1.

Macules are:
a. Elevated lesions >10mm
b. Thining of the skin
c. Flat nonpalpable lesion <10
2. Pustules are vesicles, that contain:
a. Keratin
b. Clear fluid
c. Pus
3. Nodules are:
a. Small, clear, fluid- filled blisters
b. Open areas of the skin
c. Firm papules or lesions
d. Firm papules or lesions

4. Antimicrobial drugs include all, except:

a. Antibiotics
b. Antifungals
c. Systemic steroids
d. Insecticides

5. Side effects of topical steroids are all, except:

a. Skin atrophy
b. Skin lichenification
c. Striae
d. Bacterial and fungal infections

6. Dermatographism is:

a. Swelling of a lesion when stroked

b. Pinpoint bleeding
c. Development of lesions within areas of trauma
d. Appearance of an urticarial wheal after focal pressure
 7. Herpes simplex type 1 s generally associated with:
a. Labial infection
b. Genital infection
c. Herpes zoster

8. Herpes simplex treatment options are all, except:

a. Antiviral therapy
b. Long-term suppressive therapy
c. Protected from sun exposure
d. Systemic steroids

9. Dermatitis is:
a. Superficial inflammation of the skin
b. Viral infection of the skin
c. Bacterial infection of the skin

10. Major criteria of atopic dermatitis are all, except:

a. Young age of onset
b. Pruritus
c. Typical morphology and distribution
d. Nipple eczema

11. Reasons of exfoliative dermatitis are all, except:

a. Preexciting skin disorders (Atopic, contact dermatitis)
b. Cancer (Mycosis fungoides, leukemia)
c. Use of drugs (Penicillin, barbiturates)
d. skin viral infections (Herpes simplex, herpes zoster)

12. Pityriasis versicolor is caused by:

a. Malassezia furfur (Pityrisporum orbiculare)
b. T. rubrum
c. T. Mentagrophytes
13. Motor and sensory nerves are found throughout:
a. The epidermis
 b. The dermis
c. The Hypodermis

14. Main function of hypodermis is:

a. Immune function
b. Sensation
c. Aesthetic
d. Hypodermis contains blood vessels, that supply the skin with oxygen and nutrients
15. Bullaes are:
a. Clear fluid-filled blisters
b. Firm papules
c. Open areas of skin
d. flat, nonpalpable lesions

16. Skin scrapings help diagnose:

a. Fungal infection
b. Atopic dermatitis
c. Psoriasis
d. Lupus erythematosus
17. Extrinsic atopic dermatitis is:
a. IgE-mediated
b. Non-IgE mediated
c. IgM- mediated

18. Minor criterias of atopic dermatitis are all, except:

a. Xerosis
b. Nipple eczema
c. Palmar hyperlinearity
d. Pruritus
19. Types of dermatitis are all, except:
a. Id reaction
b. dishydrotic dermatitis
c. Hyperkeratotic eczema
 d. psoriasis
20. Toxic derma is caused by:
a. Cosmetics
b. Viruses
c. Drugs
d. Foods
21. Tinea crurus is a dermatiphyte infection:
a. Of the scalp
b. Of the groin
c. of the nail
d. of the hair
22. Clinical forms of tinea pedis are all, except:
a. Chronic hyperkeratotic
b. Chronic intertriginous
c. Acute ulcerative
d. Seborrheic dermatitis type
23. Kerion is:
a. Acute form of atopic dermatitis
b. Inflammatory tinea capitis
c. Form of Hyperkeratotic eczema
24. What is erosion?
a. Open area of the skin
b. Firm papule
c. Scaling of the skin surface
d. Skin scar
25. What is crust?
a. Dried serum or blood
b. Scar of the skin
c. Soft fibroma
d. Bulla on the skin
26. What is difference between vesicles and bullas?
a. Size
b. Color
 c. Depth
d. Diameter

27. Which kind of examination method is based on HD resolution:

a. Woods light examination
b. Skin scraping method
c. Dermatoscopy
d. Tzanck testing

28. Folliculitis is:

a. Inflammation of hair follicle
b. Inflammation of nail folds
c. Inflammation of subcutaneous tissue
d. Inflammation of mucous membrane

29. Tinea Pedis is:

a. Fungal infection of nails
b. Fungal infection of Head
c. Fungal infection of feet
d. Fungal infection of hairs

30. Treatment options of tinea pedis are all, except:

a. Moisture reduction
b. Drying agents
c. Local and oral antifungals
d. Topical and oral steroids

31. Carbuncles are:

a. Vesicles on the skin
b. Scaling with brown color
c. Clusters of furuncles with suppuration

32. What is “Koebner phenomenon”?

 a. Skin atrophy
b. Appearing of new lesions on traumatic area
c. Local edema

33. Melanin producing cells are:

a. Keratinocytes
b. Melanocytes
c. Merkel cells
d. Stem cells

34. Melanin is defensive screen for:

a. Skin mechanical injury
b. UV radiation
C. Skin Dehydration

35. Hypercarotenemia can induce:

a. Skin atrophy
b. Skin lichenification
c. Bluish discoloration of skin
d. Yellow discoloration of skin

36. What is Pemphigus vulgaris?

a. Bullous autoimmune disorder
b. Skin malignant tumor
c. Allergic reaction
d. Hair loss
37. Erysipelas is:
a. Skin fungal infection
b. Acute, inflammatory form of cellulitis
c. Skin autoimmune disorder
d. Herpes viral infection

38. What is etiological factor for scabies?

 a. Malassezia furfur
b. T. Rubrum
c. Sarcoptes scabiei
d. Staphylococcus aureus

39. “ Shingles” is a Synonym of:

a. Tinea pedis
b. Herpes zoster
c. Atopic dermatitis
d. Impetigo

40. Molluscum contagiosum is:

a. Skin viral infection
b. Skin bacterial infection
c. Skin bullous disease
d. One type of urticaria
1. Integumentary system also known as the:
A. Skin
B. Cell
C. Tissue
D. All of above
2. Which layer of the skin does NOT contain blood vessels?
A. Epidermis
B. Hypodermis
C. Dermis
3. In which layer of the skin are melanocytes located?
A. Epidermis
B. Hypodermis
C. Dermis
4. Which of these body parts does NOT contain melanin?
A. Nail
B. Hair
C. Skin
5. What is sebum?
A. Hormone
B. Sweat
C. An oily substance secreted onto hair
6. Sweat glands are located in the ...
A. Dermis
B. Hypodermis
C. Epidermis
7. What substance are nails made of?
A. Keratin
B. Melanin
C. Collagen
8. Which condition is caused by lack of melanin synthesis?
A. Albinism
B. Warts
C. Alopecia
9. What can trigger vitamin D synthesis?
A. Exposure to warmth
B. Drinking milk
C. Exposure to sunlight
10. which of the following is true about ringworm?
A. It is a fungal infection caused by a worm carrying fungus.
B. It is a bacterial infection caused by a worm carrying bacteria.
C. It is a fungal infection that is not caused by a worm.
D. It is a bacterial infection that is not caused by a worm.
11. Onychomycosis
A. Fungal infection of the body
B. Fungal infection of the nail
C. Fungal infection of the hands
12. Pityriasis Versicolor
A. Usually superficial, chronic, and asymptomatic.
B. Lesions appear lighter or darker than surrounding skin.
C. Macular rash or fine scaling of the upper trunk and shoulders
D. All of above
13. Name the 4 levels of fungal infections.
A. Superficial (skin)
B. Cutaneous (skin, hair, nail)
C. Subcutaneous
D. Systemic (blood)
E. All of above
14. How many people in U.S. are estimated to have genital herpes?
A. 1 million
B. 10 million
C. 30 million
D. 45 million
15. Genital herpes caused by HSV-2 is found more frequently in women than in man
A. True
B. False
16. How many types of herpes simplex virus are there?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
17. Besides the genital area and the mouth, where else can HSV sores occasionally appear?
A. Hands
B. Feet
C. Trunk
D. All of above
18. How is the virus passed from person to person?
A. Through the air
B. Through sexual intercourse
C. On dirty toilet seats
D. By shaking hands or other casual touch
19. Early symptoms of genital herpes include which of the following?
A. Flulike symptoms including aching muscles, headache, and fever
B. Itching or burning sensation where the lesion is about to appear
C. Swollen lymph glands in the groin area
 D. All of the above
20. How is genital herpes diagnosed?
A. Physical exam and medical history
B. X-ray
C. Ultrasound
D. All of the above
21. How is herpes treated?
A. With medication
B. With radiation
C. With surgery
22. What type of organism causes scabies?
A. Mite
B. Mouse
C. Bacteria
D. Fungus
23. Which is the most common symptom of a scabies infestation?
A. Rash
B. Itching
C. Formation of skin crust
D. All of the answers are common symptoms of scabies
24. If you have never been infested with scabies before, how long will it typically take to begin
having symptoms after your initial infection?
A. 1 week
B. 3 Months
C. 2-6 Weeks
D. 4-6 Months

25. Atopic eczema can be triggered by:

A. Sweat
B. Soap
C. Clothing
D. All of the above
26. With atopic eczema, the first symptoms are usually
A. Swelling and oozing
B. Crusting and itching?
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
27. In children and adults, atopic eczema usually occurs on the scalp first
A. True
 B. False
28. How is atopic eczema diagnosed?
A. Blood test
B. CT scan
C. Ultrasound
D. None of the above
29. People who have atopic dermatitis also may have:
A. Asthma
B. Allergies
C. Acne
D. A and B
30. Which group of people is more likely to develop atopic dermatitis?
A. Infants and young children
B. Teenagers
C. Adults 20 to 49
D. Older adults
31. Atopic dermatitis is also often called:
A. Acne
B. Eczema
C. Psoriasis
D. Pimples
32. Which is a symptom of atopic dermatitis?
A. Blisters on the palms of hands and soles of feet
B. Itchy, inflamed skin
C. Scaly patches of skin on the scalp
D. Coin-shaped patches of irritated skin on the arms and lower legs
33. Some people with atopic dermatitis develop:
A. Thick, leathery skin
B. Red, scaling skin
C. Small raised bumps on the skin
D. All of the above
34. The skin of a person with atopic dermatitis is more susceptible to:
A. Skin infections
B. Warts (Molluscum contagiosum)
C. Herpes simplex
D. All of the above
35. What happens to skin cells in a person with psoriasis?
A. Skin cells pile up on the surface of the skin before they are mature
B. Mature skin cells can't make their way to the surface of the skin
C. Skin cells die before becoming mature
D. B and C
36. Which body parts are often affected by psoriasis?
A. Elbows
B. Scalp
C. Knees
D. Chest, back, and abdomen
E. All of the above
37. What is a health problem that also may occur with psoriasis?
A. Hives
B. Gingivitis
C. Conjunctivitis
D. Arthritis
38. Psoriasis falls into which category of disease?
A. Infectious disease
B. Genetic disease (passed down through families)
C. Autoimmune disease
D. Neoplasm
E. B and C
39. What can make psoriasis worse?
A. Beta blocker medicines
B. Stress
C. Dry climate
D. All of the above
40. How is psoriasis treated?
A. Topical medications
B. Phototherapy
C. Immune system treatment
D. All of the above
1. What is the function of Langerhans cell?
1. melanin production
2. melanin storage
3. antigen processing
4. multiplication
5. osmotic barrier

2. what is the function of Pacinian corpus?

1. fine touch sensation
2. pressure sensation
3. pain sensation
4. sweat production
5. temperature control

3. what is the function of melanocytes?

1. antigen processing
2. multiplication
3. melanin production
4. melanin storage
5. protection

4. what is the function of Merkel cell?

1. fine touch sensation
2. pressure sensation
3. lubrication
4. sweat production
5. temperature control

5. pigmented or erythematous flat lesion on epidermis:

1. macule
2. papule
3. pustule
4. vesicle
5. wheal

6. edematous transient papule or plaque caused by infiltration of dermis by fluid is

1. macule
2. papule
3. pustule
4. vesicle
5. wheal

7. increased thickness of stratum corneum produces scaly appearance of skin:

1. hyperkeratosis
2. parakeratosis
3. papillomatosis
4. acantholysis
5. acanthosis

8. persistence of nuclei in stratum corneum layer:

1. hyperkeratosis
2. parakeratosis
 3. papillomatosis
4. acantholysis
5. acanthosis

9. tinea versicolor is caused by:

1. trichophyton rubrum
2. malassezia furfur
3. candida albicans
4. trichophyton tonsurans
5. microsporum audouinii

10. what is the primary lesion of human itch mite/scabies?

1. macule
2. papule
3. pustule
4. vesicle
5. wheal

11. macular, hyperpigmented lesions on the forehead and cheeks in women are characterized for
1. melasma
2. vitiligo
3. melanoma
4. basal cell carcinoma
5. lentigo

12. A in ABCD criteria for malignancy is for

1. anesthesia
2. amnesia
3. analgesia
4. asymmetry
5. arthralgia

13. which fungal infection causes alopecia areata?

1. candidiasis
2. tinea versicolor
3. microsporia
4. tinea pedis
5. onichomycosis

14. wood lamp is commonly used for diagnosis of:

1. herpes simplex
2. impetigo
3. dermatophytoses
4. atopic dermatitis
5. psoriasis

15. solar lentigo is:

1. brown macules on sun-exposed areas
2. autoimmune destruction of melanocytes that causes skin depigmentation
3. macular hyperpigmented lesions on the forehead and cheeks in women
4. neoplastic melanocytic disorder
5. velvety, pigmented skin commonly located in the axilla
16. vitiligo is:
1. brown macules located on sun-exposed areas
2. autoimmune destruction of melanocytes that causes skin depigmentation
3. macular hyperpigmented lesions on the forehead and cheeks in women
4. neoplastic melanocytic disorder
5. velvety, pigmented skin commonly located in the axilla

17. common localization of basal cell carcinoma:

1. palms
2. soles
3. face
4. oral mucosa
5. chest

18. what is the primary lesion of acute eczema?

1. macule
2. papule
3. pustule
4. vesicle
5. wheal

19. primary lesion of lichen planus is:

1. macule
2. papule
3. pustule
4. bullae
5. wheal

20. primary element of psoriasis is:

1. macule
2. papule?
3. pustule
4. vesicle
5. wheal

21. primary lesion of pemphigus vulgaris?

1. macule
2. papule
3. pustule
4. bullae
5. wheal
22. what is Koebner phenomenon?
1. lesions develop in oral mucosa
2. lesions develop in areas of scratching
3. disease is induced by UVA
4. degeneration of basal cells and hair shafts
5. type I IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction

23. Nikolsky sign is positive during which disease?

1. dermatitis herpetiformis
2. pemphigus vulgaris
 3. lupus erythematosus
4. lichen ruber planus
5. psoriasis

24. gluten and iodine are triggering factors of which disease?

1. dermatitis herpetiformis?
2. pemphigus vulgaris
3. lupus erythematosus
4. lichen ruber planus
5. psoriasis

25. which disease is characterized by herald patch followed by rash in Christmas tree distribution?
1. eczema
2. herpes zoster
3. pityriasis rosea
4. psoriasis
5. vitiligo

26. which disease is characterized by “targetoid” appearance of vesicles and bullae and is located on the
palms, soles and extensor surface?
1. contact allergic dermatitis
2. eczema
3. erythema multiform
4. psoriasis
5. pemphigus vulgaris

27. which disease is characterized by raised, erythematous, painful nodules?

1. erythema nodosum
2. erythema multiform
3. psoriasis
4. lichen planus
5. eczema

28. primary lesion of urticaria is:

1. macule
2. papule
3. pustule
4. vesicle
5. wheal

29. hair loss in well-circumscribed, round to oval patches is called:

1. alopecia areata
2. alopecia diffusa
3. alopecia totalis
4. telogen alopecia
5. androgenic alopecia

30. the two types of contact dermatitis are - 1. allergic and 2:

1. xerotica
2. eczematous
3. irritant
4. atopic
 5. bullous

31. velvety, pigmented skin lesion, commonly located in the axilla, neck, groin, under breasts is
characterized for?
1. intertrigo psoriasis
2. intertrigo candidiasis
3. acanthosis nigricans
4. melanoma
5. solar lentigo

32. disease associated with atrophy of the epidermis, usually localized on face is:
1. acne rosacea
2. solar lentigo
3. melanoma
4. basal cell carcinoma
5. cutaneous lupus erythematosus

33. psoriasis is characterized by:

1. nail pitting
2. koilonychia
3. mees lines
4. beau lines
5. nail waves

34. dermatographism is characterized to:

1. psoriasis
2. melanoma
3. vitiligo
4. lichen ruber planus
5. urticaria

35. what is Nikolsky sign?

1. unregulated proliferation (hyperplasia) of keratinocytes
2. lesions develop in areas of scratching
3. fine white reticular pattern on the surface
4. blood vessels in the dermis rupture when scales are picked off
5. outer epidermis separates from the basal layer with minimal pressure

36. rhinophyma is complication of:

1. acne rosacea
2. solar lentigo
3. melanoma
4. basal cell carcinoma
5. cutaneous lupus erythematosus

37. which phase is characterized by the development of a new shaft of hair from the hair bulb?
1. anagen
2. catagen
3. telogen
4. androgen
5. acanthosis
38. White half-moon–shaped area of nail, proximal to the cuticle is called:
1. plate
2. matrix
3. lunula
4. angulus
5. nail bed

39. what is the meaning of Auspitz sign?

1. unregulated proliferation (hyperplasia) of keratinocytes
2. lesions develop in areas of scratching
3. fine white reticular pattern on the surface
4. blood vessels in the dermis rupture when scales are picked off
5. outer epidermis separates from the basal layer with minimal pressure

40. bluish black to slate gray spots that are present at birth, mostly on buttocks, back, shoulders, legs which
disappear in the preschool years – are characterized for:
1. erythema toxicum
2. Sebaceous hyperplasia
3. milia
4. miliaria
5. Mongolian spot