Экзаменационные тесты по except:

дерматовенерологии A) telangiectasia
B) petechiae
1. Functions of the epidermis: C) purpura
A) pigmentoobrazovatelnaya D) ecchymosis
B) protective E) hematoma
C) immunological 11. The secondary morphological elements
D) all of the above include all except:
E) secretory A) ulcers
2. Circulatory system of the skin is presented: B) fissure
A) deep fascial meshed network C) crust
B) subdermal network D) node
C) superficial vascular plexus E) lichenification
D) arterioles 12. To staphylococcal piodermia include all
E) all of the above except:
3. the encapsulated nerve endings are: A) osteofolliculitis
A) Meissner corpuscles B) furunculs
B) the bulb Krause C) vulgar ecthyma
C) Ruffini corpuscles D) gidradenitis
D) all of the above E) ordinary sycosis
E) none of the above 13. Hydradenitis - an inflammation of
4. Appendages of skin are all listed except: A) apocrine sweat glands
A) hair B) sebaceous glands
B) nails C) the mouths of the hair follicles
C) sebaceous gland D) perifollicular tissue
D) sweat glands E) of the hair follicles
E) free nerve endings 14. Hyperkeratosis with discoid and
5. sebaceous glands on the skin are absent; disseminated forms erythematosus has the
A) of the scalp character: A) diffuse
B) Face B) follicular
C) of the foreskin C) focal
D) palms and soles D) mixed
E) buttocks 15. The topical therapy of furunculum provides
6. To pathologic changes of skin does not apply: for the appointment:
A) acanthosis A) 3% ointment oxolinic
B) acantholysis B) 20 % benzyl benzoate emulsion
C) dyskeratosis C) pasta Lassara
D) mitosis D) 5 % sulfuric salicylic ointment
E) granulosa E) net ihtiolum
7. The primary proliferative morphological 16. The incubation period of scabies is:
elements include: A) papule A) 1-3 days
B) vesicle B) 8-12 days
C) blister C) 3-5 days
D) pustule D) 5-7 days
E) fissure E) 12-15 days
8. Elements formed due to edema of the 17. For scabies is characterized by:
papillary dermis is A) tubercle A) itching in the evening and night time
B) weal B) the presence of burrows ( pairing elements)
C) node C) symptom -Ardi Gorchakov
D) macule D) an indication of the triangle ( diamond
E) papule Michaelis )
9. Cicatrix - is: A) excoriation E) all of the above
B) fissure 18. Topical treatment of scabies in all of the
C) scar above applies, except:
D) scale A) method for Dem'yanovich
E) crust B) aerosolum " Spregal "
10. Varieties vascular hemorrhagic spots are all C) troksevazinovoy ointment
 D) 33 % sulfuric ointment B) on the wings of the nose
E) 20 % benzyl benzoate emulsion C) on the face
19. For the diagnosis of tinea versicolor apply: D) on the skin of hands
A) sample Balzer E) all of the typical localization
B) identify symptom Besnier (" Chip ") 28. The primary morphological element at
C) Fluorescent diagnostics scrofuloderme: A) spot
D) all of the above B) node
E) none of the above C) urtica
20. Clinical forms of rubromicosis pedis are all D) papule
listed except: E) pustule
A) erased 29. Favourite localization of scrofuloderme –
B) dyshidrotic skin of the: A) neck
C) intertriginous B) trunk
D) plantar C) limbs
E) squamous- hyperkeratotic D) face
21. The clinical features of athlete's foot with the E) scalp
defeat of the nail plate are: 30. To disseminated forms of TB skin include all
A) skin lesion in the 3rd and 4th interdigital except:
folds stop A) induratum erythema Bazin
B) loss of the nail plate of the 1st and 5th toes B) lichenoid tuberculosis
C) the frequent occurrence of epidermofitides C) warty tuberculosis
D) all of the above D) necrotic- papule tuberculosis
E) none of the above E) all forms are disseminated
22. Which of systemic antimycotics must drink 31. The causative agent of leprosy is:
vegetable oil? A) Lamisilum A) tubercle bacillus
B) griseofulvinum B) Treponema pallidum
C) orungalum C) Hansen bacillus
D) Nizoralum D) fungi of the genus trihofitonom
E) Diflucanum E) actinomycetes
23. At what height hair break off at the surface , 32. The incubation period for leprosy is:
respectively, Trichophyton and Microsporum A) 1-5 days
scalp B) 2-3 weeks
A) 1-3 and 5-8 mm above the skin surface C) 2-4 months
B) 3-5 and 8-12 mm above the skin surface D) 1 month
C) 5-8 and 1-3 mm above the skin surface E) years
D) at the same height above the skin surface 33. When leprosy affected:
24. To local forms of skin tuberculosis include A) skin
all except: A) lichenoid B) nervous system
B) lupus vulgaris C) internal organs
C) scrofuloderma D) the musculoskeletal system
D) ulcerative E) may be affected all organs and systems
E) warty 34. When any form of leprosy marked the
25. The primary morphological element in lupus earliest damage to the nervous system
vulgaris is: A) papule A) lepromatous
B) node B) undifferentiated
C) blister C) tuberculoid
D) spot D) intermediate types
E) tubercle E) in all forms of the same
26. What caused positive "phenomenon probe " 35. What drug is effective against most sticks
with lupus vulgaris Hansen A) DDS
A) thinning of the dermis B) izoniozidum
B) thinning of the epidermis C) ciproletum
C) the formation of blisters D) Penicillinum
D) destruction of the fibers of the dermis E) delagilum
E) may be the reason for any of their listed 36. The clinical picture of atopic dermatitis,
27. Lupus vulgaris is not localized: there are signs that are typical:
A) on the ears A) Eczema
 B) Psoriasis B) pruritus
C) tuberculosis skin C) scabies
D) scabies D) atopic dermatitis
E) all of the above 46. The local neurodermatitis has restricted
37. Toksikodermia occurs under the action of localization favorite:
the stimulus coming through: A) the elbows, knees, scalp
A) via the respiratory tract B) the sacrum, the anterior surface of
B) through the digestive tract extremities
C) injection C) around the orifices
D) all of the provisions are true D) flexion of the legs, back of the neck .
38. Toksikodermia example is fixed: 47. Atopic dermatitis typical focal lesions on the
A) sulfanilamide erythema skin are:
B) Lyell's syndrome A) papules and plaques
C) Stevens-Johnson`s syndrome B) plaques and expressed scaling
D) yododerma C) papules and lichenification
E) bromoderma D) vesiculation and weeping
39. In acute eczema during pathohistological 48. The prurigo should be differentiated with all
picture presented in the epidermis: of these diseases, except for:
A) granulosis A) lichen rose
B) hyperkeratosis B) scabies
C) Spongiosis C) atopic dermatitis
D) acanthosis D) lichen planus
E) acantholysis 49. The basic diagnostic symptom of Stevens-
40. Microbial eczema is mandatory inclusion Johnson syndrome is:
complex with a total of therapy: A) erythrodermic skin reaction
A) Antibiotics B) loss of hair
B) acyclovirum C) change in dystrophic nail plates
C) griseofulvinum D) bullous affection of two or more mucous
D) pentoxifyllinum membranes
E) delagilum 50 . Psoriasis - Disease:
41. Typical places seborrheic dermatitis are all A) infectious nature
except: B) allergic
A) scalp C) genetically determined , multifactorial
B) ears D) toxic- allergic
C) nasocheek folds 51. Symptom of Kebner on psoriasis positive:
D) the front surface of the tibia A) only in the stage of progress
E) the interscapular region B) in the stationary stage
42. For Eczema is characterized by C) in step regression
A) monomorphism elements D) may be at any stage of psoriasis
B) evolutionary polymorphism 52. Psevdoatrofical " collar " of Voronov in
C) the presence of only secondary elements psoriasis is defined:
D) absence of secondary elements A) in the progressive stage of the process
E) none of the above B) is a " marker " in the transition stage
43. The primary elements of eczema are: regression
A) spot C) in the stationary phase of the process
B) seropapula D) may be at any stage of psoriasis
C) vesicle 53. Symptom " bloody dew " of Polotebnov
D) all of the above characteristic:
E) none of the above A) to the papular rash at all
44. Itching - a characteristic symptom: B) for scaly plaques at all
A) psoriasis C) for scaly papules and plaques in syphilis
B) lichen planus and neurodermatitis and psoriasis
C) lichen rose and psoriasis D) only to the psoriatic elements
D) microsporia of smooth skin 54. Psoriatic triad is positive:
45 . To itchy dermatoses include all except: A) only in the stage of progress
A) herpes Zoster B) only in the regression step
 C) under steady progress and stacionar E) any possible option
D) at any stage of the disease 64. On indurative stage in development of focal
55 . K severe clinical forms of psoriasis include scleroderma shows the assignment:
all except: A) exudative A) delagilum
B) seborrheic B) liniment naftalanum
C) eritrodermical C) phonophoresis with Lydasumum
D) pustular D) 5 % sulfuric -tar ointment
E) Arthropathic 65 . For what connective tissue disease
56. For lichen planus lesions are characteristic of characterized by symptoms Besnier -
all localisations except: Meshcherskij and ladies' heel
A) back of the hand A) dermatomyositis
B) the external genitalia B) scleroderma
C) scalp C) lupus erythematosus
D) of the oral mucosa D) rheumatoid arthritis
E) the front surface of the tibia E) periarteritis nodosa
57. Lichen planus has all clinical varieties, 66. the main cause of seborrhea
except: A) pemfmgoid A) an imbalance of sex hormones
B) pointed B) viral infection
C) annular C) bad skin care
D) Arthropathic D) autoimmune processes
E) warty E) bacterial infection
58. Symptom Kebner characteristic: 67. Typical localization of acne is all except:
A) only planus A) Face
B) only for psoriasis B) neck
C) for psoriasis and lichen planus C) the upper chest
D) for psoriasis and neurodermatitis D) scalp
E) for planus and neurodermatitis E) upper body
59. To viral skin diseases are all except: 68. Antibiotics which groups are most
A) herpes simplex appropriate to prescribe for acne:
B) herpes Zoster A) penicillins
C) molluscum contagiosum B) macrolides
D) anogenital warts C) aminoglycosides
E) epidermophytia unguinal D) fluoroquinolones
60. The drug of choice in the treatment of herpes E) tetracyclines
infections is: A) Lamisilum 69. Rosacea usually affects people:
B) Diflucanum A) 1-20 years
C) sumamedum B) 20-30 years
D) Acyclovirum C) 30-40 years
61. Positive symptom Besnier - Meshcherskij D) more than 40 years
confirms: E) can be people of any age
A) follicular hyperkeratosis 70 . Which pathologic process underlies the
B) hyperkeratosis and papillomatosis development of blisters
C) surface loosening of the stratum corneum in true pemphigus?
D) uneven gipergranulosis A) acanthosis
62. The consequence of lupus vulgaris process B) acantholysis
on the scalp is: C) ballooning degeneration
A) diffuse alopecia D) spongiosa
B) scar alopecia E) vacuolar degeneration
C) alopecia areata 71. Which symptom is negative for true
D) all of the above pemphigus?
E) none of the above A) Nikolsky
63. The outcome of the process is the focal B) pears
scleroderma: C) Asbo - Hansen
A) scar atrophy D) Ardi - Gorchakov
B) secondary hyperpigmentation E) all signs are positive
C) secondary leucoderma 72. Which laboratory method is commonly used
D) complete restoration of skin structure to confirm the diagnosis of pemphigus true?
 A) IEA B) aromatic retinoids
B) culture C) delagilum
C) method of Ttsank D) cytostatics
D) histological E) sulfonic preparations
E) immunofluorescence 81. The average incubation period of syphilis is
73. When vulgar pemphigus first blisters appear A) 10-15 days
A) in the zone of seborrheic B) 15-20 days
B) in large folds C) 20-25 days
C) on the skin of the limbs D) 28-35 days
D) in the mouth ( pharynx ) E) over 35 days
E) on the skin of the trunk 82. Lengthening the incubation period of
74. The only group of medicines will help to syphilis is possible for persons:
preserve the life of patients with pemphigus are: A) suffering from alcoholism
A) cytostatics B) tuberculosis
B) vitamins A and E C) receiving the antibiotics in small doses over
C) Aromatic retinoids the concomitant pathology
D) anabolic hormones D) having multiple chancre
E) glucocorticosteroids E) lengthening the incubation period of
75 . Duration of systemic glucocorticosteroid syphilis is impossible
therapy in true pemphigus 83. The primary period of syphilis lasts
A) until complete remission A) 3-4 weeks
B) until a complete remission 6 months + B) 4-6 weeks
C) 3-5 years C) 6-8 weeks
D) drugs used for life D) 8-10 weeks
E) is about 1-2 years E) 10-12 weeks
76. Favourite localization blisters with bullous 84. Reinfection - is:
pemphigoid A) severe course of syphilis in
A) face immunocompromised persons
B) scalp B) re-infection after treatment of syphilis
C) abdomen, flexor surfaces of the limbs C) due to the inability of syphilis resistant
D) oral mucosa immunity
E) hands and feet D) violation of periodization for syphilis
77. The basis of the development of blisters in 85 . Chancre signs are:
pemphigoid and dermatitis Dühring is: A) erosion or ulcer
A) acantholysis B) round or oval outline
B) spongiosis C) The saucer shape
C) ballooning degeneration D) red - meat
D) acanthosis E) all of the above
E) epidermolysis 86. Complications of chancre are all listed,
78. Dühring`s dermatitis in the pathogenesis of except A) balanitis
dermatitis are important B) balanoposthitis
A) heredity C) phimosis
B) intolerance halogens D) paraphymosis
C) violation of digestion in the small intestine E) indurative edema
( malabsorption ) 87. If the infringement swollen glans penis
D) association with malignant processes preputial ring occurs
E) all of the factors may be relevant A) paraphimosis
79. Jadassohn`s test with potassium iodide B) gangrenization
positive for: C) fagedenization
A) pemphigoid D) balanitis
B) Duhring dermatitis E) balanopostis
C) true pemphigus 88. Regional lymphadenitis appears after a
D) all cystic dermatosis chancre through A) 3-5 days
E) leprosy B) 5-7 days
80 . Basic drugs for the treatment of dermatitis C) 7-10 days
Dühring are: D) 10-12 days
A) glucocorticosteroids E) 12-15 days
89. Lymph nodes in syphilis C) carlic
A) increased to the size of beans or hazelnut D) single
B) dense-elastic consistency E) serpiginous
C) moving 99. The most valuable clinical sign of tertiary
D) painless at palpation syphilis is:
E) All statements are true A) gummy defeat of aorta
90 . Chancre - amygdalatis - it B) gummy damage of nervous system
A) chancre with localization language C) skin rashes of gummas and tubercles
B) unilateral increase in seal tonsil E) gummy affection of bones
C) chancre with localization in the Pillar 100 . At what period usually occurs prenatally
Palatal fetal affection:
D) chancre with localization in the tonsils A) for the first month
91. The clinical characteristics of a chancre - B) 6-7 month
panarition are: C) infection occurs during the passage
A) clavate swelling terminal phalanges through the birth canal
B) a sharp pain D) 1 term
C) the presence of dense infiltrate in the base E) 4-5 month
D) the absence of erythema ostrovospalitelnyh 101. Favourite localization lesions in syphilitic
E) all of the above pemphigus
92. Indurative edema characteristic feature is A) seborrheic area
A) acute erythema B) trunk
B) a sharp pain C) genitals
C) the absence of pits on pressure D) palms and soles
D) abundant purulent discharge E) throughout the skin surface
93. At what route of infection occurs headless 102. Defeat any mucous is most characteristic of
syphilis? congenital syphilis infants
A) sexual A) of the mouth
B) contact- household B) pharynx
C) transfusional C) Nose
D) transplacental D) genitals
E) all of the answers are correct E) the conjunctiva
94. The best evidence of early latent syphilis is: 103. When osteochondritis Wegener mainly
A) dubious contact for more than 2 years ago affected:
B) titer reagin in RW 1:20 A) bone metaphyses
C) Jarisch - Herxheimer reaction in early B) bone epiphyses
penicillinum C) joints
D) the presence of rashes roseolous D) costal cartilages
95 . Gummy has sifilid favorite location is: E) bone diaphysis
A) trunk 104. For late congenital syphilis is characterized
B) scalp by a rash on the skin in the form of:
C) the submandibular triangle and neck A) papules and pustules
D) the front surface of the leg and face B) spots and papules
E) extensor surfaces of the extremities C) tubercles and spots
96. Exodus gummas can be: D) tubercles and gummas
A) scar atrophy E) gummas and papules
B) malignancy 105. By unconditional featured of late congenital
C) abscessing syphilis include:
D) traceless regression A) scars Robertson Fournier
E) decay and epithelialization B) buttock-like skull
97. Varieties gummy sifilides are all except: C) labyrinthine deafness
A) solitary gummas D) diastema Gachet
B) diffuse infiltration E) arched palate
C) carlic 106. To probable grounds of late congenital
D) periarticular knotty syphilis include:
98. The types of tubercle sifilides are all except: A) Hutchinson's teeth
A) grouped B) saddle nose
B) platform C) parenchymatous keratitis
 D) hypertrichosis of the forehead C) in middle age
E) infantile pinky D) in adolescents
107. Which of serological tests for syphilis E) in young girls
useful for mass screening studies 115. To extragenital gonorrhea refers defeat
A) Wasserman test A) Joints
B) precipitation microreaction B) pharynx
C) Reaction of passive hemagglutination C) prostate
D) Reaction of immobilization of treponema D) Skin
pallidum E) endocervical
E) Reaction of immunofluorescence 116. The main centers for gonorrhea of the
108. Which of serological tests may be positive lower urinary tract in women
in primary seronegative syphilis A) vulva and urethra
A) Wasserman B) Bartholin gland and vulva
B) precipitation microreaction C) and the urethra canal of the cervix
C) RIF D) canal of the cervix and vagina
D) RITP E) Bartholin gland and vagina
E) none of the reactions 117. The incubation period for trichomoniasis is
109. The patient was diagnosed with syphilis A) 2-3 days
shown: B) 5-14 days
A) specific treatment C) 3-7 days
B) preventive treatment D) 3-4 weeks
C) prophilactic Treatment E) 3-4 months
D) treatment trial 118. If trichomoniasis in women the most
E) treatment on epidemiological indications striking clinical manifestations associated with:
110. Pregnant women who have previously A) urethritis
received specific treatment for syphilis , in the B) bartholinitis
absence of negativation seroreactions held: C) endocervitsitis
A) specific treatment D) vulvovaginitis
B) preventive treatment E) salpingitis
C) prophylactic treatment 119. Immunity develops in patients undergoing
D) treatment trial A) gonorrhea
E) treatment on epidemiological indication B) trichomoniasis
111. The person who is 2 weeks ago, blood C) chlamydiosis
transfusion from a patient with syphilis, D) All answers are correct
showing: E) all of the answers wrong
A) specific treatment 120. If mixt- infection gonorrhea and urogenital
B) preventive treatment chlamydia should give preference to
C) prophylactic treatment A) penicillinum
D) treatment trial B) doxycyclinum
E) treatment on epidemiological indications C) ciprofloxacinum
112. By disseminated gonorrhea include lesions: D) gentamicinum
A) of the conjunctiva E) amoxicillinum
B) urethra 121. To infection, sexually transmitted diseases
C) the anus are A) CMV - infection
D) Joints B) Hepatitis B
E) bartoline glands C) HIV infection
113. The first control cure gonorrhea conducted D) Herpes simplex
after completion of antibiotic E) all of the above
A) immediately 122. Gonorrhea cause relapse after therapy may
B) 7-10 days be A) insensitivity to the antibiotic
C) 2 weeks B) reinfection
D) through month C) mixt- infection with trichomonas
E) 3 months D) none of the above
114. Chance asexual gonorrhea infection is E) all of the above
greatest 123. By NGU does not apply
A) in health care workers A) urogenital chlamydia
B) in the elderly B) candidal urethritis
 C) genital warts B) nerves
D) ureaplasmosis C) nails
E) trichomoniasis D) muscle
124 . Trichomonas vaginalis is able to be E) glands
transmitted 8. elementss that resolve completely:
A) through a kiss A) papule
B) when using a towel or personal hygiene items B) urtica
C) while swimming in the pool C) tubercle
D) by blood transfusion D) node
E) all of the above is true E) ulcer
125. infections, sexually transmitted diseases 9. Papules size are:
are A) CMV - infection A) subepidermal
B) Hepatitis B B) miliary
C) HIV infection C) lenticular
D) Herpes simplex D) intraepidermal
E) all of the above E) epidermal
10. Kinds of scars:
Moderate tests A) atrophic
B) vascular
1.apokrine glands are localized: C) papillary
A) In the armpits D) net
B) On the palms E) normotrofic
C) In the inguinal folds 11. Spongiosis - is:
D) In the perineum region A) intercellular edema
E) On the soles B) intracellular edema
2 . Dermis layers consists of: C) decoupling prickly epidermotsites
A) corneum D) desmosomes gap
B) lucidum E) gap melanocytes
C) papillary 12. Papillomatosis - is:
D) reticulary A) thickening of all layers of the epidermis
E) granular B) elongation of dermal papilla
3 . Sebaceous glands are classified by: C) branching dermal papilla
A) Size D) excess mitosis
B) Since secretion E) swelling of the dermis
C) Structures 13. The regulation of secretion of the sebaceous
D) are associated with hair glands is carried out:
E) localization A) pancreatic hormones
4 . How different node from tubercle? B) thyroid hormones
A) Form C) of the thymus gland hormones
B) The size D) of the nervous system
C) The color E) pituitary hormones
D) The depth of occurrence in the skin 14. The sebaceous glands can be:
E) the composition of the cellular infiltrate A) The eccrine
5 . Scar formed after: B) tubular
A) ulcers C) Holocrine
B) erosion D) associated with hair follicles
C) fissures E) is not associated with hair follicles
D) excoriation 15. Apocrine glands are located:
E) lichenification A) in the axillar area
6. Basal layer cells of the epidermis consist of: B) on the soles
A) basal epidermocytes C) in the genital area
B) Langerhans cells D) in the groin folds
C) cones Krause E) on the palms
D) Ruffini corpuscles 16. Papulae size are:
E) melanocytes A) upperepidermal
7. Appendages ofl skin include: B) subepidermal
A) vessels
 C) lenticular D) blisters
D) nummular E) nodes
E) intraepidermal 26. Types of scabies mite infection in:
17. Vacuolar degeneration - is: A) males
A) intercellular edema B) females
B) extracellular edema C) nymphs
C) formation of vacuoles in the cytoplasm D) larvae
epidermocytes E) eggs
D) desmosomes gap 27. Scabies infection is possible if:
E) pyknosis nuclei epidermocytes A) sexual contact
18. Atrophy of the skin - is: B) close bodily contact
A) the flattening of the papillary layer C) massage
B) mesh layer thinning D) through clothing
C) a decrease in vascular dermis E) kiss
D) intercellular edema 28. Favorite localization burrows: A) brush
E) intracellular edema B) foot
19. Horny layer provides resistance: C) wrist
A) radioprotective D) face
B) mechanical E) neck
C) antidotes 29. Characteristic symptoms of scabies:
D) tactile A) Beignets
E) bacterial B) Nikolsky
20. For the temperature sensitivity answered: C) Gorchakov
A) Merkel cells D) Sezary
B) the bulb Krause E) Balzer
C) Vater - Pacini corpuscles 30. For psevdosarkoptozisis typically
D) Ruffini corpuscles A) localization on exposed skin
E) Meissner corpuscles B) loss of hair
21. Primary morphological elements: C) the presence of urticarial papules
A) scar D) weak itching
B) crust E) the presence of crusts
C) crack 31. Methods of laboratory diagnosis of scabies:
D) node A) inoculation of nutrient media
E) weal B) Removing the tick needle
22. On-site vesicles occurs : A) crust C) immunofluorescence
B) crack D) method scrapings
C) pustule E) smears
D) scale 32. Detection in human lice diagnosed:
E) ulcer A) lice
23. Impetigo differs from phlyctenas: B) pediculosis
A) content C) scabies
B) depth of the epidermis D) ftiriazisis
C) the size of E) lousiness
D) views of tires 33. The clinical symptoms of head lice - the
E) evolution defeat: A) Hair
B) armpits
24. Norwegian scabies C) eyebrows
A) is the usual geographical variety of scabies D) trunk
B) caused by abnormal reaction of the host E) the hair. of the head in the form of crusts
C) is called scabies - animal parasites 34. The clinical symptoms of pubic lice:
D) usually have disabled and mentally A) the presence of pyoderma in the outbreaks
retarded people B) the presence of foci spots on dark blue or
E) is normal relapse blue color
25. For a typical characteristic of scabies C) the location of insects in the growth of pubic
A) roseola hair
B) papules D) the location of the insects on scalp
C) point itchy vesicles E) the presence of crusts
35. Wardrobe clinical symptoms of head lice: sweat glands?
A) lesions on the face A) multiple abscesses in children
B) lesions on the head B) staphylococcal sycosis
C) the presence of skin pigmentation, C) cleft impetigo
lichenification, abrasions D) vulgar impetigo
D) the presence of crusts E) veziculopustulosis
E) presence of insects in the folds of clothing 45 . Soreness on chankriform pyoderma
36. Exogenous factors contributing to the A) no
development of pyoderma: B) moderate
A) skin injury C) strong
B) acromegaly D) is very strong
C) hypothermia E) minor
D) cardiomyopathy 46. On chankriform pyoderma the regional
E) overheating lymph nodes disappear
37. Stafilodermia to include: A) simultaneously with healing ulcers
A) turniol B) 1 week after ulcer healing
B) furunculum C) 2-3 weeks after ulcer healing
C) shankriform pyoderma D) 3-4 weeks after ulcer healing
D) vulgar sycosis E) after 6-8 weeks after ulcer healing
E) angular cheilitis 47. On chankriform pyoderma regional the
38. For streptoderma typically: lymph nodes
A) the spread of breadth A) is not increased
B) the spread of inland B) increased
C) seromucous exudate C) tightly - elastic
D) hard tire pustules D) soft
E) sluggish tire pustules E) fluctuating
39. Primary morphological elements of 48. On chankriform peodermia the infiltrate is
streptodermia: A) phlyctenas A) Soft
B) impetigo B) dense
C) acne C) does not protrude beyond the borders of the
D) papule ulcer
E) ecthyma D) stands for border ulcers
40. Items when stafilodermiya: E) moderate density
A) node 49. On chankriform pyoderma the regional
B) tubercle lymph nodes
C) ecthyma A) is not soldered together and the surrounding
D) rupya B) are soldered to each other and to the
E) impetigo surrounding skin
41. Streptodermia include: C) painful
A) erysipelas D) painless
B) hydradenitis E) are not increased
C) furuncle 50 . Erysipelas
D) angular stomatitis A) a streptococcal infection of the skin and
E) ostiofollikulitis subcutaneous tissue
42. Clinical symptoms of vulgar sycosis: B) often localized on the face
A) loss of hair C) staph infection
B) defeated the beard and mustache D) a mixed infection
C) regional lymphadenitis E) viral infection
D) the appearance of scars 51. The symptoms of streptococcal pyoderma
E) polyadenylatis are
43. On chankriform pyoderma regional A) flat pustules
lymph. nodes: A) is not increased B) pustules tense, conical or hemispherical
B) increased shape
C) soft C) defeat sebaceous hair follicles and sweat
D) density elastic glands
E) fluctuated D) pustules flabby
44. Pyoderma what caused the defeat of eccrine E) solid tire
52. For streptococcal impetigo characterized all D) « ring on ring"
of the above, except E) scaling
A) appears on the skin of flicten 61. For trihofitia of scalp characterized
B) yellow crusts A) small multiple foci
C) the rapid spread of B) in the lesions seen unchanged hair
D) inflammatory nodes C) at the base of the sleeve white hair
E) lichenification D) a clear outline hearth
53. For tinea versicolor is characterized by: E) large pockets , continuous loss of hair
A) roseola 62. The scutul form favuse characterized all but
B) noninflammatory spots A) atrophic and lifeless hair
C) weals B) mouse odor
D) pseudoleykoderma C) scar atrophy
E) hemorrhagic spots D) ecthyma
54. Pathognomonic signs for tinea versicolor: E) rupee
A) symptom Nikolsky 63. Microsporia Infection can occur
B) symptom Besnier - Meshcherskij A) in children's groups
C) Balzer test B) in contact with cats and dogs
D) sample of Jadassohn C) at harvest
E) symptom Besnier D) when working on livestock farms
55 . The development of candidiasis is promotes E) in contact with rodent
all of the above, except 64. To destroy hair at mikrosporia characteristic
A) Diabetes of all of the above, except
B) long-term treatment with antibiotics A) partial breaking of hair in the lesion at a
C) sweating, skin maceration height of 1-2 mm
D) coronary artery disease B) the breaking of hair at a height of 4-8 mm
E) hypertension C) the availability of an off-white sleeve around
56. Moulds affect all of the above, except the broken hair
A) Skin D) hair green glow when irradiated lesions
B) muscles Wood's lamp
C) Nail E) brick-red glow
D) internal organs 65 . For microsporia scalp characteristic of all of
E) Hair the above, except
57. The modern name of pathogens A) small foci
Trichophyton B) at the base of the hair white sleeve
A) trihofiton purple C) lesions have a clear outline
B) tonzuras D) centers of large, continuous loss of hair
C) acuminate E) multiple foci
D) crateriform 66. For scutular form of favus are characteristic
E) cat A) Erythema
58. Microscopic unlike affected hair B) scar atrophy
with pus-infiltrative trihofitia concerns C) black dots
A) endotrics D) hemp
B) ectotrics E) broken off hair at 5-7 mm
C) spores located chain 67. Microscopic contrast of affected hair on
D) spores located randomly superficial trihophitai concerns
E) spores located mosaic A) endotrics
59. For tinea versicolor are typical B) ectotrics
A) during the acute C) spores located chain
B) the presence of spots D) spores located randomly
C) powdery scaling E) mosaic dispute
D) scalloped outline foci 68. Clinical forms of candidiasis are not
E) peeling A) mucosal candidiasis
60 . For deep trihofitia characteristic B) actinomycosis
A) lesions in the form of " iris " C) visceral candidiasis
B) the presence of acute infiltrates D) chronic generalized candidiasis
C) positive symptom " honeycomb " E) vegetating candidiasis
69. The clinical forms of favus scalp are all of
these except C) the formation of papules
A) skutular D) scars
B) squamous E) the hair atrophy
C) blackpoint 78. The unguinal epidermophytia include all of
D) erythematous the above, except
E) piterioid A) infiltration
70 . Factors contributing to the development of B) affection of pedis
candidiasis of the skin, are all of these except C) affection of nails
A) excessive insolation D) coral-red glow of the luminescence
B) hypothermia E) favored localization
C) immunodeficiency 79. Microsporia of smooth skin is characterized
D) dysbiosis by all of the above, except
E) endocrine and metabolic disorders A) eritemato - squamous lesions
71. The mycoses caused by zoofilic fungi are B) fuzzy boundaries
A) microsporia C) rapid spontaneous resolution
B)pus- infiltrative trichophytia D) bubble edge foci
C) superficial trichophytia E) peeling
D) rubromycosis 80 . The main forms of athlete's foot are all
E) epidermophytia listed, except A) dyshidrotic
72.The zoofilic fungies cause B) deep
A) microsporia C) squamous
B) superficial trichophytia D) superficial
C) deep trichophytia E) intertriginous
D) pityriasis versicolor 81. for unguinal epidermophytia are typically
E) trihomycosis A) localization in large folds
73. Fungal infections of the skin caused all the B) erythema and edema
listed agents, except C) pain
A) trihophyton D) lymphangitis
B) epidermophyton E) fever
C) sticks Hansen 82.the onychomycosis is characterized by
D) yeasts clinical symptoms
E) sticks Koch A) nail polish
74. microsporia of smooth skin is characterized B) nail is sharpen with free edge
by all of the above, except C) nail crumbling , " eaten " by the free edge
A) spots D) nail dull, grayish-yellow color
B) fuzzy boundaries E) a symptom of " thimble "
C) permits rapid spontaneous 83. For dyshidrotic form of epidermophytia
D) scaling pedis is not typical
E) pustules A) localization on the skin of the foot arch
75. tinea versicolor characterized by all of the B) the presence of vesicles, erosions
above, except C) hyperemia, weeping
A) chronic course D) defeat of major folds
B) blotchy rash E) low infectivity
C) defurfuration 84. The deep trihophytia characterized all of the
D) itching above, except
E) localization of the extremities A) lack of inflammation
76. The clinical features of pus-infiltrative B) availability of acute infiltrate
trihophytia are C) symptom " honeycomb "
A) purulent crusts D) chronicity
B) follicular abscesses E) spontaneous resolution
C) nodes 85 . Hairs are break on 1-2 mm from the skin
D) tubercles A) superficial trihophytiai
E) vegetations B) microsporia
77. For favuse characteristic all of the above, C) trihophytiai deep
except D) trihofitii pus-infiltrative
A) the presence of crusts ( skutul ) E) alopecia
B) brittle hair
86. Griseofulvin dose calculation in D) crustl
Trichophytia and Microsporia of scalp made E) weeping
accordingly based 95 .The simple contact dermatitis is
A) 10-15 , and 15-20 mg / kg body weight characterized by:
B) 16-18 mg / kg body weight A) sensitization of the organism
C) 21-22 mg / kg body weight B) common process
D) 5-10 and 5-10 mg / kg body weight C) the impact of the stimulus obligate
87. Under the influence of obligate stimulus D) localization only on the point of contact
occurs: E) the impact of the stimulus optional
A) allergic dermatitis
96. The disease from the group toxicoderma
B) manmade dermatitis
A) chafing
C) toxic dermatitis
B) fixed eruption
D) the artificial dermatitis
C) pathomimics
E) toxic- allergic dermatitis
D) yododerma
88. For the treatment of contact dermatitis
E) sudamen
simple need:
97. Variety of microbial eczema:
A) detoxication therapy
A) impetiginous
B) glucocorticoid therapy inside
B) herpeticum
C) elimination of the cause
C) Varicose
D) local therapy
D) nummular
E) the appointment of hepatic
E) corneum
89. The clinical picture of toxicoderma not
98. Irritants are obligate
occur:
A) foods
A) erythema and blisters
B) cosmetic products
B) papules and vesicles
C) vesicant
C) erosion and crusting
D) concentrated solutions of salts heavy and
D) fissures and scales
alkali metals
E) nodes and tubercles
E) detergents
90 .The tocsicoepidermal necrolysis of Lyell in
99. Nonallergic contact dermatitis is
general complex treatment to include:
characterized by
A) furokumarinum drugs
A) acute inflammation of the skin at the site of
B) antisense drugs
contact with an irritant
C) glucocorticosteroid drugs
B) acute inflammation of the skin that go
D) antimalarials
beyond the site exposed to the stimulus
E) antivirals
C) clear boundaries
91. Sycosiform eczema is localized on the skin:
D) blurred
A) lower third shins
E) -edged
B) in the beard
100 . Simple contact dermatitis characterized by
C) in the whisker
all of the above, except
D) pedis
A) clear boundaries
E) dorsum of the hands
B) localization of the points of contact with an
92. Varieties of microbial eczema are:
irritant
A) Varicose
C) weals
B) paratravmatic
D) hyperemia
C) sycosiform
E) vegetations
D) nummular
E) seborrheic 101. The contact dermatitis least affected
93. Seborrheic eczema is localized A) ever
A) on the limbs B) neck
B) on the skin of the upper body C) the soles
C) in the interscapular region D) hands
D) on the skin of the abdomen E) palms
E) on the back of the hands and feet 102. Perioral dermatitis (besides the perioral
94. During eczema isolated stages: area ) may be localized to the skin following
A) hyperkeratotic sections except
B) edematous A) nasolabial folds
C) atrophic B) chin and neck
 C) of the scalp D) localization on the front surface of the tibia
D) periorbital and forehead , nose E) spots
E) ears
111. Neurodermatitis for focal lesions
103. Development of perioral dermatitis
characterized by zones:
associated with all of these reasons, except
A) papular
A) cosmetics
B) atrophy
B) annoying toothpaste, lipstick annoying
C) hypopigmentation
C) prolonged use of corticosteroids external
D) vegetations
resources
E) lichenification
D) seborrhea
112. Observed for severe itching:
E) pyoderma
A) papules
104. In the pathogenesis of atopic dermatitis
B) roseola
play the role of all these factors, except
C) excoriation
A) blockade of b- adrenergic receptors ,
D) polished nails
membranodestruktivnyh processes
E) pustules
B) allergy to microbial antigens
113. Strophulus characterized by:
C) a food allergy
A) the presence of papules, vesicles
D) congenital defect inhibitor of complement
B) deflorescence with temporary pigmentation
C3-
C) the presence of vegetations
E) overproduction of uric acid
D) no itching
105. Toksikodermiya characterized by all
E) the presence of nodes
except:
114. Psoriasis itchy:
A) violent inflammatory reaction of the skin
A) exudative
B) the high rate of up to erythroderma
B) pustular
C) stagnant skin inflammation
C) eritrodermic
D) rapid regression after eliminating contact
D) palmoplantar
with the allergen
E) arthropathic
E) slow flow
115. Forms of psoriasis depends on the size of
106.Elements of pruritus: A) blood crasts papules: A) guttata
B) papules B) annular
C) roseola C) point
D) exoriations D) diffuse
E) vesicles E) annular
107. Prurigo should be differentiated with all of
116. on psoriasis observed pathologically
these diseases, except for:
A) hyperproliferation of epidermal cells
A) lichen rose
B) violation of differentiation of epidermal cells
B) scabies
C) the formation of epidermal blistering
C) atopica
D) spongiosa
D) planus
E) ballooning degeneration of epidermal cells
E) lupus erythematosus
117. The main clinical manifestations of
108. Itching to differentiate:
psoriasis vulgaris are:
A) pyoderma
A) papules and pustules
B) scabies
B) papules and scratches
C) psoriasis
C) papules and plaques
D) prurigo
D) erythematous patches
E) lupus erythematosus
E) papules and scales
109. Hospital acute urticaria
118. Typical lichen planus should be
A) ephemerality rash
differentiated from diseases accompanied by
B) violation of sweating
education: A) blisters
C) after the sudden onset of exposure to the
B) papules
allergen
C) plaques
D) skin atrophy
D) grouped vesicles
E) polymorphism rash
E) pustules and crusts
110. Clinic nodular prurigo
119. on external therapy of lichen planus shown:
A) papulo- vesicles
A) corticosteroids
B) wesls
B) keratolytics
C) itching
 C) corticosteroids E) the palms and soles
D) keratoplastics 127. Clinical characteristics in typical form
E) with antiseptic lotion papules planus on the oral mucosa:
120. Typical sprinkler elements planus have the A) red
following characteristics, in addition B) are isolated
A) papules flat , polygonal , reddish- purple C) barely above the level of the mucous
color D) have a purple hue
B) depressions in the center of the papules E) merge to form a mesh, ring, arc
C) localization on the head 128. Favorite places localization in lichen
D) on the surface of the grid Wickham papules planus:
E) preferential localization on the face A) front of the leg
B) elbows and knees
121. During normal psoriasis favorite and the
C) palms and soles
most common site of lesions is all of the above,
D) Hair . part of the head
except
E) flexion of the forearm
A) scalp
129. Typical elements of lichenplanus have the
B) oral mucosa
following features, except
C) the flexor surfaces of the extremities
A) papules flat , polygonal , reddish- purple
D) elbows and knees
color
E) the sacrum
B) depressions in the center of the papules
122. To nail involvement in psoriasis is
C) localization on the head
characterized by
D) Wickham`s net on surfaces of papules
A) impression as thimble
E) preferential localization on the face
B) a polished look
130. During normal psoriasis favorite and most
C) subungual hemorrhage
frequent localization of lesions is all of the
D) Koilonychia
above, except
E) platonihiia
A) of the scalp
123. For stationary stage of psoriasis is
B) oral mucosa
characterized by all of the above, except
C) the flexor surfaces of the extremities
A) elements are fully covered with silvery -
D) elbows and knees
white scales
E) the sacrum
B) around the elements - " psevdoatrofic " rim of
131. For urogenital candidiasis are not typical:
Voronov
A) The soreness during sexual intercourse
C) the termination of the appearance of new
B) Itching
lesions
C) Spin-off with the smell of rotten fish
D) the lack of growth of peripheral elements
D) The bright redness of the vagina
E) rim of Pilnov
E) Key cells
124. Regressive stage of psoriasis is
132. Forms of exudative erythema multiforme:
characterized by
A) Hereditary
A) isomorphic al reaction
B) Autoimmune
B) development around the elements "
C) Infectious- allergic
psevdoatroficheskogo " rim Voronov
D) toxic-allergic
C) the absence of peripheral growth elements
E) Alimentary
D) symptom of Pilnov
133. Elements of erytema multiforme:
E) redness of eruptive elements
A) Erythema
125. General for psoriasis and lichen planus
B) Blisters
symptoms:
C) Papules
A) monomorphic papular rash
D) weals
B) frequent mucous
E) fissures
C) isomorphic Koebner `s reaction
134. Spots erytema multiforme are characterized
D) severe itching
by the features:
E) loss of scalp
A) The presence of hemorrhages
126. Localization lesions in lichen planus: B) combi - cyanotic color in the center, on the
A) scalp periphery-the pink
B) anterior surface of the tibia C) The presence of itching
C) elbows and knees D) Localization on the rear of the hands and feet
D) flexor surface of the forearm E) Lack of itching
135.on erytema multiforme the process is often 144. on vulgar pemphigus the first blisters are
involved: appear
A) internal organs A) in the zone of seborrheic
B) oral mucosa B) in large folds
C) the vermilion border C) on the skin of the limbs
D) Nails D) on the oral mucosa
E) nearnail roller
E) in the throat
136. Duration of eruptive period on lichen rose: 145. To bulla in pemphigus vulgaris is not
A) 1-2 weeks typical:
B) 6-7 weeks A) thin loose tire
C) 3-4 weeks B) solid tire
D) more than 3 months . C) tendency to rapid epithelialization
E) 7-8 weeks D) positive symptom Asbo - Hansen
137.the lichen rose is characterized by: E) the first appearance of bubbles in the throat
A) the parent plaque
146. Clinic for dermatitis herpetiformis Duhring
B) localization along the lines of Langer
is characterized by:
C) localization of the zones Zakharyin -Ged
A) monomorphism
D) groups vesicles
B) polymorphism
E) pain
C) bunching elements
138. The lichen rose species:
D) paresthesia
A) annular Vidal
E) focal elements
B) hypertrophic
147. At what bullous dermatosis patients often
C) papular
simultaneously detected increased sensitivity to
D) atrophic
gluten?
E) pigment
A) with dermatitis Dühring
139. The types of lichen rose:
B) with dermatitis herpetiformis
A) pustular
C) with acquired epidermolysis bullosa
B) urticar
D) with pemphigus erythematosus
C) vesicular
E) in the syndrome of Stevens - Johnson
D) bullous
148. Acantholysis with high location epidermal
E) erosive
blisters in the granular layer of the skin on
140. Clinic of lichen rose
biopsy revealed by :
A) painful itching
A) herpes pregnant
B) « Medallion " kind of rashes
B) pemphigus foliaceous
C) scratching
C) acquired epidermolysis bullosa
D) peeling elements
D) exfoliative pemphigus
E) crasts
E) bullous pemphigoid Lever
141. Elements in true pemphigus: 149. Typical signs for tubercles on LE:
A) Erosion A) the emergence of the field of scar atrophy
B) blisters B) large size
C) Erythema C) soft consistence
D) vesicles D) thick consistency
E) weals E) peripheral growth
142. Symptoms of true pemphigus: 150. Lupus vulgaris on children are affected:
A) Pospelov A) face
B) Nikolsky B) trunk
C) Asbo - Hansen C) of the forearm and lower leg
D) Balzer D) Oral mucosal
E) vitropression E) submandibular region
143. Preparations necessarily accompany 151. Resolution of tubercles on lupus vulgaris:
hormone therapy: A) disappear completely
A) Preparations of potassium B) dry way with the outcome in the scar atrophy
B) Cytotoxic agents C) necrosis with subsequent scarring
C) Ascorbic acid D) dry path with form the persistent
D) Analgesics pigmentation
E) Antihistamines E) erosions with formation of scar atrophy
152. Clinical forms of lupus vulgaris: C) released lichen planus
A) idiopathic D) scabies
B) disseminated E) if any one of these disorders
C) acute 161. In acute stage of LE in treatment used:
D) system A) Antibiotics
E) centrifugal erythema Biett B) corticosteroids
153. For disease of white spots is characterized C) antimalarials
by: D) cytostatics
A) the predominance of women E) antidepressants
B) the presence of induration 162. the LE have the following stages:
C) erythema A) swelling
D) the appearance of vegetations B) lihenification
E) the presence of spots with mild atrophy C) seal
154. The clinical forms of local scleroderma, D) hyperkeratosis
often occurring in children: E) Erythema
A) atrophoderma Pasini - Pierini 163. Basic drugs for the treatment of focal
B) patchy scleroderma:
C) face progressive hemiatrophy A) corticosteroids
D) linear B) enzymes (lidaza, ronidaza)
E) lichen sclerosus C) cytostatics
155. Discoid lupus erythematosus should be D) Cardiovascular drugs (Teonikolum,
differentiated from: andekalinum, nikoshpanum )
A) Rosacea E) sulfonamides
B) photodermatitis 164. For herpes simplex characteristic of all
C) Duhring dermatitis these features, except
D) erysipelas A) erythema
E) with any of the above B) weals
156. For urogenital candidiasis characterized by C) the group of bubbles
isolation: A) foam D) blisters
B) milk E) erosions
C) purulent 165. The clinical symptoms of herpes simplex
D) cheesy all of the above applies, except
E) spotting A) roseolas
157. on SLE most frequently and severely B) papules
affected: C) the presence of congestion around the center
A) the stomach and intestines of the corolla
B) conjunctiva D) grouping rashes on a limited area of the skin
C) heart E) tendency to relapse
D) kidneys 166. For tinea versicolor characterized
E) the lungs and pleura A) Erythema
158. On erythema- edematous phase of focal B) skin atrophy
scleroderma shows the assignment: C) vegetation
A) autohemotherapy D) necrosis
B) penicillin E) swelling
C) sodium fuzidin 167. For tinea versicolor characterized all of the
D) liniment naftalan signs, except
E) analgesics A) severe pain
159. Disseminated lupus erythematosus should B) Immunity
be differentiated from: C) dissemination rash all over body
A) psoriasis D) asymmetry and grouping rash
B) shingles E) the absence of relapses
C) chronic streptococcal 168. The clinical variants of herpes zoster
D) true eczema include all of these, except
E) parapsoriasis A) Vesicular
160. Delagilum and Plaquenilum used on: B) bullous
A) lupus erythematosus C) generalized
B) pyoderma D) hypertrophic
 E) urticar B) lotions
169. The drug of choice in the treatment of C) ointments and creams
herpes infections is: A) Lamisil D) paste and mash
B) Diflucan E) gadgets
C) sumamed 178. In the pathogenesis of acne vulgaris takes
D) Acyclovir plase:
E) valcyclovir A) radiation
170. the treatment of plantar warts with B) emotional stress
keratolytic aim are appoint: C) Hyperactivity of the sebaceous glands
A) 5 % resorcinol alcohol D) Photosensitivity
B) 2% salicylic ointment E) The activity of bacteria
C) 20 % salicylic ointment 179. to superficial forms of acne vulgaris
D) ointment with urea include: A) Abscess acne
E) 5 % dermatol-tar ointment B) Comedones
171. Molluscum contagiosum should be C) flegmonous acne
differentiated from: D) Papular acne
A) herpes simplex E) acne conglobata
B) warts 180 . commonl therapy for acne includes:
C) psoriasis vulgaris A) Aromatic retinoids
D) microbial eczema B) Antihistamines
E) lichen planus C) Anti-androgens
172. Ways of infection by warts: D) Cytostatics
A) Transfusion E) antidepressants
B) Direct contact
181. In the pathogenesis of rosacea play a
C) airborne
leading role:
D) After the infected items
A) The mite Demodex folliculorum
E) transmissive
B) Photosensitivity
173. The appearance of grouped vesicles on
C) The pathology of the cardiovascular system
erythematous- edematous background,
D) Hyperglycemia
accompanied by painful , testifies about:
E) angioneurotic disorders
A) eczema
182. During rosacea isolated following stages:
B) contact- allergic dermatitis
A) erythematous
C) herpes zoster
B) hyperkeratotic
D) pyoderma
C) papular
E) herpes simplex
D) atrophic
174. Acne vulgaris localized to:
E) rupioid
A) lower extremities
183. Which diseases should be differentiated
B) face
with rosacea?
C) Belly
A) psoriasis
D) back
B) lupus erythematosus
E) buttocks
C) Photodermatitis
175 . the forms of seborrhea:
D) Pityriasis Rosea
A) pitirioid
E) dermatitis
B) thick oily
184. Forms of psoriasis depends on the size of
C) androgenic
papules: A) guttata
D) dry
B) annular
E) wet
C) point
176. The most frequent complications of fat
D) diffuse
seborrhea are:
E) ring like
A) seborrheic pemphigus
185. Which diseases often have to differentiate
B) vulgar Sycosis
vitiligo?
C) rosacea
A) lichen planus
D) acne vulgaris
B) pityriasis versicolor
E) seborrheic baldness
C) microsporia smooth skin
177. As a topical treatment for acne vulgaris is
D) psoriasis
most preferably used:
E) white spot disease
A) alcohols
186. Treponema pallidum open by A) syphilitic hepatitis
A) Schaudinn B) syphilis of joints
B) Hoffman C) cardiovascular syphilis
C) Wasserman D) syphilis of bones
D) Neisseria E) all of the answers are correct
E) Fournier 196. Developmental outcomes of syphilis in 5
187. The following body fluids are considered years from the time of infection can be any
not infectious A) blood except:
B) sperm A) late latent
C) breast milk B) secondary fresh
D) urine C) secondary recurrent
E) sweat D) late visceral
188. Extragenital chancre is localized in the E) progressive paralysis
region: A) of the glans penis 197. Tertiary syphilides tertiary are :
B) prepuce foreskin A) the paucity
C) lip B) goodness
D) large and small labia C) painless
E) anus D) the multiplicity
189. Atypical chancre are all but E) pain
A) chancre - amigdalita 198. One of the outcomes is the development of
B) chancre - panarition tubercles: A) malignancy
C) chankriform pyoderma B) the decay
D) chancre – indurative edema C) atrophic scar
E) tonsillitis D) decay and epithelialization
190. Differential diagnosis of the chancre is E) fibrosis
conducted with all pathologies except: 199. Scar after bunched tubercle sifilids
A) herpes genitalis characterized by:
B) scabietic ecthyma A) mosaic
C) chankriform pyoderma B) scalloped edge
D) psoriasis C) Inverted
E) exudative erythema D) all of the above
191. The contagious forms of syphilis are E) nothing of the above
include: A) early latent 200. Grouped tubercle sifilids should be
B) late latent differentiated from:
C) a tertiary active A) lupus vulgaris
D) tertiary hidden B) microbial eczema
E) secondary latent C) lichen rose
192 . on Lues II recidiva contagious are all D) psoriasis
substrates except: E) erythematosis
A) Urine 201. Gummy sifilid should be differentiated
B) blood from: A) chancroid
C) separated erosive papules B) scrofuloderma
D) lymph node punctate C) trophic ulcer
E) sweat D) erythema nodosum
193. Latent syphilis is characterized by: E) erysipelas
A) lack of clinics and negative RW 202. The most typical lesion of syphilis of
B) mild clinical manifestations and negative RW cardiovascular system:
C) lack of clinics A) aortic valve stenosis
D) positive seroreactions B) cardiomyopathy
E) the presence of clinics and (+)seroreactions. C) adhesive pericarditis
194. the best evidence of late latent syphilis are: D) warty endocarditis
A) RW and RMP E) mezaortit
B) RMP and IEA 203. The man had sexual contact with syphilis 6
C) RW and RIF months . ago, no clinic, in the cerebrospinal fluid
D) RIF - Lymphocytosis, hyperglobulinemia, RW
E) RITP +3. diagnosis:
195. Night pains are characteristic: A) secondary latent syphilis
B) acute syphilitic meningitis D) superinfection with no new chancre in a
C) early neurosyphilis certain period of time
D) latent meningitis E) occurs when reinfection
E) Late neurosyphilis ( syphilitic meningitis ) 212. Lengthening the incubation period is
204. Syphilides For fresh secondary syphilis is facilitated by:
characterized by all except: A) antibiotics
A) abundant B) stresses
B) bright C) alcoholism, drug addiction
C) small D) reception antispasmodics
D) grouped E) redundant power
E) shelled 213. Conditions necessary for syphilis:
205. Which organs are most affected with A) violation of the integrity of the skin
syphilis fetus B) the presence of a contagious period
A) nervous system C) positive seroreactions
B) endocrine glands D) decreased immunity
C) Liver E) frequent sex
D) spleen 214. Pathways syphilitic infection:
E) heart A) lymphogenous
206. Sifilids are characteristic for congenital B) hematogenous
syphilis infants C) Vascular
A) papules D) kanalikulyarny
B) angina E) placental
C) alopecia 215. Chancre is: A) erosion
D) leucoderma B) spot
E) syphilitic pemphigus C) papule
207. what form of acquired syphilis similar with D) ulcer
clinic congenital syphilis early childhood E) ecthyma
A) primary 216. Multiple chancres referred to as:
B) secondary fresh A) regional
C) a tertiary B) bipolar
D) secondary recurrent C) atypical
E) may be similar to any form of D) chancres - prints
208. The drug is not effective against E) complicated
Treponema pallidum, is: 217. Favorite places ofl localization of crust
A) gentamicinum chancre: A) pubis
B) doxycyclinum B) lips
C) Biseptolum C) chin
D) erythromycinum D) scrotum
E) ceftriaxonum E) language
209. Outpatient treatment for syphilis is the most 218. Tactics of physician for disadvantaged
preferred drug: Paraphimosis:
A) benzylpenicillinum A) dynamic observation
B) ampicillinum B) the appointment of lotions
C) ekstentsillinum C) use of antibiotics
D) benzathine - benzylpenicillinum D) transfer in paraphimosis on phimosis
E) novocaine penicillinum E) surgical excision of the prepuce
210. Acyanotic forms of TP: 219. Diagnosis for S I (-):
A) cysts A) RITP
B) polimembranous phagosomes B) Investigation of liquor
C) disputes C) Investigation of lymph node punctate
D) Capsules D) RIF
E) intracellular location E) Infection of experimental animals
211. antichanker immunity characteristics at: 220. For malignant course of syphilis is
A) duration of 10-12 days characterized by:
B) occurs when used antibiotics A) The abundance of secondary syphilides
C) is characteristic for alcoholics and drug B) infection by transfusion
addicts C) The incubation period of more than 6 months
D) The presence of pustules C) methylene blue
E) RW (-) D) Gram
221. tubercle sifilids are differentiate with: E) all of the methods used
A) Psoriasis 229. The study of native preparations used in the
B) Papulonekrotic tuberculosis diagnosis
C) lupus A) gonorrhea and trichomoniasis
D) Molluscum contagiosum B) syphilis and gonorrhea
E) Lichen Planus C) chlamydia and gonorrhea
222. Drug for the prevention of neonatal D) syphilis
ophthalmia: A) Penicillin E) trichomoniasis
B) Albucidum 230. Reiter 's disease is a complication
C) rivanola A) Chlamydia
D) Resorcinol B) trichomoniasis
E) sodium sulfatsilum C) gonorrhea
223. For subacute and torpid gonorrhea in girls D) Mycoplasma
is characterized by: E) ureaplasmosis
A) No visible inflammation 231. STIs are all listed, except
B) Severe itching without discharge A) planus
C) Mucous vestibule slightly hyperemic B) herpes zoster
D) The symptoms are absent C) genital warts
E) Slight discharge from the genital slit D) scabies
224. The drug of choice in the treatment of E) molluscum contagiosum
gonorrhea is currently: 232 . Bacteriological diagnosis of gonorrhea
A) Penicillinum used
B) tetracyclinum A) as the primary method of laboratory
C) ceftriaxonum diagnosis
D) Rocephinum B) to establish criteria for cure
E) erythromycinum C) in the case of mixed infection
225. The notion of " rising gonorrhea " refers to D) the detection of atypical diplococci in
all syndromes except: smears
A) salpingitis E) do not apply
B) urethritis 233.Trihomanada actively moved by:
C) pelvioperitonitis A) Blefaroplastam
D) endocervicitis B) undulating membrane
E) endometritis C) Parakostalnym granules
D) Aksostiles
226. The cause of male infertility is most often E) flagella
defeat by gonokokk 234. Similarity chlamydia with bacteria
A) of the epididymis A) DNA and RNA
B) prostate B) filtered through a bacterial filter
C) glands of Littre C) are sensitive to sulfonamides
D) of the seminal vesicles D) are obligate parasites
E) Cowper's glands E) have a cell wall
227. For latent gonorrhea (carry of gonokokk) 235. Epithelium which organs affected by
characterized Chlamydia A) cervical canal
A) lack of patient complaints B) Vagina
B) copious C) Bladder
C) the absence of gonococci in smears from D) Eyes
lesions E) Larynx
D) presence of signs of inflammation in the
236. Elementary bodies of Chlamydia
inspection
A) metabolically inactive
E) the epidemiological risk of the patient for
B) are metabolically active
others.
C) to 100 nm diameter
228. When bacterioscopic study for suspected
D) a diameter of 300 nm
gonorrhea used staining
E) infectious
A) Ziehl -Neelsen and Gram
237. Bodies affected with Reiter's disease
B) according to Romanovsky - Gimza
A) Liver
 B) Joints 246. Ureaplazmy occupy an intermediate
C) Heart position between:
D) Eyes A) rickettsial
E) Kidneys B) Chlamydia
238. Skin manifestations of Reiter's disease C) Viruses
A) Keratoderma D) L- forms of bacteria
B) Pyoderma E) Trichomonas
C) Herpetic 247. Ureaplazm have in common with
D) circinaric balanopostitis mycoplasmas
E) Jade A) Have a cell wall
239. Antibiotics in the treatment of urogenital B) Do not have a cell wall
chlamydiosis C) use different nutrients
A) ampicillinum D) inhibit specific immune serum
B) azithromycinum E) have the same size
C) doxycyclinum 248. Ureaplasmas differ from classical
D) gentamicinum mycoplasmas
E) canamycinum A) The dimensions
240. Antibiotics in the treatment of urogenital B) More slow growth
chlamydial infection in pregnant women C) More rapid growth
A) tetracyclinum D) The lack of a cell wall
B) doxycyclinum E) The presence of the cell wall
C) oxytetracyclinum 249. In the treatment of genital herpes is used:
D) josamycinum A) Metronidazolum
E) erythromycinum B) Fluconazolum
241. Mixed chlamydialwith candida infection - C) Acyclovirum
designate D) Ribazolum
A) ekstentsillinum E) Doxycyclinum
B) azithromycinum 250 . In the treatment of urogenital candidiasis
C) retarpenum use: A) Itraconazolum
D) Nizoralum B) Sumamedum
E) Trichopolumum C) Famciclovirum
242. Used to treat trichomoniasis D) Trihopolum
A) Nizoralum E) Ketoconazolum
B) ornidazolum
C) Diflucanum sophisticated tests
D) Solkotrihovakum
E) ribazolum 1. Which cells include the basal layer of the
243. Characterized for bacterial vaginosis epidermis? A) basal epidermotsites
A) stinging when urinating B) spiny epidermotsites
B) pain during intercourse C) melanocytes
C) creamy discharge D) Langerhans cells
D) pain during defecation E) tactile Merkel cell
E) the absence of precipitates 2 . Sebaceous glands can be:
244. Observed with bacterial vaginosis A) The eccrine
A) the smell of rotten fish B) tubular
B) ph vagina > 4,5 C) Holocrine
C) dysuria D) associated with hair follicles
D) a fishy odor E) alveolar
E) vesicles on the genitals 3. Apokrine glands are localized:
245. (+) Amine test is typical for: A) in the armpits
A) Chlamydia B) in the crotch area
B) candidiasis C) in the genital area
C) gonorrhea D) in the groin folds
D) gardnerellesis E) on the palms
E) bacterial vaginosis 4 . Sweat glands perform the following
functions: A) Excretory
B) secretory
 C) thermo A) female
D) protective B) larvae
E) bactericidal C) nymphs
F) Manual D) males
5 . Elements that resolve completely: E) eggs
A) site 14. Metamorfical life cycle stages correspond
B) blister next development stage of scabies mite:
C) vesicle A) larva
D) roseola B) egg
E) impetigo C) female
6. Scars are: A) normotrofic D) protonymph
B) vascular E) teleonimfa
C) keloid 15. Norwegian scabies is characterized by:
D) papillary A) the occurrence of immunosuppression
E) atrophic B) no itching
7. Promote the development of pyoderma: C) the occurrence of local mikroepidemy around
A) hyperglycemia the patient
B) acromegaly D) presence of massive crusts
C) hypoproteinemia E) any area of the skin lesion
D) Hyperthyroidism F) the presence of itching
E) hypovitaminosis
16. clinical manifestations of scabies in
F) intestinal intoxication
children:
8. simptomy gidradenitis:
A) prevalence of the process
A) the process of deep
B) the source process
B) affects the apocrine glands
C) involved in the process in the head
C) perineal rashes
D) loss of the nail plate
D) inflammation is weak
E) a frequent complication of pyoderma
E) nodes then scarred
17. Antiepidemic activities for scabies:
9. complications of furunculum:
A) inspection of contact persons in the family
A) thrombophlebitis
B) current disinfection
B) myocarditis
C) inspection of contact persons in children's
C) meningitis
groups
D) regional lymphadenitis
D) final disinfection
E) pancreatitis
E) clinical supervision for hearth
10. streptoderma characterized by:
F) the check during 1 year
A) the spread of inland
18. Which lice species cause disease in humans:
B) the spread of breadth
A) the pubic
C) sero - purulent exudate
B) blind
D) sluggish tire bladder
C) barbed
E) hard crust
D) corporis
11. stafilodermy characterized by: E) capitum
A) pustule associated with hair 19. Pubic pediculosis are characterized by:
B) the spread of inland A) the presence of pyoderma
C) the contents of pustules seropurulent B) loss of eyebrows and eyelashes
D) pustule associated with the sebaceous gland C) in the presence mites the hair follicle
E) pustule associated with sweat glands D) lack of pyoderma
F) Filter purulent pustules E) the appearance of a pale blue spots around the
12. How pyoderma not require systemic hair
antibiotics: 20. For pediculosis corporis are typical:
A) streptoccal impetigo A) the presence of pigmentation, lichenification,
B) hydradenitis scratching
C) angular stomatitis B) lesions on the neck, back of the shoulder
D) turniolum girdle and armpits
E) streptococcal fissures C) lesions on the face
F) simplex white lichen D) presence of insects in the folds of clothing
13. Reproductive life cycle stages correspond E) lesions on head
next development stage of scabies mite:
21.criteria of diagnosis the pediculosis: B) effect of high temperatures
A) complaints of itching C) medicaments
B) the presence of scratches and bloody crusts D) chemical warfare agents
C) presence of insects on human E) Paint products
D) the presence of bubbles 31.allergenes that can cause eczema:
E) the presence of nits on the hair A) medicaments
22. The epydermophytia large folds B) food
characterized by: C) industrial
A) element erythema D) pollen
B) lesions of the skin of the trunk E) infectious
C) erythema with a continuous bead F) virus
D) defeat the axillary region 32.on toksikodermia allergens enters through:
E) involvement in vellus hair A) skin
23.clinic of rubromicosis pedis : B) GIT
A) hyperkeratosis C) airways
B) peeling floor like D) skin appendages
C) increased skin pattern E) parenterally
D) defeat all of the nail plate 33.complications on drug allergies:
E) expressed weeping A) pyoderma
24.the pus-infiltrative trichophytia characterized B) Lyell's syndrome
by: A) the presence of " honeycomb " C) Pemphigus
B) melting the hair bulb D) Stevens-Johnson syndrome
C) free hair removal E) exfoliative dermatitis
D) the presence of follicular infiltrate 34. microbial eczema are characterized by:
E) alopecia areata A) the presence of pustules
25.the forms of favuse scalp: B) clear boundaries lesions
A) squamous C) asymmetrical lesions
B) impetiginous D) lymph node enlargement
C) scutular E) sensitization microbial allergens
D) urticar F) the presence of bubbles
E) atrophic 35.types of microbial eczema:
26. the source of infection on mikrosporia A) herpeticum
A) man B) Varicose
B) sheep C) impetiginous
C) pigs D) corneum
D) cat E) nummular
E) Dog F) papatravmatic
27. the nozological forms of candidias of skin: 36. Variety of true eczema:
A) Candida interdigital erosion A) sycosiform
B) vulvovaginal candidiasis B) corneum
C) candidiasis of small folds C) disgidrotic
D) candidiasis of large folds D) impetiginous
E) Candida cheilitis E) paratravmatic
28. common clinical signs of oral candidiasis: 37. To treat toxycodermia used
A) hyperemia A) fluid therapy
B) the presence of dense bubbles B) antibiotics
C) epithelial desquamation C) sulfonilamides
D) deposits in the form of white specks D) diuretics
E) the presence of papules cyanotic E) glucocorticoids
29. often commonly used antimycotics: 38. The typical clinical symptoms of eczema:
A) itraconazolum A) itch
B) fluconazolum B) monovalent sensitization
C) ketoconazolum C) weeping
D) nystatinum D) polymorphism rash
E) griseofulvinum E) polyvalent sensitization
30. cause of simple contact dermatitis: 39. scin itching can be:
A) a high concentration of alkali A) idiopathic
 B) symptomatic B) with a waxy luster
C) localized C) violet color
D) universal
D)the umbilical impression
E) senile
E) flat
F) infectious
F) rounded
40. clinic of atopic dermatitis are characterized
49. Atypical forms in lichen planus:
by: A) itchy elements
A) annular
B) exudation
B) pustular
C) chronic relapsing
C) atrophic
D) the age dynamics of the clinic
D) warty
E) peaking in the spring-summer period
E) pemfigoid
41. the causes of atopic dermatitis in childhood: F) Pigment
A) food allergens 50. elements of multiforme exudative erytema:
B) worm infestation A) Erythema
C) injury B) vesicles
D) chronic infections C) blisters
E) medicaments D) weals
F) goiter E) papules
42. types of prurigo: A) nodosum
51. multiforme exudative erytema are
B) Children
characterized by:
C) atrophic
A) peripheral growth
D) Adults
B) cyanotic center and periphery pink rash
E) hypertrophic
C) the presence of itching
43.scin itching can be the on following diseases:
D) localization on the back of the hands and feet
A) diabetes
E) the presence of pustules
B) lymphogranulematosis
52. rashes on lichen rose:
C) hypertension
A) Oval shape
D) spastic colitis
B) have a " parent " plaque
E) pyelonephritis
C) yellow hue
44. Psoriatic papules depending on size:
D) are arranged along the lines of skin tension
A) miliary
E) with a slight retraction in the center
B) epidermal
F) polygonal
C) nummular
53. taktiks of doctor in treating lichen rose:
D) dermal
A) ban the wearing of synthetics and wool
E) plaques
B) the prohibition of water treatments
45. typical localization in psoriasis:
C) the appointment of local therapy
A) trunk
D) antihistamines and desensitizing therapy
B) mucosal
E) the appointment of hormones
C) extensor surfaces of the extremities
54.the manifestations of psoriasis in children of
D) palms and soles
middle - aged and older:
E) scalp
A) frequent face defeat
46. Atipical forms of psoriasis: B) the absence of Koebner phenomenon
A) eritrodermic C) frequent loss of scalp
B) Artropatic D) have no inclination to progression
C) exudative E) frequent loss of natural folds
D) pustular 55. types of pemphigus:
E) atrophic A) Ordinary
47. topical treatment of psoriasis using: B) necrotic
A) salicylic ointment C) vegetans
B) ihtiol ointment D) seborrheic
C) Naftalan paste E) Exfoliative
D) ointment with corticosteroids
56. the clinical forms of acantholytic pemphigus:
E) Psorkutanum
A) seborrheic
48 . Papules on lichen planus:
B) hyperkeratotic
A) polygonal
C) exfoliative
 D) abortifacient zone at RIF
E) vegetans 65. basic drugs in the treatment of dermatitis
57. seborrheic pemphigus is characterized by: Dühring: A) diaminodiphenylsulfonum
A) benign B) prednisolonum
B) similar to lupus erythematosus C) dapsonum
C) frequent oral mucous D) Avlosulfonum
D) localization on the back E) methotrexatum
E) localization of the extremities 66. virus family of herpes viruses:
58. on pathogenesis of pemphigus acantholytic A) HSV
occur: B) CMV
A) delayed hypersensitivity C) Adenovirus
B) cytotoxic response D) Varicella-Zoster
C) the presence of circulating antibodies having E) HPV
affinity for antigens spinous cell layer 67. Rezervuar of HSV in humans are:
D) microbial sensitization A) The lacrimal glands
E) participate in the process of acantholysis B) trigeminal ganglion
endoproteins and their inhibitors C) Konnktiva
59. true pemphigus is characterized by: D) scin
A) Acute onset E) Joints
B) Monomofizm rash F) Brain
C) intraepithelial blisters 68. Atipical forms of lichen simplex:
D) subepidermal blisters A) Abortive
B) Hemorrhagic
E) Peripheral growth erosions
C) Zosteriform
F) jerky chronic course D) Disseminated
60. clinical features of vegetating pemphigus: E) Hypertrophic
A) begins as vulgar F) ulceral
B) Localization in the folds 69. Forms of herpes Zoster which occur
C) Localization around the orifices recently: A) Bullous
D) Vegetation at the bottom of erosions B) Hemorrhagic
E) Pain, burning, unpleasant odor C) gangrenosum
F) The predominance of children D) Rupioid
61. foliaceous pemphigus is characterized by: E) Pustular
A) It is a rare lesion of oral mucosa 70. herpes Zoster differentiate with:
B) The predominance of children A) erysipelas
C) The presence of cortical crusts-scales B) simple herpes
D) slow epithelialization C) lupus erythematosus
E) Prevalence in Adults D) erythema multiforme exudative
62. cases of dermatitis herpetiformis Duhring: E) bullous dermatitis
A) Cancers 71. types of warts : A) Vulgar
B) Production hazard B) flat
C) Chemical substances containing halogens C) Plantar
D) Proteins cereals D) Whisker
E) Household Allergens E) Genital warts
63. on Duhring dermatitis occur: F) Wide warts
A) Papules 72. clinic of vulgar warts:
B) Tubercles A) Localization of the hands
C) Vesicles B) Dissemination by autoinoculation
D) Nodes C) Dense rounded papules
E) weals D) On the surface vegetation papules and actinic
64. on Duhring dermatitis is found: E) Rare recurrences
A) eosinophils in the bladder contents F) frequent recurrences
B) cells Ttsank 73. characteristic of papules on molluscum
C) exacerbation while taking potassium iodide contagiosum:
D) (+) sign Nikolsky A) diameter to 7 mm
E) The glow of IgA in the basement membrane B) hemispherical
C) Flat B) Horn
D) umbilical impression on the surface C) Peptic
E) Isolation of curd while squeezing the D) Mutilar
tweezers E) Seborrheic
74.removing of warts is done by: 83. Acne vulgaris is localized on:
A) Cryotherapy A) the front surface of the chest
B) Physiotherapy B) lower extremities
C) Surgical excision C) face
D) Diathermocoagulation D) Stomach
E) moxibustion lactic, salicylic acid E) dorsum
75. Stages of development of LE: F) buttocks
A) Pigmentation 84. During rosacea isolated following stages:
B) Hyperkeratosis A) pigment
C) Atrophy B) erythematous
D) Erythema C) pustule-papular
E) telangiectasia D) atrophic
E) pustule-nodular
76. collagenosis based on the following
85. what diseases should be differentiated with
pathological changes:
rosacea? A) lupus
A) mucoid swelling
B) Systemic lupus erythematosus
B) hypergranulosis
C) Photodermatitis
C) fibrinoid swelling
D) acne vulgaris
D) amyloidosis
E) Pemphigus
E) fibrinoid necrosis
F) Perioral dermatitis
77. centrifugal erythema Biett characterized by:
A) localization only on the face 86. topical treatment of rosacea are used:
B) lack of hyperkeratosis and atrophy A) Preparations of benzylbenzoatum
C) the presence of atrophy B) Ointment " Yam"
D) a harbinger of systemic erythematosus C) Ointment " Zoviraxum "
E) LE- emergence blood cells D) Spregalum
78.basic drugs in the treatment of systemic lupus E) Metrogilum - jelly
erythematosus: 87. Prophylaktic of rosacea is :
A) sulfone A) except for alcohol
B) corticosteroids B) dieting with the exception of acute and spicy
C) anti-malarial food
D) anabolic hormones C) Treatment of associated gastrointestinal
E) cytostatics pathology
79.triggers in the development of localized D) Treatment of angioneurosis
scleroderma: A) radiation E) Protection against thermal effects
B) injury F) cosmetic procedures
C) thermal 88. For external treatment of acne use:
D) Cooking A) Alcohol solutions of antibiotics
E) viruses B) Alcohol solution of salicylic acid
80. triggers in the development of LE: C) External retinoids ( Retin - A, lokatsid,
A) UFO Airola )
B) Medicines D) preprates of azelaic acid ( skinoren )
C) Fungal E) formulations of benzoyl peroxide ( benzakne,
D) Centers of chronic viral infection OXY - 5 and 10)
E) Endocrine disorders F) Ointment " Ftorokortum"
81. characteristic signs of discoid lupus 89. Forms of rosacea:
erythematosus: A) hyperandrogenism
A) Jadassohn B) steroid
B) Besnier - Meshcherskij C) resistant
C) Ladies' heel D) lupoid
D) Pospelov E) Gram(-)
E) Khachaturian 90. types of acne vulgaris:
82. types of discoid lupus erythematosus: A) granulomatous
A) hyperkeratotic B) necrotic
 C) indurative A) clavate swelling
D) excoriative B) the absence of acute erythema
E) disease of Morbigan C) the presence of dense infiltration
D) does not eliminate the pain of opening
91.Treponema pallidum characterized by
E) pain
features:
100. chancre – amigdalitis is characterized by:
A) spiral shape
A) one-way process
B) non-uniform width curls
B) the process of symmetric
C) rounding uniform curls
C) thick consistency of infiltrate
D) sharpening curls
D) absence of diffuse erythema
E) the number of revolutions spiral 8-12
E) increase in the submandibular and cervical
92. types of movement of Treponema pallidum:
lymph nodes
A) forward
F) don’t`s defect on the surface of the tonsils
B) rotational
101. syphilides secondary is characteristic:
C) flexion
A) no subjective sensations
D) intermittently
B) benign
E) contractile
C) rounded shape
F) pendulum
D) No peripheral growth
93.Treponema pallidum during phagocytosis by
E) burning
macrophages are observed:
102. syphilitic roseola:
A) Lysis
A) pink
B) endotsitobiosum
B) Focal located
C) L- transformation
C) do not disappear when pressed
D) Spore formation
D) shelled
E) Reproduction
E) disappear when pressed
94. criteria of reinfection:
103. reaction Herxheimer - Lukashevich `s
A) A full treatment of primary infection
exacerbation is characterized by:
B) The chancre at the new location
A) bleeding mucous
C) The chancre at the old place
B) the growth of peripheral papules
D) Early forms of syphilis in infection source
C) temperature rise
E) The validity of the first infection,
D) gain rash
documented
E) rash in new places
95.Material for research on treponema pallidum:
104. Condiloma latum are:
A) Discharge chancre
A) it - papules
B) Blood
B) don`t erosive
C) lymph node punctate
C) often get wet
D) Mother's milk
D) is a highly contagious
E) Discharge from erosive papules
E) are localized around the anus
96. hard chancres depending on the location
105. types of pustular sifilids:
called: A) Focal
A) Ospenous
B) Perigenital
B) acneiform
C) Extragenital
C) Impetiginous
D) Genital
D) serpiginous
E) Disseminated
E) Rupioid
97. Limfatic nodes on syphilis:
F) flictenous
A) Increased
106. types of syphilitic alopecia:
B) dense consistency
A) small focal
C) soldered together
B) total
D) Do not soldered to the skin
C) diffuse
E) Painless
D) mixed
98. chancre - indurative edema is characterized
E) spotted
by: A) Lack of skin defect
107. sifilids in the mouth can be as follows:
B) Soreness
A) spots
C) increase in body 2-3 times
B) papules
D) absence of pits on pressure
C) pustules
E) painless
D) pigments
99. chancre– panarition is different from the
E) aphthas
banal felon by follows:
108.syphilides of tertiary period is characterized B) violation of bone conduction
by: A) the high infectivity C) hearing loss
B) low infectivity D) tinnitus
C) the slim, asymmetrical E) gait disturbance
D) abundant, symmetrical 117. probable signs of late congenital syphilis:
E) destructive A) saber shin
109. gummy on tertiary syphilis: B) symptom of Avsitidiysky
A) solitary C) scars of Robinson- Fournier
B) serpiginous D) aksifoidizm
C) gummy infiltration E) saddle nose
D) fibrous 118. stigmas of late congenital syphilis:
E) grouped A) arched palate
110. tertiary roseola Fournier is characterized B) Carabelli tubercle
by: C) diastema Gachet
A) acute spot D) hypertrichosis
B) nonacute spot E) saddle nose
C) annular shape , 10 cm 119. ways of spread of gonococcal infection in
D) located on the lateral surfaces of the trunk the body:
E) durated a long time A) by a stretch of mucosa
111. syphilitic gumma differs from furuncle B) along nerve fibers
absence: C) lymphogenous
A) pain D) hematogenous
B) acute reaction ostrovospalitelnyh E) from the depth of tissue
C) ulceration 120. acute anterior urethritis is characterized by:
D) copious purulent A) itching, burning in the urethra
E) dense infiltration B) pain, burning when urinating
112. clinic of congenital syphilis infants: C) redness, swelling urethral sponge
A) parenchymatous keratitis D) abundant purulent discharges
B) syphilitic pemphigus E) scanty sero - mucous discharges
C) diffuse infiltration Gohzinger 121.types of prostatitis:
D) triad Hutchinson A) parenchymal
E) osteochondritis B) focal
113.clinic of syphilitic pemphigus: C) catarrhal
A) localization of blisters on the palms and soles D) diffuse
B) evolutionary polymorphism rash E) follicular
C) severe general condition 122. gonorrhea in girls is characterized by:
D) abundance of treponema pallidum in the A) torpid course
discharge of blisters B) acute course
E) localization of bubbles on the trunk C) affects the cervical canal, the urethra
114. diffuse infiltration of Gohzinger D) affects the vaginal mucosa and vestibule
characterized by: E) abundant muco- purulent discharges
A) appears in the 2-3 years 123.epitelium which organs can affected by
B) appears at 8-10 weeks of age chlamydia?
C) is localized around the mouth, on the palms, A) The urethra
buttocks B) cervical canal
D) the presence of dense infiltration and deep C) Vagina
cracks D) Eyes
E) is exacerbated when the cry E) Rectum
115. pathology of nervous system, characteristic 124. clinic of urogenital trichomoniasis:
of early congenital syphilis: A) Itching in the vagina
A) meningoencephalitis B) Abundant frothy discharges
B) radiculitis C) hyperemia of vagina
C) hydrocephalus D) Dairy allocation
D) neuritis E) discharge with odor
E) meningitis 125.triggers on development of bacterial
vaginosis:
116. labyrinthine deafness is characterized by:
A) Changes in hormonal status
A) a violation of air conduction
 B) The frequent change of sexual partners
C) Using the Navy
D) Antibiotics
E) insolation
126. through the birth canal of mother the
chlamydia most commonly infected:
A) Skin
B) Mouth
C) Rectum
D) The vagina in girls
E) the conjunctiva
127. additional laboratory tests of
gardnerellosis:
A) a sharp decline in lactobacilli
B) increase the number of anaerobes
C) the absence of pathogens
D) the absence of leukocytes
E) an increase in total vaginal
contamination by microorganisms
128. medico - social importance of
chlamydiosis:
A) leads to cancer
B) is the cause of miscarriage
C) is the cause of PID
D) leads to infection of neonates
E) leads to a decrease in the working
population