9 April 2021 Test Paper CRT 21

All India Test and Discussion Series : Test-21 / [Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / TD / 9-April-2021
Test ID
Test CODE : TD-21
323
[All India Test & Discussion Series]

TEST DATE : 09-April-2021
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NLI / 2
TOPIC : Electromagnetic Induction

1. In electromagnetic induction, the induced charge 1.
in a coil is independent of
(1) Change in the flux (1)
(2) Time (2)
(3) Resistance in the circuit (3)
(4) None of the above (4)
2. The direction of induced e.m.f. during 2.
electromagnetic induction is given by :
(1) Faraday's law (1)
(2) Lenz's law (2)
(3) Maxwell's law (3)
(4) Ampere's law (4)
3. A coil of area 100 cm2 has 500 turns. Magnetic field 3. 100 cm2 500 0.1
of 0.1 weber/metre is perpenedicular to the coil.
2 2
The field is reduced to zero in 0.1 second. The 0.1

induced e.m.f. in the coil is :
(1) 1 V (1) 1 V
(2) 5 V (2) 5 V
(3) 50 V (3) 50 V
(4) Zero (4)
4. A coil has 2000 tunrs and area of 70 cm2. The 4. 70 cm2 2000
magnetic field perpendicular to the plane of the 0.3 2
coil is 0.3 Wb/m2 and takes 0.1 sec to rotate through 180° 0.1
180°. The value of the induced e.m.f. will be :
(1) 8.4 V (1) 8.4 V
(2) 84 V (2) 84 V
(3) 42 V (3) 42 V
(4) 4.2 V (4) 4.2 V
5. According to Faraday's law of electromagentic 5.
induction. (1)
(1) The direction of induced current is such that it
opposes the cause producing it
(2)
(2) The magnitude of induced e.m.f. produced in a coil
is directly proportional to the rate of change of
magnetic flux
(3)
(3) The direction of induced e.m.f. is such that is
opposes the cause producing it
(4) None of the above (4)
NLI / 3
6. The unit of magnetic flux is : 6.
(1) Weber / m2 (1)
(2) Weber (2)
(3) Henry (3)
(4) Ampere / m (4)
7. Lenz's law gives 7.
(1) The magnitude of the induced e.m.f. (1)
(2) The direction of the induced current
(2)
(3) Both the magnitude and direction of the induced
(3)
current
(4) The magnitude of the induced current (4)
8. A coil of 100 turns and area 5 square centimetre is 8. 100 5

placed in a magnetic field B = 0.2 T. The normal to B = 0.2 T
the plane of the coil makes an angle of 60° with 60°
the direction of the magnetic field. The magnetic
:
flux linked with the coil is :
(1) 5 ×10–3 Wb
(1) 5 ×10–3 Wb
(2) 5 × 10–5 Wb
(2) 5 × 10–5 Wb
(3) 10–2 Wb
(3) 10–2 Wb
(4) 10–4 Wb
(4) 10–4 Wb
9.
9. The direction of induced current is such that it
opposes the very cause that has produced it. This
is the law of : (1)
(1) Lenz (2)
(2) Faraday
(3)
(3) Kirchhoff
(4)
(4) Fleming
10.
10. Faraday's laws are consequence of conservation
of : (1)
(1) Energy (2)
(2) Energy and magnetic field
(3)
(3) Charge
(4)
(4) Magnetic field
11.
11. The north pole of a magnet is brought near a
metallic ring. The direction of the induced current
in the ring will be : (1)
(1) Clockwise (2)
(2) Anticlockwise
(3)
(3) Towards north
(4)
(4) Towards south
NLI / 4
12. The magnetic flux linked with a coil, in webers, is 12.
given by the equations I = 3t2 + 4t + 9. Then the I = 3t2 + 4t + 9 t =2
magnitude of induced e.m.f. at t = 2 second will
be :
(1) 2
(1) 2 volt
(2) 4
(2) 4 volt
(3) 8 volt (3) 8
(4) 16 volt (4) 16
G G G
13. The magnetic flux linked with a vector area A in 13. B A
G
a uniform magnetic field is B
G G G G
(1) B u A (1) B u A
(2) AB (2) AB
G G G G
(3) B A (3) B A
B B
(4) (4)
A A
14. A coil having n turns and resistance R : is 14. n R: 4R:

connected with a galvanometer of resistance 4R:.
This combination is moved in time t seconds from W1 W2
a magnetic field W 1 weber to W 2 weber. The t
induced current in the circuit is : :
W2 W1 W2 W1
(1) (1)
5Rnt 5Rnt
n(W2 W1 ) n(W2 W1 )
(2) (2)
5Rt 5Rt
(W2 W1 ) (W2 W1 )
(3) (3)
Rnt Rnt
n(W2 W1 ) n(W2 W1 )
(4) (4) Rt
Rt
15. When a wire loop is rotated in a magnetic field, 15.

the direction of induced e.m.f. changes once in
each
1
(1) revolution
4 1
(1)
1 4
(2) revolution 1
2 (2)
2
(3) 1 revolution (3) 1
(4) 2 revolution (4) 2
NLI / 5
16. An aeroplane in which the distance between the 16. 50

tips of wings is 50 m is flying horizontally with a 360
speed of 360 km/hr over a place where the vertical
components of earth magnetic field is 2.0 × 10–4
2.0 × 10–4
weber/m . The potential difference between the
2
:
tips of wings would be :
(1) 0.1
(1) 0.1 V
(2) 1.0
(2) 1.0 V
(3) 0.2 V (3) 0.2
(4) 0.01 V (4) 0.01
17. The network shown in the figure is a part of a 17.

complete circuit. If at a certain instant the current i
i is 5 A and is decreasing at the rate of 103A/s then 5A 103 A/s
VB – VA is : VB – VA :
(1) 5 V (1) 5 V
(2) 10 V (2) 10 V
(3) 15 V (3) 15 V
(4) 20 V (4) 20 V
18. A conducting rod of length l is falling with velocity 18. B l

v perpendicular to a uniform horizontal magnetic v
field B. The potential difference between its two
:
ends will be :
(1) 2 Blv
(1) 2 Blv
(2) Blv (2) Blv

1 1
(3) Blv (3) Blv
2 2
(4) B2l2v2 (4) B2l2v2
19. An e.m.f. of 5 volt is produced by a self inductance, 19. 5

when the current changes at a steady rate from 3 3 2
A to 2 A in 1 millisecond. The value of self :
inductance is :
(1)
(1) Zero
(2) 5
(2) 5 H
(3) 5000
(3) 5000 H
(4) 5
(4) 5 mH
NLI / 6
20. Some magnetic flux is changed from a coil of 20. 10 ohm
resistance 10 ohm. As a result an induced current
is developed in it, which varies with time as shown
in figure. The magnitude of change in flux through
:
the coil in webers is :
(1) 2 (2) 4
(1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 6 (4)
(3) 6 (4) None of these
21. 1.25
21. The mutual inductance between two coils is 1.25
80
henry. If the current in the primary changes at the
rate of 80 ampere/second, then the induced e.m.f.
in the secondary is :
(1) 12.5
(1) 12.5 V
(2) 64.0
(2) 64.0 V
(3) 0.016 V (3) 0.016
(4) 100.0 V (4) 100.0
22. Self induction of a solenoid is : 22.

(1) Directly proportional to current flowing through the (1)
coil
(2)
(2) Directly proportional to its length
(3)
(3) Directly proportional to area of cross-section
(4) Inversely proportional to area of cross-section (4)
23. Mutual inductance of two coils can be increased 23.

by : (1)
(1) Decreasing the number of turns in the coils
(2)
(2) Increasing the number of turns in the coils
(3)
(3) Winding the coils on wooden core
(4)
(4) None of these
24. The number of turns of primary and secondary coils 24.
of a transformer are 5 and 10 respectively and the 5 10
mutual inductance of the transformer is 25 henry. 25
Now the number of turns in the primary and
10 5
secondary of the transformer are made 10 and 5
:
respectively. The mutual inductance of the
transformer in henry will be : (1) 6.25
(1) 6.25
(2) 12.5
(2) 12.5
(3) 25
(3) 25
(4) 50 (4) 50
NLI / 7
25. Pure inductance of 3.0 H is connected as shown 25. 3.0 H
below. The equivalent inductance of the circuit is:
(1) 1 H
(1) 1 H
(2) 2 H
(2) 2 H
(3) 3 H
(3) 3 H
(4) 9 H (4) 9 H
26. An average induced e.m.f. of 1 V appears in a coil 26. 10 A 0.5

when the current in it is changed from 10A in one
direction to 10A in opposite direction in 0.5 sec. 1V
Self-inductance of the coil is : :
(1) 25 mH ((1) 25 mH
(2) 50 mH (2) 50 mH
(3) 75 mH (3) 75 mH
(4) 100 mH (4) 100 mH
27. When the current change from + 2A to – 2A in 0.05 27. 0.5 + 2A

second, an e.m.f. of 8V is induced in the coil. The – 2A
coefficient of self induction of the coil is : 8V :
(1) 0.1 H (1) 0.1 H
(2) 0.2 H (2) 0.2 H
(3) 0.4 H (3) 0.4 H
(4) 0.8 H (4) 0.8 H
28. The time constant of an LR circuit represents the 28. LR
time in which the current in the circuit
(1) Reaches a value equal to about 37% of its final
value (1) 37%
(2) Reaches a value equal to about 63% of its final (2) 63%
value
(3)
(3) Attains a constant value
(4) Attains 50% of the constant value (4) 50%
29. A coil of inductance 300 mH and resistance 2: is 29. 300 mH 2:
connected to a source of voltage 2V. The current 2V
reaches half of its steady state value in : :
(1) 0.15 s (1) 0.15 s
(2) 0.3 s (2) 0.3 s
(3) 0.05 s (3) 0.05 s
(4) 0.1 s (4) 0.1 s
NLI / 8
30. A transformer is based on the principle of : 30.
(1) Mutual inductance (1)
(2) Self inductance (2)
(3) Ampere's law (3)
(4) Lenz's law (4)
31. Eddy current are produced when : 31.
(1) A metal is kept in varying magnetic field (1)
(2) A metal is kept in the steady magnetic field (2)
(3) A circular coil is placed in a magnetic field (3)
(4) Through a circular coil, current is passed (4)
32. Work of elelctric motor is : 32.
(1) To convert ac into dc (1) ac dc
(2) To convert dc into ac (2) dc ac
(3) Both (1) and (2) (3) 1 2
(4) To convert ac into mechanical work (4) ac
33. What is increased in step-down transformer 33.
(1) Voltage (1)
(2) Current (2)
(3) Power (3)
(4) Current density (4)
34. The transformation ratio in the step-up transformer 34.

is :
(1) 1
(1) 1
(2) Greater than one (2)

(3) Less than one
(3)
(4) The ratio greater or less than one depends on the
other factors (4)
35. The ratio of secondary to the primary turns in a 35.

transformer is 3 : 2. If the power output be P, then 3:2
the input power neglecting all loses must be equal P
to :
:
(1) 5 P
(1) 5 P
(2) 1.5 P
(2) 1.5 P
(3) P
(3) P
2
(4) P 2
5 (4) P
5
NLI / 9
36. A loss free transformer has 500 turns on its primary 36. 500
winding and 2500 in secondary. The meters of the 2500
secondary indicate 200 volts at 8 amperes under 8 200
these conditions. The voltage and current in the :
primary is :
(1) 100 V, 16 A
(1) 100 V, 16 A
(2) 40 V, 40 A
(2) 40 V, 40 A
(3) 160 v, 10 A (3) 160 v, 10 A
(4) 80 V, 20 A (4) 80 V, 20 A
37. The coils of a step down transformer have 500 and 37. 500 5000
5000 turns. In the primary coil an ac of 4 ampere 2200 4
at 2200 volts is sent. The value of the current and
potential difference in the secondary coil will be : :
(1) 20 A, 220 V (1) 20 A, 220 V
(2) 0.4 A, 22000 V (2) 0.4 A, 22000 V
(3) 40 A, 220 V (3) 40 A, 220 V
(4) 40 A, 22000 V (4) 40 A, 22000 V
38. In a transformer the primary has 500 turns and 38. 500
secondary has 50 turns. 100 volts are applied to 50 100
the primary coil, the voltage developed in the
:
secondary will be :
(1) 1 V
(1) 1 V
(2) 10 V
(2) 10 V
(3) 1000 V (3) 1000 V
(4) 10000 V (4) 10000 V
39. A transformer is used to : 39.
(1) Change the alternating potential (1)
(2) Change the alternating current (2)
(3) To prevent the power loss in alternating current flow (3)
(4) To increase the power of current source (4)

40. A stpe-up transformer operates on 230 V line and 40. 230
supplies a load 2 ampere. The ratio of the primary 2
and secondary windings is 1 : 25. The current in
1 : 25 :
the primary is :
(1) 15 A
(1) 15 A
(2) 50 A (2) 50 A
(3) 25 A (3) 25 A
(4) 12.5 A (4) 12.5 A
NLI / 10
41. A step-up transformer has transformation ratio of 41. 3:2
3 : 2. What is the voltage in secondary if voltage in 30
primary is 30 V.
(1) 45 V (1) 45 V
(2) 15 V (2) 15 V
(3) 90 V (3) 90 V
(4) 300 V (4) 300 V

42. The ratio of secodary to primary turns is 9 : 4. If 42.
power input is P, what will be the ratio of power 9:4 P
output (neglect all losses) to power input
)
(1) 4 : 9
(1) 4 : 9
(2) 9 : 4
(2) 9 : 4
(3) 5 : 4 (3) 5 : 4
(4) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 1
43. In an inductor of inductance L = 100 mH, a current 43. L = 100 mH, I = 10A
of I = 10A is flowing. The energy stored in the
:
inductor is :
(1) 5 J
(1) 5 J
(2) 10 J
(2) 10 J
(3) 100 J
(3) 100 J
(4) 1000 J (4) 1000 J
44. In the following figure, the magnet is moved 44. v

towards the coil with a speed v and induced emf e
is e. If magnet and coil recede away from one
v
another each moving with speed v, the induced
emf in the coil will be : :
(1) e (1) e
(2) 2e (2) 2e
(3) e/2 (3) e/2
(4) 4e (4) 4e
45. A current carrying is approaching a conducting 45.
loop as shown in the figure. The direction of
induced current as observed by an observer on
the other side of the loop will be :
(1) Anticlockwise (1)

(2) Clockwise (2)
(3) East (3)
(4) West
(4)
NLI / 11
CHEMISTRY : Chemical Kinetics
46. A(g) + 3B (g) o 2 C (g) , The rate of this reaction
d[A]
d[A] 46. A(g) + 3B(g) o 2 C(g),
is 3×10–3 mol lit–1 min–1 what is the value dt
dt
d[B]
d[B] 3×10–3
of in mol liter–1 min–1 : dt
dt
(1) 3×10–3
(1) 3×10–3
(2) 10–3
(2) 10–3
(3) 9×10–3 (3) 9×10–3
(4) 1.5×10–3 (4) 1.5×10–3
47. For the reaction 2N2O5 o 4NO2 + O2 rate of reaction 47.
will be :
2N2O5 o 4NO2 + O2
1 d d
(1) [N2O5 ] (2) 2 [N2O5 ] 1 d d
2 dt dt (1) [N2O5 ] (2) 2 [N2O5 ]
2 dt dt
1 d d
(3) [NO2 ] (4) 4 [NO2 ] 1 d d
4 dt dt (3) [NO2 ] (4) 4 [NO2 ]
4 dt dt
48. For a gaseous reaction following data is given :
48.
A o B K1 = 10 e 15 –2000/T
A o B K1 = 1015 e–2000/T
C o D K2 = 10 e 14 –1000/T
C o D K2 = 1014 e–1000/T
The temperature at which K1 = K2 is :
K1 = K2
(1) 1000 K (1) 1000 K
(2) 2000 K (2) 2000 K
(3) 868.82 K (3) 868.82 K
(4) 434.2 K (4) 434.2 K
49. Inversion of cane sugar in dilute acid is : 49.
(1) Bimolecular reaction (1)

(2) Pseudo uni molecular reaction (2)
(3) unimolecular reaction
(3)
(4) trimolecular reaction
(4)
50. The rate of gaseous reaction is given by the
expression K[A]2[B]3. The volume of reaction vessel 50. K[A]2[B]
is suddenly reduced to one half of the initial
volume. The reaction rate relative to the original
rate will be :
(1) 1/24
(1) 1/24
(2) 1/32
(2) 1/32
(3) 32 (3) 32
(4) 24 (4) 24
NLI / 12
51. The rate constant of reaction : 51. 2H2O2(aq) o 2H2O(l) + O2(g)
2H2O2(aq) o 2H2O(l) + O2(g) is 3×10–3 min–1 at what 3×10–3 min–1
concentration of H2O2, the rate of the reaction will
H2 O 2
be 2×10–4 ms–1 :
2×10–4 ms–1
(1) 6.67×10–3 M
(1) 6.67×10–3 M
(2) 2 M
(2) 2 M
(3) 4 M
(3) 4 M
(4) 0.08 M (4) 0.08 M
52. Rate constant k of a first order reaction is related 52. kt = lnCo– lnCt K
to initial concentration Co and Ct at time t by the
equation kt = lnCo– lnCt. The graph is straight line C0 Ct Ct
if we plot :
(1) t vs lnCo (1) t vs lnCo
(2) t vs lnCt (2) t vs lnCt
(3) t–1 vs lnCt (3) t–1 vs lnCt
(4) lnCo vs lnCt
(4) lnCo vs lnCt
53. A 5
53. Half-life of a substance A following first order
kinetics is 5 days. Starting with 100g of A, amount A 100 15
left after 15 days is :
(1) 25 g (1) 25
(2) 50 g (2) 50
(3) 12.5 g (3) 12.5
(4) 6.25 g (4) 6.25
54. In a first order reaction, the conc. of reactant 54. 0.8 M
decreases from 0.8 M to 0.4 M in 15 minutes. The 0.4 M, 15 0.1 M 0.025 M
time taken for the conc. to change from 0.1 M to
0.025 M is :
(1) 30
(1) 30 min
(2) 60 min (2) 60
(3) 7.5 min (3) 7.5
(4) 15 min (4) 15
55. The rate equation for the reaction 2A+B oC, is 55. 2A+BoC, r=k[A][B]
found to be r=k[A][B]. The correct statement in
relation to this rection is that the :
(1) k sec–1
(1) unit of k must be sec –1
(2) k A B
(2) value of k is independent of the initial concentrations
of A and B
(3) rate of formation of C is twice the rate of (3) C A
disappearance of A (4) t1/2
(4) t1/2 is a constant
56.
56. The half-life of a first order chemical reaction is 6.93 99%
6.93 minutes. The time required for the completion
of 99% of the chemical reaction will be :
(1) 23.03 minutes (1) 23.03
(2) 46.06 minutes (2) 46.06

(3) 460.6 minutes (3) 460.6
(4) 230.3 minutes (4) 230.3
NLI / 13
57. Unit of rate constant for 2nd order reaction : 57.
(1) mol–1 lit–1time–1
(1) –1 –1
(2) lit mol time–1

(2) –1
(3) lit mol–1 time–1
(4) mol lit–1 time–1 (3) –1 –1
58. Decomposition of ozone to oxygen, 2O3 o 3O2, (4) –1 –1
follows the mechanism :

58. 2O3 o 3O2
O3 U O2 O (Fast Step)
O3 O
k1
o 2O2 (Slow step) O3 U O2 O )
The rate equation of the reaction is : O3 O

k1
o 2O2 )
(1) r=k[O3][O2] 1/2
(2) r=k[O3] [O2]–2 –1
(3) r=k[O3] [O2]

2 1
(4) r=k[O3]2[O2]–1
(1) r=k[O3][O2]1/2 (2) r=k[O3]–2[O2]–1
59. What would be the rate equation of the reaction,
A+Bo Products, If following data is collected (3) r=k[O3]2[O2]1 (4) r=k[O3]2[O2]–1
experimentally : 59. A+B
(1) r=k[A]2 (1) r=k[A]2

(2) r=k[B]2 (2) r=k[B]2
(3) r=k[A]2[B]1 (3) r=k[A]2[B]1
(4) r=k[A]1[B]1 (4) r=k[A]1[B]1
60. The rate constants of two reactions are k1 > k2. How
60. k1 > k2
are the activation energies of these reactions, E1
and E2 related : E1 E2
(1) E1 > E2 (1) E1 > E2
(2) E1 < E2 (2) E1 < E2
(3) E1` = E2 (3) E1` = E2
(4) Cannot be decided (4)
61. The ratio of time for 50% and 90% completion of a 61. 50% 90%
first order reaction is :
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 3
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 3
(3) 3 : 5 (4) 3 : 10
(3) 3 : 5 (4) 3 : 10
62. For the reaction,
62.
H2(g) + Br2(g) o 2HBr(g)
H2(g) + Br2(g) o 2HBr(g)
the experimental data suggest
rate = k[H2][Br2]1/2
The molecularity and order of the reaction are = k[H2][Br2]1/2
respectively :
1 1
(1) 1, (2) 1, 1 (1) 1, (2) 1, 1
2 2
3 3 3 3 3 3
(3) , (4) 2, (3) , (4) 2,
2 2 2 2 2 2
NLI / 14
63. The minimum energy required for a molecule to 63.
take part in a reaction is called :
(1)
(1) threshold energy
(2) nuclear energy (2)
(3) potential energy (3)

(4) kinetic energy (4)
64. Consider the reaction
64.
N2(g) + 3H2(g) o 2NH3
N2(g) + 3H2(g) o 2NH3
d[NH3 ]
the equality relationship between and d[NH3 ] d[H2 ]
dt
dt dt
d[H2 ]
is :
dt d[NH3 ] 1 d[H2 ]
(1)
dt 3 dt
d[NH3 ] 1 d[H2 ]
(1)
dt 3 dt d[NH3 ] 2 d[H2 ]
(2)
dt 3 dt
d[NH3 ] 2 d[H2 ]
(2)
dt 3 dt d[NH 3 ] 2 d[H 2 ]
(3)
dt 3 dt
d[NH 3 ] 2 d[H 2 ]
(3)
dt 3 dt d[NH3 ] [H2 ]
(4) d
dt dt
d[NH3 ] [H2 ]
(4) d
dt dt 65.
65. Which of the following statement is not true for a (1) (t)
first order reaction :
k
(1) Graph between concentration and time(t) is a 2.303
k
straight line with slope
2.303 (2)
(2) Half life period is independent of initial concentration
(3)
(3) Generally on increasing temperature half life period
decreases
(4) –1
(4) Unit of specific reaction rate is time–1
66. At constant volume, the decomposition reaction 66.
A(g) o B(g) + C(g), follows first order kinetics and A(g) o B(g) + C(g),
following data are obtained :
The rate constant for the given reaction will be :

(1) 10–1 sec–1 (1) 10–1 –1
(2) 10–2 sec–1 (2) 10–2 –1
(3) 10–3 sec–1 (3) 10–3 –1
(4) 10–4 sec–1 (4) 10–4 –1
NLI / 15
67. Match the Column I with Column II and choose 67. I II
the correct option :
I II
Column I Column II
1
1 a. i. t 50% v
a. Zero order reaction i. t 50% v [A]0
[A]0
[A]0
[A]0 b. ii. t100%
b. First order reaction ii. t100% k
k
c. iii.
c. Second order reaction iii. involves atleast two
reactants
d. Pseudo unimolecular iv. [A] = [A]0e–kt d. iv. [A] = [A]0e–kt
reaction
(1) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii (1) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(2) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i (2) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii (3) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(4) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii (4) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
1
1 68. lnk Vs
68. In the Arrhenius plot of lnk Vs ,the slope is T
T –2×104
–2×104. The activation energy of the reaction is
approx :
(1) 83 kJ/mole
(2) 166 kJ/mole
(3) 249 kJ/mole
(4) 332 kJ/mole 69. X2 + Y2 o 2XY
69. A hypothetical reaction X2 + Y2 o 2XY follows the
following mechanism
i. X2 U 2X(fast)
i. X2 U 2X(fast)
ii. X Y2 o XY Y(slow)
ii. X Y2 o XY Y(slow)
iii. X Y U XY(fast)
iii. X Y U XY(fast)
the incorrect statement is :
(1)
(1) The given reaction is nonelementary reaction
(2) X2 1/2
(2) The order with respect to X2 is 1/2
(3) The order with respect to Y2 is 3/2 (3) Y2 3/2
(4) None of these (4)
70. The following graph show how t1/2 (half-life) of a 70. t1/2 ( ) a0
reactant R changes with the initial reactant
concentration a0. the order of the reaction will be:
(1) 0
(1) 0
(2) 1
(2) 1
(3) 2
(3) 2
(4) 3
(4) 3
NLI / 16
71. For a first order reaction 71.
X(g) o 2Y(g) + Z(g) , the initial pressure was found to X(g) o 2Y(g) + Z(g) , 400 mm
be 400 mm which changed to 1000 mm after 20 20 1000 mm
min. The rate constant for the reaction will be :
(1) 6.93 min–1 (1) 6.93 min–1

(2) 0.693 min–1
(2) 0.693 min–1
(3) 0.0693 min–1
(3) 0.0693 min–1
(4) 0.00693 min–1
(4) 0.00693 min–1
72. For a reaction AoB, the rate expression is given
by rate = K[A]n. If the graph between concentration 72. AoB = K[A] A
of A vs time is given by : n
the value of n will be : (1) 0

(1) 0 (2) 1
(2) 1
1
(3) 1
1 2
(3) 1
2 (4) 2
(4) 2 73. H2O2
73. The decomposition of H2O2 is represented by
2H2O2 o 2H2O + O2. H2O 36 gm/
2H2O2 o 2H2O + O2. If the rate of appearance of
min. H2 O 2
H2O is 36 gm/min., the rate of disappearance of
H2O2 will be : (1) 18 gm/min
(1) 18 gm/min
(2) 36 gm/min
(2) 36 gm/min
(3) 48 gm/min
(3) 48 gm/min
(4) 68 gm/min
(4) 68 gm/min
74. For an exothermic reaction, A + B o C + D, If the 74. A+Bo C +D
heat of reaction is 20 kJ mol–1 and the activation 20 kJ mol –1
85
energy of the forward reaction is 85 kJ mol–1, the kJ mol ............
activation energy for backward reaction is ............
kJ mol–1 : kJ mol–1 :
(1) 65 (1) 65
(2) 105 (2) 105

(3) 85
(3) 85
(4) 40
(4) 40
75. The rate constant of a reaction at 270C is 2.3×10–3 75. 270C 2.3×10–3 min–1
min–1 and 0.002% of the reactant molecules are
able to cross over the energy barrier existing
between the reactants and products. By increasing 0.002%
the temperature the rate constant of reaction will
increase to a maximum of :
(1) 230 min–1 (1) 230 min–1
(2) 115 min–1 (2) 115 min–1
(3) 2.3×10–2 min–1 (3) 2.3×10–2 min–1
(4) 4.6×10–2 min–1 (4) 4.6×10–2 min–1
NLI / 17
76. In an uranium mineral, U-238 to Pb-206 mole ratio 76. U-238 Pb-206 1:3
was found to be 1:3. If half life period of U-238 is
U-238 4.5×10 9
4.5×109 years, the age of the mineral is :
(1) 2.25×109 yrs
(1) 2.25×109 yrs
(2) 1.5×109 yrs
(2) 1.5×109 yrs
(3) 9.0×109 yrs
(3) 9.0×109 yrs
(4) 1.25×109 yrs
(4) 1.25×109 yrs
K1
ZZZ
77. In a reversible reaction, 2NO2 YZZZ X N2O4 the rate K1
K2
77. ZZZ
2NO2 YZZZ X N2O4 , NO
K 2
of disappearance of NO2 is equal to : 2
2K1[NO2 ]2
(1) 2K1[NO2 ]2
K2 (1)
K2
(2) 2K1[NO2]2–2K2[N2O4]
(2) 2K1[NO2]2–2K2[N2O4]
(3) K1[NO2]2–K2[N2O4] (3) K1[NO2]2–K2[N2O4]
(4) (2K1–K2)[NO2] (4) (2K1–K2)[NO2]
78. Which of the following statement is incorrect : 78.
(1) In the average life period of a radio active substance, (1)

§ e 1· § e 1·
the degree of dissociation will be ¨©
e ¸¹ ¨© e ¸¹
(2) A reaction involving two different reactants can never (2)

be a unimolecular reaction.
(3) For a zero activation energy reaction the rate

constant increases upon increasing temperature (3)
(4) None of these

(4)
79. A certain zero order reaction has k = 0.025 M s–1
for the disappearance of A. What will be the 79. A
concentration of A after 15 seconds if the initial
concentration is 0.5 M : k = 0.025 M s –1
0.5 M 15
A
(1) 0.5 M
(1) 0.5 M
(2) 0.32 M
(2) 0.32 M
(3) 0.12 M
(3) 0.12 M
(4) 0.06 M
(4) 0.06 M
80. Half life period of 2nd order reaction is :
80.
(1) proportional to initial concentration of reactants
(1)
(2) Independent of initial concentration of reactants
(3) inversely proportional to initial concentration of (2)

reactants
(3)
(4) inversely proportional to square of initial
concentration of reactants. (4)
NLI / 18
81. If the rate of the reaction is equal to the rate 81.
constant, the order of reaction is :
(1) 3 (1) 3
(2) 0 (2) 0
(3) 1 (3) 1
(4) 2 (4) 2
82. Which of the following is a theoratical value : 82.
(1) Rate constant (1)
(2) Rate law (2)
(3) Order (3)
(4) Molecularity (4)
83. Which of the following statements is incorrect 83.

about order of reactons :
(1) Order of reaction is determined experimentally (1)
(2) It is the sum of power of concentration terms in (2)

the rate law expression.
(3) If does not necessarily depend on stoichiometric (3)

coefficients.
(4) Order of the reaction can not have fractional value. (4)
84. The rate constant of a reaction depends on : 84.
(1) temperature (1)
(2) pressure (2)
(3) concn of reactant (3)
(4) volume of vessel (4)
85. If initial concentration of reactants in certain 85.

reaction is doubled, the half life period of the
reaction doubles, the order of a reaction is :
(1) Zero (1)
(2) First (2)

(3) Second (3)
(4) Third (4)
86. The rate constant of first order reaction whose half 86.
life is 480 sec is : 480
(1) 1.44x10-3 sec-1 (1) 1.44x10-3 sec-1
(2) 1.44 sec-1 (2) 1.44 sec-1
(3) 0.72x10-3sec-1 (3) 0.72x10-3sec-1
(4) 2.88x10-3sec-1 (4) 2.88x10-3sec-1
NLI / 19
87. For a chemical reaction A o B, it is found that 87. AoB
the rate of reaction doubles when the A
concentration of A is increased four times. The A
order in A for this reaction is:
(1)
(1) Two
(2)
(2) One
(3) Half (3)
(4) Zero (4)
88. What is the activation energy for a reaction if its 88. 200C 350C
rate doubles when the temperature is raised from :
200C to 350C : (R = 8.314 J mol–1 K–)
(R = 8.314 J mol–1 K–)
(1) 34.7 kJ mol–1
(1) 34.7 kJ mol–1
(2) 15.1 kJ mol–1
(2) 15.1 kJ mol–1
(3) 342 kJ mol–1
(3) 342 kJ mol–1
(4) 269 kJ mol–1
89. In the sequence of reaction : (4) 269 kJ mol–1
K3
K1
X o K2
Y o K3
Z o P where K3>K 2>K 1, the 89. K1
X o K2
Y o Z o P
rate of reaction will be given by : K3>K2>K1
d[P] d[P]
(1) K 3 [X] (1) K 3 [X]
dt dt
d[P] d[P]
(2) K 3 [Y] (2) K 3 [Y]
dt dt
d[P] d[P]
(3) (K1 K 2 K 3 ) (3) (K1 K 2 K 3 )
dt dt
d[P] d[P]
(4) K1[X] (4) K1[X]
dt dt
90. During the kinetic study of the reaction, 90. 2A+BoC+D
2A+BoC+D, following results were obtained :
Based on the above data which one of the

following is correct :
(1) = k[A]2[B] (2) = k[A][B]
(1) Rate = k[A]2[B] (2) Rate = k[A][B]
(3) Rate = k[A]2[B]2 (4) Rate = [A][B]2 (3) = k[A]2[B]2 (4) = [A][B]2
NLI / 20
BIOLOGY : Excretoy Products and Their Elimination
91. Which is not correctly matched? 91.
(1) Malpighian tubules - Cockroaches, mosquito (1)
(2) Antennal glands - Planaria, crab (2)
(3) nephridia - Earthworm (3)
(4) Protonephridia - Amphioxus (4)
92. In human filtration of the blood takes place at 92.
(1) PCT (1) PCT
(2) DCT (2) DCT
(3) Collecting ducts (3)
(4) Glomerulus (4)
93. In response to decrease in blood volume and 93.

blood pressure, which of the following do not oc-
cur?
(1)
(1) Secretion of renin
(2)
(2) Secretion of aldosterone
(3) Secretion of vasopressin (3)
(4) Secretion of ANF (4) ANF
94. Which substances are selectively secreted in the 94.

collecting duct ;
(1) Urea, water (1)
(2) Water, glucose (2)
(3) H+ and K+, ions (3) H +, K+
(4) Water, H+ ions (4) H+
95. The vessel leading blood (containing nitrogenous 95.

waste) into the Bowman's capsule is known as
(1) Afferent arteriole (1)
(2) Efferent arteriole (2)
(3) Renal artery (3)
(4) Renal vein (4)
NLI / 21
96.
96. Arrange the parts of the nephron in a correct
sequence. (I)
(I) Glomerulus (II)
(II) Bowman's capsule (III)
(III) Henle's loop (IV)
(IV) Proximal convoluted tubule (V)

(V) Distal convoluted tubule (1) I o II o III o IV o V
(1) I o II o III o IV o V (2) I o II o IV o III o V
(2) I o II o IV o III o V (3) I o II o V o III o IV
(3) I o II o V o III o IV
(4) IV o III o II o I o V
(4) IV o III o II o I o V
97.
97. Read carefully and choose the correct statement.
(1) The juxta-medullary nephrons have small Henle's (1)

loop
(2)
(2) The PCT and DCT are situated in the medulla part
of the kidney
(3)
(3) The glomerulus encloses the Bowman's capsule
(4) The ascending limb of Henle's loop extends as the (4)

DCT
98. ADH
98. ADH controls water permeability of
(1)
(1) Henle's loop
(2)
(2) Proximal convoluted tubule
(3)
(3) Latter parts of the tubule
(4)
(4) All of the above
99.
99. Antennal gland as excretory structures found in :
(1)
(1) Planaria
(2)
(2) Prawn
(3)
(3) Earthworm
(4)
(4) Cockroach
100.
100. Glomerulus alongwith Bowman’s capsule is
called: (1)
(1) Renal corpuscle (2)
(2) Malpighian tubule (3)

(3) Malpighian body
(4) 1 3
(4) Both 1 & 3
NLI / 22
101.
101. Which statement is correct :
(1) GFR 125 ml/minute
(1) GFR in a healthy individual is approximately 125
ml/minute. (2) 1.5 litre
(2) The urine released per day is approx 1.5 litre (3) PCT 70-80
(3) In PCT 70-80 percent of electrolytes and water are
reabsorbed
(4)
(4) All of these
102.
102. The length of each kidney of an adult human is
about: (1) 14-15 cm
(1) 14-15 cm (2) 10-12 cm

(2) 10-12 cm (3) 21-25 cm
(3) 21-25 cm (4) 2-3 cm
(4) 2-3 cm
103.
103. Which disease is related to the malfunctioning of
kidney : (1)
(1) Polyuria (2)
(2) Dysuria
(3)
(3) Glomerulonephritis
(4)
(4) All of these
104.
104. In each kidney of human how many nephrons are
present : (1) 2
(1) 2 million (2) 1
(2) 1 million (3) 3
(3) 3 million
(4) 4
(4) 4 million
105. A, B C
105. Identify A, B and C respectively in longitudinal
section of Kidney :
(1) A-Renal pelvis, B-Ureter, C-Renal artery
(2) A-Renal artery, B-Ureter, C-Renal pelvis
(3) A-Renal artery, B-Renal pelvis, C-Ureter
(4) A-Renal pelvis, B-Renal artery, C-Ureter
NLI / 23
106. Which one is a incorrect matching : 106.
(1) DCT–Found in medulla
(2) PCT–Found in medulla
(3) Glomerulus –Found in medulla (3)
(4) All of these (4)
107. If ADH level of blood is less 107. ADH
(1) Volume of urine increases (1)
(2) Volume of urine decreases (2)
(3) Volume of urine normal (3)
(4) Volume of urine is unaffected (4)
108. The hormone secreted by juxtaglomerular cells 108.

is
(1)
(1) Gastrin
(2)
(2) Secretin
(3)
(3) Erythropoietin
(4) Aldosterone (4)
109. Which one is ureotelic in nature : 109.
(1) Aquatic insects (1)
(2) Bird (2)
(3) Snake (3)
(4) Marine fishes (4)
110. The cortex extends in between the medullary 110.

pyramids as renal columns called :
(1) Pelvis (1)
(2) Columns of Bertini (2)
(3) Duct of bellini (3)
(4) Calyces (4)
111. Which converts angiotensinogen in blood to 111. I

angiotensin I :
(1) Rennin (1)
(2) Amylase (2)
(3) Renin (3)
(4) Trypsin (4)
NLI / 24
112.
112. Renin is released by :
(1) PCT
(1) PCT cell
(2)
(2) Juxta glomerular cell
(3)
(3) Vasa recta
(4)
(4) Bowman’s capsule
113. A, B, C D
113. Identify A, B, C and D in given diagram & choose
correct option :
(1) A–
(1) A–Afferent arteriole, B–Bowman's capsule
(2) C–PCT, D–
(2) C–PCT, D–Efferent arteriole
(3) B–
(3) B–Efferent arteriole, C–Bowman's capsule
(4) A–PCT, D–
(4) A–PCT, D–Afferent arteriole
114.
114. A minute vessel runs parallel to the Henle’s loop
of juxta medullary nephrons called :
(1)
(1) Efferent arteriole
(2)
(2) Renal vein
(3)
(3) Vasa recta
(4)
(4) Dorsal aorta
115. ADH
115. ADH or vasopressin is :
(1)
(1) Enzyme that hydrolyses peptides
(2)
(2) Hormone released by pituitary that promotes re-
absorption of water from latter parts of the tubule
(3)
(3) Hormone that promotes glycogenolysis
(4)
(4) Energy rich compound connected with muscle
contraction.
116.
116. Of the total nephrons, juxtamedullary nephrons
constitute approximately
(1) 15%
(1) 15%
(2) 45%
(2) 45%
(3) 65% (3) 65%
(4) 85% (4) 85%
NLI / 25
117.
117. Inner to the hilum is a broad funnel shaped space
called:
(1)
(1) Ureter
(2)
(2) Pelvis
(3)
(3) Calyces
(4)
(3) Cortex
118.
118. Substances which are needed to be removed from
animal body are accumulated by :
(1)
(1) Metabolic activities
(2)
(2) Psychological activities
(3)
(3) Excess ingestion
(4) More than one correct (4)
119. Which of the following is ammonotelic 119.
(1) Bony fishes (1)
(2) Aquatic amphibians (2)

(3) Aquatic insects (3)
120. Which of the following is not true 120.
(1) ammonia is readily soluble in water and excreted (1)
by diffusion
(2) Ammonia is excreted through gill surfaces in fishes

(2)
(3) Through gill surfaces ammonia is excreted out as
(3)
ammonium ions
(4) Kidney plays an important role in excretion of

(4)
ammonia
121.
121. Which of the following is true for urea production
and excretion in body
(1) o o
(1) ammonia o urea in liver, blood o filtered and
excreted out by kidney
(2) uric acid o urea in liver, blood o filtered and

(2) o o
(3) ammonia o urea in kidney, blood o filtered and (3) o o

(4) ammonia o urea in liver, kidney o filtered and (4) o o

absorbed by blood
NLI / 26
122. Tell the wrong pair 122.
(1) Bony fishes ammonotelic (1)
(2) aquatic insects uricotelic (2)
(3) mammals ureotelic (3)
(4) reptiles uricotelic (4)

123. Protonephridia are present in 123.
(1) Platyhelminthes (1)
(2) Rotifers (2)
(3) Cephalochordata (3)

124. Nephridia help to 124.
(1) Remove nitrogenous wastes (1)
(2) Maintain fluid and ionic balance (2)
(3) Absorb oxygen (3)
(4) Both 1 and 2 (4) (1) (2)

125. Which of the following is not a correct match 125.
(1) malpighian tubules insects (1)
(2) protonephridia Amphioxus (2)
(3) Antennal glands rotifers (3)
(4) nephridia Earthworm (4)
126. Which of the following is an incorrect match ? 126.
(1) Bowman's capsule – Glomerular filtration (1)
(2) DCT – Absorption of glucose (2)
(3) Henles' loop – Concentration of urine (3)
(4) PCT – Absorption of Na+ and (4)

K+ ions
127. Which of the following is not true about human 127.
kidneys
(1)
(1) Kidneys are reddish brown, bean shaped structures
(2) 10 – 12 5 –7
(2) Each kidney of an adult human measures 10-12
2–3
cm in length, 5-7 cm in width, 2-3 cm in thickness
(3) It has an average weight of 120-170 mg (3) 120 – 170mg
(4) Human excretory system have one pair of kidney (4)

128. Through hilum which of the following do not enter 128.
the kidney
(1)
(1) Ureter
(2) Blood vessels (2)
(3) Glomerulus (3)
(4) Nerves (4)
NLI / 27
129. Columns of Bertini are present in 129.
(1) Intestine (1)

(2) Liver (2)
(3) Kidney (3)
(4) Stomach (4)
130. Each nephron is divided into which of the 130.
following parts
(a) (b)
(a) Glomerulus (b) Medullary pyramid
(c) (d)
(c) Calyces (d) Renal tubule
(1)
(1) All of these
(2) a c
(2) a and c
(3) a and d (3) a d
(4) b and c (4) b c
131. Which of the following also assist in excretion 131.

(1) Skin (1)
(2) Lungs (2)
(3) Liver (3)
132. In cortical nephrons 132.
(1) Glomerulus is very small
(1)
(2) Henle’s loop is very small
(2)
(3) Henle’s loop is very long
(3)
(4) Glomerulus is very large
(4)
133. Which of the following layer is not involved during
glomerulus filtration 133.
(1) Endothelium of glomerulus (1)
(2) Basement membrane between glomerulus and (2)

Bowman’s capsule | (3)
(3) Epithelium of Bowman’s capsule (4)
(4) Endothelium of Henle’s loops
134.
134. Podocytes are
(1)
(1) Epithelium cells of glomerulus
(2)
(2) Endothelial cells of glomerulus
(3)
(3) Epithelium cells of Bowman’s capsule
(4)
(4) Endothelial cells of Bowman’s capsule
135.
135. Minute spaces between Podocytes are called
(1) Filtration slits (1)
(2) Slit pores (2)
(3) Nephron pores (3)

(4) Both 1 and 2 (4) 1 2
NLI / 28
136. The filtration in Bowman’s capsule is considered 136.
as
(1)
(1) Simple diffusion
(2)
(2) Ultra filtration
(3)
(3) Ultracentrifugation
(4)
(4) Active transport
137.
137. Glomerular filtration rate is defined as
(1)
(1) Amount of filtrate formed by kidneys /minute
(2) Amount of blood filtered /minute (2)
(3) Amount of blood pumped in efferent (3)

arterioles/min (4)
(4) Amount of water reabsorbed by glomerulus / 138. GFR
minute
(1) 125ml/sec
138. GFR in a healthy human is
(2) 125dl/min
(1) 125ml/sec
(3) 125dl/h
(2) 125dl/min (4) 0.125L/min
(3) 125dl/h 139.
(4) 0.125L/min
139. During reabsorption process by renal tubule which (1)
of the following are actively absorbed
(2)
(1) Glucose
(3)
(2) Amino acids
(4)
(3) Sodium ions
140.
(4) All of these
140. Tubular secretions are important as they (1)
(1) Maintain ionic balance of body fluids (2)
(2) Acid base balance of body fluids (3)

(3) Increase concentration of blood (4) 1 2
(4) Both1 and 2 141.
141. PCT is lined by which type of cells (1)
(1) Simple cuboidal brush border epithelium cells (2)
(2) Squamous epithelium cells
(3)
(3) Columnar cells bearing cilia
(4)
(4) Simple cuboidal cells
142.
142. Descending loop of henle is
a.
a. Permeable to water
b.
b. Impermeable to electrolytes
c.
c. Impermeable to water
d. Permeable to electrolytes d.
(1) a,b are true (2) c,d are true (1) a, b (2) c, d
(3) a,d are true (4) b, c are true (3) a, d (4) b, c

NLI / 29
143. In the descending Henle loop filtrates 143.
concentration
(1)
(1) Increases
(2)
(2) Decreases
(3)
(3) No effect
(4) Initially increases then decreases (4)
144. The ascending limb of Henle’s loop is 144.

a. permeable to water (a)
b. impermeable to electrolytes (b)
c. impermeable to water (c)
d. permeable to electrolytes (d)
(1) a,b are true (1) a, b
(2) c,d are true (2) c, d
(3) a,d are true (3) a, d
(4) b, c are true (4) b, c
145. In the ascending loop electrolytes are transported 145.
(1) only passively

(1)
(2) only actively
(2)
(3) actively or passively (3)
(4) no transport of electrolytes (4)
146. From Henle’s ascending loop electrolyte are 146.

transported to
(1) cortex (1)
(2) medullary fluid (2)
(3) afferent arteriole (3)
(4) Bowman’s capsule (4)
147.
147. Which of the following is the correct sequence of
processes involved in urine formation ?
(1)
(1) Secretion, Reabsorption, Filtration
(2)
(2) Filtration, Reabsorption, Secretion
(3)
(3) Reabsorption, Filtration, Secretion
(4)
(4) Reabsorption, Secretion, Filtration
148.
148. Counter current pattern is seen generated due to
opposite flow in (1)
(1) ascending and descending Henle’s loop (2)

(2) ascending and descending vasa recta (3) 1 2
(3) both 1 and 2 (4)
(4) none of these
NLI / 30
149.
149. The osmolarity in cortex and inner medullary
interstitial space is (1) 300 500 mOsmolL-1
(1) 300 and 500 mOsmolL-1 (2) 300 1200 mOsmolL-1
(4) 1200 and 800 mOsmolL-1 150.
150. Urea enters Henle loop from (1)

(1) Thin segment of ascending limb of henle loop (2)
(2) Thick segment of ascending limb of Henle Loop (3)
(3) Thin segment of descending limb of henle loop
(4)
(4) None of these
151.
151. The functioning of kidney is monitored and
(1)
regulated by
(1) Horm onal feedback m echanism involving (2)
hypothalamus (3)
(2) Juxta glomerulus apparatus (4)
(3) Heart
152.
(4) All of these
(1) PCT
152. Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water takes
(2)
place in the segment
(1) PCT (3) DCT
(2) Loop of Henle (4)

(3) DCT 153.
(4) All of these
153. Vasopressin is released by------------after stimulation (1)
of ---------
(2)
(1) neurohypophysis, hypothalamus
(3)
(2) hypothalamus, medulla oblongata
(4)
(3) cerebellum, medulla oblongata
154.
(4) neurohypophysis, medulla oblongata
154. Angiotensin (a)
a.decreases glomerular blood pressure (b)

b. increases glomerular bloodpressure (c)
c. decreases GFR (d)
d.increasesGFR (e)
e.vasoconstriction
(f)
f.vasodilator
(1) a, c, e
(1) a,c,e
(2) a, d, f
(2) a,d,f
(3) b,d,e (3) b, d, e
(4) b,c,e (4) b, c, e

NLI / 31
155. Aldosterone causes 155.
(a) Reabsorption of sodium ions (a)
(b) Reabsorption of water (b)
(c) Increase in blood pressure and GFR (c)
(d) Decrease in GFR (d)
(1) all of these
(1)
(2) a,c,d
(2) a, c, d
(3) a,b,c
(3) a, b, c
(4) a and c only
(4) a & c
156. Which mechanism acts as a check for Atrial
156.
natriuretic factor
(1) Renin angiotensin mechanism
(1)
(2) Counter current mechanism
(2)
(3) Bohr’s effect
(3)
(4) None of these
157. Urine remains stored till a voluntary signal is given (4)
by 157.
(1) Heart (1)
(2) CNS (2)
(3) ANF (3)
(4) None of these (4)
158. Which of the following is a correct sequence of 158.
release of urine from urinary bladder
(a)
(a) CNS passes motor massages
(b)
(b) stretch receptors gives signal to CNS
(c)
(c) Urinary bladder filled with urine and bladder
streches (d)
(d) relaxation of urethral sphincter urine released (e)
(e) contraction of smooth muscle of bladder (1) a,b,c,d,e
(1) a,b,c,d,e (2) c,b,e,a,d
(2) c,b,e,a,d (3) c,b,a,e,d
(3) c,b,a,e,d (4) c,b,e,a,d

(4) d,c,b,e,a, 159.
159. Glycosuria and ketosuria are indicative of which
of the following disease (1)
(1) Angina pectoris (2)
(2) bronchitis
(3)
(3) meningitis
(4)
NLI / 32
(4) none of these 160.
160. Liver acts as excretory organ by excreting ------- (1)
(1) Bilirubin, biliverdin, drugs (2)
(2) Degraded steroid hormones (3)
(3) Vitamins and cholesterol (4)
(4) All of these 161.

161. Sweat does not contains which of the following (1) NaCl
(1) NaCl (2)
(2) small amount of urea (3)
(3) lactic acid (4)
(4) ketone body 162.
162. Sebum contains (1)
(1) sterols (2)
(2) hydrocarbons (3)
(3) waxes (4)
(4) all of these 163.
163. Uremia is (1)
(1) increased urea in urine (2)
(2) decreased urea in blood (3)
(3) increased urea in blood
(4)
(4) increased urea in diet
164.
164. In haemodialysis the dialysing fluid surrounding
the cellophane tube is same in composition as
(1)
that of plasma except the
(2)
(1) Protein
(3)
(2) Ions
(4)
(3) Nitrogenous waste
165.
(4) Glucose, amino acids
165. In renal calculi insoluble mass of which of the
(1)
following salts are crystallised
(2)
(1) Oxalates
(3)
(2) Chlorides
(4)
(3) Phosphates
166.
(4) None of these
(1)
166. Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney is known as
(2)
(1) Acute renal failure
(2) Uremic (3)
(3) Glomerulonephritis (4)
NLI / 33
(4) Glomerular India Test and Discussion Series : Test-21 / [Paper]
Allfiltration CRACK NEET 2021 / TD / 9-April-2021
167. Filtration of the blood takes place at 167.
(1) PCT (1)
(2) DCT (2)
(3) Collecting ducts (3)
(4) Malpighian body (4)
168. The net pressure gradient that causes the fluid to 168.
filter out of the glomeruli into the capsule is :
(1) 50 mm Hg (1) 50 mm Hg
(2) 75 mm Hg (2) 75 mm Hg
(3) 10 mm Hg (3) 10 mm Hg
(4) 30 mm Hg (4) 30 mm Hg
169. The pH of human urine is approximately 169. pH
(1) 6.5 (1) 6.5
(2) 7 (2) 7
(3) 6 (3) 6
(4) 7.5 (4) 7.5
170. Match the abnormal conditions given in Column A 170. B
with their explanations given in Column B and
choose the correct option.
Column A Column B A B
A. Glycosuria (i) Accumulation of uric A. (i)
acid in joints
B. Renal calculi (ii) Inflammation in
B. (ii)
glomeruli
C. (iii)
C. Glomerular (iii) Mass of crystallised
nephritis salts within the kidney
D. (iv)
D. Gout (iv) Presence of glucose
in urine
(1) A - (i), B - (iii), C - (ii), D - (iv)
(1) A - (i), B - (iii), C - (ii), D - (iv)
(2) A - (iii), B - (ii), C - (iv), D - (i)
(2) A - (iii), B - (ii), C - (iv), D - (i)
(3) A - (iv), B - (iii), C - (ii), D - (i)
(3) A - (iv), B - (iii), C - (ii), D - (i)
(4) A - (iv), B - (ii), C - (iii), D - (i) (4) A - (iv), B - (ii), C - (iii), D - (i)
171. We can produce concentrated / dilute urine. This 171.

is facilitated by a special mechanism. Identify the
mechanism.
(1)
(1) Reabsorption from PCT
(2)
(2) Reabsorption from Collecting Duct
(3) Reabsorption / Secretion in DCT (3)
(4) Counter current mechanism in Henle's loop / Vasa
(4)
NLI / 34
172.
recta
172. Which one of the following options gives the
correct categorization of animals according to the
type of nitrogenous waste they given out ? (1)
Ammonotelic Ureotelic Uricotelic

(1) Pigeon, Aquatic Cockroach, (2)
humans amphibia, lizard frog
(2) Frog, lizards Aquatic amphibia,Cockroach, (3)
humans pigeon
(3) Aquatic animals Frog, amphibia, Pigeon, lizards (4)
humans cockroach
(4) Aquatic animals Cockroach, Frog,
amphibia, pigeon, lizards 173.
A E
humans
173. Refer the given figure of human urinary system
and select the option that correctly identifies the
labelled parts A to E.
A B C D E
(1)
A B C D E
(2)
(1) Superior Inferior Dorsal Urethra Pelvis
vena vena aorta
cava cava (3)
(2) Inferior Superior Dorsal Urinary Cortex

vena cava vena cava aorta bladder (4)
(3) Ureter Inferior Dorsal Urinary Pelvis
vena cava aorta bladder
(4) Dorsal Inferior Superior Urinary Cortex
aorta vena cava vena bladder
NLI / 35
cava 174. A F
174. Select the options that correctly identifies the parts
labelled from A to F in the given figure of nephron.
A B C D E F
A B C D E F (a)
(a) Afferent PCT Henle's DCT Collecting Vasa
arteriole loop duct recta
(b)
(b) Efferent PCT Henle's DCT Collecting Vasa
arteriole loop duct recta
(c)
(c) Afferent Peritubular Henle's DCT PCT Collecting
arteriole capillaries loop duct
(d) Afferent Henle's Collecting PCT DCT Peritubular (d)
arteriole loop duct capillaries
175. Which of the following statements are false ?
(i) Outer cortex and inner medulla are the two zones 175.
in kidney (i)
(ii) Medulla is divided into few renal pyramids
(ii)
(iii) Pyramid projects into calyx
(iii)
(iv) Inward extension of cortex between the pyramids
is called renal column of Bertini. (iv)
(1) (i) and (iv) (2) (ii) and (iv)
(3) (ii) and (iii) (4) None of these (1) (i) (iv) (2) (ii) (iv)
176. Given figure is of longitudinal section of kidney.
Identify the parts labelled as A to D and select the (3) (ii) (iii) (4)
correct option. 176. D
A B C D
(1) Cortex Calyx Renal column Ureter

A B C D
(2) Calyx Cortex Renal column Ureter (1)
(2)
(3) Medulla Cortex Renal capsule Urethra
(3)
NLI / 36
(4) Calyx Cortex Renal pelvis Urethra (4)
177. Columns of Bertini in the kidneys of mammals are 177.

formed as extensions of :
(1) Cortex in medulla (1)
(2) Cortex in pelvis (2)
(3) Medulla in pelvis (3)
(4) Pelvis in ureter (4)
178. Match column - I with column - II and select the 178. -I - II
correct option from the codes given below.
Column - I Column - II
-I - II
A. PCT (i) Concentration of urine
A. (i)
B. DCT (ii) Filtration of blood

B. (ii)
C. Loop of Henle (iii) Reabsorption of
70 - 80% electrolytes C. (iii) 70 - 80%
D. Counter-current (iv) Ionic balance

D. (iv)
E. Renal corpuscle (v) Maintenance of
concentration E. (v)
gradient in medulla
(1) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (i), D - (v), E - (ii) (1) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (i), D - (v), E - (ii)
(2) A - (iii), B - (v), C - (iv), D - (ii), E - (i) (2) A - (iii), B - (v), C - (iv), D - (ii), E - (i)
(3) A - (i), B - (iii), C - (ii), D - (v), E - (iv) (3) A - (i), B - (iii), C - (ii), D - (v), E - (iv)
(4) A - (iii), B - (i), C - (iv), D - (v), E - (ii) (4) A - (iii), B - (i), C - (iv), D - (v), E - (ii)
179. Which one of the following statements in regard
179.
to the excretion by the human kidneys is correct ?
(1) Descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable
(1)
to water
(2)
(2) Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of reabsorbing
Na+ ions.
(3) Nearly 99 per cent of the glomerular filtrate is (3) 99
reabsorbed by the renal tubuls
(4) Ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to (4)
electrolytes
180. Which one of the following is a correct pair 180.
showing the function of specific part of the human
nephron ?
(1)
(1) Podocytes : create minute spaced (slit pores) for
the filtration of blood into the Bowman's capsule
(2)
(2) Henle's loop : most reabsorption of the major
substances from the glomerular filtrate
(3)
(3) Distal convoluted tubule : reabsorption of K+ ions
into the surrounding blood capillaries
(4)
(4) Afferent arteriole : carries the blood away from the
glomerulus towards renal vein NLI / 37
NLI / 39

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All India Test and Discussion Series : Test-21 / [Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / TD / 9-April-2021

[All India Test & Discussion Series]

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All India Test and Discussion Series

7:00 – 8:00 PM – Chemistry

Key Points of New Light Test Series :

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TOPIC : Electromagnetic Induction

The field is reduced to zero in 0.1 second. The 0.1

8. A coil of 100 turns and area 5 square centimetre is 8. 100 5

14. A coil having n turns and resistance R : is 14. n R: 4R:

15. When a wire loop is rotated in a magnetic field, 15.

(4) 2 revolution (4) 2

16. An aeroplane in which the distance between the 16. 50

(3) 0.2 V (3) 0.2

(4) 0.01 V (4) 0.01

17. The network shown in the figure is a part of a 17.

i is 5 A and is decreasing at the rate of 103A/s then 5A 103 A/s

18. A conducting rod of length l is falling with velocity 18. B l

(2) Blv (2) Blv

19. An e.m.f. of 5 volt is produced by a self inductance, 19. 5

(4) 100.0 V (4) 100.0

22. Self induction of a solenoid is : 22.

23. Mutual inductance of two coils can be increased 23.

below. The equivalent inductance of the circuit is:

26. An average induced e.m.f. of 1 V appears in a coil 26. 10 A 0.5

(4) 100 mH (4) 100 mH

27. When the current change from + 2A to – 2A in 0.05 27. 0.5 + 2A

(1) Mutual inductance (1)

(2) Self inductance (2)

(3) Ampere's law (3)

(4) Lenz's law (4)

31. Eddy current are produced when : 31.

(1) A metal is kept in varying magnetic field (1)

(2) A metal is kept in the steady magnetic field (2)

(3) A circular coil is placed in a magnetic field (3)

(4) Through a circular coil, current is passed (4)

32. Work of elelctric motor is : 32.

(1) To convert ac into dc (1) ac dc

(2) To convert dc into ac (2) dc ac

(3) Both (1) and (2) (3) 1 2

(4) To convert ac into mechanical work (4) ac

33. What is increased in step-down transformer 33.

(1) Voltage (1)

(2) Current (2)

(3) Power (3)

(4) Current density (4)

34. The transformation ratio in the step-up transformer 34.

(2) Greater than one (2)

35. The ratio of secondary to the primary turns in a 35.

(1) 20 A, 220 V (1) 20 A, 220 V

(2) 0.4 A, 22000 V (2) 0.4 A, 22000 V

(3) 40 A, 220 V (3) 40 A, 220 V

(4) 40 A, 22000 V (4) 40 A, 22000 V

(4) 10000 V (4) 10000 V

39. A transformer is used to : 39.

(1) Change the alternating potential (1)

(2) Change the alternating current (2)

(3) To prevent the power loss in alternating current flow (3)

(4) To increase the power of current source (4)

The rate equation of the reaction is : O3 O