TESTS DERMATOLOGY

1.Which embryonal layers make the skin?

A. Ectoderm, Mesoderm
B. Ectoderm, Endoderm
C. Mesoderm, Endoderm

2.How many layers the skin consists of?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 2

3.Which cells consists the epidermis of?

A. Keratinocytes, erythrocytes, leukocytes, macrophages
B. Keratynocytes, melanocytes, immune cells, sensitive cells
C. Keratinocytes, leucocytes, fibroblasts

4.Which types of vessels are presented in the epidermis?

A. Blood, lymphatic
B. Lymphatic
C. Non

5.Which components do the dermis compose?

A. Fibers, matrix, fat tissue
B. Cells, matrix, epithelium
C. Cells, fibers, matrix

6.Which are the skin functions?

A. Protection, sensation, thermoregulation, vit. D synthesis, immune
B. Protection, sensation, thermoregulation, vit. D synthesis
C. Protection, thermoregulation, vit. D synthesis, immune

7.What is the corneocyte?

A. Melanocyte
B. Keratinocyte
C. Macrophage
 8.Which kinds of skin lesions do you know?
A. Primary, secondary, tertial
B. Primary, secondary, special
C. Primary, secondary, unica

9.The primary lesions are these:

A. Burrows, telangiectasia, comedons, cysts
B. Crust, scale, erosion, fissure
C. Macule, papule, vesicle, while

10.The secondary lesions are these:

A. Macule, papule, vesicle, while
B. Crust, scale, erosion, fissure
C. Burrows, telangiectasia, comedons, cysts

11.What is a primary lesion at psoriasis?

A. Thin-walled, flaccid blisters
B. Red, scaling, well distinguished papule to plaque
C. Shiny, polygonal, flat-topped, firm on palpation papule to plaque

12.What areas are favored and should be examined in all patients in whom
diagnosis of psoriasis is suspected?
A. Oral, anal, genital mucosals, nails, scalp
B. Palms, soles, sculp, nails
C. Scalp, postauricular area, elbows, knees, nails

13.Which body folds are usually affected in flexural psoriasis?

A. Retroauricular, elbow bends, submammary, axillar
B. Gluteal, genital, groin, popliteal
C. Retroauricular, axillar, submammal, groin, gluteal, genital

14.Which drugs can precipitate or exacerbate psoriasis?

A. Antianginal, antivirals, ganglioblockers, alfa-blockers
B. Lithium, beta-blockers, antimalarial, systemic steroids
 C. Hypolipidemic, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors,
antihemorrhagics

15.What is Koebner phenomenon?

A. Isomorphic reaction
B. Bullous reaction
C. Drug reaction

16.What is a primary lesion at lichen planus?

A. Red, scaling, well distinguished papule to plaque
B. Shiny, polygonal, flat-topped, firm on palpation papule to plaque
C. Thin-walled, flaccid blisters

17.Which areas does lichen planus affect?

A. The mucous membranes of the mouth, nails, skin
B. Elbows, knees, folds
C. Scalp, nails, folds

18.What is a primary lesion at pemphigus vulgaris?

A. Shiny, polygonal, flat-topped, firm on palpation papule to plaque
B. Thin-walled, flaccid blister
C. Red, scaling, well distinguished papule to plaque

19.What is the most often localization of blisters at pemphigus vulgaris?

A. Elbows, knees, scalp, buttocks
B. Mucosal, nails, lacrimal glands
C. Upper chest, back, scalp, face

20.Which drugs can induce pemphigus?

A. Lithium, beta-blockers, antimalarial, systemic steroids
B. Penicillamine, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, angiotensin
receptor blockers, cephalosporines
C. Antianginal, antivirals, ganglioblockers, alfa-blockers

21.What are the main causes of the atopic dermatitis?

A. Infection, bad ecology, sebaceous gland affection;
 B. Epidermal barrier disfunction; genetic predisposition;
C. Contact with allergens, Demodex folliculorum occupation;
D. Drug induction, high UV radiation, intradermal inflammation.

22.What is the synonym of the atopic dermatitis?

A. Acne;
B. Atopic alopecia;
C. Atopic eczema;
D. Atopic mycosis.

23.What are the main symptoms of the atopic dermatitis?

A. Pruritus (itching), typical dermatitis, chronic course;
B. Rash on the feet, lots of papules and pustules;
C. Brown spots on the face, nail defection;
D. Follicular papules, hair loss, itching.

24. What kind of infection is more often complicate atopic dermatitis’s

course?
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa;
B. Staphylococcus aureus;
C. Propionibacterium acne;
D. Trichophyton rubrum.

25.The typical localization of the atopic dermatitis is:

A. Face, neck, insides of the knees and elbows;
B. Ears, feet, scalp;
C. Trunk, genitals;
D. Nails, fingers, forehead.

26.What kind of rash occurs patient with the atopic dermatitis?

A. Papules, pustules, comedones;
B. Nodules, tumors;
C. Scars, fissures;
D. Macules, excoriations, lichenification.

27.Does pruritus occur patients with atopic dermatitis?

A. Yes, very strong;
B. Yes, for time to time;
C. Not at all;
D. This symptom is not important.

28.What kind of treatment is basic for atopic dermatitis patients?

A. Antibiotics;
B. Systemic corticosteroids;
C. Emollients;
D. Phototherapy.

29.How does emollients work?

A. Insulation against water loss;
B. Antibacterial action;
C. Sebum secretion decline;
D. Anti-inflammatory effect.

30.At what age the debut of the atopic dermatitis usually start?
A. Straight after the birth;
B. At the age of 3-6 month;
C. AD usually occurs the teenagers;
D. In adulthood.

31.Localization of the primary morphological element in urticaria:

A. in the papillary layer of the dermis
B. in the stratum corneum of the epidermis
C. in the granular layer of the epidermis
D. in the hypodermis

32.Severe toxicoderma leads to:

A. Lyell's syndrome
B. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
C. Raynaud's syndrome

33.Name the varieties of urticaria:

A. acute
 B. chronic
C. cold
D. solar

34.Primary elements in eczema:

A. tubercles
B. macules
C. papules
D. vesicles

35.Seborrheic eczema is localized on the skin:

A. spins
B. face
C. lower limbs
D. scalp

36.Eczema is characterized by:

A. the symmetry of the foci
B. the asymmetry of the foci
C. clear boundaries
D. fuzzy borders

37.In the treatment of eczema, they use:

A. antihistamines drugs
B. desensitizing drugs
C. vitamins drugs

38.The etiological factors of allergic contact dermatitis include:

A.washing powder
B.deodorant
C.concentrated alkali
D. analgin
E. soap

39.Sharp soreness of both the affected and apparently healthy skin against
the background of a severe general condition is characteristic of:
A.acute true eczema
B.allergic contact dermatitis
C.simple contact dermatitis
D.Lyell's syndrome

40.The reason for the development of toxicoderma can be:

A.stressful situation
B.immunodeficiency
С. taking medication
D. food products
E. mechanical injury

41.What are NOT skin derivatives?

A. Sweat glands
B. Sebaceous glands
C. Thyroid gland
D. Hair follicles

42.The hair follicle is situated in:

A. Epidermis
B. Dermis
C. Hypodermis
D. Muscles

43.Primary acne affects:

A. Sweat glands
B. Sebaceous glands
C. Epidermis
D. Dermis

44.What are NOT the clinical features of acne?

A. Comedones
B. Papules
C. Pustules
D. Urtica
45.What is NOT the link in chain of acne pathogenesis?
A. Follicular hyperkeratosis
B. Colonization of P.acnes
C. Allergic components
D. Excessive sebum production

46.Less than 20 comedones, less than 10 papules is typical for:

A. Acne comedonica
B. Acne papulo-pustulosa
C. Acne conglobate
D. Acne inversa

47.The scar formation is typical for:

A. Acne comedonica
B. Mild acne papulo-pustulosa
C. Acne conglobate
D. B and C are right

48.The stage of resting of the hair follicles is called:

A. Anagen
B. Catagen
C. Telogen
D. Pologen

49.The clinical features of alopecia areata are:

A. Round to oval sharply circumscribed areas of hair loss
B. Diffused hair loss
C. Thinning of hair
D. There are two main signs: “Male pattern” and “Female pattern”

50.What skin diseases may cause onychodystrophy?

A. Psoriasis
B. Eczema
C. Lichen planus
D. Allergic contact dermatitis
 51.Which type of antibodies is typically present in CTD?
A. Anti-IgA-antibodies
B. Anti-IgG-antibodies
C. Antinuclear antibodies (ANA)

52.False-positive ANA tests may occur at:

A. Patients with chronic liver disease, neoplasms
B. Immunosuppressed patients
C. Smokers

53.How many per cents of patients with SLE have manifestation of acute
cutaneous LE?
A. 20%
B. 50%
C. 70%

54.“Butterfly” is the characteristic for:

A. Morphea
B. Dermatomyositis
C. LE

55.Which areas are injured more commonly at discoid LE?

A. Scalp, ears, cheeks, nose
B. Skin folds
C. Finger nails, toe nails

56.Drug-induced LE is associated with:

A. Potassium iodine, frusemide, gold, lithium
B. Terbinafine, TNF-α-inhibitors, proton-pump inhibitors, anti-
inflammatory
C. Antimalarial, β-blockers, penicillamine

57.Which is the cause of mortality in babies neonatal cutaneous LE?

A. Kidney’s failure
B. Respiratory failure
C. Heart block
 58.What is the Heliotrope rash?
A. Sunburn reaction over the “V” area of the anterior chest, face
B. Bilateral lilac discoloration of the eyelids with swelling of the eyelids
and the skin around eyes
C. Fixed redness affecting the back, shoulders, chest, and neck

59.Drug-induced dermatomyositis is caused by:

A. Hydroxiurea, penicillamine, statins, anticonvulsants
B. Antibiotics, antihypertonics, anti-inflammatory
C. Lithium, gold, potassium iodine

60.Which is the clinical appearance of Morphea?

A. Macular violaceous erythema
B. Ivory white oval sclerotic plaques
C. Flat-topped polygonal purplish papules to plaques

61. The clinical forms of zoophilic trichophythia are

A. infiltrative
B. ulcerative
C. squamous
D. scutular
E. suppurative

62. What disease caused by a mushroom of the genus trichofiton?

A. parasitic sycosis
B. erythrasma
C. vulgar sycosis
D. shingles
E. pityriasis versicolor

63. For infiltrative-purposive trichophythy is characteristic presence

A. the symptom of "honeycomb"
B. scar
C. lymphadenitis
D. broken hair with increased growth along the periphery of the lesions
E. broken hair at the level of 4-6 cm in the center
64. In the foci of lesion with superficial trichophytia, the presence of
A. peeling and hair fragments at the level of 2-3 mm
B. severe infiltration and pustules
C. scars
D. skutula
E. peeling and hair fragments at a height of 4-6 mm

65. When favus is affected

A. hair
B. nails
C. smooth skin
D. rarely internal organs
E. all of the above

66. Infection with superficial trichophytia occurs

A. when working on a farm with sick animals
B. when playing with cats
C. when using things and household items that were in the use of the patient
D. when working in the field (contact with rodents)
E. droplets upon contact with a patient

67. For chronic trichophythia characteristic

A. infection from calves
B. Trich-type hair lesions. endothrix
C. hair fragments in the form of "black dots"
D. the presence of atrophic scars on the scalp
E. pathogen Trichophyton Shonleinii

68. For microsporia of the hairy part of the head characteristic

A. infection from cats, dogs, from a sick person
B. the foci are large, single, the hair is broken off at a height of 4-6 mm
C. Wood's lamp is used for diagnostics
D. a scar remains after treatment
E. lack of glow under Wood's lamp
F. soreness of lesions
 69. For zoophillic microsporia characteristic
A. the causative agent M. canis
B. breaking of hair in the foci at the level of 1-2 mm
C. continuous breaking of hair in the foci at the level of 4 - 6 mm
D. Microsporum-type hair damage
E. infection from calves
F. infection from murine rodents

70. A child with a diagnosis of microsporia of the hairy part of the head has
the following symptoms:
A. lesions with broken hair at the level of 4-6 mm
B. scuttles
C. slight hyperemia and peeling
D. follicular hyperkeratosis
E. lack of glow of hair fragments in the centers

71.Specify the possible locations of folliculitis:

A. face
B. palm
C. skin of the scalp
D. back of the neck
E. back
F. fingers

72.Specify the most dangerous location of the furuncle:

A. groin
B. superciliary arches
C. nasolabial triangle
D. temple
E. back of the neck
F. back of the hand

73.Select the medicines for pyoderma treating

A. acyclovir
B. clotrimazole
C. hydrocortisone
D. tetracycline
E. pennicilin
F. benzyl benzoate

74.Deep form of streptoderma

A. streptococcal impetigo
B. lichen simplex
C. ecthyma
D. bullous impetigo
E. sycosis vulgaris

75.To the staphylococcal group pyoderma related to:

A. sycosis
B. furunculosis
C. hydradenitis
D. tourniol
E. impetigo vulgaris

76.Hydradenitis is suppurative inflammation:

A. hair follicles
B. eccrine sweat glands
C. apocrine sweat glands
D. sebaceous glands
E. .salivary glands

77.Surface form streptoderma:

A. streptococcal impetigo
B. fissural impetigo
C. ecthyma
D. lichen simplex

78.Systemic antibiotic treatment is indicated:

A. streptococcal impetigo
B. streptococcal intertigo
C. folliculitis
 D. furunculosis
E. lichen simplex

79.Clinical form of pyoderma, in which follicular pustule is the main

morphological element:
A. sycosis
B. tourniol
C. lichen simplex
D. impetigo vulgaris
E. hydradenitis

80.Clinical form of pyoderma, in which bulla is the main morphological

element:
A. sycosis
B. hydradenitis
C. furunculosis
D. impetigo vulgaris
E. carbuncle

81. What are the functions of the dermis?

A. Thermoregulation
B. Mechanical protection
C. Innervation of the skin
D. Correct 1 and 2
E. Everything is correct

82. What are the functions of the epidermis:

A. Barrier
B. UV protection
C. Immunological
D. Prevention of dehydration, maintenance of homeostasis
E. Everything is correct

83. Which of the following microorganisms is not the causative agent

pyoderma?
A. Staphylococcus
 B. Streptococcus
C. Koch's wand
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E. Proteus vulgar

84. What groups of factors can cause the development of pyoderma?

A. Decrease in local and general reactivity of the body
B. Exogenous
C. Endogenous
D. All of the above

85. Which of the following symptoms are not typical for scabies?
A. Itching
B. Paired papular, vesicular or pustular elements
C. Polygonal papules of purple color with an umbilical impression
D. Scabies moves
E. All of the above is true

86. Specify the principles of scabies prevention:

A. Identification and treatment of patients
B. Survey of contact persons
C. Preventive treatment of contact persons
D. Disinfection in the focus of the disease
E. All of the above

87. In what disease is the yellow glow of the affected hair noted when
luminescent examination with a Wood lamp?
A. Favus
B. Trichophytosis
C. Microsporia
D. Alopecia

88. Specify the diseases associated with atopic dermatitis:

A. Vasomotor rhinitis
B. Atopic bronchial asthma
C. Allergic conjunctivitis
 D. All of the above is true

89. Indicate signs that are not characteristic of contact allergy dermatitis:
A. Occurs as a result of repeated exposure to an allergen
B. Borders are not sharp
C. May occur due to medication per os
D. The presence of vesicles and wetting is characteristic
E. Can transform into eczema

90. The clinical signs of toxicoderma do not include:

A. Combination of skin lesions with lesions of other organs and systems
B. The presence of broken off altered hair in the lesions
C. Diverse morphology of skin lesions
D. Violation of the general condition of the patient

91. The development of Stevens-Johnson syndrome can be provoked by:

A. Infectious agents
B. Medicines
C. Malignant neoplasms
D. All of the above is true.

92. Which of the following signs is the main clinical manifestation in Lyell's
syndrome?
A. Detachment of the epidermis
B. The occurrence of multiple blisters
C. Total damage to the hair
D. All of the above is true

93. What is the most dangerous lesion with Quincke's edema?

A. Lesions of the genital skin
B. Damage to the skin and mucous membranes of the lips
C. Damage to the larynx
D. All of the above is true

94. Psoriasis does not happen:

A. Exudative
B. Infiltrative-suppurative
C. Erythrodermic
D. Arthropathic
E. Drop-shaped

95. he drugs of choice in the treatment of acne in women are:

A. Cosmetic creams, lotions
B. Vitamins
C. Antibiotics
D. Hormonal contraceptive drugs

96. The following factors play a role in the pathogenesis of acne:

A. Violations of the menstrual cycle in women
B. Endocrine disorders
C. Increased secretion of the sebaceous glands
D. All of the above is true

97. Dermographism is
A. the corresponding response of the skin vessels to mechanical irritation
B. appropriate response of skin nerves to mechanical irritation
C. appropriate response of skin muscles to mechanical irritation

98. Perceiving bodies Fater - Pacini and Golgi - Mazzoni

A. feeling of deep pressure
B. feeling of pain
C. feeling cold
D. feeling of warmth

99. Diseases manifested by monomorphic rashes:

A. psoriasis
B. eczema
C. Duhring's dermatitis

100. Localization of the primary morphological element in urticaria:

A. in the papillary layer of the dermis
B. in the stratum corneum of the epidermis
 C. in the granular layer of the epidermis
D. in the hypodermis

101. Bullous disorders, in which blisters usually begin in the oral mucosa:
A. vulgar vesicles
B. familial vesicles
C. syphilitic vesicles
D. Duhring's disease

102. To get an Asbo-Hansen symptom you need:

A. press on the blisters
B. open the blisters cover
C. pull the blisters cover
D. rub between the blisters

103. What is the morphological basis of the phenomenon of "terminal film"

in psoriasis:
A. acanthosis
B. acantholysis
C. spongiosis
D. ballooning degeneration

104. Wickham's grid is observed at:

A. lichen planus
B. psoriasis
C. eczema
D. atopic dermatitis

105. Vacuol degeneration (intracellular edema) is characteristic of:

A. Eczema
B. Psoriasis of the scalp
C. Ichthyosis
D. Atopic dermatitis

106. Parakeratosis is characteristic of

A. Psoriasis
B. Lichen planus
C. Herpes simplex
D. Secondary syphilis

107. The causative agent of anthropophilic trichophytia is

A. Trichophyton violaceum
B. Trichophyton rubrum
C. Pitysporum orbiculare
D. Trichophyton verrucosum
E. Microsporum ferrugenii

108. Laboratory tests for the diagnosis of Duhring's disease are:

A. eosinophilia in the blood and fluid of the blisters
B. Tzank`s cells in smears prints from the bottom of erosions
C. Cesarean`s cells

109. In which layer of skin the female tick lays a scabies course:
A. Horny layer (stratum corneum)
B. Spiny layer (stratum spinosum)
C. Glassy layer (stratum lucidum)

110. The causative agent of rubromycosis is

A. Trichophyton rubrum
B. Epidermophyton floccosum
C. Corynebacteria minutissima
D. Pityrosporum orbiculare

111. Candidiasis of the skin and mucous membranes is caused by:

A. Candida albicans
B. Trichophyton rubrum
C. Epidermophyton floccosum
D. Corynebacteria minutissima
E. Pityrosporum orbiculare

112. Cells are derma skin:

A. fibroblasts
B. Greenstein
C. melanocytes
D. histiocytes

113. In the epidermis there are layers, except:

A. stratum basale
B. stratum spinosum
C. stratum granulosum
D. stratum lucidum
E. stratum corneum
F. reticular dermis

114. Dividing cells of the epidermis are:

A.basal cells
B. lymphocytes
C.macrophages
D. obese cells

115. The stratum corneum of the epidermis:

A. comes into contact with the external environment
B. is the upper layer of the epidermis
C. consists of nonnuclear keratin cells
D. all of the above is true

116. In the dermis there are the following layers:

A. granulosum
B. papillary
C. reticular
D. spinosum

117. Epithelial derivatives are:

A. hair
B. sebaceous glands
C. sweat glands
D. nails
E. all of the above is true
118. Hair consists of:
A. shaft
B. root
C. hair bulb
D. all of the above is true

119. The primary caved lesion are:

A. Wheal
B. Vesicle
3. Bulla
4. Pustule

120. The primary non- caved lesion are:

A. papule
B. tumor
C. weal
D. node
E. all of the above is true

121. Secondary morphological elements include:

A. tumor
B.scar
C. node
D.lichenization

122. Secondary morphological elements do not include:

A. vesicles
B. pustule
C. erosion
D. vegetation

123. The causative agent of scabies:

A.virus
B.protozoa
C.parasites
D.bacteria
 124. With scabies in adults, the skin is more often affected:
A. interdigital space
B. abdomen
C. genitals
D. all of the above is true

125. Norwegian scabies is a clinical variant of Scabies:

A. Yes.
B. No.

126. Localization of the primary morphological element in urticaria:

A. in the papillary layer of the dermis
B. in the stratum corneum of the epidermis
C. in the granular layer of the epidermis
D. in the hypodermis

127. Discoid lupus erythematosus ends:

A. scar formation
B. pigment spot
C. transforms into lymphoma
D. passes without a trace

128. On the basis of which method of laboratory diagnosis the final

diagnosis of "scabies" is established:
A. Microscopy
B. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
C. Polymerase chain reaction
D. Sowing on a nutrient medium

129. Vacuol degeneration (intracellular edema) is characteristic of:

A. Eczema
B. Psoriasis of the scalp
C. Ichthyosis
D. Atopic dermatitis

130. Parakeratosis is characteristic of:

A. Psoriasis
B. Herpes zoster
C. Herpes simplex
D. Secondary syphilis