All India Chapter Wise Revision Test

All India Chapter Wise Revision Test-2/[Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / CRT / 04-Jan-2021
Test ID
Test CODE : CRT-2
302
[All India Chapter Wise Revision Test]

TEST DATE : 04-Jan.-2021
(Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.)
Please read the instructions carefully :

1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct
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NLI / 1
TOPIC : Motion in a straight Line, Vector

1. A body is projected vertically in upward direction 1. 20 m/s
from ground with speed 20 m/s . It will come on
ground after (g = 10 m/s2) : (g = 10 m/s2) :
(A) 2 sec (A) 2
(B) 4 sec (B) 4
(C) 20 sec (C) 20
(D) 12 sec (D) 12

2. When a particle moves along a curved path then 2.
its velocity is :
(A)
(A) Tangential to its path
(B)
(B) Normal to its path
(C) Constant (C)
(D) None of the above is true (D)

3. If a body starts from rest, the time in which it covers 3.
a particular displacement with uniform
acceleration is :
(A) inversely proportional to the square root of the (A)
displacement
(B)
(B) inversely proportional to the displacement
(C) directly proportional to the displacement (C)
(D) directly proportional to the square root of the
(D)
displacement
4. Drop of water fall from the roof of a building which 4.
is 18m high at regular intervals of time. When the
first drop reaches the ground, at the same instant
fourth drop begins to fall. What are the distances
of the second and third drops from the roof :
(A) 6m and 2m
(A) 6m and 2m
(B) 6m and 3m (B) 6m and 3m
(C) 4m and 1m (C) 4m and 1m
(D) 8m and 2m (D) 8m and 2m

5. If the velocity of a particle is v = At + Bt2, where A 5. v = At + Bt2, A B
and B are positive constants, then the distance 1s 2s
travelled by it between 1s and 2s is :
3
3 (A) A 4B
(A) A 4B 2
2
(B) 3A + 7B
(B) 3A + 7B
3 7
3 7 (C) A B
(C) A B 2 3
2 3
A B
A B (D)
(D) 2 3
2 3
NLI / 2
6. The area of acceleration time graph gives : 6.
(A) Displacment (A)
(B) Distance (B)
(C) Velocity (C)
(D) Change in velocity (D)
7. The initial velocity of a body moving along a 7. 7 m/s

straight line is 7 m/s. It has a uniform acceleration 4 m/s 2
of 4 m/s2. The distance covered by the body in the

5th second of its motion is :
(A) 25 m (A) 25 m
(B) 35 m (B) 35 m
(C) 50 m (C) 50 m
(D) 85 m (D) 85 m
8. Which of the following is not correct 8.
(A) displacement d dis tan ce | d

(B) | |=
(B) velocity speed
(C) | |=
(C) Average velocity average speed
(D)
(D) All are correct
9. Two balls are thrown simultaneously, (A) vertically 9. (A) 20 m/s
upwards with a speed of 20 m/s from the ground (B)
and (B) vertically downwards from a height of 40
m with the same speed and along the same line
of motion. At which point will the balls collide ?
(Take g = 10 m/s2) : (A)
(A) 15 m above from the ground
(B)
(B) 15 m below from the top of the tower
(C) 20 m above from the ground (C)
(D) 20 m below from the top of the tower (D)

10. Two cars P and Q start from a point at the same 10. P Q
time in a straight line and their positions are xp (t) = at + bt2 xq (t) = ft – t2.
represented by xp (t) = at + bt and xq (t) = ft – t . At
2 2
what time do the cars have the same velocity :
af af
(A) (A)
1 b 1 b
2a f 2a f
(B) (B)
2(b 1) 2(b 1)
af af
(C) (C)
2(1 b) 2(1 b)
f a f a
(D)
(D)
2(1 b) 2(1 b)
NLI / 3
11. What is the acceleration if the body starts from 11.
rest and travels a distance of 's' m in 2 sec : 's' 2
(A) (2/3) s m/s2 (A) 2/3 s m/s2
(B) (3/2) s m/s2 (B) 3/2 s m/s2
(C) (1/3) s m/s2 (C) 1/3 s m/s2
(D) (1/2) s m/s2 (D) 1/2 s m/s2
12. An athlete finishes a round of circular track of 12. R 40
radius R in 40 sec. What is his displacement at 2 20
the end of 2 min 20 sec :
(A) 2R (B) 2SR (A) 2R (B) 2SR
(C) 7SR (D) Zero. (C) 7SR (D)
13. A balloon is rising vertically up with a velocity of 13. 29

29 m/s. A stone is dropped from it & it reaches the
ground in 10 sec. Find height of balloon when the
stone was dropped. (g = 10 m/s2): - (g = 10 ):
(A) 210 m (A) 210 m
(B) 440 m (B) 440 m
(C) 180 m (C) 180 m
(D) 325 m (D) 325 m
14. A car travelling at a speed of 30 km/h is brought 14. 30 km/h

to a halt in a distance of 8 m by applying brakes. 8m 60 km/hr
If the same car is moving at a speed of 60 km/hr
then it can be brought to a halt with same brakes
in:
(A) 64 m (B) 32 m (A) 64 m (B) 32 m
(C) 16 m (D) 4 m (C) 16 m (D) 4 m
15. The adjoining four fig. show some velocity (v) versus 15.
time (t) curves. But only some of these can be
realised in parctice. These are :
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
(A) 1,2,4 only (B) 1,2,3 only (A) 1,2,4 (B) 1,2,3
(C) 2, 4 only (D) All (C) 2, 4 (D)

NLI / 4
16. The velocity-time graph of a linear motion is shown 16.
in the adjoining fig. The distance from the origin 8
after 8 seconds is :
(A) 18 m
(A) 18 m
(B) 16 m
(B) 16 m
(C) 8 m
(C) 8 m
(D) 6 m (D) 6 m
17. A point P is consider at contact point of a wheel 17. P

on ground which rolls on ground without slipping 1/2 p
then value of displacement of point p when wheel =3
completes 1/2 of rotation. [radius of wheel = 3 m]
(A) 11.17
(A) 11.17
(B) 12.63
(B) 12.63
(C) 10.30
(C) 10.30 (D) 13.46
(D) 13.46 18. (d)
18. A car travels a distance d on a straight road in
two hours and then returns to the starting point in :
next three hours, its average speed is :
d 2d
d 2d (A) (B)
(A) (B) 5 5
5 5
d d
d d (C) (D) .
(C) (D) None of these. 2 3
2 3
19.
19. A body covers first one-third of the distance with
30 ms–1 40 ms–1
a velocity 20 ms –1, the second one-third with a
velocity of 30 ms–1 and last one-third with a velocity
of 40 ms–1. The average velocity is nearly : (A) 20 m/s
(A) 20 m/s (B) 28 m/s
(B) 28 m/s
(C) 18 m/s
(C) 18 m/s
(D) 8 m/s
(D) 8 m/s
20. v = 20 + 0.1 t2
20. The velocity of a body depends on time according
to the equation v = 20 + 0.1 t2. The body has :
(A)
(A) Uniform acceleration
(B)
(B) Uniform retardation
(C)
(C) Non-uniform acceleration
(D)
(D) Zero acceleration
NLI / 5
21. A man walks at a speed of 6 km/hr for 1 km & 8 km/ 21.
h for next 1 km. What is average speed for walk of
2 km is neraly :
:
(A) 4.0 m/s
(A) 4.0 m/s
(B) 5.0 m/s
(B) 5.0 m/s
(C) 5.5 m/s (C) 5.5 m/s
(D) 6.8 m/s (D) 6.8 m/s
22. A body goes 10 km north and 20 km east. What 22. 10 20
will be the displacement from initial point :
(A) 22.36 km (A) 22.36 km
(B) 2 km (B) 2 km
(C) 5 km
(C) 5 km
(D) 20 km
(D) 20 km
23. A particle is thrown up vertically with a speed 'v1'
23. 'v1'
in air. It takes time t 1 in upward journey and
t2 ( > t1) in the downward journey and returns to t1 t2 ( > t1)
the starting point with a speed v2. Then :
(A) v1= v2 (B) v1 < v2 (A) v1= v2 (B) v1 < v2
(C) v1 > v2 (D) Data is insufficient
(C) v1 > v2 (D)
24. The magnitude of the vector product of two vectors JG G
JG G 24. A B
A and B may be :
(a) Greater than AB (a) AB
(b) Equal to AB (b) AB
(c) Less than AB (c) AB
(d) Equal to zero (d)

(A) a,b,c (B) b,c,d (A) a,b,c (B) b,c,d
(C) a,c,d (D) a,b,d (C) a,c,d (D) a,b,d
25. What is the magnitude component of 5iˆ + 6jˆ along î + ˆj 25. 5iˆ + 6jˆ î + ˆj :
1 1
(A) (A)
2 2
10 10
(B) (B)
2 2
11 11
(C) (C)
2 2
(D) 11 2 (D) 11 2
26. A body constrained to move in Y direction, is 26. Y
G
ˆ .
subjected to a force given by F = (2iˆ + 15jˆ + 6k)N G
ˆ
F = (2iˆ + 15jˆ + 6k)N
What is the workdone by this force in moving the
y 10
body through a distance of 10 m along y-axis :
(A) 190 J (B) 160 J (A) 190 J (B) 160 J
(C) 150 J (D) 20 J (C) 150 J (D) 20 J
NLI / 6
JG JG JG
27. If A = 2iˆ + 4jˆ 5kˆ , the direction cosine of the vector 27. A = 2iˆ + 4jˆ 5kˆ A
JG
A are :
2 4 5 2 4 5
, and (A) , and
(A) 45 45 45
45 45 45
1 2 3
1 2 3 (B) , and
(B) , and 45 45 45
45 45 45
4 4
4 4 (C) ,0 and
(C) ,0 and 45 45
45 45
3 2 5
3 2 5 (D) , and
(D) , and 45 45 45
45 45 45
28. Two vectors having equal magnitudes A, make 28. T
an angle T with each other. The magnitude and
direction of the resultant are respectively :
T
T (A) 2A cos ,
(A) 2A cos , along bisector 2
2
T
T (B) A cos 45o
(B) A cos at 45o from one vector 2
2
T T
(C) 2A sin , along bisector (C) 2A sin ,
2 2
T T
(D) A cos , along bisector (D) A cos ,
2 2
29. Which one is correct : 29.
(A) |a – b| = |a| – |b|
(A) |a – b| = |a| – |b|
(B) |a – b| d |a| – |b|
(B) |a – b| d |a| – |b|
(C) |a – b| t |a| – |b| (C) |a – b| t |a| – |b|
(D) |a – b| > |a| – |b| (D) |a – b| > |a| – |b|
30. The modulus of the vector product of two vectors 30.

1 1
is times their scalar product. The angle
3 3
between vectors is :
(A) S/6 (B) S/4
(A) S/6 (B) S/4
(C) S/2 (D) S/3 (C) S/2 (D) S/3
31. What is the dot product of two vectors of magnitude 31. 3 5 30o
3 and 5 if angle between them is 30o :
(A) 10.29 (A) 10.29
(B) 12.99 (B) 12.99
(C) 13.99 (C) 13.99
(D) 15.99 (D) 15.99

NLI / 7
32. 18 differrent co-planner vectors (all are equal 32. 18
magnitude) maintain a system in equilibrium, then
the angle between two adjacent vectors is :
(A) 15o (A) 15o
(B) 20o (B) 20o
(C) 36o (C) 36o
(D) 60o (D) 60o

G
33. Find the unit vector perpendicular to 33. A = 2iˆ + 3jˆ + kˆ
G G
A = 2iˆ + 3jˆ + kˆ and B = iˆ ˆj + kˆ both : G
B = iˆ ˆj + kˆ
1 1 1 1
(A) (4iˆ ˆj 5k)
ˆ
(B) (4iˆ ˆj 5k)
ˆ
(4iˆ ˆj 5k)
ˆ (4iˆ ˆj 5k)
ˆ
42 21 (A) (B)
42 21
1 1 1 1
(C) (4iˆ ˆj 5k)
ˆ
(D) (4iˆ ˆj 5k)
ˆ
(C) (4iˆ ˆj 5k)
ˆ
(D) (4iˆ ˆj 5k)
ˆ
21 42 21 42
34. Two forces 8N and 12 N acts an angle 120o. The 34. 8N 12 N 120o
third force required to keep the body in equilibrium
is :
(A) 4N
(A) 4N
(B) 4 7 N
(B) 4 7 N
(C) 4 14 N (C) 4 14 N
(D) 7 4 N (D) 7 4 N
G G G
35. Given two vectors A = î + 2jˆ 3kˆ and 35. A = î + 2jˆ 3kˆ B = 4iˆ 2jˆ + 6kˆ
G G G G G
B = 4iˆ 2jˆ + 6kˆ . The angle made by (A + B) with (A + B) x-
x-axis is :
(A) 30o (A) 30o
(B) 45o (B) 45o
(C) 60o (C) 60o
(D) 90o (D) 90o
G G G
36. The direction of vector A is reversed. What are 36. A 'A
G G G
the value of 'A and ' | A | : '|A|
G G G G
(A) 2A, 0 (B) A, 0 (A) 2A, 0 (B) A, 0
G G G G
(C) 2A, 0 (D) A, 0 (C) 2A, 0 (D) A, 0
NLI / 8
37. The vectors given below, the parallel vector are 37.
G G G G G G
A = 6iˆ + 8j,
ˆ B =210iˆ + 180j,
ˆ C = 5.1iˆ + 6.8j,
ˆ
A = 6iˆ + 8j,
ˆ B =210iˆ + 180j,
ˆ C = 5.1iˆ + 6.8j,
ˆ
G G
D = 3.6iˆ + 8jˆ + 48kˆ D = 3.6iˆ + 8jˆ + 48kˆ
G G G G G G G G
(A) A and B (B) A and C (A) A and B (B) A and C
G G G G G G G G
(C) A and D (D) C and D (C) A and D (D) C and D
G G G G G G G G
38. Given, a + b + c + d = 0 , which of the following 38. a +b +c +d = 0,
statement is correct :
G G G G
G G G G (a) a, b, c d
(a) a, b, c and d must each be a null vector
G G G G G G
(b) The magnitude of (a + c) equals the (b) (a + c) (b + d)
G G
magnitude of (b + d) G
G (c) a b, c d
(c) The magnitude of a can never be greater than
the sum of magnitude of b, c and d. G
G G G
G G G G (d) b + c , a d
(d) b + c must lie in the plane of a and d
(A) a b
(A) a and b
(B) b and c (B) b c
(C) a, b and c (C) a, b c
(D) b, c and d. (D) b, c d.

G G G G G G
39. If A = 2iˆ 3jˆ + 7kˆ , B = iˆ + 2jˆ and C = ˆj kˆ . Find 39. A = 2iˆ 3jˆ + 7kˆ , B = iˆ + 2jˆ C = ˆj kˆ .
G G G G G G
A.(B × C) : A.(B × C)
(A) – 21 (A) – 21
(B) 4 (B) 4
(C) – 10 (C) – 10
(D) 0 (D) 0
40. Figure shows the orientation of two vectors u and 40. xy u v

G G G G
v in xy plane. u = aiˆ + bjˆ and v = piˆ + qjˆ . Which u = aiˆ + bjˆ v = piˆ + qjˆ .
of the following is correct :
(A) a and p are positive while b and q are negative (A) a p b q
(B) a, p and b are positive while q is negative (B) a, p b q
(C) a, q and b are positive while p is negative (C) a, q b p
(D) a, b, p and q all positive. (D) a, b, p q
NLI / 9
41. The angle subtended by the vector G
G 41. A = 4iˆ + 3jˆ + 12kˆ x-
A = 4iˆ + 3jˆ + 12kˆ with the x-axis is :
1 § 13 · 1 § 4 ·
§ 13 ·
1 § 4 ·
1 (A) sin ¨© ¸¹ (B) sin ¨ ¸
(A) sin ¨© ¸¹ (B) sin ¨ ¸ 4 © 13 ¹
4 © 13 ¹
1 § 4 · 1 § 13 ·
1 § 4 · 1 § 13 · (C) cos ¨ ¸ (D) cos ¨© ¸¹
(C) cos ¨ ¸ (D) cos ¨© ¸¹ © 13 ¹ 4
© 13 ¹ 4
G G
42. Find the torque of a force F = 3iˆ + ˆj + 5kˆ acting at 42. r = 7iˆ + 3jˆ + kˆ
G G
the point r = 7iˆ + 3jˆ + kˆ about origin : F = 3iˆ + ˆj + 5kˆ
(A) 2iˆ 3 ˆj 5kˆ

(A) 2î 3 ˆj 5kˆ
(B) 14î 3ˆj 16kˆ
(B) 14î 3ˆj 16kˆ
(C) 4 î 4 ˆj 6 kˆ
(C) 4 î 4 ˆj 6 kˆ
(D) 14î 38ˆj 16kˆ (D) 14î 38ˆj 16kˆ
G JG G G JG G JG
43. The resultant of two vectors P and Q is R . If the 43. P Q R Q
JG G G
magnitude of Q is doubled, the new resultant P R
G
becomes perpendicular to P , then the magnitude
G
of R is : (A) Q (B) P/Q
(A) Q (B) P/Q
PQ P2 Q 2
PQ P Q
2 2 (C) (D)
(C) (D) PQ 2PQ
PQ 2PQ
G G
G G 44. a f
44. Six vectors, a to f have magnitudes and directions
indicated in the figure which of the following
statement is true:
G G G G
G G G G (A) b eG (B) b cG
(A) b eGf (B) b cGf f f
G G G G G G G G G
(C) a
G G
(D) d eG f
(C) a c f (D) d e f c f
G G G G G G G G G G G G
45. Vector A, B and C are such that A.B = 0 and 45. A, B C A.B = 0 A.C = 0
G G G G
A.C = 0 . Then the vectors parallel to A is : A
G G G G
(A) B and C (A) B and C
G G G G
(B) A u B (B) A u B
G G
G G (C) B C
(C) B C
G G
G G (D) B u C
(D) B u C
NLI / 10
TOPIC : Structure of Atom

46. The orbitals having the same no.of spherical nodes 46.
are:
i. 4 p, 3d ii. 3p, 4d
i. 4p, 3d ii. 3p, 4d iii. 4s, 5p iv. 2s, 3d
iii. 4s, 5p iv. 2s, 3d (A) i ii (B) ii iii
(A) i and ii (B) ii and iii
(C) ii (D) iii iv
(C) only ii (D) iii and iv
47.
47. How many electrons in an atom may have the
following quantum numbers
i. n=4, ms = –1/2, ii. n=3, l=0 i. n=4, ms = –1/2, ii. n=3, l=0
(A) 32, 2 (B) 16, 9 (A) 32, 2 (B) 16, 9
(C) 32, 9 (D) 16, 2 (C) 32, 9 (D) 16, 2

48. What will be the energy of photon which 48. 0.50Å
corresponds to the wavelength of 0.50Å :
(A) 3.98×10–15J (B) 3.00×1015J
(A) 3.98×10–15J (B) 3.00×1015J
(C) 3.9×108J (D) 3.00×10–34J (C) 3.9×108J (D) 3.00×10–34J
49. Total spin resulting from a d8 configuration is : 49. d8
(A) 1 (A) 1
(B) 1/2 (B) 1/2
(C) 5/2 (C) 5/2
(D) 3/2 (D) 3/2
50. For ionizing an ground state hydrogen atom, the 50.

energy needed in electron volts will be :
(A) 13.6 (B) > 13.6 (A) 13.6 (B) > 13.6
(C) < 13.6 (D) 3.4 (C) < 13.6 (D) 3.4
51. 242 nm is just sufficient to ionize sodium atom. 51. 242 nm
Ionization energy of sodium atom will be :
(A) 494 kJ mol–1 (A) 494 kJ mol–1
(B) 24.7 kJ mol–1 (B) 24.7 kJ mol–1
(C) 988 kJ mol–1 (C) 988 kJ mol–1
(D) 247 kJ mol–1 (D) 247 kJ mol–1
52. The de-Broglie wavelength of a tennis ball of mass 52.

60 gm moving with a velocity of 10 meters/sec. is
approx:
(A) 10–6 meters (B) 10–25 meters

(A) 10–6 meters (B) 10–25 meters
(C) 10 –33
meters (D) 10 –31
meters
(C) 10–33 meters (D) 10–31 meters
NLI / 11
53. Magnetic quantum number explains : 53.
(A) Stark effect (B) Seebeck effect (A) (B)

(C) Steric effect (D) Zeemann effect (C) (D)
54. Which is not in accordance to Aufbau principle :
54.
(A) (B) (A) (B)
(C) (D) (C) (D)
55. Unit of Rydberg constant is : 55.

(A) cm/sec. (B) cm–1 (A) cm/sec. (B) cm–1
(C) cm (D) cm–2 (C) cm (D) cm–2
56. The electron velocity in the fourth orbit of 'H' atom 56. v
is v. the velocity of electron in first orbit would be :
(A) 4 v (B) 16 v (A) 4 v (B) 16 v
(C) v/4 (D) v/16 (C) v/4 (D) v/16
57. Orbital angular momentum of a 3d-electron is :
h h h h
(A) 2. (B) 6. (A) 2. (B) 6.
2S 2S 2S 2S
h h h h
(C) (D) (C) (D)
2S 4S 2S 4S
58.
58. Which of the following statement is not correct
regarding cathode rays : (A)
(A) Cathode rays originate from the cathode (B)
(B) Charge and mass of the particles constituting

cathode rays depends upon the nature of the gas (C)
(C) Charge and mass of the particles present does not

depend upon the material of the cathode (D)
(D) Charge/mass ratio for cathode rays is much greater

than that of anode rays. 59.
59. The correct set of quantum numbers for the

unpaired electron of Cl atom is : (A) 2, 0, 0, +1/2 (B) 2, 1, –1, +1/2
(A) 2, 0, 0, +1/2 (B) 2, 1, –1, +1/2 (C) 3, 1, 1, +1/2 (D) 3, 0, 0, +1/2

(C) 3, 1, 1, +1/2 (D) 3, 0, 0, +1/2
60.
60. In which of the following electronic distribution
(ground state) only Hund’s rule is violated :
(A) (B) (A) (B)
(C) (D) (C) (D)
NLI / 12
61. Which of the following arrangements of electrons 61.
is most likely to be stable :
(A)
(A)
(B) (B)
(C) (C)
(D) (D)
62. Which of the following is not correct for electronic 62.

distribution in the ground state :
(A) Co = [Ar] (A) Co = [Ar]
(B) Ni = [Ar] (B) Ni = [Ar]
(C) Cu = [Ar] (C) Cu = [Ar]
(D) Zn = [Ar]
(D) Zn = [Ar]
63.
63. The enrgy of second Bohr’s orbit in H-atom is –
328 kJ/mol, hence the energy of 4th Bohr orbit –328 kJ/mol
will be :
(A) –182 kJ/mol (A) –182 kJ/mol
(B) –82 kJ/mol (B) –82 kJ/mol
(C) –28 kJ/mol (C) –28 kJ/mol
(D) –128 kJ/mol (D) –128 kJ/mol
64. The energy of the first electron in helium will be : 64.
(A) 54.4 eV (A) 54.4 eV
(B) –31.4 eV (B) –31.4 eV
(C) –54.4 eV (C) –54.4 eV
(D) 31.4 eV (D) 31.4 eV
65. The maximum number of electrons in a subshell 65. l = 3
for which l = 3 is
(A) 14 (B) 10 (A) 14 (B) 10
(C) 8 (D) 4 (C) 8 (D) 4
NLI / 13
66. The first emission line of hydrogen atomic spectrum 66.
in Balmer series will have w ave number
(R=Rydberg constant)
5R
5R (A) cm 1
(A) cm 1 36
36
3R
3R (B) cm 1
(B) cm 1 4
4
7R
7R (C) cm 1
(C) cm1 144
144
9R
9R (D) cm 1
(D) cm 1 400
400
67. R
67. The radius of second stationary orbit in Bohr's
atoms in R. The radius of third orbit will be :
(A) 3 R (B) 9 R
(A) 3 R (B) 9 R
(C) 2.25 R (D) R/3
(C) 2.25 R (D) R/3
68. 4f-
68. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers
is correct for an electronin 4f-orbital :
1
1 (A) n=3, l=2, m=–2, s=+
(A) n=3, l=2, m=–2, s=+ 2
2
1
1 (B) n=4, l=4, m=–4, s=–
(B) n=4, l=4, m=–4, s=– 2
2
1 1
(C) n=4, l=3, m=+1, s=+ (C) n=4, l=3, m=+1, s=+
2 2
1 1
(D) n=4, l=3, m=+4, s=+ (D) n=4, l=3, m=+4, s=+
2 2
69. Wavelength of a photon is 2.0×10–11 m, h=6.6×10–34 69. 2.0×10–11 m, h=6.6×10–34 Js

Js. The momentum of photon is :
(A) 3.3×10–23 kg ms–1 (A) 3.3×10–23 kg ms–1
(B) 3.3×1022 kg ms–1 (B) 3.3×1022 kg ms–1
(C) 1.452×10–44 kg ms–1
(C) 1.452×10–44 kg ms–1
(D) 6.89×10433 kg ms–1
(D) 6.89×10433 kg ms–1
70.
70. Which of the following set of quantum numbers
represents the highest energy of an atom :
1
1 (A) n=3, l=0, m=0, s=+
(A) n=3, l=0, m=0, s=+ 2
2
1 1
(B) n=3, l=1, m=1, s=+ (B) n=3, l=1, m=1, s=+
2 2
1 1
(C) n=3, l=2, m=1, s=+ (C) n=3, l=2, m=1, s=+
2 2
1 1
(D) n=4, l=0, m=0, s=+ (D) n=4, l=0, m=0, s=+
2 2
NLI / 14
71. If the speed of electron in the Bohr's first orbit of 71. X
hydrogen atom is x, the speed of the electronic
the third Bohr's orbit is :
(A) x/9
(A) x/9
(B) x/3
(B) x/3
(C) 3x (C) 3x
(D) 9x (D) 9x
72. According to Bohr's theory, the angular momentum 72. 5th

of an electron in 5th orbit is :
(A) 10 h /S
(A) 10 h /S
(B) 2.5 h/S
(B) 2.5 h/S
(C) 25 h/S
(C) 25 h/S
(D) 1.0 h/S
(D) 1.0 h/S
73. 1 Kg 0.5 J
73. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with a ball
of mass 1 kg having kinetic energy 0.5 J is :
(A) 6.626 × 10–34 m
(A) 6.626 × 10–34 m
(B) 13.20 × 10–34 m
(B) 13.20 × 10–34 m
(C) 10.38 × 10–29 m (C) 10.38 × 10–29 m
(D) 6.626 × 10–34 Å (D) 6.626 × 10–34 Å
74. Given the mass of an electron is 9.11×10–31 kg. 74. 9.11×10–31 kg

Planck constant is 6.626×10–31 J s the uncertainty 6.626×10–31 J s 0.1 Å
involved in measurement velocity within a distance
of 0.1 Å is :
(A) 5.79×108 m s–1
(A) 5.79×108 m s–1
(B) 5.79×105 m s–1
(B) 5.79×105 m s–1
(C) 5.79×106 m s–1 (C) 5.79×106 m s–1
(D) 5.79×107 m s–1 (D) 5.79×107 m s–1

75. In uncertainty in position and momentum are 75.
equal, then uncertainty in velocity is :
1 h
(A) 1 h
2m S (A)
2m S
h
(B) h
2S (B)
2S
1 h
(C) 1 h
m S (C)
m S
h
(D) h
S (D)
S
NLI / 15
76. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell of an 76.
atom is determined by following :
(A) 2n2
(A) 2n2
(B) 4l + 2 (B) 4l + 2
(C) 2l + 2 (C) 2l + 2
(D) 4l – 2 (D) 4l – 2
77. The total number of atomic orbitals in fourth 77.
energy level of an atom is :
(A) 4
(A) 4
(B) 8 (B) 8
(C) 16 (C) 16
(D) 32 (D) 32
78. The number of radial nodes of 3s and 2p-orbitals 78. 3s 2p-

are respectively :
(A) 2, 0
(A) 2, 0
(B) 0, 2
(B) 0, 2
(C) 1, 2
(C) 1, 2
(D) 2, 1 (D) 2, 1
79. If n=6, the correct sequence for filling of electron 79. n=6,
will be :
(A) ns o (n-2)f o (n-1)d o np
(A) ns o (n-2)f o (n-1)d o np
(B) ns o (n-1)d o (n-2)f o np
(B) ns o (n-1)d o (n-2)f o np
(C) ns o (n-2)f o np o (n-1)d
(C) ns o (n-2)f o np o (n-1)d
(D) ns o (n-1)d o (n-2)f (D) ns o (n-1)d o (n-2)f
80. According to the Bohr theory, which of the 80.

following transitions in the hydrogen atom will
give rise to the least energetic photon :
(A) n=6 to n=1
(A) n=6 to n=1
(B) n=5 to n=4
(B) n=5 to n=4
(C) n=6 to n=5 (C) n=6 to n=5
(D) n=5 to n=3 (D) n=5 to n=3
81. The orbital angular momentum of a p-electron in 81. P-

given as :
h h
h (A) (B) 3
h 2S 2S
(A) (B) 3
2S 2S
3h h
3h h (C) (D) 6
(C) (D) 6 2S 2S
2S 2S
NLI / 16
82. What is the maximum number of orbitals that can 82.
be identified with the following quantum numbers :
n=3, l=1, m=0 n=3, l=1, m=0
(A) 1 (A) 1
(B) 2 (B) 2
(C) 3 (C) 3
(D) 4 (D) 4
83. The difference of n and (n+1) Bohr’s radius of
th th
83. nth (n+1)th
hydrogen atom is equal to its (n–1) Bohr’s radius.
th
(n–1)th n
The value of n is:
(A) 1
(A) 1
(B) 2
(B) 2
(C) 3 (C) 3
(D) 4 (D) 4
84. The ratio of ionisation energy for dipositive lithium 84.
ion to tripositive berylium ion is :
(A) 3 : 4 (A) 3 : 4
(B) 3 : 16 (B) 3 : 16
(C) 9 : 4 (C) 9 : 4
(D) 9 : 16 (D) 9 : 16
85. Which of the following orbit has the same radius as 85. Be+3
that of second Bohr's orbit radius of Be+3 ion :
(A) H+ (n=1) (A) H+ (n=1)
(B) Li+2 (n=2) (B) Li+2 (n=2)
(C) He+ (n=2) (C) He+ (n=2)
(D) H (n=1) (D) H (n=1)
86. Which of the following relation is incorrect for an 86.
electron moving in Bohr's orbit :
(A) The ratio of total energy to its kinetic energy is
–1 (A) –1
(B) The ratio of total energy to its potential energy
(B) 1/2
is 1/2
(C) The ratio of kinetic energy to its potential (C) –1/2
energy is –1/2
(D)
(D) None of these
87. In hydrogen spectrum if the shortest wavelength of 87. 'x'
Balmer series is x, the longest wavelength of Lymen
series would be :
(A) x/2
(A) x/2
(B) x/3
(B) x/3
(C) x/4
(C) x/4
(D) 3x/4 (D) 3x/4
NLI / 17
88. The no.of unpaired electrons in Cr+3 ion will be (At. 88. Cr+3
no. of Cr = 24) :
Cr = 24) :
(A) 2
(A) 2
(B) 3 (B) 3
(C) 4 (C) 4
(D) 5 (D) 5
89. An object absorbs a photon of wavelength 2400 Å 89. 2400 Å
and emits two photons. If wavelength of first photon
is 6000 Å, the wavelength of second photon will be
6000 Å
:
(A) 3600 Å
(A) 3600 Å
(B) 4000 Å
(B) 4000 Å
(C) 5500 Å (C) 5500 Å
(D) 8400 Å (D) 8400 Å

90. Which of the following is incorrect about de Broglie 90.
relationship : (A) h = O × p
(A) h = O × p h
(B) O um
h v
(B) O um
v hv
(C) Ekinetic
hv 2O
(C) Ekinetic
2O 2hv
(D) Ekinetic
2hv O
(D) Ekinetic
O
NLI / 18
BIOLOGY : Plant Kingdom
91. Which of the following is incorrect about kingdom 91.
plantae of five kingdom system :
(A)
(A) Life cycle of plants has 2 distinct phases
(B)
(B) Sporophyte is diploid and gametophyte is haploid
(C)
(C) Members of plantae include algae, bryophytes,
pteridophytes, gymnosperms & angiosperms
(D) The lengths of the haploid & diploid does not vary (D)
among different groups in plants
92. Gametes can be non flagellated but similar in size 92.

found in
(A)
(A) Ulothrix
(B)
(B) Spirogyra
(C) Volvox (C)
(D) Fucus (D)
93. Which one of the following is an example of chloro- 93.

phyllous thallophyte
(A)
(A) Pisum
(B)
(B) Spirogyra
(C) Adiantum (C)
(D) Gnetum (D)
94. Unicellular as well as multicellular organisms are 94.

found in
(A)
(A) Cyanophyceae
(B)
(B) Rhodophyceae
(C) Phaeophyceae (C)
(D) Chlorophyceae (D)
95. It assumes that organisms belonging to the same 95.

taxa have a common ancestor. This statement is
mainly correct for
(A)
(A) Synthetic system of classification
(B)
(B) Natural system of classification
(C)
(C) Phylogenetic system of classification
(D) Artificial system of classification. (D)
NLI / 19
96. Class of alga which show 96.
a. The form and size of thallus is highly variable a.
b. Structure of chloplasts is also various types b.
c. All types of sexual reproduction is found c.

(A) Chlorophyceae (A)
(B) Phaeophyceae (B)
(C) Rhodophyceae (C)
(D) Cyanophyceae
(D)
97. Volvox, Ulothrix, spirogyra, Chara, Dictyota,
97.
Ectocarpus, Laminaria, Sargassum, Porphyra and
Polysiphonia, etc., are the examples of green
plants. Number of organism which having
chlorophyll a and chlorophyll c are
(A)
(A) Three
(B)
(B) Four
(C)
(C) Seven
(D) Five (D)
98. Pear shaped gametes are found in : 98.
(A) Spirullina (A)
(B) Spirogyra (B)
(C) Sargassum (C)
(D) Both A and B (D) B
99. Which of the following descriptions does not ap- 99.

ply to brown algae
(A) Dominant pigment is fucoxanthin (A)
(B) Stores carbohydrates as mannitol (B)
(C) Nearly all are brackish water forms (C)

(D) Body is filamentous or thalloid (D)
100. Laminarin is the stored food of brown algae, this 100.
food is stored as :
(A) Fat + alcohol

(A)
(B) Complex carbohydrate + fat
(B)
(C) Only complex carbohydrate
(C)
(D) Only simple protein
(D)
NLI / 20
101. Go through the following statements 101.
(i) Starch containing bodies called pyrenoids are (i)
found in the nucleus of the green algae
(ii) Green algae have a rigid cell wall made of (ii)
an inner layer of cellulose and an outer layer
of pectose
(iii)
(iii) Asexual reproduction in most brown algae is
by zoospores that have two unequal laterally
attached flagella (iv)
(iv) In Bryophytes, female sex organ called
archegonium is flask-shaped and produces a
single egg
(A) i, ii iii
Which of these are correct
(B) ii iii
(A) i, ii & iii
(C) ii, iii iv
(B) ii & iii
(D)
(C) ii, iii & iv
(D) All are correct 102.
102. In which of the following groups all the organ-
isms contain chlorophyll 'c' (A)
(A) Cedrus, Chondrus, Volvox, Chlorella (B)
(B) Macrocystis, Spirogyra, Polysiphonia, Chara (C)
(C) Chlamydomonas, Dictyota, Ulothrix, Gelidium
(D)
(D) Dictyota, Fucus, Sargassum, Laminaria
103.
103. Floridean starch is the stored food in
a. b.
a. Fucus b. Volvox
c. d.
c. Chara d. Polysiphonia
(A) a, d
(A) a, d
(B) c, b
(B) c, b
(C) d
(C) d
(D) a, b
(D) a, b
104.
104. Which of the following algal groups has no motile
stage
(A) Brown algae (A)
(B) Green algae (B)
(C) Phaeophyceae (C)
(D) Rhodophyceae (D)
105. Bryophytes have 105.
(A) Archegonia (A)
(B) Thalloid haploid body (B)
(C) Dominant gametophytic and parasitic sporophytic (C)

phase
(D) All of the above (D)
NLI / 21
106. Read the following statements regarding 106.
Marchantia
a.
a. Is unisexual
b.
b. Has antheridiophore and archegoniophore
c.
c. Foot and seta in its sporophyte absent
d.
d. Is heterosporous in nature
Which of these statements are correct

(A) a b
(A) a and b
(B) c d
(B) c and d
(C) a, b c
(C) a, b and c
(D) b c
(D) b and c
107. In liverworts asexual reproduction takes place 107.
by the formation of specialized structures called

(A)
(A) Gemmae
(B)
(B) Sporangia
(C) Zoospores (C)
(D) Both A and B (D) B
108. Which one of the following is not the Pteridophyte 108.
(A) Selaginella (A)
(B) Equisetum (B)

(C)
(C) Salvinia
(D)
(D) Polytrichum
109.
109. The tallest tree species of the gymnosperms is
(A)
(A) Eucalyptus
(B)
(B) Pinus
(C)
(C) Cedrus
(D)
(D) Sequoia
110.
110. Read the following statements
i.
i. In phaeophyceae flagella are 2 - 8 in number,
equal in size and apical in position
ii. In chlorophyceae the flagella are eight in ii.

number, unequal in size and lateral in position
iii. The leaves in pteridophyta are microphylls as iii.
in Selaginella or macrophylls as in ferns
Which of these are correct
(A) i, ii & iii (B) ii & iii (A) i, ii iii (B) ii iii
(C) Only iii (D) i & iii (C) iii (D) i iii
NLI / 22
111. Artificial system of classification was unacceptable 111.
later because :
(A) It seperated the closely related species
(A)
(B) It gave equal weightage to vegetative and sexual
(B)
characteristics
(C) It was based on few characters (C)
(D) All of these. (D)
112. Natural classification system took under 112.

consideration which features :
(A) Only External features, anatomy, embryology (A)

(B) Only Morphology, embryology, phytochemistry
(B)
(C) Ultra structure, anatomy, em bryology,
(C)
phytochemistry
(D)
(D) External features, ultra structure, anatomy,
embryology, but not phytochemistry.
113. At present which classification system is 113.
acceptable:
(A)
(A) Artificial system
(B)
(B) Natural classification systems
(C)
(C) Phylogenetic classification systems
(D)
(D) None of these.
114.
114. Cytotaxonomy is based on cytological information
such as :
(A) Chromosome number (A)
(B) Chromosome structure (B)

(C) Chromosome behaviour (C)
(D) All of these.
(D)
115. Oogamous type of sexual reproduction takes place
115.
in which algae :
(A) Spirogyra, chlamydomonas (A)
(B) Volvox, spirogyra (B)
(C) Fucus, chlamydomonas (C)
(D) Volvox, fucus (D)

116. Which of the following are the examples of brown 116.
algae:
(A)
(A) Laminaria, porphyra, fucus, dictyota
(B)
(B) Laminaria, polysiphonia, fucus, porphyra
(C)
(C) Laminaria, fucus, dictyota
(D) Laminaria, porphyra, polysiphonia (D)
NLI / 23
117. Hydrocolloids are produced by : 117.
(A) Fresh water green and red algae (A)
(B) Marine water green and red algae (B)
(C) Marine water brown and red algae (C)
(D) Fresh water brown and red algae. (D)
118. Space travellers used following as food 118.

supplements :
(A) Spirullina and chara (A)
(B) Chara and volvox (B)
(C) Volvox and fucus (C)

(D)
(D) Spirullina and chlorella
119.
119. Which of the following is correctly matched:
Classes Major pigments
(a) Chlorophyceae (i) Chlorophyll a, d (a) (i) a, d
(b) Phaeophyceae (ii) Chlorophyll a, b (b) (ii) a, b
(c) Rhodophyceae (iii) Chlorophyll a, c, (c) (iii) a, c,
(A) a-ii, b-iii, c-i (B) a-ii, b-i, c-iii (A) a-ii, b-iii, c-i (B) a-ii, b-i, c-iii
(C) a-i, b-ii, c-iii (D) a-iii, b-ii, c-i (C) a-i, b-ii, c-iii (D) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
120. The photosynthetic organ in brown algae is: 120.
(A) Holdfast (B) Stipe (A) (B)
(C) Frond (D) Gamete. (C) (D)
121. In red-algae there is predominance of : 121.
(A) Phycoerythrin (B) Fucoxanthin (A) (B)

(C) Xanthophyll (D) All of these (C) (D)
122. Bryophytes are called amphibians of the plant 122.
kingdom because :
(A) These plants can survive only in water (A)

(B) These plants are mainly aquatic but depend on (B)
soil for seed dispersal
(C) These plants can live in soil but are dependent on

(C)
water for sexual reproduction
(D) These plants can live in soil but are dependent on

(D)
water for vegetative reproduction.
123. In bryophytes, thallus is attached to substratum

123.
with the help of :
(A) True roots (B) Hold fast

(A) (B)
(C) Rhizome (D) Rhizoids.
(C) (D)
NLI / 24
124. Which of the following is incorrect: 124.
(A) Bryophytes are of little economic importance (A)
(B) In bryophytes sporophyte is not free living (B)
(C) The main plant body of bryophyte is haploid (C)
(D) The male sex organ is unicellular in bryophytes. (D)
125. Gemmae are specialised structures meant for : 125.
(A) Sexual reproduction (A)
(B) Asexual and sexual both (B)
(C) Asexual reproduction (C)
(D) None of these. (D)
126. The leafy stages in mosses develop from : 126.
(A) Diploid spore (A)
(B) Secondary protonema (B)
(C) Haploid spore (C)
(D) Capsule (D)
127. The first plant to posses vascular tissue : 127.
(A) Polytrichum (A)
(B) Chara (B)

(C) Liverworts (C)
(D) Selaginella (D)
128. Which is incorrect : 128.
(A) Algae such as volvox represent haplontic life cycle (A)
(B) Male gamete fuses with dipoloid secondary
(B)
nucleus to produce triploid primary endosperm
nucleus
(C)
(C) Equisetum belong to class psilopsida
(D) Sequoia is giant redwood tree (D)
129. Match the following : 129.
Column I Column II I II
a. Chlamydomonas i. Filamentous a. i.
algae
b. ii.
b. Volvox ii. Unicellular algae
c. iii.
c. Ulothrix and iii. Colonial algae
Spirogyra
(A) a-iii, b-i, c-ii (B) a-ii, b-iii, c-i
(A) aiii, bi, cii (B) aii, biii, ci
(C) a-iii, b-ii, c-i (D) a-i, b-ii, c-iii
(C) aiii, bii, ci (D) ai, bii, ciii
NLI / 25
130. In Phaeophyceae, the cellulose wall of vegetative 130.
cells usually covered on outside by a gelatinous
coating of :
(A)
(A) Algin
(B)
(B) Laminarin
(C)
(C) Fucoxanthin
(D)
(D) Carrageen.
131.
131. Leafy stage of gametophyte of moss is attached to
soil through :
(A)
(A) Unicellular and unbranched rhizoids
(B) Unicellular and branched rhizoids (B)
(C) Multicellular and unbranched rhizoids (C)
(D) Multicellular and branched rhizoids (D)
132. Pyrenoids contain : 132.
(A) Protein (A)
(B) Starch (B)

(C) Protein + starch (C)
(D) Oil droplets (D)
133. Refer to the given figure and select the correct
133.
option:
A B C A B C
(A) Stipe Holdfast Frond (A)
(B) Frond Stipe Holdfast (B)

(C) Holdfast Frond Stipe (C)
(D) Stipe Frond Holdfast (D)
NLI / 26
134. Which among the following is correct for 134.
Eucalyptus:
(A)
(A) Height over 100m
(B)
(B) Seeds are not enclosed by fruits
(C)
(C) Specialised structure such as antheridium are
present (D)
(D) Double fertilization does not occurs. 135.
135. Which is incorrect :
(A)
(A) Asexual reproduction in liverwort take place by
(B)
gemma
(B) Mosses have an elaborate mechanism of spore (C)
dispersal
(C) Pteridophytes are used for medicine purpose and (D)

as a soil binders
(D) Only selaginella is heterosporus but Salvinia is a

136.
homosporous
(A)
136. Which of the following is correct
(B)
(A) The stems are branched in cycas
(B) Coralloid roots are associated with N2-fixing algae (C)
(C) The gymnosperms are homosporous (D)
(D) None of these 137.

137. Strobili are present in (A)
(A) Sphagnum
(B)
(B) Selaginella
(C)
(C) Equisetum
(D) B C
(D) Both B & C
138.
138. Water holding substances are produced by
(A) Brown algae (A)
(B) Red algae (B)
(C) Green algae (C)

(D) Both A & B B
139. Which of the following is correctly matched
139.
(A) Green algae – Volvox, chara
(A)
(B) Brown algae – Laminaria, Dictyota
(B)
(C) Red algae – Porphyra,
(C)
Polysiphonia
(D) All of these (D)
NLI / 27
140. Which is not true about bryophytes 140.
(A) Predominant stage of the life cycle of a mass is (A)
the gametophyte
(B)
(B) Vegetative reproduction in masses is by
fragmentation and budding (C)
(C) Zygotes undergo reduction division immediately C

(D) Both A & C 141.
141. Which of the following is not correctly matched (A)
(A) Diplontic life cycle – All seed bearing plants
(B)
(B) Haplo-diplontic life – Bryophytes &
cycle Pteridophytes (C)
(C) Haplontic life cycle – Volvox, spirogyra (D)
(D) None of these
142. Match the following correctly :
142.
(a) Psilopsida (i) Selaginella
(a) (i)
(b) Lycopsida (ii) Equisetum
(b) (ii)
(c) Sphenopsida (iii) Psilotum
(c) (iii)
(d) Pteropsida (iv) Adiantum
(d) (iv)
(A) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(A) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(B) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(B) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(C) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
(C) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
(D) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
(D) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
143. Algal genera which are haplo-diplontic :
143.
(A) Ectocarpus, Fucus, Chlamydomonas, Kelps
(A)
(B) Fucus, Spirogyra, Ectocarpus, Polysiphonia
(B)
(C) Ectocarpus, Polysiphonia, Volvox, Fucus
(C)
(D) Ectocarpus, Polysiphonia, Kelps
(D)
144. In bryophytes sporophyte is : 144.
(A) Independent of gametophyte (A)
(B) Dependent on gametophyte only for anchorage (B)
(C) Totally or partially dependent on the gametophyte (C)
for its anchorage and nutrition
(D) Dependent on gametophyte only for nutrition (D)
145. Sporophytic generation is represented only by 145.

one - celled zygote. There are no free living
sporophytes in which type of life cycle:
(A) Diplontic (B) Haplodiplontic (A) (B)
(C) Haplontic (D) A and B both (C) (D) A B

NLI / 28
146. Coralloid roots are associated with : 146.
(A) N2 fixing cyanobacteria (A)
(B) Fungus (B)

(C) N2 fixing bacteria (C)
(D) Pinus (D)
147. Which of the following statement is correct: 147.
(A) In gymnosperms the male and female gameto- (A)
phytes have an independent free-living existence
(B) In gymnosperms the male gametophyte has an (B)

independent life where as female gametophyte is
dependent
(C)
(C) In gymnosperms the male & female gametophyte
don't have an independent free living existence (D)
(D) All of these
148. Members of pteropsida are : 148.
(A) Selaginella, Equisetum, Pteris (A)
(B) Selaginella, Dryopteris, Pteris (B)
(C) Dryopteris, Pteris, Adiantum (C)
(D) Dryopteris, Pteris, Psilotum (D)
149. Evolutionarily, the first terrestrial plant to possess 149.

vascular tissues – xylem and phloem :
(A) Ginkgo (B) Horsetails (A) (B)
(C) Polytrichum (D) Liverworts
(C) (D)
150. The predominant stage of life cycle is the
150.
gametophyte which consists of protonema and
leafy stage in :
(A) Sphagnum (B) Adiantum (A) (B)
(C) Psilotum (D) Ectocarpus (C) (D)
151. Which group does not produce embryo: 151.
(A) Algae (a)
(B) Moss (b)
(C) Liverworts (c)
(D) Club moss (d)

152. Which group of plants does not conduct water 152.
and minerals by xylem tissue?
(A) Algae (B) Moss

(a) (b)
(C) Liverworts (D) All of the above
(c) (d)
NLI / 29
153. The megaspore mother cell in gymnosperms is 153.
differentiated from:
(A) Integument (A)
(B) Embryosac (B)
(C) Nucellus (C)
(D) Endosperm (D)
154. Select the option that correctly identifies A and B 154. A B

in the given figure.
A B A B
(A) Sporophyte Gametophyte
(A)
(B) Gametophyte Sporophyte
(B)
(C) Male shoot Female shoot
(C)
(D) Female shoot Male shoot
155. The gametes of laminaria are : (D)
(A) Pyriform and bear 2 apical flagella 155.
(B) Pear shaped and bear 2 apical flagella (A)
(C) Pyriform and bear 2 lateral flagella (B)
(D) Round and bear 1 apical flagella (C)

156. Kelps which form massive plant bodies are: (D)
(A) Fresh water forms
156.
(B) Marine forms
(A) (B)
(C) Terrestrial forms
(C) (D)
(D) Brackish water forms
157.
157. Multicellular and branched rhizoids found in
(A) (B)
(A) Sphagnum (B) Volvox
(C) Chlamydomonas (D) Both B and C (C) (D) B C
NLI / 30
158. In which male cones and megasporophylls are 158.
born on different trees
(A)
(A) Cycas
(B)
(B) Pinus
(C)
(C) Salvinia
(D) Both B and C (D) B C
159. Which is almost microscopic angiosperm 159.
(A) Wolfia (A)
(B) Digineria (B)
(C) Spirodela (C)
(D) Calotropis (D)
160. Diplontic life cycles found in 160.
(A) Gymnosperms (A)
(B) Angiosperms (B)
(C) Fucus (C)
(D) All of these (D)
161. At least a half of the total CO2 fixation on Earth is 161

carried out through photosynthesis by
(A) angiosperms (A)

(B) gymnosperms (B)
(C) algae (C)
(D) bryophytes (D)

162. Refer to the given figure showing life cycle patterns
162.
and identify them:
A B A B
(A) Diplontic Haplontic (A)
(B) Haplontic Diplontic (B)
(C) Haplo-diplontic Haplontic (C)
(D) Haplo-diplontic Diplontic (D)
NLI / 31
163. Most reduced gametophyte generation is found in: 163.
(A) Bryophyta (A)
(B) Pteridophyta (B)

(C) Gymnosperms (C)
(D) Angiosperms (D)
164. In gymnosperms the megaspore forms: 164.
(A) Endosperm (A)

(B) Female gamete (B)
(C) Male gamete (C)
(D) Male cone
(D)
165. Which structure is similar to amylopectin and gly-
165.
cogen
(A) Floridean starch

(A)
(B) Algin
(B)
(C) Carrageen
(C)
166. Which are the first organisms to colonise rocks 166.
(A) Mosses (A)
(B) Sargassum (B)
(C) Marchantia (C)
167. What is the habitat of rhodophycean algae : 167.
(A)
(A) Fresh water and salt water only
(B)
(B) Salt water (rare)
(C)
(C) Fresh water (some), brackish water, salt water
(most)
(D)
(D) Fresh water (most), brackish water, salt water (some)
168. A motile flagellate asexual spore is known as: 168.
(A) Zygote (A)
(B) Zygospore (B)
(C)
(C) Tetraspore
(D)
(D) Zoospore
NLI / 32
169. Air bladders are present in : 169.
(A) Chara (A)
(B) Chlamydomonas (B)
(C) Fucus (C)
(D) Spirogyra. (D)
170. Select the correct option in the following : 170.
(A) Dictyota and Polysiphonia – Red algae (A)
(B) Fucus and Laminaria – Red algae (B)
(C) Chara and volvox – Green algae (C)
(D)
(D) Chara and Porphyra – Brown algae.
171.
171. Match the following groups :
I II
Group I Group II
(a) Algae i- Sphagnum (a) i-
(b) Liverwort ii- Selaginella (b) ii-
(c) Moss iii- Sequoia (c) iii-

(d) Pteridophyte iv- Porphyra (d) iv-
(e) Gymnosperm v- Marchantia (e) v-
(A) a-iv, b-v, c-i, d-ii, e-iii (B) a-v, b-iv, c-i, d-ii, e-iii (A) a-iv, b-v, c-i, d-ii, e-iii (B) a-v, b-iv, c-i, d-ii, e-iii
(C) a-i, b-v, c-ii, d-iii, e-iv (D) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-v, e-ii (C) a-i, b-v, c-ii, d-iii, e-iv (D) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-v, e-ii
172. What are A and B here : 172. A B
(A) Fucus and Laminaria (A)

(B) Laminaria and Chlorella (B)
(C) Laminaria and Fucus (C)
(D) Polysiphonia and porphyra (D)
NLI / 33
173. Varying shades of olive green to various shades 173.
of brown are found in members of Sargassum
depending upon the amount of the :
(A) a, b
(A) Chlorophyll a, b
(B)
(B) Xanthophyll pigment
(C)
(C) Phycoerythrin
(D)
(D) Phycocyanin
174.
174. In Gracilaria and Gelidium sexual reproduction
occurs by:
(A) Isogamy and anisogamy (A)
(B) Isogamy, anisogamy and oogamy (B)
(C) Oogamy only (C)
(D) Anisogamy and oogamy. (D)

175. Which of the following alga has chlorophy-ll a 175. 'a' 'd'
and d :
(A) Ectocarpus
(A)
(B) Porphyra
(B)
(C) Chlorella
(C)
(D) All
(D)
176. Pyrenoids are found in which cell organelle of
algae: 176.
(A) Mitochondira (A)
(B) Ribosomes (B)
(C) Chloroplasts (C)
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum (D)

177. The red thalli of most of the red algae are : 177.
(A) Multicellular (A)
(B) Unicellular
(B)
(C) Acelllular body organisation
(C)
(D) Both (A) and (C)
C
178. Members of Rhodophyceae occur in :
178.
(A) Well lighted regions close to surface of water
(A)
(B) At greater depths in oceans where relatively little
light penetrates (B)
(C) Both A and B B
(D) Primarily found in fresh water (D)
NLI / 34
179. Give the name of the plant whose figure has been 179.
given here :
(A)
(A) Moss
(B)
(B) Liverwort
(C)
(C) Macrophyllous pteridophyte
(D)
(D) A heterosporous pteridophyte
180. Which of the following statements is true about 180.
bryophytes : (A)
(A) Bryophytes usually occur in damp, humid and
shaded localities. (B)
(B) Bryophytes play an important role in plant
succession on bare rocks/soil (C)
(C) Bryophytes are more differentiated than algae
(D)
(D) All of these
NLI / 35
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All India Chapter Wise Revision Test-2/[Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / CRT / 04-Jan-2021

[All India Chapter Wise Revision Test]

Please read the instructions carefully :

11. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

Correction Paper code, Roll No. Test Centre 2

e-mail : feedback@newlightinstitute.in, Visit us : www.newlightinstitute.com

TOPIC : Motion in a straight Line, Vector

(A) 2 sec (A) 2

(B) 4 sec (B) 4

(C) 20 sec (C) 20

(D) 12 sec (D) 12

(D) None of the above is true (D)

(C) 4m and 1m (C) 4m and 1m

(D) 8m and 2m (D) 8m and 2m

(A) Displacment (A)

(B) Distance (B)

(C) Velocity (C)

(D) Change in velocity (D)

7. The initial velocity of a body moving along a 7. 7 m/s

of 4 m/s2. The distance covered by the body in the

(A) displacement d dis tan ce | d

(D) 20 m below from the top of the tower (D)

what time do the cars have the same velocity :

(A) 2R (B) 2SR (A) 2R (B) 2SR

(C) 7SR (D) Zero. (C) 7SR (D)

13. A balloon is rising vertically up with a velocity of 13. 29

(C) 180 m (C) 180 m

(D) 325 m (D) 325 m

14. A car travelling at a speed of 30 km/h is brought 14. 30 km/h

(C) 2, 4 only (D) All (C) 2, 4 (D)

17. A point P is consider at contact point of a wheel 17. P

(b) Equal to AB (b) AB

(c) Less than AB (c) AB

(d) Equal to zero (d)

(C) a,c,d (D) a,b,d (C) a,c,d (D) a,b,d

(A) 190 J (B) 160 J (A) 190 J (B) 160 J

(C) 150 J (D) 20 J (C) 150 J (D) 20 J

30. The modulus of the vector product of two vectors 30.

(A) 10.29 (A) 10.29

(B) 12.99 (B) 12.99

(C) 13.99 (C) 13.99

(D) 15.99 (D) 15.99

(A) 15o (A) 15o

(B) 20o (B) 20o

(C) 36o (C) 36o

(D) 60o (D) 60o

(A) 30o (A) 30o

(B) 45o (B) 45o

(C) 60o (C) 60o

(D) 90o (D) 90o

(B) b and c (B) b c

(C) a, b and c (C) a, b c

(D) b, c and d. (D) b, c d.

40. Figure shows the orientation of two vectors u and 40. xy u v

(A) a and p are positive while b and q are negative (A) a p b q

(B) a, p and b are positive while q is negative (B) a, p b q

(C) a, q and b are positive while p is negative (C) a, q b p

(D) a, b, p and q all positive. (D) a, b, p q

(A) 2iˆ  3 ˆj  5kˆ

TOPIC : Structure of Atom

(A) 32, 2 (B) 16, 9 (A) 32, 2 (B) 16, 9

(C) 32, 9 (D) 16, 2 (C) 32, 9 (D) 16, 2

49. Total spin resulting from a d8 configuration is : 49. d8

(A) 2iˆ 3 ˆj 5kˆ