lyell:

Complete

of 1.00
"Stearin spot"
Gorchakov-Hardy
"Terminal film"
Nikolsky
Question 13 Which of the following form is not characteristic for eczema:

Complete

of 1.00
Microbial
Herpetiformal
Occupational
Idiopathic
Question 14 Characteristic feature of simple contact dermatitis is:
Complete

of 1.00
Occurrence only in sensitized patients
Fuzzy boundaries of the lesion
Clear boundaries of the lesion
Occurrence in 12-74 hour after exposure to a certain factor
Question 15 What is characteristic simple contact dermatitis:

Complete

of 1.00
Develops under the influence of the stimulus, he entered through the
Developed after dermal contact with an irritant
respiratory tract
Acute inflammation of the mucous membranes
Acute inflammation of the skin
Question 16 2-years old female patient consulted the dermatologist complaining of some rash on the skin of neck and
Complete chest, accompanied by itching. Rash appeared after taking aspirin and kept on the skin for about two hours
Mark 1.00 out and then without any action gradually disappeared appearing at new areas. Objectively, there are multiple
of 1.00 palm-sized urticaria elements. The patient has red dermographism; eosinophilia is revealed in the blood.
What kind of skin disease can be thought of in this case:
Select one:
Eczema
Urticaria
Simple contact dermatitis
Allergic dermatitis
Question 17 The most common form of occupational skin diseases is:

Complete

of 1.00
Allergic contact dermatitis
Irritant contact dermatitis
Atopic dermatitis
Nummular eczema
Question 18 Everything mentioned below is specific to allergic contact dermatitis, except:

Complete

of 1.00
Margins of lesions are sharp
ACD is due to reexposure to a substance to which the individual is sensitized
Sensibilization
Margination of lesions spreads in the periphery beyond the actual site of exposure
Question 19 Female patient, 37 years old, employed as a manipulative nurse, complains of feeling unwell, weakness,
Complete headache, muscle and joint pain and skin rash, accompanied by severe pain and burning sensation. Some
Mark 1.00 out rash appeared two days after receiving ampicillin because of sore throat. Objectively: general condition of the
of 1.00 patient is severe; body temperature is 39.2 °C. The entire skin is bloodshot. On the trunk and extremities,
there are multiple bullous elements, erosion, fragments of epidermis observed. The skin is painful on
palpation. Nikolsky's sign is positive. What kind of emergency pre-hospital care should not be provided to the
child:
Select one:
To prescribe enterosorbents
Stop taking ampicillin
To prescribe corticosteroids parenterally
To refer the patient to the intensive care unit for further treatment
Question 20 For the treatment of toxicoderma use drugs:

Complete

of 1.00
Antihistamines
Antibacterial
Antimycotic
Antiparasitic
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/ 7. Bullous dermatoses. Clinical course, diagnosis, differential diagnosis, confirmation of diagnosis and treatment. Skin tuberculosis.
Clinical course, diagnosis, differential diagnosis, confirmation of diagnosis and treatment. Determination of quality o
/ Test 1
Started on Friday, 12 November 2021, 9:30 AM

State Finished
Completed on Friday, 12 November 2021, 9:45 AM
Marks 2.85/3.00
Grade 4.75 out of 5.00 (95%)
Question 1 What are the main pathohistological changes in pemphigus vulgaris?

Complete

of 0.15
a. Hyperkeratosis
b. Parakeratosis
c. Acantholysis
d. Acanthosis
e. Spongiosis
Question 2 Acantholysis is:

Complete

of 0.15
a. Growth of the granular layer
b. Violation of the process of keratinization and preservation of nuclei in the cells of the stratum
corneum
c. Melting of intercellular connections in the spinous layer
d. Thickening of the stratum corneum
e. Degenerative changes in the spinous layer
Question 3 Which is other name of leprosy?

Complete

of 0.15
a. Hensen's disease
b. Lella's disease
c. Giems's disease
Question 4 Which pathogen causes leprosy?
Complete

of 0.15
a. Mycobacterium leprae
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. Mycobacterium bovis
d. Mycobacterium africanum
Question 5 Multidrug therapy is given for?

Complete

of 0.15
a. Leprosy
b. Herpetiformis
c. Icthyosis vulgaris
d. Syphilis
Question 6 The most important laboratory tests to confirm the diagnosis of pemphigus vulgaris are
Complete

of 0.15
a. Blood tests for electrolytes
b. Clinical blood test
c. Investigation of smears-imprints on acantholytic cells
d. Investigation of blister contents for eosinophils
e. Sowing the contents of the blister on the flora
Question 7 In which layer of the skin are the blisters in the case of pemphigus vulgaris?
Complete

of 0.15
a. Granular
b. Papillary
c. Basal
d. Corneum
e. Spinosum
Question 8 Lepromin test help in?

Complete

of 0.15
a. In prognosis and classification of leprosy
b. In the diagnosis of leprosy
c. In prognosis
Question 9 In leprosy nerves commonly involved are?
Complete

of 0.15
a. High radial, low median
b. High median, low ulnar
c. High ulnar, low median
d. Triple nerve palsy
Question 10 In the study of Tzank material is stained by the method:

Complete

of 0.15
a. Tiel-Nielsen
b. Romanovsky-Gimse
c. Burry
d. Morozov
e. Gram
Question 11 All lesions are seen in leprosy except?

Complete

of 0.15
a. Hypopigmented patch
b. Erythematous macule
c. Vesicles
d. Flat and raised patches
Question 12 Specify the primary morphological element typical of pemphigus vulgaris:

Complete

of 0.15
a. Microvesicle
b. Papule
c. Bullae
d. Urtica
e. Pustula
Question 13 Indicate the most important diagnostic symptom to confirm the diagnosis of pemphigus:
Complete

of 0.15
a. Nikolsky's symptom
b. Isomorphic reaction
c. Mantoux reaction
d. The Kebner phenomenon
e. Balzer's test
Question 14 The first sensation to be lost in leprosy is?

Complete

of 0.15
a. None
b. Temperature
c. Pain
d. Both at the same time
Question 15 Skin biopsy in leprosy is characterised by?

Complete

of 0.15
a. Periappendegeal lymphocytosis
b. Periappendegial bacilli
c. All of the above
d. Perivascular lymphocytosis
Question 16 Average duration of treatment of multibacillary leprosy?

Complete

of 0.15
a. 3 year
b. 2 year
c. 1 year
d. Life long
Question 17 The most effective drug against M.leprae is ?

Complete

of 0.15
a. Dapsone
b. Clofazimine
c. Rifampicin
d. Prothionamide
Question 18 Acantholytic cells by the method of Tzank detected by the study:
Complete

of 0.15
a. Fluorescent
b. Histological
c. Bacteriological
d. Cytological
e. Serological
Question 19 The most characteristic morphological elements for Duhring's herpetiform dermatosis are:
Complete

of 0.15
a. Bullae
b. Papules
c. Erythematous macules
d. All of the above is true
e. Vesicles
Question 20 Bullae in the case of true vesicles are placed:

Complete

of 0.15
a. Subhypodermal
b. Subcorneally
c. Subdermally
d. Intraepidermal
e. Subepidermal
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/ 8. Leprosy. Clinical course, diagnosis, differential diagnosis, confirmation of diagnosis and treatment. Viral diseases of the skin and
mucous membranes. Clinical course, diagnosis, differential diagnosis, treatment. Principles of cosmetic skin care
/ Test to control the FINAL LEVEL OF KNOWLEDGE
Started on Friday, 12 November 2021, 9:55 AM

State Finished
Completed on Friday, 12 November 2021, 10:11 AM
Question 1 All are true regarding lepromatous leprosy except

Complete
Marked out of Select one:

0.25
a. presence of granulomas sub dermally
b. presence of globi
c. decreased cell mediated immunity
d. subepidermal free zone
Question 2 In the case of localization of rashes with pemphigus vulgaris on the oral mucosa, histopathological changes
Complete (acantholysis) occur in:
Marked out of
0.25 Select one:
a. Spiny layer
b. The granular layer
c. Actually the mucous plate
d. Basal layer
e. Submucosal layer
Question 3 Acantholytic cells by the method of Tzank found in:

Complete

0.25
a. Smear-imprint
b. Histological preparation
c. Blood tests
d. Native culture
e. Serological examination
Question 4 A 27 year old patient was diagnosed to have borderline leprosy and started on Multibacillary multi-drug
Complete therapy. Six weeks later, he developed pain in the nerves and redness and swelling of the skin lesions. The
Marked out of management of his illness should include all of the following except?
0.25
Select one:
a. Rest to the limbs affected
b. Stop anti-leprosy drugs
c. Systemic corticosteroids
d. Analgesics
Question 5 Bullae in the case of Duhring's dermatitis are placed:

Complete

0.25
a. Subcorneally
b. Subepidermal
c. Intraepidermal
d. Subhypodermal
e. Subdermally
Question 6 The main cytokine involved in ENL (Erythema Nodosum Leprosum) reaction is?
Complete

0.25
a. Ifn-Gamma
b. Mcsf
c. Il-2
d. Tnf-Alpha
Question 7 Best method of treatment of ulnar nerve abscess in case of leprosy is?
Complete

0.25
a. High doses of steroid
b. Incision and drainage
c. Thalidomide
d. High dose of clofazimine
Question 8 Following test is not used for diagnosis of leprosy

Complete

0.25
a. fine needle aspiration cytology
b. slit skin smear
c. lepromin test
d. skin biopsy
Question 9 To confirm the diagnosis of Duhring's herpetiform dermatitis it is necessary to conduct a skin test to
Complete determine hypersensitivity to:
Marked out of
0.25 Select one:
a. Sulfanilamides
b. Bromide
c. Antibiotics
d. Novocaine
e. Iodides
Question 10 All of the following are true of tuberculoid leprosy except

Complete

0.25
a. Treatment for 5 years
b. Positive lepromin test
c. Body immunity is high
d. It’s infective
Question 11 Antileprotic drug also used in lepra reaction is?

Complete

0.25
a. Clofazimine
b. Ciprofloxacin
c. Dapsone
d. Rifampicin
Question 12 The following test is not used for diagnosis of leprosy?

Complete

0.25
a. Slit skin smear
b. Fnac
c. Lepromin test
d. Skin biopsy
Question 13 The following drug is not used for the treatment of type II lepra reaction (ENL)?
Complete

0.25
a. Cyclosporine
b. Corticosteroids
c. Chloroquine
d. Thalidomide
Question 14 Inverted saucer shaped lesion is found in?
Complete

0.25
a. Lepromatous leprosy
b. Borderline leprosy
c. Tuberculoid leprosy
d. Indeterminate leprosy
Question 15 An 8-year old boy from Bihar presents with a 6 month history of an ill defined hypopigmented slightly
Complete atrophic macule on the face. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Marked out of
0.25 Select one:
a. Calcium deficiency
b. Ptyriasis alba
c. Indeterminate leprosy
d. Morphacea
Question 16 A 16 year old student reported for the evaluation of multiple hypopigmented macules on the trunk and limbs.
Complete All of the following tests are useful in making a diagnosis of leprosy except?
Marked out of
0.25 Select one:
a. Skin biopsy
b. Sensation testing
c. Slit smears
d. Lepromin test
Question 17 Lepromin test is positive in which leprosy?

Complete

0.25
a. Indeterminate
b. Lepromatous
c. Tuberculoid
d. Histoid
Question 18 The most typical localization of rashes in pemphigus vulgaris:

Complete

0.25
a. Face
b. Elbows and knees
c. The scalp
d. Palms and soles
e. The mucous membrane of the oral cavity

Question 19 At what bullous dermatosis at patients hypersensitivity to gluten is quite often observed?
Complete

0.25
a. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
b. Duhring's dermatitis
c. Seborrheic pemphigus
d. Pemphigus vulgaris
e. Exfoliative pemphigus
Question 20 What are the characteristics of Duhring's herpetiform dermatitis?

Complete

0.25
a. Frequent lesions of the mucous membranes
b. No itching
c. Monomorphism of rashes
d. Recurrent course
e. Positive symptom of Nikolsky
Methodological recommendations
◀︎ Methodological recommendations Jump to...
▶︎
1. The skin consists of the following layers: A.
Basal, spinosum, granular, lucidum, corneum
B. Basal, spinosum, granular, corneum
C. Epidermis, dermis, hypodermis
D. Epidermis, dermis
E. Papillary, reticular
2. The skin appendages include:

A. Sweat and sebaceous glands
B. Nails, hair
C. Blood and lymphatic vessels, nerve endings
D. Nails, hair, sweat and sebaceous glands
E. Hair follicles
3. Terminal hair from root to outer end is formed from:

A. 1 layer
B. 1-2 layers
C. 5 layers D. 3 layers
E. 4 layers
4. Sebaceous glands produce a secret:

A. Sebum
B. Slime
C. Sweat
D. Milk
E. Tears
5. By the nature of the secretion of sweat glands are: A. Holocrine

glands
B. Holocrine and apocrine glands
C. Eccrine and apocrine glands
D. Apocrine glands
E. Eccrine glands
6. The circulatory system of the skin forms:

A. Superficial and deep plexus
B. Superficial plexus
B. Deep plexus
10. Skin functions:
A. Protective
B. Thermoregulation
C. Excretory
D. Sensory
Standards of answers: 1 -C . 2 D. 3 D. 4 C. 6 E. 8
C. 10 E.
1. The symptom characteristic of scabies is:
A. Gorchakov-Ardi
B. Nikolsky
C. Jadasson
D. Kerion-Celsus
2. Balzer's test has valuable diagnostic value at:

A. pityriasis versicolor
B. psoriasis
C. epidermophytia
D. rubromycosis
E. lichen ruber planus
3. The main elements of the skin's immune system are:

A. Langerhans cells
B. T-Lymphocytes
C. Keratinocytes
D. Merkel cells
E. Vater-Pacini corpuscle
4. The nerve endings include: A. Merkel

cells.
B. Greenstein cells.
C. Meissner corpuscle.
D. Langerhans cells.
E. Kupffer cells
5. Kebner's phenomenon:
6. What is the main diagnosis of tuberculosis of the skin?

A. clinical features , course
B. the presence of tuberculosis of the internal organs
C. Mantoux test
D. data of pathohistological research
A. elements of dermatosis are placed linearly at the sites of
excoriation
B. erosion of the oral mucosa
C. all the answers are correct
E. detection of Mycobacterium tuberculosis by PCR
F. all listed.
7. To diagnose demodicosis use:

A. microscopic analysis
B. immunofluorescent diagnosis
C. DNA diagnostics
D. microscopy in the dark field of view.
8. Which of the following is not a morphological element?

A. erythema
B. papule
C. roseola
D. urticaria
E. wetting
9. The symptom of "thimble" is characteristic of:

A. red flat herpes
B. syphilis
C. psoriasis
D. all the answers are correct
10. What is the name of the diagnostic method that allows to

determine the nature of peeling and the density of adhesion of the
scales to the skin surface?
A. dermographism
B. diascopy
C. grattage
D. isomorphic reaction
E. iodine test
Standards of answers: 1- - - - - -F. 7- -E. 9-C. 10-

C
1. The primary cavity elements of the rash include:
A. Pustula
B. Papula
C. Macula
D. Nodule
E. Erosion
2. Limited skin discoloration is called:

A. Papules
B. Pustula
C. Vesicle
D. Macula
E. Erosion
3. The primary cavity-free elements of the rash include:

A. Papules
B. Macula
C. Nodule
D. Tuberculum
4. Clinical evaluation of the elements of skin rash involves all of the

above, except:
A. Determination of the nature of the rash (inflammatory or
noninflammatory)
B. Prevalence of the process
C. Localization
D. Definition of morphological elements
E. Determination of skin vascular reactions
5. Lichenification is characterized by:

A. Sealing and thickening of the skin
B. Pigmentation
C. Enhanced skin pattern
D. All of the above
E. All of the above, except for pigmentation
6. The primary morphological element characteristic of shingles is:

A. Spot
B. Papule and tuberculum
C. Vesicle and bullae
D. Bullae
7. Ointments are prescribed:

A. To insulate the skin from the effects of chemical, mechanical
injuries, friction
B. As emollients
C. As conductors of medicinal substances
D. As those that cleanse the skin of secondary layers
8. A comprehensive clinical examination of the skin includes all of the

above, except A. Grattage (scraping)
B. Palpation
C. Diascopy
D. Measurement of electrical resistance of the skin
E. Measurement of skin temperature
9. Specify the difference between a tuberculum and a papule:

A. Smooth surface
B. Dense consistency
C. The presence of a purulent cavity
D. Scar formation after reverse development
E. Elevation above the level of the skin
10. Inflammatory spot of large size is called:
A. Erythema
B. Hemorrhage
C. Roseola
D. Purpura
E. Leukoderma
Standards of answers1- -D, 3-E, 4-E, 5-D, 6-C. 7-E, 8-D, 9-D, 10-
1. Cavity primary elements are:

A. Urticarial element
B. Vesicle
C. Papule
D. Nodule
E. Tuberculum
2. True polymorphism is:

A. The presence of one variety of primary elements
B. The presence of various primary elements
C. The tendency of elements to merge
D. The presence of various secondary elements
E. The tendency of elements to peripheral growth
3. Ulcer is:
A. Skin defect within the epidermis
B. Skin changes in the case of massive infiltration of its papillary layer
C. The consequence of the growth of the papillary layer of the
dermis with the simultaneous thickening of the spiny layer of the
epidermis
D. Defect of the skin or subcutaneous tissue
4. Hyperkeratosis is:
A. Thickening of the stratum corneum
B. Disruption of the connection between the cells of the spiny layer
C. Acute swelling of the papillae of the dermis
D. Increasing the number of cells in the granular layer
5. Vacuol dystrophy is:

A. Disruption of the connection between desmosomes
B. Infiltrate in the superficial parts of the dermis
C. Skin defect within the dermis
D. Accumulation of fluid in the cells of the basal and prickly layers
6. In place of the vesicle, the tire of which collapsed, is formed:

A. Scar
B. Ulcer
C. Excoriation D. Erosion
E. Excoriation
7. Name the morphological basis of the tubercle:

A. Acanthosis
B. Perivascular infiltration
C. Vacuol dystrophy
D. Infectious granuloma
E. Papillomatosis
8. The patient was consulted by a patient with complaints of bright

pink, swollen elements, intense itching. 2-3 hours after the
appearance of the elements regress without a trace. Name them:
A. Tubercle
B. Nodule
C. Urticarial element
D. Bullae
E. Vesicle
9. Name the clinical differences between tubercle and papule:

A. Flat shape
B. Dimensions with lentils
C. Ulceration with scarring
D. Soft texture
E. Bluish color
10. Specify the mechanism of formation of intra-epidermal blister:

A. Acantholysis
B. Ballooning dystrophy
C. Vacuol dystrophy
D. Spongiosis
E. Exocytosis
Standards of answers: 1-B, 2-B, 3-D, 4- -D, 6-D, 7-D, 8-C, 9-C, 10-
1. Which of these nosologies are dermatozoonoses?

A. Sycosis
B. Scabies
C. Genital warts D. Molluscum contagiosum
E. Favus.
2. There are the following clinical forms of scabies:

A. Typical
B. Nervous
C. Professional
D. Seborrheic
E. Allergic
3. What elements are considered objective signs of scabies?

A. Tuberculum
B. Nodule
C. Scabetic burrow
D. Papule
E. Crust
4. What causes scabies?

A. Pityrosporum orbiculare
B. Pediculi pubis
C. Microsporum canis
D. Sarcoptes hominis
5. What is the life expectancy of a female scabies mite?

A. 1 day
B. 1 week
C. 8 weeks
D. Six months
E. 1 year
6. What topical treatment are used to treat scabies?

A. Antibacterial ointments
B. Antifungal ointments
C. Antiparasitic ointments
D. Corticosteroid ointments
E. Keratoplastic ointments

furunculosis? A. Pediculus pubis
C. Staphylococcus
D. Streptococcus

hydradenitis? A. Pediculus pubis
C. Staphylococcus
D. Streptococcus
9. For streptococcal impetigo is characterized by all of the above,
except:
A. Appearances of phlycten on the skin
B. Yellow crusts
C. Rapid spread
D. Inflammatory nodes
E. Inflammatory rim around the phlycten
10. Purulent inflammation of the apocrine glands is observed in:

A. Furunculosis;
B. Sycosis vulgaris
C. Ecthyma vulgaris
D. Hydradenitis
E. Finger's pseudofurunculosis
Standards of answers: 1 - B. 2 D. 4 D. 5 C. 6 C. 7 C. 8
C. 9 D. 10 D.
1. The most typical terms of the incubation period of scabies:

A. 2-5 days
B. 7-10 days
C. 40-50 days
D. More than two months
E. Half a year
2. The rate of scabies generalization depends on all these factors,

except:
A. The number of mites that got on the skin at the time of infection
B. Sexual and age characteristics of the skin
C. Level of itchiness
D. Hygienic skills
E. The state of immunity
3. Scabies is characterized by:

A. Lenticular papules
B. Hemorrhage
C. Dotted itchy vesicles and papules
D. Urticaria
E. Polygonal papules
4. Indicate the location of typical localization of scabies in adults?

A. The scalp
B. Face and neck
C. Spina
D. Palms and soles
E. Interdigital folds of the hands
5. What is the most common complication of scabies?

A. Secondary pyoderma
B. Sepsis
C. Cicatricial atrophy of the skin
D. Phlegmon
E. All of the above
6. In what forms of pyoderma phlycten is the main element of the rash?

A. Vulgar sycosis
B. Hydradenitis
C. Furunculosis
D. Vulgar impetigo
E. Osteofolliculitis
7. Which of the following applies to superficial streptoderma?

A. Vulgar sycosis
B. Furuncle
C. Hydradenitis
D. Carbuncle
E. None of the above
8. The patient complains of general malaise, headache, painful

swelling on the back of the neck, which is a dense, painful coneshaped
node, in the center - a necrotic rod. The skin around him is swollen,
infiltrated, red, hot to the touch. Your diagnosis.
A. Furuncle
B. Gummous syphilis
C. Colliquative tuberculosis
D. Hydradenitis
E. Carbuncle
9. In case of furunculosis obligatory examination includes:

A. Blood sugar level
B. Blood for bilirubin
C. Urine for creatinine
D. Feces for helminths
E. All of the above
10. The patient, 25 years old, complains of rashes in the interdigital

folds, in the area of the wrists, genitals, abdomen, which are
accompanied by severe itching, especially at night. Objectively: on the
background of unaffected skin, multiple rashes are represented by
papular and papulovesicular rashes in pairs, and excoriations. The
back is free from rashes. Your diagnosis:
A. Scabies
B. Herpes
C. Eczema
D. Neurodermatitis
E. Epidermophytia
Standards of answers: 1-B. 2-B. 3-C. 4-E. 5- -D. 7-E. 8- - -

B. Form of rash


A. Granulosis;
D. Acanthosis
D. Common psoriasis

A. Winter
B. Mixed
C. Early
D. Congenital
E. Autumn

A. Annular form
D. Bullous form
E. Atrophic form

E. Erythroderma

planus?
A. Psoriasis
B. Dermatomycosis
D. Toxicoderma


A. No itching
extremities
E. Bright pink rash

psoriasis:

B. Balneotherapy
C. PUVA - therapy
B. 9 D. 10 E.



D. Dermovate

B. On the periphery of the papules -

A. Around the elements -

process?
E. genital mucosa

A. psoriatic triad
psoriasis?

A. yellow-red color
C. oval shape
E. shiny surface

A. seborrheic
B. leaf-like
C. exudative
D. vulgar
E. rupee

B. Form of rash


A. Granulosis;
D. Acanthosis

D. Common psoriasis

A. Winter
B. Mixed
C. Early
D. Congenital
E. Autumn

A. Annular form
D. Bullous form
E. Atrophic form

E. Erythroderma

planus?
A. Psoriasis
B. Dermatomycosis
D. Toxicoderma


A. No itching
extremities
E. Bright pink rash

psoriasis:

B. Balneotherapy
C. PUVA - therapy
B. 9 D. 10 E.

D. Dermovate

B. On the periphery of the papules -

A. Around the elements -

process?
E. genital mucosa

A. psoriatic triad

psoriasis?

A. yellow-red color
C. oval shape
E. shiny surface

A. seborrheic
B. leaf-like
C. exudative
D. vulgar
E. rupee

A. Microsporia
D. Candidiasis
E. Rubrophytia

3. What elements of the rash are characteristic of Pytiriasis versicolor?
A. Papule
B. Macule
C. Nodule
D. Vesicle
E. Pustule

E. Candida albicans
F. Trich. rubrum

candidiasis are:
pneumonia

(kerion)?
A. Trich. violaceum
D. Trich.verrucosum
E. Trich. rubrum

D. Candida albicans
E. Trich. rubrum
8. Indicate the most important clinical sign of microsporia of the scalp.
A. Scales
B. Hyperemia
D. Broken hairs
E. Crusts

in a dose of:
A. 22 mg per day

D. Trich.verrucosum
E. Trich. rubrum
D. 9 D. 10
1. With what diseases most often have to differentiate the

microspores of the scalp? A. Pityriasis versicolor
C. Pityriasis rosea
D. Alopecia areata
2. What are the clinical symptoms characteristic of

infiltrativesuppurative trichophytia of the scalp?
A. Intoxication
B. Lymphadenitis

trichomycoses: A. Histological
B. Microscopic
C. Bacteriological

A. Blood

A. Intertriginous
B. Onychomycosis
C. Dyshydrotic

A. Microsporia
D. Candidiasis
E. Rubrophytia

A. Griseofulvin
C. Tetracycline
D. Nystatin
E. Prednisolone

of the scalp:
potassium iodide ointment. E. Brock's rehearsal.

versicolor ": A. Diascopy. B. The Auspices trial.
B. Balzer's test.
G. Yadason's test.
D. Thompson's test.
10. Choose a drug that is used to treat tinea pedis: A.

Flucinar.
B. Mycoseptin.
G. Sinaflan.
D. Elocom.

2. It is not observed in allergic contact dermatitis: A. Rash on the place

of influence of a certain factor

contact dermatitis:
B. Antihistamines
D. Vitamins
E. Photosensitizers

A. Acute onset
B. Symmetry of rash
C. Polymorphic rash


toxicodermatosis:
A. Enterosorbents
B. Photosensitizers

B. Auspitz triad
A. Idiopathic
B. Microbial
C. Herpetiformal
D. Occupational
E. Seborrheal

criteria for assessment of the severity of atopic dermatitis:
A. Skin itch

A. Vesicle B. Bulla
C. Macule
D. Blister
E. Knot

D.

B. Reflexotherapy
C. Acyclovir
D. Mineral oil
dermatitis, except:
A. Sensibilization
individual is sensitized D. Margins of lesions are
sharp

necrosis

D. Nummular eczema
E. Toxidermia

B. Vesiculation
6. The plumber came to the doctor complaining of redness, burning

sensation, pain in the right forearm. Some rash appeared in 10-
15 minutes after contact with hot pipes. Objectively: on the skin
of the right forearm extensor surface there is a severe focus with
clear boundaries of 3x6 cm; there is skin hyperemia in the focus,
some individual bullous elements with clear content. Make a
diagnosis:
C. Eczema

complaining of some rash on the skin of neck and chest,
accompanied by itching. Rash appeared after taking aspirin and
kept on the skin for about two hours and then without any action
gradually disappeared appearing at new areas. Objectively,
there are multiple palm-sized urticaria elements. The patient has
red dermographism; eosinophilia is revealed in the blood. What
kind of skin disease can be thought of in this case:
A. Urticaria
C. Eczema

painful rashes on the lips and in the mouth, itchy rash on the face
and body, which appeared three days after receiving Analgin
because of acute otitis. Objectively: the general state of the child
is severe; body temperature is 38.6 °C. On the skin of the lips and
oral mucosa, there are common erosions with massive
hemorrhagic crusts. On the face and body multiple
erythematous spots and edematous papules with deep bluish
center, on the surface of which there are vesicles and blisters;
the elements tend to be drained. Nickolsky's sign is negative.
What kind of emergency prehospital care should be provided to
the child:
A. To prescribe corticosteroids orally, canceling all other drugs B.
To prescribe corticosteroids parenterally, canceling all other
drugs
drugs
complains of feeling unwell, weakness, headache, muscle and
joint pain and skin rash, accompanied by severe pain and
burning sensation. Some rash appeared two days after receiving
ampicillin because of sore throat. Objectively: general condition
of the patient is severe; body temperature is 39.2 °C. The entire
skin is bloodshot. On the trunk and extremities, there are
multiple bullous elements, erosion, fragments of epidermis
observed. The skin is painful on palpation. Nikolsky's sign is
positive. What kind of emergency prehospital care should not be
provided to the child:
treatment
allergist
10. 34 years old woman consulted the dermatologist about the skin
lesions of hands and lower third of the forearm as a significant
swelling, redness, vesiculation. Got ill one week ago. The disease
appeared after use of 'Lotus' washing powder. In the past, the
patient has no skin diseases. What is the most likely diagnosis in
this patient:
D. Toxicodermatosis
E. Microbial eczema
B, 9 A, 10 A
1. What are the main pathohistological changes in pemphigus vulgaris?
A. Spongiosis
B. Acanthosis
C. Acantholysis
D. Hyperkeratosis
E. Parakeratosis

E. Investigation of blister contents for eosinophil s

diagnosis of pemphigus: A. The Kebner phenomenon
C. Balzer's test
D. Mantoux reaction

B. Papules
C. Bullae
D. Vesicles
vulgaris? A. Papillary
B. Basal
C. Spinosum
D. Granular
E. Corneum
A. Histological
A. Native culture
C. Smear-imprint
D. Blood tests

B. Spiny layer
C. Basal layer
E. Submucosal layer

A. The scalp
B. Face
D. Elbows and knees
E. Palms and soles

A. Sulfanilamides
B. Antibiotics
C. Novocaine
D. Iodides
E. Bromide
A. Recurrent course
C. No itching

A. Subcorneally
B. Intraepidermal
C. Subepidermal
D. Subdermally
E. Subhypodermal

quite often observed? A. Pemphigus vulgaris

A. Pain
B. Itching
E. Paresthesia

A. Penicillin
B. Sulfadimethoxine
C. Ftivazid
D. Prednisolone
E. Delagil

used: A. Antibiotics B. Vitamins
C. Antihistamines
A. Microsporia
D. Candidiasis
E. Rubrophytia
D.

versicolor? A. Papule
B. Macule
C. Nodule
D. Vesicle
E. Pustule
A. Trich. Mentagrophytes
E. Candida albicans
F. Trich. Rubrum

candidiasis are:
A. Chronic recurrent acute respiratory viral infections,

bronchitis, pneumonia

(kerion)?
A. Trich. Violaceum
D. Trich.verrucosum
E. Trich. Rubrum
A. Trich. Mentagrophytes
D. Candida albicans
E. Trich. Rubrum

scalp. A. Scales
C. Hyperemia
D. Focal nature of the lesion
E. Broken hairs
F. Crusts
9. In the treatment of microsporia of the scalp griseofulvin
prescribed in a dose of:
A. 22 mg per day
A. Trich. Mentagrophytes var. interdigital
D. Trich.verrucosum
E. Trich. Rubrum
Standards of answers: 1 C. 2 E. 3 B. 4 C. 5 E. 6 D. 7 B. 8
E. 9 D. 10
1. With what diseases most often have to differentiate the
microspores of the scalp?
C. Pityriasis rosea
D. Alopecia areata
2. What are the clinical symptoms characteristic of

infiltrativesuppurative trichophytia of the scalp?
A. Intoxication
B. Lymphadenitis

trichomycoses: A. Histological
C. Microscopic
D. Bacteriological
A. Blood
5. What clinical varieties belong to the mycosis of the feet caused

by
Trich. Mentagrophytes var. interdigetale
A. Intertriginous
B. Onychomycosis
C. Dyshydrotic
6. For which disease is the pathognomonic symptom
A. Microsporia
D. Candidiasis
E. Rubrophytia
A. Griseofulvin
C. Tetracycline
D. Nystatin
E. Prednisolone
8. Specify a diagnostic test that confirms the diagnosis of

microsporia of the scalp:
A.
B. In smears acantholytic cells.
9.
C. The Auspices trial.
C.
F.
D.
10. Choose a drug that is used to treat tinea pedis: A. Flucinar.
B. Mycoseptin.
G. Sinaflan. D. Elocom.
2. It is not observed in allergic contact dermatitis: A. Rash on the place

of influence of a certain factor

D. Occurrence in sensitized patients
E. Subacute onset and course
F. Possible recurrence after re-exposure to the allergen

contact dermatitis:
B. Antihistamines
D. Vitamins
E. Photosensitizers
A. Acute onset
B. Symmetry of rash
C. Polymorphic rash


toxicodermatosis:
A. Enterosorbents
B. Photosensitizers
7.
B. Auspitz triad
C.
D. Meshcherskiy-
E.
A. Idiopathic
B. Microbial
C. Herpetiformal
D. Occupational
E. Seborrheal
Criteria for assessment of the severity of atopic dermatitis:
A. Skin itch

extremities, in older children and adults lichenification on

A. Vesicle B. Bulla
B. Macule
C. Blister
D. Knot

D.

B. Reflexotherapy
C. Acyclovir
D. Mineral oil

dermatitis, except:
A. Sensibilization

Individual is sensitized D. Margins of lesions are sharp
D. Polymorphism of skin eruption

necrosis



D. Nummular eczema
E. Toxidermia
B. Vesiculation
6. The plumber came to the doctor complaining of redness, burning

sensation, pain in the right forearm. Some rash appeared in 10-15
minutes after contact with hot pipes. Objectively: on the skin of the
right forearm extensor surface there is a severe focus with clear
C. Eczema


complaining of some rash on the skin of neck and chest,
accompanied by itching. Rash appeared after taking aspirin and
kept on the skin for about two hours and then without any action
gradually disappeared appearing at new areas. Objectively, there
are multiple palm-sized urticaria elements. The patient has red
dermographism; eosinophilia is revealed in the blood. What kind of
skin disease can be thought of in this case:
A. Urticaria
C. Eczema

painful rashes on the lips and in the mouth, itchy rash on the face
and body, which appeared three days after receiving Analgin
because of acute otitis. Objectively: the general state of the child is
severe; body temperature is 38.6 °C. On the skin of the lips and oral
mucosa, there are common erosions with massive hemorrhagic
crusts. On the face and body multiple erythematous spots and
edematous papules with deep bluish center, on the surface of which
there are vesicles and blisters; the elements tend to be drained.
care should be provided to the child:

B. To prescribe corticosteroids parenterally, canceling all
other drugs
B. To prescribe corticosteroid ointments, canceling all other

drugs
C. To prescribe antihistamine drugs, canceling all other drugs
D. To prescribe purgatives, canceling all other drugs

because of sore throat. Objectively: general condition of the patient
is severe; body temperature is 39.2 °C. The entire skin is bloodshot.
On the trunk and extremities, there are multiple bullous elements,
prehospital care should not be provided to the child:

treatment

allergist
10. 34 years old woman consulted the dermatologist about the skin
lesions of hands and lower third of the forearm as a significant
swelling, redness, vesiculation. Got ill one week ago. The disease
patient has no skin diseases. What is the most likely diagnosis in

this patient:
D. Toxicodermatosis
E. Microbial eczema
Standards of answers: 1 E, 2 D, 3 B, 4 B, 5 B, 6 D, 7 A, 8 B,
9 A, 10 A.
B. Form of rash
C. The nature and location of peeling
D. Subjective feelings
A. Granulosis;
D. Acanthosis
D. Common psoriasis
A. Winter
B. Mixed
C. Early
D. Congenital
E. Autumn
A. Annular form
D. Bullous form
E. Atrophic form
C.
E. Erythroderma
7. With what diseases it is necessary to carry out differential diagnosis

at suspicion of existence at the patient of a lichen ruber planus?
A. Psoriasis
B. Dermatomycosis
D. Toxicoderma

A. No itching

extremities
D.
E. Bright pink rash

psoriasis:
B. Balneotherapy
C. PUVA therapy

Standards of answers: 1 F. 2 B. 3 B. 4 F. 6 C. 7
B. 9 D. 10 E.
A.
B. Benier-
C.
E.
A. Lorinden ointment A
D. Dermovate
A. The elements are completely covered with silvery-white

scales
B. On the periphery of the papules

rim)

A. Around the elements

process?
A. Flexion surface of the extremities
B. Extensor surface of the extremities
C. Interdigital spaces
D. Skin around physiological openings
E. Genital mucosa
A. Psoriatic triad
B. The Kebner phenomenon

D.
E.
8. What clinical sign is not characteristic of the progressive stage

of psoriasis?
A. Tendency to merge
B. The presence of a psoriatic triad
C. Silvery-white peeling in the center of the papule
D. The Kebner phenomenon
E. Silvery-white peeling over the entire surface of the papule
A. Yellow-red color
B. Umbilical indentation in the center of the papule
C. Oval shape
D. The surface is covered with white scales
E. Shiny surface
A. Seborrheic
B. Leaf-like
C. Exudative
D. Vulgar
E. Rupee
1. What are the main pathohistological changes in pemphigus vulgaris?
A. Spongiosis
B. Acanthosis
D. Acantholysis
E. Hyperkeratosis
F. Parakeratosis



diagnosis of pemphigus: A. The Kebner phenomenon
B.
D.
E. Mantoux reaction
F. Isomorphic reaction
4.
B. Papules
C. Bullae
D. Vesicles
vulgaris? A. Papillary
B. Basal
D. Spinosum
E. Granular
F. Corneum

A. Histological
A. Gram
B. Tiel-Nielsen
C. Romanovsky-Gimse
D. Burry
E. Morozov
Standards of answers:: 1 C. 2 D. 3 B. 4 E. 5 C. 6 C. 7
B. 10 C.
A. Native culture
C. Smear-imprint
D. Blood tests

B. Spiny layer
C. Basal layer
E. Submucosal layer
A. The scalp
B. Face
D. Elbows and knees
E. Palms and soles
4. dermatitis it is
A. Sulfanilamides
B. Antibiotics
C. Novocaine
D. Iodides
E. Bromide
5.
A. Recurrent course
C. No itching
6.
A. Subcorneally
B. Intraepidermal
C. Subepidermal
D. Subdermally
E. Subhypodermal

quite often observed? A. Pemphigus vulgaris
C.
7. dermatosis, patients complain of:
A. Pain
B. Itching
D.
E. Paresthesia
A. Penicillin
B. Sulfadimethoxine
C. Ftivazid
D. Prednisolone
E. Delagil
9.
used: A. Antibiotics
B. Vitamins
D. Antihistamines
E. Preparations of the sulfone series (DDS)
F. Antimalarial drugs
1. Average duration of treatment of multibacillary leprosy?
A. 1 year
B. 2 year
C. 3 year
D. Life long
2. The most effective drug against M.leprae is ?
A. Dapsone
B. Rifampicin
C. Clofazimine
D. Prothionamide
3. Multidrug therapy is given for?
A. Syphilis
B. Leprosy
C. Herpetiformis
D. Icthyosis vulgaris
4. All lesions are seen in leprosy except?
A. Erythematous macule
B. Hypopigmented patch
C. Vesicles
D. Flat and raised patches
5. Which pathogen causes leprosy? A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Mycobacterium leprae
C. Mycobacterium bovis E. Mycobacterium
africanum
6. Which is other name of leprosy?
A.
B. disease
C.
7. Lepromin test help in? A. In the diagnosis of leprosy
B. In prognosis and classification of leprosy
C. In prognosis
8. The first sensation to be lost in leprosy is?
A. Temperature
B. Pain
C. Both at the same time
D. None
9. In leprosy nerves commonly involved are?
A. High ulnar, low median
B. High median, low ulnar
C. Triple nerve palsy
D. High radial, low median
10. Skin biopsy in leprosy is characterised by?
A. Periappendegial bacilli
B. Periappendegeal lymphocytosis
C. Perivascular lymphocytosis
D. All of the above
Standards of answers: 1 A, 2 B, 3 B, 4- B, 6 B, 8 A, 10
D.
1. An 8-year old boy from Bihar presents with a 6 month history of an

ill defined hypopigmented slightly atrophic macule on the face.
What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Ptyriasis alba
B. Indeterminate leprosy
C. Morphacea
D. Calcium deficiency
2. The following drug is not used for the treatment of type II lepra
reaction (ENL)?
A. Chloroquine
B. Thalidomide
C. Cyclosporine
D. Corticosteroids
3. The main cytokine involved in ENL (Erythema Nodosum

Leprosum) reaction is?
A. Il-2
B. Ifn-Gamma
C. Tnf-Alpha
D. Mcsf
4. The following test is not used for diagnosis of leprosy?
A. Lepromin test
B. Slit skin smear
C. Fnac
D. Skin biopsy
5. A 27 year old patient was diagnosed to have borderline leprosy and
started on Multibacillary multi-drug therapy. Six weeks later, he
developed pain in the nerves and redness and swelling of the skin
lesions. The management of his illness should include all of the
following except?
A. Stop anti-leprosy drugs
B. Systemic corticosteroids
C. Rest to the limbs affected
D. Analgesics
6. Antileprotic drug also used in lepra reaction is ?
A. Rifampicin
B. Dapsone
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Clofazimine
7. Best method of treatment of ulnar nerve abscess in case of leprosy

is?
A. High doses of steroid
B. Incision and drainage
C. Thalidomide
D. High dose of clofazimine

8. Inverted saucer shaped lesion is found in ?
A. Lepromatous leprosy
B. Tuberculoid leprosy
C. Borderline leprosy
D. Indeterminate leprosy
9. Lepromin test is positive in which leprosy?
A. Lepromatous
B. Indeterminate
C. Histoid
D. Tuberculoid
10. A 16 year old student reported for the evaluation of multiple

hypopigmented macules on the trunk and limbs. All of the following
tests are useful in making a diagnosis of leprosy except?
A. Sensation testing
B. Lepromin test
C. Slit smears
D. Skin biopsy
Standards of answers: 1- B, 2 C, 3 C, 4 A, 5 A, 6 D, 7 B, 8 C,
9 D,
10 B
1. What agent causes syphilis?
A. Pediculus corporis
B. Sarcoptes scabiei varietas hominis
C. Demodexfolliculorum
D. Treponema pallidum
E. Staph ilococcus albus
2. Which one of these diseases refers to classic veneral diseases?
A. Genital warts
B. Chancroid
C. Scabies
D. Pediculosis
E. All the above mentioned
3. The complications of hard chancre include:

A. Mortifying
B. Chancre-amygdalitis
C. Large chancre
D. Chancre-felon
E. Indurative edema
4. Name the atypical forms of primary syphiloma:
A. Balanitis, balanoposthitis
B. Phimosis
C. Indurative edema
D. Chancre-amygdalitis
E. All the above mentioned is true
5. Venereal syphilis in the human host is caused by: A. Treponema

pallidum ssp. Endemicum.
B. Treponema pallidum ssp. Pallidum (T. pallidum)
C. Treponema pallidum ssp. Pertenue
E. Treponema carateum
6. The most contagious stage of the syphilis is:
A. Primary syphilis
C. Tertiary syphilis
D. Early latent syphilis
E. Late latent syphilis
7. Incubation period of primary syphilis is usually about:
A. 1-2 hours
B. 1-2 days
C. 1 week
D. 3 weeks
E. 5-6 months
8. Skin lesion in primary syphilis is:

A. Macule
B. Nodule
C. Vesicle
D. Ulcer
E. Wheal
9. Chancre-amygdalitis (specific amygdalitis) is not characterized:
A. The increase and induration of the amygdala without the

formation of erosion and ulcer
B. Absence of pain when swallowing
C. Unilateral affection, the absence of violations of the general

state of the body
D. Unilateral affection of submandibular and cervical lymph

nodes
E. Morbidity and bilateral affection
10. Primary period of syphilis lasts for:
A. 7-8 weeks
B. 14 weeks
C. 3-4 weeks
D. 3-4 months
E. 6 months
Standards of answers: 1 D, 2 E, 3 -D, 5 B, 6 A, 7 D, 8 D, 9
C.
1. A 32-year-old man presents with a 4-day history of painless penile

lesions. His sex partners are men and he has had 2 partners in the
last 6 months. Physical examination reveals 3 non-tender ulcers on
the lateral aspect of the penile shaft and firm lymphadenopathy in
the right inguinal region that is nontender. Oral examination and
skin inspection are normal. He has no neurologic symptoms. A
clinical diagnosis of syphilis is strongly suspected; nontreponemal
and treponemal serologic tests for syphilis are ordered. Based on
the information at this point, how would you clinically stage syphilis
in this man?
A. Primary syphilis
C. Early latent syphilis
D. Late latent syphilis
2. The duration of latency in Latent syphilis is defined by:
A. An information received from a patient
B. A previous negative STS

C. 1 year
D. A previous negative STS 6 months
E. A previous negative STS 1 year
3. Everything A 25-years old female patient complains of swelling of

the right large pudental lip and discomfort. The general condition
data: swelling of the right large pudental lip. It is thick, nonsensitive

on palpation, with a dark-red and clear borders. The righthand
lymphadenitis is present too. Wassermann reaction is negative.
What is a possible diagnosis?
A. Limited elephantiasis
B. Unilateral bartholinitis
C. Indurative edema
D.
E. Cold abscess
4. Patient of the dermato-venereological department with a diagnosis
38.2 °C, malaise, headache, and the maculopapular rash on skin

appeared. How can these symptoms be explained?
A. As allergic reaction
B. As toxic reaction
C. As idiosyncratic reaction
D. As infectious disease
E. As viral disease
5. A 32 years old woman complaining of neck pathology turned to the

otolaryngologist. During examination: unilateral increase of the left
amygdala, which caused no pain when touching to it with a spatula.
The patient can not connect this kind of pathology with anything.
Which is the most probable disease:
A. Bartholinitis
B. Seropositive primary syphilis, chancre-amygdalitis
C. Seronegative primary syphilis, typical hard chancre
D. Seropositive primary syphilis, indurative edema
E. Catarrhal angina
6. A 45-year-old man is screened for syphilis and has a positive

Treponema pallidum-specific enzyme-linked immunoassay (EIA).
The laboratory performs a reflexive Rapid Plasmin Reagin (RPR)
test that is nonreactive. Tests for HIV, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and
Chlamydia trachomatis are negative. He has no medical problems,
takes no medications, and does not use illicit drugs. He has been
sexually active with the same female partner for the past 3 years.
He has no prior history of any sexually transmitted infections, and
has never been tested or treated for syphilis. He is asymptomatic
and the physical examination is normal.
A. What is most appropriate next step in the management of this

man?
B. Repeat both the EIA and the RPR
C. Send an alternative nontreponemal test
D. Send an alternative treponemal test
E. Further work-up at this time
7. A 29-year-old woman is seen in an STD clinic with vaginal discharge

and is diagnosed and treated for chlamydia. Laboratory studies sent
at that time show a positive treponemal enzyme immunoassay
(EIA) and a positive Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL)
test at a titer of 1:16. She has had four male sex partners in past 3
years. She had a negative syphilis VDRL test 5 years ago when she
was pregnant, but has not had any additional syphilis testing until
now. She has never been treated for syphilis and has no past or
current signs or symptoms consistent with syphilis. Her physical
examination is normal and a pregnancy test is negative. She does
not have any antibiotic allergies. What is the best therapy for this
woman?
A. No treatment is necessary
B. Benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units intramuscularly in a single

dose
C. Benzathine penicillin G 7.2 million units total, administered as
2 doses of 2.4 million units IM each at 1-week intervals 3

D. Ceftriaxone 1 g daily either IM for 10 days
8.. A 42-year-old man is diagnosed with primary syphilis based on a
non-painful genital ulcer and positive syphilis serologic tests. He
reports one new male and one female sex partner in the past 90
days. Both partners are contacted and instructed to come to the
clinic for evaluation. The female partner reports sexual contact with
the 42year-old man about 3 weeks ago. She has no symptoms and
says she had negative testing for bacterial sexually transmitted
infections (STIs) and HIV about 6 months ago. She does not have
any antibiotic allergies. What would you recommend for this
woman specifically related to management of her as a syphilis
contact?
A. She does not need further evaluation or treatment at this time since
she is asymptomatic
B. Order serologic tests for syphilis and treat only if the syphilis test is
positive
C. Order serologic tests for syphilis and treat with intramuscular

benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units in a single dose before
results return
D. Because the exposure occurred 3 weeks ago, defer serologic testing

for syphilis for 3 more weeks and treat only if the syphilis test is
positive
9) . A boy A 31-year-old man with HIV who is on antiretroviral therapy

with a CD4 count of 370 cells/mm3 and an HIV RNA level less than
40 copies/mL presents with a painless ulcer in his perirectal area.
He was last tested for sexually transmitted diseases, including
Neisseria gonorrhea, Chlamydia trachomatis, and syphilis 12 weeks
ago and all test results were negative. His repeat laboratory results
on the most recent visit have returned with a positive rectal
gonorrhea nucleic amplification test, a positive treponemal enzyme
immunoassay (EIA), and a positive Rapid Plasmin Reagin (RPR) test
with a titer of 1:128. He has never been previously diagnosed with
or treated for syphilis. He has no neurologic or ocular symptoms.
Treatment for rectal gonorrhea is ordered. What is the
recommended treatment of syphilis in this man with HIV?
A. Amoxicillin 500 mg orally three times a day for 7 days
B. Azithromycin 2 grams orally once
C. Benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units intramuscular in a single

dose
D. Benzathine penicillin G 7.2 million units total, administered as 3

doses of 2.4 million units intramuscular each at 1-week intervals
10) 25-year-old man presents for evaluation of new nontender penile lesion. He
has no other symptoms. He has no medical problems, denies medications or
illicit drugs and has no antibiotic allergies. He reports insertive-only anal
intercourse with multiple male partners and rare condom use. Physical
examination reveals a 1 cm, nontender ulcer on the dorsal surface of his
penis and no other significant findings. Further testing reveals a positive
syphilis enzyme immunoassay (EIA) and a positive Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR)
at a titer of 1:32. He has never been diagnosed with or treated for syphilis in
the past. An HIV test returns negative.
A. What is the appropriate therapy for this man?
B. Amoxicillin 500 mg orally three times a day for 7 days
C. Azithromycin 2 grams orally once
D. Benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units intramuscular in a single

dose
E. Benzathine penicillin G 7.2 million units total, administered as 3

doses of 2.4 million units intramuscular each at 1-week intervals
Standards of answers: 1 A, 2 B, 3 C, 4 B, 5 B, 6 D, 7 C, 8 C,
9 C, 10 D.
1. A specific lesion of secondary syphilis is:
A. Chancres
B. Syphilids
C. Gumma
D. Syphilitic granuloma
E. Ulcers
2. A 22-year-old female patient, single, complains of skin rash on

the trunk and extremities without subjective sensations.
Objective data: the general condition of the patient is
pink symmetrical spots up to 1 cm in diameter without a

tendency to consolidation on the skin of the trunk, upper and
lower extremities. Genital organ examination: a round ulcer
with firm borders, painless, in the stage of epithelization is
found on the skin of the right vulvar lip; moderate
polyadenitis. There is an enlarged (to 1,5 cm) painless and
movable on palpation lymph node in the right inguinal region.
What is the provisional diagnosis for this patient?
B. Primary syphilis
C. Soft chancre
3. A 25-year-old female patient, single, complains of hoarseness,

which appeared without any causes. The patient does not
which healed in 5 weeks without any treatment. Objective

data: the general condition of the patient is satisfactory, the
diameter) pale pink spots, which disappear when one presses

with a slide on the lateral surfaces of the trunk. On the left
vulvar lip there is a fresh scar (of round shape, 0.7 cm in
diameter). An examination of the pharynx showed that the
tonsil mucosa is red with a copper tint. The focus has clear
borders without purulent incrustation. There is a moderate
polyadenitis. What is the provisional diagnosis of this
patient?
C. Soft chancre
E. Erythema nodosum
4. A patient is a 21-year-old pregnant woman. Her syphilis tests

are strong positive. Objective data: condylomata lata in the
perineum region, single grouped maculopapular spots of the
upper trunk, syphilitic leukoderma of the neck. The viscera
and neurologic system are not affected. What stage of syphilis
is observed in this patient?
A. Secondary recurrent syphilis
B. Latent syphilis
C. Primary seropositive syphilis
E. Early secondary syphilis
5. From 2000-2020, what has been the trend in the overall

annual number of cases of syphilis?
A. Increased
B. Decreased
C. Stayed about the same
D. Increased for first 5 years, then steadily decreased

6. A 19-year-old woman presents for a new maculopapular rash
on her trunk, which includes the palms of her hands and soles
of her feet. She has no other medical problems, takes no
medications, and denies illicit drug use. She has never been
tested for sexually transmitted infections (STIs) before. She
has had three male partners in the past 6 months with
intermittent condom use. One of her male partners also has
sex with men. A clinical diagnosis of secondary syphilis is
make and laboratory testing is ordered to confirm the
diagnosis of syphilis. Which one of the following is TRUE
regarding the laboratory diagnosis of syphilis in this woman?
A. Approximately 50% of persons with secondary syphilis have a

negative B. Treponema pallidum enzyme immunoassay (EIA) C. The
degree of elevation in the enzyme immunoassay (EIA) titer can
accurately distinguish primary from secondary syphilis D. A
reactive treponemal test does not require any further confirmatory
testing
F. A reactive nontreponemal test should be confirmed by a treponemal

test
7. In the case of syphilitic lesion of placenta the significant alterations

are observed:
A. In maternal placenta
B. In fetal placenta
C. The significant alterations are not observed
D. All mentioned above is correct
E. All mentioned above is false

8. Which of the following does not refer to the probable signs of the
late congenital syphilis:
A. The shortcut little finger
B. Parenchymatous keratitis
C. The absence of xiphoid process

D.
9. A 69-year-old male patient complains of an ulcer of the penis.

Objective data: a round ulcer with clear margins and a smooth
bottom is on the skin of the glans penis. It has a freshly color with
grayyellowish bloom in the center. The skin around the ulcer is
without any changes. One can palpate swollen lymph nodes in the
right inguinal region, they are painless and movable. There are a lot
of small pink spots on the upper trunk, which do not bother the
patient. What is a possible diagnosis?
A. Secondary syphilis
B. Primary syphilis
C. Epithelioma spinocellulare
E. Scabies
10. A 30-year-old male patient complains of head and eyebrow hair

loss that begun 2 weeks ago without any cause. The patient has no
somatic pathologies. Objective data: multiple small foci of hair loss
and round foci of sparse hair on the back of the head and temporal
areas. The skin n these foci is without any changes. There are some
lenticular thickened copper-colored papules on the skin of the
upper trunk without any inflammatory changes around them. What
is your preliminary diagnosis?
A. Alopecia areata
B. Seborrheic alopecia
C. Secondary syphilis
D. Trichophytosis capitis
E. Lichen ruber planus
Standards of answers: 1 B, 2 E, 3 B, 4-A, 5 A, 6 D, 7 B, 8 B, 9 A, 10
B.
1.) 30-year-old man presents for follow-up of a positive syphilis serologic

test result. Recent laboratory studies from a routine visit 10 days ago
show a positive treponemal enzyme immunoassay (EIA) and a positive
Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) with a titer of 1:256. He had a negative HIV-
1/2 antigen-antibody test and is taking tenofovir DFemtricitabine for
HIV preexposure prophylaxis (PrEP). He has routine STD testing every 3
months. His serologic tests for syphilis have always been negative. He
denies any genital ulcers or skin manifestation. Upon further inquiry, he
reports he has had blurry vision in the right eye over the past 4 days.
Which one of the following is a correct statement about the
manifestations of ocular syphilis?
A. All persons with ocular syphilis have neurosyphilis

B. Uveitis is the most common manifestation of ocular syphilis
C. Corneal lesions are the most common manifestation of
ocular syphilis
C. Retinal necrosis is the most common manifestation of ocular

syphilis
2.) patient is a 40-year-old man. Blood investigation: Wasserman reaction

and TPI test are positive. There are no changes of the skin, viscera or
neurologic system. What is a probable diagnosis of this patient?
3.) Latent recurrent syphilis
4.) Primary seropositive syphilis
5.) Secondary recurrent syphilis
6.) Tertiary syphilis
7.) Early latent syphilis
3) 42-year-old male patient complains of skin rash without any subjective sensations.
Objective data: multiple pink spots up to 0.30.7 cm in size on the skin of the upper
trunk and extremities; the surface of the spots is not desquamated. Besides, they are
separated. Polyadenitis is observed. There is an erosion at the stage of epithelization
on the prepuce. What is a possible diagnosis?
A. elization
B. Secondary latent syphilis
C. Typhoid fever
D. Medicamentous toxicoderma (drug eruption)

E. Secondary recurrent syphilis
4) mass health examination in an orphanage discovered a boy with deviations in the

physical and mental development. Objective
lesions, the lymph nodes are not enlarged; the boy has a brachicephalic skull, a
saddle-shaped
preliminary diagnosis?
a. Late latent syphilis
b. Early congenital syphilis
c. Latent congenital syphilis
d. Tertiary syphilis
e. Late congenital syphilis
5) A 31-year-old male presents to his primary care medical

provider for evaluation of a rash. He denies taking any new
medications, but reports three new male sexual partners in the
last 8 weeks. The rash began several days prior as an
erythematous, maculopapular rash on the chest and back and
now it also involves the palms and soles. He does not have any
ocular or neurologic symptoms. Serologic testing for syphilis is
ordered. What is the most appropriate treatment of this patient
with presumed secondary syphilis?
a. Azithromycin 2 grams orally once
b. Doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily x 28 days

c. Benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units intramuscular in
a single dose
d. Benzathine penicillin G 7.2 million units total,

administered as 3 doses of 2.4 million units given at 1-
week intervals
6) A 47-year-old man is clinically diagnosed with secondary

syphilis and treated with benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million
units intramuscular (IM) in a single dose. Their lab test results
return with a positive syphilis enzyme immunoassay (EIA) and
a positive Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) at a titer of 1:128. Their
HIV test is negative. Follow-up RPR testing at 6 months shows
an RPR titer of
1:4.
a. What would you recommend as the next course of action

regarding management of syphilis for this individual?
b. Treat with a single dose of intramuscular benzathine

penicillin G 2.4 million units
c. Treat with benzathine penicillin G 7.2 million units total,

administered as 3 intramuscular doses of 2.4 million units
given at 1-week intervals
d. Perform a lumbar puncture and cerebrospinal fluid

analysis and treat based on these findings
e. No further treatment is necessary at this time and lumbar

puncture is not indicated
7) A 24-year-old man presents with a 3-day history of a diffuse

rash. He reports having 7 sex partners, within the last 3 months.
Physical examination shows an erythematous macular rash on
his chest, back, arms, and palms. He has no visual or neurologic
complaints and a neurologic examination is normal. A clinical
diagnosis of secondary syphilis is made. Laboratory studies are
ordered and he is treated with a single intramuscular dose of 2.4
million units of benzathine penicillin G. Subsequently, the
baseline laboratory studies show a positive treponemal enzyme
immunoassay (EIA), a Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) titer of 1:512,
and a negative HIV1/2 antigen-antibody test.
a. When should repeat syphilis serologic evaluation be

performed?
b. No follow-up is needed since he received recommended

therapy
c. 6 and 12 weeks
d. 6 and 12 months
e. 12 and 24 months
8) A 25-year-old man is diagnosed with secondary syphilis based

on a diffuse maculopapular rash and a Rapid Plasma Reagin
(RPR) titer of 1:256. He is given an intramuscular dose of 2.4
million units of benzathine penicillin G in the clinic, but
approximately 4 hours after receiving the dose of penicillin, he
returned with complaints of fever, headache, myalgia, dizziness,
and intensification of his rash. Physical examination shows a
temperature of 38.5°C, blood pressure 96/74 mmHg,
accentuation of the rash, but no evidence of hives,
oropharyngeal swelling, or wheezing.
a.
symptoms?
b. Mild type IV anaphylactic reaction to penicillin

c. Allergic reaction to benzathine
d. Prozone reaction
e. Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction
9) A 43-year-old man with a positive Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR)

test (titer of 1:64) is referred for further evaluation and
treatment of syphilis. He reports having a total body rash and
low-grade fever that resolved about 3 months prior. He reports
severe headaches in the past week with nausea, vomiting, and
mild photophobia. The headache has not resolved with over-the-
counter medications and he has no history of headaches. He has
not had prior testing or treatment for syphilis. A recent HIV
antigen-antibody test is negative. A lumbar puncture is
performed, with cerebrospinal fluid analysis, to evaluate for
neurosyphilis. Which one of the following statements is TRUE
regarding cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) laboratory studies in
diagnosing neurosyphilis?
a. The CSF Venereal Diseases Research Laboratory (VDRL)

test is highly specific; it is the preferred test for confirming
a suspected diagnosis of neurosyphilis
b. The CSF Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) test is the most

sensitive and specific test for diagnosing neurosyphilis; it
is the preferred test both for confirming and excluding
neurosyphilis
c. The CSF fluorescent treponemal antibody absorbed

(FTAABS) test has poor sensitivity and no role in
diagnosing neurosyphilis
d. There is no role for CSF treponemal or nontreponemal

tests in diagnosing neurosyphilis
10) A 22-year-old woman is diagnosed with neurosyphilis
after presenting with stroke-like symptoms and a positive
treponemal enzyme immunoassay (EIA) and a positive Rapid
Plasma Reagin (RPR) test (titer of 1:128). A lumbar puncture is
performed with cerebrospinal fluid analysis that shows protein
of 64 mg/dL, white blood cell count of 18 (80% lymphocytes), a
red blood cell count of 0, and a positive Venereal Disease
Research Laboratory (VDRL) titer of 1:64. Tests for other causes
of stroke, as well as an HIV test are negative. She has a 2-year
history of engaging in transactional sex, but has never previously
been tested or treated for syphilis. She denies any history of
allergic reactions to antibiotics. What is the most appropriate
antimicrobial therapy for treatment of neurosyphilis in this
woman?
a. Ceftriaxone 1 g intramuscular once daily for 5 days,

followed by doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 14
days
b. Ceftriaxone 1 g intramuscular once daily for 10 to 14 days
c. Benzathine penicillin G 7.2 million units total,

administered as 3 doses of 2.4 million units intramuscular
each at 1-week intervals
d. Aqueous crystalline penicillin G 18 to 24 million units per

day, administered as 3 to 4 million units intravenous every
4 hours (or continuous infusion), for 10 to 14 days
Standards of answers: 1 A, 2 C, 3 E, 4 E, 5 C, 6 E, 7 D, 8 E,
9 A, 10 D.
1. The pathogen of gonorrhea is:

A. Trichomonas vaginalis
B. Treponema pallidum
C. Chlamydia
D. Candida albicans
E. Gonococcus
2. Genital candidosis is not predisposed by:
A. A history of allergy
B. Hormonal contraception
C. Pregnancy
D. Diabetes mellitus
E. HIV-infection
3. A 26-year-old female patient has appealed to a gynecologist

with complaints of primary sterility. The patient has chronic
adnexitis. A microscopic investigation of the cervical canal
scrape showed a microorganism Chlamydia. What
medicines would you prescribe for etiotropic treatment?
A. Penicillin
B. Trichopol
C. Azithromycin
D. Sulfadimethoxine
E. Nystatin
4. A 20-year-old male patient complains of profuse discharge

from the urethra, urination is painful in the beginning. He
connects this disease with a sexual contact, which took place
4 days before. Objective data: profuse purulent discharge
from the urethra, which is s
positive (nebulous urine in the first glass). There are
diplococcic in the smears. What is a possible diagnosis?
A. Total gonorrheal urethritis
B. Posterior gonorrheal urethritis
C. Anterior gonorrheal urethritis
D. Latent gonorrhea
E. Gonorrheal urethro-prostatitis
5. Which pathogen causes gonorrhea?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Pelobacter acidigallici
C. Lachnospira multiparus
D. Neisseria gonorrhea
E. Trichomonas vaginalis
6. What is the average incubation period in case of gonorrhea

infection?
A. 24 hours
B. 3-10 days
C. 2-4 weeks
D. 2 months
E. 1 month
7.
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Trichomonas
C. Gram-positive diplococcus
D. Gram-negative diplococcus
E. Gardnerella vaginal
8. What method of staining is used for microscopic diagnosis of
gonorrhea?
A.
B. May-Grunwald-Giemsa stain
C.
D. Romanovsky-Giemsa stain
E. Hematoxylin and eosin stain
9. Specify the possible variants of the course of gonococcal

urethritis in men:
A. Recent acute gonorrheal urethritis
B. Recent subacute gonorrheal urethritis
C. Chronic gonorrheal urethritis
D. Asymptomatic gonorrheal urethritis
E. All the above
10. Which sign is typical for the clinic of acute anterior

gonorrheal urethritis in men?
A. There is no discharge
B. Discharge is insignificant
C. Discharge is purulent in large amount
D. Appearance of drops of blood at the end of urination
E. Pain at the end of urination
Standards of answers: 1 - D, 6
1. A 24-year-old man presents to the clinic requesting testing for

sexually transmitted infections (STIs). He has a new female partner and
he is interested in making sure he does not have any STIs. Currently, he
has no genitourinary symptoms. Which one of the following diagnostic
tests is the most sensitive for the detection of urethral Neisseria
gonorrhoeae infection in an asymptomatic male?
A. Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)
B.
C. Culture
D. Methylene blue-gentian violet stain microscopy
2. A 33-year-old man with one sexual partner develops urethral

discharge and is diagnosed with gonorrhea; he is treated with
recommended therapy. His symptoms resolved after treatment, but he
returns 10 days later with recurrent purulent urethral discharge and a
he urethral discharge shows multiple
gram-negative diplococci.
symptoms?
A. Defer any additional therapy until a definitive etiology is
determined
B. Retreat with the same regimen because
reinfection is more likely than treatment
failure
C. Consider the patient a treatment failure
and empirically treat for cephalosporin-
resistant Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D. Consider the patient a treatment failure
due to coinfection with another pathogen
and empirically treat for urethral
trichomoniasis
3. Histopathology A 32-year-old woman presents to her primary

care medical provider's office with abnormal vaginal discharge. She is
diagnosed with cervical chlamydia and treated with appropriate
therapy. She notifies her sex partner about her diagnosis of chlamydial
infection so that he can come in for testing and treatment. She is not
pregnant and following treatment she is asymptomatic. Which one of
the following is the recommended regarding follow-up chlamydia
testing for a woman treated for uncomplicated cervical chlamydia who
does not have persistent or recurrent symptoms?
A. Perform a test-of-cure nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)
10 days after treatment completion
B. Perform a test-of-cure nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)
3 weeks after treatment completion
C. Send a cervical specimen for culture and sensitivity testing
within 2 weeks of the positive nucleic acid amplification test
(NAAT) result
D. Retest 3 months after completion of therapy
4. A 29-year-old woman returns to the health department for

treatment after receiving a positive test result for chlamydia. Her
sexual partner attends the visit with her, and both are treated for
chlamydial infection. Assuming both the patient and her sex partner
have received appropriate therapy for Chlamydia trachomatis and all
symptoms have resolved, what instruction should they receive
regarding resuming their sexual activities?
A. Abstain from sexual activity until 48 hours after completing
therapy
B. Abstain from sexual activity until 72 hours after completing
therapy
C. Abstain from sexual activity until 7 days
after completing therapy
D. Abstain from sexual activity until 14
days after completing therapy
5. To treat genitourinary trichomoniasis they use:

A. Metronidazolum, Ornidazole
B. Metacyclinum, Doxycyclinum
C. Medrol, Itraconazolum
D. Macropen, Erythromycinum
E. Benzylpenicillin,Amoksiklav
6. A 25-year-old female patient complains of profuse smelly
discharge from the vagina, burning and itching in the genitals. She has
been suffering for a week. The woman has a couple of sexual partners.
Objective data: hyperemic mucosa of the genitals, bleeding on palpation
and profuse foamy white discharge from the vagina. What is a possible
diagnosis?
A. Chlamidiosis
B. Gonorrhea
C. Trichomonas colpitis
D. Candidomycosis of the vagina
E. Bacterial vaginosis
7. A patient is 25 years old, single, have multiple sexual partners. In

the last three months noticed slight mucoserous discharge from urethra;
subjectively - intermittent itching or burning sensation in the ureter.
Two months ago there was a pain in the knee joint. At the same time the
patient neither got hurt, nor supercooled. A week ago, he felt discomfort
in he eyes - watery eyes, itching. Which probable pathogen has caused
the disease?
A. Trichomonas vaginalis
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. Candida
D. Gardnerella vaginalis
E Neisseria gonorrhoeae
8. A 24 years old patient appealed to family medicine clinic with

complaints of pain in the knee joints, fever up to 37, 7 C, pain during
urination and a feeling of sand in the eyes. The patient has been sick for
the past 6 weeks. Has no regular sexual partner. Objectively: the affected
joints are swollen; movements are painful and somewhat limited. Feet
hyperkeratosis. Blood test: WBC - 9.3 x 109 /1, ESR - 32 mm / hour.
Rheumatoid factor test is not available. What kind of infection is possible
in this case?
A. Trichomonas
B. Chlamydia
C Candida
D. Gonococcal
E Staphylococcal
9. Female A pregnant woman with a pregnancy of 20 weeks

consulted obstetriciangynecologist. At examination she was diagnosed
with gonorrhea. What should be the medical tactics in this case:
A. Treatment with antibiotics in the third
trimester of pregnancy
B. Treatment with antibiotics after
delivery
C. Urgent treatment with sulfanilamidums
D. Urgent treatment with benzylpenicillin
E. Urgent treatment with tetracycline
10. 34 The patient addressed to venereologist with complaints about

painful urination, abundant purulent discharge from the urogenital
organs. She considers herself to be ill during a week. She associates the
disease with the casual sexual contact about 3-4 weeks ago. The
preliminary diagnosis of acute gonorrhea of the lower genital tract is
confirmed. At the bacterioscopic research of discharge they will detect:
A. Proteus vulgaris
B. Mycoplasma
C. Trichomonads
D. Gram-negative diplococci
E. Gram-positive diplococci
Standards of answers: 1 A, 2 B, 3 D, 4 C,
5 A, 6 C, 7 B, 8- B, 9 A,
10 D.
1. HIV is a:
Arbovirus
Papillomavirus
Retrovirus
Herpes virus
Adenovirus
2. AIDS is a condition caused by:

A. Yeast
B. Candida albicans
C. Proteus vulgaris
D. Bacteria
E. HIV infection
2. AIDS does not declare itself as:

Infectious skin lesions
Allergic dermatitis
Seborrheic dermatitis
Hairy (cobblestone) tongue
Tumors
3. Which medicines are recommended for the treatment of AIDS patients?
Antiviral
Sedatives
Antimalarial
Antihistamines
Analgesics
5. Place of differentiation of T-lymphocytes:

A. Thymus
B. Bone marrow
B. Lymph node
D. Blood serum
6. Nucleic acid of HIV:

A. DNA
B. RNA and DNA
B. RNA
7. Is it possible to reproduce HIV in T-suppressors?

A. No
B. Yes, provided there is an intercurrent infection
B. Yes
D. Sometimes possible
8. Is HIV damage to T-killers?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Yes, but with hyperinfection by other viruses
D. Sometimes it is possible
9. Is it possible to damage CNS cells with human immunodeficiency

virus?
A. No
B. Probably, but on condition that the patient has any of the infections
B. Yes
G. Sometimes it is possible
10. HIV is classified:

A. HIV-1
B. HIV-1 and HIV-2
C. HIV-1 and HIV-2 and HIV-3
Standards of answers: 1 C, 2 E, 3 B, 4-A, 5 A, 6 B, 9 B, 10
B.
1. What are the clinical features of herpes simplex in AIDS patients?

A. Localization: the oral mucosa, genitals
B. Localization: the extremities
C. Sharp pain
D. Erosion formation
E. Frequent recidives
2.
by:
A. Localization: the lower extremities
B. Localization: the face, oral mucosa
C. Young age of patients
D. Damages of the internal organs
E. Lymphoadenopathy
3. A 28-year-old male patient was hospitalized with diarrhea (3-4

times a day), weight loss, rapid fatigability, breathing problems, cough.
A clinical examination of this patient showed pneumocystic
pneumonia. The patient has had multiple sexual contacts with stranger
women. What disease can be suspected in this case?
A. Nonspecific ulcerative colitis
B. Tuberculous mesenteric lymphadenitis
C. Dysenteric diarrhea
D. AIDS
E. Tertiary syphilis
4. A patient complains of moderately painful rash on the surface of

the tongue. He has been suffering for the last 2 months. The patient has
had multiple sexual contacts with stranger women. Objective data:
gray-white plaque on the lateral surface of the tongue. It is covered
with thin hair-like processes. What is a preliminary for this patient?
B. Candidiasis of the tongue
C. Herpes simplex
D. AIDS: cobblestone tongue
5. Which are the skin symptoms of microbial AIDS?
A. Diffuse alopecia
B. Seborrhoeic eczema
C. Skin infections
D. All are correct
E. No correct answer
6. Which medicines are recommended for the treatment of AIDS

patients?
A. Abacavir
B. Acyclovir
D. Loratadine
E. Valacyclovir
7. 32-years old female patient with HIV consulted the

dermatologist complaining of some rash on the scalp and chest,
accompanied by itching. What kind of skin disease can be thought of in
this case:
A. Alopecia
B. VZV
C. Seborrhoeic eczema
8. Which are the complications of AIDS patients?

A. Tuberculosis
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Candidiasis
D. Cryptococcal meningitis
E. All are correct
9. Chronic HIV infection is characterized by:

A. Fever
B. Fatigue
C. Diarrhea
D. Weight loss
E. All are correct
10. A 29-year-old man is evaluated in an urgent care clinic with a 3-

day history of fever, fatigue, and lymphadenopathy. After an extensive
work-up, he is diagnosed with acute HIV infection; has an initial HIV
RNA level of 887,000 copies/mL. Additional baseline HIV laboratory
studies are ordered that include CD4 cell count and HIV genotypic drug
resistance testing. Which one of the following strategies is
recommended regarding the timing of initiating antiretroviral therapy
in this man who is diagnosed with acute HIV infection?
A. Promptly initiate antiretroviral therapy
B. Wait until the CD4 count decreases to less than 500 cells/mm3
C. Wait 12 weeks and reevaluate after determining whether
spontaneous clearance of HIV occurs
D. Wait 6 months for the viral set point to be established and this
will determine whether he needs antiretroviral therapy
Standards of answers: 1 E, 2 C, 3 D, 4 D, 5 D, 6 A, 7 C, 8 E, 9
E,
10 A.

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1.

The skin consists of the following layers:

2. The skin appendages include:

3. Terminal hair from root to outer end is formed from:

4. Sebaceous glands produce a secret:

5. By the nature of the secretion of sweat glands are: A. Holocrine

6. The circulatory system of the skin forms:

7. Encapsulated skin receptors include:

8. How many phototypes of skin are distinguished according to the

9. Collagen is produced by the following cells:

10. Skin functions:

2. Balzer's test has valuable diagnostic value at:

3. The main elements of the skin's immune system are:

4. The nerve endings include:

6. What is the main diagnosis of tuberculosis of the skin?

7. To diagnose demodicosis use:

8. Which of the following is not a morphological element?

9. The symptom of "thimble" is characteristic of:

10. What is the name of the diagnostic method that allows to

Standards of answers: 1- - - - C. 5- -F. 7- -E. 9-C. 10-

2. Limited skin discoloration is called:

3. The primary cavity-free elements of the rash include:

4. Clinical evaluation of the elements of skin rash involves all of the

5. Lichenification is characterized by:

6. The primary morphological element characteristic of shingles is:

7. Ointments are prescribed:

8. A comprehensive clinical examination of the skin includes all of the

9. Specify the difference between a tuberculum and a papule:

10. Inflammatory spot of large size is called:

2. True polymorphism is:

5. Vacuol dystrophy is:

6. In place of the vesicle, the tire of which collapsed, is formed:

7. Name the morphological basis of the tubercle:

8. The patient was consulted by a patient with complaints of bright

9. Name the clinical differences between tubercle and papule:

10. Specify the mechanism of formation of intra-epidermal blister:

2. There are the following clinical forms of scabies:

3. What elements are considered objective signs of scabies?

4. What causes scabies?

5. What is the life expectancy of a female scabies mite?

6. What topical treatment are used to treat scabies?

7. Which of the following pathogens is the main etiological factor in

8. Which of the following pathogens is the main etiological factor in

9. For streptococcal impetigo is characterized by all of the above,

10. Purulent inflammation of the apocrine glands is observed in:

2. The rate of scabies generalization depends on all these factors,

3. Scabies is characterized by:

4. Indicate the location of typical localization of scabies in adults?

5. What is the most common complication of scabies?

6. In what forms of pyoderma phlycten is the main element of the

7. Which of the following applies to superficial streptoderma?

8. The patient complains of general malaise, headache, painful

9. In case of furunculosis obligatory examination includes:

10. The patient, 25 years old, complains of rashes in the interdigital

Standards of answers: 1-B. 2-B. 3-C. 4-E. 5- -D. 7-E. 8- 9- -

2. Name the main pathohistological changes in psoriasis:

3. Clinical forms of psoriasis include:

4. Seasonal forms of psoriasis are:

5. List the clinical variants of lichen ruber planus:

6. Characteristic of the stationary stage of psoriasis are:

7. With what diseases it is necessary to carry out differential

8. What are the symptoms of psoriatic rash?

9. Lichen ruber planus is characterized by: